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1) How would you describe a jetstream?

a) Any wind force above 64 knots.
b) The outflow airstream from a turbine engine.
c) A zone of winds in connection with a "'squall line".
d) A zone of wind in the upper troposphere or lower stratosphere with wind
forces at 60 knots minimum.

2) If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL340, where will your cruising
altitude be?
a) Constantly in the troposphere.
b) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere.
c) Constantly in the stratosphere.
d) In the stratosphere for part of time.

3) What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

a) Tropopause.
b) Atmosphere.
c) Stratosphere.
d) Ionosphere.

4) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:

a) 0 to 11 km
b) 11 to 50 km
c) 85 to more than 200 km
d) 50 to 85 km

5) The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018
hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the
QFF?
a) Less than 1018 hPa
b) 1018 hPa
c) More than 1018 hPa
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

6) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
a) dew point.
b) air temperature.
c) relative humidity.
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d) stability of the air.

7) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is

the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 10°C warmer than ISA.
b) 5°C warmer than ISA.
c) 10°C colder than ISA.
d) 5°C colder than ISA.

8) Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
altitude than that actually flown?
a) Air temperature higher than standard
b) Air temperature lower than standard
c) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude
d) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

9) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:

a) immediately after sunset
b) during early morning hours before sunrise
c) during the early afternoon
d) about midmorning

10)In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

a) Solid to liquid
b) Gas to liquid
c) Liquid to gas
d) Solid to gas

11)When water evaporates into unsaturated air:

a) heat is absorbed
b) relative humidity is decreased
c) relative humidity is not changed
d) heat is released

12)The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
a) supercooling
b) sublimation
c) radiation cooling
d) supersaturation
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13)Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a

Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
a) Ground radiation
b) Orographic lift
c) Convergence
d) Convection

14)Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
a) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
b) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
c) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a
sinking air mass
d) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night

15)Which of the following processes is the most important one concerning the heating
of the air in the troposphere? The radiation of the sun heats
a) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
b) the main part of the air in the troposphere by absorption
c) mainly the water vapour that heats the air of the troposphere by conduction
d) the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere

16)The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:
a) -2,5 °C / 1000 ft.
b) -2 °C / 1000 ft.
c) -6,5 °C / 1000 ft.
d) -3 °C / 1000 ft.

17)In winter, after breaking through a low-level inversion during descent and
assuming the pilot does not intervene,
a) lift most likely will decrease and visibility is likely to deteriorate.
b) lift most likely will increase and visibility is likely to improve.
c) thrust most likely will decrease and visibility is likely to improve.
d) thrust most likely will increase and visibility is likely to deteriorate.

18)Mark the statement most reasonable regarding a valley inversion.

a) Over night, cool dense air as a result of radiation cooling will descend along
the mountain slopes into the basin and lead to the development of a valley
inversion.
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b) Small scale density variations due to turbulent mixing (mainly caused by the
roughness of rocks) are a significant prerequisite for the formation of valley
inversions.
c) Provided that the lee side winds are able to displace the air at the bottom of the
basin, the Foehn effect is the predominant factor in the development of a valley
inversion.
d) If the incident solar radiation is non-uniform because of orographic conditions, the
development of a valley inversion is very likely during daytime.

19)An inversion is:

a) a decrease of pressure with height.
b) an increase of pressure with height.
c) a decrease of temperature with height.
d) an increase of temperature with height.

20)Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature

inversion?
a) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
b) Heating of the air by subsidence.
c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over
cold air.
d) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

21)A temperature inversion indicates a state of the atmosphere which is:

a) conditionally unstable.
b) absolutely unstable.
c) indifferent
d) absolutely stable.

22)A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by:

a) insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level.
b) the release of latent heat due to precipitation.
c) absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer.
d) adiabatic cooling due to subsidence.

23)The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to
the dew point, is likely to produce:
a) advection fog.
b) a cold front.
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c) good clear weather.

d) radiation fog.

24)Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a) Heat loss from the ground on clear nights.
b) Cold air passing over warm ground.
c) The passage of fronts.
d) Dry, warm air passing over warm ground.

25)Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
a) Cooling by the underlying surface.
b) Advection of colder air aloft.
c) Warming of the air mass from below.
d) Addition of water vapour in the lower layer.

26)Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
a) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
b) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
c) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a
sinking air mass
d) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night

27)In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal

depression move?
a) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
b) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
c) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
d) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.

28)Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

a) It is higher in winter than in summer.
b) It is higher at night than during the day.
c) It decreases with height.
d) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8 m.

29)The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is
normally lower in winter than in summer is that
a) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
b) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
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c) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development
of lows.
d) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much
greater in winter.

30)The radiosonde can directly measure:

a) air temperature, humidity, wind.
b) humidity, wind, atmospheric pressure.
c) atmospheric pressure, air temperature, humidity.
d) atmospheric pressure, air temperature, wind.

