NAT PRACTICE TEST

General Mathematics

1. Joshua currently lives in Surigao City, but he begins a new job in Butuan City. Every Monday, he drives his new
car 123 kilometers from his residence to the office and spends the week in a company apartment. He drives back home
every Friday. After 4 weeks of this routinary activity, his car’s odometer shows that he has travelled 1134 kilometers
since he bought the car. Write a linear model which gives the distance y covered by the car as a function of x number
of weeks since he used the car. y = 246x + 150
2. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 8, evaluate f (2). 10
3. Given f(x) = 2x 2 - 5x – 8 and g(x) = 10 x + 7. Find (f + g) (x). 2 x 2 + 5 x + 15
4. Three kilos of squid can be purchased at the market for PhP 180. What will be the cost of 15 kilos of squid? Php
900

5.Which of the following is a rational function? D

6. Solve for x: 2 − 3 = 1
𝑥 2𝑥 5
2.5
𝑥
7. Find the domain of (𝑥) = .
𝑥(𝑥−3)
A. 𝐷 = {𝑥 │𝑥 ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 ≠ 3} C. 𝐷 = {𝑥 │𝑥 ≠ 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 ≠ −3}
B. 𝐷 = {𝑥 │𝑥 ≠ 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 ≠ −1} D. 𝐷 = {𝑥 │𝑥 ≠ −1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 ≠ 1}

8. Which of the following functions does NOT have a horizontal asymptote?

A. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥−5 B. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2
2−25 C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 21 D. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2
−11𝑥+24
𝑥+15 𝑥 −9 𝑥 +2𝑥−15 2𝑥−5

9. The amount (in percent) of a drug in a person’s bloodstream h hours after its injection can be approximated using
the functional rule 𝐴(ℎ) = . Find the approximate amount of a drug
in a person’s bloodstream after its injection past 3 hours.
A. 24% B. 37% C. 52% D. 71%

10. Which of the following is an example of a one-to-one function?

A. Books to authors C. SIM cards to cell phone number
B. Learners to teachers D. True or False questions to answers

11. Find the inverse of 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 4.

A. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 − 4 C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 4 B. 𝑓−1(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 4
D. 𝑓−1(𝑥) = 𝑥 − 4

12.The graph of 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 + 1 is shown below. C

Which of the following is the graph of its inverse?

A.
C.

B.
D.

13. What is the domain of the inverse of 𝐴 = {(−4,3), (2, −4), (3,1), 0,2)} ?
A. {3, 4, 2} B. {−4, 2, 3, 0} C. {3, −4, 1, 2} D. {3, 4, 2, 0}

14. Engineers have determined that the maximum force t in tons that a particular bridge can carry is related to the
distance d in meters between its supports by the function (𝑑) = (12 .5 3
) .
𝑑
Construct an inverse function to determine the result.
A. 𝑑 B.
.5 3
) C. 𝑡
D.
15. Which of the following is NOT an exponential function?
𝑡(𝑑) = (12 .5 3
)
A. 𝑦 = 𝑒𝑥 B. 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥3 C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 22(5𝑥+1) = 500

16. What is the value of x in the equation 4𝑥−1 = 16.

A. 1 B. 3 C. 8 D.16

𝑡𝑑

17. Which of the following is the graph of the exponential function 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 ? A
18.What is the domain of the exponential function represented by the graph at the right?

A. {𝑥 │𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 } C. {𝑥 │𝑥 ∈ 𝑅, 𝑥 ≤ 0 } B. {𝑥 │𝑥 ∈ 𝑅, 𝑥 < 0 } D. {𝑥 │𝑥 ∈ 𝑅, 𝑥 ≥ 0

19. Relate the graph of 𝑦 = 2𝑥+4 + 1 to the graph of 𝑦 = 2𝑥. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The graph is increasing. C. The graph shifts to the left by 4 units.
B. The graph shifts up by 1 unit. D. The horizontal shift is 4 units to the right.

20. You took out a Php20,000 loan at a 5% interest rate. If the interest is compounded annually, give an exponential
model for the situation.
A. 𝐴 = 20000(0.05)𝑡 C. 𝐴 = 20000(𝑡)0.05 B. 𝐴 = 20000(1.05)𝑡 D. 𝐴 = 20000(𝑡)1.05

21. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?

A. 2 = 𝑦 B. 𝑙𝑛 𝑙𝑛 𝑥2 > (𝑙𝑛𝑥)2 C. 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥 D. 𝑓(𝑥) = 25

22. Find the value of x in (2𝑥) = 10 .

A. 4 B. 5 C. 20 D. 40

23. Which of the following is the graph of the logarithmic function 𝑦 = 𝑥 ?

D.
 24. What is the domain of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔 (𝑥)?
A. (0, +∞) B. (−∞, +∞) C. (−∞, 0) D. (−1, 1)

25. Which function does NOT have a graph with asymptote 𝑦 = 0?

A. 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑥 B. 𝑓(𝑥) = (0.25)𝑥+2 C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔6𝑥 D. 𝑓(𝑥) = 1
−2𝑥

1+𝑒
26. Suppose you deposit money in an investment account that pays 7% annual interest compounded continuously.
About how many years will it take for your initial deposit to double?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10
27.What is the difference between simple and compound interest? A. Simple yields
higher interest than compound interest.
B. Simple interest is always better than compound interest.
C. Simple interest has a shorter term than compound interest.
D. Simple interest is computed based on the principal while compound interest is computed based on
the principal and also on the accumulated past interests.

28. Juan borrowed from Pedro PhP 1,000 at an annual interest rate of 10%. After a year, Juan should pay PhP1,100.
However, Juan failed to pay. At the end of another year, Pedro asks for PhP 1200.00. What type of interest is
employed in the situation?
A. Complicated B. Compound C. Simple D. Structured

29. PhP 50,000 is borrowed for 9 months at an annual interest rate of 10%. In computing for the interest, what should be
the value of t?
A. 0.75 B. 1 C. 3 D. 9

30. PhP 10,000 was borrowed at 2% interest rate payable for 3 years. It yielded a total interest of PhP600.00. How much
is its future value?
A. PhP 10,200 B. PhP 10,600 C. PhP 11,800 D. PhP16,000

31. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to PhP 815 in 3 years and to PhP 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. PhP 650 B. PhP 690 C. PhP 698 D. PhP 700

32. Reese deposited PhP 7500 for two years into a money market account. At the end of two years, she had a total of PhP
8700. What rate of interest did she receive?
A. 6.5% B. 7% C. 7.5% D. 8%

33. What type of annuity is involved when the interest conversion or compounding period is equal or the same as the
payment interval?
A. Annuity certain B. Annuity uncertain C. Simple annuity D. General annuity

34. Suppose Mrs. Santos would like to save PhP3,000 every month in a fund that gives 9% compounded monthly. How
much is the amount or future value of her savings after 6 months?

A. PhP9,067.66 B. PhP12,135.67 C. PhP15,226.69 D. PhP18,340.89

For Items 35-36. Mr. Lopez paid PhP200,000 as down payment for a car. The remaining amount is to be settled by
paying PhP16,200 at the end of each month for 5 years.

35. If interest is 10.5%, what is the present value of this ordinary annuity?
A. PhP375,207.2 B. PhP537,270.2 C. PhP753,702.2 D. PhP775,320.2

36. How much is the cash value of the car?

 A. PhP575,207.2 B. PhP537,270.2 C. PhP953,702.2 D. PhP975,320.2

37. On his 40th birthday, Mr. Ramos decided to buy a pension plan for himself. This plan will allow him to claim
PhP10,000 quarterly for 5 years starting 3 months after his 60th birthday. What one-time payment should he make on
his 40th birthday to pay off this pension plan, if the interest rate is 8% compounded quarterly?
A. PhP33,538.38 B. PhP33,835.83 C. PhP38,335.38 D. PhP38,853.38

38.Which of the following statements illustrate a stock?

A. A form of debt financing, or raising money by borrowing from investors.
B. Investors are guaranteed interest payments and a return of their money at the maturity date.
C. A form of equity financing or raising money by allowing investors to be part owners of the
company.
D. It can be appropriate for retirees (because of the guaranteed fixed income) or for those who need the
money soon.

39. The theory of efficient markets says that stock prices already reflect all the available information about the stock.
This means that stock prices are 'accurate' - they already give a correct measure of the value of a stock precisely
because the prices are already based on all information and expectation about the stock. Which of the following
describes the strong form of the theory?
A. Information (public and private) are incorporated in the price.
B. Doing a fundamental analysis (gathering all public data) will not lead to systematic profits.
C. Stock prices already reflect all past market trading data and historical information only. Thus, knowing
past data will not give investors an edge.
D. Stock prices already reflect all publicly available data, including those involving the product,
management team, financial statement, competitors and industry.

40. ___________ loans are loans given to individuals for personal or family purpose.
A. Business B. Consumer C. Corporate D. Individual

41. Which of the following is NOT an example of a business loan?

A. Mr. and Mrs. Craig want to borrow money from the bank to finance the college education of their
son.
B. Roan has a computer shop. She owns 6 computers. She decided to borrow some money from the bank to
buy 10 more computers.
C. Mr. Agustin plans to have a barbershop. He wants to borrow some money from the bank in order for him
to buy the equipment and furniture for the barbershop.
D. Mr. Samson owns a siomai food cart business. He wants to put another food cart on a new mall in the
other city. He decided to have a loan to establish the new business.

42. Mr. Garcia borrowed PhP1,000,000 for the expansion of his business. The effective rate of interest is 7%. The
loan is to be repaid in full after one year. How much is to be paid after one year?
A. PhP1,007,000 B. PhP1,070,000 C. PhP1,700,000 D. PhP17,000,000

43. A person borrowed PhP1,200,000 for the purchase of a car. If his monthly payment is PhP31,000 on a 5-year
mortgage, find the total amount of interest.
A. PhP660,000 B. PhP1,200,000 C. PhP1,860,000 D. PhP1,231,000

44. Which of the following is NOT a proposition? A. Smile at your seatmate.

B. Jose Rizal is our national hero.
C. If an integer is even, then its square is also even.
D. Ferdinand Magellan did not arrive the Philippines in 1521.

45. The conjunction of a proposition is denoted by ___________.

 A. ~𝑝 B. 𝑝 ⋁𝑞 C. 𝑝⋀𝑞 D. p → q

46.Which of the following propositions is false?

A. If 2 > 0, then there are more than 100 million Filipinos.
B. If Daisy is in Grade 12, then she is working as a lawyer.
C. If 2 > 0, then there are only 5 languages spoken in the Philippines.
D. Daryl has a degree in Psychology if and only if she believes in love.

47. State the converse of the conditional: 𝑝 → 𝑞: “If Jose is in Grade 11, then she is a senior high school student.”
A. 𝑝 → 𝑞: “ If Jose is a senior high school student, then she is in Grade 11.”
B. 𝑞 → 𝑝: “ If Jose is a senior high school student, then she is in Grade 11.”
C. ∼ 𝑞 →∼ 𝑝: “ If Jose is not a senior high school student, then she is not in Grade 11.” D. ∼ 𝑝 →∼ 𝑞: “ If
Jose is not a senior high school student, then she is not in Grade 11.”

48. An argument in which the premises are true but the conclusion is false is called _________.
A. Fallacy B. Proposition C. Tautology D. Valid Argument

49. Which of the following arguments is valid?

I. Either Alvin sings or dances with Nina. Alvin sang with Nina.
Therefore, Alvin did not dance with Nina.

II. Either Alvin sings or dances with Nina.

Alvin did not dance with Nina.
Therefore, Alvin sang with Nina.

III. It is not true that Alvin sings and dances with Nina.
Alvin did not sing with Nina.
Therefore, Alvin danced with Nina.

A. II only B. I and III C. II and III D. D. I, II, and III

50. Which of the following statements is the correct “If and only if” form of: A binomial is a polynomial with exactly
two terms.
A. A binomial has exactly two terms if and only if it is a polynomial.
B. A binomial is a polynomial if and only if it has exactly two terms.
C. A polynomial has exactly two terms if and only if it is a binomial.
D. A polynomial is a binomial if and only if it has exactly two terms.

NATIONAL ACHIEVEMENT TEST

CONTEMPORARY PHILIPPINE ARTS FROM THE REGIONS (CPAR)
GRADE 11/12

1. It means current, now and present. Contemporary

2. Arts are for ritual purposes for everyday use. Spanish era
3. Art become a handmaiden of religion, serving to propagate the catholic faith and thus support the colonial order at
the same time. Spanish era
4. This principle of art represents a pattern in an art caused by the repetition of certain elements of art. Movement
5. Which of the following artworks is made during the Ethnic Tradition of Philippine Arts?
Manunggul Jar
Which of the following artworks is made during the Spanish Colonial Tradition of Philippine Arts?
St. Metropolitan Cathedral
Which of the following is NOT an example of performing arts?
Paintings

Which of the following is NOT an example of performing arts? Paintings

What is the kind of performing arts that often involves the integration and combination of the visual and
performing arts?
Theater
This element of art can be described as tint and shade.
Space

What do you call a tool for communication that conveys and expresses thoughts, emotions, or aspirations? Speaking
Which of the following are considered warm colors?
I. Violet II. Red-Orange III. Yellow-Green IV. Blue
I and II
This principle of art refers to the greater impact given to a certain element in a piece of
art. Rhythm
This element of art is used to define shape and form.
Value

This element of art implies distances or areas around, between or within components of an artwork.
Space

Height, width, and length are the dimensions implied of this element of art.
Space

Who among of the following is the first recipient of being a National Artist?

Jose Tanig Joya

This art can be categorized as poetry, prose, and drama.

Applied Art
Painting is an example of.
Performance Art

Which of the following refers to the materials used in an artwork?

Subject

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

Architecture

It is the type of art based on subject that attract straight through the senses.
Non-Objective Arts
Who creates the story line?
Choreographer
What is the acronym that stands for what an objective should be?
a. SMART b. ACE c. WISE d. GLOBE

2. What does the S in SMART stand for?

a. Significant b. Specific c. Special d. Sponsored

3. It is a performing art that is concerned almost exclusively with live performances which present a
significant sense of drama.
a. Theaterb. Film c. Dance d. Music

4. Which of the following is not an example of visual art?

a. Dance b. Sculpture c. Painting d. Architecture

5. Which of the following is the best part of the production that can help get the attention
of the target audiences?
a. Objectives c. Name of the production
b. Venue or Platform d. Target date of the Production
6. Ana is very excited about her performance in Physical Education. She is eager to get a high score but she
accidentally forgot the steps that’s why she managed to find a way by performing a unique style such as
breaking, locking, and popping. What do you call this dance she performed?
a. Jumping style c. Freestyle
b. Imagination Style d. Famous style

7. Which among the following sculptors is known for his abstract style and referred to as the “Father of
Modern Sculpture” in the Philippines?
a. Anastacio Caedo b. Guillermo Tolentino c. Mario Dayo d. Napoleon
Abueva

8. There are famous contemporary OPM singers in our country and we should be proud of them. As a citizen
of our country, what best advice can you give to our fellow
citizens so, we can develop patriotism?
a. They should acknowledge the efforts of our artists
b. They should give a round of applause for them
c. They should be thankful for their achievements
d. They should practice composing a song

9. Mr. and Mrs. Blanza are getting married next month, and they want to capture the special day of their lives.
That's why they hire a professional photographer who will be responsible for taking pictures of their
wedding. Which of the following contemporary visual arts belong to this kind of art?
a. Mixed Media Art b. Public Art c. Photographyd. Installation Art

10. In ancient times, dancing was a performing art that involved body movement in accord with the musical
beat, for some use it as an expression of thoughts and feelings, releasing energy or simply joining with the
beat of the music or into dance movement itself. Why do they need to perform dancing instead of singing?
a. It is only for fun c. It is for their gods and goddesses
b. It is for their community d. It is for entertainment

11. If a foreign art material for art is adapted, which of the following elements can be localized?
I. Setting II. Names III. Story IV. Characters
a. I, II & IV c. I, II & III
b. II, III & IV d. All of the Above
12. Based on the given examples in the discussion, which two Filipino values are evident in contemporary
artforms?
a. physical and spiritual c. social and spiritual
b. emotional and spiritual d. personal and spiritual

13. To acknowledge our GAMABA Award recipients, we must __________ the

Contemporary Philippines Arts from the Regions.
a. limit c. promote
b. share d. appreciate

14. “She once dreamt of establishing the art through teaching new would-be weavers.” How would you
characterize the artist in this line?
a. optimistic c. dreamer
b. generous d. visionary
15. Which of the following Republic Act known as the Manlilikha ng Bayan Act?
a. R.A. Act. 7355 c. R.A. Act. 7356
b. R.A. Act. 11190 d. R.A. Act. 10066

16. My partner and I took our places on stage and waited for the music to start. As the music begins, we step
forward and start moving our body in perfect sync to the beat of the music. What art form is seen in the
description?
a. Dance c. Literature
b. Music d. Painting

17. Contemporary artworks and styles are created, witnessed and experienced in our lifetime by artists and style
experts catering to _____.
a. Baby Boomers c. Millennials
b. Generation Z d. None of the above

18. Art materials that are usually bought from department stores and bookstores are called _____.
a. Indigenous art materials c. Non-traditional art materials
b. Ingenious art materials d. Traditional art materials

19. This plant often mistakenly identified as a tree, is a kind of grass, has myriads of uses and one of its
prominent uses is in creating art _____.
a. bamboo c. coconut
b. banana d. rattan

20. Local art materials can be classified as traditional and non-traditional.

Non-traditional art materials are materials that are usually or commonly used in creating art.
a. Both statements are FALSE.
b. Both statements are TRUE.
c. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE.
d. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.
21. It is very rich in style and in high technology with the use of advanced materials, such as tube structure and
the use of computer-aided design. Its style doesn’t have a recognizable feature for its style is quite varied
for it is from different influences but there is typical feature for a contemporary house and building such as
oversized windows and free shaped of frame. What is this?
a. Installation c. Architecture
b. Sculpture d. Mixed Media

22. These are artworks done from mixed materials, any materials including commercial garbage. Artist may use
their full freedom in choosing materials in a context to express views and opinion on issues around. What
art are these?
 a. Mixed Media c. Installation
b. Public d. Architecture

23. It is an art done live to convey message in a limited time. There maybe group of performers or just one to
perform on stage or on streets that shows on in acting, poetry, music, dance and painting to covey a
campaign.
a. Theatre c. Performance
b. Dance d. Music

24. Miss Saigon is very popular for this type. It is an art that requires actors and actresses to connect to the
audience to let them experience a real or imagined event through combination of gesture, speech, song,
music and dance, commonly done on stage and are scripted.
a. Theatrec. Performance
b. Dance d. Music

25. In ancient times, ancestors did this for their gods and goddesses. It is a performing art that involve body
movement in accord to the musical beat, for some use it as an expression of thoughts and feelings, releasing
energy or simply joining with the beat of music or into dance movement itself.
a. Music c. Dance
b. Theatre d. Performance

26. Millennials do it often even on the streets. It is a dance style that includes breaking, locking and popping. It
is something made just happened or “freestyle” or spontaneous performance.
a. Folk b. Disco c. Hip-hop d. Cheer

27. People can’t live without it nowadays and it is beyond words, it has the power to speak through people’s
mind, heart and soul. It can affect the mood, way of thinking and even character and disposition of people
listening to it.
a. Music b. Theatre c. Performanced. Dance

28. The art technique’s functional and sensible application for the creation of the conceived art work refers to
_____
a. accessibility c. availability
b. affordability d. practicality

29. You are planning to have a finger puppet show about the adventure of a kid. Which of the following is your
target audience that will enjoy the production.
a. Doctors b. Children c. Scientists d. Married Couple

30. Which of the following are included in the concept of production planning? I. Methods II. Materials III.
Machine IV. Manpower
a. I, and III c. II, and III
b. I, II, and IV d. I, II, III, and I

31. Which refers to the main concept of the production?

a. Machine c. Manpower
b. Materials d. Methods

32. You were a crew member in a musical play and your team was assigned to prepare the materials for the said
production, which of the following should your team prepare? a. Script, music, choreography
b. Stage, lighting, sound system
c. Objectives, procedure, target date of finish
d. Researchers, producers, choreographers

33. Contemporary Art is influenced by the artist’s personal context. Contemporary Art does not express artist’s
expression of his context. a. Both statements are FALSE.
 b. Both statements are TRUE.
c. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE.
d. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.

34. Contemporary Art is not prominent in the Philippines. Many contemporary Philippine artworks are admired
and respected.
a. Both statements are FALSE.
b. Both statements are TRUE.
c. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE.
d. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.

35. The decorative arts and crafts of contemporary times stem from the traditional indigenous crafts found
throughout the country. Which of the following best defines what decorative arts and crafts are?
a. Artworks that are appreciated through visual means
b. Artworks that are both beautiful and useful
c. Artworks that are created through choreographed body movements
d. Artworks that are created through new and exciting methods

36. Music has the power to speak through people’s minds, hearts, and souls, and people can’t live without it.
How does music affect the character and disposition of people? a. It can affect the mood and way of
thinking of people
b. It can change the life of a human
c. It is the way to interact with other people
d. It serves as their source of energy

37. Music has the power to speak through people’s minds, hearts, and souls, and people can’t live without it.
How does music affect the character and disposition of people? a. It can affect the mood and way of
thinking of people
b. It can change the life of a human
c. It is the way to interact with other people
d. It serves as their source of ener

ORAL COMMUNICATION IN CONTEXT

1. Which is NOT an element of the communication process?

A. Message B. Sender C. Technology D. Receiver
2. In the communication process, decoding takes place
A. by the sender C. when replying
 B. within the message D. by the receiver
3. An error or mistake in a document due to encoding is a sample of a barrier. A. True B. Maybe
C. False D. It doesn't tell
4. This is the process by which one exchanges ideas, facts, opinions, or emotions with another person.
A. Talking C. Communication
B. Reporting D. Conversation
5. This is the element of communication which refers to the one initiating the conversation.
A. Receiver C. Channel
B. Sender D. Context
6. This is the means or tool by which a message is transmitted.
A. Noise C. Channel
B. Context D. Sender
7. Johnny has a habit of ignoring the message of his mother. Which element is referring to Johnny's response to
the message?
A. Channel B. Participation C. Context D. Feedback
8. When we convert a message into actions, it is called__________
A. decoding B. encoding C. listening D. feedback loop
9. This is the response of the decoder once the message conveyed reaches him/her. This can be a frown, a smile,
or a verbal comment.
A. Message C. Noise
B. Medium D. Feedback
10. Communication skills are helpful in
A. teaching B. asking questions C. listening D. all of the above
11. Margie names four ingredients for Kyla to buy at the grocery store. Who is the sender of the message?
A. Kyla B. Margie C. grocery store D. ingredients
12. The School Principal gives his speech during the first School Recognition program. Who is the receiver of the
message?
A. recognition program C. Principal B. the parents D. the students
13. It is an example of an audience feedback?
A. Laughter C. Half-closed eyelids
B. Silence D. all of the above
14. . One function of communication is to exercise restraint or direction formally or informally.
A. Control C. Motivation
B. Social interaction D. Information dissemination
15. It is that type of talk that refers to the tactful use of power to get results and may be used to motivate people.
A. Straight Talk C. Light Control Talk
B. Heavy - Control Talk D. Search Talk
16. It is another nonthreatening approach when you want to gather data or the consensus of others to be able to
provide information.
A. Small Talk C. Light control Talk
B. Search Talk D. Heavy - Control Talk
17. This talk is designed to place blame and to control or regulate people. This creates defensiveness on the part
of the receiver and is rarely, if ever, appropriate.
A. Heavy – Control Talk C. Search Talk
B. Light Control Talk D. Small Talk
18. The city mayor presents her strategies to execute the plans in a public forum.
A. Emotional Expression C. Control B. Information dissemination D. Social
Interaction
19. The President delivers his State of the Nation Address.
 A. Emotional Expression C. Information dissemination
B. Control D. Social Interaction
20. James greets May; then, they start talking about their plans for the holidays.
A. Motivation C. Social Interaction
B. Information dissemination D. Control
21. Mona shares her personal frustrations with Chona.
A. Emotional Expression C. Control
B. Information dissemination D. Social Interaction
22. Which proponent of the communication model says that communication is linear?
A. Schramm Model C. Shannon-Weaver
B. Charles Osgood's Model D. Dance
23. This theorist refers transmission model of communication as that involves signal.
A. Shannon-Weaver C. Schramm
B. Charles Osgood's D. Dance
24. He showed communication as a dynamic or two-way process in which there is interactive relationship
between the source and the receiver of the message.
A. Osgood C. Shannon
B. Schramm D. Weaver
25. The following elements are added to the Transactional Model, EXCEPT:
A. nonverbal communication C. context
B. feedback D. meaning
26. Which of the following is NOT true of the Shannon Weaver Model of Communication? A. Message does not
consist of written and spoken words.
B. The model does not introduce the concept of noise.
C. It is a two-way process.
D. all of the above
27. The following are the main elements of Wilbur Schramm's simplified communication model (1954),
EXCEPT;
A. barrier C. channel
B. speaker / source D. receiver
28. Frank Dance introduced the Helical model under this model of communication.
A. Linear C. Transmission
B. Transactional D. Interactive
29. The characteristic of the communication model such as “communication evolves from the very first day until
the existing moment is high:”
A. Linear C. Transmission
B. Transactional D. Interactive
30. This Transactional Model that shows the development of communication on how the knowledge-base of a
person deepens and expands throughout life is introduced by:
A. Wilbur Schramm C. Frank Dance
B. Shannon-Weaver D. Wilbert Schindler
31. Which functions of communication was described in this situation:
Doctors’ Prescription
“Take your medicine 3 times a day.”
Parents’ Instruction to their child
“Wash the dishes now, or else I won’t allow you to go to the party later.”
Friends giving advice on what to do
“Move on. He doesn’t love you anymore” A. Control
B. Motivation
 C. Emotional expression
D. Information dissemination
32. Which functions of communication was described in this situation:
“Did you know that there’s a secret apartment at the top of the Eiffel tower?”
A. Social interaction
B. Motivation
C. Emotional expression
D. Information dissemination

33. Which functions of communication was described in this situation: “I’m so glad that you came into my
life.” “I like you so much!
“Are you false teeth? It’s because I can’t smile without you.”
Expressing one’s ambition
“I want to finish up my studies with good grades to be accepted in a good university.”
Expressing a need
“I need you in my life.”
Expressing prayers
“We pray for those who suffered a broken heart from their crush.”
A. Social interaction
B. Motivation
C. Emotional expression
D. Information dissemination
34. In the communication process, decoding takes place_________.
A. by the sender C. when dealing effectively with the element of noise
B. within the message D. by the receiver
35. In communication, negative motivation can lead into the following conditions, EXCEPT for:
A. social anxiety C. communication apprehension
B. feeling upset stomach D. public speaking anxiety
36. Communication anxiety happens when a person becomes fearful of communicating with another person or a
group. Signs of apprehension include
A. Uncomfortable feeling when speaking to a small group or people
B. Sweaty palms or feeling upset stomach also known as butterflies in the stomach
C. A person hesitates or avoids speaking in front of a large group or large audience
D. A person feels threatened and scared of what other people say or think about them
37. This is when a person hesitates or avoids speaking in front of a large group or large audience. This
communication anxiety refers to:
A. shyness C. social anxiety
B. public speaking D. context apprehension

38. Heavy- Control Talk is designed to place blame and to control or regulate people. Its purpose includes the
following, EXCEPT for:
A. to blame C. to attack B. to demand D. to center or an
issue
39. Which is NOT an element of the communication process?
A. Message C. Sender
B. Technology D. Receiver
40. Communication is
A. a process C. verbal only
B. form ONLY one to many D. transmission of information with passive recipients
41. These characteristics emphasize the lack of feedback in the Linear Model of Communication, EXCEPT:
A. It has one-way communication.
B. It is a simple communication act.
C. It values psychological more than social effects.
D. It focuses on persuasion rather than on mutual understanding.
42. When a communication is affected by the society, culture, situations, psychological or sociological events or
experiences of the sender and receiver, this element is known as:
A. Channel C. Feedback
B. Context D. Field of Experience
43. The linear model was the first kind of model that experts have made to understand the process of
communication. The following are the remarkable characteristics of the linear model, EXCEPT:
A. complex
B. unidirectional
C. persuasion not mutual understanding
D. values psychological over social effects
44. The Shannon-Weaver model (1949), also known as the transmission model and the mother of all
communication models is one best example of a one-way or linear process of communication consisting of
five elements which have been criticized for missing one element in the communication process, what is that
missing element?
A. Source C. Encoder
B. Decoder D. Feedback
45. Nonverbal cues impact the communication process in a variety of ways. Which one is not one of the
appropriate ways?
A. Eliciting C. Replacing
B. Confirming D. Contradicting
46. In which of the following situation is a verbal communication necessary?
A. Running to a track meet
B. Hurrying to your classroom
C. Listening to a radio program
D. Calling someone on the phone
47. The following are forms of non- verbal communication, EXCEPT:
A. clapping C. frowning
B. reciting in class D. hugging a friend

48. Nana Delia would like to ask Rico about an upcoming event on Monday. In the communication process,
Nana Delia is in the step of _____.
A. giving feedback
B. activating the stimulus
C. decoding the message
D. ending the conversation
49. Which of the following is NOT a channel?
A. Letter C. E-mail
B. Phone Call D. Environment
 50. Maria has a habit of ignoring the messages of her classmates. Which of the following elements is usually
missing from interactions with Maria?
A. Channel C. Context
B. Feedback D. Participation

ORAL COMMUNICATION IN CONTEXT

DIRECTIONS: Read each statement carefully. In the answer sheet blacken the letter with the BEST
answer.

