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UGC NET PAPER 1

PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS

FROM JULY 2018 to

DECEMBER 2023

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CONTENTS
Sr. No. Title Page No.
1. UGC NET Paper 1 July 2018 3-20
2. UGC NET Paper 1 December 2018 21-35
3. UGC NET Paper 1 June 2019 36-51
4. UGC NET Paper 1 December 2019 52-68
5. UGC NET Paper 1 September 2020 (Morning Shift) 69-85
6. UGC NET Paper 1 December 2021 (Morning Shift) 86-104
7. UGC NET Paper 1 October 2022 (Morning Shift) 105-123
8. UGC NET Paper 1 October 2022 (Evening Shift) 124-140
9. UGC NET Paper 1 March 2023 (Morning Shift) 141-157
10. UGC NET Paper 1 March 2023 (Evening Shift) 158-175
11. UGC NET Paper 1 June 2023 (Morning Shift) 176-193
12. UGC NET Paper 1 June 2023 (Evening Shift) 194-211
13. UGC NET Paper 1 December 2023 212-229

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UGC NET Paper 1 July 2018

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of
teaching?
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (f)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 3

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of

teaching?
(1) Prior experience of the learner
(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(3) Peer groups of the learner
(4) Family size from which the learner comes.
Answer: 1

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the
basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by
choosing from the code:
Set – I (Method of teaching)
(a) Lecturing
(b) Discussion in groups

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(c) Brainstorming
(d) Programmed Instructional procedure
Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(iv) Use of teaching-aids
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(4)(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: 3

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called
‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective
feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months
interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Codes:(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (b), (d) and (f)
Answer: 4

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5. Choose the correct answer from the following code:

Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 3

6. There are two sets given below.

Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the
two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set – I (Research types)
(a) Fundamental research
(b) Applied research
(c) Action research
(d) Evaluative research
Set – II (Characteristics)
(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Answer: 1

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7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
Answer: 4

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving
the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition,
Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the
hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population,
Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a
sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.
Answer: 2

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?
(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique
(3) Defining the population of research
(4) Evidence based research reporting
Answer: 4

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is
relatively greater?
(1) Preparing research summary (2) Presenting a seminar paper
(3) Participation in research conference
(4) Participation in a workshop
Answer: 3

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Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the
technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the
overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take
into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in
business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that
technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension
underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global
context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of
human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive
employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade
human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall
development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the
nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s.
India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable
strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs
to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually
upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring
nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is
the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower
productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity
or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most important. India,
aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP,
cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only
through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while
being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core
technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth
dimension?
(a) Aspirations of people (b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context
(d) Strategic interests
Code:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Answer: 3

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12. More productive employment demands:

(1) Pervasive use of technology
(2) Limiting competitive market place
(3) Geo-political considerations
(4) Large industries
Answer: 1

13. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution (b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition (d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Answer: 2

14. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

(1) Unbridled technological growth
(2) Importing plant machinery
(3) Sideling environmental issues
(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity
Answer: 4

15. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Aspiration to become a major economics player
(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
(3) Focus on short-term projects
(4) Development of core technological strengths
Answer: 4

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16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

communication is the basis of:
(1) Selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Answer: 3

17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be
critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the
students are learning.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 4

18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication
process.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 4

19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are
purposive.

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Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 3

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human
communication process?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 3

21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is
(1) 36
(2) 47
(3) 59
(4) 63
Answer: 2

22. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:
(1) ZKU

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(2) ZCA
(3) ZKW
(4) ZKU
Answer: 3

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:
(1) LOQOZEH
(2) HLZEOOQ
(3) ZELHOQO
(4) LQOOFZH
Answer: 4

24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of
my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:
(1) Aunt
(2) Mother
(3) Sister
(4) Daughter
Answer: 3

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes
1: 2. The numbers are:
(1) 16, 40
(2) 20, 50
(3) 28, 70
(4) 32, 80
Answer: 4

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same
way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
(1) Mathematical

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(2) Psychological
(3) Analogical
(4) Deductive
Answer: 3

27. Given below are two premises (A and B).

Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn
conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(B) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)
Answer: 2

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity
(2) Unchangeability in nature
(3) Harmony in nature
(4) Uniformity of nature
Answer: 4

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29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of
the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct
code:
Propositions:
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer: 1

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram
method?
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical
syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Answer: 3

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption
of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.
Answer questions 31 – 35 based on the data contained in the table.
Yearwise Details for DI Year-wise Production,
Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice Year Production (in million kg)
Exports (in million kg) Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
20 12 186.5 114 36.25
20 13 202 114 35.2

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20 14 238 130 38.7

20 15 221 116 40.5
20 16 215 88 42
Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) / (Population in
million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production – Exports.

31. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest
in which year?
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: 2

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?
(1) 2.64
(2) 2.72
(3) 2.79
(4) 2.85
Answer: 3

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 1

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

(1) 2013
(2) 2014

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(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: 4

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 – 2016?
(1) 104
(2) 102.1
(3) 108
(4) 100.1
Answer: 4

36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual,
telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P Only
(2) Q Only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: 2

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power
previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish
this?
(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
(2) Faster Random Access Memory
(3) Blu Ray Drive
(4) Solid State Hard Drive
Answer: 4

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38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see
when he receives the message? Mail- To CC and BCC for ICT To… ram@test. com Cc…
raj@test. com; ravi@test. com Bcc… swami@test. com; rama@test. com
(1) ram@test. com
(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com
(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com
(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com
Answer: 2

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit
first and going down to the largest unit:
(a) Kilobyte
(b) byte
(c) Megabyte
(d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte
(f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code:
(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Answer: 3

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?
P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q only

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(4) P and R only

Answer: 2

41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient
(b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures
(d) brick industry
Correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Landsides
(3) Hurricanes
(4) Droughts
Answer: 4

43. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.
Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: 1

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44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct
sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects
(LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind
energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
Answer: 2

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?
(1) Unregulated small scale industry
(2) Untreated sewage
(3) Agricultural run-off
(4) Thermal power plants
Answer: 2

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:
(a) The United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) United Kingdom (UK)
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
Answer: 4

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:
(1) State and Central Universities

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(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(4) IITs and IISc
Answer: 4

48. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) the central information Commissioner
(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for women
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Answer: 2

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?
(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (b) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: 1

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

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(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: 4

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UGC NET Paper 1 December 2018

Q.1.) which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students
Experiment and analyse ?
1. History
2. Languages
3. Economics
4. Science
Answer: 4

Q.2.) which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom ?
1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom
2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom
3. Through full attendance in the classroom
4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom
Answer: 2

Q.3.) Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:
(a)History
(b) Randomization
(c) Maturity
(d) Instrumentation
(e) Experimental mortality
(f) matching
1. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
2. (b) , (c) , (d) and (f)
3. (a) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (d) , (e) , (f) and (b)
Answer: 3

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Q.4.) Formulation of a research problem depends on:

(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?
(b) What are the specific questions?
(c) What is the conceptual model?
(d) What negative factors to research upon?
(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.
(f) Construction of hypotheses.
1. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
2. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (a) , (b) , (c) and (f)
Answer: 4

Q.5.) Among the following which one is not an instructional material ?

1. Audio podcast
2. YouTube video
3. Printed study guide
4. Overhead projector
Answer: 4

Q.6.) Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate.
Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students ?
1. Control over emotions
2. Concept formulation
3. Using / selecting appropriate language
4. Voice modulation
Answer: 1

Q.7.) Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system ?
1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

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2. Improving classroom attendance

3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time
4. Reducing examination anxiety among students
Answer: 1

Q.8.) The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison
(b) control
(c) Reactivity
(d) manipulation
(e) Non representativeness
(f) generalization
1. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
2. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (a) , (b) , (d) and (f)
Answer: 4

Q.9.) The four major operations in scientific research are :

(a) Demonstration of co-variance
(b) Elimination of spurious relations
(c) Sequencing in terms of time order
(d) self-education
(e) Operationalization of personal choice
(f) Theorization
1. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
2. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
3. (a) , (b) , (c) and (f)
4. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
Answer: 3

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Q.10.) A variable that is manipulated is known as :

1. Dependent variable
2. Control variable
3. Independent variable
4. Confounding variable
Answer: 3

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 11 to 15:

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the
region. It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations have grown during the past 25
years. In 1991, when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization,
Singapore saw an opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural
links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full Asean dialogue
partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, Asean – India ties have
strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist, including seven
ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for more
and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical
and digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean is committed to strengthening
land , air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people
flows, as well as boost business , investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar-Thailand
trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one
can fly directly between India and several Asean countries, there is still much room to
expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond physical linkages,
digital connectivity Is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution. India has
made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are
opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and
FinTech are two other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore
can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s
role in Asean should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The
economic integration involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will
create an integrated Asian market.

Q.11.) Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?
1. Southwest Asia
2. Thailand
3. Singapore
4. Myanmar
Answer: 3

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Q.12.) The areas of collaboration between India and Asian are :

(a) FinTech
(b) Aadhaar
(c) e-commerce
(d) Digital backwardness
(e) Trilateral highways
(f) Fourth industrial revolution
1. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
2. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
3. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
4. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
Answer: 2

Q.13.) The commitment of Asian with India is:

1. Offer political platforms
2. More and more dialogues
3. Improving transport links
4. Hold leadership summits
Answer: 3

Q.14.) What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asian?

1. Waterways
2. Innovation
3. Air links
4. Start-ups
Answer: 3

Q.15.) What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India?
1. Historical past
2. End of cold war

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3. geo-political equations
4. Economic liberalization in India
Answer: 4

Q.16.) The next term in the series

0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is:
1. 216
2. 164
3. 196
4. 225
Answer: 4

Q.17.) In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in:
1. Passive adaptation
2. Quick adaptation
3. Stimulation
4. Over-stimulation
Answer: 4

Q.18.) Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid? Select the correct answer
from the code given below Statements:
(a) when its conclusion and premises are true
(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false
(c) Only when its conclusion is true
1. (c) alone
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a) alone
Answer: 2

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Q.19.) Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is

Helen related to Jenifer?
1. Daughter-in-law
2. Sister
3. Sister-in-law
4. Mother
Answer: 3

Q.20.) Truth and falsity are attributes of:

1. Debates
2. Propositions
3. Opinions
4. Arguments
Answer: 2

Q.21.) Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:

(a) External sympathy
(b) justification
(c) Defensiveness
(d) de-motivation
(e) Supportive listening
(f) confrontational empathy
1. (b), (c) and (d)
2. (d), (e) and (f)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (c), (d) and (e)
Answer: 1

Q.22.) the rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____

agents of students.
1. Influencing

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2. Non-official
3. Academic
4. Official
Answer: 1

Q.23.) Assertion (A): Teacher communication is central to classroom management.

Reason (R): Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom
Behavior of students.
1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
Answer: 4

Q.24.) Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can
be false together. Select the code that represents them Statements:
(a) All poets are dreamers.
(b) No poets are dreamers.
(c) Some poets are dreamers.
(d) Some poets are not dreamers.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (c) and (d)
Answer: 1

Q.25.) Non-verbal communication is considered:

1. Formal
2. Culture-free
3. Informal
4. Precise

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Answer: 3

Q.26.) Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.
Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or
jointly
Premises:
(a) all judges are lawyers.
(b) no doctors are lawyers.
Conclusions:
(1) no lawyers are doctors.
(2) no doctor are judges.
(3) all lawyers are judges.
(4) some doctor are judges.
1. (1) and (3)
2. (1) and (2)
3. (1) and (4)
4. (2) and (3)
Answer: 2

Q.27.) If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be :
1. AIVX
2. AIUS
3. AIST
4. AVCD
Answer: 2

Q.28.) Choose the word which is different from the rest:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro
2. Shivalik Hills
3. Aravali Hills
4. Nilgiri Hills

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Answer: 1

Q.29.) Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals
are wild” ?
1. No non-animals are wild.
2. Some animals are not wild.
3. No animals are wild.
4. Some animals are wild.
Answer: 4

Q.30.) The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ IS :
1. XYZ
2. WYZ
3. WXY
4. YZA
Answer: 1

Based on the above table, answer Q31,) Q32,) Q33)

Q.31.) How many States have atleast 50% or more electrified villages ?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
Answer: 3

Q.32.) Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D ?
1. State A
2. State C
3. State B

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4. State D
Answer: 2

Q.33.) In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010,
the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to
be electrified.
The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus_______.
1. Not enough dat
2. Gone up
3. Come down
4. Cannot be computed
Answer: 3

Based on the Table given above, answer Q34 )and Q35

Q.34.) If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs ,what is the population below education index
?
1. 51000 lakhs
2. 3900 lakhs
3. 0.39 lakhs
4. 49000 lakhs
Answer: 3

Q.35.) If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs,
the number of people below education index will be :
1. Cannot be calculated
2. Higher in State A
3. Equal in State A and B
4. Higher in State B
Answer: 2

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Q.36.) The output quality of a printer is measured by :

1. Dots per cm
2. Dots per inch
3. Dots per mm
4. Digits per inch
Answer: 2

Q.37.) _________ denotes an error in a computer program.

1. Bug
2. Virus
3. Spam
4. Bit
Answer: 1

Q.38.) In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated ?
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Punjab
4. Kerala
Answer: 3

Q.39.) the University Grants Commission has a scheme for “Human Rights and Values in
Education”. Under this scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for
‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component
1. To encourage research activities
2. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are realized.
3. To establish value and wellness centers in schools
4. To develop interaction between society and educational institutions.
Answer: 3

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Q.40.) The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to
coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?
(a) Thermal difference between land and water.
(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.
(c) Presence of strong winds in the interior.
(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

Q.41.) The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December
1953 by whom among the following ?
1. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
4. Dr. S. Radhakrishan
Answer: 1

Q.42.) A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is :
1. Wind mills
2. Tidal power
3. Biomass power
4. Geothermal energy
Answer: 3

Q.43.) A small text file stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and
keep track of user’s preferences is called :
1. Cookie
2. Report

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3. Log
4. History
Answer: 1

Q.44 )How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels ?
1. 6-9 billion tons
2. 9-12 billion tons
3. 4-6 billion tons
4. 2-6 billion tons
Answer: 1

Q.45.) Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the
purpose of :
1. Providing habitat for birds
2. Preventing soil erosion
3. Providing material for breeding new species
4. Study by scientists
Answer: 3

Q.46.) In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanshop of Dr. D.s. Kothari was
set up ?
1. 1960
2. 1955
3. 1952
4. 1964
Answer: 4

Q.47.) Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic
funding to eligible state higher educational institutions ?
1. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
2. All India Council for Technical Education

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3. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Answer: 3

Q.48.) Which of the following are audio file formats ?

(a) .wav
(b) .aac
(c) .wmv
(d) .fiv
1. (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (c)and (d)
Answer: 2

Q.49.) In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory , the total number of
addresses will be :
1. 8
2. 256
3. 216
4. 512
Answer: 2

Q.50.) The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year ?
1. 1998
2. 2007
3. 2000
4. 2005
Answer: 4

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UGC NET Paper 1 June 2019

Q.1 A shift in attitude in respondents between two points during data collection is called
(1) Reactive effect
(2) Maturation effect
(3) Regression effect
(4) Conditioning effect
Answer: 3

Q.2 The time-frame in which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the
(1) reference period
(2) age
(3) longitudinal
(4) retrospective time
Answer: 1

Q.3 The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out

(1) Differences among variables
(2) Variations among variables
(3) Association among variables
(4) Regression among variables
Answer: 3

Q.4 Which of the learner characteristics will influence his/her perspective in a course of
study?
(i) Learner’s commitment
(ii) Parents interest in the learner
(iii) Prior knowledge of the learner
(iv) Skill of the learner in the concerned area
(v) Family size of the learner

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(vi) Socio-economic background of the family to which the learner belongs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 1

Q.5 The performance of a student is compared with another student in which type of testing?
(1) Criterion referenced testing
(2) Diagnostic testing
(3) Summative testing
(4) Norm-referenced testing
Answer: 4

Q.6 From the list given below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling
procedures’ :
(i) Simple random sampling
(ii) Dimensional sampling
(iii) Snowball sampling
(iv) Cluster sampling
(v) Quota sampling
(vi) Stratified sampling
Choose the correct option
(1) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(2) (ii), (iv) and (V)
(3) (i), (iii) and (6V)
(4) (ii). (iii) and (V)
Answer: 4

Q.7 The conceptual framework in which a research is conducted is called a

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(1) Synopsis of research

(2) Research design
(3) Research hypothesis
(4) Research paradigm
Answer: 2

Q.8 Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?

(1) Personality tests
(2) Projective personality tests
(3) Aptitude tests
(4) Interest and attitude scales
Answer: 3

Q.9 Which of the strategies in the list given below will be associated with direct teaching?
(i) Providing examples and explanation
(ii) Promoting inquiry
(iii) Focussing on concepts
(iv) Giving review and recapitulation
(v) Offering practice and feedback
(vi) Problem raising and problem-solving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv) (v) and (vi)
Answer: 3

Q.10 From the list given below identify those questions which are called process rather than
content based questions?
(i) Convergent questions
(ii) Divergent questions

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(iii) Fact based questions

(iv) Concept based questions
(v) Open questions
(vi) Closed questions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (M)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: 4

Geography seeks to understand the physical and human organization of the surface of
the Earth. In the field of geography, inter-related themes are frequently seen. These are
scale, pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on organisation at
which a phenomenon is studied. Pattern is defined as the variation observed in a
phenomenon studied at a particular scale. The third theme, process, further connects
the first two. Process is defined as the description of how the factors that affect a
phenomenon act to product a pattern at a particular scale. For instance, when a
passenger on an aircraft looks out of the window, the View changes according to the
scale. At the global scale when the aircraft maintains its height, he can see the chunks of
clouds in all their pattern, the sun or the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses
a little height, passengers can see the land and water masses in their different colours
and the shape of land masses. At the continental scale, the passengers can see the shapes
of the land features and how they are distributed. The pattern emerges as the variation
of land and water and the proportion of each. Looking carefully, passengers can note
how each land mass aligns with the others and how each mountain bears the signs of the
process through which it emerged.
The processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One instance
of this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth. Most systems in nature display
time cycles that are organised in a rhythm of their own as these time cycles and natural
processes are always active, the environment of the earth is always in a state of
dynamism. This environmental change is not only the result of natural process but also
the result of human activity. Physical geography works towards understanding the
interaction between man and nature and also the results of this interaction in order to
manage global climate change better.

Q.11 The time cycles of the system of nature follow their own
(1) Path
(2) Rhythm

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(3) Process
(4) Cycle
Answer: 2

Q.12 The view seen by a passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft; will be affected
by the
(1) Process
(2) Pattern
(3) Scale
(4) Rhythm
Answer: 3

Q.13 Physical geography studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in
order to
(1) understand global climate change
(2) study the impact of man’s activities on nature
(3) address the issue of global climate change
(4) reduce man—animal conflict
Answer: 3

Q.14 In geography, pattern studies the variation observed in a phenomenon at

(1) a particular scale
(2) any scale
(3) every scale
(4) most scales
Answer: 1

Q.15 The alignment of landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight
on a
(1) Global scale
(2) Continental scale

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(3) Local scale

(4) Time scale
Answer: 2

Q.16 Match Set ‘A’ with Set ‘B’.

A (Media)
(a) Audio
(b) Advertising
(c) Internet
(d) Newspaper
B (Transmission/Communication)
(i) Bandwidth
(ii) Linear communication
(iii) Non personal Communication
(iv) Frequency modulation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. iii, iv, ii, i
2. i, ii, iii, iv
3. iv, iii, i, ii
4. ii, i, iv, iii
Answer: 3

Q.17 When subject and predicate of both the premises are the same but they differ in quality
only, it is known as
(1) Contradictories
(2) Contraries
(3) Subaltern
(4) Super altern
Answer: 2

Q.18 Which of the following fractions is the result of the sum of an integer and its reciprocal?