31)At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
a) lower than at the same height in a column of cold air.
b) higher than at the same height in a column of cold air.
c) depends on the relative humidity.
d) the same irrespective of the temperature.

32)Where is the wind speed of a polar front jet stream normally at its strongest?
a) In the area between a trough and a ridge.
b) In the area where the jet stream is curving around an anticyclone.
c) In the area where the jet stream is curving around a depression.
d) In the area of a trough.

33)What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
a) Convergence with lifting.
b) Convergence with descending air.
c) Divergence with descending air.
d) Divergence with lifting.

34)A cold air pool can be best identified by means of:

a) the isohypses on an upper air chart.
b) the isobars on a surface chart.
c) a GAMET report.
d) the CAT areas on a significant weather chart.

35)What positions are connected with contour lines (isohypses) on the weather chart?
a) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.
b) Positions with the same wind velocity.
c) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.
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d) Positions with the same air density.

36)The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
a) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper
air
b) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
c) the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force.
d) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure
system

37)What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
a) They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
b) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
c) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually
weaker.
d) The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind
direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is
weaker.

38)The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
a) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper
air.
b) the Coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure
system.
c) the Coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force.
d) the friction of the air with the Earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force.

39)Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

a) QFE
b) QNE
c) QFF
d) QNH

40)If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
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a) the airport must be at MSL

b) the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
c) the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA
d) the conditions must be as in the ISA

41)What is meant by QFF?

a) The pressure at mean sea level in standard atmospheric conditions.
b) The atmospheric pressure at the official aerodrome elevation.
c) The present atmospheric pressure at an aerodrome converted to mean sea level in
accordance with the ICAO standard atmosphere.
d) The present atmospheric pressure at an aerodrome converted to mean sea
level in accordance with the actual conditions.

42)The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

a) QFF
b) QNH
c) QFE
d) QNE

43)Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:

a) QNE
b) QFE
c) QNH
d) QFF

44)Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) should be anticipated when:

a) immediately after the passage of a thunderstorm.
b) a sharp trough area aloft is present with wind speed considerably higher than that
of jetstream winds.
c) a sharp trough area aloft is present, even though the wind speeds may be
considerably less than that of jetstream winds.
d) whenever a high pressure is present close to a thunderstorm area.

45)Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing
rain?
a) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0 °C.
b) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
c) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0
°C.
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d) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0 °C through which rain is
falling.

46)Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?

a) The warm front overtakes the cold front.
b) The warm front becomes a front aloft.
c) The cold front becomes a front aloft.
d) Both fronts become fronts aloft.

47)In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

a) the approach of a warm occlusion.
b) the formation of advection fog.
c) increasing probability for showers.
d) backing winds with increasing heights.

48)With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases
with increasing
a) air pressure
b) temperature
c) stability
d) relative humidity

49)At FL180, the air temperature is -35 °C. The air density at this level is:
a) greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
b) equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
c) less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
d) unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

50)In relation to "air density" which of the following responses are correct:
a) if the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease.
b) cold air is less dense than warm air.
c) air density is not influenced by air humidity.
d) dry warm air is less dense than cold air.

51)Which statement is true?

a) Air density generally increases as altitude increases.
b) Air density generally stays the same as altitude increases.
c) Air density generally decreases as altitude increases.
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d) Air density initially decreases with altitude and then increases again in the
stratosphere.

52)A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
a) reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density.
b) reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume.
c) maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume.
d) maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure.

53)An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH
is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying?
a) There is insufficient information to make any assumption.
b) Its average temperature is the same as ISA.
c) It is warmer than ISA.
d) It is colder than ISA.

54)An outside air temperature of -35 °C is measured while cruising at FL200. What is
the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 5 °C colder than ISA.
b) 10 °C colder than ISA.
c) 5 °C warmer than ISA.
d) 10 °C warmer than ISA.

55)If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value:
a) the 1013,25 hPa level must be at MSL.
b) the conditions must be as in the ISA.
c) the airport must be at MSL.
d) the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA.

56)What information is required to calculate a lowest usable flight level from a given
minimum safe altitude?
a) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA.
b) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
c) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
d) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from
ISA.
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57)What is the deviation of the temperature at FL140 above Copenhagen compared to

ISA? (Annex: question_att_id_33782)
a) 8 °C warmer than ISA.
b) 4 °C warmer than ISA.
c) 12 °C colder than ISA.
d) 8 °C colder than ISA.