1. The process of giving and receiving information between a human source and a human receiver using words,
symbols or actions is called__________.
A. process
B. transmission
C. communication
D. telecommunication

2. An element of communication that convey messages by converting their thoughts into symbols or observable
signal such as words.
A. Sender
B. Receiver
C. Channels
D. Messages

3. An element of communication which converts symbols into thoughts.

A. Conduit
B. Schema
C. Encoding
D. Decoding

4. They are observable signals transmitted from sender to receiver.

A. Verbal
B. Symbols
C. Nonverbal
D. Sign language

5. It refers to the field of experience where culture and experience work altogether.
A. Schema
B. Register
C. Feedback
D. Speech act

6. The symbol that usually comes in a form of spoken words or anything else out of the mouth of the speaker is
known as ____________.
A. Verbal
B. Nonverbal
C. Sign language
D. Printed symbols

7. An interruption at any form that reduces the quality of the signal sent by the sender through the channel. A. Noise
 B. Environment
C. Transmission
D. Communication breakdown

8. A type of communication which involves talking to people or limited number of people. A. Public
B. Intercultural
C. Interpersonal
D. Intrapersonal

9. This is the type of communication which undertakes deliberation because you are talking to people of different
culture.
A. cultural
B. Intercultural
C. Cross-cultural
D. Cultural speech

10. The type of communication in which the speaker is talking to “oneself”, meditating and encouraging in making
life’s choices.
A. Self-talk
B. Intrapersonal
C. interpersonal
D. Self-motivation

11. Known as the mother of all communication model which also depicts communication as a linear or one-way
process consisting of five elements.
A. Weaver’s Model
B. Shannon’s Model
C. Transaction Model
D. Shannon-Weaver Mode
Direction: Identify as to which element of communication model the following statements belongs to.

A. Producer of the message

B. Signals adapted for transmission
C. Encoder of the message into signals
D. Decoder of the message from the signal

12. receiver -D
13. channel -B
14. transmitter -C
15. source-A

16. Which of the following is NOT included in the process of communication? A. The receiver gets the message.
B. The speaker generates an idea.
C. The receiver transcribes the message based on the context.
D. The speaker encodes an idea or converts the idea into words or actions.

17. She tells him, “Rico, mahal kita bilang kaibigan.” What process of communication defines the statement?
A. The receiver gets the message.
B. The receiver sends or provides feedback.
C. The speaker transmits or sends out the message.
 D. The receiver decodes or interprets the message based on the context.
Direction. Determine the function of communication used in the statements below.

A. Motivation
B. Regulation/control
C. Social interaction
D. Information (inquiring, sharing, giving)

18. “Let me say that, whatever may happen, I am here for you”. C
19. “I need to understand how my bill was computed”. D
20. “Did you know that some earphones can be used as microphones?” D
21. “I will always be your friend”. C
22. “I want you to be happy”. A
23. “That’s not the right thing to do”. B
24. “You are all required to follow the house rules”. B

25. The actions that are done by just “saying them” is called _____________.
A. Spoken words
B. Speech acts
C. Speech style
D. Feedbacking

26. Which of the following is the act that implies the speaking part of the process?
A. Constative act
B. Illocutionary act
C. Locutionary act
D. Perlocutionary act

27. The part of the speech acts that are not done by just saying them, but in need of evidence of action. A. Declarative
B. Performative
C. Locutionary
D. Illocutionary

28. Which of these types of communication requires a lot of caution since it involves race, beliefs, customs, and
traditions?
A. Public
B. Intercultural
C. Intrapersonal
D. Interpersonal

29. A speech style that is characterized by a very formal style, not really intended to give a particular message, but to
allow the reader find meanings for oneself.
A. Casual
B. Formal
C. Frozen
D. Consultative
Direction. Read the statement below and identify the DMIS development stage of the given experience. Choose the
letter with the BEST answer.

A. denial
B. defense
C. integration
D. acceptance

30. “I can look at things from the perspective of various cultures.” B

31. “These people and I have different values and experiences, and I think we can learn from one another.” C
32. “Their ways are better than my own: I wish I were one of them.” D
33. “All cities are the same, they have tall buildings, fast food chains, and coffee shops.” A

34. An element of verbal communication in which the speaker will do well to repeat his or her utterances especially if
the content of the utterance is difficult to understand.
A. word rhythm
B. word pauses
C. proof reading
D. repetition rephrasing

35. The following are traits that define a competent intercultural communicator,
EXCEPT:

A. Politeness
B. Stereotype
C. Open-mindedness
D. Reflectiveness or mindfulness

36. In verbal communication, the use of language is depending on the formality of the communication setting,
participants, and topic also known as ___________.
A. Appropriate form of language
B. Appropriateness of the setting
C. Appropriateness of the occasion
D. Appropriateness of the audience

37. While delivering a message, in what manner the speaker shows his/her attitude toward the listener? A. Through
his/her tone
B. Through his/her mood
C. Through his/her rhythm
D. Through his/her loud/soft voice

38. In the process of delivering a speech, when is the time where the speaker allows the listener to process what
he/she said?
A. During pauses
B. During breathing
C. During end of the rhythms
D. During paragraph shifting’s

39. The element that implies on the importance of emphasis which can be achieved by both speaking loudly or softly
to emphasize a point.
A. Loudness and tone
 B. Softness and rhymes
C. Loudness and softness
D. Softness and vividness

40. In non-verbal communication, the lack of this element on the part of the speaker can mean several things and to
maintain it will give an impression of being serious.
A. Posture
B. Gesture
C. Eye contact
D. Facial expression

41. Whether in verbal or non-verbal communication, we use this element of space and distance to indicate the
closeness of the speaker to his/her listener, this refers to:
A. Premix
B. Promix
C. Proxemics
D. Proxemical

42. Non-verbal communication includes element that develops the physical aspect of the speaker, thus, this is
beneficial not only for health but also for relating others while speaking. This refers to:
A. Poise
B. Gesture
C. Posture
D. Body structure

43. The speaker’s message can be visualized through it and also helps the speaker express his/her point very well. It
refers to:
A. Body posture
B. Facial gestures
C. Facial expression
D. Hand and Body gestures

44. “You won’t understand if I explain; you’re too young.” What is the element being misrepresented by the bias or
insensitivity?
A. age
B. culture
C. religion
D. social status

45. Which of the following statements has the element of religion being misrepresented by the bias or insensitivity?
A. “Japanese people are rigid and stoic!’.
B. “Don’t buy those shades; only low-class people wear those.”
C. “Do not bother on things that only old people can understand.”
D. “Catholic and Protestants do have big differences, but we must respect each other’s beliefs.”

46. Which of the following statement uses nomination as communicative strategy?

A. “Now, it’s your turn to ask questions”.
B. “Go on with your ideas. I’ll let you finish first before I say something.”
C. “Have you heard the news about the latest achievement of our school?”
 D. “Excuse me? I think we should speak one at a time, so we can clearly understand what we want to say about
the issue.”

47. The president delivers his last State of the Nation address. What function of communication is used in the
situation?
A. Control
B. Motivation
C. Emotional expression
D. Information dissemination

48. The situations below are using the function of motivation in communication, EXCEPT:
A. Sheena delivers her valedictory address.
B. Phoebe share her insights on how to live peacefully despite a complicated life.
C. A successful entrepreneur with disabilities shares his challenges and struggles in life.
D. A tourist guide orients a group of tourists on safety measures and precautions in the heritage site.

49. Which of the following situation is NOT a consultative speech style?

A. Asking advice for a research paper
B. Talking to a counselor or psychiatrist
C. Consulting a doctor about your health issues
D. Having a one-on-one conversation with a loved one

50. Below are statements that explain intercultural communication. All of them are correct, but only one is accurate.
A. It pertains to communication among people from different nationalities.
B. It is the sending and receiving of messages across language and cultures.
C. It can flow smoothly and become very interesting for a cross-cultural group.
D. It happens when individuals interact, negotiate, and create meanings while bringing in their varied cultural
backgrounds.

ORAL COMMUNICATION IN CONTEXT

DIRECTIONS: Read each statement carefully. In the answer sheet, blacken the letter with the best
answer.

Test A. Which of the following term defines the given statement?

A. demography C. psychology
B. situation D. audience analysis

1. This refers to the time, venue, occasion, and size of the occasion. B
2. It includes values, beliefs, attitudes, preferences, cultural and racial ideologies, and needs of the audience. C
3. This composes the profile like age, range, male-female ratio, educational background and affiliation, or
degree program taken, nationality, economic status, academic or corporate designation. A
4. It entails looks into the profile of your target audience. D

Test B. What is the phrase/clause that completes the idea of the following statement? A. with amusement.
B. with amazing facts and concepts.
C. with clear understanding of the concept or idea presented by the speaker.
D. with well-argued ideas that can influence their own beliefs and decisions.
 5. An informative speech informs the audience____B___.
6. An entertainment speech entertains the audience_____A__.
7. A persuasive speech persuades the audience________. D

Test C. Find the writing pattern that defines the following statement.
A. Categorical/topical
B. Chronological
C. Comparison/contrast
D. Problem-solution

8. A writing pattern that presents and identified problem, its causes, and recommended solutions. D
9. A writing pattern that presents the idea in time order. B
10. A pattern that shows related categories supporting the topic. A
11. It is the representation of comparison and contrast of two or three points in writing. C

12. This refers to the writing pattern that shows cause-effects relationship in the development of the paragraph.
A. Causal
B. Sequence
C. biographical
D. problem and solution

13. The writing pattern that aims to develop a paragraph that includes descriptions of your life or of a person,
famous or not.
A. diary
B. journal
C. narrative
D. biographical

14. The following are some strategies to highlight your main idea, EXCEPT:
A. It shows statistics
B. It presents comparisons
C. The presence of real life or practical examples
D. Tell personal story to illustrate your point

15. The following are some strategies in creating your introduction, EXCEPT: A. Share ideas from experts or
practitioners.
B. Start with a familiar strong quote and then explain what it means.
C. Use practical examples and explain their connection to your subject.
D. Use a real-life experience and connect that experience to your subject.

16. Below are conclusion strategies, EXCEPT:

A. Begin your conclusion with a restatement of your message.
B. Use facts or statistics and highlight their importance to your subject.
C. Ask a question or series of question that can make your audience reflect or ponder.
D. Use positive examples, encouraging words, or memorable lines from songs or stories familiar to your
audience.

Test D. Evaluate the editing and revising patterns defined by the statements below.
A. Edit for concision C. Edit for variety
B. Edit for continuity D. Edit for impact

17. Make your speech memorable by using these strategies: surprise the audience, use vivid descriptive images,
write well-crafted and memorable lines, and use figures of speech. D
 18. Add spice to your speech by shifting tone and style from formal to conversational and vice-versa, moving
around the stage, or adding humor. C
19. Keep the flow of your presentation smooth by adding transition words and phrases. B
20. Keep your speech short, simple, and clear by eliminating unrelated stories and sentences and using simple
words. A
21. Make all ideas in your speech clear by arranging them in logical order. A. Editing and revision for order
B. Editing and revision for clarity
C. Editing and revision for narration
D. Editing and revision for organization of ideas

22. Ensure that everything you have written, from introduction to conclusion, is related to your central message.
A. Edit for focus
B. Edit for unity
C. Edit for cohesion
D. Edit for summary

23. The element which entails to the profile of the target audience which specifically refers to the time, venue,
occasion and size of the audience.
A. audience analysis C. demography
B. situation D. psychology

24. The stage of writing where you collect ideas, information, sources, and references relevant or related to your
topic.
A. Introduction C. Topic
B. Narrowing down the topic D. Data Gathering

25. The part of writing process that gives you an opportunity to identify what works and what does not work for
you and your target audience.
A. Editing/ revising C. Conclusion
B. Rehearsing D. Identifying the pattern

Test E. What type of speeches are defined below?

A. Impromptu speech C. Extemporaneous Speech
B. Manuscript speech D. Memorized Speech

26. It is speaking with advanced preparation, planned and rehearsed speech, and reciting a written message word
to word from memory. D
27. A planned and rehearsed speech by reading aloud a written message. B
28. Speaking without advanced preparation, unrehearsed speech and spoken conversationally. A
29. Speaking with limited preparation, guided by notes and outlines, delivered conversationally and the most
popular type. C

Test F. Distinguish the challenges that may occur in the following identified speaking environment.
A. Speaking in different venues
B. Speaking with a microphone
C. Speaking to a specific audience size
D. Speaking in an open-air venue or outside a building

30. A speaking environment which varies according to the size of the class, conference room, ballroom, social
hall, auditorium, covered court, and open court. A
 31. A speaking avenue that depends on the venue size, which leads into more intimate and personal for a smaller
size; and more formal for a larger size. C
32. The speaking engagement held in an open courts or grounds, football fields, and farms in which a speaker
will feel more relaxed due to the atmosphere of the venue. C
33. The only challenge of the speaker is the main function of the tool to increase the volume of the speakers’
voice, not to clarify the pronunciation and enunciation of words. B

34. The speaking environment where a lectern was used as a reading desk with stand a slanted top and works best
for extemporaneous and manuscripts speeches.
A. Speaking in a formal setting
B. Speaking with a podium or lectern
C. Speaking in an open-air grandstand
D. Speaking with a variety of audience

35. The following are tips of effective speech delivery, EXCEPT: A. Dress properly and appropriately.
B. Use conversational style more often.
C. Have a poker face or a highly animated face.
D. Pronounce and enunciate the words correctly.

36. Below are guidelines in speech writing, EXCEPT: A. Be sensitive to your audience.
B. Keep your words short and simple.
C. Use metaphors and other figure of speech to effectively convey your point.
D. Use jargons, acronyms, or technical words because they can confuse your audience.

Test G. Select the term that best describes the following statement.
A. manuscript speech C. informative speech
B. memorized speech D. persuasive speech

37. Your primary goal in delivering the speech is to influence the thoughts, feelings, actions, and behaviors or
attitudes of the listeners. D
38. A kind of speech which follows a word-for-word method, in which you might be tempted to skip practicing
the speech. B
39. These are speech about objects or people, speech about processes, speech about events, and speech about
concepts. C
40. It requires you to commit the speech to memory so that you don not bring your notes when delivering it. B

41. Below are some of the strategies that you can follow when you organize and deliver an impromptu speech,
EXCEPT:
A. Past, Present, Future
B. Opening, Rule of Three, Clincher
C. Introduction, Body, Reflection
D. Point-Reason-Example/Explanation-Point

42. Which of the following is NOT included in the steps of preparing an extemporaneous speech?
A. Attention-getter will only reinforce your introduction.
B. Make sure that each point has enough examples, testimonies, statistics, or cases.
C. State the central idea of your extemporaneous speech in one declarative sentence.
D. You may explore other main points, but always refer back to your thesis statement.

43. How to make your speech entertaining?

A. You may tell jokes; share funny stories; dramatize experiences; and recall a scary story.
B. You may tell jokes; share family stories; dramatize scary stories; and recall funny stories
 C. You may tell jokes; share love stories; dramatize friends experiences and recall down moments.
D. You may tell jokes; share old stories; dramatize seen movies; and recall embarrassing experiences.

Test H. Each outline below contains at least one unrelated idea. Read the sentences or ideas below the
“Supporting Ideas” section of the outlines, and decide which ones do not support the topic sentence. Identify the
letter that contains the unrelated ideas. These outlines are not complete; they do not contain clinchers.

44. Topic Sentence: My favorite food is pizza.

Supporting Ideas:
A. I love the crunchy crust and the melted mozzarella cheese.
B. The best thing I like to drink with it is a giant glass of soda.
C. It’s good either as a snack or as a main course.
D. My brother only likes pizza with anchovies and artichokes on it.

45. Topic Sentence: My most boring class is algebra. Supporting Ideas:

A. The work is too easy, and it doesn’t challenge me.
B. The teacher talks in a monotone that puts me to sleep.
C. Everything is in slow motion; attendance often takes up half the time.
D. The teacher always picks on me.

46. Topic Sentence: This classroom is a mess. Supporting Ideas:

A. In fact, the whole school is a mess.
B. dictionaries and papers on the floor 3. rows of desks out of order C. gum stuck on hall
lockers
D. I keep my locker clean!

47. Topic Sentence: Bowling is the perfect sport.

Supporting Ideas
A. It develops coordination.
B. I always make it a point to be a member of a bowling team.
C. Bowling helps exercise a large number of muscles.
D. It can be played indoors at any hour, during any type of weather

Test I. Read the statement or passage and then choose the best answer to the question.
Answer the question based on what is stated or implied in the statement or passage.
In the words of Thomas De Quincey, “It is notorious that the memory strengthens as you lay burdens upon it.”
If, like most people, you have trouble recalling the names of those you have just met, try this: The next time
you are introduced, plan to remember the names. Say to yourself, “I’ll listen carefully; I’ll repeat each
person’s name to be sure I’ve got it, and I will remember.” You’ll discover how effective this technique is and
probably recall those names for the rest of your life.

48. The quotation from De Quincey indicates that the memory

A. always operates at peak efficiency
B. breaks down under great strain
C. improves if it is used often
D. becomes unreliable if it tires

49. Unemployment was the overriding fact of life when Franklin D. Roosevelt became president of the United
States on March 4, 1933. At the time, the government did not systematically collect statistics of joblessness;
 actually, it did not start doing so until 1940. The Bureau of Labor Statistics later estimated that 12,830,000
persons were out of work in 1933, about one-fourth of a civilian labor force of more than 51 million.

Roosevelt signed the Federal Emergency Relief Act on May 12, 1933. The president selected Harry L.
Hopkins, who headed the New York relief program, to run FERA. A gifted administrator, Hopkins quickly put
the program into high gear. He gathered a small staff in Washington and brought the state relief organizations
into the FERA system. While the agency tried to provide all the necessities, food came first. City dwellers
usually got an allowance for fuel, and rent for one month was provided in case of eviction. This passage is
primarily about

A. methods of estimating unemployment rates in the 1930s

B. the effect of unemployment on United States families
C. President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s presidency
D. the creation of President Roosevelt’s FERA program

50. With varying success, many women around the world today struggle for equal rights. Historically, women
have achieved greater equality with men during periods of social adversity.
The following factors initiated the greatest number of improvements for women: violent revolution, world
war, and the rigors of pioneering in an undeveloped land. In all three cases, the essential element that
improved the status of women was a shortage of men, which required women to perform many of society’s
vital tasks. We can conclude from the information in this passage that

A. women today are highly successful in winning equal rights

B. only pioneer women have been considered equal to men
C. historically, women have only achieved equality through force
D. historically, the principle of equality alone has not been enough to secure women equal

NATG12 PRACTICE TEST IN READING AND WRITING SKILLS

_____1. A pattern of development is a specific strategy writers use in developing ideas. This serves
as a guide in the flow of your article.
A. writing pattern B. brainstorming C. story telling D. debate
_____2. This writing pattern shows the causes and effects of a phenomenon to other factors.
A. cause and effect B. definition C. story telling D. debate
_____3. When writing, mechanics must be considered to produce a quality work.
A. Plan B. sequences C. technicalities D. result
_____4. Transitional devices are words used to link one sentence to another.
A. add B. break C. connect D. change
_____5. Alfredo, the Wattpad writer of Siargao, effectively uses lexical ways when writing
paragraphs. The italicized word means __________.
A. vocabulary B. grammar C. punctuation D. figurative language
_____6. Clyza Jane, the Wattpad writer of Brgy. Pilaring, is confused with the sequence of her ideas
while writing her new story. What should be considered in her case?
A. cohesion B. paragraph C. coherence D. content
_____7. The following are cohesive devices except:
A. transitional devices B. pronouns C. synonyms D. nouns
_____8. Tayangban cave pool is a tourist attraction of Pilar where its pristine or natural view makes
people come again and again. What cohesive device is being applied on the sentence?
A. Transitional words B. pronoun C. sentence pattern D. synonym
_____9. The following are the characteristics of a good paragraph except:
A. unity B. cohesion C. sentence D. coherence
_____10. Constaline, the SK Chairman of Brgy. Jaboy, wants to explain her side on public road
widening. What type of paragraph is applicable to her situation?
A. descriptive B. narrative C. expository D. chronological
II. Understanding. Direction: Select the best answer that fits to each statement.
_____11. Mr. Culminas, the presidential candidate, reads his own speech that defines political
 dynasty. The writing pattern is _____________
A. essay B. emphatic C. definition D. compare and contrast
_____12. Alfredo wants to convince the people about his plans for the town. The appropriate writing
pattern to use is:
A. process B. persuasion C. cause & effect D. description
_____13. These are conventions that are considered in writing.
A. cohesion B. brainstorming C. coherence D. mechanics
_____14. Which of the following must be considered when the writer needs to know when to pause
and fully stop reading the text?
A. spelling B. paragraph C. cohesion D. punctuation
_____14.Critical thinking is the ability to think clearly and rationally. Which of the following does not
define the underlined word?
A. reasonable B. wise C. sound D. invalid
_____15. Which of the following is not one of the macro skills of communication?
A. thinking B. writing C. speaking D. visualizing
_____16. In coherence, a written work becomes coherent through the use of what
device/technique?
A. Prepositional phrase B. transitional devices C. adjective D. adverb

_____17. Mr. William E. Borja, Jr. writes his autobiography where in each sentence his name always
appears. What should he consider?
A. Pronoun B. noun C. interjection D. verb
_____18. The following are synonymous to the word arrangement except: _______
A. flow B. irregularity C. organization D. procedure

_____19. I got the chance to read your speech of hope for the people of India. It was indeed
cohesive!
A. intense B. broken C. perfect D. smooth
_____20. Every brown skin still endures the sad fate rooted in poverty. Every young and old
continuously bear the upshots of scarcity. The underlined word means:
A. Oversupply B. shortage C. equilibrium D. fair distribution
III. Applying. Directions: Select the letter that best corresponds/relates to the application being portrayed.
Write your answer on the space provided.

_____21. You are tasked to report about Siargao and Boracay. What would be your best strategy?
a. Use Spider Web to connect the problems encountered.
b. Use comparison-contrast essay to see their similarities and differences.
c. Use brainstorming in uniting ideas.
d. Use summarizing to get important ideas.
_____22. Which of the following does not follow appropriate use of graphic organizer?
a. Cherry writes the causes and effects of radiation through outlining.
b. Juniel compares and contrasts Millennials vs Robots through semantic map.
c. Rhean reports about the causes and effects of smoking through fishbone map.
d. John Michael makes use of creative shapes and lines in organizing facts for his report.
_____23. Which of the following scenarios portrays the use of reading appropriately?
a. Alfred writes a summary of a written text.
b. Gylejoe reads the text without understanding it.
c. Micah applies the steps in critical reading.
d. Justin watches A Walk to Remember instead of reading its book version.
_____24. How to lessen writing too many details in a written work?
a. Copy and paste works of others from the internet.
b. Use fragments instead of complete sentences.
c. Use precise vocabulary. Refrain from being too wordy.
d. Just continue writing regardless of its length.
_____25. Which of the following does not show clear manifestation of mechanics?
a. Anica always misspells the names of the important persons in her essays.
b. Eva makes use of subject-verb agreement properly.
c. Nissan is aware about the proper use of capitalization in writing names.
d. Myra is already particular with proper spelling of words.
_____26. Why should a written work apply mechanics?
 a. to make the output organized
b. to make use the output uses the right language
c. to produce an output that is cohesive
d. to produce an output that is free from errors
______27. Fake news is being spread widely to all sources of information. As a critical thinker, what
should you bear in mind?
a. Define a set of criteria for feedback.
b. Find new solutions.
c. Examine problems closely.
d. Reject information that is incorrect or irrelevant.