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1. 15/8
2. 26/5
3. 36/7
4. 37/5
Answer: 2

Q.19 Mass media do not have pre-determined functions for everyone and people use them the
way they like. This is suggestive of the fact that,
(1) Audiences are active
(2) Content is of little significance
(3) Content lacks plurality
(4) Audiences are homogeneous
Answer: 1

Q.20 If proposition ‘All republics are grateful’ is taken to be true then which of the following
propositions can be false?
(i) Republics are not grateful
(ii) Some republics are not grateful
(iii) No republics are grateful
(iv) Some republics are grateful
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i). (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: 3

Q.21 Sanjay sold an article at a loss of 25%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs.
175, there would have been a gain of 10%. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 350
(2) Rs. 400

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(3) Rs. 500

(4) Rs. 750
Answer: 3

Q.22 A communication process can be considered complete when

(1) The sender transmits the message
(2) The message enters the channel
(3) The message leaves the channel
(4) The receiver understands the message
Answer: 4

Q.23 A customer writes to a bank, ‘Kindly send me a statement of my transactions in my

savings bank account ‘A’ during the last three months”. In terms of communication it will be
called
(1) Input
(2) Message
(3) Output
(4) Feedback
Answer: 2

Q.24 A train leaves Agra at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Another train leaves Delhi at 7
am and reaches Agra at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
(1) 6:36 am
(2) 6:56 am
(3) 7 am
(4) 7:56 am
Answer: 4

Q.25 The proposition ‘No red is black is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(i) No black is red
(ii) All red are black

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(iii) Some red are not black

(iv) Red is not black
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) only
(3) (1) and (iv)
(4) (iv) only
Answer: 3

Q.26 Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the
following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?
Premises:
(i) Some bags are tables
(1i) All bags are chairs.
Conclusions:
(a) Some tables are chairs
(b) No chair is table
(c) Some chairs are bags
(d) Some bags are not tables
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer: 1

Q.27 The average of 35 raw scores is 18. The average of first seventeen of them is 14 and that
of last seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw score.
(1) 42
(2) 46
(3) 52

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(4) 56
Answer: 3

Q.28 Identify the reasoning in the following argument: Pre-active stage of classroom teaching
is important just as pre-learning preparation stage of communication’
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Analogical
Answer: 4

Q.29 In the context of communication, usual sequence is

(1) Language —> Communication —> Society —> Civilization
(2) Communication —> Society —> Language —> Civilization
(3) Communication —> Language —> Society —> Civilization
(4) Language —> Society —> Communication —> Civilization
Answer: 3

Q.30 If REASON is coded as 5 and GOVERNMENT as 9, than what is the code for
ACCIDENT?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer: 2

Consider the following table that shows expenditures of a company (in lakh rupees) per
annum over the given years. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the
table :

Q.31 The approximate ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the
total expenditure on transport for all the years is

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(1) 31 : 40
(2) 25: 36
(3) 27 : 30
(4) 31 : 36
Answer: 4

Q.32 The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is
approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(1) 0.9%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 1.6%
(4) 2.0%
Answer: 2

Q.33 Total expenditure of all the items in 2008 was approximately what percent of the total
expenditure in 2012?
(1) 66%
(2) 69%
(3) 72%
(4) 75%
Answer: 1

Q.34 The approximate ratio between the total expenditure of the company in the year 2008
and the total expenditure of the company in the year 2009 is
(1) 57: 75
(2) 52: 68
(3) 57 : 68
(4) 68 : 57
Answer: 3

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Q.35 What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay (in
Rupees) during this period?
(1) 30.5 Lakh
(2) 32.7 Lakh
(3) 33.7 Lakh
(4) 35.5 Lakh
Answer: 3

Q.36 Which of the following statements represent the main functions of UGC?
(1) Recognition of institutions
(1i) Maintenance of quality and standards
(Iii) Appointment of Vice Chancellor
(iv) Giving grants to institutions
(v) Making state governments responsible for educational development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: 3

Q.37 The main aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC was to
(1) Address the shortage of faculty in higher education institution
(2) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
(3) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty in colleges and universities
(4) Strengthen the academia — industry linkage
Answer: 1

Q.38 Which of the following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates,
diplomas, degrees marksheets etc?
(1) SWAYAM

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(2) National Digital Library

(3) National Academic Library
(4) National Academic Depository
Answer: 4

Q.39 The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
Answer: 3

Q.40 Montreal protocol aims at

(1) Reduction in emissions of green house gases
(2) Phasing out ozone depleting substances
(3) Prohibiting transboundary movement of hazardous waste
(4) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy
Answer: 2

Q.41 SMTP is an acronym for

(1) Simple Mail Transport Protocol
(2) Simple Mail Terminal Protocol
(3) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(4) Simple Mail Transition Protocol
Answer: 3

Q.42 In large parts of Eastern India, the ground water is contaminated by

(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Mercury
(4) Nickel

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Answer: 1

Q.43 Taj Mahal is mainly threatened by the deleterious effects of

(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Chlorine
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen
Answer: 1

Q.44 Two statements are given

Statement I : Earthquake ‘A’ is 5 on Richter scale and Earthquake ‘B’ is 8 on the same scale.
Earthquake ‘B’ has 1000 times the wave amplitude compared to ‘A’.
Statement II : The energy released in ‘B’ is three times that of ‘A’
Choose the correct option :
(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I and II are correct
(3) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect
Answer: 1

Q.45 A computer has main memory of 960 KBytes. What is the exact number of bytes
contained in this memory?
(1) 960 x 8
(2) 960 x 1000
(3) 960 x 1024
(4) 960 x 1024 x 1024
Answer: 3

Q.46 Name the scheme which facilitates academic and research collaboration between Indian
Institution and the best institution in the world
(1) ICSSR — IMPRESS

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(2) Staff Development Scheme

(3) SPARC
(4) Institutional Development Scheme
Answer: 3

Q.47 Which of the following file format is not a video file format?
(1) AW
(2) .MOV
(3) .MP4
(4) .JPEG
Answer: 4

Q.48 For the day to day administration of University, which of the following bodies is
responsible?
(1) Senate
(2) Syndicate/ Executive council
(3) Student council
(4) Academic council
Answer: 2

Q.49 Efficiency of electrical power generation is least amongst the following sources of
energy in case of
(1) Solar
(2) Wind
(3) Geothermal
(4) Nuclear
Answer: 3

Q.50 Which of the following is a non-conventional learning programme in higher education?

(1) Swayam
(2) Face-to-face teaching-learning

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(3) Tutorial class

(4) Seminar
Answer: 1

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UGC NET Paper 1 December 2019

Q.1 Classroom Interactions are influenced largely by

1. Student’s commitment
2. Teacher centric environment
3. Organisational oversight
4. Unsolicited interventions
Answer: 1

Q.2 A 50 year old man has a son whose age is 2/5 of his age. After how many, the ratio of the
age of the man to his son will be 5/3?
1. 10 Years
2. 15 Years
3. 20 Years
4. 25 Years
Answer: 4

Q.3 “In this hospital, some nurses don’t wear white dress, some doctors have private practice
and medicines prescribed are of high cost. Therefore, treatment in this hospital is of poor
quality”. What fallacy does this argument make?
1. Fallacy of composition
2. Slippery slope
3. Fallacy of accident
4. Fallacy of division
Answer: 2

Q.4 which of the following is true with reference to anupalabdhi as a means of knowledge?
1. 1 do not cognize the pot on the table, therefore it is absent there
2. 1 directly perceive the absence of pot on the table
3. 1 infer the absence of pot on the table since 1 do not find it to be there
4. 1 know the absence of the pot on the table because 1 know its similarly with other

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Answer: 1

Q.5 Identify the term ‘X’ in the following series

1. 62
2. 69
3. 60
4. 71
Answer: 1

Q.6 which one of the following is the characteristic feature of an argument?

1. It is either valid or invalid
2. It is neither valid nor invalid
3. It is either true or false
4. It is neither true nor false
Answer: 1

Q.7 In which of the following steps of research, the scope for creativity and imagination is
utmost?
1. Identifying the research problem and defining it
2. Figuring out the related studies and the techniques used by other researchers
3. Identifying variables and hypothesizing
4. Data analysis and presentation of results
Answer: 3

Q.8 A college teacher does research with a view to depict the reality situations relating to
home conditions of students and hostels provided for. Which of the following research format
will be helpful to do so?
1. Experimental Research
2. Descriptive Research
3. Participant observation based research
4. Ethnographic Research

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Answer: 3

Q.9 which of the following is an example of maximum performance test?

1. Projective personality test
2. Interest inventory
3. Aptitude test
4. Attitude scales
Answer: 3

Q.10 The length of the side of a square (5.0cmx5.0cm) is increased by 1%. By what
percentage (%), the area of the square increases?
1. 1%
2. 2%
3. 5%
4. 4%
Answer: 2

Q.11 consider the following statements and choose the right option
(a) term should be distributed in atleast one premise
(b)Middle term should be present in the conclusion
(c)Both premises can be particular in a valid argument
(d)Both premises can be negative in a valid argument
1. (c) and (d)
2. Only (c)
3. Only (a)
4. (b) and (c)
Answer: 3

Q.12 when a large number of students with different performances levels are there in the
class. For uniform imparting of educative interactions, a teacher should opt for a
communication which is:

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1. Top-down and linear

2. Technology – enabled
3. Individual – centric
4. Self – projected
Answer: 2

Q.13 In case the population of research is heterogeneous in nature which of the following
sampling techniques will ensure optimum representativeness of sample units?
1. Simple random sampling
2. Stratified random sampling
3. Cluster sampling
4. Systematic sampling
Answer: 2

Q.14 Give Below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Classrooms communication is pre-decided by social and institutional
demands.
Reasons (R): Positive educative actions should guide learners to acquire knowledge of social
significance.
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but is (R) false
4. (A) is false, but is (R) true
Answer: 1

Q.15 A person buys 3 items of Rs. 1500 each and 2 items of Rs. 1800 each from a shopping
mall. On the total bill a discount of 10% is given. What is the average cost of the items?
1. 1000
2. 1458
3. 1658

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4. 1550
Answer: 2

Q.16 the emphasis in memory level teaching is on which of the following?

Organisation of thoughts and ideas
(a)Seeing of relationships among facts
(b)Systematic presentations to enable quick reproduction
(c)Critical thinking
(d)Mastery of concept sequencing of facts
(e)Segregating one feature from another
Choose the answer from the following options:
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (c) and (e)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 2

Q.17 Classroom communication is

(a)Like a computer- program
(b)Dictatorial
(c)Purposeful
(d)Pragmatic
(e)Choose the correct option from those given below
1. (a) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (c) and (d)
Answer: 4

Q.18 which of the following teaching method(s) is/are contributive to direct learning?

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(a)Team teaching and lecturing

(b)Simulation and role playing
(c)Lecture with or without use of audio- visuals
(d)Participation in workshop and assignments
(e)MOOCs and heuristics
(f)Interactive presentation
(g)Choose your answer from the following options:
1. (b), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (c), (d) and (f)
4. (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 1

Q.19 which of the following statistical technique will be appropriate for data analysis when
the observations are available in the form of frequencies?
1. Parametric ‘t’ test
2. Non-parametric ‘u’ test
3. Non-parametric ‘chi-square’ test
4. Parametric correlated ‘t’ test
Answer: 3

Q.20 the most characteristic feature of an adolescent learner which determines his/her social
and moral development is the
1. Tendency to be away from parents
2. Concern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards
3. Mixing up with peers in the neighborhood
4. Identity crisis
Answer: 2

Q.21 “If it rains, then the drought will end. The drought has ended. Therefore, it rained”.
Which kind of fallacy does this commit?

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1. Deductive fallacy
2. Inductive fallacy
3. Abductive fallacy
4. Informal fallacy
Answer: 1

Q.22 The smallest integer greater than 1 which is simultaneously a square and a cube of
certain
1. 8
2. 9
3. 36
4. 64
Answer: 4

Q.23 Below are given two sets in which set I specifies the four behaviour modification
techniques while set II indicates their exemplification. Match the two sets

Set I (Behaviour
modification Set II (Example)
techniques)

Withdrawal of a pleasant
Positive stimulus or application of an
a) i.
reinforcement aversive stimulus to stop the
behaviour

Painful or aversive stimulus is

Negative
b) ii. presented to stop the occurrence
reinforcement
of behaviour

The behaviour increases in

c) Punishment iii. frequency after the removal of
the stimulus

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The behaviour increases in

d) Extinction iv. frequency after the presentation
of a stimulus

Choose your answer from the following options:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iv),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
Answer: 3

Q.24 Swapping of encoder- decoder roles in communication happens due to

1. Cognitive disruptions’
2. Semantic noise
3. Feedback analysis
4. Weak channelization
Answer: 3

Q.25 A research scholar while finally reporting the research results in the form of a thesis
acknowledge the support of his/her supervisor in the preface. This will be treated as a
1. Sheer formality
2. Needed formality
3. Superfluous act
4. Part of ethically
Answer: 4

Consider of the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore) from three
different companies A, B, and C over these years 2012-2018. Based on the date in the table.
Answer the questions 26-30
Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

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Amount of exports (In crore Rs)

Year
A B C

2012 40 90 70

2013 70 50 100

2014 50 70 130

2015 80 70 100

2016 110 90 70

2017 60 110 90

2018 130 150 110

Q.26 In how many of the given years, were the exports from company A more than its
average annual exports over the given years?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Answer: 2

Q.27 In which year, the absolute difference between the exports from companies A and B
was the minimum?

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1. 2013
2. 2014
3. 2015
4. 2016
Answer: 3

Q.28 What was the difference between the average exports of three companies in 2017 and
the average exports of three companies in 2012?
1. 15.33 crores
2. 18.67 crores
3. 25 crores
4. 20 crores
Answer: 4

Q.29 For which of the following pairs of years, the total exports from the three companies put
together are equal?
1. 2014 and 2017
2. 2015 and 2017
3. 2016 and 2017
4. 2014 and 2015
Answer: 4

Q.30 Average annual amount of exports during the given period for company B is
approximately what percent (%) of the average annual amount of exports for company C?
1. 64%
2. 21%
3. 03%
4. 33%
Answer: 3

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Q.31 which among the following is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship implemented by National Skills Development Corporation?
1. Robotic India
2. Artificial Intelligence @ schools
3. Make in India
4. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna
Answer: 4

Q.32 which one of the following represents the correct order of sequence for reading skills in
the context of research?
1. Read, question, recall, review, survey
2. Questions, survey, read, recall, review
3. Recall, review, survey, question, read
4. Survey, question, read, recall, review
Answer: 4

Q.33 Match the following study skills with their effective learning techniques:

Study Skills Learning Techniques

Mixing different kinds of problems together

a) Elaborative interrogation i.
when studying

Explaining what a section of text or an

b) Practice Testing ii.
example problem means to you

Testing yourself on the material you are

c) Self-Explanation iii.
trying to learn

d) Interleaved practice iv. Answering why a fact is true

Choose the correct option:

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1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i),(d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii),(b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Answer: 1

Q.34 Which among the following natural hazards has relatively slow onset?
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Droughts
3. Wild free
4. Land and slides
Answer: 2

Q.35 Under Kyoto protocol, the parties, in the second commitment period, have to reduce
their greenhouse gas emissions with reference to 1990 levels by atleast
1. 10%
2. 12%
3. 15%
4. 18%
Answer: 4

Q.36 Match List-I with List-II in the context of computer networking:

List-I List-II

a) VOIP i. Makes use of light pulses to transmit data

b) Fibre-optic cable ii. Use of internet to make phone calls

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Most appropriate to connect computers in a

c) URL iii.
small building

Text used by web browsers to locate a web

d) UTP cable iv.
address on the Internet.

Choose the correct option:

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Answer: 2

Q.37 Major Sources of oxygen demanding waste in fresh water systems are
(a)Agricultural run-off
(b)Food Processing
(c)Ore Mining
(d)Sewage effluent
(e)Landfill sites
Choose the correct options from these given below:
1. (a), (d) and (e)
2. (b), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

Q.38 which of the following is renewable natural resources?

1. Biological University
2. Tin’
3. Natural Gas

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4. Salt
Answer: 1

Q.39 Select the option that includes file formats suitable for distributing sound files across
the internet.
1. Wmv,mp4,wma,mp3
2. Avi,midi,wav,mp3
3. Avi,mov,wmv,mp3
4. Midi,wav,wma,mp3
Answer: 4

Q.40 Biomass fuels have the potential to form a sustainable carbon neutral energy source
because they
1. Produce carbon dioxide in combustion as much as they consume when they grow
2. Produce less amount of carbon dioxide on combustion compared to the amount they use
during their growth
3. Have carbon dioxide content same as fossil fuels
4. Do not produce hazardous emissions on combustion
Answer: 1

Q.41 which of the following is/are major issues arising out of the growing reliance on
information technology?
(a)Profitability
(b)Security threats
(c)Privacy concerns
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a) and (c) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: 3

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Q.42 In the age of four Vedas, students were admitted to the Vedic schools after performance
of which ceremony, among the following:
1. Upanayana ceremony
2. Utsarjana ceremony
3. Satapatha ceremony
4. Dhanurvidya ceremony
Answer: 1

Q.43 which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a)For the sequence of integers represented in binary as 00111, 01001, 01011, P…. the next
integer P would be represented as 01101
(b)A byte is a binary number consisting of exactly 8 bits
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Neither (a) and (b)
Answer: 3

Q.44 which of the following communication technologies employ only asynchronous

communication?
(a)Video conferencing
(b)Email
(c)Forums
(e)Instant messaging
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (c) only
2. (b) and (d) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (a) and (d) only
Answer: 3

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Q.45 In order to meet the new demands of market economy and produce competent
graduates, who can compete with their counterparts in international markets, the first and
foremost change that needs to be introduced in the prevailing system of Indian higher
education is related to:
1. Admission process
2. Curriculum
3. Educational technology
4. Appointment of teachers
Answer: 2

Read the passage and answer questions from 46 to 50.

Anyone who has ever been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless,
static and without vocal variety ran appreciate the commonsense value of the affective
side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in
transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focused
research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a
more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one
can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learness. What the
instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions
and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A
teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions,
voice inflection, gesture and movement thus communicating respect and caring for the
learner- is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher
levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take
their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the
lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm
is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement excitement, and interest during a classroom
presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to
respond in kind.

Q.46 The affective nature of teaching is reflected in

1. Deeper understanding of the classroom environment
2. Other behaviours of the teacher
3. The recording of classroom interaction
4. The limited reliance on research instruments
Answer: 1

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Q.47 The affective signs will provide students

1. The basis for understanding contents
2. Exhibitional behaviours
3. Cues to hold attention
4. A basis which triggers further enthusiasm
Answer: 4

Q.48 The passage focuses attention on

1. Lifeless classroom presentation
2. Affective factors of teaching
3. Students as emotional learners
4. Measuring teacher’s affective nature
Answer: 2

Q.49 When does one feel the need for the value of affective aspects of teaching?
1. When a teacher has a vocal variety
2. When a teacher makes a dynamic presentation
3. When a teacher’s presentation is monotonous
4. When a teacher’s lecture is beyond expectation
Answer: 3

Q.50 Students respect a teacher who

1. Is emotional
2. Displays concern for students
3. Has a powerful voice
4. Has narcissitic attitude
Answer: 2

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UGC NET Paper 1 September 2020 (Morning Shift)

Q.1 Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow
The table below embodies data on the number of students who appeared (A) and passed (P)
in a competitive examination from four different zones (K, L, M and N) during the year 2014
to 2019.

Which of the following zones, the percentage of students who passed out to the total of those
who appeared in the examination is minimum in the year 2019?
1. K
2. L
3. M
4. N
Answer: 2

Q.2 What is the difference between the total number of students who appeared in the exam
and the total number of students who passed in the exam from Zone-K in all six years taken
together?