_____28. How should you respond to reading materials fairly?

a. Identify arguments and issues presented.
b. Seek for alternative views on a topic.
c. Base judgments on ideas and evidence.
d. Recognize errors in thought and persuasion as well as to recognize good arguments.
IV. Analyzing. Directions: Select the best answer that fits to each statement. Write A if the first statement is the
correct answer. Write B if the second statement is the correct answer. Write C if both of the statements are
correct. Write D if neither statement A nor statement B is the correct answer.
C 29. Aside from writing pattern, brainstorming is an effective tool in generating and producing
ideas from one to another.
a. It’s an initial step in preparation to writing effectively.
b. It’s a helpful tool in outlining and concept mapping.
_____30. In chronological pattern, details must be in order.
a. Timeline of events
b. Ma. Eva’s happy moment
_____31. When writing about geographical location, spatial organization is best to use.
a. Details are arranged in chronological order.
b. Sentences are used with directions such as left-to-write, up-to-down, and top-to-bottom.
_____32. The Precious Gem of Pilarnons by Jian E. Orejas was written showing support to what
industry in Siargao Island?
a. education
b. tourism
____33. Exemplification, description, process, persuasion
a. critical thinking techniques
b. patterns of writing development
_____34. A critical thinker is eager to express thoughts on a topic.
a. One must show zest or energy as you reflect on what you read.
b. One must not be excited as to showing your feelings to avoid blocking the reading process.
C 35. A critical thinker is able to ask thought-provoking questions to evaluate ideas.
a. He or She asks questions that can hook the interest of others.
b. He or She asks questions with sense and can achieve reasonable answers.
_____36. Cohesion can be thought of as all the grammatical links that link one part of discourse.
a. It includes the use of synonyms and verbs.
b. It aims to organize paragraphs of a text.
IV. Evaluating. Directions: Evaluate the questions based on the appropriate idea to be answered. Write your
answer on the space provided.
____37. It is the most popular tool in generating creative and rich ideas.
A.debate B. role play C. story telling D. brainstorming
____38. How will the information in the essay be used with the help of graphic organizer?
a. The written work will be shortened and lose the irrelevant parts.
b. There will be a scene of clear and creative discussion of all the relevant information.
c. Readers will adjust to another way of reading the material.
d. There will be more chances for the readers to shift or change the reading material.

_____39. Jill aims to campaign Lexy for the next SK election. What point of view should he apply?
a. Use persuasive to convince people.
 b. Use descriptive to illustrate Lexy.
c. Use narrative to tell Lexy’s background.
d. Use expository to explain Lexy’s advocacy.
_____40. Which of the following should be applied in responding to the text?
a. Reject the not so important ideas. c. Copy the whole text.
b. Have a reflection from your own ideas. d. Stop reading and forget about it.
_____41. In Practical Research, how are you going to use critical reading?
a. Let others seek for evidences. c. Don’t ask questions; give chance to others.
b. Solve problems in a not so organized way. d. Check relevancy/sufficiency of what is read.
_____42. Judy Ann and Judy Abott are known in thinking clearly and rationally.
a. They have the ability to engage in reflective thinking.
b. They are engaged in thinking dependently.
c. They just reject the ideas of others except theirs.
d. They read for the sake of reading itself.
_____43. After reading, Joy writes his insights on any issue being digested.
a. Reading and thinking are inseparable.
b. Critical thinking is better than critical reading.
c. You can do reading without sharing insights.
d. After reading, just understand it, no need to reflect.
VI. Creating. Directions: Select the best answer that creates an action in fixing the situations given
below. Write your answer on the space provided.
_____44. Christian is confused with the word “stubborn.” What should be his action about this?
He should create a schedule in reading stories where the word “stubborn” exists.
a. He should create a playlist where “stubborn” is literally heard.
b. He should create a list where synonymous words define the unfamiliar word.
c. He should create plans when to search about the word “stubborn”.
d. He should not mind his confusion. Just continue reading the text.
_____45. You have this difficulty of understanding unfamiliar words while you are reading a novel. What
should be created to solve this?
a. Ask a friend to define unfamiliar words.
b. Compose a story without using the unfamiliar words.
c. Create a novel using the unfamiliar words.
d. Create a mini dictionary where you search the word and define by key words.
_____46. Michaella Mae was tasked by the teacher to write an essay about typhoon aftermath, specifically on
its important facts to remember. How should he deal this case?
a. She should explain and present the information about it.
b. She should tell a story of a typhoon survivor.
c. She should just have to convince people to stop this issue.
d. She should just tell the teacher to change the topic.
_____47. Which of the following does not apply the appropriate use of cohesion?
a. not using proper pronouns
b. use of transitional devices
c. integration of conjunction
d. correct use of synonym and antonym
_____48. You are a teacher of Grade 11 students under Reading and Writing subject. You would like to let
students do something very productive after reading stage. Which of the following is best to do?
a. Compose a song analysis to the essay being read.
b. Create a concept map summarizing the written work.
c. Let students perform a debate.
d. Create a reflection of the article being read.

____49. You are a teacher of Grade 11 students. You would like you students to read effectively. What are you
going to do?
a. I will introduce the steps in critical reading.
b. I will produce a dictionary with translation to mother tongue.
c. I will define critical reading and critical thinking.
d. I will download a movie version of it so that they may have background knowledge of it.
____50. The spread of fake news in social media is very active. As a student, which of the following actions
should you do?
 a. I will create a group that deletes fake news on social media.
b. I will create an open letter about responsible readers and critical thinkers.
c. I will create a concept map featuring the disadvantages of fake news.
d. I will trace the trolls who continue spreading fake news.

1. What is the meaning of the word Philosophy?

a) The study of religion and beliefs
b) The study of natural science
c) The love of wisdom
d) The study of art
2. What is the method of philosophical inquiry that emphasizes the importance of direct observation and experience?
a) Empiricism
b) Rationalism
c) Dialectic
d) Phenomenology
3. In what way can the understanding of the embodied spirit help individuals to live a more fulfilling life?
a) By promoting the idea of physical self-care
b) By promoting the idea of separation of the body and soul
c) By promoting a holistic approach to self-care
d) By promoting the idea of a spiritual self-care
4. How can an understanding of the relationship between humans and the natural world be applied to improve
environmental sustainability?
a) By implementing technological solutions
b) By ignoring the relationship
c) By understanding and addressing the impact of human actions on the natural world
d) By focusing solely on economic growth
5. A person argues that freedom is the ability to do whatever one wants, regardless of the consequences. How would
you evaluate this statement?
a) It is a valid perspective on freedom
b) It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards the rights and freedoms of others and the
consequences of one's actions
c) It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards laws and social norms
d) It is a valid perspective on freedom as long as it does not harm others
6. You are in charge of organizing a team building activity for your company. Which of the following options do
you think would be the most effective in promoting teamwork and creativity among team members?
a) A scavenger hunt
b) A lecture on the importance of communication
c) A cooking competition where each team has to come up with a unique recipe using a set of ingredients
provided.
d) A game of paintball
7. A person argues that the individual should always prioritize their own interests over those of society. How would
you evaluate this statement?
a) It is a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society
b) It is not a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society as it disregards the
importance of social cohesion and the interdependence of individuals within society
c) It is a valid perspective as long as it does not harm others
d) It is not a valid perspective as it goes against the principles of fairness and justice
8. How is the awareness of death different from the fear of death?
a) Awareness of death is cognitive while fear of death is emotional
b) Fear of death is rational and the awareness of death is irrational
c) Fear of death is a natural response to the awareness of death
d) None of the above
9. Who said "Man is the only animal who causes pain to others with no other object than wanting to do so"?
 a) Immanuel Kant
b) Søren Kierkegaard
c) Friedrich Nietzsche
d) Martin Heidegger
10. What term refers to the social organization of a group of people?
a) Society
b) Culture
c) Community
d) Institution
11. Which of the following best describes the concept of intersubjectivity?
a) The process by which individuals create their own subjective reality
b) The way in which individuals understand and share each other's experiences
c) The tendency for individuals to ignore each other's perspectives
d) The objective observation of other individuals' experiences
12. How can an understanding of freedom as it relates to the human person be applied to improve personal
relationships and interactions with others?
a) By disregarding the rights and freedoms of others
b) By prioritizing one's own desires and goals over those of others
c) By treating others with respect and recognizing the importance of their autonomy and freedom
d) By placing the importance on laws and social norms over individual's autonomy and freedom
13. You are an environmental scientist and you are tasked to develop a plan that addresses the impact of human
actions on the environment. Choose the most effective plan:
a) A plan that focuses on the implementation of renewable energy sources
b) A plan that focuses on reducing consumption of natural resources
c) A plan that focuses on increasing recycling efforts
d) A comprehensive plan that includes elements from all of the above
14. You are given the task of developing a program that focuses on the holistic development of the human person in
light of the concept of the embodied spirit. Choose the best program that you would like to create.
a) A program that focuses on physical fitness and nutrition
b) A program that focuses on spiritual practices and meditation
c) A program that combines physical fitness, nutrition, and spiritual practices in order to foster holistic
development
d) A program that focuses on mental and emotional well-being
15. You are a philosopher and you want to create a new method of philosophical inquiry that combines the best
aspects of Empiricism and Rationalism. Which of the following would be your new method?
a) Ethical rationalism
b) Rational empiricism
c) Dialectical Empiricism
d) Phenomenological Rationalism
16. Which of the following methods of philosophizing is considered the most effective in achieving a deep
understanding of the world and one's place in it?
a) Rationalism
b) Empiricism
c) Existentialism
d) Pragmatism
17. A philosopher has proposed a new definition of philosophy as "the study of the human mind and its potential."
From your perspective, how would you evaluate this new definition?
a) It is not a valid definition of philosophy as it does not align with the traditional view of philosophy as the love
of wisdom.
b) It is a valid definition of philosophy as it captures the idea that philosophy is concerned with
understanding the human mind and its capabilities.
c) It is a valid definition of philosophy but it's too narrow in scope
d) It is not a valid definition of philosophy as it only focuses on human mind, ignoring other important aspects
of philosophy.
18. What is the primary goal of philosophy?
a) To provide answers to questions about the natural world
 b) To provide answers to questions about moral and ethical issues
c) To understand the nature of reality and the meaning of life
d) All of the above
19. What is the name of the method of philosophical inquiry that involves the use of reason and argumentation to
arrive at a conclusion?
a) Empiricism
b) Rationalism
c) Dialectic
d) Phenomenology
20. What is the relationship between the body and the spirit in the concept of the embodied spirit?
a) The body and the spirit are two separate entities
b) The body and the spirit are inextricably linked and interact with each other in a dynamic way
c) The body is subordinate to the spirit
d) The spirit is subordinate to the body
21. Which of the following perspectives on the human person as an embodied spirit is most accurate?
a) The body and spirit are separate entities that interact with each other
b) The body is just a physical vessel for the spirit and has no influence on the person's identity or behavior
c) The body and spirit are intimately connected and shape each other in a dynamic interplay
d) The body is a temporary aspect of the human person and only the spirit is important.
22. Which of the following perspectives on the relationship between the human person and the environment is most
ethical?
a) Human persons should have the freedom to exploit natural resources for their own benefit without any regard
for the environment or other living beings.
b) Human persons should be stewards of the environment, using natural resources sustainably and
preserving them for future generations.
c) Human persons should have the freedom to exploit natural resources as long as it does not harm the
environment and other living beings.
d) Human persons should not have any relationship with the environment, as it is not necessary for human
survival
23. What term refers to the ability of individuals to make choices and determine their own actions?
a) Autonomy
b) Sovereignty
c) Self-determination
d) Free will
24. Who is the author of the book "The Social Construction of Reality"?
a) Peter Berger
b) Erving Goffman
c) George Mead
d) Max Weber
25. You are a philosopher and you have been tasked to create a new concept of freedom that takes into account the
well-being of both the individual and society. Which of the following would be your new concept of freedom?
a) Freedom as the ability to do whatever one wants, regardless of the consequences
b) Freedom as the ability to make choices in line with the well-being of both the individual and society
c) Freedom as the ability to make choices in line with the well-being of the individual only
d) Freedom as the ability to make choices without any restriction or consideration for the well-being of either
the individual or society
26. Which of the following strategies might be effective for promoting intersubjectivity in a group?
a) Encouraging individuals to express their opinions freely
b) Discouraging discussion and debate
c) Focusing solely on facts and objective information
d) Ignoring the perspectives of minority group members
27. Which of the following strategies would be most effective for managing death anxiety?
a) Ignoring the thoughts and feelings associated with death
b) Confronting and talking about one's fears and thoughts about death
c) Distracting oneself with work or other activities
d) Focusing on physical fitness and health
28. Which of the following perspectives on the human person's relationship with death is most healthy and beneficial
for personal growth and development?
a) Ignoring or denying the reality of death
b) Constantly fixating on death and allowing it to consume one's thoughts and actions
c) Acknowledging and accepting the reality of death as a natural part of life and using it as a source of
motivation for living a meaningful and fulfilling life
d) Believing in an afterlife and using it as a way to avoid dealing with death and its finality
29. You are a sociologist and you have been tasked to create a new model of the relationship between the individual
and society that takes into account the mutual benefit and well-being of both. Which of the following would be
your new model of the relationship between the individual and society?
a) The individual should always prioritize their own interests over those of society
b) The individual and society are mutually dependent and should work together for the benefit of both
c) The individual should prioritize the well-being of society over their own interests
d) The society should prioritize the well-being of the individual over the well-being of society
30. What are the similarities and differences between the concepts of individual and society?
a) Individual is unique and autonomous, while society is a group of individuals that share common values and
beliefs
b) Individual is a part of society, and society is a group of individuals that share common values and
beliefs
c) They are the same thing
d) They have no similarities and differences
31. Which of the following perspectives on intersubjectivity is most effective in fostering understanding and
connection with others?
a) Prioritizing one's own perspective and disregarding the perspectives of others
b) Treating the perspectives and experiences of others as fundamentally different and incomparable to one's own
c) Acknowledging the subjectivity of one's own perspective and actively seeking to understand and
empathize with the perspectives of others
d) Believing that one's own perspective is objectively correct and attempting to impose it on others
32. What are the characteristics of a society and how do they affect the individual?
a) A society is a group of people who share common values and beliefs, and it shapes the individual's
identity and behavior.
b) A society is a group of people who share common language, and it shapes the individual's communication
skills
c) A society is a group of people who share common economic status, and it shapes the individual's financial
situation
d) A society is a group of people who share common physical characteristics, and it shapes the individual's
appearance
33. What is the concept of 'Death anxiety' refers to?
a) Fear of physical pain caused by death
b) Fear of death or the loss of life
c) Fear of dying alone or unloved
d) All of the above
34. What are the characteristics of freedom as it relates to the human person?
a) The ability to make choices and determine one's own actions, respect for the rights and freedoms of
others, and adherence to laws and social norms
b) The ability to make choices and determine one's own actions, disregard for the rights and freedoms of others,
and disregard for laws and social norms
c) The ability to make choices and determine one's own actions, disregard for the rights and freedoms of others,
and adherence to laws and social norms
d) The ability to make choices and determine one's own actions, disregard for the rights and freedoms of others,
and disregard for laws and social norms
35. How does the relationship between humans and the natural world affect the well-being of both?
a) It does not affect the well-being of humans or the natural world
b) It positively affects the well-being of humans but not the natural world
c) It positively affects the well-being of the natural world but not humans
d) It positively and negatively affects the well-being of both humans and the natural world
36. How can an understanding of the relationship between humans and the natural world be applied to improve
environmental sustainability?
a) By implementing technological solutions
b) By ignoring the relationship
c) By understanding and addressing the impact of human actions on the natural world
d) By focusing solely on economic growth
37. A philosopher has proposed a new definition of philosophy as "the study of the human mind and its potential."
From your perspective, how would you evaluate this new definition?
a) It is not a valid definition of philosophy as it does not align with the traditional view of philosophy as the love
of wisdom.
b) It is a valid definition of philosophy as it captures the idea that philosophy is concerned with
understanding the human mind and its capabilities.
c) It is a valid definition of philosophy but it's too narrow in scope
d) It is not a valid definition of philosophy as it only focuses on human mind, ignoring other important aspects
of philosophy.
38. What term is used to describe the belief that the soul or spirit is distinct from the body and continues to exist after
the body dies?
a) Dualism
b) Monism
c) Materialism
d) Idealism
39. How can the study of philosophy benefit a person in their daily life?
a) By providing answers to questions about the natural world
b) By improving critical thinking and reasoning skills
c) By providing a deeper understanding of oneself and the world around
d) By providing answers to questions about art
40. In what way can the method of dialectic be applied in solving real-world problems?
a) By providing logical and systematic arguments
b) By providing evidence-based solutions
c) By fostering dialogue and finding common ground
d) By using introspection

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Which refers to the only planet in the solar system that gave rise to complex life?
A. Earth
B. Mars
C. Mercury
D. Venus

2. Major human activities cause great destructions on Earth’s subsystems. Since energy and matter is cycled within
the spheres and being part of the system, these harmful activities bring forth destruction to us in a boomerang
effect. One example of this is the Global warming. As a student, what recommendation can you give to solve this
problem?
A. Report the violators to the United Nations.
B. Just ignore and continue your daily routines.
C. Be active in advocating change by rallying outside government hall.
D. Start the change from yourself by not contributing pollution to the environment.
For items 3-4, refer to the chemical formula and property of the minerals presented in the table below.

Table 1. Chemical formula and property of the minerals

3. Which of the following inference can be made about the two minerals? A. Olivine can scratch hematite.
B. Hematite can scratch olivine.
C. The two minerals can scratch each other.
D. Neither of the two could scratch the other.

4. Which chemical groups do these two minerals belong?

A. Olivine = oxide; hematite = sulfate
B. Olivine = silicate; hematite = oxide
C. Olivine = sulfate; hematite = oxide
D. Olivine = oxide; hematite = silicate

5. Which of these areas do most sedimentary rocks usually form?

A. Volcanoes
B. Mountains
C. Plain lands
D. Bodies of water

6. Which of the following correctly describes physical weathering? A. Rust changes the color of the rock.
B. A carabao steps on and crushes a limestone.
C. A year of acid rain deforms a rock monument.
D. Running water transports rock to other places.

7. Which of the following terms refers to the thickest layer, made mostly of iron, magnesium, and silicon, that is
dense, hot, and semi-solid?
A. Core
B. Crust
C. Lithosphere
D. Mantle

8. Which of the following statements correctly describes inner core and outer core?
A. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is
the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon.
B. The inner core is the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon, while the outer core is made
from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.
C. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer
core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.
D. The inner core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay, while the
outer core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot.
For items 9-10, refer to the table 1 below.

Table 2. Difference in Composition of Granitic and Basaltic

Typical Granitic Magma Typical Basaltic Magma

70% silica- felsic 50% silica- mafic
10-15% water 1-2%water
Intrusive Extrusive

9. When the magma is formed, it rises toward the Earth’s surface. But not all magma behaves in the same way, just
like granitic and basaltic magma. Based on the table, which of the following statements correctly differentiate
granitic and basaltic magma?
A. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of
50% silica and 1-2% water.
B. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70%
silica and 1-2% water.
C. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 1-2% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 50%
silica and 10-15% water.
D. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70%
silica and 10-15% water.

10. Which from the following statements below correctly conclude the movement of both basaltic and granitic
magma toward the Earth’s surface?
A. Basaltic magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust, while granitic magma rises all the way to the
Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano.
B. Basaltic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano, while granitic
magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust.
C. Neither basaltic magma nor granitic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano
bringing great destruction to the environment.
D. Both basaltic magma and granitic magma rise all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano,
and at the same time solidify within the Earth’s crust.

11. Which of the following combination of factors can change pre-existing rocks into new forms?
A. Color, shape, and texture
B. Minerals, color, and temperature
C. Texture, temperature and chemically- active fluids
D. Temperature, pressure and chemically- active fluids

12. You watched a video of a lava flow when suddenly you got curious about how crystal formation happens. You
also observed that small and large crystals can be formed from a lava flow. Based on this observation, where
would you expect to find the largest crystals in a lava flow? A. At the center of the flow.
B. Near the bottom of the flow.
C. Near the top surface of the flow.
D. The crystals would have the same grain size throughout the flow.
13. You were given a granite sample and tasked to describe just by looking and touching it. Which of the following
statements below will best describe a granite based on its physical appearance?
A. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock rich in silica
B. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock poor in silica
C. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock rich in silica D. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous
rock poor in silica

14. You are walking along a flat rock surface. You discover that as you walk further, the age of the rocks decreases
until you reach the middle of the surface, then for some reason, they get older again. What structure have you
just passed over?
A. syncline fold
B. anticline fold
C. monocline fold
D. overturned fold

15. A geologist was interested in the age of rock layers in a specific area, as shown in Figure 1 below.

Figure 1. Sample Cross-section of Stratified Rocks

(Source: https://eastmontscience.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/3/8/13389395/2550116.jpg)

Which of the following set of rock layers is correctly arranged from oldest to youngest?
A. P–O–N–M–L–Q
B. P–Q–O–N–L–M
C. Q–O–N–M–L–P
D. Q–P–O–N–M–L

16. A geologist used relative dating methods to guess that an igneous rock sample is between 1 million and 5 million
years old and was curious about its exact age.
Will using carbon-14 in determining the age of the rock be helpful? A. Yes, because the rock sample
contains traces of carbon in it.
B. Yes, because carbon-14 is widely used by scientists in absolute dating.
C. No, because the half-life of carbon-14 is too short for the age of the rock sample.
D. No, because it is not sure whether dead bodies of organisms are present in the sample.

17. A geologist found a dinosaur fossil and wants to estimate what period that dinosaur existed in the past. The
geologist measured the ages of the rocks beneath and above the fossil. What dating technique he/she is about to
use?
A. cross dating
B. relative dating C. geologic dating
D. absolute dating
18. What information is generally shown in the geologic time scale?
A. the branches of geology
B. the geologic history of the Earth
C. the geologic features of the Earth
D. the geologists with significant contributions

19. Which hazard may happen if loosely-packed and water-logged sediments at or near ground surface lose strength
during earthquakes?
A. eruption
B. fire
C. liquefaction
D. tsunamis

20. A barangay located near the sea experienced a magnitude 8.0 earthquake. What hazard are the residents most
exposed to after this?
A. eruption
B. fire
C. liquefaction
D. tsunami

21. What term refers to an extreme natural phenomenon in Earth’s crust, like earthquakes and volcanic eruptions,
that may cause danger to life and property?
A. geologic hazard
B. biological hazard
C. technological hazard
D. hydrometeorological hazard

22. If you live on a hillside in a land-locked area with an active volcano nearby, which of the following phenomena
does NOT bring you hazard?
A. tsunami
B. landslide
C. earthquake
D. volcanic eruption

23. Who among the following people is doing an activity that helps lessen the occurrence of landslides?
A. Person L constructs their home on a steep slope.
B. Person M puts as much vegetation as possible on the nearby slope.
C. Person N creates a water canal that cuts through some part of the hill.
D. Person O gathers topsoil from the mountain for their backyard garden.

24. During a typhoon, you noticed an abnormal rise of seawater level that caused flooding in the coastal area you are
living in. What phenomenon had you just witnessed?
A. tornado
B. tsunami
C. spring tide
D. storm surge
25. Suppose you live in a coastal area and your primary source of drinking water has always been through a water
pump. Over the years, you noticed that the water gets saltier and saltier. What coastal process could have
occurred?
A. tidal wave
B. coastal erosion
C. saltwater intrusion
D. coastal submersion

26. A businessman wanted to build a five-story hotel a few meters away from the edge of a cliff on the shore. Should
this plan be allowed by the authority? A. Yes, it will boost tourism in the community.
B. Yes, it is the best spot to capture beautiful sceneries.
C. No, its construction could only worsen coastal erosion.
D. No, the businessman needs to have large amount of investment.

27. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. What are the mixtures of gases they thought
to be abundant in earth’s early atmosphere? I. N2
II. H2O
III. H2
IV. NH3 V. O2
VI. CH4

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
C. II, III, IV, VI
D. III, IV, V, VI

28. Which of the following conditions will best fossilize an animal? A. The animal is made up of bones.
B. The animal is soft-bodied like jellyfish.
C. The animal dies at sea and sinks deep.
D. The animal is left exposed to the elements.

29. Based on the Geologic Time Scale, which of the following is a correct pair of periods in the Earth’s history and
the corresponding major event that took place?
A. Quaternary – age of mammals
B. Permian – extinction of trilobites
C. Cretaceous – appearance of first land plants
D. Cambrian – appearance of first amphibians

30. On a hot day, a man feels to go for a swim, drinks some cold water, or sits in the shade while on a cold day, he
feels to put on a coat, sits in a corner, or eats a bowl of hot soup. Given the situation, how would you classify the
interaction of the man to his environment?
A. It is an example of growth and development.
B. It shows man’s adaptation to his environment.
C. It is the ability of the man to regulate his internal condition.
D. It ensures the survival of man and in carrying out his functions.

31. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
A. Communities make up species, which make up populations.
 B. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
C. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
D. Species make up populations, which make up communities.

32. Which of the following is a correct pair of organ and organ system?
A. lungs-excretory
B. brain-circulatory
C. mouth-respiratory
D. skin – integumentary

33. Which of the following terms refers to the biological process of producing offspring that are biologically or
genetically similar to the parents?
A. evolution
B. fertilization
C. development
D. reproduction

34. What term refers to the process of producing new organism by combining the genetic information of two
individuals having different sexes?
A. external fertilization
B. internal fertilization
C. sexual reproduction
D. asexual reproduction

35. Which of the following statements correctly differentiate sexual reproduction from asexual reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction is faster than asexual reproduction.
B. Sexual reproduction requires one parent while asexual requires two.
C. Sexual reproduction requires two parents while asexual requires one.
D. Sexual reproduction produces identical offspring while asexual produces offspring from two parents.

36. Which of the following is NOT correct about recombinant DNA technology?
A. Plasmids and bacteriophages are examples of commonly used vectors.
B. Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology helps produce better breeds of plants and animals.
C. The rDNA technology could also help in identifying criminals by studying a sample from a specific
person.
D. The rDNA technology can be considered successful even if the foreign DNA inserted into the vector
DNA is not expressing the desired trait in the host cells.

37. Which of the following crop is not genetically modified?

A. Bt corn
B. golden rice
C. BT eggplant
D. conventional rice

38. Which of the following is considered a risk of GM food to people’s health? A. GM food enhanced
pathogenicity.
B. GM food production cost is reduced.
C. GM food increased weed or pest burden.
 D. GM food contains higher amounts of vitamins and minerals.

39. What responses are generated by the nervous system when you run on a treadmill?
A. Dispose waste from the body
B. Get the oxygen into our body and get rid of carbon dioxide.
C. Food is broken down by to give energy to every cell in the body.
D. Once exercise begins, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, and the heart rate rises quickly
40 Pablo went out with his friends almost every day to have fun and takes whatever vices they want. One day he
complains abdominal pain and notices that the appearance of his skin turns yellowish which are some symptoms of
a liver problem. Which do you think among his vices caused him liver problem?
A. Smoking
B. Gambling
C. Social games
D. Alcohol Consumption

41. There is a couple who wish to have a child but cannot have it because the wife was diagnosed with Polycystic
ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal number of androgens, male
sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts that cause infertility of women having it.
However, it can be treated by maintaining healthy weight, conducting regular exercise and balance diet. Based on
the given situation, is it possible for the couple to bear a child?
A. Yes, PCOS will just go away on its own.
B. Yes if they will just follow the suggestions of their doctor.
C. No because there is no treatment for PCOS.
D. No because female ovaries with PCOS totally can’t release egg cells.

42. When you’re faced with a perceived threat, your brain thinks you’re in danger. That’s because it already considers
the situation to be life threatening. As a result, your body automatically reacts to keep you safe. What hormone is
responsible for this response?
A. Adrenalin
B. Melatonin
C. Vasopressin
D. Growth Hormones

43. Pedro who met an accident dislocated his two long bones in his hand. What do you think is the cause of such
dislocation?
A. Tendon break
B. Ligament break
C. Areolar tissue break
D. Break of skeletal muscle

44. Covid 19 pandemic affects the immune system of individual who will be infected with this virus. As a student,
which of the following campaign below is the best thing to promote to boost your immune system? A. Drink
alcohol in moderation.
B. Always observe health protocols.
C. Have an exercise at least once a week.
D. Eat a diet high in fruits and vegetables.

45 Gregor Mendel was considered as the Father of Modern Genetics. Which of the following works was associated with
him?
A. Study with pea plants
B. Expedition in the Galapagos Islands
C. Discovering the molecular structure of DNA
 D. Determination of the double-helix structure of DNA

46. For certain organisms to survive, they need to learn the process of adaptation by which a species becomes fitted to
its environment. Which of the following situations exhibits adaptation?
A. Birds with light bones of their wings for easy flying.
B. Giraffes having long necks for feeding in the top of trees
C. Animals staying in one place all the time to protect its home
D. Succulents which store water in their short, thick stems and leaves in preparation for dry season.

47. Based on the figure below, what is common among human arm, cat’s leg, whale flipper and bat’s wing?

Figure 2. Bat wings, human forearms, whale and cat forelimbs

(Source: https://socratic.org/questions/bat-wings-human-forearms-elephant-legs-and-cat-forelimbs-are-whattype-of-
struct)
I. Have the same bones.
II. Share common ancestors.
III. Body parts have the same functions.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II only
D. II & III only

48 Someone gives you two black beetles: Carbonized Darkling Beetle (Eleodes carbonaria) and Armored Stink Beetle
(Eleodes armata). What group they both belong in the biological classification of organisms?
A. Family
B. Genus
C. Order
D. Species

49. On 16 December 2021, Typhoon Rai (local name Odette) brought torrential rains, violent winds, landslides, and
storm surges in the provinces of Surigao del Norte and Dinagat Islands in Mindanao, in five provinces of Visayas,
 and in the island of Palawan in Luzon before it exited the Philippine area of responsibility on 17 December 2021. If
a natural disaster like Typhoon Odette devastates an ecosystem, what will this do to the carrying capacity of the
population of a species within that ecosystem?
A. Increase it.
B. Decrease it
C. Always reduce it down to zero.
D. Will not affect it, so it will stay the same.

50. The family of Amelia lives in a “sitio” where most of her relatives are also living there because it’s where their
farm located which is the source of their foods. Cora, friend of Amelia lives in another sitio, 5 kilometers away
from Amelia’s place. The family of Cora is living in another sitio because it is where their farm located. How will
you classify the household-population distribution pattern with Amelia’s & Cora’s place?
A. Clumped Distribution
B. Random Distribution
C. Uniform Distribution
D. Vertical Distributions

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN EARTH SCIENCE SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Earth is the planet we live on, and the only place in the universe known to support life. Which of the
following statements accurately describes this characteristic?
A. It has soil where trees grow.
B. It has trees that provide oxygen.
C. It has liquid water in the surface. D. It is a home to a variety of complex organisms.

2. Which of the following factors are required for an organism to survive on Earth?
I. Earth has an atmosphere and ozone layer.
II. Earth has both water cycle and nitrogen cycle.
III. Earth has natural activities to circulate nutrients.
IV. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.

A. I & II only
B. I & III only
C. I, II, III only
D. I, II, III, & IV
3. What makes human and other living organisms capable to live on Earth?
A. Earth can provide food for the organism.
B. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.
C. Earth’s temperature is mostly hot compared to other planets.
 D. Earth has the right amount of temperature, water, good atmosphere, and favorable climate.

4. You observed an Earth-sized like planet in a distant galaxy. Based on the data, the planet is at the same distance
from its star, like Earth to its star-the sun. It is also covered with a thick atmosphere which is composed of
carbon dioxide and shows no volcanic activity. What can you infer from these data?
A. The Earth-like planet is hot and nutrient cycling occurs.
B. The Earth-like planet is cold and nutrient cycling occurs.
C. The Earth-like planet is hot and no nutrient cycling occurs.
D. The Earth-like planet is cold and no nutrient cycling occurs.

5. What subsystems are interacting when carbon dioxide dissolves from the air into the ocean?
A. Atmosphere and biosphere
B. Atmosphere and lithosphere
C. Atmosphere and hydrosphere
D. Atmosphere and lithosphere

6. During the 1800’s, miners can identify real gold from pyrite through biting the surface of the mineral. If a bite
mark is exhibited, then the said mineral is considered real gold. What property is tested in this scenario?
A. Cleavage
B. Luster
C. Hardness
D. Streak color

7. While walking at the beach, Angela found a rock sample with shells and pebbles embedded. What type of
rock did she find?
A. Igneous rock
B. Metamorphic rock
C. Sedimentary rock
D. Ore body rock

8. A mineral is inorganic. Which of the following supports this statement?

A. Minerals is uniform in appearance and is in solid state of matter
B. Any material that is formed in laboratories is not considered a mineral
C. Bones, shells, teeth and other hard parts of an organism are not minerals D. Both graphite and diamond are
made up of carbon but their carbon atoms are arranged differently.

9. Imagine that you work at a jeweler's shop and someone brings in some "gold nuggets" that they want to sell.
The person claims that an old prospector found the gold nuggets during the gold rush. You are not sure if
the nuggets are real gold. Which identification tests would you do to help you decide the nuggets' identity?
A. Vinegar test
B. Hallmark test
C. Nitric acid test
D. All of the above

10. Fossil fuels are derived from which of the following sources?
A. Organic matter on the crust surface
B. Organic matter trapped in igneous rock
 C. Organic matter trapped in sedimentary rock
D. Non-organic matter trapped in metamorphic rock

11. Based from the Department of Energy 2017 power statistics, coal is the main source of energy in the Philippines.
What do you think might happen if coal reserves run out?
A. It will result to decreasing number of air pollutants.
B. It will decrease the energy resources present in the Philippines.
C. It will not affect Philippines economy because it is an infinite resource. D. It will decrease the number
of air pollutants and energy resources in the country.

12. How does geothermal energy work?

A. Uses water from the earth
B. Uses potential energy
C. Uses heat from the core of earth
D. Uses heat from atmosphere

13. People have a long history of using the force of water flowing in streams and rivers to produce mechanical
energy. Which of the following best describes the aforementioned statement?
A. Milling
B. Cutting
C. Sewing
D. Molding

14. Which of the following is NOT true about the impact of geothermal energy resource to the environment?
A. The construction of geothermal power plants destroys natural habitat disrupting ecological niche.
B. Geothermal features in national parks, such as geysers and fumaroles, making the site promotes
sustainability.
C. Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity, so the levels of air pollutants they emit
are low.
D. Most geothermal power plants inject the geothermal steam and water that they use back into the earth for
recycling purposes.

15. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water geothermal source?

A. Drilling well hot water generator steam

B. Drilling well hot water steam generator
C. Generator hot water steam Drilling well
D. Generator steam hot water Drilling well
16. Hydropower, or hydroelectric power, is one of the oldest and largest sources of renewable energy, which uses
the natural flow of moving water to generate electricity. Knowing this made you preferable to build
hydropower plant over the other because which do you think are your reasons?

I. It does not generate greenhouse gases and other emissions.

II. It has an extremely long life and the technology is highly reliable III. It is extremely efficient, with
90% of the water’s energy converted into electricity.
IV. Dams can damage or otherwise impact the environment both upstream and downstream through their
construction process

A. I, II, III only

B. I, II, IV only
C. I, III, IV only
D. I, II, III, IV
17. Water covers about 71% of the earth's surface. Despite its abundance, we continue to lack water suitable for
human consumption.

In relation to the circumstance, which of the following options is TRUE?

I. Most fresh water are stored in ice caps, glaciers, ponds, lakes, rivers, streams, and underground water.
II. Most Earth’s water is saline water
III. Surface water is more abundant than ground water.

A. Only statement III is false.

B. Only statement I is true.
C. Statements I and III are true.
D. Statements I and II are false
18. What is the massive driver of pollution?
A. Population
B. Urbanization C. Development
D. Climate change

19. Water conservation is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary water usage. Which
activity should you AVOID for us not to contribute WASTE the MOST per day at home?
A. Running the tap while washing dishes
B. Using a garbage disposal
C. Long showers
D. A leaky toilet

20. Which of the following ways can protect and prevent depletion of the soil? A. Fertilization
B. Afforestation
C. Monitor Growth
D. Control Storm Water

21. In what way you can help maintaining the soil moisture content?
A. by planting trees
B. by applying fertilizers
C. by applying pesticides
D. by planting crops and applying fertilizers

22. The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 known as Republic Act No. 9275 is an act providing for a
comprehensive water quality management which aims to protect the country's water bodies from pollution.
Which of the following activities and its purpose is falsely stated?

A. Use of water for domestic purposes - means the utilization of water for drinking, washing, bathing,
cooking or other household needs, home gardens and watering of lawns or domestic animals;
B. Use of water for irrigation - means the utilization of water for producing agricultural crops;
C. Use of water for livestock raising - means the utilization of water for recreational purposes.
D. Use of water for municipal purposes - means the utilization of water for supplying water
requirements of the community.

23. How do you assess the impact of soil cultivation? A. It does have an impact, only positive.
B. It negatively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer in the soil.
C. It positively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer and herbicide in the soil.
D. It is positive in the sense that it provides needed resources. However, it negatively impacts our soil due to
pollution and causes desertification.

24. Which of the following agricultural techniques or farming practices below involves immediately depositing
seeds into untilled soil that has retained previous crop residues?
A. Cover crops
B. Crop rotation
C. No-till farming
D. Contour plowing
25. Solid Waste Management (SWM) is considered to be one of the most serious environmental issues in the
Philippines. What legal basis provide the necessary policy framework, institutional mechanisms and
mandate to the local government unites (LGUs) to achieve 25% waste reduction through establishing an
integrated solid waste management plans based on 3Rs (reduce, reuse and recycling)?

A. The Republic Act (RA) 9003, otherwise known as the Ecological Solid
Waste Management Act of 2000
B. Integrated Waste management Plan of Environmental Protection Agency
C. Philippine Regulations on Sanitation and Wastewater Systems
D. The 2030 Sustainable Development Goal

26. In times of Covid-19 pandemic, many people used facemasks to protect themselves. As a responsible citizen,
in which type of waste you are going to classify used facemasks?
A. Solid waste
B. Liquid waste
C. Organic waste
D. Hazardous waste

27. Sanitary and municipal fills and waste heaps are unavoidable hazardous due to the following factors.

1. Leachate
2. Emanating gases
3. Rodents and wandering animals
4. Automobile workshops that seem to have an affinity for such neighborhoods

Which of the above are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

28. What do you call that process which exhibits the breaking down of rocks on the earth’s surface that may
cause changes in its composition?
A. Erosion
B. Deposition
C. Mass wasting
D. Weathering

29. A marble statue of our national hero, Dr. Jose P. Rizal that is situated in your hometown Plaza is left exposed
to the weather. Within a few years, the details on the statue have begun to weather away. What is the
probable cause of this weathering?
A. Abrasion
 B. Lichens
C. Oxygen in the air
D. Carbonic acid in rainwater

30. Why do geologists call on convection, rather than conduction, in order for heat to transfer from the core to the
crust?
A. Conduction of heat is far too fast and efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled
completely by now.
B. Conduction of heat is far too slow, but efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled almost
completely by now.
C. Conduction of heat is far too slow and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would not have produced
much cooling thus far.
D. Conduction of heat is far too fast and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would heat up to a higher
temperature than it is now.

31. Your father just got a promotion and his already high salary was even doubled but you family had to move to
Camiguin island several kilometers away from Mount Hibok-hibok which is an active volcano. Having
known that you live near an active volcano, what information should you know and preparations should you
take in case the volcano will show signs of eruption?
A. Interview local community folks in the island about the past eruptions of the volcano and asked what they
did.
B. Check out the website of PHILVOLCS and read on the past eruption history of Mt. Hibok-Hibok from your
local library.
C. Search the internet or other resources for pertinint data about Mt. Hibok-Hibok, talk to long-time residents
or officials in the area, and discuss with your family a possible volcanin disaster preparedness plan.
D. Be prepared for a possible volcanic eruption by keeping and regularly maintaining a bag of clothes,
footwear, non-perishable goods, bottled water, toiletries, flashlight, batteries, and cash which is always
ready to carry anytime.

32. What sequence of rock types will shale pass through with successively higher grades of metamorphism?
A. Shale, phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist, partial melting.
B. Shale, phyllite, slate, schist, gneiss, partial melting.
C. Shale, slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist, partial melting.
D. Shale, slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, partial melting.

33. The picture below shows a rock with deformed structure and intergrown crystals. What rock was probably
formed?

Figure 5. Rock Sample

 A. Sediments that were deposited on the ocean floor
B. Heat and pressure that changed a preexisting rock
C. Volcanic lava that cooled on Earth’s surface
D. A meteor impact on Earth’s surface

34. What happened to the rocks under shear stress?

A. The rocks are squeezed.
B. The rocks fold or fracture.
C. The rocks are pulled apart.
D. The rock walls slip to each other on opposite direction.

35. Lino played a clay bar. He pushed the two sides of the clay bar using equal force from her hands on the same
axis. What do you think is the type of stress did he exert on the clay bar?
A. Direct stress
B. Shear stress
C. Tensional stress
D. Compressional stress

36. Which of the following statement supports the reason of shrinking of the Pacific Ocean?

A. The plates are converging

B. Water is evaporating quickly near the equator
C. It has less glaciers melting into it than the Atlantic
D. Ocean crust in the Pacific is getting recycled faster than it’s being created

37. The San Andreas Fault System is a continental transform fault that extends roughly 1,200 kilometers (750
mi) through California. It forms the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North American
Plate . How would you describe the geologic process on how it was formed?

Figure 3. San Andreas Fault https://bit.ly/3CpUTAQ

 A. It is a convergent plate boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving toward each other
B. It is a transform-plate boundary resulting from two plates sliding past each other, horizontally
C. Divergent Plate Boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving away from each other.
D. Hot Spot resulting from intensely hot area in the mantle below Earth's crust.

38. How can you infer the difference between a guyot and a seamount?

Figure 3. Guyot (left) and Seamount (right) https://bit.ly/3HQ8eDY

A. Seamounts at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but guyots
kept its mountain like shape.
B. Guyots at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but seamount
kept its mountain-like shape.
C. Seamounts are cone shaped volcanoes, and biologically, that would scientifically confirm that
there is no difference from guyots
D. Seamount have been weathered by wave and becomes a guyot, a cone shaped volcano

39. Which of the following resulted to the formation of new crust from magma that rises to the earth’s surface
between two plate boundaries?
A. Strike fault
B. Divergent boundary
 C. Transform boundary
D. Convergent boundary

40. Which of the following is associated with the discovery of seafloor spreading?
A. Mountains and Volcanoes are denser than mantle
B. Rotational pole of the earth has migrated or moved.
C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean
D. The crust of the oceans is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents.

41. The diagram below shows a drill core of sediment that was taken from the bottom of a lake

Figure 4. Drill Core of Sediments https://bit.ly/3GXHosT

Which types of rock would most likely form from compaction and cementation of these sediments?
A. Shale and coal
B. Breccia and rock salt
C. Sandstone and limestone
D. Conglomerate and siltstone
42. Which statement best describes the processes of weathering and erosion?
A. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the amount of water in a river that transports
sediments to the sea.
B. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the transportation, deposition and
compaction of loose sediments on the seafloor C. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible
for depositing loose sediments on the bottom of the ocean, forming layers of sediment
D. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the breakdown of any type of rock into smaller
particles and the carrying away of the loose sediments

43. Radiometric dating, often called radioactive dating, is a technique used to determine the age of materials such
as rocks. What is being measured in radiometric dating?
A. the amount of the parent isotope only
B. when the dated mineral became part of a sedimentary rock
C. the time of crystallization of a mineral containing an isotope
D. the time when the radioactive isotope formed, prior to being incorporated into a mineral.

44. If you are a geologist, how does the principle of faunal succession allow you to correlate rock strata in
different geographic locations?
A. It states that layers of rock strata at different locations can be correlated according to the unique set of
fossils they contain.
B. It states that the fossils in rock strata are older than the rock layers, allowing geologists to link younger and
older layers across a region
C. It states that the evolution of fossils in one region should correlate with the evolution of fossils through
different rock strata in another region
D. It states that fossils within rock strata are mostly homogeneous, suggesting that rock strata throughout a
region should reveal similar sets of fossils.

45. The age of the Earth is based on the radioactive isotopic dating of meteorites. How old is the Earth based on
its history?
A. 4.3 billion years old
B. 4.4 billion years old
C. 4.5 billion years old
D. 4.6 billion years old

46. You are having your vacation then suddenly while on the road trip you see this amazing rock formation
shown in Figure 1 below. Which of the following principles of relative dating is NOT used in determining
whether the rocks are of the same age?
 Figure 1. Animasola Rock Formation in Masbate
https://www.san-andres.info/wp-content/uploads/2018/07/animasola2.jpg
A. Inclusion
B. Superposition
C. Lateral Continuity
D. Original Horizontality

47. Which conclusion can be made when observing fossils buried in a different layer of rock?
A. Shallow layers are older fossils than the deeper layers
B. The deeper layers are older fossils than the shallow layers
C. The deeper layers are younger fossils than the shallow layers
D. Shallow layers are the same age fossils with the deeper layers

48. Index fossil is an abundant and easily identifiable fossil with a wide geographic distribution and a short
geologic range. From figure 5 below, which animal fossils are considered index fossils?
 Figure 5: Various Fossils in Layers https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Fossils.png

A. Fern
B. Coral
C. Trilobite
D. Ammonite

49. Which era were dinosaurs, small mammals, flowering plants, and birds found?
A. Cenozoic
B. Mesozoic
C. Paleozoic
D. Quaternary

50. A fossil of an ancient fish was dug up along with fossilized leaves of fern- like plants. In which environment
was this fossil probably formed?
A. Hot jungle
B. Arctic sea
C. Hot dessert
D. Warm swamp

NATG12 PRACTICE TEST IN MEDIA INFORMATION LITERACY

Directions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.
1. What refers to the combination of physical objects used to communicate through physical objects, such as
radio, television, computers, telephone, mobile phone, film, etc.
A. Communication
B. Information Literacy
C. Literacy
D. Media

2. Which of the following information literacyskill demonstrates evaluation?

The student is able to______. A. locate sources.

B. judge the result

C. define the problem
D. able to organize information from multiple sources.

3. Paul Lives in a rural area where electricity is not available. He is very fond of hearing news when he was still
living in the city. He has financial difficulty since he just lost his job.
What can you suggest to Paul so he can listen the daily news? A. Buy a generator.
B. Buy television.
C. Install satellite television.
D. Use battery operated radio.

4. How would you ensure the right security and privacy in your social media account?
A. Do not divulge any information.
B. Keep friends that are known to you and do not accept unfamiliar people.
C. Set your social media account into invisible so that you are completely safe.
D. Set your social media account into private. Allowing information shared to be safe and secured

5. What Republic Act protects indigenous peopleand their rights?

A. R.A. 9172
B. R.A. 8512
C. R.A. 8371
D. R.A. 1521

6. Which of the following is NOT true aboutplagiarism? A. It includes other people’s ideas in the paper.
B. It uses someone’s ideas in the paper without citing thesource.
C. It directly quotes a source instead of using one’s own words.
D. It is a form of harassment using electronic forms of contact

7. If you want to introduce a product or services to the market, what form of media channel would you use? A.
Advertising
B. E-mail
C. Radio
D. Television
8. Noli de Castro is one of the leading broadcast journalists in the country. He is always truthful, reliable,
credible, and fair in manner. What do you think does Noli de Castro practice? A. Patience
B. Media Ethics
C. Responsible Citizen
D. Trustworthy

9. What visual media gives the appearance of a movement which can be a collection of graphics, footage and
shading?
A. audio
B. motion
C. text
D. visual

10. The video footage presented as evidence of the crime shows some clips were missed. What technical method
needs to be checked?
A. Lighting coverage
B. Smoothness of the video
C. Scale and size consistency
D. Color and sound appropriateness

11. As a competitive and honest Filipino learner, how can you help massive piracy in new media?
A. Share free download site to your friends.
B. Create a campaign advertisement against piracy.
C. Ignore download sites that offers free moviesand music.
D. Avoid downloading movies and music from free download sites.

12. What is an original word of a piece of writing or a speech?

A. Denotation
B. Information
C. Text
D. Text information

13. Which artwork f u n c t i o n s as a source in addition to being displayed because of their significant values?
A. Moving Images
B. Original Art
C. Print
D. Photographs

14. The design for visual message basically focuses on the considerations of using visual elements in accordance
to the needs of the target audience. Which of the following consideration is NOT included?
A. Culture
B. Visual literacy
C. Educational ability
D. Language of the audienc
15. Ronie started to feel that his audience is not interested in listening to his presentation during his Science class.
What should he do to catch the attention of his audience?
A. Use visual information
B. Use text-based presentation
C. Apply state of the art presentation
D. Organize compiler during presentation

16. Mr. Rudy Go, gave a visual presentation project to his students. He wanted the project to have a gloomy color
appearance. Whatshould his students apply to pass the project?
A. both warm and light colors
B. flamboyant colors to attract audience
C. light colors in the creative visual material
D. murky colors in the creative visual material

17. How would you ensure that your visual presentation is interesting and enticing?
A. Use convincing materials.
B. Make the presentation as concise as possible.
C. Set the presentation as convincing as possible.
D. Apply the selection criteria as stated in making the visual presentation.

18. Which of the following is a form of internet audio broadcasting?

A. Blogging
B. Podcast
C. Radio
D. Television

19. The following are principles of listening, EXCEPT:

A. Prepare yourself to listen
B. Listen for ideas not just words.
C. Feel confident and knows it all.
D. Listen to the tone of the speaker

20. Which of the following media dimensions is very useful to the development of listening skills?
A. audio
B. motion
C. text
D. visual

21. Adonis is using an audio file that is stored in a disk because he wants to listen it later. What do you think
Adonis is used by Adonis?
A. Audio clip
B. Earcon
C. Footage
D. Recording
22. Which of the following is an act or process of changing the position or orientation of a certain body?
A. Acting
B. Dreaming
C. Motion
D. Understanding

23. What is the system of examining media materials to avoid causing offense, harm, or violence towards the
public?
A. Censorship
B. Production
C. Mise-en-scene
D. Motion Information

24. Which of the following is NOT a video editing software?

A. Avid
B. Publisher
C. Adobe Premier
D. Final Cut Pro

25. Which of the following is a cinematography?

A. Diegetic
B. Story based
C. Video magazine
D. Camera angles

26. A group of students were not able to hit the desired motion media presentation criteria that their teacher
wants, what can you suggest to creatively catch the interest of their teacher?
A. The motion media must be comprehensive so that there should be a clear explanation on how videos
should be presented.
B. Motion media should be catchy so that it has the advantage of getting immediate attention from its
viewers.
C. It should be convincing as persuasive as possible.
D. Use the selection criteria of both visual and motion media since they are closely associated with one
another.

27. If a person watches documentary about poverty, he or she might feel bad, not just because of pity. This
statement narrates to what kind of motion
information?
A. Theoretical Connections
B. Assessment of Ones Values
C. Showcasing of Complex Ideas
D. Learners and Culturally Relevant Events

28. In a post conference of a motion media subject, one student got a comment from one of his professors: “Your
video is disorganized and lack of sensible scenes.
What does the statement imply? The video_____.
 A. is irrelevant
B. needs cinematography
C. needs a mise-en-scene and arranged it accordingly
D. needs a storyboard so that it can be understood and organized accordingly

29. Why is mise-en-scene relevant in production?

A. To put interesting ideas into the film.
B. To highlight important things in the film.
C. To produce humorous scene that makes theaudience alive.
D. To avoid putting irrelevant things which do not contribute anything to the scene.
30. How does censorship affect the audience? A. It created delusion.
B. It makes the audience feel uneasy. C. It makes the receiver
misinformed.
D. It allows audience to be informed and be warned on the sensitive materials in the video.

31. How would you best promote the tourism of the country?
A. Make a documentary film that exudes Philippine scenery.
B. Produce a text information that highlights best scenery.
C. Produce a film that talks about Philippine achievements.
D. Create a visual information providing all the best scenic spots in our country.

32. How is the principle of completeness being portrayed in making news reports? A. It answers the 5W and 1H
questions.
B. The news report has 4W and 1H questions
C. The news report has 3W and 1H questions
D. It does not require to answer any questions aslong as it is full of details.

33. How many years for civilization to stay in the period of survival?
A. Centuries
B. Decades
C. Millions
D. Thousands

34. What platform is used to make an online survey?

A. Chat room
B. Google forms
C. Facebook groups
D. Group conference

35. Which of the following can be used to make a multimedia presentation? E. Paint
B. Publisher C. Photoshop
D. Power point

36. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multimedia? A. It utilizes a lot of senses.

B. It takes up a lot of storage space.
C. It uses modern electronic equipment.
 D. It is for those who can afford the equipment.

37. Kyle wants to reach a vast number of people through his campaign advocacy. What do you think should he
use to reach the global community?
A. Internet
B. Newspaper
C. Radio
D. Television

38. Diego wants to advertise his newly developed detergent. What should he used for his advertisement to be
heard throughout the country?

I. Internet
II. Radio
III.Television
IV. Mobile Phone A. I
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, III, IV
39. What do you think is the best multimedia presentation for someone who is on the go?
A. Prezi B. Publisher
C. Adobe Premiere
D. Power point presentation

40. How is a museum serves as a multimedia outlet?

A. It uses state of the art equipment for viewing.
B. It offers past, present and future events
C. There are different sources that information can be available.
D. It offers a variety of information like text, visual and even motion media.

41. Why are multimedia personalities careful about the words that come out of their mouth?
A. They can speak whatever they like
B. Every single word will be used against them.
C. They should speak politely since they’re role model.
D. They are influencer so whatever they speak will be emulated by many.