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1. 2060
2. 2070
3. 2080
4. 2090
Answer: 4

Q.3 What is the ratio of the number of students who passed from Zone-K in the year 2017
compared to that in 2018?
1. 7:5
2. 3:5
3. 5:7
4. 5:3
Answer: 3

Q.4 The total number of students who passed from Zone-M in all the six years taken together
is approximately what percentage of the total number of students who appeared from Zone-M
in all the six years taken together?
1. 56%
2. 58%
3. 60%
4. 64%
Answer: 1

Q.5 What is the average number of students who passed in the exam from all the four zones
in the year 2015?
1. 528
2. 529
3. 530
4. 531
Answer: 2

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Q.6 The sequence of cultural institutions is communication is

A. Family
B. School
C. Religion
D. Mass media
Choose the correct answer from the options below
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, D, A, B
4. D, A, B, C
Answer: 1

Q.7 Under Goal 2 of Millennium Development Goals, UN member countries were to ensure
that by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls would be able to complete a full course of
1. Primary education
2. Secondary education
3. Tertiary education
4. Skill based education
Answer: 1

Q.8 Complete the following series

9,11,15,23,39, ______?
1. 71
2. 65
3. 44
4. 68
Answer: 1

Q.9 Reflective level teaching is different from memory level teaching because the pattern of
communication that is involved reflective level teaching is basically
1. Linear

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2. Bottom-up
3. Interactional
4. Transactional
Answer: 4

Q.10 Which one of the following assessment procedures is conducted during an in-progress
teaching-learning session?
1. Summative
2. Formative
3. Norm-referenced
4. Criterion-referenced
Answer: 2

Q.11 A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle and looking at the centre. Only D is between
A and B. Only F is between A and C. E is just left of B. Who is the only one standing
between E and F?
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C
Answer: 4

Q.12 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180
Statement II: The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is false
Answer: 1

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Q.13 Consider the following three sets of numbers

A. 2, 5, 9
B. 1, 6, 10
C. 3, 4, 8
Which of the following represents correct ascending order of the averages of three sets A, B,
and C?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. C < A < B
2. B < C < A
3. B < A < C
4. C < B < A
Answer: 1

Q.14 Which of the following statements are correct?

A. N.K.N stands for New Knowledge Network
B. MOOCs are offline courses
C. National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative
D. Clock rate of CPU is measured in Gigabytes
E. Param Shivay is a super computer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C and E only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and E only
Answer: 1

Q.15 The product of the ages of Sagun and Srishti is 240. If twice the age of Srishti is more
than Sagun’s age by 4 years, then what is Srishti’s age?
1. 15
2. 12
3. 10

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4. 20
Answer: 2

Q.16 Match List I and List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
2. A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
3. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
4. A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
Answer: 3

Q.17 A man is facing south-west. If he turns 90 in the anticlockwise direction and then 135 in
the clockwise direction, which direction is he facing now?
1. West
2. North- West
3. North- East
4. East
Answer: 1

Q.18 Dissolved oxygen (DO), an important parameter of water quality, is essential for
survival of
1. Humans

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2. Animals
3. Fish
4. Crops and vegetables
Answer: 3

Q.19 From the following, identify those features which are associated with “Indirect
Instructional Strategies”
A. Guided student practice
B. Focus on concept acquisition through question-answer sessions
C. Presenting the stimulus material in small, easy to take steps
D. Problem based presentation
E. Participatory and collaborative moves stressed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C, D and E only
Answer: 1

Q.20 According to the census of 2011, which state/union territory had the minimum number
of graduates in relation to its population?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Daman and Diu
4. Chandigarh
Answer: 4

Q.21 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R
Assertion A: Giving orders to students in the classroom is a specific form of communication

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Reason R: The manner of orders depends upon the cultural background of the students
involved
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Answer: 1

Q.22 The research method which focuses on establishing causal relationships with control
among variables – independent, moderator and dependent, is called
1. Ex post facto method
2. Survey method
3. Case study method
4. Experimental method
Answer: 4

Q.23 Which of the following factors are important in communication?

A. Slang
B. Cynical attitude
C. Framing
D. Priming
E. Immediacy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, D and E only
4. C, D and E only
Answer: 4

Q.24 What are the characteristic features of the Quantitative Research paradigm?

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A. It is hypothetico-deductive
B. It is focused on natural settings
C. It lays stress on generalizations to the population characteristics
D. It emphasizes numeric data from a large number of people
E. It says that the literature review plays a minor role but justify the problem
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, C and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C, D and E only
Answer: – 1

Q.25 If 30% of A=0.25 of B=1/5 of C, then which of the following is true about A: B: C?
1. [Link]
2. [Link]
3. [Link]
4. [Link]
Answer: 3

Q.26 Given below are two statements

Statement I: The use of ICT in organizing teaching-learning programmes in the universities
has the potential to optimise the learning outcomes
Statement II: Formative assessment provides support to enhancing the quality of teaching-
learning sessions
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1

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Q.27 Among the following elements which is typically the most abundant in dried sewage
sludge?
1. Total nitrogen
2. Total Sulphur
3. Calcium
4. Total phosphorous
Answer: 3

Q.28 Identify those teaching strategies which are learner-centered

A. Cooperative learning
B. Team teaching
C. Laboratory based projects
D. Pair-share discussions
E. Lecturing with PowerPoint presentations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. C, D and E only
Answer: 3

Q.29 Identify correct sequence of the following State Union of India in terms of increasing
wind energy potential
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. D, C, B, A
2. B, D, C, A

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3. B, C, A, D
4. B, C, D, A
Answer: None

Q.30 All things which have smoke have fire;

This hill has smoke;
Therefore, the hill has smoke; and
No non-fiery things have smoke;
This hill has smoke;
Therefore, this hill is not non-fiery
The above is an example of which type of inference in Indian logic?
1. Purvavat
2. Anvayavyatireki
3. Kevalanayi
4. Kevalavyatireki
Answer: 2

Q.31 An Inter-University Center for Yogic sciences has been set up by University Grants
Commission in the state of
1. Karnataka
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Himachal Pradesh
Answer: 1

Q.32 URL stands for

1. Universal Resource Location
2. Universal Response Locator
3. Unified Response Location
4. Uniform Resource Locator
Answer: 4

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Q.33 Match List I and List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
2. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
3. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
Answer: 1

Q.34 Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?

1. Firefox
2. Facebook
3. Chrome
4. Safari
Answer: 2

Q.35 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Cache memory is faster than random access memory
Statement II: Random access memory is closer to the processor than cache memory
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: 3

Q.36 What is the usual sequence of steps in the scientific method?

A. Hypothesis making by identifying the variables
B. Felt need which is creating the problem
C. Identifying the difficulty and problem statement formulation
D. Data analysis and interpretation
E. Collection of data using appropriate research tools
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A, C, B, D, E
2. B, C, A, E, D
3. C, D, E, B, A
4. B, A, C, E, D
Answer: 2

Q.37 The full form of ‘NEAT’, a recently launched schemed of MHRD, Government of
India, is
1. National Engineering Aptitude Test
2. National Educational Alliance for Technology
3. National Education Alliance for Testing
4. National English Aptitude Test
Answer: 2

Q.38 Asidha is a fallacy when the middle term is

1. Unproved
2. Too wide
3. Too narrow
4. Non-exclusive
Answer: 1

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Q.39 When did the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) and the International
Program in Environmental Education (IEEP) come into existence?
1. 1972
2. 1975
3. 1982
4. 1992
Answer: None

Q.40 In communication, interpretation of the message depends upon

1. The context
2. Transmission speed
3. Associated noise
4. Channel efficiency
Answer: 1

Q.41 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Qualitive research paradigm emphasizes participant perspectives and uses an
empirico-inductive approach
Statement II: In the same research project, it is neither possible nor desirable to use both
Qualitative and Quantitative research paradigms
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 3

Q.42 Identify the correct sequence of sectoral global CO2 emissions in increasing order as
per IPCC (2014) report
A. Electricity and heat production
B. Buildings

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C. Transportation
D. Industry
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. B, C, D, A
2. B, C, A, D
3. B, D, C, A
4. B, D, A, C
Answer: 1

Q.43 Identify sampling procedures in which units are chosen giving an equal and independent
chance
A. Quota sampling procedure
B. Stratified sampling procedure
C. Dimensional sampling procedure
D. Random sampling procedure
E. Systematic sampling procedure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, D and E only
Answer: 4

Q.44 RAM is placed on

1. Hard Disk
2. Extension board
3. Motherboard
4. USB
Answer: 3

Q.45 Given below are two statements

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Statement I: A deemed to be university is a non-affiliating university

Statement II: The teacher-student ratio in a deemed to be university must not be less than
1:10
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 3

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
In Skinner’s system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most
convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948)
has called “superstitious behaviour”. In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing
is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing
anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior
to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate
of emission. The subject comes to “act as if” the response that has been fortuitously
strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the
reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to
the subject’s behaviour.
The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner’s effective
techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a
point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as
“emitting” the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive
of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then
he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the
subject’s repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of
environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

Q.46 The procedure of shaping a subject’s behaviour is related to his

A. Susceptibility
B. Desire for reinforcement
C. Responses already in his repertoire
D. Responses reinforced by approximation techniques
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only

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2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only
Answer: 3

Q.47 According to Skinner, the superstitious behaviour of individual is the outcome of

1. Constant exposure to an event
2. Exposure to an event without regularity
3. Occasional exposure to an event
4. Natural exposure to an event
Answer: 2

Q.48 The delivery of the reinforcer gets strengthened due to

1. The subject involvement in the event
2. Increase in the rate of reinforcement
3. Factors such as deprivation
4. The use of a mechanical device
Answer: 3

Q.49 The responses that are not in the emission list of a subject, can be observed by
1. Coercive measures
2. Creating suitable environmental conditions
3. Inhibiting his natural emission behavior
4. Using mechanical devices for reinforcement
Answer: 2

Q.50 The example of a mechanical device reinforcing the subject’s behaviour demonstrates
1. The automatic effect of reinforcement 2. The illusion of reinforcement
3. The discrepancy in subject’s behaviour
4. The belief that every reaction is an act of reinforcement
Answer: 1

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UGC NET Paper 1 December 2021 (Morning Shift)

Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of runs scored by an
Indian batsman against different countries in one-day internationals (ODI) and T20 world cup
matches. Total runs scored by the Indian batsman in ODI and T20 are 2800 and 2000
respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1 – 5:

Country wise Distribution of Runs:

Percent (%) of Runs Scored

Country
ODI T20

Pakistan 10.50 % 09.50 %

England 11.00 % 09.00 %

Australia 17.0 % 11.50 %

South Africa 12.50 % 16.50 %

Sri Lanka 09.00 % 12.50 %

New Zealand 12.00 % 10.00

West Indies 14.00 % 18.00 %

Others 13.50 % 13.00 %

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Q.1) Total runs scored by the batsman against New Zealand in T20 matches are
approximately what percent (%) of the total runs scored against Pakistan in ODI matches?
(1) 64 %
(2) 66 %
(3) 62 %
(4) 68 %
Answer: 4

Q.2)In the case of which of the following countries, the difference between the runs scored
by the batsman in ODI and T20 is the second lowest?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Pakistan
(3) South Africa
(4) West Indies
Answer: 3

Q.3) If the batsman played 14 innings against Sri Lanka in ODI and remained not out in 5
innings, then the average runs scored by the batsman against Sri Lanka are:
(1) 28
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 22
Answer: 1

Q.4) The runs scored by the batsman against West Indies in T20 are approximately what
percent (%) of the runs scored against Australia in ODI?
(1) 71 %
(2) 75 %
(3) 73 %
(4) 69 %
Answer: 3

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Q.5) If the batsman had scored 280 runs against Pakistan in T20 matches, then what would
have been the percentage of runs scored by the batsman in the T20 matches against all other
countries (Assuming that the total runs scored by the batsman in T20 remains the same (that
is 2000))?
(1) 88 %
(2) 84 %
(3) 86 %
(4) 90 %
Answer: 3

Q.6) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A ) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R ):
Assertion (A): Long term low emission development strategies by each country are crucial to
realizing the goals of Paris Agreement.
Reason (R): Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) declared by each country are not
sufficient to keep the rise in global temperature up to above the pre-industrial level.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both (A ) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A )
(2) Both (A ) and (R ) are correct but (R ) is NOT the correct explanation of (A )
(3) (A ) is correct but (R ) is not correct
(4) (A ) is not correct but (R ) is correct
Answer: 1

Q.7) Ankur receives an email informing him that his credit card is going to be cancelled. The
email advises him to click on the provided link and sign into his online banking account to
prevent this from happening, which he does. A week later, Ankur notices that ₹ 10.000 has
been withdrawn from his bank account. What has Ankur fallen victim to?
(1) A phishing scam
(2) A Trojan horse
(3) Online blackmail
(4) A virus

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Answer: 1

Q.8) Factors that contribute for effective classroom communication are:

(A)Information overload
(B) Use of unfamiliar words
(C) Balanced flow of words
(D) Circular flow of messages
(E) Mechanism to assess the feedback
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (A), (D), (E) only
(4) (C), (D), (E) only
Answer: 4

Q.9) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.
Statement II: A number is divisible by 9, if the sum of its digits is not divisible by 9.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 3

Q.10) At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
(1) 581/2
(2) 671/2
(3) 681/2
(4) 721/2

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Answer: 2

Q.11) Given below are two statements:

Statement I:If an article is sold at a gain of 19 %, then selling price is 109 % of cost price.
Statement II: if an article is sold at a loss of 9 %, then selling price is 109 % of cost price.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 2

Q.12) Which of the following modality of higher education is the example of evolution in the
post-independence India?
(1) Teacher Education
(2) Technical Education
(3) Legal Education
(4) Distance Education
Answer: 4

Q.13) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The content and style of communication are the predictor variables of effective
teaching.
Statement II: A good and communicative teacher evokes relatively less questions from the
students.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 3

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Q.14) ‘Upanaya’ in Indian Nyaya Syllogism corresponds to which of the following in

Aristotelian Syllogism?
(1) Major premise
(2) Minor premise
(3) Conclusion
(4) Both major and minor premises
Answer: 2

Q.15) Match list I with List II

List I (Examples of
List II (Type of Communication)
Communication)

A company boss
telephones his/her
(A) (I) Marketing communication
secretary for some help
from outside.

A company issues a
(B) circular of guidelines for (II) Horizontal communication
its employees.

Employees discuss certain

(C) (III) Vertical communication
issues among themselves.

A company sends a formal

(D) letter to its retailers and (IV) Informal communication
wholesalers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (II) (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

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Answer: 1

Q.16) The difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is 35. The smaller
number is
(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 17
Answer: 4

Q.17) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Computer based testing ensures high reliability and validity in the process of
evaluation centred on effective and conative domains of behaviour.
Statement II: Support materials in the form of programmed instructional models have a
tremendous potential to maximize learning.
The light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 4

Q.18) Identify the correct sequence (decreasing order) of lifetimes of the following
greenhouse gases in atmosphere:
(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Surface ozone
(D) CFC-11
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C)
(2) (B) > (D) > (A) > (C)
(3) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)

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(4) (D) > (B) > (C) > (A)

Answer: 2

Q.19) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The goal of inquiry ′ in fundamental research is directed at bringing an
increment in the fund of knowledge.
Statement II: Action research is research by the practitioner, for the practitioner and of the
practitioner.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement l is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 1

Q.20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Two sounds of same intensity but different frequency characteristics may appear
to be of different loudness.
Statement II: The response of human ear to noise of different frequencies is not uniform.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1

Q.21) For optimizing learning outcomes which of the following factors have been identified
as most effective in terms of research evidences in the global context?
(1) Home related factors
(2) School related factors
(3) Teacher related factors

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(4) Supplementary technological devices related factors

Answer: 3

Q.22) Find odd one out in from the following:

5, 7, 12, 17,19, 23
(1) 7
(2) 12
(3) 17
(4) 19
Answer: 2

Q.23) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The value of hexadecimal number 21 is 33 in decimal number system.
Statement II: The value of binary number 1110 is 14 in decimal number system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 1

Q.24) Identify the correct order of following different types of storage/memory components
in a computer on the basis of price per bytes of storage from most expensive to least
expensive:
(A) DDR4 RAM
(B) HDD
(C) SSD
(D) CPU Cache
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(2) (D), (A), (C), (B)

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(3) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(4) (D), (A), (B), (C)
Answer: 2

Q.25) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hurricanes and typhoons are essentially the same as tropical cyclones.
Statement II: Warm tropical oceans and moist air mass are pre-requisites for the development
of tropical cyclones
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1

Q.26) For ensuring effective administration which of the following is most difficult?
(1) Changing the knowledge of individuals and groups
(2) Changing the skill of individuals and groups
(3) Changing the attitude of individuals and groups
(4) Changing the behaviour of individuals and groups
Answer: 4

Q.27) Match List I with List II:

List I (Digital Initiative) List II (Objective)

Utilization of satellite
communication
(A) NAD (I)
technologies for
transmission of

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education e-contents
(B) SWAYAM PRABHA (II)
through National channels

All- digital library that

stores information
(C) NDL (II)
(metadata) about different
types of digital contents.

online store house of all

(D) SWAYAM (III) academic awards viz.
certificates, degrees etc.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
Answer: 2

Q.28) ‘Fire is not warm because it is produced such as water’ , is an example of which type
of fallacy?
(1) Satpratipraksha
(2) Badhit-vishaya
(3) Virudha
(4) Swaroopasidha
Answer: 2

Q.29) List I gives stages of development of values while List II their outcomes Match List I
with List II:

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List I (Stage of List II

development of values) (Outcomes)

Value collection through

A. Stage I (I)
invitation

B. Stage II (II) Inner evaluation

C. Stage III (III) Value consolidation

D. Stage IV (IV) Value clarification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
3. (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (c) – (II), (D) – (I)
Answer: 2

Q.30) Announcement of arrival and departure of trains at railway stations is:

(1) Spatial communication
(2) Organizational communication
(3) Public communication
(4) Sectional communication
Answer: 3

Q.31) Identify the correct sequence of cognitive behaviours in the taxonomy of educational
objectives:
(A) Knowledge
(B) Application

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(C) Understanding
(D) Analysis
(E) Synthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(2) (D), (E), (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A), (C), (B), (D) and (E)
(4) (D), (E), (A), (C) and (B)
Answer: 3

Q.32) From the following, identify those which are called non-probability sampling
procedures:
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Stratified sampling
(D) Purposive sampling
(E) Snowball sampling
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B), (D) and (E) only
(4) (C), (D) and (E) only
Answer: 3

Q.33) The knowledge of the relation between name and an object denoted by that name is
called:
(1) Verbal testimony
(2) Implication
(3) Inference
(4) Comparison
Answer: 4

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Q.34) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The vice-chancellor of a university is an executive head who is vested with
administrative as well as academic responsibilities.
Statement II: For a charismatic leadership attribute in a vice chancellor both transactional as
well as transformational leadership competencies are needed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 1

Q.35) What is the hallmark of reflective teaching?

(1) Clear, organized and well-structured content
(2) Personalized, interactive and high level of cognitive interchange
(3) Systematic, planned and quick question answer session
(4) Logical, coherent and example-based presentations
Answer: 1

Q.36) Given below are some metals which are released into environment from a variety of
anthropogenic sources. Identify the metals which have been of serious concern from the point
of view of pollution of water bodies
(A) Aluminum
(B) Copper
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium
(E) Lead
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (B), (C), (E) only
(2) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
(3) (C), (D), (E) only

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(4) (A), (B), (E) only

Answer: 3

Q.37) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A company-wide network, closed to public access, which uses internet-type
technology is called World Wide Web.
Statement II: MODEM is a device that enables a computer to communicate over telephone
lines.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 4

Q.38) The education imported through institutions of higher learning in India such as Sanskrit
‘Vidyapith’ is an example of
(1) Non-conventional learning programmes
(2) Value Education Programmes
(3) Oriental learning Programmes
(4) Professional education programmes
Answer: 3

Q.39) In establishing a research problem for a Ph. D. level course, in the initial stage which
of the following stages are crucial?
(A) Hypothesis making
(B) Locating a problem area from a field through survey of related literature
(C) Defining the population of research and its characteristics
(D) Selecting a pointed issue called a problem by a process of logical analysis
(E) Defining and delimiting the problem
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (B), (D) and (E) only

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(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (C), (D) and (E) only
Answer: 4

Q.40) Find out the correct sequence of the following transmissions:

(A) Narrowcasting
(B) Telegraph
(C) Broadcasting
(D) Telephone
(E) Podcasting
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
(2) (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)
(3) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
(4) (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)
Answer: 2

Q.41) Which arguments may be advanced in support of action research in education?