42. In a Media, which of the following are created to appeal to the emotion of the audience or to make
theproduct appealing to the target audience?
A. Media films
B. Media conventions
C. Media endorsement
D. Media manipulations

43. Which of the following is an act of causing people todo or believe something?
A. Abomination
 B.Conclusion
C.Persuasion
D.Solution

44. Which of the following is a manipulative information?

A. Advertisement
B. Film Showing
C. Opera
D. Play
45. Truthfulness of reports should be based on the following principles
EXCEPT A. Accuracy
B. Completeness
C. Objectivity and Balance
D. Punctuality

46. What principle of design is being applied in the figure below?

A. Balance
B. Contrast
C. Harmony
D. Perspective

47. If you want to make an illusion of a fast movement, what element of motion media will you use?
A. Blurring
B. Direction
C. Speed
D. Transition

48. Which of the following refers to how fitting or suitable the text is used for a specific audience, purpose, or
event?
A. Appropriateness
B. Emphasis
C. Harmony
D. Organization

49. Which of the following is a formal produced motion-based media?

A. Tina’s travel blog
B. TV advertisements
C. students’ video project
D. Tiktok video compilation

50. Which of the following is a formally produced text-based media?

 A. e-mails
B. love letters
C. newspapers
D. text messages

NATG12 PRACTICE TEST

PERSONAL DEVELOPMENT

INSTRUCTIONS: Read each question carefully and write the correct answer in a separate sheet of paper, or in the
answer sheet provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Which of the following is NOT an element of a healthy relationship?

A. Trust one another
B. One person makes all the decisions
C. Respect one another
D. Open and honest communication

2. What skills do you need to make healthy decisions in a relationship?

A. Intelligence, memory, ability to do public speaking
B. Assertive communication, active listening, and negotiation skills
C. Ability to persuade others, love,
D. passive communication
E. None of the above

3. Which of the following are signs that you may be in an abusive relationship?
A. Bruises, scratches and other signs of injuries
B. Avoiding friends
C. Apologizing for your partner`s behavior
D. All of the above

4. Jane has ability to stay calm and deal with her emotion during stressful and difficult times.
A. Emotional Stability C. Conscientiousness
B. Agreeableness D. Extraversion

5. In a healthy relationship, both partners:

Statement 1: Are treated with kindness and respect
Statement 2: Are honest with each other
A. Only statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct
B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both statements are in correct

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a healthy relationship?

A. Feel pressure C. Have a lack of privacy
B. Good communication D. Neglecting others

7. It can be thought of as a close tie between two people that is often built upon mutual experiences, shared interests,
proximity, and emotional bonding.
A. Family C. Lovers
B. Friends D. Partnership
8. In a healthy relationship, both partners:
Statement 1: Don’t like to spend time together
Statement 2: Take an interest in things that are important to each other
 A. Only statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct
B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both statements are in correct

9. In a healthy relationship, both partners:

Statement 1: Respect one another’s emotional, physical and sexual limits
Statement 2: Can speak dishonestly about their feelings
A. Only statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct
B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both statements are in correct

10. Which statement shows being responsible in a relationship?

A. Practice gratitude
B. Learn to forgive only with friends.
C. Be compassionate when you are only in a good mood.
D. Connect with your family that are close to you.

11. How would you define a personal relationship?

A. Personal relationships refer to the development of positive and healthy
relations.
B. Personal relationships refer to interaction between two or more people, groups or
organizations.
C. Personal relationships refer to the connection that exists between people who have
interactions.
D. Personal relationships, refers to a close connection between adolescents, formed by emotional
bonds and interactions.

12. What should you consider when making decisions around sex and sexual limits?
A. Your values C. Your family
B. Your friends’ D. All of the above

13. What is the best style of communication to use when making decisions about sexual limits and boundaries?
A. Assertive C. Aggressive
B. Passive D. Possessive

14. Social Influence is:

A. The efforts on the part of one person to alter the behavior or attitudes of one or more others
B. Influencing how society operates and determining how it will operate in the future
C. The influence of society on us
D. Being influenced by others

15. Conformity occurs when:

A. Individuals change their behavior in order to fit that of other persons in their group
B. Individuals adhere to conventions of a society, such as wearing clothes
C. Individuals influence each other
D. Individuals mimic each other

16. What stage does peer group start to play an important role in helping to define the adolescent's identity,
independent of the family; including the development of the sex role identity?
A. Adolescence C. Middle Adolescence
B. Childhood D. Pre-Adolescence

17. Refer to the connections that exist between people who have recurring interactions that are perceived by the
participants to have personal meaning.
A. Social Influence C. Social Pressure
 B. Social Deviance D. Social Relationship

18. Is a process by which a person influences other to accomplish an objective and directs the organization in a
way that makes it more cohesive and coherent.
A. Followership C. Process Leadership
B. Leadership D. Trait Leadership

19. Landy hates to attend concerts but goes because his wife wants to. After three years Landy comes to genuinely enjoy
concerts. This is an example of
A. How psychological reactance can lead to acceptance
B. How acceptance can lead to compliance
C. How compliance can lead to acceptance
D. The boomerang effect

20. Which is TRUE about followership?

A. Contributes in leading his team towards a positive direction where they learn the value of hard work,
importance of time and establishing goals.
B. A follower not only follows the footsteps of his leader, but also supports and encourages him
for doing better.
C. One who influences people through motivation and ideas for betterment
D. Follower is the ultimate epitome of inspiration

21. The ability to work being a part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier and is the most vital
characteristics of a good follower.
A. Appreciative C. Diligence
B. Collaboration D. Honesty

22. Some of the qualities of a good leader includes the following, except___________.
A. Ambitious C. Building Good Relation
B. Appreciative D. Inspiring others

23. Leaders carry out this process by applying their leadership knowledge and skills.
A. Trait Leadership C. Controlled leadership
B. Process leadership D. none of the above
24. How social pressure may lead us to perform immoral acts is best illustrated by studies of?
A. informational influence C. psychological reactance
B. obedience to authority D. spontaneous self-concept

25. Leaders have traits that can influence their actions.

A. Trait Leadership C. Controlled leadership
B. Process leadership D. none of the above

26. Statement 1: Social influence is the change in behavior that one person causes in another, intentionally or
unintentionally, as a result of the way the changed person perceives themselves in relationship to the influencer,
other people and society in general.
Statement 2: Social relationship can be defined as a relationship that is primarily initiated with the purpose of
friendship, socialization, enjoyment or accomplishing a task

A. Only Statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct

B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both Statements are incorrect

27. Statement 1: The Opportunists are the one who secretly hate their leaders and are disloyal. They cannot
easily be identified. They have a strong dislike for the leader and conspire against him.
 Statement 2: Traitors are the ones who can be bought. They always go with the one who is already on the
top. They are not loyal to the leader.
A. Only Statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct
B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both Statements are incorrect

28. Statement 1: Critics are such kind of followers who tend to question and oppose every move of the leader.
They are usually passive. Critical types of followers are often the ones who have not been recognized for their
work or have been denied appreciation.
Statement 2: Royalists are the ones who always stand by the leader. They are the true supporters of the
leader. They always listen carefully to the leader and give true feedback.

A. Only Statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct

B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both Statements are incorrect

29. Statement 1: Collaboration is the most vital characteristics of a good follower. The ability to work being a
part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier.
Statement 2: Ambitious - Ambition is one such thing that boosts the chances of growth and success. A
leader shows the path, whereas the followers walk on it keeping their ambitions in mind.

A. Only Statement 1 is correct C. Both Statements are correct

B. Only Statement 2 is Correct D. Both Statements are incorrect

30. The following are the Qualities of a Good Leadership, EXCEPT:

A. Honesty C. Ability to Build a Good Relation

B. Traits of Inspiring Others D. Loyalty and obedience

31. It refers to a family member is separated from the rest of the family. This may be due to employment far
away; military service; incarceration; hospitalization. They remain significant members of the family.
A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial C. Foster
B. Conditionally Separated D. Immigrant

32. A family where one or more of the children is legally a temporary member of the household. This “temporary”
period may be as short as a few days or as long as the child’s entire childhood.
A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial C. Foster
B. Conditionally Separated D. Immigrant

33. Where one or both of the parents’ sexual orientation is gay or lesbian. This may be a two-parent family, an
adoptive family, a single parent family or an extended family.
A. Foster C. Single parent
B. Gay/Lesbian D. Trans-racial Adoptive
34. The parents of the family are members of different racial identity groups.
A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial C. Foster
B. Conditionally Separated D. Immigrant
35. Which of the following refers to a family where the adopted child is of a different racial identity group than the
parents?
A. Adoptive B. Blended C. Extended D. Nuclear
36. A family unit consisting of at most a father, mother and dependent children. It is considered the “traditional”
family.
A. Adoptive B. Blended C. Extended D. Nuclear

37. Which of the following refers to a family consisting of parents and children, along with grandparents,
grandchildren, aunts or uncles, cousins etc. In some circumstances, the extended family comes to live either with or
in place of a member of the nuclear family?
 A. Adoptive B. Blended C. Extended D. Nuclear
38. What refers to a family that consists of members from two (or more) previous families?
A. Adoptive B. Blended C. Extended D. Nuclear
39. This can be either a father or a mother who is singly responsible for the raising of a child. The child can be by
birth or adoption. They may be a single parent by choice or by life circumstances.
A. Foster C. Single parent
B. Gay/Lesbian D. Trans-racial adoptive

40. Family where one or more of the children has been adopted. Any structure of family may also be an adoptive
family.
A. Foster C. Single parent
B. Gay/Lesbian D. Trans-racial adoptive
41. How do you define a career?
A. Career refers to a setting of deadlines in achieving the goals on a specific time.
B. Career refers to a major plan that considers the situations among families especially in going
college, or are about to enter college.
C. Career defined as a work that challenges someone to manage and pursue a scholarship to aid in
pursuing a dream.
D. Career is defined as an occupation undertaken for a significant period of a person's life and
with opportunities for progress.

42. Which one is an external factor influencing a Filipino adolescent’s in choosing a career?
A. Parental preferences
B. Career choice of friends
C. Family considerations, financial constraints, job market preference (Immediate
Employment), school location
D. Both A and B
43. What do you call the external influencing factors that parents have some idea of what course you should take
up in college?
A. Parental preferences C. Financial constraints
B. Family considerations D. Job market preference
44. What do you call the external influencing factors that might happen associated with a particular gender?
A. Gender bias C. Family considerations
B. Parental preferences D. Financial constraints

45. What do you call a career development theory that is based on observations that people possess traits, behaviors
and interests?
A. The Realistic type
B. The Artistic type
C. The Investigative type
D. Holland’s Theory of Vocational Types

46. What do you call the term that will help you sort out your priorities and how you want to live your life? It may
include short-term and long-term goals, or life-long aspirations?
A. Aspirations C. Life priority
B. Life goals D. Personal mission statement

47. Which of the following is NOT included in personal development career plan personal mission?
A. Career
B. Career Plan
C. Education
D. Personal attributes, such as honesty, loyalty and dedication
48. Angel needs to appear more composed during the interview because she needs to get the teaching job. What
key factors does she need?

A. Education C. Motivation
B. Empathy D. Self-awareness

49. Statement 1: An honest assessment and evaluation of a teenager’s work style will help them decide a career
to consider. A serious thought about certain career should be prepared by an adolescent.
Statement 2: Real life experience in the work environment where teenagers may think they want to work can help
them make up their minds on the career they will pursue.

A. Only Statement 1 is correct C. Both statements are correct

B. Only statement 2 is correct D. Both statements are incorrect

50. Which of the following refers to the characteristics that make us unique or different from others?
A. Career development C. Personal Development
B. Career Growth D. Personality trait

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question and/or statement carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided
for you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.
NOTE: Print the Diagnostic Test in color.

1. What refers to the formation of the heavy elements by fusion of lighter nuclei within stars?
A. nuclear fusion
B. nuclear fission
C. stellar nucleosynthesis
D. supernova nucleosynthesis

2. What is the difference between transuranic elements and super heavy elements?

A. The former are elements with atomic numbers beyond lawrencium (Z = 103) while the latter are synthetic
elements with atomic numbers higher than that of uranium (Z = 92).

B. The former are elements with atomic numbers beyond lawrencium (Z = 92) while the latter are synthetic
elements with atomic numbers higher than that of uranium (Z = 103).

C. The former are synthetic elements with atomic numbers higher than that of uranium (Z = 103) while the
latter are elements with atomic numbers beyond lawrencium (Z = 92).

D. The former are synthetic elements with atomic numbers higher than that of uranium (Z = 92) while the
latter are elements with atomic numbers beyond lawrencium (Z = 103).

3. Which statements demonstrate accurate data when the intermolecular forces of a molecule are stronger?
I. Viscosity is higher.
II. Solubility is greater. I II. Vapor pressure is higher.
 IV. Surface tension is weaker.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

For the no.4 item, one or more of the options may be correct. Select your answer, A-D, using the following code.

4. Which of the following examine(s) the shape or molecular geometry of a substance using VSEPR? C.

I. Finding the central atom of a molecule

II. Drawing the appropriate free-body diagram of the molecule III. Determining the electron pair
orientation using the total number of atoms
IV. Naming the shape or molecular geometry based on the location of the atoms

5. Based on their relative strengths of attraction, evaluate the comparison between intermolecular forces.

A. dipole-dipole < ion-dipole

B. ion-dipole = dipole-dipole
C. hydrogen bonding < London dispersion forces
D. London dispersion forces = hydrogen bonding

6. What is known as the ability of a substance (solid, liquid, or gas) to dissolve in a given substance (solid, liquid, or
gas)?

A. solubility
B. viscosity
C. boiling point
D. melting point

7. Which drink sources contains lactose?

A. beer
B. juice
C. milk
D. wine
8. Pescatarian (sometimes spelled "pescetarian" with an e) is a term sometimes used to describe those who abstain
from eating all meat and animal flesh with the exception of fish and other seafood. What macromolecule does
seafood most likely fall under?

A. lipid
B. protein
C. nucleic acid
D. carbohydrate

9. It states that reacting substances must come into contact with enough activation energy and correct orientation.
A. Big bang B. Collision
C. Kinetic
D. Relativity

10. Which statement BEST describes how a catalyst can speed up a chemical reaction?

A. It makes lower energy pathways available.

B. It increases the concentration of products.
C. It increases the concentration of reactants.
D. It binds to the enzymes to release substrates.

11. What will happen once the reaction is used up? A. It stops.
B. It blows.
C. It continues.
D. It disappears.

12. ,
A student reacts 50 g of H2 with an excess of oxygen and produces 350 g of H2O. Find the percent yield for this
reaction.
A. 77.78 %
B. 78.77%
C. 87.77%
D. 97.78%

13. An island has a large number of wind turbines and a coal-fired power station. The island needs to use the
electricity generated by the coal-fired power station at certain times. Why is this so?
A. Wind is a renewable energy resource.
B. Wind turbine power output is constant.
C. The fuel cost for wind turbines is very high.
D. The power output of wind turbines is unpredictable.

14. It is commonly known as bleach.

A. Sodium silicate
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sodium hypochlorite
15. What is the function of enzymes in breaking down the food that we eat? A. Enzymes serves as a catalyst.
B. Enzymes increased activation energy.
C. Enzymes make the reactant bounced off each other.
D. Enzymes help in lowering the speed of chemical reaction.

16. According to Eratosthenes, which of the following explains why a vertical stick casts a shadow in Alexandria but
not in Syene?

I. The Sun is directly overhead in Syene while in Alexandria, it is only almost directly overhead.
II. The light rays coming from the sun are parallel, and the Earth is curved. III. The light rays coming
from the sun are curved, and the Earth is flat. IV. The Sun is directly overhead in Alexandria while in Syene,
it is only almost directly overhead.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D.II and IV

17. Why don't we have a lunar eclipse every month? I. Lunar eclipses can only occur in autumn.
II. Astronomers have yet to provide an answer to this question.
III. We do have them every month, but they are not visible everywhere. IV. The Moon's orbit is inclined
relative to Earth's orbit and when the moon is full, it is generally either north or south of Earth's shadow

A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and 1V only

18. What do you think is the common between the structures of Stonehenge, the Templo Mayor, the Sun Dagger, and
the Big Horn Medicine Wheel?
A. They all can be used as lunar calendars.
B. They were all places used for religious sacrifice.
C. They were all built on the orders of ancient kings.
D. They were all used by ancient people for astronomical observations.

19. Which of the following is an example of a violent motion?

A. a water falling B. an air moving upward.
C. a laptop pushed along the table
D. a vase dropped from the window

20. What is Galileo's concept of falling objects in his experimentation?

A. object falling with changing speed
B. object falling with changing direction
C. object falling with uniform acceleration
D. object falling with changing acceleration
21. What is the essence of seatbelt in car? I. For the safety of the passenger.
II. Seatbelts allows the passenger to stay in place, when the car suddenly stops.
III. Seatbelts are important safety devices in a car.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III

22. A light bulb produces various wavelengths of energy called light spectrum. The visible light is the segment of
electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to human eye. Which of the following colors of the visible light spectrum
contains the lowest amount of energy?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow

23. Atomic spectra are created due to the changes in the energy. What subatomic particle is involved in this
phenomenon?

A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. positrons
D. protons

24. On the atomic level energy and matter exhibit the characteristics of _______.
A. waves only
B. particles only
C. Both particles and waves
D. Neither particles nor waves

25. If your slits from the double slit experiment are further apart, the light waves will:

A have longer bright fringes

B. not produce a diffraction pattern
C. be coming from spots that are further apart
D. remain as is compared when the slits are narrow

26. Which of the following IS TRUE about rainbows?

I. Primary and secondary rainbows occur in the order ROYGBIV.
II. Rainbow forms a circular arc around the solar point which located above your head.
III. Primary rainbow forms between 45° and 50° from anti-solar point. IV. Rainbows result from
reflection of sunlight in falling water droplets plus refraction of the light from the back of the droplet.
 A. I
B. II
C. III and IV
D. II, III, IV

27. Which of the following apparatus did Hertz use to produce the radio waves?
A. Wire loop
B. Magnetic inductor
C. Spark gap transmitter
D. Semiconductor analyzers

28.Which of the following is a postulate of special relativity?

A. The color of light is the same for all observers.

B. Speed of two objects is the same for all observers.
C. Physicists can make no measurement in a moving reference frame. D. The laws pf physics are the same for
all observers in uniformly moving frames of reference.

29. Jack and Jill are twins, and both have the same height. Jack was sent on space mission to circumnavigate the Solar
system for 10 years, flying at constant speed.
After the mission, what difference can be observed between the twins. A. Jill will be taller.
B. Jack will be taller.
C. Jill will look younger.
D. Jack will look younger.

30. Teacher Prince discussed on what’s so “special” about Special Relativity Theory. He explained the Inertial
Reference frame and he presented a video. He then asked the class which of the following reference frames is
NOT an inertial reference frame?
A. A woman on the street not moving.
B. A woman in a car that is not accelerating.
C. A man on a car speeding up on a freeway.
D. A man on a train that is moving at constant velocity.
31. Which of the following is TRUE about black hole?
A. The black hole will suck up its neighboring objects.
B. The wavelength will get shorter so as the frequency.
C. The time slows down when compared to the time on Earth.
D. The gravitational force is too weak for the light to pass through.

32.What is the branch of science that deals with the celestial objects, space and the physical universe as a whole?
A. Astronomy
B. Biology
C. Chemistry
D. Physics

33. How the Big Bang Theory supports the idea of the creation of the universe? A. Galaxies are moving through
space, not with space.
B. The Big Bang was an explosion that carried matter outward from a point. C. The evidence of cosmic
microwave background, or energy that was left as a result of recombination.
 D. The universe become hot as it expanded that causes protons and neutrons came together by nuclear fusion.
34. Working in his topic on nuclear reaction, Ben is determined to assess the following equation:

What can he evaluate from the given equation?

A. The fission of Be-4 and H-4 yield to C-12.
B. The fission of Be-8 and H-4 yield to C-12.
C. The fusion of Be-4 and H-4 yield to C-12.
D. The fusion of Be-8 and H-4 yield to C-12.

For item 35 code the correct assertion-reason statements. Use the code shown in the table.

Table 2. Assertion-Reason Statements

35. Statement 1: Fats and sugars are triglycerides. D.

Statement 2: Triglycerides are composed of glycerol and three fatty acids.

36. Justify how the distance between the source and the observer affects the increase or decrease in the frequency of
sound, light, or waves.

A. The wavelength of the light is stretched, so the light is seen as 'shifted' towards the red part of the spectrum.
B. Parallax is an apparent displacement or difference in the apparent position of an object viewed along two
different lines of sight.
C. The cosmic distance ladder is the chain of overlapping methods by which astronomers establish a distance
scale for objects in the universe,
D. Doppler effect is the apparent difference between the frequency at which sound or light waves leave a
source and that at which they reach an observer.

37. Big Bang Model show scientific evidences that the universe once began to expand and continues to expand until
today. The following are the evidences, EXCEPT.

A. An explosion that carried matter outward from a point.

B. Nucleosynthesis as the reaction began with fusion of protons and neutrons forming nuclei.
C. Hubble expansion which states that other galaxies are moving away relative to the Milky Way at a rate
proportional to distance.
D. Cosmic microwave background is the afterglow of radiation when early stage of the universe was hot and
dense then undergo a cooling process.

38. Why is red colour always seen on top while blue is at the bottom of a rainbow?
 A. Red has a long wavelength so it moves faster and is refracted the least by water droplets in the air.
B. Blue has a long wavelength so it moves faster and is refracted the most by water droplets in the air.
C. Blue has a short wavelength so it moves faster and is refracted the most by droplets of water in the
atmosphere.
D. Red has a short wavelength so it moves faster and is refracted the least by droplets of water in the
atmosphere.

39. The following reactions take place in the integration of beta decay into an isotope, EXCEPT:
A. Its atomic number goes up by one.
B. Its mass number remains the same.
C. It emits helium-4 nucleus or alpha particle.
D. It emits an electron in the form of beta particle.

40. Based from the Figure 1 below, what do you think is the factor affecting the chemical reaction not taking place?

A. Sufficient Energy
B. Insufficient Energy
C. Wrong Orientation
D. Correct Orientation

41. There is a difference between a disinfectant and a sanitizer. Which of the following supports this statement?

A. False, because disinfectants and sanitizers have an equal efficacy against pathogens.
B. False, because sanitizers and disinfectants are often used in healthcare and education settings.
C. True, because disinfectants usually have a greater efficacy against pathogens than sanitizers.
D. True, because sanitizers and disinfectants are designed to kill the types of bacteria that cause foodborne
illness.

42. What is the angle of reflection made by a light ray that is incident at 10° on the mirror, as shown in the figure
below?
Figure 2. An angle of reflection made by a light ray that is incident at 10° on the mirror
Source:https://www.rpi.edu/dept/phys/ScIT/InformationTransfer/reflrefr/rr_sample/images/rrsam_05_q1.gif

A. 10°
B. 80°
C. 90°
D. 110°

43. Study the interactions (i.e. red dots) between the molecules below. Which one of the structural representations*
shown illustrates dipole-dipole? D.

44. Illustrate how the process of fission is being observed in using uranium nuclei to heat water.

A. Uranium atom splits and releases a large amount of heat energy.

B. Uranium and oxygen collide and releases a large amount of energy.
C. Uranium atom combined and releases a large amount of heat energy.
D. Uranium and hydrogen collide and releases a large amount of energy.

45. Arrange the following types of electromagnetic radiation in increasing frequency:

 I. Infrared
II. Ultraviolet
III. Visible light
IV. X-ray

A. I, II, III, IV
B. IV, III, II, I
C. III, I, II, IV
D. I, III, II, IV

46. Which of the following observations can be seen when you shine a red light in a white paper with red and green
dots?

I. Green dots appear black.

II. White paper appears white.
III. Red dots can be still be seen.

A.................................................................................................................................................I
B................................................................................................................................................II
C. I andD. I and III, ............................................................................................II

47. Which one of the following describes the geometric shape of iron pentacarbonyl
A. Tetrahedral
B. Trigonal Planar
C. Trigonal Pyramidal
D. Trigonal Bipyramidal

48. What does the theory of modern Physics tells us about light?
A. Demonstrate wave property only
B. Exclusively shows particle property
C. It combines wave and particle properties
D. It has neither wave nor particle properties

49. What measures the relative tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when chemically combined with
another atom?

A. Atomic size
B. Electron affinity
C. Electronegativity
D. Ionization energy
50. What phenomenon occurs when colors of a rainbow are seen when light passes through a glass prism?

A. diffraction of light
B. dispersion of light
C. scattering of light
D. reflection of light
DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN GENERAL CHEMISTRY I SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Which of the following properties can be classified as an intensive property of matter?

A. Color B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Weight

2. How could you separate a mixture of sand and iron fillings?

A. Decantation
B. Distillation
C. Evaporation
D. Magnetism

3. Table salt is a compound with the chemical name, Sodium Chloride. What is its chemical formula?
A. CaCO3
B. Mg(OH)2
C. NaBr
D. NaCl

4. Illustrate the formula for the compound that forms between the element sodium and bromine.
A. NaBr
B. NaBr2
C. Na2Br
D. SBr2

5. Which of the following household cleaning materials should not be mixed with an acid to avoid the release of
toxic chlorine gas?
A. Commercial soap
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite

6. Which of the following can be separated using this method as shown in figure 1?
 Figure 1. Thin Liquid Chromatography Sample
(Source:https://msfinneganssciencewebsite.weebly.com/uploads/1/4/1/3/14133966/separating_mixtures__exa
m_questions.pdf)

A. Colors in black dyes

B. Mixture of salt and water
C. Mixture of Sand and iron fillings
D. Mixture of ethyl alcohol and water

7. An atom X contains 33 protons, 35 neutrons and 33 electrons. Which of the following is the correct isotopic
symbol for this atom?
68
A. X
33
B. 𝑋
68

35
66
C. 𝑋
33
66
D. X
35

8. Which of the following formulas represent the figure below?

Figure 2. Chemical Structure of Methane

(Illustrated by: Myra Joy B. Montero)
A. Empirical formula
B. Molecular formula
C. Structural formula
D. Condensed formula
9. Examine what compound the figure below represents.

Figure 3. Chemical Structure of an alcohol

(Illustrated by: Myra Joy B. Montero)

A. Ethanol
B. Butanol
C. Propanol
D. Methanol

10.A science student read (NH4)2SO4 in a bottle. What is the name of this compound?
A. Ammonium sulfate
B. Ammonium disulfate
C. Diammonium sulfate
D. Diammonium disulfate

11.Which of the following is the correct formula for the ionic compound containing
Fe3+ and SO42- ?
A. FeSO4
B. Fe2SO4
C. Fe2(SO4)3
D. Fe3(SO4)2

12.A 0.500 g sample of a compound containing only antimony and oxygen was found to contain 0.418 g of antimony
and 0.082 g of oxygen. What is the simplest formula for the compound?
A. SbO
B. SbO2
C. Sb3O4
D. Sb2O3

13.A compound contains, by mass, 40.0% carbon, 6.71% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen. A 0.320 mole sample of this
compound weighs 28.8 g. Calculate the molecular formula of this compound.
A. CH2O
B. C2H4O
C. C2H4O2
D. C3H6O3
14.Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a hormone secreted into the bloodstream in times of stress. It contains 59.0% C,
7.15% H, 26.20% O, and 7.65% N and has a molar mass of 183 g/mol. Calculate the molecular formula using
the given components previously mentioned.
A. CH2NO
B. C2H4NO
C. C8H6NO2
D. C9H13NO3

15.Diagram I in Figure 1 represents the reactant mixture for a chemical reaction. Compare diagrams II through IV,
then find out the product mixture that is consistent with both diagram I and the concepts associated with a
balanced chemical equation.

Figure 4. Reactant (I) and Product (II-IV) of a Chemical Reaction

(Illustrated by: Ryan Paul M. Vales)
A. II only
B. III only
C. IV only
D. III and IV

16.Evaluate the following chemical equations. Select the equation that is correctly written and follows the concepts
associated with a balanced chemical equation.
A. 4NH3 + 5O2 ⎯⎯→ 4NO + 6H2O
B. 4Al + 12HCl ⎯⎯→ 4AlCl3 + 6H2
C. 2Mg + 2HCl2 ⎯⎯→ 2MgCl2 + H2
D. 3Cu + 3Ag(NO3)3 ⎯⎯→ 3Cu(NO3)3 + 3Ag

17.Given the following chemical reaction, C 6H12O6 + 6O2 ⎯⎯→ 6CO2 + 6H2O, how many moles of glucose, C6H12O6,
can be "burned" biologically when 15.0 mol of oxygen is available?
A. 0.400 mol
B. 1.67 mol
C. 2.50 mol
 D. 90.0 mol

18.The table 1 below shows the production of companies manufacturing hydrogen gas out of the decomposition of
hydrogen peroxide.

Table 1. Production of Hydrogen Gas (hypothetical data only)

Company Amount of H2O2 Used (g) Amount of H2 Produced (g)

A 30 1.5
B 40 1.8
C 50 1.8
D 60 2.2
(Tabulated by: Ryan Paul M. Vales)
In terms of production, which company would be best for investment?

A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C
D. Company D

19.A laboratory is manufacturing acetylene (C 2H2) at 94.5% efficiency. At this rate, a lab aide reported that 338 g of
C2H2 was produced from 358 g of H2O and an excess of CaC2. Is the lab aide telling the truth?

CaC2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→ C2H2 + Ca(OH)2

A. Yes, the personnel reported truthfully.

B. No, at that efficiency, 489 g of C2H2 should have been produced.
C. No, at that efficiency, only 244 g of C2H2 could have been produced.
D. No, C2H2 cannot be produced since there is only one reactant given.

20.A personnel in a laboratory manufacturing iodine (I 2) predicted that 0.791 grams of molecular chlorine will be
required to completely react with 0.0223 moles of sodium iodide according to the following chemical reaction,

2NaI + Cl2 ⎯⎯→ 2NaCl + I2

Is the personnel’s prediction correct? A. Yes, the prediction is

correct.
B. No, 3.16 grams will be required to ensure complete reaction of the reactants.
C. No, only 0.112 grams will be required to ensure complete reaction of the reactants.
D. No, no matter how much chlorine will be added, the reaction won’t be completed since NaI is the limiting
reactant.
21.Pressure is equal to which of the following?
A. A/F, where A is area and F is force
B. F/A, where F is force and A is area
C. d/F, where d is distance and F is force
D. F/d, where F is force and d is displacement

22.The following figure represents one mole of an ideal gas in a container fit with a movable piston.

Figure 5. One Mole of Ideal Gas in a Container with Movable Piston

(Illustrated by: Ryan Paul M. Vales)

Which figure shows the change, if any, that would take place if the Kelvin temperature is doubled under constant
pressure?

A.

B.

C.

D.
23.A laboratory assistant predicted that their laboratory would need at least a 45liter container to hold 2.00 mol of
oxygen gas at Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP). Is the laboratory assistant correct?
A. Yes, using Avogadro’s Law, 2.00 mol O2 would occupy 45 liters at STP.
B. Yes, using the Ideal Gas Equation, 2.00 mol O2 would occupy 45 liters at STP.
C. No, stoichiometric calculations would tell that at least 90-liter container must be prepared.
D. No, stoichiometric calculations would tell that a 5-liter container could already contain the said amount of
gas.

24.A mixture of 0.50 mol H 2(g) and 0.50 mol N2(g) is introduced into a 15.0-liter container having a pinhole leak at
30°C. Evaluate which of the following situations would be true after a period of time.
A. The partial pressure of H2 would exceed that of N2 in the container.
B. The partial pressure of N2 would exceed that of H2 in the container.
C. The partial pressures of both gases would increase above their initial values.
D. The partial pressure of H2 in the container would increase above the initial value.

25.Which of the following is an SI unit that can be used in stoichiometric calculations?

A. Ω
B. mol
C. km
D. Hz

26.Evaluate the following statements to determine which of them is a FALSE assumption about the following
chemical reaction.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

A. If 16.0 g of methane react with 64.0 g of oxygen, the combined masses of the products will be 80.0 g.
B. If 11.2 liters of methane react with an excess of oxygen, the volume of carbon dioxide produced at STP is
11.2 liters.
C. If 32.0 g of oxygen reacts with excess methane, the maximum amount of carbon dioxide produced will be
22.0 g.
D. If 22.4 liters of methane at STP react with 64.0 g of oxygen, 22.4 liters of carbon dioxide at STP can be
produced.

27.Infer as to which gas will diffuse most rapidly.

A. N2
B. He
C. Cl2
D. CO2
28.Which principal energy level will contain electrons with the lowest energy?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

29.Evaluate the orbital diagrams below. Which element will likely exhibit magnetic moments?

Element A Element B Element C

A. Element A
B. Element B
C. Element A and C
D. Element B and C

30.Which of the following is the correct orbital diagram for Nitrogen?

A.
B.
C.
D.

31.Study the orbital diagram below, which of the following statements concerning orbital diagrams is correct?

I. There are six electrons in the outermost shell.

II. There are eight electrons in the outermost shell.
III. The orbital diagram implies that the element is diamagnetic.
IV. The orbital diagram implies that the element is paramagnetic.

A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I and IV
D. II and III

32.What will happen when an atom gains an electron?

 A. It will become a cation with a positive charge.
B. It will become a cation with a negative charge.
C. It will become an anion with a positive charge.
D. It will become an anion with a negative charge.
33.Which of the following statements best explains why nitrogen has a higher ionization energy than oxygen?
A. Ionization energy increases from right to left in a period.
B. Ionization energy increases from left to right in a period.
C. It has three electrons in each of the three p orbital making it more stable.
D. It has 3 pairs of electrons in each of the three p orbital making it more stable.

34.Given their electron configurations, why do He, Ne and Ar do not form chemical bonds with other elements?

He - 1s2
Ne - 1s2 2s2 2p6
Ar - 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

A. They have even numbers of electrons in their outermost shell.

B. They are stable because their valence shell is completely filled.
C. They are the last group in the periodic table that is why they are chemically inert.
D. They are stable because they have eight valence electrons in their outermost shell.

35.Which type of chemical bonds involves equal sharing of electrons?

A. Ionic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Polar covalent bond
D. Nonpolar covalent bond

36.Which of the following compounds has a Lewis structure which violates the octet rule?
A. CCl4
B. ClF3
C. PCl3 D. SO3

37.What is the O—C—O bond angle in CO2?

A. 90°
B. 109.5°
C. 120°
D. 180°
38.What is the electron-group geometry of the compound shown below?

Figure 6. Chemical Structure of Methane

(Illustrated by: Pamela Lou C. Suazo)
A. Bent
B. Linear
C. Tetrahedral
D. Trigonal Planar

39.A polar covalent bond will form between which two atoms?
A. beryllium and fluorine
B. hydrogen and chlorine
C. sodium and oxygen
D. fluorine and fluorine

40.In which of the following bonds is the bond polarity INCORRECT? A.

B.

C.

D.

41.In the homologous series below, what compound is next to pentane?

propane, butane, pentane, ________
A. decane
B. hexane
C. methane
D. octane

42.To what class of organic compound does the following substance belong?
 Figure 7. Chemical Structure of an Organic Compound
(Illustrated by: Cristobert C. Ayaton)
A. ester
B. ether
C. ketone
D. carboxylic acid

43.Which of the following statements about isomers is/are TRUE?

I. Cyclohexane and methyl cyclopentane are isomers.

II. When compounds have the same molecular formula but different structures, they are called
isomers.

III. A molecule has one carbon-carbon double bond. All isomers of this molecule must also have one
carbon-carbon double bond.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III

44.Which of the following is NOT a product of combustion of organic fuels?

A. heat
B. water
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide

45.Predict the product of hydrogenation reaction of pent-2-ene.

Figure 8. Hydrogenation reaction of pent-2-ene

(Source: https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/fundamentals-of-general-organic-and-biological-chemistry-
7thedition-chapter-13-problem-58ap-solution-9780321776143)

A. Pent-2-yne (or 2-pentyne)

 B. Pent-1-ene (or 1-pentene)

C. Pentane

D. 2-Methylpentane

46.It is a reaction in which polymers are synthesized.

A. synthesis
B. polymerization
C. decomposition
D. single displacement

47.A condensation polymer is formed when ______________ A. polymers are converted from gas to liquid.
B. successive monomers are repeatedly joined together.
C. monomers are joined together to make a high-density polymer.
D. monomers are combined to produce water or some other small molecule.

48.Select the best current option for decreasing the amount of plastic waste in the environment.
A. recycling
B. incineration
C. automated sorting of the types of plastic
D. development of new environmentally friendly materials

49.Which of the following are best matched options?

I II
(1) Starch (W) Energy storage
(2) Collagen (X) Transport protein
(3) Glycogen (Y) Structural protein
(4) Hemoglobin (Z) Essential fatty acid
(5) Omega-3 & Omega-6
A. 1-W, 3-X, 2-Z, 5-Y, 4-W
B. 1-W, 4-Z, 3-Y, 5-Z, 2-Y
C. 1-W, 5-Z, 2-Y, 4-X, 3-W
D. 1-Z, 2, X, 3-W, 4-Z, 5-Y

50.Refer to the following statements to answer the following item.

 Assertion (A): DNA and RNA molecules are found in the nucleus of the cell.
Reason (R): There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines and pyrimidines. Adenine (A) and Guanine
(G) are substituted purines; Cytosine (C), Thymine (T), and Uracil (U) are substituted pyrimidines.

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

A. Assertion (A) is a correct statement, but Reason (R) is a wrong statement.

B. Assertion (A) is a wrong statement, but Reason (R) is a correct statement.
C. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are both correct statements, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
Assertion (A).
D. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are both correct statements, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
Assertion (A).

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN GENERAL PHYSICS 2 SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. If a positively charged sphere is taken close to another uncharged sphere, then which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Attraction occurs before induction
B. Induction occurs before the attraction
C. Attraction or repulsion may occur immediately
D. Induction and attraction occur simultaneously

2. An isolated charged point particle produces an electric field with magnitude E at a point 2m away. At a point 1m
from the particle, the magnitude of the field is _________.
A. the same
B. half as much
C. twice as much
D. four times as much

3. Two charges, +Q and –Q, are placed a distance d from a negative charge – q. The charges, +Q and –Q, are located
along lines perpendicular to each other as shown in the diagram below.

Figure 3. Two charges, +Q and –Q, are placed a distance d from a negative charge – q.
(Source: https://images.app.goo.gl/1AQAFEwmXTadX1Zt7)
 Which one of the following arrows correctly shows the direction of the net force acting on charge –q due to the
presence of charges +Q and –Q?

A.

B.

C. D.
4. Positive charge +Q is uniformly distributed on the upper half a semicircular rod and negative charge −Q on the
lower half. What is the direction of the electric field at point P, the center of the semicircle?

Figure 4. Two charges, +Q and –Q, are placed a distance point P. (Source:
https://images.app.goo.gl/xeZd4iyQ4R8RXoKi9)

A.

B.

C.
D.

5. There are three charges q1, q2, and q3 having charges of 6 pC, 5 pC and 3 pC respectively enclosed in a surface.
What is the total flux enclosed by the surface?
A. -22.13 Nm2/C
B. -17.54 Nm2/C
C. 1.03 Nm2/C
D. 1.58 Nm2/C

6. Gauss's law provides a convenient way to calculate the electric field outside and near each of the following isolated
charged conductors except for a _____________.
A. cube
B. large plate
C. sphere
D. solid rod

7. An electric field due to a positive charge is represented by the illustration below. Between which of the following
two points does the electric field do zero work on a moving charge?
 Figure 9. Electric field of a positively charged particle.
(Source: https://physexams.com/img/courses/Electrostatic/electric%20flux/electric%20flux-3.png)

A. A and B
B. B and C
C. C and D
D. D and E

8. Which of the following equations describes the work done by ⃗𝑭⃗ in terms of potential energy if the force is
conservative?

A. 𝑊𝑎 →𝑏 = ∆𝑈 = 𝑚𝑣2
B. 𝑊𝑎 →𝑏 = −∆𝑈 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ
C. 𝑊𝑎 →𝑏 = ∆𝑈 = −(𝑈𝑏 + 𝑈𝑎)
D. 𝑊𝑎 →𝑏 = −∆𝑈 = −(𝑈𝑏 + 𝑈𝑎)

9. Which of the following is TRUE about a point charge q produces an electric field E at all point in space?
A. The field produced by a neutral point charge points toward the charge.
B. The field produced by a positive point charge points toward the charge.
C. The field produced by a positive point charge points away from the charge.
D. The field produced by a negative point charge points away from the charge.

10.Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a single positive charge?

A. B. C. D.

11.A proton (charge +e=1.602 𝑥 10−19 C) moves a distance d = 0.50 𝑚 in a straight line between points a and b in a
linear accelerator. The electric field is uniform along this line, with magnitude 𝐸 = 1.5 𝑥 107 𝑉/𝑚 = 1.5 𝑥 107 𝑁/𝐶 in
the direction from a to b. For the proton to be able to move from point a to point b, how much force must be exerted
on the proton?
A. 2.4x10-12 N
B. 3.7x10-10 N
C. 4.8x10-9 N
 D. 5.2x10-8 N

12.Given n capacitors with charge Q and capacitance C, you will get the greatest energy stored in ___________.
A. series circuits
B. closed circuits
C. parallel circuits
D. complex circuits
13.Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in circuit with values of 6.0 𝜇𝐹 and 3.0 6.0 𝜇𝐹, respectively. What will be
the equivalent capacitance of these capacitors when connected in series?
A. 0.5 𝜇𝐹
B. 1.5 𝜇𝐹
C. 2.0 𝜇𝐹
D. 3.1 𝜇𝐹

14.A 20 𝜇𝐹 capacitor is connected to a source of potential difference of 150 V. What is now the resulting charge on the
capacitor?
A. 5.4 x 10-4 C B. 8.6 x 10-4 C C. 3.0 x
10-3 C
D. 4.2 x 10-3 C

15.Which refers to the rate at which charge flows past a point in a circuit?
A. Capacitor
B. Current
C. Resistance
D. Voltage

16.Which is of the following shows the relationship between resistivity and conductivity?
A. Resistivity of a material is proportional to the conductivity of a material.
B. Resistivity of a material is low, the conductivity of the material is also low.
C. Resistivity and Conductivity depend on the movement of electrons through a material
D. Resistivity measures how much a material resist the electricity flow while conductivity measures how easily
electricity flows through a material.

17.What is the resistance of a silver wire 1.00 mm in diameter with a length of 125 m, if the resistivity of silver is 1.47
x 10-8 Ω.m?
A. 0.002 x 10-12 Ω
B. 0.02 𝑥 10-12 Ω
C. 1.00 𝑥 10-12 Ω
D. 1.47 𝑥 10-12 Ω

18.What does current relationship ohmic conductor have over a large range applied voltages?
A. Linear voltage-current relationship
 B. Circular voltage-current relationship
C. Random voltage-current relationship
D. Vibratory voltage-current relationship

19.What power is dissipated in a circuit through which 12 A flows across a potential drop of 3.0 V with resistance 1 Ω?

A. 3W
B. 12 W
C. 36 W
D. 144 W

20.A power transmission line is hung from metal towers with glass insulators having a resistance of 1.0 x 10 9 Ω. What
current flows through the insulator if the voltage is 200 kV? (Some high-voltage lines are DC)
A. 0.1 x 10-3 V B. 0.2 x 10-3 V C. 1.0 x
10-3 V
D. 2.0 x 10-3 V

21.When a voltmeter-ammeter is applied for the measurement of resistance, the voltmeter reads a value of 8.28 V and
Ammeter reading is 4.14 A. What will be the value of the resistance?
A. 0 Ω B. 1 Ω
C. 2 Ω
D. 20 Ω

22.A 20-Ω resistor is connected in parallel to another resistor R. The equivalent resistance of the pair is 12 Ω. What is
the resistance of R?
A. 12 Ω B. 20 Ω C. 30 Ω
D. 40 Ω

23.The figure below is a circuit composed of two source and 3 resistors.

Figure 1. Circuit diagram

Source: https://cnx.org/contents/7DqkHtKM@2/Kirchhoff-s-Rules
Applying voltage rule of Kirchhoff, which is the correct interpretation of the loop?
A. 𝐸3 − 𝐸2 = 𝐼1𝑟1 + 𝐼2𝑟2 B. 𝐸3 = 𝐸2 + 𝐼1𝑟1 + 𝐼2𝑟2
C. 𝐸3 + 𝐸2 = 𝐼1𝑟1 + 𝐼2𝑟2
D. 𝐸3 +𝐼1𝑟1 = 𝐸2 + 𝐼2𝑟2
24.In what direction will the magnetic field lines point in the region just outside the south pole?
A. Go around the south pole
B. Point toward the south pole
C. Point away from the south pole
D. Are less concentrated than at the north pole

25.What would be the magnetic flux in a surface perpendicular to the magnetic field, if the uniform magnetic field is
doubled?
A. Doubled
B. Halved
C. Quadruple
D. Tripled

26.Consider the image of the loop of wire carrying a current in a magnetic field.

Figure 4. A loop of wire carrying a current in a magnetic field.

Source:
https://phys.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/University_Physics/Book%3A_University_Physics_(OpenStax)/ What is
the magnetic force on the upper half of the loop?
A. dF = 𝐼𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑑𝑙
B. dF = 𝐼𝐵𝑅𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑑𝜃
C. F = 2IBR
D. F = -2IBR

27.The force shown below is exerted on an electron as it moves through the magnetic field. In what direction does the
electron move?

Figure 5. Magnetic force and Magnetic Field

Source: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/physics/chapter/22 -4-magnetic-field-strength-force-on-a-movingcharge-in-a-
magnetic-field/
A. Upwards
 B. Downwards
C. Left to right
D. Right to left

28.The figure below consists of two long, straight, and parallel conductors separated by a distance r.

Figure 7. Two long, straight, and parallel conductors separated by a distance r

Source: https://phys.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/University_Physics/Book%3A_University_Physics_(OpenStax

What is the force per unit length between the parallel conductors?
A. 𝐹2 = 𝐼2𝑙𝐵1
B. 𝐵2 = 𝐼2𝑙𝐹2
C. 𝐹 = 𝜇0𝐼1𝐼2
𝑙 2𝜋𝑟
D. 𝐹 = 2𝜋𝑟
𝑙 𝜇0𝐼1𝐼2
29. A magnetic field B is generated by a ring at a point x away from the center on the axis of the ring with current I
flowing around the ring as shown in the diagram below.

Figure 8. Two long

Source: “Sears and Zemansy’s University Physics with Modern Physics” 12th Edition.

What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B?

A. 𝐵𝑥 = 𝜇0𝐼𝑅2
3
2(𝑥2+ 𝑅2)2
B. 𝐵𝑥 = 2𝜇0𝐼𝑅2 3
2
(𝑥2+ 𝑅2) C. 𝐵𝑥 = 𝜇0𝐼𝑅2
2(𝑥2+ 𝑅2)12
D. 𝐵𝑥 = 2𝜇0𝐼𝑅 3
2
 (𝑥2+ 𝑅2)

30.What is common between electrostatic and non-electrostatic field? A. Both are produced by charges.
B. Both are produced by direct current.
C. Both are created from an induced current
D. Both are created from time varying magnetic field through a given region of space.

31.Why is it possible to draw in a tablet with a specially designed pen?

A. The screen has magnetic field that it converts the pen’s tip into an induced emf and translates into a
magnetic field converted into the line you draw in the screen.
B. The screen can induced current that converts the pen’s tip into a magnetic field and translates into an
induced emf converted into the line you draw in the screen.
C. The pen’s tiny magnetic field from the tip causes a changing magnetic field that is felt in the wires which
translates into an induced emf that is converted into the line you draw in the screen.
D. The pen’s tip causes to generate electric current that is felt and read by the wires of the screen which
translate into a electrostatic force that is converted into the line you draw in the screen.

32.A circular loop of wire is placed in a magnetic field as shown below in Figure 2. If the magnetic field is increasing,
what direction is the induced current in?

Figure 2. A circular loop placed in a magnetic field

(Source: 0http://www.chegg.com)

A. Clockwise
B. Into the page
C. Out of range
D. Counterclockwise

33.Is the situation shown in Figure 4 below possible?

 Figure 4. A magnet is thrust in a coil.
(Source: http://www.commons.wikimedia.org)

A. No, the magnet will both gain mechanical energy and electrical energy that will violate the Law of
Conservation of Energy.
B. Yes, the magnet will gain electrical energy and zero mechanical energy that will not violate the Law of
Conservation of Energy.
C. Yes, the flux will increase and the possible direction of inducing flux is opposite to the inducing current. It
doesn’t violate the Law of Conservation of Energy.
D. No, the flux might decrease and the possible direction of inducing flux is in the same direction with
inducing current. It violates the Law of Conservation of Energy.
34.The speed of electromagnetic waves is extremely close to the measured value of what energy?
A. Electricity
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Sound

35.Which of the following conditions will total internal reflection occur? I. The angle of incidence is larger than or
equal to critical angle.
II. The angle of incidence is smaller than or equal to critical angle.
III. The ray in material a is incident on a second material b whose index of refraction is double than that of
material a.
IV. The ray in material a is incident on a second material b whose index of refraction is smaller than that of
material a.

A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and III
D. II and IV

36.A light beams into a diamond at angle of incidence of 30.00°. What is the angle between the yellow (n = 2.417) and
blue (n = 2.444) parts of the refracted light?
A. 0.085° B. 0.130° C. 0.215°
D. 0.280°
37.How do we locate the image formed by a plane mirror by using a ray diagram ? A. Drawing one ray emitted by the
object and applying the law of reflection.
B. Drawing one ray emitted by the object and applying the law of refraction.
C. Drawing two rays emitted by the object and applying the law of reflection.
D. Drawing two rays emitted by the object and applying the law of refraction.

38.If you are standing in front of a plane mirror, what must be minimum length of the mirror to see your full image?
A. Half as your height
B. Same as your height
C. Four-fifths as your height
D. Three-fourths as your height

39.A concave mirror has a focal length of 20cm. If the image formed is located at the radius of curvature, where is the
object located in front of the mirror?
A. 40cm B. 20cm
C. 10cm
D. 5cm

40.A camera employs a ______ lens to form_____ images.

A. Diverging, real
B. Converging, real
C. Diverging, virtual
D. Converging, virtual

41.Retina is the part of the eye where the image will be formed. At which part of the retina the nerves carrying all the
information exit along the optic nerves?
A. Rods
B. Fovea
C. Cones
D. Blind spot

42.The meeting of two out of phase light waves with same amplitude resulted to
A. Super crest
B. Super trough
C. Cancelation of wave
D. Partial cancelation of wave

43.Light of wavelength 580 nm is incident on a slit of width 0.300 mm. An observing screen is placed 2.00m from the
slit. Find the position of the first order dark fringe from the center of the screen.
A. 0.26 mm
B. 1.9 mm C. 3.9 mm
 D. 7.7 mm

44.According to the special theory of relativity, all laws of nature are the same in reference frames that _______.
A. Accelerate
B. Decelerate
C. Move at constant speed
D. Move at varying speed
45.The Special Theory of Relativity is concerned with the comparison of measurements made in different inertial
frames moving with constant velocity relative to one another. Which of the following event is true based on the
special theory of relativity?
A. Clocks that are moving run faster than when they are at rest.
B. Clocks that are moving run slower than when they are at rest.
C. Clocks run at the same rate regardless of whether they are moving or not.
D. Clocks run at rates that depend on an observer’s inertial frame of reference.

46.If the person on the platform sees that the length of the train is reduced while the person on the train will see the
length of the platform is reduced, this refers to?
A. Time Dilation
B. Proper time
C. Proper length
D. Length contraction
47.While the spaceship is still at rest on earth, a woman on board finds that a wooden rod she is carrying is 1 meter
long. When the spaceship is moving very fast deep into the outer space, what will the woman find out about the
length of the same wooden rod she is still carrying? A. It will be longer.
B. It will be shorter.
C. It will gain mass.
D. It will still be of the same length.

48.When does light behaves as if it were composed of particles? A. Under all conditions.
B. When it propagates in space.
C. When it interacts with matter.
D. Under conventional situation.

49.Carbon-11 is a radioactive isotope of carbon. Its half-life is 20 minutes. What fraction of the initial number of C-11
atoms in a sample will have decayed away after 80 minutes?
A. 1/8 B. 1/4
C. 7/8
D. 15/16

50.How old is a bottle of wine if the tritium (3H) content (called activity) is 25% that of a new wine? The half-life of
tritium is 12.5 years.
A. 1/4 yr
B. 3.1 yr
 C. 25 yr
D. 50 yr

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN GENERAL PHYSICS 1 – ANSWERS KEY SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet provided to you. Do not
write anything on this test questionnaire.

1.

2.
3.

4.

5.

6.
7.

8.
9.

10.

11.

12.

13. What do you call to the force that is acted on an object due to gravity?
A. Inertia
B. Mass
C. Tension
D. Weight
14. How do you describe the direction of the weight and normal force? A. The two have the same direction.
B. The magnitude of these two forces is always equal.
C. The two are always in the completely opposite direction.
D. The two have different directions regardless of the surface.

15. Melay is dragging a box of about 115 N within 1.5 m. If the angle between the force and displacement is 25°,
what is the work dissipated?
A. 152.3 J
B. 153.2 J
C. 153.6 J
D. 156.3 J

16. Given the work done, distance traveled, and angle between forces. What possible formula could be derived to find
the exerted force? A.

B.

C.

D.

17. Consider the situation of a block being pulled across a table with a constant force of 5 N over a displacement of 5
m, then the force gradually tapers off over the next 5 m. Based on Figure 1, in which color will work be higher?