(1) The researcher breaks fresh ground in the field of enquiry.
(2) The knowledge is applied to extend further generalization.
(3) Some new principles are formulated for explaining
(4) The educational situation as well as the practitioner of education undergo a change for the
better.
Answer: 4

Q.42) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Keval vyatireki form of inference is that when the middle term is the
differentium of the minor term.
Statement II: Kevalanvayi form of inference is that when the middle term is both positively
and negatively related to the major term.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 3

Q.43) The critical difference between experimental and ex post facto research lies in terms
of:
(1) Selection of sample
(2) Causal connection between two variables
(3) Use of research tools
(4) Control and manipulation of independent variable
Answer: 4

Q.44) In which scale of measurement, classification, order and equality of units are ensured?
(1) Ordinal
(2) Nominal
(3) Interval
(4) Ratio
Answer: 3

Q.45) Identify the characteristics of the ‘middle term’ from the following:
(A) It must be present in the minor term
(B) It must be present in all positive instances in which the major term is present
(C) It is the logical statement which is to be proved
(D) It must be absent in all negative instances in which major term is absent
(E) It is drawn from the preceding propositions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) only

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(4) (A), (B) and (D) only

Answer: 4

Read the passage carefully and answer questions from 46 to 50.

Our Life exists by constant interchange arid replenishment. Every day, food is needed
for the body to survive. For our vital energies to thrive every day, vital nourishment is
needed. For our minds to be sharp and intelligent every day, an increase in knowledge is
needed. But a human does not live by nourishment of the mind, life energy and body
alone, but also by the nourishment that comes by the connection with our Divine source.
This deeper nourishment is needed each day for our inmost well-being. To connect to
our deeper self and receive its nourishment, our awareness needs to touch deeper than
our mind, vital energy and body. A mere mental awareness cannot touch this inner-
most space. Our efforts too can take us only up to a certain point. The true question is,
how much do we really want to connect with the divinity within us. If it is a sincere
inner urge, then at some point, we realize that there is a Presence that lives within us
and carries us forward. To recognize this Presence when it reveals itself to us, we can
begin to know its nature. It exists quietly in the background, often unnoticed by our
surface self. When we are lost in the whirls of our mind, vital life- energy and body, we
lose our connection with this ‘presence’. When we remember and sincerely seek to
connect, sooner or later, the ‘Presence’ makes itself felt.

Q.46) How can we realize the Divine Presence?

(1) By searching for the divine
(2) By recognizing its presence within us
(3) By reaching the innermost space
(4) By making sincere efforts within one’s own sell
Answer: 4

Q.47) Our inmost well-being depends upon

(1) Sharper intellect
(2) Nourishment of body and mind
(3) Acceptance of life energies
(4) Connect with supreme power
Answer: 4

Q.48) The Divine Presence in each individual can be found through

(1) One’s own realization of divinity

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(2) The whirls of our mind

(3) The surface self
(4) Knowing the nature of agitated mind
Answer: 1

Q.49) What is needed for the mind to be active?

(1) Life energy
(2) Nourishment for body
(3) More knowledge
(4) Constant replenishment of energy
Answer: 3

Q.50) The passage focusses on the

(1) Need for body replenishment
(2) Intellectual thoughts
(3) Importance of connect with the Divine Presence
(4) Vital life energies
Answer: 3

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UGC NET Paper 1 October 2022 (Morning Shift)

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five different types of cars (A-
E) produced by a company during two consecutive years 2019 and 2020. The total number of
cars produced was 4,50,000 in the years 2019 and 5,20,000 in the year 2020.
Based on the data in the table, answer the question 1-5:
Year-wise percentage distribution of production of cars

Type of car produced (in %)

Year
A B C D E

2019 15% 25% 30% 10% 20%

2020 10% 30% 25% 25% 10%

Q.1) If the percentage production of type-B cars in 2020 was the same as that of 2019, then
what would have been the number of type-B cars produced in 2020?
[1] 112500
[2] 120000
[3] 130000
[4] 135000
Answer: [3] 130000

Q.2) What is the ratio of number of type-C cars produced in 2019 to the number of type-D
cars produced in 2020?
[1] 29:27
[2] 23:22
[3] 27:26
[4] 27:23

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Answer: [3] 27:26

Q.3) What was the difference in the production of number of type-C cars between 2019 and
2020?
[1] 5000
[2] 7500
[3] 8500
[4] 2500
Answer: [1] 5000

Q.4) If the number of type-A cars manufactured in 2020 was the same as that of 2019, then
what would have been its approximate percentage share in the total production of 2020?
[1] 11%
[2] 18%
[3] 15%
[4] 9%
Answer: [2] 18%

Q.5) If 85% of type-E cars produced during 2019 and 2020 together are sold by the company,
then how many type-E cars are left unsold by the company?
[1] 21825
[2] 29100
[3] 25200
[4] 21300
Answer: [4] 21300

Q.6) Following activities are related to the conduct of experiment in social research:
[1] Control the experimental environment
[2] Pilot test, revise and test
[3] Empathy with the participants
[4] Praising the good qualities of the participant

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[5] Specify the treatment levels

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B), (C)only
[2] (B), (C), (E)only
[3] (C), (D), (E)only
[4] (A), (B), (E)only
Answer: [4] (A), (B), (E)only

Q.7) IIT Bombay X is a non-profit MOOC platform developed by IIT Bombay using the
open-source platform__________
[1] JOOMLA
[2] Sakai
[3] Drupal
[4] Open edX
Answer: [4] Open edX

Q.8) Which of the following file formats are appropriate for distributing video files across the
internet?
[1] .FLA
[2] .MPS
[3] .WMA
[4] .AIF
[5] .AVI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (B) and (C) only
[2] (A) and (E) only
[3] (D) and (E) only
[4] (C) and (D) only
Answer: [2] (A) and (E) only

Q.9) In a learner centered teaching environment teachers

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[1] Recognise that all learners are unique and utilise different teaching styles
[2] Do not provide structure and direction
[3] Make decisions about how and what learners will learn
[4] Do not facilitate learner’s decision-making process
Answer: [1] Recognise that all learners are unique and utilise different teaching styles

Q.10) Which of the following are true with regard to mass communication?
[1] Messages are prepared by non-professionals
[2] Messages are prepared by professionals
[3] Messages are rapidly disseminated
[4] Messages are supposed to be understood
[5] Media audiences are homogenous
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B), (C)only
[2] (C), (D), (E)only
[3] (B), (C), (D)only
[4] (A), (D), (E)only
Answer: [3] (B), (C), (D)only

Q.11) Match list I with list II

List I
In a square of opposition
[A] ‘A’ being given as true
[B] ‘E’ being given as true
[C] ‘T’ being given as true
[D] ‘O’ being given as true
List II
Resultant
[I] ‘O’ is undetermined
[II] ‘T’ is undetermined

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[III] ‘T’ is true

[IV] ‘T’ is false
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
[2] (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
[3] (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C), (II), (D)-(III)
[4] (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Answer: [4] (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Q.12) Given below are two statements:

Statement(I): The disadvantage of inter-personal communication is the availability of
immediate feedback.
Statement (II): The greatest advantage of mass communication is its delayed feedback.
In the light of two above [Link] the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
[1] Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct
[2] Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect
[3] Statement (I) is correct, but statement (II) is incorrect
[4] Statement (I) is incorrect, but statement (II) is correct
Answer: [2] Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect

Q.13) In communication, meanings refer to a person’s

[1] Notions about the world
[2] Internal responses to a message
[3] Subsuming messages for suppression
[4] External responses only
Answer: [2] Internal responses to a message

Q.14) Match list I with list II

ListI
Research form

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(A) Qualitative research

(B)Qualitativeresearch
(C) Triangulation
(D) Metaanalysis
List II
Description
(1) File drawer problem
(2) Convergence of findings Based multiple methods
(3) Statistical analysis
(4) Interpretive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
[2] (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
[3] (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
[4] (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Answer: (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q.15) Identify the correct arrangement of the following different types of computer networks
in the descending order of their geographic area coverage.
[1] MAN
[2] WAN
[3] LAN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B), (C)
[2] (B), (C), (A)
[3] (B), (A), (C)
[4] (C), (A), (B)
Answer: [3] (B), (A), (C)

Q.16) Match list I with list II

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List I
Child development
[A] Cliques
[B] Crowds
[C] Identity
[D] Moratorium
List II
Feature
[I] Less intimate, more loosely organized groups
[II] General Sense of oneself along with all their beliefs, emotions and attitudes.
[III] Exploration with a delay in commitment to personal and occupational choice
[IV] Relatively small, friendship-based groups
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
[2] (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
[3] (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
[4] (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Answer: [4] (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Q.17) If a survey is conducted telephonically, which among the following statements is true?
[1] It improves quality of data
[2] It improves the validity research
[3] It reduces the cost of data collection
[4] It makes participants comfortable
Answer: [3] It reduces the cost of data collection

Q.18) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: An inference which is based on the middle term being only positively related to
the major term is called Kevalanvayi.
Statement II: In Kevalanvayi anumana, the knowledge of Vyapti between the middle and
major terms is arrived at through the method of argument in absence.

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In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both statement I and statement II are true
[2] Both statement I and statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true, but statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Answer: [3] Statement I is true, but statement II is false

Q.19) As envisaged in national education policy (2020), all higher educational institutions
will aim to have a student strength of ________ by 2040.
[1] >5000
[2] >4000
[3] >3000
[4] >2500
Answer: [1] >5000

Q.20) Identify the correct sequence of average noise levels in increasing order of their
magnitude from different sources.
[A] City Street corner
[B] Conversational speech
[C] Highway
[D] Aircraft noise during take off
[E] Typical office
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (E), (A), (B), (C), (D)
[2] (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)
[3] (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
[4] (B), (E), (A), (d), (c)
Answer: [2] (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

Q.21) Given below are two statements:

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Statement (I): If the length of a psychological test is increased it improves both reliability and
validity.
Statement (II): Score of a test can be interpreted without referring to its norm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
[1] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are correct
[2] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are incorrect
[3] Statement (I ) is correct, but statement (II) is incorrect
[4] Statement (I ) is incorrect, but statement (II) is correct
Answer: [3] Statement (I) is correct, but statement (II) is incorrect

Q.22) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as assertion (A ) and the other is
labeled as reason(R)
Assertion (A): Energy produced from biomass is considered ‘carbon neutral’.
Reason (R): Biomass does not add CO2 to the atmosphere.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
[1] Both (A ) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A ) and (R ) are correct but (R ) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A ) is correct but (R ) is not correct
[4] (A ) is not correct but (R ) is correct
Answer: [3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Q.23) Source of arsenic pollution in the ground water is

[1] Industrial ettluents
[2] Deep underground formations
[3] Dyeing industries
[4] Agricultural wastes
Answer: [1] Industrial ettluents & [2] Deep underground formations

Q.24) In ancient Indian education system, learners were given training in following
occupations in the fields of

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[1] Architecture
[2] Animal husbandry
[3] Agriculture
[4] Administration
[5] Dairy farming
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (C), (E)only
[2] (B), (C), (E)only
[3] (A), (B), (C), (E)only
[4] (B), (C), (D), (E)only
Answer: [3] (A), (B), (C), (E) only

Q.25) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labeled as
reason (R)
Assertion (A): A valid deductive argument with all true premises will lead to a true
conclusion.
Reason (R): In a valid deductive argument, the conclusion follows from the premises with
absolute necessity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both (A ) and (R ) are true and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A ) and (R ) are true but (R ) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A ) is true but (R ) is false
[4] (A) is false but (R ) is true
Answer: [1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q.26) In the context of vocational education, the organization ‘NSDC’ is

[1] National skill development council
[2] National skill development corporation
[3] National skill documentation centre
[4] National sector development corporation
Answer: [2] National skill development corporation

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Q.27) A software is termed as an open-source software if

[1] The developer company is open 24×7
[2] Its source code is available to share, study and modify
[3] It can be downloaded from the internet
[4] It is available free of cost
Answer: [2] Its source code is available to share, study and modify

Q.28) Match list I with list II

List I
Medium
[A] Newspaper
[B] Radio
[C] Television
[D] Film
List II
User Vehicle
[I] URSA mini pro
[II] Satellite dishes
[III] Electro Magnetic waves
[IV] Rubber plate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
[2] (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
[3] (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
[4] (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Answer: [1] (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q.29) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): One-fourth of sixty percent of a number is equal to two-fifth of twenty percent
of another number. Then the respective ratio of the first number to the second number is 8:15.

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Statement (II): A student is studying for a test from 11:00am to 8:00pm on weekdays and
one-third of that time on Saturday. On Sunday, he takes a break and goes for a movie. The
fractional part of the entire week that the student is studying is 3/7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both Statement (I ) and statement (II) are true
[2] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are false
[3] Statement (I ) is true, but statement (II) is false
[4] Statement (I ) is false, but statement (II) is true
Answer: [3] Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is false

Q.30) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as assertion (A ) and the other is
labeled as reason (R)
Assertion (A): Sound is non eternal because it is caused.
Reason (R): The middle term does not prove the eternality of sound but it’s non-eternality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both (A ) and (R ) are true and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A ) and (R ) are true but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A ) is true but (R ) is false
[4] (A ) is false but (R ) is true
Answer: [1] Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q.31) Identify the correct sequence of information processing in communication

(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Data entry
(D) Processing
(E) Storage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B), (E), (D), (C)
[2] (B), (D), (E), (A), (C)
[3] (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)

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[4] (A), (C), (D), (E), (b)

Answer: [4] (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

Q.32) Which one of the following formal fallacies is committed in the given argument?
All snakes are reptiles.
Some snakes are poisonous creatures.
Therefore, all poisonous creatures are reptiles.
[1] Fallacy of Illicit process of major term
[2] Fallacy of Illicit process of minor term
[3] Fallacy of undistributed middle term
[4] Fallacy of four terms
Answer: [2] Fallacy of Illicit process of minor term

Q.33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Classical smog is formed when oxides of nitrogen combine with particulate
matter especially in summer season.
Statement II: Classical smog reduces atmospheric visibility to a great extent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both statement I and statement II are true
[2] Both statement I and statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true, but statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Answer: [4] Statement I is false, but statement II is true

Q.34) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as assertion (A ) and the other is
labeled as reason (R)
Assertion (A): Universities and higher education institutions are the important foundations to
the growth of any country.
Reason (R): Intellectual property right acts as a shield for invention to be misused by third
parties.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

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[1] Both ( A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A ) and ( R) are correct but (R ) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
[3] ( A) is correct but ( R) is not correct
[4] ( A) is not correct but ( R) is correct
Answer: [2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

Q.35) Given below are two statements in respect of computers:

Statement (I): A DVD-ROM is an optical storage media, and it can be written many times.
Statement (II): Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by
CPU.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are true
[2] Both statement ( I) and statement (II) are false
[3] Statement (I ) is true, but statement (II) is false
[4] Statement (I ) is false, but statement (II) is true
Answer: [2] Both statement (I) and statement (II) are false

Q.36) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): A man sells his goods at 10% profit. If he sells his goods at 15% profit, he gets
160rupes more. The cost price of his goods is 4.200rupes
Statement (II): A man spends 80% of his earnings. His earnings increased by 25% and his
expenses increased by 20%. The man’s savings thus increased by 45%.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are true
[2] Both statement (I ) and statement (II) are false
[3] Statement (I ) is true, but statement (II) is false
[4] Statement (I ) is false, but statement (II) is true
Answer: [4] Statement (I) is false, but statement (II) is true

Q.37) Koulberg’s theory of moral development comprises of following stages:

(A) Obedience orientation
(B) Intellectual disability orientation

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(C) Rewards/exchange orientation

(D) Law and order orientation
(E) Social contract orientation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B), (C), (D)only
[2] (A), (C), (D), (E)only
[3] (B), (C), (D), (E)only
[4] (A), (B), (D), (E)only
Answer: [2] (A), (C), (D), (E)only

Q.38) Which among the following is a valid criticism of experimental method in social
sciences?
[1] Impossible to conduct in social situation
[2] Artificiality of laboratory condition
[3] Unavailability good experiments in social sciences
[4] Social research problems cannot be studied experimentally
Answer: [2] Artificiality of laboratory condition

Q.39) Which among the following was proposed by Kothari commission vis-à-vis language?
[1] Use of mother tongue as a medium of instruction
[2] Use of Hindi as a medium of instruction
[3] Two-language formula
[4] Three language formula
Answer: [4] Three language formula

Q.40) In a test consisting of 150 questions carrying 1 mark each, Rishab answered 80% of the
first 75 questions correctly. What percent of the other 75 questions does he need to answer
correctly to score 60% overall?
[1] 20
[2] 40
[3] 50

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[4] 60
Answer: [2] 40

Q.41) The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9 of the principal and the number of years
is equal to the rate percent per annum. The rate percent per annum is:
[1] 3%
[2] 0.33%
[3] 3.33%
[4] 2.33%
Answer: [3] 3.33%

Q.42) The open-source platform ‘course builder’ on which NPTEL courses are seen, was
created by _____
[1] Microsoft
[2] Google
[3] Oracle
[4] Wipro
Answer: [2] Google

Q.43) Match list I with list II

List I
(File extension)
[A] mp3
[B] xls
[C] jpeg
[D] mdb
List II
(File type)
[I] Image
[II] Music
[III] Data base

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[IV] Spreadsheet
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
[2] (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
[3] (A)-(II), (B)_(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
[4] (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Answer: [2] (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Q.44) What is the correct order of global warning potential (GWP) of following atmospheric
chemical species?
[1] Chlorofluro carbon (CFC)
[2] Methane (CH4)
[3] Carbon dioxide (CO2)
[4] Nitrous oxide (N20)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] D-B-C-A
[2] C-B-D-A
[3] A-B-C-D
[4] A-C-D-B
Answer: [2] C-B-D-A

Q.45) A man who can swim 48meter/minute in still water swims 200meter against the current
and 200 meters with the current. If the difference between these two times is 10 minutes, then
what is the speed of the current?
[1] 30 meter/minute
[2] 31 meter/minute
[3] 29 meter/minute
[4] 32 meter/minute
Answer: [4] 32 meter/minute

Read the following passage and answer questions from 46 to 50.

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Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined

capitalist economy. but when we have said that about it we have said both much and
remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a
cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship
between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial
economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A
programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its
role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a
new commodity. the audience which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to
advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role
shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy-that from commodity to
producer-is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the
advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and
becomes a Producer, a Producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops
being an audience and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call
“viewing television”. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we
must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and
pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in
the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or
consumption. Television appears to be free, however, it may be actually paid for.
Payment has no direct relationship to consumption people can consume as much as they
wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

Q.46) What are the ramifications of television as a commodity in financial economy?

[1] Making huge profits
[2] Importance to distribution channels
[3] Audience for advertisers
[4] Enculturisation of audience
Answer: [3] Audience for advertisers

Q.47) When we consider television as a product, then it operates in a/an

[1] Deterministic cultural system
[2] Circulatory commercial system
[3] Audience power system
[4] Distributive pleasure system
Answer: [2] Circulatory commercial system

Q.48) How viewing television in a cultural economy affects the audience?

[1] Audience assumes a new role

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[2] They become a new commodity

[3] They cannot differentiate between the financial economy and cultural economy
[4] Audience restricts the circulation of meanings and pleasures
Answer: [1] Audience assumes a new role

Q.49) What is unique about television audience in a cultural economy?

[1] They are non-stop producers of meanings
[2] They cannot fathom the finer nuances of financial economy
[3] They do not pay for content consumption
[4] They can consume as much sans affordability
Answer: [1] They are non-stop producers of meanings & [4] They can consume as much sans
affordability

Q.50) In distribution television becomes

[1] Cultural commodity
[2] Producer of a new commodity
[3] Purveyor of textuality
[4] A source of theorisation
Answer: [2] Producer of a new commodity

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UGC NET Paper 1 October 2022 (Evening Shift)

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of production of bicycles of two
different models (L and M) by the six companies A-F, ratio of production of model L to that
of M, and the percent (%) profit earned on these two models. Production cost of the six
companies together is Rs 64 Crore.