A. Red

B. Green
C. Both enjoy equal work
D. The information is insufficient.
18. What do you call that graph of a mechanical system’s potential energy which is easily accomplished in a one-
dimensional system?
A. Energy diagram
B. Potential energy diagram
C. Gravitational energy diagram
 D. Potential gravitational energy diagram

19. Which of the following best describes a neutral equilibrium? A. It is any maximum point in a potential energy
curve.
B. It is when the gravitational potential energy of a certain object remains constant regardless of its position.
C. It is the net assumed conservative force, the net force on a particle, given that the slope of its potential energy
curve is zero.
D. It is when the position is at the minimum potential energy, and therefore a particle will feel a force restoring it
to this position as it moves away.

For items 20-21, refer to Figure 2.

Figure 1. Potential Energy Diagram (Source:

spiff.rit.edu/classes/phys211/workshops/w_force_pote/pote_graph.html)

20. Which position is the equilibrium stable?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

21. How many points are considered unstable?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

22. What is the gravitational potential energy of a 0.15-kg ball elevated for about 8 m?
A. 0.114 J
B. 1.14 J
C. 11.4 J
D. 114 J
23. You want to design a racing car to get through road curves smoothly.
 Which should be considered?

A. Low ground clearance, light chassis, and light roof

B. Light roof, heavy chassis, and low ground clearance
C. Heavy roof, high ground clearance, and light chassis
D. Heavy roof, high ground clearance, and heavy chassis

24. Which of the following is NOT a condition for an object to be in static equilibrium?
A. The object is not moving.
B. It is in rotational equilibrium.
C. It is in translational equilibrium.
D. The object is at constant velocity

25. A uniform rod with a mass of 2 kg and a length of 2.0 m is pivoted about an axis perpendicular to the rod and 50
cm from its left end. What is its rotational inertia about this axis?
A. 2.57 kg·m2
B. 2.17 kg·m2
C. 1.17 kg·m2
D. 0.67 kg·m2

26. A seesaw with mass x is perfectly balanced with a fulcrum in the center.
If mass x changes uniformly, do the net torque change? A. Yes, any increase in weight will
increase torque.

B. Yes, because the gravitational force increases with more mass, and torque is related to force.
C. No, because the net torque is still zero despite increase in one of the individual components.
D. No, because it is balanced, which means that the net torque is zero; a uniform increase in weight keeps
it balanced, allowing the net torque to remain zero.

27. A fan spins with a constant angular speed of 500 rad/s. How long will it take to cover an angle of 2π rad (one
revolution)?
A. 76.9 s
B. 6.28 s
C. 0.013 s
D. 0.002 s

28. In different cases, angular momentum is a product of __________.

A. linear inertia and angular velocity
B. rotational inertia and linear velocity
C. rotational inertia and angular velocity
 D. linear momentum and angular velocity

29. A resultant force of 4.5 N, directed 30˚ north of east, is acting on a particle.
What force is needed to bring the particle into a state of equilibrium?

A. 4.5 N, 30˚ north of east

B. 4.5 N, 30˚ north of west
C. 4.5 N, 30˚ south of east
D. 4.5 N, 30˚ south of west

30. Which one of the following definitions describes the term “interference”? A. It happens when one wave travels
alone.
B. It occurs only when two or more waves overlap and combine.
C. It occurs when two or more waves combine and neutralize each other. D. It is observed only when the phase
difference between the two waves is zero.

31. What will happen when a compression interferes with another compression?
A. They counteract and diminish.
B. They combine to create a rarefaction.
C. They combine to create a larger compression.
D. They combine but the wave effects remain the same.

32. Which of the following best describes the principle of superposition? A. Two stationary waves superimpose to
give two progressive waves.
B. Two progressive waves are superimposed to give stationary waves.
C. A diffraction pattern consists of many interference patterns superimposed on one another.
D. The total displacement due to several waves is the sum of the displacements due to those waves acting
individually.

33. What causes sound when you pluck the string of a guitar?
A. Tuning machines
B. Vibrations of the string
C. Sound hole in the middle of the guitar
D. Frets or metal strips along the length of the neck

34. A guitar string has a length of 0.50 m and produces a wave speed of 565 m/s along it. What is the frequency of the
3rd harmonic?
A. 93.2 Hz
B. 282.5 Hz
C. 1130 Hz
 D. 1712 Hz

35. A wave generated at the left end of the medium undergoes reflection at the fixed end on the right side of the
medium, as shown in Figure 3.

Figure 3. Standing Wave Pattern (Source: https://www.physicsclassroom.com/reviews/sound/Sound-

Waves-and-Music-Review-Answers-2)
How many antinodes are shown in this standing wave pattern?

A. 3.0
B. 5.0
C. 6.0
D. 7.0

36. What is the formula for density?

A. density = mass x volume
B. density = mass / volume
C. density = mass + volume
D. density = mass – volume

37. What is the volume of 150 g of lead if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3?
A. 0.075 g
B. 13.3 g
C. 13.3 cm3
D. 1695 cm3

38. How does a plane fly, theoretically?

A. Airplanes have jet blasters beneath the wing.
B. Gravity creates an equal and opposite reaction because it isn't that strong.
C. High pressure presses up against the low pressure on the bottom of the wing.
D. High pressure presses down against the high pressure on the bottom of the wing.
39. Considering Bernoulli's Principle, what do you think will happen if you set a shower curtain next to running
water?
A. Curtains stays the same
B. Water gets the curtain wet
C. Curtain goes in toward the shower
D. Curtain goes outward from the shower

40. Why is the top of an airplane wing curved?

A. To make the wing look cool
B. To create an area of low pressure above the wing
C. To create an area of high pressure above the wing
D. To create equal pressure above and below the wing

41. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the laws of thermodynamics?
A. Heat flows from an object with low temperature to an object with higher temperature.
B. Thermal equilibrium of two objects with different temperatures will attain at some point.
C. An object with a lower temperature will lose its energies when in direct contact with an object with a higher
temperature.
D. An object with a higher temperature will gain energy from an object with a lower temperature when they are
in direct contact.

42. Why is the electric wire that is connected in the post outside a little bit saggy and not tightly tied?
A. So that it will not be tangled by the other wires
B. To make space for other wires to easily connect
C. So that it will not break once the wire will expand
D. So that it will not hard for the line men to reach it

43. What is thermal expansion?

A. Is a decrease in the volume of a material when temperature decreases
B. Is an increase in the volume of a material when temperature increases C. The transfer of thermal energy
between materials by the collisions of particles
D. The transfer of electric potential energy between materials by the collisions of particles

44.

45. Calculate the

change in
length of a
 100-mm aluminum bar that has increased in temperature by 55 °C. (Take the coefficient of expansion to be 25 x
10-6)
A. 0.1375mm
B. 0.258mm
C. 1.23mm
D. 1.37mm

46. Which of the following laws accounts for temperature, volume, pressure, and moles of gas within an individual
system?
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. Ideal Gas Law
D. Gay-Lussac’s Law

47. What is the density of carbon dioxide in km/m3 at 27 °C at 100 kPa?

A. 1.76
B. 2.76
C. 3.76
D. 4.76

48. What is the area enclosed by the PV graph of a complete heat engine cycle?
A. the heat intake per cycle
B. Equals the heat output per cycle
C. Equals the work done on the engine per cycle
D. Equals the work done by the engine per cycle

49. A gas expands and does 215 J of work on a piston. The gas exerts a pressure of 1230 Pa on the piston. What is
the change in volume of the gas?
A. 0.175 m3
B. 5.72 m3
C. 12.1 m3
D. 264000 m3

50. The temperature of an ideal gas increases from 20 °C to 40 °C while the pressure stays the same. What happens
to the volume of the gas?
A. It doubles
B. It quadruples
C. It slightly increases
D. It slightly decreases
 DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN GENERAL BIOLOGY 1
S.Y. 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and write the correct answer in a separate sheet of paper, or in the answer
sheet provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. Which of the following biologist/s proposed that cell is the structural and functional unit of life?
A. Robert Brown
B. Robert Hooke
C. Theodore Virchow
D. Schleiden and Schwann

2. In the illustration below, what numbered part of the cell where many cellular processes are also taking place such
as protein synthesis, glycolysis, mitosis, and meiosis?

Figure 1. Animal cell

(Source: Printice Hall Inc.)
A. Number 3, controls and regulates the activities of the cell.
B. Number 2, where it keeps cytoplasm from spilling out of a cell.
C. Number 5, where it also support and suspend organelles and cellular molecules.
D. Number 1, where it also helps to move materials, such as hormones, around the cell and also dissolves
cellular waste.

3. What best conclusion can be made from the analogy?

Figure 2. Cell City Model

(Source: Printice Hall Inc.)
 A. Cell city represents a plant cell because it has an ability to manufacture its own food.
B. Cell city represents an animal cell because it has construction site that is absent in plant cell.
C. Cell city represents an animal cell because it has both power plant and food processing plant.
D. Cell city represents a plant cell because it has a wall that prevents the entry of other materials.

4. What type of cell lacks a well-defined nucleus?

A. Bacterial cell
B. Eukaryotic cell
C. Prokaryotic cell
D. Non nucleated cell

5. Which of the following is the function of the meristematic cells and tissues of plants?
A. They serve as storage for food and water.
B. They comprise the photosynthetic tissue of a leaf.
C. They permit the continuous growth of plant throughout its life.
D. They serve as strengthening elements to support mature plant parts

6. Which of the following statements best illustrate the adaptation and function of modified cell?
A. The xylem in the leaf helps the leaf to be positioned horizontally towards the sun.
B. The hair-like structure in the root helps to increase the surface area of root hair cell.
C. Red blood cell has biconcave for increasing its surface area thus diffusion of oxygen in and out of the cell
becomes easy.
D. Guard cells are specialized in such a way that the cell wall in the inner side of the guard cell is thicker than
the outer side which makes the guard cell turgid.

7. Which of the following statement are true?

I. Cell modification is a process that occurs after cell division where the newly formed cells are structurally
modified.
II. Cilia, flagella, and pseudopods are examples apical cell modifications that have a whip like structures.
III. Tight junctions, adhering junctions, and gap junctions are all found in basal surface of the cell.
IV. Basal Modification is specialized structures which facilitate stable adhesion of basal cells to basement
membrane.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, III and IV

D. II, III and IV

8. Which is the correct order of the idea drawn from the figure?
 For item number 6, please refer to the illustration of the cell cycle and control
system.

Source: David O. Morgan, Cell Cycle: Principles of Control, Primers in Biology (New Science Press
Ltd 2007)

I. The G1/S- and S-phase Cdks help promote the activation of M-phase cyclin–Cdk complexes, which drive
progression through the second major checkpoint at the entry into mitosis (G2/M checkpoint).
II. Cyclin–Cdk complexes are activated during G2 Checkpoint, resulting in the phosphorylation of proteins
that initiate DNA replication, centrosome duplication and other early cell-cycle events.
III. Metaphase-to-anaphase transition leads to sister chromatid segregation, completion of mitosis and
cytokinesis.
IV. M-phase cyclin–Cdks phosphorylate proteins that promote spindle assembly, bringing the cell to
metaphase.
A. I, II. III. IV
B. I, IV, III, II
C. II, I, IV, III
D. II, I, III, IV

9. Which of the following can be correctly deduced from the figure?

Source: Jane Reece, et al ., Campbell Biology Ninth Edition. (San

Francisco, California: Pearson Benjamin

I. The cell cycle control system proceeds on its own, driven by a built-in clock. This control system is
subject to internal and external regulation at various checkpoints
II. If a cell receives a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, the cell continues on in the cell cycle.
 III. If a cell does not receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, the cell continues on in cell cycle and
goes into G0, a nondividing state.
IV. G1 is the restriction point.
A. I, II and III
B. I, II, and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV

10. In which phases in meiosis is variation of genetic makeup accomplished?

A. Prophase I, Anaphase I and Anaphase II
B. prophase II, Anaphase I and Anaphase II
C. Prophase I, Metaphase I and Anaphase II
D. Prophase II, Metaphase I and Metaphase II

11. All of the following could be deduced from the table except
CRITERIA MITOSIS MEIOSIS

1. No. of nuclear division

2. Synapsis/crossing over
3. Centromere of sister chromatids at anaphase

4 No. of daughter cells

5. No. of chromosomes per daughter cell

6 .Function

I. The mother cell in mitosis divides only once, while the mother cell in meiosis divides twice.
II. Synapses only takes place in meiosis.
III. Centromere of sister chromatids at anaphase separate in both mitosis and meiosis.
IV. The number of daughter cells in mitosis is 2, while meiosis is 4. V. Mitosis is haploid, meiosis is diploid.
A. I, II, and III
B. I, III, IV and V
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III, V

12. All of the following is significant application of mitosis except

A. Cloning
B. Budding
C. Formation of Gametes
D. Stem Cell Regeneration

13. Which of the following statements best explain the importance of mitosis? I. Mitosis ensures the growth of an
offspring.
II. Mitosis helps in preserving and maintaining the genetic stability of a particular population.
III. Mitosis ensures that the number of chromosomes of the parent cell is identical to its two daughter cells.
 IV. Mitosis maintains the fixed number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms, the most important
contribution in reproduction. A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III, and IV

14. What is called when cells in the body grow uncontrollably and spread to other parts?
A. Aneuploidy
B. Cancer
C. Polyploidy
D. Tumor

15. When an invasive cancer occurs?

A. When genetic mutation occurs in a cell
B. Cells are abnormal and tumor are still in contained within its tissue of origin
C. When cell's descendants mutated and divide excessively and look abnormal.
D. When some cells have additional mutations and allow tumors to invade other tissues through circulatory
system.

16. Choose the correct description of saturated fatty acids. A. Their tails stay bent at low temperature.
B. They have no double bonds and their tails are straight.
C. Their tails can pack tightly together in high temperature.
D. They contain one or more double bonds and their tails are bent.

17. What would be the best analysis for hydrophilic and hydrophobic? A. Hydrophilic is nonpolar while hydrophobic
is polar.
B. Hydrophilic contains a negatively charged phosphate group while hydrophobic consists of long, nonpolar
fatty acid.
C. Hydrophilic contains a positively charged phosphate group while hydrophobic contains a polar fatty acid.
D. Hydrophilic tail moves downward contacting an aqueous fluid inside the membrane while hydrophobic head
interacts with water.

18. Evaluate the statements below and choose what intermolecular process primarily drives the formation of bilayer
when phospholipids are added to water?
A. Phospholipids self-assemble into a bilayer due to the strong affinity they have for each other.
B. A bilayer arrangement maximizes the strength of Van der Waals forces among phospholipids.
C. The ordered arrangement of a bilayer is more favorable than the disordered state of individual free-floating
phospholipids.
D. Lipids cause water to arrange in an ordered, unfavorable cage-like structure. Forcing lipids into a bilayer
reduces this effect.

19.Below are the functions of the plasma membrane in cell except one. What do you think it is?
A. It provides shape to the cell.
B. It can easily be entered by all substances which then be used by the cell.
C. It regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell, protecting it from its surroundings.
D. It carries markers that allow cells to recognize one another and can transmit signals to other cells via
receptors.
20. What are the types of passive transport?
I. Osmosis
II. II. Primary Transport
III. Facilitated Diffusion
IV. Symports and Anti-ports

A. I only
B. II and IV
I and III
D. I, II and III

21.Which of the following processes includes all others?

A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion of a solute across a membrane
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Passive transport

22.Supposed that there are several foreign cells have entered your blood stream, evaluate what process that your cell
in your immune system would undergo immediately?
A. Exocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Receptor-mediated cytosis

23.What would possibly happen if the cells inside your body will stop eating/drinking unnecessary substances? A.
Cells will continue to function.
B. Damaged cells will be disposed.
C. Viruses will enter into the cell at the same site.
D. Pathogens will be engulfed properly to be destroyed.

24.Does enzymatic work speed up rate of reaction? Why? A. Yes, because it is biological catalyst.
B. Yes, because they lower the activation energy.
C. Yes, because they do not build up large molecules from smaller ones.
D. Yes, because they are unchanged at the end of the reaction and can be reused.
25.Does enzyme has optimum pH and temperature which they can work best? A. No, for enzyme they can work at
any given temperature.
B. Yes, they have a required condition for their optimal functioning.
C. No, what is required from them is abundant space to dilute freely.
D. Yes, all enzymes work best at low pH and temperature of 40 degree Celsius.
26.Which of the following refers to beta-oxidation?
A. the assembly of sugars
B. the breakdown of sugars
C. the breakdown of fatty acids
D. the removal of amino groups from amino acids
27.What is the special chlorophyll pigments that serves as primary reaction center in Photosystem I?
A. P 680
B. P 700
C. Has not been identified
D. Primary reaction center

28.Plants are very unique among other organisms due to their capability to trap sunlight and make their own food.
Which of the following enables plants to trap energy from the sun?
A. Chlorophyll
B. Chloroplast
C. Cuticle
D. Epidermis

29.There are connections between the different stages of photosynthesis. Applying this knowledge, what is the overall
outcome of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis?
A. Sugar and ATP are produced during the light-dependent reactions and are used to power the light-independent
reactions.
B. NADPH and ATP molecules are produced during the light-independent reactions and are used to power the
light-dependent reactions.
C. Carbon dioxide and NADPH are produced during the light-independent reactions and are used to power the
light-dependent reactions.
D. NADPH and ATP molecules are produced during the light-dependent reactions and are used to power the light-
independent reactions.

30.Explain how the light reactions and light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis are interdependent
on each other.
A. The light reactions produce only NADPH, which is produced by the Calvin cycle.
B. The light reactions use NADPH and ATP, which are produced by the Calvin cycle.
C. The light reactions produce NADP+ and ADP, which are then used in the Calvin cycle.
D. The light reactions produce ATP and NADPH, which are then used in the Calvin cycle.

31.Consider the processes involved in photosynthesis and the locations where they occur. Choose the statement that
makes the best case for why the lightdependent reactions of photosynthesis take place in the thylakoid. A. Light
energy is absorbed by the thylakoid membrane.
B. Photosystem I is anchored to the membrane, but photosystem II is not.
C. The cytochrome complex requires a membrane for chemiosmosis to occur.
D. The light-dependent reactions depend on the presence of carbon dioxide.

32.During very active photosynthesis, much of the reduced carbon is fixed by the Calvin cycle as glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate is converted to starch. Which events below occur during the dark periods that follow?
A. much more glucose are produced
B. much of water is split into O2 and H
C. much of the starch is converted to sucrose
D. much of the RuBP produced more carbohydrates

33.Which is the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in humans?

A. glucose → lactic acid
 B. glucose + water + lactic acid
C. glucose → lactic acid + water
D. glucose + water → lactic acid

34.The amount of oxygen required to remove the lactic acid, and replace the body's reserves of oxygen, is called the
oxygen debt. During hard exercise, what causes an 'oxygen debt'? A. A build-up of water
B. A build-up of oxygen
C. A build-up of lactic acid
D. A build-up of carbon dioxide

35.What is the function of oxygen in aerobic respiration?

A. it establishes the proton gradient
B. it donates its electrons to the electron transport chain
C. it is necessary in order for ATP synthase to work properly
D. it is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain

36.What accounts for the different number of ATP molecules that are formed through cellular respiration?
A. Most of the ATP’s produced are rapidly used for the phosphorylation of certain compounds found in plants.
B. The ATPs produced are utilized in the anaplerotic reactions that are used for the replenishment of the
intermediates.
C. Transport of NADH from the cytosol to mitochondria is an active process that decreases the number of ATP
produced.
D. A large number of ATP molecules are used in the detoxification of xenobiotic compounds produced during
cellular respiration.

37.What type of cellular respiration is represented in the following equation, and why?
CO2+H2+NADH→CH4+H2O+NAD
A. Aerobic respiration, because oxygen is the final electron acceptor.
B. Aerobic respiration, because water is being produced as a product.
C. Anaerobic respiration, because the final electron acceptor is inorganic.
D. Anaerobic respiration, because NADH donates its electrons to a methane molecule.

38.Cellular respiration breaks down glucose and releases carbon dioxide and water. Which steps in the oxidation of
pyruvate produce carbon dioxide?
A. Removal of an acetyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide and the pyruvate decarboxylase complex
comes into play.
B. Removal of an acetyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide and the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex comes into play.
C. Removal of a carboxyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide and the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex comes into play.
D. Removal of a carbonyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide and the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex comes into play.

39.Where in a cell in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes does glycolysis takes place?
A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
 D. Plasma membrane

40.When cells break down food into chemical energy it undergoes three major processes, glycolysis, Krebs cycle and
electron transport. Which of these processes provides the most number of ATP molecules?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Pyruvate oxidation
D. Electron transport chain

41.When a poison such as cyanide blocks the electron transport chain, glycolysis and the citric acid cycle also
eventually stop working. Which of the following is the best explanation for this? A. They run out of ADP.
B. A high level of NADH is present in the cell.
C. The uptake of oxygen stops because electron transport was inhibited.
D. NAD+ and FAD are not available for glycolysis and the citric acid cycle to continue.

42.During substrate-level phosphorylation, 1 glucose molecule produced 6 ATP molecules. Calculate the total number
of ATP produced by of 2 glucose molecules during aerobic respiration?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

43.In Krebs cycle, 1 ATP will be produced from 1 molecule of Acetyl-Coa. Calculate the net ATP produced by
substrate-level phosphorylation in Krebs cycle from 2 Acetyl-CoA?
A. 0 B. 2
C. 6
D. 8

44.Which is the primary reason why ATP synthesis occurs in the electron transport chain?
A. NADH pass through ATP synthase, which creates ATP B. ADP accepts a protons ion
and a phosphate to create ATP.
C. ATP is created by breaking down water as the water passes through the pumps in the membranes.
D. A concentration gradient of protons is created across the membranes of the mitochondria and then the
protons feed into ATP synthase, creating ATP.

45.Pyruvate is the product of glycolysis. If there is no oxygen available to cells of the human body, what becomes of
pyruvate?
A. CO2
B. Alcohol
C. Lactic acid
D. CO2 & Lactic acid

46.During aerobic respiration, molecular oxygen (O2) is used for which of the following purposes?
A. At the end of glycolysis to oxidize pyruvate
B. As a source of O2 in every reaction that produces CO2
C. At the end of the citric acid cycle to regenerate citric acid
 D. At the end of the electron transport chain to accept electrons and form
H2O

47.A solution in a beaker contains all of the enzymes necessary for undergoing glycolysis. A mole of glucose is mixed
into the solution. No oxygen is present and no ATP is present. Does glycolysis occur? A. No, because ATP is not
present.
B. No, because oxygen is not present.
C. Yes, because glycolysis is anaerobic.
D. Yes, because glycolysis is ATP independent.

48.Fermentation is essentially glycolysis plus an extra step in which pyruvate is reduced to form lactate or alcohol and
carbon dioxide. What would be the last step?
A. Prevents pyruvate from accumulating
B. Extracts a bit more energy from glucose
C. Removes poisonous oxygen from the environment
D. Enables the cell to recycle the reduced NADH to oxidized NAD+

49.Sports physiologists at an olympic training center wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their
muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for a buildup of which of the following
compounds?
A. Lactate
B. Carbon dioxide
C. ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate)
D. ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

50.Which of the following is the most primary function of the reactions that follow glycolysis in a fermentation
pathway?
A. To synthesize pyruvate from lactate
B. To regenerate NAD+ from NADH, so glycolysis can continue
C. To synthesize electron acceptors, so that cellular respiration can continue
D. To regenerate NADH from NAD+, so electrons can be donated to the electron transport chain

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN DISASTER READINESS AND RISK REDUCTION SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and write the correct answer in a separate sheet of paper, or in the answer
sheet provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.

1. This term refers to the serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread human,
material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or to
society to cope using its own resources.

A. Risk
B. Disaster
C. Risk Factor
D. Disaster Risk

2. The over consumption of natural resources can be categorized under what disaster risk factor?

A. Climate change
B. Poverty and inequality
C. Environmental degradation
D. Globalized economic development

3. The following is a list of devastating events that can occur as a result of a natural catastrophe EXCEPT?

A. Loss of life
B. Economic downfall
C. Loss of livelihood and services
D. Destruction of infrastructures

4. Based on the list provided, determine the examples of health risks.

I. Damaged crops
II. Population displacement
III. Breeding of waterborne bacteria
IV. Corona virus diseases 2019 outbreak

A. I only
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D. II, III and IV
5. The COVID19 events resulted to negative effects such as loss of life and public demobilization; will you classify
COVID19 as a pandemic?

A. Yes, since it has spread across nations or continents

B. No, since there are already vaccines that will treat the virus.
C. No, because only few locations in the world have been affected.
D. Yes, because it is seen as a disease outbreak in a specific geographiclocation.

6. Due to the National Health Emergency, the Philippine government implemented the Enhanced Community
Quarantine (ECQ). As a result, a lot of Filipinos lost their jobs, some people were stranded in different regions
away from their homes, returning OFWs are quarantined in different places away from their families, and most
people are confined in their homes. What is the most effective way to recover from the pandemic?

A. Be pessimistic to vaccination activities

B. Only assist those who are related to you.
C. Develop a reliance on the national government.
D. Practice the value of resiliency to adapt to the new normal.

7. Which of the following is NOT an example of vulnerability?

A. Lack of protection of assets

B. Construction of earthquake-proof buildings
C. Too much consumption of natural resources
D. Unawareness of preparedness measures of disasters

8. The inability of people to protect themselves from severe effects of hazards is one of the examples of social
vulnerability. Who are most vulnerable to disasters?

A. Men
B. Women
C. Children
D. Teenagers

9. COVID 19 is an acute respiratory illness in humans caused by a coronavirus capable of producing severe symptoms
and even death. What is the best way to reduce vulnerability against COVID 19?

A. Eat a balanced diet and sleep well.

B. Study the effects of the different brands of vaccines.
C. Always do proper hand washing and frequent disinfecting the area wherepossible exposure occurs.
D. Practice protective measures such as wearing of facemask, observing socialdistancing and taking vitamins to boost
the immune system.
10. Storm surge is the rise of seawater level during intense storms like super typhoons. Which of the following is highly
susceptible to storm surges?

A. Tall hotels in Butuan City

B. Crowded market in Baclaran
C. Restaurants in Siargao Island
D. High mountain valleys in Davao region

11. Ben and Blake are both 65 years old and they live in a nipa hut located near the river. It was announced earlier that
the landfall of the typhoon will be in the evening. So, they packed their important things and evacuate to higher
grounds. Which elements of vulnerabilities are present in this situation?

A. Physical and social vulnerabilities

B. Physical and economic vulnerabilities
C. Economic and environmental vulnerabilities
D. Socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities

12. On December 14, 2021, Typhoon Odette entered the Philippine Area of Responsibility which intensified to a
Category 5 typhoon within 24 hrs with peak winds up to 235km/hr. It made its first landfall in Siargao Island, Surigao
del Norte on December 16, 2021, which left the people homeless and struggling for basic necessities. If you were one of
the residents of Siargao Island near the shore, what is the best thing to do to spare yourself and your family from danger
after knowing that the first landfall is in your area?

A. Fuel and service family vehicle.

B. Make it sure to have cash on hand buy for immediate supplies.
C. Evacuate as early as possible on daylight on pre designated public shelter.
D. Store ample of ready-to-eat foods and water and make sure it is adequateenough for your family to last for few days.
13. What do you call a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity, or condition that may cause loss of life,
injury or other health impacts, property damaged, loss of livelihood and services, social and economic disruptions or
environmental damage?

A. Risk
B. Hazard
C. Disaster
D. Exposure

14. What impact of hazards can be inferred if it is associated with the disturbance of the local ecosystem and
biodiversity of plants and animals?

A. Physical Impact
B. Economic Impact
C. Psychological Impact
D. Socio-cultural Impact

15. What scenario can describe a Psychological Impact of COVID-19 pandemic?

A. Increase of hate-crimes and assaults against Asian populations.

B. Loss of economic opportunities and employment due to lockdown.
C. Depression due to lockdown and grief for the sudden loss of loved ones.
D. COVID-19 patients developed long-term respiratory-related illness even afterclearing from the virus.

16. Referring to the image below, which potential earthquake hazard those it exhibits?

Figure 6: 2018 - 7.2 earthquakes in Davao Oriental (Source: https://www.streettimes.in)

A. Liquefaction.
B. Ground Shaking.
C. Ground Rupture.
D. Earthquake-induced Ground Subsidence.
17. Referring to the image below, which locations are potentially at risk for tsunami?
 Figure 7: Tsunami Risk Exposure Diagram
(Illustrated by: For. Caberte)

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV

18. Which earthquake hazard describe the sinking, settling, downward displacement of rocks, sediments, and other
ground surface materials? (Refer to the image below)

Figure 9: A damaging earthquake hazard (Source: researchgate.net)

A. Liquefaction.
B. Ground Shaking.
C. Ground Rupture.
D. Earthquake-induced Ground Subsidence.

19. In a sunny afternoon at the beach, people from the coastal areas noticed a sudden recession of water levels below the
expected tides. What is the most likely explanation of the abrupt event?
A. There is a storm surge coming.
B. A volcano is erupting in the mainland.
C. A tsunami is likely to occur in a few minutes.
D. A flashflood is about to take place in the highlands.

20. Hazard maps are generated by experts after a careful study of the area. The statements below entail the importance
of an earthquake hazard map to the community EXCEPT:

A. Hazard maps are meant to educate the people living in the area on what to dobefore, during or after an
earthquake related disaster.
B. Hazard maps are meant to alarm and make people panic when disasteroccurs.
C. Hazard maps are meant to prepare the community from greater damage ofproperty and loss of lives when an
earthquake related disasters took place in the area.
D. Hazard maps, are used as tools in planning evacuation after earthquake-related disasters take place.

21. If you lived right at the foot of an active volcano and your parents wanted to make sure that in the future you and
your family would be safe from any threats of any volcanic related hazards, how would you ensure their safety?

A. Make a map that the search-and-rescue officers only can understand.

B. Make a volcanic hazard map that only you and your parents only canunderstand.
C. Make a volcanic hazard map that the government officials only canunderstand for an easy access to the evacuation
center.
D. Make a volcanic hazard map in a simple way that all members of the familycan easily understand.

22. Jurry and his friends agreed to go for a swim in a nearby hot spring where the volcano is located. After an hour of
diving and swimming, you suddenly smell a rotten egg near the area. You understand in your science class, the foul
odor is caused by a sulphuric substance. As a science enthusiast, what conclusion can you deduce based on your
observation?

A. A potential volcano will develop.

B. A potential eruption will likely to happen.
C. An indicator that geothermal energy can be harnessed from the hot
spring.

D. An indicator that metals such as gold and copper are present in the area.

23. Volcanic eruption arise potential threats in a given area which produce volcanic ashes that pose hazards to people,
animals, agriculture, property and in the atmosphere. When can we infer that a volcanic activity already affects the
atmosphere?

A. If SO2 contributes to the accumulation of greenhouse gases keeping theatmosphere so hot.

B. If SO2 reflects solar radiation, thus causing a decrease in average atmospherictemperature by about 10 degrees
Celsius.
C. If CO2 contributes to the accumulation of greenhouse gases keeping theatmosphere so cold.
D. If SO2 reflects solar radiation, thus causing an increase in averageatmospheric temperature by about 10 degrees
Celsius.

24. We cannot control volcanic phenomenon but we can lessen the risks through information dissemination and
warnings. Precautionary actions as an appropriate response can be taken immediately if you and your family are familiar
with the impending signs. Whenever caught in the situation, which of the following signs shall be take into
considerations?

A. Roar, Rumble and Dry

B. Shake, Drop, and Roar
C. Drop, Roar, Shake and Dry
D. Shake, Rumble, Swell and Dry

25. Which of the following hazards is NOT shown in a volcano risk maps?

A. Lahar
B. Lava flow
C. Pyroclastic flow
D. Degree avalanche

26. Student B observes a region where rock fall and debris mixes with water and forms slide that can travel considerable
distances. What geologic phenomenon does student B observed?

A. Creep
B. Slump
C. Mudslide
D. Debris flow

27. If you were the geologist assigned to investigate on how each type of land subsidence happens, what type of
landslide would you classify if an evidence showed that soil travel short distances and speeds ranging from rapid to very
rapid?

A. Creep
B. Slump
C. Rockfall
D. Debris slide

28. What is the difference between earthquake warning signs 5 and 9?

A. Warning sign 5 shows water pipes break while warning sign 9 shows slowlywidening cracks appear on the
ground.
B. Warning sign 9 shows water pipes break while warning sign 5 shows slowlywidening cracks appear on the
ground.
C. Warning sign 5 shows fences, retaining walls, utility posts or trees tilt or movewhile warning sign 9 shows
cracks that appear on slope.
D. Warning sign 9 shows fences, retaining walls, utility posts or trees tilt or movewhile warning sign 5 shows
cracks that appear on slope

29. The mayor of Butuan City initiates an effort to reduce loss of lives and damaged properties by lessening the impact
of disasters on a long-term basis. The action involves disaster risk analysis, which resulted to the foundation of
mitigation activities that reduce risk, and flood insurance that protects financial investment. Does the mayor of Butuan
adheres to the Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000?

A. No, because they need public assistance funds.

B. Yes, because the action involves lessening of the impacts of disaster.
C. Yes, because they identified policies and actions that can be implementedover the short term.
D. No, because planning process creates a framework for risk-based decisionmaking to reduce damages on commercial
properties only.

30. Anna purchased a new property on the countryside. Upon looking on the geologic map, she discovered that the area
has a green color-coded rain induced landslide prone area. If you were Anna, what actions should you consider to lessen
the impacts of a hazard?

A. Be cautious
B. Be prepared
C. Be ready to evacuate
D. Be alert and ready to evacuate

31. James had identified that their school was situated on a color red rain induced landslide prone area. He then
concluded that they must be alert and ready to evacuate in case of heavy rains. Does his action correct? A. No, because
they must be prepared.
B. Yes, because they must be cautious.
C. Yes, because the red color represents high susceptibility to landslide.
D. No, because the red color represents low susceptibility.

32. Hydrometeorological hazards have impending signs to prepare for the incoming type of disaster. Below is a picture
of a natural disaster to come. What impending signs of hydrometeorological hazard is being shown?

Figure 1. Natural Disaster

(Source: https://blog.hmns.org/2014/05/which-natural-disaster-are-you-natureunleashed-hmns/)

A. Heavy rainfall and ocean swell

B. Distant thunder and rapid rising of water
C. Cloud formation, lightning and possibility of tornado
D. Darker sky, lower pressure, strong winds and rising of seawater

33. El Niño cycle is associated with lower rainfall throughout Philippines especially between December and February.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the hazard map below?

Figure 3. Areas at risk of rainfall reductions due to El Nino

(Source: IPCC, Philippine Observatory, page 11 of the report)

A. At least three quarters of the country is at a very low risk of reduced rainfalldue to El Niño.
B. The highest risks to El Niño are in Mindanao where crop yields may be affectedby high temperature.
C. Areas in Luzon are mostly in the high risk which will have lower rainfall duringthe end of the growing season.
D. Most areas in the Visayas have a very low risks of drought which experiencelow temperatures during harvest
season.

34. Meteorologists are scientist who study weather and climate, using data from the land, sea, and atmosphere. Which of
the following tools can help them predict typhoons?

A. Wind finding radar, thermometer, and pilot balloon/theodolite

B. Thermometer, thermograph, ceiling light projection, radiosonde
C. Ceiling balloon, mercurial barometer, maximum-minimum thermometer,barograph
D. Tipping bucket rain gauge, thermometer hygrometer, hygrothermograph, slingpsychrometer

35. The components of a fire are interdependent with each other. What is the possible outcome if a fire starts on a rainy
day in one of the residences of a congested community where houses are mostly built of light materials?

A. Fire will only affect the house where it started.

B. Fire will intensify because of the oxygen present in the atmosphere.
C. Fire can be controlled because of the rain that takes away the fire’s heat.
D. Fire quickly spreads out from one house to another due to wooden houses.
36. Fire hazards are any actions, materials, or conditions that might increase the intensity of a fire or cause a fire to start.
Which of the following causes is common to household fires?

A. Lightning
B. Fireworks
C. Bomb explosion
D. Neglected electrical appliances

37. Suppose you are buying a pair of new shoes in the mall then suddenly the fire alarms sounded. You are on the fourth
floor and the smoke is slowly moving up towards your place. What is the best thing to do to evacuate safely from the
shopping mall?

A. Inform other people along your way that there is fire on the third floor.
B. Find the fire extinguisher in the fourth floor and go the third floor to help fightthe fire.
C. Stay low as possible as you move and cover your nose as you go down thestairs and find the nearest exit.
D. Call your family and inform them that you are inside the mall which iscurrently on fire and you are in the fourth
floor.

38. Fire drill is the manifestation of disaster preparedness in school. It allows students to practice evacuation procedures
in a simulated manner to ensure that they are fully aware of how to exit the school vicinity. With this, analyse the
statements below if it supports correct procedures of fire drill?

I. Do not attempt to go inside the burning area.

II. If inside a burning area, once you hear the fire alarm, evacuate to a safe placeright away.
III. Immediately contact the nearest fire station and other emergency responsenumbers.
IV. If you see fire, exit the area immediately and inform other people in thevicinity that a fire is occurring.

A. I only
B. I and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III, and IV

39. In an event where your clothes are caught on fire, what is the correct action that you need to do?

A. Stop, Drop, and Roll

B. Drop, Hold, and Listen
C. Wait, Crawl, and Squat
D. Fold, Observe, and Roll out

40. Alice was about to fry a fish on her new stove. As she puts the fish on the hot oil, the frying pan was caught on fire.
She was about to pour water on the fire when her mother stops her and put a cover on the pan instead. What would
likely happen if Alice pours the water on the fire?

A. The water will cause the oil to splash and spread the fire even worse.
B. The water will cause the hot pan to produce a lot of smoke and steam.
C. The water will put out the fire as it mixes with the oil causing it to cool downrapidly.
D. The water will ignite the fire as it makes contact with the burning oil causing itto explode.
41. Hazards are always present so are disaster risks. One of the important key components of disaster management is the
response to disaster. Wellcoordinated responses to disasters require prior planning, why?

I. To ensure limit of duplicating actions and waste of time.

II. To designate roles and responsibilities to maximize task output.
III. To establish final flow chart of information test warning and communicationsystem.
IV. To identify existing equipment such as communication tools andtransportation, available in each identified point to
reach affected community.

A. I only
B. I, II, and III.
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

42. The key components of Disaster Risk Reduction and Management is mainly grouped into Pre-event and Post-event
of a potential disaster. Part of the Postevent DRRM is the Response component. What response management can you
develop in any impending disaster situation?

A. Conduct evacuations, search and rescue missions, and emergency medicalassistance.

B. Develop early-warning systems, hazard zone protection, urban planning, anddisease surveillance
C. Improving dams and embankments, land-use regulations that do not permitany settlement in high-risk zones,
and engineering designs of infrastructures.
D. Facilitate community awareness campaigns to increase disaster awareness,eliminating potential high-risk
objects within the vicinity, and applying engineering technologies.

43. Which refers to the characteristics and circumstances of a community, system or assets that makes it susceptible to
damaging effects of a hazard?

A. Risk
B. Hazard
C. Disaster
D. Vulnerability

44. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management is composed of four ( 4) thematic areas wherein the overall vision is to
create a safer, adaptive and disasterresilient Filipino communities towards sustainable development. Which of the
following is NOT a component of the DRRM thematic areas?

A. Disaster response
B. Disaster resiliency
C. Disaster preparedness
D. Disaster prevention and mitigation
45. Disasters are one of the worst things we have to deal with but there are ways to be prepared. Which of the following
BEST describe successful community preparedness plan?
A. Determine the risk to the health of the jurisdiction.
B. Strengthened community partnerships basketball league in the barangay.
C. Have coordination with partners and have collected funds to them.
D. Provided guidance for a special plan for the barangay.
46. Evaluation is the critical component of the disaster risk reduction management framework. Which of the following
shows the correct order of the process?
A. Prevention and mitigation> Preparedness>Response> Rehabilitation andRecovery.
B. Preparedness>Response>Prevention and mitigation>Rehabilitation andRecovery.
C. Response>Preparedness>Prevention and mitigation>Rehabilitation andRecovery.
D. Preparedness>Response>Rehabilitation and Recovery>Prevention andmitigation.

47. What could be the advantage of having a survival kit at home?

A. Survival kit help your family to be rescued easily after a disaster occurs.
B. Survival kit allows you to escape easily from danger zone after disasteroccurs.
C. Survival kit help your family survive the first critical hours after a disasteroccurs.
D. Survival kit provide the family all your needs while waiting for assistance fromrelief and rescue operations.

48. On December 15, 2021, typhoon Odette destroyed many areas in Mindanao. Of those whose dwellings remained
intact, many were ran out of water, electricity and phone services for days. If you were one of the affected of the
typhoon Odette, what are the two most important supplies you should consider to be on hand?

I. Extra batteries for cellphones and laptops.

II. Maps with indication of evacuation sites and routes.
III. Three days’ water supply for each member of your family (at least 1 gallonper person, per day)
IV. Non- perishable foods that is sufficient for three days consumption of everyfamily member.

A. I & II only
B. III & IV
C. II & III D. I & IV

49. The following agencies below are members of the National Disaster Reduction and Management Council
(NDRRMC) as stated in RA 10121 otherwise known as “Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of
2010” EXCEPT:

A. Department of Agriculture (DA)

B. National Commission for Culture and Arts (NCCA)
C. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
D. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council (HUDCC)

50. Mark is a Municipal Mayor in the Province of Dinagat which is oftentimes hit by typhoons. As the local chief
executive, his primary task is to coordinate with the NDRRMC a detailed information of the predictive damage brought
about by the typhoon in their community. Which member agency of NDRRMC will he directly coordinate with?

A. Department of Health
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Department of Interior & Local Government
D. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
DIRECTIONS: Read the question carefully. Choose and encircle the correct answer.

1. It is a variable being measured to produce numerical observations associated with the random outcomes of a
chance experiment.
A. fixed variable
B. dependent variable
C. independent variable
D. random variable
2. Which of the following is a discrete random variable?
A. the number of patients in a hospital
B. the average weight of female athletes
C. the average amount of electricity consumed
D. the amount of paint used in repainting a building
3. What are the possible values of a random variable when a coin is tossed once?
A. Tail (T) and Head (H)
B. The number of dots 1,2,3,4,5,6
C. Tail and Tail (TT), and Head and Head (HH)
D. The pair of even number of dots (2,2),(2,4),(2,6),(4,2),(4,4),(4,6),(6,2),(6,4) and (6,6)
4. Which is a discrete probability distribution?

A. X 3 4 5

P(X) 0.4 0.10 0.5

B.
0

X 1 2 3 4

P(X) 1/5 3/10 1/5 3/10

C. X 1 2 3 4

P(X 0.15 0.35 0.4 0.5

) 0

D.

X 0 2 4 6

P(X) 1/5 1/5 2/5 1/5

5. A fair coin is tossed three times and the sequence of heads (H) and tails (T) is observed. What is the probability
that no heads will appear?
A. 1/8
B. 3/8
C. 5/8
 D. 2/3
6. The expected value of a random variable is the
A. largest value that will ever occur.
B. mean value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
C. most common value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
D. value that has the highest probability of occurring.
For items 7-10.
Cardo sells a maximum of 3 tickets per customer. Let T be the number of tickets sold to a random customer.
Below is the probability distribution of T.

T 0 1 2 3

P(T) 0.20 ? 0.40 0.23

7. Which probability value would satisfy the given probability distribution?

A. 0.16
B. 0.17
C. 0.18
D. 0.19
8. What is the mean and variance of the probability distribution?
A. 1.64
B. 1.65
C. 1.66
D. 1.67
9. What is the variance of the probability distribution?
A. 2.18
B. 2.19
C. 2.20
D. 2.21
10. What would be the best interpretation you can create given the mean of the probability distribution?
A. Most customers will purchase 3 tickets.
B. Cardo can expect to have more tickets sold.
C. A group of 10 customers will purchase exactly 29 tickets.
D. If we look at a large number of customers, then each customer, on the average, will have purchased about
1.66 tickets.
11. What is the first step in finding the variance of a discrete probability distribution?
A. Calculate the standard deviation
B. Find the mean of the probability distribution
C. Subtract the mean from each value of the random variable X
D. Multiply the square of the difference of X and the mean by each value of the random variable.
12. Which statement is NOT true about the variance of a discrete random variable?
A. Variance is always nonnegative.
B. It tells the average of the items in a discrete probability distribution
C. It measures how far apart the elements of the set are spread out
D. High variance indicates that the data points are very spread out around the mean.
13. A local club plans to invest P10,000 to host a basketball game. They expect to sell tickets worth P15,000. But if it
rains on the day of the game, they won't sell any tickets, and the club will lose all the money invested. If the
weather forecast for the day of the game is 20% possibility of rain, is this a good investment?
A. No because the expected value is positive P2,000
B. No because the expected value is negative P2,000
C. Yes because the expected value is positive P2,000
D. Yes because the expected value is negative P2,000
 14. Which of the following is NOT a property of a normal curve?
A. The total area under it is 1.
B. The curve is symmetric about the center.
C. It is divided into positive 2 and negative 2 standard deviations
D. The mean, median, and mode have the same value and are located at the same point.
15.The area under the part of normal curve in the standard normal distribution that lies within 2 standard deviations of
the mean is
A. 68%
B. 95%
C. 99.7%
D. 100%
16.A set of Mathematics exam scores has a mean of 68 and a standard deviation of 8. A set of English exam scores has
a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 10. For which exam would a score of 78 have a higher standing?
A. Math
B. English
C. both Math & English
D. cannot be determined
17. What is “P(a<x<b)”?
A. The area to the left of a.
B. The area to the right of a.
C. The area between a and b.
D. The area to the right of b.
18. Evaluate the score of the student in a biology test where the equivalent z-score is 0.98. The mean of the test was
88 with a standard deviation of 9.5.
A. 95
B. 96
C. 97
D. 98
19. The midterm examination scores in Statistics and Probability follows a normal distribution with mean of 38 and a
standard deviation of 2. If Felix is included in the top 5%, what minimum score should Felix have?
A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 43
20. Which of the following illustrates a systematic sampling method?
A. A researcher conducted a survey of 50 randomly selected workers from each of these categories: high school
graduate, with undergraduate degrees, with master’s degree, and with doctoral degree.
B. A researcher interviewed all freshmen in each of 15 randomly selected public schools in Surigao del Norte.
C. A researcher doing a research work on students’ reaction of the newly implemented curriculum and
interviewed every 10th student entering the gate.
D. A researcher selected a sample of n = 120 from a population 850 using the Table of Random Numbers.
21. A randomly selected sample of 400 students at a university with 15-week semesters was asked whether or not
they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes). Forty-six percent (46%) of the 400
students surveyed answered "yes." Which one of the following statements about the number 46% is correct?
A. It is a sample statistic
B. It is a random variable
C. It is a population parameter
D. It is a quantitative discrete variable
22. What do you call a portion or representative of population?
A. Parameter
B. Population
C. Sample
D. Statistic
23. A randomly selected 400 students out of 9000 students at a university with 15-week semesters was asked whether
or not they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes). Forty-six percent (46%) of the
400 students surveyed answered "yes." What is the sample?
 A. 400 students
B. 9000 students
C. 15-week semesters
D. 46% who answered “yes”
24. Which of following is true about the mean of the sample means?
A. The mean of the sample mean is equal to the population mean.
B. The mean of the sample mean is equal to the population mean divided by the population variance.
C. The mean of the sample mean is equal to the square of population mean.
D. The mean of the sample mean is equal to the square root of population mean.
For items 25-26. Below are the scores of 8 Grade 11 students in Statistics quiz.
7, 8, 12, 15, 10, 11, 9, 14
25. What is the mean of the sample means of size 3?
A. 9.50
B. 9.75
C. 10.50
D. 10.75
26. What is the variance of the sample means of size 3 if the population variance is 6.9375?
A. 1.5
B. 1.6
C. 1.7
D. 1.8
27. What is true about the standard error of the mean?
A. Decreases as the sample size increases.
B. It is less than the standard deviation of the population.
C. It measures the variability of the mean from sample to sample.
D. All of the above
28. What distribution is used to estimate population parameters when the population variance is unknown, and the
sample size is less than 30?
A. Chi-square Distribution
B. Pearson Correlation Coefficient
C. t-Distribution
D. z-Distribution
29. Given µ =10, σ = 3 and n = 40. Which of the following distribution of the sample mean for a normal population
when the population variance is known?
A. Chi-square Distribution
B. Pearson Correlation Coefficient
C. t-Distribution
D. z-Distribution
30. A History teacher claims that the average height of Filipino males is 163 centimeters. A student taking up Statistics
randomly select 10 Filipino males and measure their heights. Their heights in centimeter are
163,167,159,165,162,164,163,160,169 and 174. To test the claim, which test is appropriate?
A. chi-square test
B. f-test
C. t-test
D. z-test
31. Which of the following states that the sampling distribution of the sample means approaches a normal distribution
as the sample size gets larger?
A. Central Limit Theorem
B. Law of Large Numbers
C. Limit Theorem
D. Bayes Theorem
32. What happen to the histogram of the sample means of the random samples in Central Limit Theorem, as n→∞?
A. It changes nothing from the original population.
B. It shows the variance of the distribution.
C. It shows the standard deviation of the distribution.
 D. It approaches the normalcy of the distribution.
33. The record of weights of the male population follows the normal distribution. Its mean and standard deviation are
70 kg and 15 kg respectively. If a researcher considers the records of 50 males, what would be its standard
deviation?
A. 2.11
B. 2.12
C. 2.13
D. 2.14
34. Which concept of random sampling distribution of the sample means using Central Limit Theorem?
A. If you have a population mean µ and standard deviation  and take sufficiently large random samples from
the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample means will be approximately distributed
normally.
B. The probability of the simultaneous occurrence of two events that are independent is given by the product of
their individual probabilities.
C. If you have a population mean µ and standard deviation  and take sufficiently large random samples from
the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample means will be approximately distributed
same as the original population.
D. The larger the sample size n in sampling distribution of sample mean, the lesser the histogram is to show the
normalcy of the distribution.
35. What is the estimate, if sample size of random sampling using Central Limit Theorem is almost normal in
accordance to Statisticians?
A. If n= 2
B. If n= 3
C. If n= 10
D. If n= 30
x−μ
z= x−μ
36. How do you compare the formula σ from z= ?
σ
√n
A. Former is used when solving z from original population while the latter is used in random sample.
B. Former is used when solving z from random sample while the latter is used in original population.
C. Former is used in random sample and original population but the latter can only be used for random sample.
D. Both can be used alternatively.
37. Which is NOT a correct statement?
A. The total probability distribution of the sample mean is always equal to 1.
B. There are 10 possible samples of size 3 drawn in the population N = 5.
C. There are 31 possible samples of size 3 drawn in the population N = 7.
D. There are 20 possible samples of size 3 drawn in the population N = 6.
38. Human gestation length is said to be normally distributed with a mean of 266 days and a standard deviation of 16
days. Suppose 64 pregnancies are randomly selected. What is the probability that the average gestation length is
between 262 and 270 days
A. 95.45%
B. 95.50%
C. 95.75%
D. 95.80%
39. Formulate the steps to solve problems involving sampling distribution of the sample mean.
x−μ
z=
I- Write the formula: σ
√n
II- Solve z.
III- Look for the P(z) in the Standard Normal Distribution Table
IV- Substitute the values of the terms in the formula.
A. I-IV-II-III
B. IV-III-II-I
C. I-II-III-IV
D. III-IV-I-II
40. Given a set of data, which of the following refers to number of independent observations that are free to vary after a
sample statistic has been computed?
A. Degrees of freedom
B. Mean
C. Standard error
D. Variance
41. The following are common properties of z-distribution and t-distribution, except:
A. The mean, median, and mode are zero.
B. The total area under the curve is 100%.
C. The curve is asymptotic to the x-axis.
D. The variance is always greater than 1.
42. The following are characteristics of t-distribution except
A. It is symmetric about the mean 0.
B. It is bell-shaped but has a heavier tail.
C. It depends on the degrees of freedom.
D. As the degrees of freedom decreases, it approaches to standard normal distribution.
43. Which of the following t is the t-value when µ= 127, 𝑥̅= 120, s=14 and n=18?
A. -2.120
B. -2.110
C. +2.110
D. +2.120
44. In a t-distribution, if the sample size is 15, what is the degree of freedom?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
45. What percentile of the t distribution does 2.500 belong if the sample size is 24?
A. 80th
B. 90th
C. 95th
D. 99th
46. Which of the following is the length of the interval between 45.5 and 60?
A. 10.5
B. 14.5
C. 45.5
D. 60
47. The mean gasoline consumption of 15 cars is 38 liters with a standard deviation of 2 liters. Using a 95% confidence
level, how long is the interval of the sample mean?
A. 2.25
B. 2.30
C. 2.35
D. 2.40
48. What is the needed sample size if the margin of error is 0.8 and the standard deviation is 8 with a 95% confidence
level?
A. 325
B. 335
C. 345
D. 385
49. A researcher found that the mean score of Grade 9 students in the Math exam is normally distributed with a mean
of 82 and a standard deviation of 2.5. The margin of error was known to be 0.65 at a 99% confidence level. How
large a sample must be?
A. 90
B. 92
C. 99
D. 10
50. Predict the length of the confidence interval and the sample size as the confidence level increases.
A. The length of the confidence interval decreases and the sample size increases.
B. The length of the confidence interval increases and the sample size decreases.
C. The length of the confidence interval decreases and the sample size decreases.
D. The length of the confidence interval increases and the sample size increases.