Company Wise Bicycle Production and Profit

Production Ratio % Profit

% Distribution of
Company
Production of Bicycles
L M L M

A 20% 13 7 25% 32%

B 14% 9 5 28% 30%

C 22% 6 5 20% 24%

D 13% 6 7 35% 25%

E 10% 2 3 24% 21%

F 21% 11 10 30% 20%

Q.1) Profit earned by Companies B and C together on Model M (in Rs crore) is

[1] 0.2496
[2] 0.2488
[3] 0.2466
[4] 0.2844
Answer: [1] 0.2496

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Q.2) The difference between the profit earned by Company C on model L and by Company E
on model M (in Rs crore) is
[1] 0.7296
[2] 7.296
[3] 0.3648
[4] 0.07296
Answer: [4] 0.07296

Q.3) Profit earned by Company A on model L (in Rs crore) is

[1] 0.244
[2] 0.224
[3] 0.208
[4] 0.248
Answer: [3] 0.208

Q.4) The ratio of the cost of production of model L by Company D to that of model M by
Company F is
[1] 4:5
[2] 3:5
[3] 5:7
[4] 1:2
Answer: [3] 5:7

Q.5) The ratio of the profit earned on model L by Company B to that of model M by
Company D is
[1] 36:25
[2] 6:5
[3] 7:8
[4] 123:97
Answer: [1] 36:25

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Q.6) The argument, ‘Sound is eternal, because it is produced’, is fallacious because:

[1] Middle term is contradicted by another pramana (means of knowledge).
[2] The middle term is too narrow.
[3] Middle term itself disproves the original proposition and proves its contradictory.
[4] The minor term is the locus of the middle term.
Answer: [3] Middle term itself disproves the original proposition and proves its
contradictory.

Q.7) Hardness of water is caused by the presence of

[1] Solid particles in the water
[2] Pathogens in the water
[3] Toxic metals in the water
[4] Cations in the water
Answer: [4] Cations in the water

Q.8) In communication, metaphors are considered ________________ in nature.

[1] Precise
[2] Imprecise
[3] non-symbolic
[4] non-reflective
Answer: [2] Imprecise

Q.9) An example of a cyber exacerbated crime is

[1] Cyber Vandalism
[2] Cyber piracy
[3] Cyber stalking
[4] Cyber trespass
Answer: [3] Cyber stalking

Q.10) Given below are two statements

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Statement I: To obvert a proposition, we change its quality and replace the predicate term
with its complement.
Statement II: Obversion is valid for any standard form categorical proposition.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
[4] Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Answer: [1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.11) Reducing the intensity of noise by a factor of 10 will mean a reduction in noise level
by
[1] 10 dB
[2] 20 dB
[3] 3 dB
[4] 6 dB
Answer: [1] 10 dB

Q.12) The simple interest on a sum of money is 4/9 of the principal. What will be the annual
rate of interest and time (in years), if both of these are numerically equal?
[1] 6% and 6 Years
[2] 6.8% and 6.8 Years
[3] 6 ½ % and 61/2 Years
[4] 6 2/3 % and 6 2/3 Years
Answer: [4] 6 2/3 % and 6 2/3 Years

Q.13) Poor analysis in historical research is due to

A. Impersonal Interpretation
B. Emphasis on objective assessment
C. Over-generation
D. Over-simplification

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E. Non-identification of social context

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
[1] A, B and C only
[2] B, C and D only
[3] C, D and E only
[4] A, B and E only
Answer: [3] C, D and E only

Q.14) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Swayam Prabha consists of a group of 34 DTH channels using GSAT-15
satellites on 24×7 basis.
Statement II: The concept note for National Education Policy prepared by MHRD in 2014
identified as many as 53 themes.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
[4] Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Answer: [3] Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.15) Match List I and List II

List I
Type of Communication
A. Phatic
B. Feedback
C. Meta Message
D. Lateral communication
List II
Description
I. Decoder becomes encoder

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II. Communication about communication

III. Between equals
IV. To great
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
[2] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer: [4] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q.16) Which of the following models for curriculum evaluation considers three primary
sources of curriculum namely students, society and subject matter reflecting the philosophy
of education and psychology of learning.
[1] CIPP model
[2] Stake’s model
[3] Tyler’s model
[4] Scriven’s model
Answer: [3] Tyler’s model

Q.17) Three numbers are in the ratio of [Link] and their sum is 663. Find the three numbers:
[1] 107,250,306
[2] 102,250,311
[3] 102,255,306
[4] 112,250,301
Answer: [3] 102,255,306

Q.18) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Learning Management System (LMS) is used to provide a virtual environment
for teachers and students.
Statement II: LMS can be used for blended learning as well as for online learning.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below

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[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: [1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q.19) The collection of linked information residing on computers which is accessible through
internet is called
[1] HTTP
[2] HTML
[3] WWW
[4] URL
Answer: [3] WWW

Q.20) Which of the following Pramanas (means of knowledge) is differentiated into Svartha
(for oneself) and Parartha (for others) types?
[1] Pratyaksa (perception)
[2] Anumana (inference)
[3] Upamana (comparison)
[4] Sabda {verbal testimony}
Answer: [2] Anumana (inference)

Q.21) Match List I and List II

List I
Tests Reliability
A. Test and re-test
B. Inter-rater
C. Parallel forms
D. Split-half
List II
Description
I. Delivering a questionnaire in two parts, separately, to a sample group.

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II. Providing different versions of a questionnare which are equivalent for respondents.
III. The same test is conducted by different goals
IV. The same test, over a period of time, is repeated.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[2] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-1
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: [4] A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q.22) There are 15 students in a class. The average age of the students and the teacher of the
class is 15 years. The average age of the teacher and the students is 2 years more than that of
students. What is the age of the class teacher?
[1] 48
[2] 50
[3] 43
[4] 45
Answer: [4] 45

Q.23) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Personal conversation is more effective than a broadcast speech.
Statement II: The factor of personalisation makes the radio a more effective means of
communication than a newspaper.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are false
[3] Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
[4] Statement is false, but Statement II is true
Answer: [1] Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.24) Which of the following are traditional approaches to communication?

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A. Machine-to-machine
B. Machine-to-man
C. Rhetorical
D. Semiotic
E. Phenomenological
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
[1] A, B and C only
[2] A, D and E only
[3] B, C and D only
[4] C, D and E only
Answer: [4] C, D and E only

Q.25) Find the wrong term in the series given below.

5, 10, 17, 24, 37, 50, 65
[1] 37
[2] 17
[3] 24
[4] 50
Answer: [3] 24

Q.26) Which of the following hardware components will lose data when the power to a
computer is switched off?
A. Processor Registers
B. Cache Memory
C. SSD
D. RAM
E. ROM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] B and D only
[2] A, C and D only

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[3] A, B and C only

[4] A, B and D only
Answer: [4] A, B and D only

Q.27) Who among the following established the central Hindu Girl’s School at Banaras with
the object of imparting western education to girls?
[1] Annie Besant
[2] Sarojini Naidu
[3] Raja Ram Mohan Roy
[4] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Answer: [1] Annie Besant

Q.28) Which of the following propositions is obverse of and logically equivalent to “Some
men are honest”?
[1] Some men are dishonest
[2] Some men are not dishonest
[3] No men are dishonest
[4] Some dishonest people are not men
Answer: [2] Some men are not dishonest

Q.29) Which of the following types of assessments is done for giving grades/marks/credits to
the students?
[1] Formative
[2] Integrative
[3] Diagnostic
[4] Summative
Answer: [4] Summative

Q.30) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Radio Frequency
Identification (RFID) technology?
A. RFID refers to a wireless system comprising two components: tags and readers.

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B. The reader is a device that has one or more antennas that emit radio waves and receive
signals back from the RFID tag.
C. Passive RFID tags are powered by the reader and do not have a battery.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A, B and C
[2] B and C only
[3] A and C only
[4] A and B only
Answer: [1] A, B and C

Q.31) Match List I and List II

List I
Educational Initiatives
A. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
B. Global Initiative on Academic Network
C. Uchchtar Avishkar Yojana
D. Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy
List II
Description
I. Promote innovation of a higher order that directly impacts the needs of the industries
II. Invite international faculities to give short term programmes to Indian students.
III. Promote research in frontier areas of knowledge
IV. Improvement of access, equity and quality in higher education
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[2] A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
[3] A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
[4] A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer: [3] A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q.32) Given below are two statements

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Statement I: Photovoltaic cells are often made up of crystal silicon

Statement II: Photovoltaic cells are also made up of inexpensive amorphous silicon, which is
like ordinary glass and has no crystal properties.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
[1] Both Statement and Statement il are correct
[2] Both Statement and Statement Il are incorrect
[3] Statement is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement is incorrect but Statement il is correct
Answer: [1] Both Statement and Statement il are correct

Q.33) Which logical informal fallacy is committed in the following argument, “No one has
proved that global warming is actually occurring, so there is no reason believe that it is
actually occurring”?
[1] Begging the question
[2] Equivocation
[3] Appeal to ignorance
[4] Hasty generalisation
Answer: [3] Appeal to ignorance

Q.34) Which of the following represents learning as a six-level hierarchy in a cognitive

domain?
[1] Bloom’s Taxonomy
[2] SOLO Taxonomy
[3] Brigg’s Taxonomy
[4] Gagne’s Taxonomy
Answer: [1] Bloom’s Taxonomy

Q.35) A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods on cost price but uses 750gms instead of 1 kg.
What is his gain in percentage?
[1] 33
[2] 35.3

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[3] 30.3
[4] 33.33
Answer: [4] 33.33

Q.36) ____________ are text files with small pieces of data and are used to identify specific
users and improve the web browsing experience.
[1] Cookies
[2] Bookmarks
[3] Blogs
[4] Wikis
Answer: [1] Cookies

Q.37) Hansa Mehta Committee was appointed by the National Council for Women’s
Education in 1962 with the purpose to:
[1] Carry out inspection of schools in rural areas
[2] Examine the differentiation of curriculum for boys and girls at all stages of education.
[3] Establish science laboratories in universities.
[4] Formulate policy for use of educational satellites for rural areas.
Answer: [2] Examine the differentiation of curriculum for boys and girls at all stages of
education.

Q.38) Which of the following must be ensured by a 21st Century Higher Education teacher?
A. Preparing students towards Higher Order Thinking Skills
B. Placement of students
C. Using digital resources
D. Interaction with bright students only
E. Inter-disciplinary approach
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A, C and E only
[2] A, C and D only
[3] A, C, D and E only

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[4] A, B, C and D only

Answer: [1] A, C and E only

Q.39) In research, middle range theories operate in a

[1] Wider domain
[2] Limited domain
[3] Flexible domain
[4] Representative domain
Answer: [2] Limited domain

Q.40) Auto-ethnography is an approach that analyses

[1] Personal experiences
[2] Community issues
[3] Local tribes
[4] Cultural distance
Answer: [1] Personal experiences

Q.41) Which of the following pollutant causes aggravation of respiratory diseases, and
atmospheric discolouration?
[1] Carbon monoxide
[2] Lead
[3] Nitrogen dioxide
[4] Ozone
Answer: [3] Nitrogen dioxide

Q.42) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason
Assertion A: Biomass is considered as carbon neutral.
Reason R: The amount of carbon they emit is equal to the amount of carbon they have
consumed during their lifetime.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below

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[1] Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

[2] Both A and Rare correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
[3] A is correct, but R is not correct
[4] A is not correct, but R is correct
Answer: [1] Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

Q.43) The government of India in November 1948 appointed a University Education

Commission under the Chairmanship of:
[1] D.S. Kothari
[2] Ms. Sucheta Kriplani
[3] Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
[4] Mrs. Annie Besant
Answer: [3] Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

Q.44) Homogeneity of opinion among groups of people is mostly caused by

[1] Mass communication
[2] Intra-personal communication
[3] Inter-personal communication
[4] Abstraction in communication
Answer: [3] Inter-personal communication

Q.45) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Focus group discussion is part of formative research.
Statement II: Formative research can be both qualitative and quantitative.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
[1] Both Statement and Statement il are true
[2] Both Statement and Statement il are false
[3] Statement is true, but Statement II is false
[4] Statement is false but Statement il is true
Answer: [1] Both Statement and Statement il are true

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Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The ‘new middle class’ in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in
professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of
consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous
consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity
chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation,
expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The
highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to high level managers who
actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the
elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The
articulation of the market as the centre of India’s economic growth and development is the
overarching anchor for the various discourses of the policy-making and implementation. The
middle class in India make up a segment of India’s elite. They participate in the consumption
culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban
hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles.
Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

Q.46) The participation in global commodity chains has given the middle class its own
[1] Identity
[2] Market
[3] Economic Status
[4] Upward mobility
Answer: [1] Identity

Q.47) The new middle class in India is hugely active in:

[1] Adopting innovative lifestyles
[2] Acquiring new technical competence
[3] Redefining the business strategies
[4] Conspicuous consumption
Answer: [4] Conspicuous consumption

Q.48) The main theme of the passage is:

[1] Market-driven middle class identity
[2] Need for high level consumption
[3] Negative effect of modernized consumption
[4] Emergence of knowledge enterprises

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Answer: [1] Market-driven middle class identity

Q.49) The “new middle class” is associated with

[1] The production of global brands
[2] Market expansion
[3] Global capitalism
[4] White collar supremacy
Answer: [1] The production of global brands

Q.50) The elite class has a vision of the nation-state anchored by

[1] Policy discourses
[2] Marker miracle
[3] Limitless consumption
[4] Corporate narratives
Answer: [2] Marker miracle

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UGC NET Paper 1 March 2023 (Morning Shift)

The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work:

Number of People Travelling to Work by

Cycle Car Bus Walk

72 18 35 55

Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were found to be over 65 years of age

(b) 1 in 3 of the Cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

Based on the above, answer the question:

Q.1) How many people cycled to work on a rainy day?

1)24
2)48

3)72
4) 64
Answer: 2)48

Q.2) How many respondents indicated that they cycled to work and were over 65 years of age?

1) 12
2) 9

3) 8

4) 7
Answer: 2) 9

Q.3) Which of the following statements is true?

1) Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.
2) Slightly more than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

3) Slightly more people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

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4) Slightly fewer people indicated that they travelled to work by car than by bus.
Answer: 1) Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by
car.

Q.4) The sum of which modes of travelling to work represents half the number of responses represented in
the survey?

A) Cycle and Car

B) Bus and Car

C) Walk and Bus

D) Walk and Cycle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A and B Only

2) A and C Only

3) B and C Only
4) B and D Only
Answer: 2) A and C Only

Q.5) How many more people indicated that they cycled to work compared with those who travelled by
either bus or car ?

1) 72
2) 35
3) 18
4) 19
Answer: 4) 19

Q.6) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Learner centerd approach is centerd on teacher needs.

Statement II: Learner centerd approach is centerd on cooperative determination of subject matter.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Answer: 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q.7) Which of the following is a technique to provide right kind of support in right amount at right time to
increase child’s competence?

1) Scaffolding
2) Assistance

3) Accommodation

4) Schemas
Answer: 1) Scaffolding

Q.8) SWAYAM PRABHA is an education learning platform initiated by DTH channels.

1) Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)

2) University Grants Commission (UGC)

3) Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)

4) All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)

Answer: 1) Ministry of Human Resource and Development (Now Ministry of Education)

Q.9) A learner combines her/his previous schemas or modifies them as per new experiences. The process
of combining/modifying existing schemas and to arrive at new schemas is known as

1) Accommodation
2) Assimilation
3) Adaptation

4) Equilibration
Answer: 1) Accommodation

Q.10) Which of the following curriculum development models come under Technical-Scientific Model?

1) Open Classroom Model

2) Taba’s Model

3) Weinstein and Fantini Model

4) Roger’s Model of Interpersonal Relations
Answer: 2) Taba’s Model

Q.11) Survey research is one of the key methods in

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1) Physics

2) History
3) Sociology

4) Hermeneutics
Answer: 3) Sociology

Q.12) Methods of social research are directly linked to different visions of

1) Social reality

2) Laboratory experiments
3) Simulations

4) Virtual reality
Answer: 1) Social reality

Q.13) Grand theories of social sciences operate at a

1) Lower level

2) Simplistic level
3) Categorical level

4) Higher level of abstraction

Answer: 4) Higher level of abstraction

Q.14) Which of the following are considered major types of qualitative research questions?

A) Non-purposive

B) Causes and consequences

C) Predictive

D) Evaluative

E) Descriptive

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) A, B and C only

2) A, C and D only
3) A, D and E only

4) B, C, D and E only
Answer: 4) B, C, D and E only

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Q.15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Time and cost are not relevant in determining the sample size

Statement II: Unit non-response and item non-response do not matter in deciding the sampling error.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q.16) The science of studying the feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is described as

1) Feedback science
2) Experience study
3) Message Hermeneutics

4) Cybernetics
Answer: 4) Cybernetics

Q.17) De Saussure labelled language as a

1) Technical code

2) Profusion of signs
3) Verbalism
4) Macro generaliser
Answer: 2) Profusion of signs

Q.18) Which of the following are the criteria for public service communication?

A) Personal bias

B) Ideological slant

C) Accuracy

D) Comprehensiveness

E) Separation of opinion and facts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C Only

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2) B, C, D Only

3) C, D, E Only
4) A, D, E Only
Answer: 3) C, D, E Only

Q.19) According to some experts like Marshal McLuhan, the following are considered hot media:

A) Telephone

B) Television

C) Radio

D) Cinema

E) Print

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C Only

2) B, C, D Only
3) C, D, E Only
4) A, C, E Only
Answer: 3) C, D, E Only

Q.20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Internet itself is a network and also a model for Cyberspace relations.

Statement II: Global interactive technologies, aided by the Internet, heralded the arrival of the ‘second
media age’ by the end of the twentieth century.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.21) The monthly income of a person in the year 2020 was ₹ 65,000 and his monthly expenditure was ₹
45,000. In the year 2021 his monthly income increased by 15% and his monthly expenditure by 7% What
is the percentage increase in his savings?
1) 33%

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2) 31%

3) 35%
4) 28%
Answer: 1) 33%

Q.22) 5/9 of a number is equal to twenty five percent of a second number. Second number is equal to 1/4
of a third number. The value of the third number is 2960. How much is the 30% of the first number?

1) 9.99
2) 99.9

3) 89.9

4) 88.9
Answer: 2) 99.9

Q.23) A man invested 1 / 3 of his retirement gratuity at 6% simple interest: 1/4 of his gratuity at 7% and
the rest at 8% simple interest. If his annual return on these investments is 7012)5, find the total amount of
gratuity invested by the man.

1) 89,000

2) 99,000
3) 95,000

4) 1,05,000
Answer: 2) 99,000

Q.24) If in a certain, Coding language, ‘Cheater’ is coded as ‘ejgcvgt’, then how ‘Preacher’ will be coded
in that language?
1) ‘rtgcejgt’

2) ‘qsfbdifs’
3) ‘rtgbdjgt’

4) ‘stgbdjgt’
Answer: 1) ‘rtgcejgt’

Q.25) What number should replace question mark (?) in the series given below? 7, 10, 19, 46, 127?

1) 202
2) 192

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3) 173

4) 370
Answer: 4) 370

Q.26) Which fallacy is committed in the following argument?

“When I called you, you were neither in your class nor in the laboratory. Why are you avoiding me?”

1) Circular argument

2) ‘Red herring’
3) Complex question

4) Slippery slope
Answer: 2) ‘Red herring’

Q.27) Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

A) Some animals are birds.

B) Some animals are not non-birds.

C) Some non-birds are not non-animals.

D) Some birds are animals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and C Only 2) B, C, D Only

3) A, B and D Only 4) A, B and C Only

Answer: 3) A, B and D Only

Q.28) If the statement “no animals are fishes” is given as false, then which of the following statements can
be immediately inferred to be true?

A) All fishes are animals.

B) Some animals are not fishes.

C) All animals are fishes.

D) Some animals are fishes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and D Only 2) A, C and D Only 3) C and D Only 4) D Only

Answer: 4) D Only

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Q.29) Which of the following propositions are contrary to each other?

A) All fishes are mammals.

B) Some fishes are mammals.

C) No fishes are mammals.

D) Some fishes are not mammals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and D Only 2) A and C Only

3) A and D Only 4) B and C Only
Answer: 2) A and C Only

Q.30) According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School of Logic) Which of the following argument involves
the fallacy of Anupsamhari (non-exclusive middle term)?

1) The hill has smoke because it has fire

2) Sound is eternal because it is audible

3) All things are non-eternal because they are knowable

4) Sound is eternal because it is produced
Answer: 3) All things are non-eternal because they are knowable

Consider the following MS-Excel spreadsheet in which the population column represents the city’s
population in millions of people:

A B C D E F

1) City State Population Haryana MP UP

2) Patiala Punjab 8.34

3) Sonipat Haryana 3.86

4) Noida UP 2.71

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5. Indore MP 2.16

6. Mandi HP 1.49

7. Sagar MP 1.38

8. Panipat Haryana 1.39

9. Gwalior MP 1.24

Q.31) Suppose the formula – IF ($B2=D$1, SA2,0) is entered into cell D2 and then the cell D2 is copied
and pasted to D2:F9. How many cells in the range D2:F9 contains 0?

1) 0
2) 6

3)12
4) 18
Answer: 4) 18

Q.32) Which of the following statements about email security best describes email encryption?

1) This is a self-replicating program that can spread by email.

2) This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

3) This consists of sending numerous duplicate mails to the same email address.
4) The email header is changed so that the message appears to have come from someone else
Answer: 2) This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

Q.33) Given below are two statements about music files:

Statement I: A music clip stored in MP3 format would take up more memory than the same clip stored in
WAV format.

Statement II: Music files stored in MP3 format are of better quality than files stored in WAV format

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q.34) Which of the following statements are accurate?

A) Web 2)0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users.

B) Web 2)0 brings people closer together with information using machines.

C) Web 3)0 brings machines closer together using information.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A Only
2) B Only
3) B and C Only

4) D only
Answer: 3) B and C Only

Q.35) Match List I with List II

LIST I (Output Device) LIST II (Description)

Flat panel display that uses the light

A) Inkjet printer I. modulating properties of liquid
crystals.

Flat panel display that uses an array

B) LCD screen II.
of light-emitting diodes as pixels.

Droplets of ink are propelled onto

C) LED screen III.
paper.

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Electrically charged powdered ink is

D) Laser Printer IV.
transferred onto paper.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A- IV, B-I, C-II. D-III
2) A- IV, B-II, C-I. D-III

3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer: 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Q.36) Atmospheric haze is mainly caused by?

1) Ultra fine size particulate matters

2) Oxides of nitrogen and Sulphur

3) Ozone
4) Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide
Answer: 1) Ultra fine size particulate matters

Q.37) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nano scale metallic and bimetallic particles can efficiently remove common water pollutants
such as Poly Chloro Benzenes (PCB), Organo chlorine pesticides and halogenated organic solvents.

Statement II: Nano scale metallic and bimetallic particles cannot reduce heavy metals such as nickel,
arsenic, mercury etc.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.38) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.

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Assertion A: The change in sea level at any coastal location depends on the sum of global, regional and
local factors.

Reason R: Therefore, the global mean sea level rise translates into an uniform rise in sea level around the
world

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer: 3) A is correct but R is not correct

Q.39) Oxygen demanding wastes

1) Decrease the oxygen level in water.

2) Increase the oxygen level in water.

3) Do not change the oxygen level in water.

4) Increase the temperature of water.
Answer: 1) Decrease the oxygen level in water.

Q.40) Match List I with List II

I (Sustainable
Development Goal (SDG) LIST II (Goal)
number)

Sustainable cities and

A) SDG 2 I.
communities

B) SDG 3 II. Zero hunger

C) SDG 6 III. Good health and well being

D) SDG 11 IV. Clean water and Sanitation

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

3) A-II, B-III, C-IV. D-I
4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer: 3) A-II, B-III, C-IV. D-I

Q.41) What is the full form of ‘SPARC’?

1) Standard for Profession of Assessment and Research Communication

2) Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration

3) School for Promotion of Assessment and Right to commitment

4) Social Protection of Advancement and Relationship Complex
Answer: 2) Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration

Q.42) According to NEP 2020, India will be promoted as a global study destination providing premium
education at affordable costs thereby helping to restore its role as

1) Economic power

2) Knowledge Economy
3) Vishwa Guru
4) Shiksha Guru
Answer: 3) Vishwa Guru

Q.43) What is the full form of ‘NCIVE’?

1) Non-Governmental course for the Initiation of Vocational Enhancement

2) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education

3) Non-Governmental Council for the Integration of Veterinary Education

4) National Commission for the Information of Veterinary Education

Answer: 2) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education

Q.44) The Government of India created Department of Science and Technology in the year:
1) 1990
2) 1985
3) 1978

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4) 1971
Answer: 4) 1971

Q.45) The ancient system of education in India included education of which of the following ancient texts?

A) Vedas

B) Brahmanas

C) Upanishads

D) Dharma sutras

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) A and C Only

2) B and D Only

3) A, C and D Only
4) A, B, C and D
Answer: 4) A, B, C and D

Read the following passage and answer the question given below:

Around the age of 2 children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will
announce, “I wanna peanut butter sandwich”. As children develop a theory of mind, they also can
understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well
with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For
example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But
aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who
topples their tower, even accidently. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider
the intentions of others.
With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people
have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective
This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able
to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral
development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in
general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers
and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder

Q.46) Children of Which of the following ages would generally have the best perspective taking ability?
1)3 years

2) 8 years

3) 13 years
4) 18 years
Answer: 4) 18 years

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Q.47) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aggressive children can assess intention of others with ease

Statement II: Different persons may have different viewpoints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q.48) Understanding how others feel is important in

A) Developing empathy

B) Reducing prejudice

C) Conflict resolution

D) Encouraging Selfishness

E) Enhancing cooperation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C and D Only
2) A, B, C and E Only

3) B, C, D and E Only
4) A, B, D and E Only
Answer: 2) A, B, C and E Only

Q.49) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.

Assertion A: Older pre-schoolers have better chances of getting along well with their peers as compared to
young pre-schoolers.

Reason R: Older pre-schoolers generally have a better understanding of the intentions of others.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is not correct.

4) A is not correct but R is correct.

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Answer: 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Q.50) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A 2 years old child is likely to have a better understanding of his own intentions than those of
others.

Statement II: It is always helpful to coach a child in perspective-taking if the child has the habit of
mistreating others because of some behavioural disorder.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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UGC NET Paper 1 March 2023 (Evening Shift)

The following Table – 1 and Table – 2
Show the breakup of 4170 vacant posts in six Banks A-F, and the percentage (%) breakup of
the requirement of personnel in six different cadres in a Bank, namely, IT officers (ITO),
Agricultural Field Officers (AFO), Law Officers (LO), Finance Executives (FE), Technical
Officers (TO) and Probationary Officers (PO), respectively. Assume that these percentages
are the same for all the six Banks. Based on the data in the tables, answer the questions.
Tables 1: Bank-wise Vacant Posts

Bank Bank Number of Vacant Posts

A 800

B 940

C 600

D 820

E 450

F 560

Tables 2:

Cadre in a Bank Breakup (%)

ITO 11%

AFO 35%

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LO 10%

FE 26%

TO 8%

PO 10

Q.1) Banks A and C recruited ITOS as per given requirement. After few days, some of the
newly employed ITOS left Bank A and joined Bank C1. The number of new recruits of ITOS
in Bank A and Bank C have now become equal. The percentage of new recruits who left
Bank A is
1) 12.5%
2) 22.5%
3) 39%
4) 78%
Answer: 1) 12.5%

Q.2) By what percent is the number of recruitments of LOS more/ less in C, E and F taken
together than in A, B and D taken together?
1) More By 37.11%
2) Less By 33.22%
3) More By 33.22%
4) Less By 37.11%
Answer: 4) Less By 37.11%

Q.3) The ratio of recruitment of AFOS in C and E taken together with that of D and F taken
together is
1) 46:35
2) 233:174

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3) 174:233
4) 35:46
Answer: 4) 35:46

Q.4) Banks D and F hired 15% more POS than their requirement. After one year, the total
strength of the staff in both D and F was brought down to the original strength through
retrenchment of some employees. By what percent is the retrenchment less/more in Bank D
than in Bank F?
1) 46.43% more in Bank D
2) 46.43% less in Bank D
3) 43.46% less in Bank D
4) 43.46% more in Bank D
Answer: 1) 46.43% more in Bank D

Q.5) In Bank E, how many more TOS should be employed than the required number so that
the ratio of number of TOs to that of number of FEs becomes 2:3?
1) 42
2) 34
3) 23
4) 39
Answer: 1) 42

Q.6) Which of the following statements best describes Brainstorming method of teaching?
1) Production of large number of ideas
2) Small step presentation with feedback provided
3) Content delivery in a lucid language
4) Theme based interaction among participants
Answer: 1) Production of large number of ideas

Q.7) Which of the following are the main characteristics of learner centered approach?
A) It is based on rigid curriculum.

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B) It is centered on cooperative determination of subject matter.

C) It is mainly centered on teacher needs.
D) It lays emphasis on variability of exposure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B and D only
2) A and Conly
3) B and D only
4) B and C only
Answer: 3) B and D only

Q.8) The channels of SWYAM PRABHA are uplinked from BISAG,

1) Aurangabad
2) Hyderabad
3) Gandhinagar
4) Bangalore
Answer: 3) Gandhinagar

Q.9) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: TPACK (Technological Pedagogical Content Knowledge) framework has been
developed by Mishra and Kochler in 2006.
Statement II: TPACK framework comprises of total six components.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.10) Which of the following statements best describes “Summative Evaluation’ in

evaluation procedures?

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1) The teacher clarifies the doubts of the students in the class itself
2) A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course work.
3) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides feedback.
4) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session during
feedback.
Answer: 2) A teacher awards grades to the students after having transacted the course work.

Q.12) When the consistency of data collected is measured at different points of time, it is
identified as.
1) Inter- rater reliability
2) Test- retest reliability
3) Split half reliability
4) Internal reliability
Answer: 2) Test- retest reliability

Q.13) Change of behaviour in people after they come to know they are participating in a
research project to produce results that do not have validity is known as
1) Blind effect
2) Evaluation effect
3) Hawthorne effect
4) Demand effect
Answer: 3) Hawthorne effect

Q.14) Some of the threats to internal validity in research are:

A) Quasi experimental design
B) Pre-Testing
C) Attrition
D) History
E) Maturation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below semi colon:
1) A, B and C Only

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2) B, C and D only
3) B, D and E only
4) C, D and E only
Answer: 4) C, D and E only

Q.15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Focus group discussions, the moderator is supposed to provide a liberal
climate for participants to open up.
Statement II: Participants of focus group discussions should rant individual experiences for
comparison.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.16) In communication, denotation is the level of

1) Belief
2) Contrast
3) Description
4) Dissent
Answer: 3) Description

Q.17) Symbols provide meaning when used in a

1) Contrasting style
2) Random order
3) Non-specific context
4) Specific cultural context
Answer: 4) Specific cultural context

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Q.18) A hot medium is characterised by

A) Non mechanical components
B) Low Audience participation
C) It envelopes only one sense
D) Large amounts of information supplies
E) High audience participation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B and C only
2) B, C and D only
3) C, D and E only
4) A, D and E only
Answer: 2) B, C and D only

Q.19) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the initial stages, mass communication was considered as a study of
propaganda
Statement II: Now it has its linguistic component in terms of signs, codes and language
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mass communication supplies an inventory of public messages and allows for
the monitoring of social values.
Statement II: In large scale social settings, mass media will enable integration of social
institutions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.21) An amount of ₹8500 becomes ₹ 9500 in 3 years time at some simple rate of interest.
How much the amount of ₹10,200 will become in 5 years at the same rate of simple interest?
1)11800
2) 12000
3) 12200
4)12500
Answer: 3) 12200

Q.22) A man looks at the photograph of a person X and says “She is the daughter of the
husband of only daughter of father of my brother-in-law (Wife’s brother)”. How is the person
X related to the man?
1) Daughter
2) Sister
3) Wife
4) Mother
Answer: 1) Daughter

Q.23) A person starts from point A and walks 30 meters in the North direction and then 20
meters towards West and reaches a point B) Thereafter, he takes a southward turn and walks
10 meters to point C) After that, he turns eastward and covers 15 meters to reach point D)
Finally, turning to his right he walks 20 meters, Find the distance from his starting point to
the end point.
1) 4 meters
2) 5 meters
3) 8 meters
4) 10 meters
Answer: 2) 5 meters

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Q.24) What number should replace question Mark(?1) in the series given below.
55, 47, 74, 10, 135, -81, 262?
1)774
2) -250
3) 343
4) -343
Answer: 2) -250

Q.25) In a certain code language, the word TECHNOLOGY is written as ‘ETHCONOLYG’.

How will the word GENERATION be written in that language?
1) EGENARITNO
2) EGNERATINO
3) EGENARTINO
4) EGENARITON
Answer: 1) EGENARITNO

Q.26) “Critics of Freudian theory should get themselves psychoanalyzed because opposition
to the theory is itself caused by unconscious resistance arising from the Dedipal complex.
Which according to Freud distorts one’s thinking.” Which logical fallacy is committed in the
above argument?
1) Appeal to authority
2) Slippery slope
3) Begging the Question
4) Hasty generalization
Answer: 3) Begging the Question

Q.27) Which one of the following propositions is logically equivalent to the proposition-
“Some attorneys are logicians”?
1) Some logicians are not attorneys.
2) Some attorneys are non- logicians.
3) Some logicians are attorneys.

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4) Some non-logicians are not non-attorneys.

Answer: 3) Some logicians are attorneys.

Q.28) If the proposition ‘No frogs are amphibians’ is given as false then which of the
following propositions can be immediately inferred to be true?
1) Some non- amphibians are not non frogs.
2) Some frogs are amphibians.
3) All frogs are amphibians.
4) Some frogs are not amphibians.
Answer: 2) Some frogs are amphibians.

Q.29) Which of the following propositions are so related that if one of them is true, the other
has to be false and vice-versa?
A) All camels are herbivorous.
B) Some camels are herbivorous.
C) Some camels are not herbivorous.
D) No Camels are herbivorous.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A and D only
2) B and D only
3) B and C only
4) A and B only
Answer: 2) B and D only

Q.30) Which of the following arguments is an example of Svarupāsiddha fallacy?

1) The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake
2) Sound is eternal because it is produced
3) Sound is a quality because it is visible
4) Fire is cold because it is a substance
Answer: 1) The sky- lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake

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Q.31) Which of the following best describes Web 3.0?

1) User generated online business
2) Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language processing
3) Collaboration and social media
4) Refers to static text-based information websites.
Answer: 2) Based on the “intelligent” web where applications use natural language
processing

Q.32) In the context of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT), which of the
following statements is/are true?
A) In an email system, Bcc: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in
the Bcc: field from the other recipients.
B) Phishing is a malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed avoiding
detection.
C) Spamming is an attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by
masquerading as a trustworthy entity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B and C only
2) B only
3) A only
4) A and C only
Answer: 3) A only

Q.33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mainframe computers have smaller internal memories than desktop computers.
Statement II: Spreadsheets and word processors are examples of application software
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 4) Statement | is false but Statement II is true

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Q.34) ICT is used to control and monitor everyday activities. Which of the following
activities are most likely to use sensors?
A) Designing a master slide for presentation
B) Activating a burglar alarm
C) Opening automatic doors
D) Creating a spreadsheet
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A and B only
2) B and C only
3) C and D only
4) A and D only
Answer: 2) B and C only

Q.35) Which of the following statements about computer networks are TRUE?
A) An intranet is a public network.
B) The Internet is a group of interconnected networks.
C) An extranet is an internal network that can be accessed externally by authorized users.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A and B only
2) A and C only
3) B and C only
4) A, B and C
Answer: 3) B and C only

Q.36) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rivers and lakes that have low biological productivity are said to be eutrophic
Statement II: Rivers and lakes that are rich in organisms and organic materials are called as
oligotrophic
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q.37) What is flex fuel engine in motor vehicles?

1) Engines which run exclusively on biofuels.
2) Engines which are compatible with only 50% biofuel and 50% gasoline
3) Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.
4) Engines which run on both diesel and CNG.
Answer: 3) Engines in which biofuels and gasoline can be put in any ratio.

Q.38) Which of the following are pathways for toxicants to enter into our body?
A) Inhalation
B) Absorption
C) Dermal
D) Ingestion
E) Extraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, C and D only
2) A and E only
3) B, C and D only
4) C, D and E only
Answer: 1) A, C and D only

Q.39) In order to limit the rise in global temperature to 1)5 °C over pre industrial levels,
IPCC indicates that the world has to reduce the emission of greenhouse gas to the extent of %
by the year 2030.
1) 65
2) 50
3) 45

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4) 40
Answer: 3) 45

Q.40) Although ozone is a pollutant in the ambient air, but in stratosphere it is valuable
because it absorbs harmful
1) IR-Radiations
2) X-Rays
3) UV-Radiations
4) Gama- Rays
Answer: 3) UV-Radiations

Q.41) Which of the following specific programmes are initiated by UGC for the promotion of
values and ethical practices?
A) Jeevan Kaushal
B) Deeksharambh
C) Vishwa Bharat
D) Guru Dakshata
E) Vishwa Darshan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) C, D and E only
2) A and E only
3) B, C and D only
4) A, B and D only
Answer: 4) A, B and D only

Q.42) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Technical education is that which emphasises on the learning of techniques as
technical procedures and necessary skills and aims at preparing technicians usually above the
secondary level.
Statement II: There is no distinction between vocational education, industrial education and
technical education.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.43) Which of the following are the state universities of India?

A) Sardar Patel University, Gujarat
B) Nagaland University, Nagaland
C) Acharya Nagarjuna University, Andhra Pradesh
D) Gauhati University, Assam
E) Sikkim University, Sikkim
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, D and E only
2) A, B, C and E only
3) A, C and D only
4) C, D and E only
Answer: 3) A, C and D only

Q.44) Which of the following are included among the Institutes of Agricultural Research?
A) Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
B) Indian Institute of Food Technology.
C) Central Agricultural Marketing Department.
D) Indian Dairy Research Institute
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B, C and D
2) A, B and D only
3) A and B only
4) A and Conly
Answer: 1) A, B, C and D

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Q.45) Given below are two statements:

Statement 1: In ancient India, education was free
Statement II: In ancient India, education was centralized
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The process of the imperialist conquest of Asia and Africa was accompanied by intense
rivalries, and conflicts among the European imperialist powers. The competing claims
over colonies often created conditions of war. However, generally, most of these
conflicts were resolved in the conference rooms of Europe and wars were avoided The
European powers settled their rival claims which country would acquire which territory
on the basis of quid pro quo or ‘something for something’, by giving away something in
exchange for receiving something. For example, in 1904, after a long period of
conflicting claims, which had brought them almost to the point of war, Britain and
France entered into a secret agreement whereby Britain was given a free hand in Egypt
and in exchange Morocco was to be given to France When Germany came to know
about it, she demanded that France relinquish her claim to Morocco. A series of
international crises followed, bringing Europe to the brink of war. The Moroccan issue
was finally settled in 1911 when France agreed to give a portion of French Congo to
Germany and Germany informed France that she could do what she liked in Morocco.
In creating these crises and in resolving them, the people of French Congo or Morocco,
whose territories were being bargained, had no say.

Q.46) Which of the countries was allowed to take control of Egypt?

1) Britain
2) France
3) Germany
4) Spain
Answer: 1) Britain

Q.47) Given below are two statements:

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Statement I: Competing claims over African colonies were generally settled through war
among the European powers.
Statement II: France was in conflict only with Britain over Morocco.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q.48) Which of the following countries was allowed to have colony in Morocco?
1) Britain
2) France
3) Germany
4) Spain
Answer: 2) France

Q.49) Which among the following European powers were involved in tussle over Morocco?
A) Britain
B) France
C) Germany
D) Spain

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) A and B only
2) A, B and C only
3) B, C and D only
4) A, C and D only
Answer: 2) A, B and C only

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Q.50) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: France allowed Germany to exercise full control over the French Congo.
Statement II: France went to war with Britain in 1904.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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UGC NET Paper 1 June 2023 (Morning Shift)

The following table shows the number of males (M) and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y
during the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1-5

Year wise numbers of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands)

Town X Town Y

Number
Number of Number of
Years of Number of Males
Males Females
Females

2018 50 49 53 53

2019 52 49 54 52

2020 55 52 55 54

2021 53 53 58 56

2022 55 52 62 55

Q1) What is the ratio of the average number of males in Town X to the average number of
males in Town Y for the given period?
1) 269:282
2) 265:281
3) 265:283
4) 265:282
Answer: 4) 265:282

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Q2) Find the number of years in which the number of females in Town X and Y is less than
their respective average numbers in these two towns.
1) One, two
2) Two, Two
3) Three, Two
4) Two, One
Answer: 2) Two, Two

Q3) In which of the following pairs of years, the difference in the number of males and
females is maximum for town Y and minimum for Town X respectively?
1) 2018 and 2021
2) 2022 and 2018
3) 2022 and 2021
4) 2020 and 2022
Answer: 3) 2022 and 2021

Q.4) For town Y, the percentage increase in the number of females for a given year with
reference to the previous year is maximum in the year
1) 2022
2) 2021
3) 2020
4) 2019
Answer: 4) 2019

Q.5) The population of Town X in 2018 and 2019 together approximately __________% of
the population of Town Y in 2021 and 2022 together?
1) 86.6
2) 89.6
3) 81.6
4) 84.5
Answer: 1) 86.6

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Q.6) If man invested ₹20,000 in some shares in the ratio [Link] which pay dividends of 10%,
30% and 20%, respectively, on the investments in that year. Find the total dividend income of
the man.
1) ₹4200
2) ₹4500
3) ₹4800
4) ₹5000
Answer: 1) ₹4200

Q.7) Match List I with List II

List I (Concept)
A Argument
B Strong Argument
C Unsound Argument
D Weak Argument

List II (Definition)
I A deductive argument that either is invalid or has at least one false premise
II An inductive argument in which the conclusion does not follow probably from the
premises
III An inductive argument in which the conclusion follow probably from the premises
IV A set of statements in which a claims (conclusion) is defended with reason (premise)
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer: 4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Q.8) What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 85.125?

1) (1001001.111)

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2) (1010101.101)
3) (1100101.001)
4) (1010101.001)
Answer: 4) (1010101.001)

Q.9) In the light of nature of reasoning and argument pick out the incorrect statement(s).
A) An invalid argument can have any combinations of truth or falsity in the premise or
conclusion
B) No valid argument can have true premises and a false conclusion
C) Deductive arguments can be ‘almost valid’
D) Valid does not mean true.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & B
2) B & C
3) C
4) D
Answer: 3) C

Q.10) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ‘The jar does not exist’ is common to all kinds of non-existence.
Statement II: ‘The jar will exist’ refers to previous non-existence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.11) Danny is buying a new computer that has an LED display. Which of the following
statements about LED displays are true?
A) It is a flat panel display

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B) It creates images using red, green and blue diodes.

C) It is not very energy efficient and gives off heat
D) It can be used in mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets
E) It is always a front-lit display
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B & D only
2) A, C & E only
3) B, D & E only
4) A, B, D & E only
Answer: 1) A, B & D only

Q.12) The simple interest on a certain principal amount for 4 years at 10% per annum is half
of the compound interest on ₹ 1000 for 2 years at 20% per annum. Find the principal amount
1) ₹500
2) ₹450
3) ₹650
4) ₹550
Answer: 4) ₹550

Q.13) Which of the following are the benefits of collaborative learning environment?
A) Improved communication skills
B) Decreased understanding of different perspectives
C) Increased motivation
D) More opportunities for personal feedback
E) Enhanced problem-solving abilities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, C & D only
2) A & E only
3) A, C, D & E only
4) A, B & D only

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Answer: 3) A, C, D & E only

Q.14) A researcher computes sample correlation coefficients 11, 12, 13 and 14 from four
different samples and obtains their p-values 0.99, 0.999, 0.05 and 0.005, respectively.
Correlation coefficient significant at 1% level is
1) 11
2) 12
3) 13
4) 14
Answer: 4) 14

Q.15) Light Water Reactars (LWR) are nuclear reactors

1) Which use heavy water as a coolant
2) Which use graphite rod as moderator
3) Which use ordinary water as moderator
4) Which use steam as moderator
Answer: 3) Which use ordinary water as moderator

Q.16) Arrange the following steps involved in a research process in correct order
A) Collecting the data
B) Reviewing the literature
C) Reporting the research outcome
D) Identifying a research problem
E) Analyzing and interpreting the data
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, D, B, E, C
2) D, A, B, C, E
3) B, D, A, E, C
4) D, B, A, E, C
Answer: 4) D, B, A, E, C

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Q.17) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: According to NEP 2020, at present the investment in research and innovation in
India is only 1% of GDP
Statement II: NEP 2020 recommends the establishment of a National curriculum framework
for Teacher Education
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.18) Which of the following factors affect mediated persuasion?

A) Extended media reach
B) Round-the-clock communication
C) Media differences
D) Audience fragmentation
E) Message characteristics
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C only
2. B, C, D only
3. C, D, E only
4. A, B, E only
Answer: 3. C, D, E only

Q.19) The property of data such that research results apply to situations beyond the particular
sample of individuals/ items observed in a single research setting, refers to
1) Internal Validity
2) Convergent Validity
3) Divergent Validity
4) External Validity

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Answer: 4) External Validity

Q.20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from vehicles.
Statement II: Volatile Organic Compounds are emitted from some trees
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.21) Match List I with List II

List 1 (Data Transmission modes in computer network)
A Simplex
B Duplex
C Half-Duplex
List II (Description)
I Data can be sent and received at the same time.
II Data can only be sent or received.
III Data can be sent and received but not at the same time.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) A-III, B-I, C-II
2) A-I, B-III, C-II
3) A-II, B-III, C-I
4) A-II, B-I, C-III
Answer: 4) A-II, B-I, C-III

Q.22) Which of the following is a major advantage of online learning over offline learning?
1) Limited access

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2) Flexibility
3) High cost
4) Inter-activity
Answer: 2) Flexibility

Q.23) In the light of changes introduced to the existing universities under the Indian
Universities Act 1904; which among the following is incorrect.
A) An enlargement of the functions of the universities
B) The introduction of the new principle of election to the senate
C) Easier conditions for affiliation of colleges to a universities
D) Definition of the territorial units of the universities
E) Increase in the size of the universities senate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & B
2) A & D
3) B & D
4) C & E
Answer: 4) C & E

Q.24) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Biomagnification occurs when the toxic burden of large number of organisms at
higher trophic level is accumulated and concentrated in the organisms at lower trophic level
Statement II: The effect of toxins are magnified in the environment through food webs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.25) Given below are two statements:

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Statement I: The Upanayana ceremony which marked the initiation of a child into a study of
the Vedas was performed for boys as well as for girls.
Statement II: Both boys and girls received education in ‘Ashrams’ and ‘Gurukulas’ in ancient
India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.26) A computer processor will operate fastest when the data that it wants is in the
1) Cache Memory
2) Hard Disk
3) Optical Disk
4) Main Memory
Answer: 1) Cache Memory

Q.27) Feedback is immediate in ___________________ communication.

1) Print
2) Broadcast
3) Top-down
4) Face-to-face
Answer: 4) Face-to-face

Q.28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Shareware is a software that the users can try out for a trial period only, before
being charged.
Statement II: Freeware is a software that the users can download free of charge, but they
cannot modify the source code in any way.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.29) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) has been adopted only in the central
universities of India.
Statement II: Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) assigns credits based on the learning
outcomes of a course.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.30) Vladimir Zworykin was associated with the invention of

1) Colour printing
2) Radio
3) Television
4) Internet
Answer: 3) Television

Q.31) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Propagandic communication at the National level is supposed to recognize the
fact that truth need not be separated from falsehood.
Statement II: The mediated propaganda process blurs truth and falsehood in order to be
persuasive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

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3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.32) In a certain coded languages:

A. ‘Best way to win’ is written as ‘baumaushausa’
B. ‘The way to hell’ is written as ‘tau mausahau’
C. ‘Win of the day’ is written as ‘shaufau tau dau’
What is the code for ‘hell’ in this language?
1) ‘hau’
2) ‘mau’
3) ‘shau’
4) ‘tau’
Answer: 1) ‘hau’

Q.33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Moodle is an example of a Learning Management System (LMS)
Statement II: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating online surveys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.34) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The purpose of a blind study is to prevent the participants from figuring out what
the experimental wants.
Statement II: Interaction between the experimenter and the participants is always beneficial in
social science research.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

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1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.35) Identify the fallacy committed in the following argument:

“Capital punishment is morally wrong because it is ethically impermissible to inflict death as
punishment for crime”
1) Two wrongs make a right
2) Look who is talking
3) Begging the question
4) Scare tactics
Answer: 3) Begging the question

Q.36) Which of the following are the basic requirements for effective teaching?
A) Teaching only what is included in the curriculum
B) Good communication skills
C) Using a rigid teaching approach
D) Excellent subject knowledge
E) Ability to connect with students
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & C only
2) C & Eonly
3) B, D & E only
4) A, C & D only
Answer: 3) B, D & E only

Q.37) According to Samkhya school of thought a word signifies

1)Vyakti
2)Akriti

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3) Jati
4)Vyakti- Akriti-Jati
Answer:1)Vyakti

Q.38) Most of the countries in International Solar Alliance lie

1) Above tropic of cancer
2) Below tropic of cancer
3) Between tropic of cancer and Capricorn
4) In the Southern hemisphere
Answer: 3) Between tropic of cancer and Capricorn

Q.39) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Experimental research allows you to eliminate the influence of many extraneous
factors.
Reason R: In experimental research variables are actively manipulated and environment is as
controlled as possible
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
Answer: 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q.40) What are the advantages of digital media?

A) Network communication is avoided.
B) People can create and distribute media content.
C) The end-product can be delivered in real time.
D) Reproduction and distribution of information products are less expensive.
E) Online political involvement is of no importance.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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1) A, B, C only
2) B, C, D only
3) C, D, E only
4) A, B, E only
Answer: 2) B, C, D only

Q.41) The first Education commission of India also adhered to

1) The one-language formula
2) The two-language formula
3) The three-language formula
4) The four-language formula
Answer: 3) The three-language formula

Q.42) A man travels from his home to his office at a speed of 4 km/h and reaches his office
30 minutes late. If his speed had been 6 km/h, he would have reached office 5 minutes early.
Find the distance of his office from his home.
1) 8.5 km
2) 7 km
3) 8 km
4) 9 km
Answer: 2) 7 km

Q.43) What number would replace question mark (?) in the series below?
1.5, 4, 7.5, 12, 17.5, 24, 31.5, ?
1) 55.5
2) 38
3) 40
4) 45
Answer: 3) 40

Q.44) Given below are two statements: in the context of NEP 2020:

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Statement I: High performing Indian Universities will be encouraged to set up campuses in

other countries.
Statement II: Selected universities from among the top 500 universities in the world will be
facilitated to operate in India
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q.45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Exposure to noise pollution adversely affects the physiological health of a
person.
Statement II: Exposure to noise pollution adversely affects the psychological health of a
person.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Read the passage and answer the next five questions. Choose the most appropriate
options from the options given:
As part of the great cultural renaissance generated during the post-independence
period, there has occurred a most meaningful encounter with tradition in various fields
of creative activity. The return to and discovery of tradition was inspired by a search
for roots and a quest for identity. This was a part of the whole process of decolonization
of our lifestyle, values, social institutions, creative forms and cultural modes. The
modern Indian theatre, product of a colonial theatrical culture, felt the need to search
for roots most intensely to match its violent dislocation from the traditional course.
Directors like B.V. karanth, K.N. Panikar and Ratan Thiyam have had a most
meaningful encounter with tradition and, with their work, have reversed the colonial
course of contemporary theatre and put it back on the track of the great Natyashastra
tradition. It sounds paradoxical, but their theatre is both avant-garde in the context of
conventional realistic theatre, and still belongs to the Natyashastra theatrical tradition.

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Q.46) The most significant contribution of Directors like B. V Karanth, K. N. Panikkar and
Ratan Thiyam was
1) Making Indian theatre totally traditional
2) Making Indian theatre backward
3) Dislocating Indian theatre from the traditional Indian theatre
4) Bringing about an amalgamation of the Indian theatrical tradition with Western realistic
theatre
Answer: 4) Bringing about an amalgamation of the Indian theatrical tradition with Western
realistic theatre

Q.47) Decolonization is the process of

1) Becoming independent from
2) Becoming dependent on
3) Relying on
4) Learning from
Answer: 1) Becoming independent from

Q.48) The return to and discovery of traditional in post- independence era was inspired by
A) Search for values
B) Search for roots
C) Search for realism
D) Search for identity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & B only
2) D & C only
3) B, C & D only
4) B & D only
Answer: 4) B & D only

Q.49) The Natyasastra tradition refers to

1) The colonial tradition

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2) Avant-garde theatre
3) Conventional realistic theatre
4) Indian theatrical tradition
Answer: 4) Indian theatrical tradition

Q.50) Post- Independence cultural renaissance in Indian theatre focused on

1) Development of Western theatre
2) Return to traditional Western theatre
3) Search for traditional Indian theatre
4) Modern Western theatre
Answer: 3) Search for traditional Indian theatre

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UGC NET Paper 1 June 2023 (Evening Shift)

The following table shows the Income (in lakh) and percentage (%) profit of a company over
the six years from 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that
follow.
Year-wise Income and Profit of a Company

Year Income (In ₹ Lakh) Profit (%)

2017 120 7.5

2018 160 15

2019 130 22.5

2020 170 17.5

2021 190 20

2022 150 27.5

Q.1) If the percentage profit in 2021 was 25% instead of 20% than what would have been the
expenditure in that year?
1) 130 lakh
2) 148 lakh
3) 120 lakh
4) 152 lakh
Answer: (4) 152 lakh

Q.2) The positive increase in percent profit in comparison to the previous year was minimum
in the year

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1) 2018
2) 2020
3) 2021
4) 2022
Answer: (3) 2021

Q.3) Approximately what was the average expenditure during the year from 2017 to 2022?
1) 110 lakh
2) 130 lakh
3) 120 lakh
4) 140 lakh
Answer: (2) 130 lakh

Q.4) Approximately what was the expenditure in 2018?

1) 120 lakh
2) 160 lakh
3) 140 lakh
4) 180 lakh
Answer: (3) 140 lakh

Q.5) The median income of the company in the six years from 2017 to 2022 was
1) 155 lakh
2) 150 lakh
3) 160 lakh
4) 153.33 lakh
Answer: (1) 155 lakh

Q.6) Which of the following are codes of reception in communication?

A) Bystander
B) Dominant
C) Negotiated

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D) Oppositional
E) Channel
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B, C only
2) B, C, D only
3) C, D, E only
4) A, D, E only
Answer: (2) B, C, D only

Q.7) The graphical representation of a frequency distribution is called

1) Bar Chart
2) Line Chart
3) Histogram
4) Pie Chart
Answer: (3) Histogram

Q.8) According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School of logic) the fallacy of irregular middle is
called:
1)Anaikantika
2)Asiddha
3)Satpratipaksa
4) Badhita
Answer: (1)Anaikantika

Q.9) If South-east becomes east and North west becomes West and all other directions are
changed in the same manner, then what will be the direction for north?
1) South-West
2) North-West
3) South-East
4) North-East
Answer: (2) North-West

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Q.10) Which of the following statements are so related that they can neither both be true nor
can they be false together?
A) No saints are materialists.
B) All saints are materialists.
C) Some saints are not materialists.
D) Some saints are materialists.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & C only
2) B & D only
3) A & D only
4) C & D only
Answer: (3) A & D only

Q.11) “The most effective way to increase government revenue would be to raise the
corporate income tax, since opinion polls show wide spread support for this approach”.
Which of the following fallacies is committed in the above statement?
1) Appeal to emotion
2) Slippery slope
3) Appeal to inappropriate authority
4) Appeal to Majority
Answer: (4) Appeal to Majority

Q.12) Which of the following are the requirements of good teaching?

A) Responsive human environment to foster exploration
B) Appropriate responsiveness to the child and the group
C) Knowledge of subject matter
D) Maintaining interpersonal relationship
E) Strict adherence to a rigid teaching plan.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, C & E only
2) A, B, C & D only

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3) B, D & E only
4) C & E only
Answer: (2) A, B, C & D only

Q.13) Which of the following universities were established in the year 1916?
A) Delhi University
B) Banaras University
C) Mysore University
D) S. N. D. T women University
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B & C only
2) A & D only
3) A & C only
4) B, C & D only
Answer: (4) B, C & D only

Q.14) Find the number that can replace question mark (?) in the series given below:
5, 9, 3, 11, 1, 13, -1?
1) -13
2) -12
3) 10
4) 15
Answer: (4) 15

Q.15) The term ‘Correlation’ in mass communication refers to the function of

1) Information Gathering
2) Socialisation
3) Interpretation
4) Investigation
Answer: (3) Interpretation

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Q.16) Which assessment will be given to learners during the course of instructions rather than
after it is completed?
1) Diagnostic assessment
2) Formative assessment
3) Summative assessment
4) Placement assessment
Answer: (2) Formative assessment

Q.17) Arrange the stages of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development in ascending order?
A) Concrete operational stage
B) Pre-operational stage
C) Sensorimotor stage
D) Formal operation stage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, C, D, A
2) C, B, A, D
3) A, B, C, D
4) D, C, A, B
Answer: (2) C, B, A, D

Q.18) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: (167) 10 = (10100111)2
Statement II: (11010110) 2 = (214)10
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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Q.19) Which of the following are physical parameters to decide the water quality?
A) pH
B) Temperature
C) Total Surpended Solids (TSS)
D) Hardness
E) Conductivity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B, C, D only
2) A, B, D, Eonly
3) C, D, E only
4) B, C, E only
Answer: (4) B, C, E only

Q.20) Match List I with List II

List I List II

How to do something,
A) Factual I methods of inquiry and
criteria for using skills

The basic elements students

B) Conceptual II must know to be acquainted
with a discipline.

Knowledge of cognition and

C) Procedural III
one’s own cognition

The inter-relationships
among the basic elements
D) Metacognitive IV
within a larger structure to
function together

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I
2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3) A-III. B-I, C- IV, D-II
4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Q.21) Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the closed ended questions in
survey research?
1) They allow unusual responses that the survey researcher may not have contemplated.
2) They are easy for interviewers and/or respondents to complete.
3) They reduce the possibility of variability in the recording of answers.
4) There is loss of spontaneity in respondents answers.
Answer: (1) They allow unusual responses that the survey researcher may not have
contemplated.

Q.22) Match List I with List II

List I List II

A) Siksha I Metre

B) Nirukta II Phonetics

C) Kalpa III Etymology

D) Chhandas IV Religious Practices

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2) A-I, B-II, C-VI, D-III

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3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q.23) In which of the following sampling methods, the sample is also known as an accidental
sample and a haphazard sample?
1) Purposive Sampling
2) Quota Sampling
3) Stratified Random Sampling
4) Convenience Sampling
Answer: (4) Convenience Sampling

Q.24) Which of the following affects the downloading speed of a web page the least?
1) Number of hyperlink in the web page
2) Number and size of images in the web page
3) Processing power of the server computer that stores the web page
4) The bandwidth of Internet connection which is used to access the web page
Answer: (1) Number of hyperlink in the web page

Q.25) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Compared to word processors, simple text-editors such as Notepad and Emacs
have limited editing features.
Statement II: Files created with simple text editors cannot be opened with word processors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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Q.26) To calculate gross pay, hours are multiplied by the hourly rate. What MS. EXCELL
formula would you put in cell C4 and then you are able to copy that cell down to the rest of
the column C?

A B C

Hourly Rate (in Rs. ) 12.75

Gross
Name Hours
Pay

1 Arjun 26

2 Rishi 37

3 Ishan 36

Gross
4 Ajay 28
Pay

5 Arun 30

6 Nitin 30

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) =B1*$B$4
2) =$B1*B4
3) =B1*B4
4) =$B$1*B4
Answer: (4) =$B$1*B4

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Q.27) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Children are much more vulnerable than adults to environmental toxins.
Reason R: For each kilogram of body weight, children drink more water, eat more food and
breathe more air than adults.
In the light of the above statements.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q.28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating interactive videos in education.
Statement II: Kahoot is a tool used for assessment in education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q.29) Methane (CH4)

A) Is a green-house gas
B) Is a polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbon
C) Is a component in determining Air quality Index (AQI)
D) Helps in formation of Ozone
E) Is a Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B & C only

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2) A, D & E only
3) A & E only
4) C, D & E only
Answer: (2) A, D & E only

Q.30) Which of the following commissions suggested the establishment of National

Universities in India?
1) Kothari commission
2) Radhakrishnan commission
3) Knowledge commission
4) Planning commission
Answer: (3) Knowledge commission

Q.31) Some of the major recommendations of the Kothari commission on Higher education
are:
A) Avoid introducing new courses
B) Select teachers at the national level
C) Restrict the expansion of higher education
D) Provide autonomy to the universities
E) Abolish the continuous evaluation system
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B, C only
2) B, D, E only
3) B, C, D only
4) A, D, E only
Answer: (3) B, C, D only

Q.32) Which of the following components are part of the central processing unit (CP
U) of the Von Neumann model for a computer system?
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
B) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

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C) Memory Address Register (MAR)

D) Solid State Drive (SSD)
E) Control Unit (CU)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & E only
2) B. C & D only
3) A & C only
4) A.C & E only
Answer: (4) A.C & E only

Q.33) Which of the following are features of mass communication?

A) Structured institutional system
B) Complex process of reproduction
C) Commodification of messages
D) Personalized way of communication
E) Space- time constraint
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A, B, C only
2) B, C, D only
3) C, D, E only
4) B, D, E only
Answer: (1) A, B, C only

Q.34) Arrange the following steps pertaining to quantitative research in correct order:
A) Analyse data
B) Hypothesis
C) Process data
D) Findings
E) Research Design
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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1) B, C, D, E, A
2) B, E, C, A, D
3) C, D, A, B.E
4) E, B, C, A, D
Answer: (2) B, E, C, A, D

Q.35) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Because of technological strides in recent times, words and times as related to
communication have become money.
Statement II: The technological convergence has contributed to the control of mass
communication by a few corporates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q.36) The question of whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the specific
research context, relatesto
1) Measurement validity
2) Internal validity
3) External validity
4) Ecological validity
Answer: (3) External validity

Q.37) In a certain coding language ‘KANPUR’ is coded as ‘JBMQTS’. How ‘BOMBAY’

will be coded in that language?
1) ALPCZZ
2) APLCZZ
3) APCLZZ
4) APLZCZ

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Answer: (2) APLCZZ

Q.38) The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers in descending order is 95. Find the fourth
number in the descending order.
1) 95
2) 97
3) 99
4) 93
Answer: (4) 93

Q.39) If the statements “No saints are materialists” is given as false which of the following
statements could be immediately inferred to be true?
A) All saints are materialists.
B) Some saints are materialists.
C) Some saints are not materialists.
D) All materialists are saints.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A & D only
2) B only
3) C & D only
4) A & B only
Answer: (2) B only

Q.40) Which one of the following is not a National Action Plan on climate change?
1) National Solar Minion
2) National Mission on Indian Ocean
3) National Mission for Green India
4) National Water Mission
Answer: (2) National Mission on Indian Ocean

Q.41) From the fourth five-year plan onwards, the focus on technical education was to

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1) Improve its quality and standard

2) Encourage its unrestricted expansion in public sector
3) Weed out non-performing institutions
4) Restrict the entry of private players into the field
Answer: (1) Improve its quality and standard

Q.42) Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement- “No saints
are materialists”?
1) No materialists are saints.
2) Some materialists are saints.
3) All non- materialists are non- saints.
4) Some non- materialists are non-saints.
Answer: (1) No materialists are saints.

Q.43) An article is sold at a certain price by selling the article at 2/3 (two third) of that price,
there is a loss of 10%. Find the gain percent at its original price.
1) 35%
2) 25%
3) 33%
4) 30%
Answer: (1) 35%

Q.44) The coming together of computing, telecommunication and media in a digital

environment is technically known as
1) Integration
2) Amalgamation
3) Merger
4) Convergence
Answer: (4) Convergence

Q.45) Given below are two statements:

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Statement I: The concentration Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere has increased

in the years.
Statement II: CFCs already present in the atmosphere will persist for many years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Read the passage given below

Man is the only animal that laughs and weeps, for he is the only animal that is struck with the
difference between what things are and what they ought to be. We weep at what exceeds our
expectations in serious matters; we laugh at what disappoints our expectations in trifles. We
shed tears from sympathy with real and necessary distress; as we burst into laughter from
want of sympathy with that which is unreasonable and unnecessary. Tears are the natural and
involuntary response of the mind overcome by some sudden and violent emotions. Laughter
is the same sort of convulsive and involuntary movement, occasioned by mere surprise or
contrast. The serious is the stress which the mind lays upon the expectations of a given order
of events and the weight attached to them. When this stress is increased beyond its usual
intensity and strains the feelings by the violent opposition of good and bad, it becomes the
tragic. The ludicrous is the unexpected relaxing of this stress below its usual intensity, by an
abrupt transposition of ideas that takes the mind by surprise and startles it into lively sense of
pleasure.

Q.46) We shed tears when

A) Something is tragic
B) Something is ludicrous
C) Something is surprising
D) Seriousness exceeds our expectations.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) C & D only
2) A & B only
3) A & D only
4) A, B & D only

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Answer: (3) A & D only

Q.47) The author implies that animals lack the ability to

1) Perceive emotional changes in humans
2) Laugh or weep
3) Evoke sorrow or laughter in humans
4) Respond strongly to external stimuli
Answer: (2)Laugh or weep

Q.48) The author develops the passage primarly by

1) Disproving a theory
2) Citing authorities
3) Presenting counter example
4) Defining terms
Answer: (4) Defining terms

Q.49) It can be inferred from the passage that the ludicrous is most nearly opposite to the
1) Serious
2) Surprise
3) Pleasure
4) Unexpected
Answer: (1) Serious

Q.50) According to the passage which of the following is not true is case of tears and
laughter?
1) They are both involuntary reaction
2) They are both the result of violent emotions
3) They are both natural emotions.
4) They are both reaction to experiences of the world
Answer: (2) They are both the result of violent emotions

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UGC NET Paper 1 December 2023

Comprehension:
The following table shows the income and expenditure (in millions) of a certain Company
during the five years from 2018-2022, along with profit % and loss % incurred in all these
years. Some values are missing in the table (indicated by ‘-‘) that you are expected to
calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.

Company Wise Bicycle Production and Profit

Expenditure Income (in ₹

Year Profit % (+)/Loss % (-)
(in ͅ₹ millions) millions)

2018 192 – +50%

2019 248 – –

2020 210 – +20%

2021 – 359.6 –

2022 – – -12%

Q.1) If the loss incurred by the Company in 2019 was 33.2 million more than the profit of the
Company in 2018, then the loss percent incurred by the Company in 2019 was:
(1) 17%
(2) 22%
(3) 25%
(4) 23%
Answer: (3) 25%

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Q.2) In 2022, if the expenditure of company was 15% more as compared to 2019, then the
income of the company in 2022 was (in million):
(1) 250.976
(2) 248.976
(3) 250.936
(4) 230.936
Answer: (2) 248.976

Q.3) In 2021, if the profit percent (%) of the company was higher by 60% of the profit
percent (%) in 2018, then the percent increase (approximately) in the expenditure of the
Company in 2021 as compared to the previous year would be:
(1) 46%
(2) 45%
(3) 41%
(4) 38%
Answer: (4) 38%

Q.4) What is the average of the income of the Company in 2018 and 2020 (in million)?
(1) 220.8
(2) 236.4
(3) 252.2
(4) 246.6
Answer: (2) 236.4

Q.5) Profit in 2020 is % more than in 2018:

(1) 56.76
(2) 44.98
(3) 45.83
(4) 59.82
Answer: (3) 45.83

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Q.6) Which of the following steps were taken by the university grants commission during the
second five year plan ?
(A) Introduction of three-year degree course
(B) Improvement in libraries and laboratories
(C) Increase in the salaries of university teachers
(D) No new departments were approved in the universities
(E) Hindi was made the optional medium of instruction besides local languages in all Indian
universities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
(4) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (C) Only

Q.7) Which of the following belong to the field of proxemics in communication?

(A) Facial expressions
(B) Crowding
(C) Territoriality
(D) Personal space
(E) Eye contact
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
(4) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D) Only

Q.8) A security system records video footage. One minute of video requires 180 MegaBytes
of storage. The recording system can store several hours of video footage. How much storage
would be needed for 2 hours of video footage? (lk = 1024):

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(1) 19.2 Giga Bytes

(2) 20.3 Giga Bytes
(3) 21.1 Giga Bytes
(4) 22.4 Giga Bytes
Answer: (3) 21.1 Giga Bytes

Q.9) Find the next term (?) in the following letters series AM, GJ, MG, SD,?
(1) XZ
(2) YC
(3) X A
(4) Y A
Answer: (4) Y A

Q.10) If the statement “Some rectangles are not squares” is given as true, then according to
the square of opposition which of the following statements can by immediately inferred to be
false?
(1) All rectangles are squares.
(2) Some rectangles are squares.
(3) No rectangles are squares.
(4) Some squares are not rectangles.
Answer: (1) All rectangles are squares.

Q.11) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): DDT bioaccumulates in tissues of many species including humans.
Reason (R): DDT is relatively insoluble in water but readily soluble in fats and oils. In the
light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

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(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q.12) As per square of opposition which of the following propositions are so related that if
one of them is true, the other must be false and vice-vessa?
(A) All mammals are vertebrates.
(B) No mammals are vertebrates.
(C) Some non-mammals are not vertebrates.
(D) Some mammals are not vertebrates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (D) Only
(2) (A) and (C) Only
(3) (A) and (B) Only
(4) (C) and (D) Only
Answer: (1) (A) and (D) Only

Q.13) In an arithmetic series having 50 terms, the first and last terms are 3 and 199,
respectively. What is the sum of the series?
(1) 4950
(2) 5050
(3) 5150
(4) 4850
Answer: (2) 5050

Q.14) One of the four maxims of conversation, quantity maxim, reflects the right amount of:
(1) Paradigms
(2) Syntagms
(3) Similes
(4) Information
Answer: (4) Information

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Q.15) A train moving at a speed of 63 km/hr enters a railway station and crosses the platform
in 20 s. If the length of the train is 100 m, what is the length of the platform?
(1)150 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 250 m
(4) 300 m
Answer: (3) 250 m

Q.16) Which among the following is an open-source software for data analysis?
(1) SPSS
(2) MATLAB
(3) R
(4) MINITAB
Answer: (3) R

Q.17) When the primary function of communication is to convey new information, it is

known as:
(1) Subliminal function
(2) Single task function
(3) Referential function
(4) Differential function
Answer: (3) Referential function

Q.18) Identify the sampling issues that are problematic in online surveys:
(A) Many people use more than one internet service provider.
(B) Every person has only one (unique) email address.
(C) A house hold may have one computer but several users.
(D) Internet users are a biased sample of the population.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) Only

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(3) (A), (B) and (D) Only

(4) (A), (C) and (D) Only
Answer: (4) (A), (C) and (D) Only

Q.19) Match List I with List II.

List – I (Graphical
User Interface List – II (Description)
Term)

Represents a folder or a
program – can be seen within a
(A) Window (I)
window or free standing on
screen

Contains lists of options for a

(B) Icon (II)
certain program

Used to select menu

(C) Menu (III) options/icons/close/open
windows

Represents an area on the

(D) Pointer (IV) screen that displays information
for a specific program

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Answer: (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Q.20) The University of Punjab was established at Lahore in 1882 to reduce the burden of the
university of:

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(1) Bombay
(2) Calcutta
(3) Madras
(4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (2) Calcutta

Q.21) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In teacher centred learning the teacher gives up the traditional decision-making
role and chooses instead the role of a facilitator who focuses on student’s feelings.
Statement II: In learner centred method the teacher attempts to see the world as the students
see it, creating an atmosphere of empathetic communication.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.22) In comparison to secondary computer storage, primary storage is:

(1) Slower, more expensive per unit of storage and persistent
(2) Faster, less expensive per unit of storage and persistent
(3) Faster more expensive per unit of storage and not persistent
(4) Faster, less expensive per unit of storage and not persistent
Answer: (3) Faster more expensive per unit of storage and not persistent

Q.23) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): According to Buddhism, linguistic communication should be used to adopt
moral stance.
Statement (II): Critical introspection is not preferred by Buddhists as part of intra-personal
communication.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

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(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.24) Which of the following was recommended by the Hunter Commission?

(1) Abolition of higher education in India
(2) Restricting women’s entry into colleges
(3) Participation of private enterprise in higher education
(4) Encouraging establishment of more and more public universities in rural India
Answer: (3) Participation of private enterprise in higher education

Q.25) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): No test provides a perfect picture of a student’s abilities and skills. A test is
only one small sample of a student’s performance.
Reason (R): In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q.26) Identify the similarities between quantitative and qualitative research:

(A) Both are concerned with data reduction.
(B) Both are concerned with variation in data.
(C) Both lay emphasis on contextual understanding.
(D) Both lay emphasis on generalization.
(E) Both are concerned with answering research questions.

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (D) Only
(2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only
(3) (B) (D) and (E) Only
(4) (A), (B) and (E) Only
Answer: (4) (A), (B) and (E) Only

Q.27) Which of the following are the components of pedagogical analysis of teaching and
learning?
(A) Objective formulation
(B) Selection of teaching methods and materials
(C) Content analysis
(D) Selection of evaluation devices
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(2) (A) and (D) Only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B) and (C) Only
Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Q.28) What is the correct sequence of steps followed from initial to last during water
treatment process?
(A) Coagulation
(B) Filtration
(C) Screening
(D) Sedimentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(4) (C), (D), (B), (A)

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Answer: (3) (C), (D), (A), (B)

Q.29) The sum and difference of two numbers are 19 and 7, respectively. What is the sum of
their squares?
(1) 190
(2) 200
(3) 205
(4) 210
Answer: (3) 205

Q.30) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): According to classical Indian school of logic (Nyaya) the argument “Sound is
eternal because it is audible” is fallacious.
Statement (II): According to classical Indian school of logic the argument “Sound is eternal
because it is audible” commits the fallacy of irregular middle term where the middle term is
too wide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.31) Identify the correct reasons for writing a literature review:

(A) You need to know what is already known in connection with your research area.
(B) It may help you to develop an analytic framework.
(C) It will help with the interpretation of your findings.
(D) It may suggest further research questions for you.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) Only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) Only

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(3) (A), (C) and (D) Only

(4) (A), (B) (C) and (D)
Answer: (4) (A), (B) (C) and (D)

Q.32) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were mainly targeted at developing
or poor countries.
Statement (II): Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are targeted at all countries whether
developed, developing or poor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Q.33) Which of the following are true about Producer Gas?

(A) It is the result of conversion of solid biomass into gaseous fuels.
(B) It is done at lower temperature.
(C) It can be used as fuel in internal combustion engines.
(D) It is produced in the complete absence of oxygen.
(E) Hydrogen and methane present in Producer Gas determine its heating value.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1)(A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (B) and (D) Only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
(4) (A), (C) and (E) Only
Answer: (4) (A), (C) and (E) Only

Q.34) Which of the following contextual factors determine meaning in communication

behaviour?

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(A) Physical location.

(B) Participants
(C) Preceding events
(D) Nonfunctional goals
(E) Absence of audience
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) Only
(4) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (C) Only

Q.35) The convention on biological diversity is dedicated to promote sustainable

development conceived as a practical tool for translating the principles of:
(1) Agenda 20
(2) Agenda 21
(3) Agenda 22
(4) Agenda 23
Answer: (2) Agenda 21

Q.36) A certain sum of money doubles in 4 years at a compound rate of interest per annum.
The rate of interest is [Given; 21/2 = 1.414, 21/4= 1.1892]
(1) ~14.9%
(2) ~16.8%
(3) ~18.9%
(4) ~12.9%
Answer: (3) ~18.9%

Q.37) Which of the following research institutes were established between the first and third
five-year plans?
(A) Indian Institute of Science

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(B) Saha Institute of Nuclear physics

(C) Lok Bharati
(D) Gandhi Gram Rural Institute
(E) Raman Research Institute
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (A), (D) and (E) Only
(3) (B), (C) and (E) Only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) Only
Answer: (4) (B), (C) and (D) Only

Q.38) Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

(A) No liquids are beverages.
(B) No beverages are liquids.
(C) All non-beverages are non-liquids.
(D) All non-liquids are non-beverages.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) Only
(2) (A) and (C) Only
(3) (B) and (D) Only
(4) (C) and (D) Only
Answer: (1) (A) and (B) Only

Q.39) If (P)g represents the number P in base – 8, then (144) g + (175) g =

(1) (225) 8
(2) (341) 8
(3) (441) 8
(4) (314) 8
Answer: (2) (341) 8

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Q.40) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The Nalanda University of ancient India attracted students from various parts
of Asia.
Statement (II): The Nalanda University was overshadowed by the universities in Europe and
Arabia immediately after its establishment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q.41) Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): IPv6 address in computer networking is 4 times larger than an IPv4 address
Statement (II): The IP address gives the location of a device on the Internet, whereas the
MAC address identifies the device connected to the Internet
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q.42) “More laws have been added on the books in past five years than ever before, yet the
number of crimes committed during the same period has significantly increased. Therefore, to
bring the crime rate down, we must eliminate the laws”. Which fallacy is committed in the
above statement?
(1) Red herring
(2) Straw man
(3) Slippery slope
(4) False cause

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Answer: (4) False cause

Q.43) The organised bodies of information stored in memory that bias the way new
information is interpreted, stored, and recalled is known as:
(1) Constructive process
(2) Schemas
(3) Chunks
(4) Association
Answer: (2) Schemas

Q.44) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The ability to generate unusual, yet appropriate, responses to problems or
questions is known as convergent thinking.
Statement II: The ability to produce responses that are based primarily on knowledge and
logic is known as divergent thinking.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Q.45) An epistemological position that advocates the application of the methods of the
natural sciences to the study of social reality and beyond, refers to:
(1) Positivism
(2) Interpretivism
(3) Objectivism
(4) Constructionism
Answer: (1) Positivism

Comprehension: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:

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The most important part of a person’s life is his childhood. The learning our young citizens
receive at home, in school and in society between the ages of five and sixteen will shape them
for the rest of their lives. during this phase, they need a good value based education to
become enlightened human beings.
Parents and teachers need to have an integrated mission: education with a good value system
at home and in school. Education is fundamental to building the nation of our dreams. All our
aspirations as a society are tied to the capabilities of our youngsters, who form such a large
part of our population. A child’s individuality and creativity need to be given due importance
in our education. The curriculum needs to be innovative and the examination system
overhauled so that it recognizes and evaluates creativity and new thinking rather than the
memorization of facts. Schools must move away from being centres of education alone,
instead becoming centres of knowledge and skill development.

Q.46) What is essential for building the nation of our dreams?

(1) More schools
(2) Value based education
(3) Democracy
(4) Rapid Urbanization
Answer: (2) Value based education

Q.47) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Schools should only be centres of education.
Statement II: Youngsters form a minimal part of our population.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q.48) A good examination system should:

(A) Recognize a child’s creativity
(B) Recognize a child’s individuality
(C) Encourage rote learning

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(D) Encourage new thinking

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) & (D) Only
(2) (B) & (C) Only
(3) (A), (B) & (C) Only
(4) (C) & (D) Only
Answer: (1) (A), (B) & (D) Only

Q.49) A child becomes an enlightened human being as a result of the value based education
received:
(A) At home only
(B) In school only
(C) At home, in school and in society
(D) In society only
(E) Between the ages of five and sixteen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) & (E) Only
(2) (A), (D) & (E) Only
(3) (C) & (E) Only
(4) (A) & (B) Only
Answer: (3) (C) & (E) Only

Q.50) Who need to have an integrated mission: education with a good value system at home
and in school?
(1) Politicians
(2) Philanthropists
(3) Parents and Teachers
(4) Businessmen
Answer: (3) Parents and Teachers

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