58)Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the
ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
a) -273°C
b) -44.7°C
c) -56.5°C
d) -100°C

59)How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) At first it increases and higher up it decreases

60)Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a

position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
a) Warm depression
b) Cold low
c) Warm high
d) Cold high

61)An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local
QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?
a) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
b) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
c) It is warmer than ISA
d) It is colder than ISA

62)Given: Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa; Altimeter reading: 5000 ft; Outside air
temperature at 5000 ft: +5°C; QFE: 958 hPa; QNH: 983 hPa. What is the true
height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?
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a) 4190 FT
b) 3515 FT
c) 4865 FT
d) 4325 FT

63)Given: Altimeter setting: 1013 hPa; Altimeter reading: 5000 ft; Outside air
temperature at 5000 ft: +5 °C; QFE: 958 hPa; QNH: 983 hPa. What is the true
height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?
a) 3515 ft
b) 4865 ft
c) 4190 ft
d) 4325 ft

64)During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure?
a) It will remain the same
b) It will decrease
c) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
d) It will increase

65)Given: Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa; Altimeter reading: 5000 ft; Outside air
temperature at 5000 ft: +5°C; QFE: 958 hPa; QNH: 983 hPa. What is the true
height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?
a) 4190 FT
b) 3515 FT
c) 4865 FT
d) 4325 FT

66)What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield 3000 ft
above MSL, altimeter setting is QFE for the field and local temperature is +25 °C?
a) 3300 ft
b) 3000 ft
c) 0 ft
d) 2700 ft

67)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) The true altitude will be higher over A than over B.
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b) Wind speed over B is higher than over A.

c) Wind speed over Madrid is higher than over A.
d) The true altitude will be higher over B than over A.

68)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper-level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) Pressure gradient at A and at B is the same.
b) The true altitude will be higher over B than over A.
c) The true altitude will be higher over A than over B.

69)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper-level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) The true altitude will be higher over B than over A.
b) Wind speed over A is higher than over B.
c) Wind speed over Paris is higher than over B.
d) The true altitude will be higher over A than over B.

70)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper-level contour chart. The
altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) The true altitude will be higher over B than over A.
b) Wind speed over A and over B is the same.
c) The true altitude will be higher over A than over B.
d) Wind speed over B is higher than over A.

71)Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
a) At sea level when the temperature is 0°C
b) When the altimeter has no position error
c) At standard temperature
d) When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa

72)During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure?
a) It will increase
b) It will remain the same
c) It will decrease
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
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73)You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your altimeter
setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a minimum true
altitude? 1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that an area of high pressure. 2)
Flying from an area of high pressure to that an area of low pressure. 3) Flying
from a warm air mass to a cold air mass. 4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm
air mass.
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 2, 4

74)Your altimeter setting is blocked at 1000 hPa. You have to overfly a mountain
(8000 ft) with a terrain clearance of at least 1500 ft. What must be your minimum
indicated altitude when the QNH of a nearby airport is 990 hPa and the
temperature is 10 °C colder than ISA?
a) 10501 ft
b) 10150 ft
c) 9500 ft
d) 8850 ft

75)With which meteorological phenomena are wind shear conditions mostly

associated?
a) Gust fronts; low level temperature inversions; frontal surfaces.
b) Thunderstorms; drizzle; conditional instability.
c) Gust fronts; sea breeze fronts; high stratiform clouds.
d) Strong surface winds coupled with local topography; anticyclones; light
precipitation.

76)When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?

a) With gusts of at least 25 knots.
b) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed.
c) With gusts of at least 35 knots.
d) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed.

77)When front "D" passes position "E" the surface wind should
a) back and remain more or less at the same speed
b) veer and remain more or less at the same speed
c) back and decrease.
d) veer and increase.
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78)What surface wind is forecast for 22:00 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT
4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40
TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT
BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
a) Variable/05 kts.
b) Variable/15 to 25 kts.
c) 260°/10 kts.
d) Calm.

79)From indications shown on the chart, when front "S" passes the Paris-Orly airport
(LFPO) the surface wind should:
a) back and decrease.
b) veer and increase.
c) veer and remain more or less at the same speed.
d) back and remain more or less at the same speed.

80)The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
a) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper
air
b) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
c) the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force.
d) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure
system

81)The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the

a) sine of latitude
b) curvature of isobars
c) density of the air
d) horizontal pressure gradient

82)Geostrophic wind:
a) always increases with increasing height.
b) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force.
c) is directly proportional to the density of the air.
d) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere.
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83)Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The Coriolis force is directed in the same sense at all latitudes
b) The Coriolis force is inversely proportional to the sine of latitude
c) At the equator horizontal motions do not induce any horizontal Coriolis force
d) In gradient wind the Coriolis force is in balance with the horizontal pressure
gradient force and the frictional force

84)In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction
towards the low pressure area because:
a) turbulence is formed and pressure decreases.
b) the pressure gradient increases.
c) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases.
d) turbulence is formed and pressure increases.

85)The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:
a) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper
air.
b) the Coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure
system.
c) the Coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force.
d) the friction of the air with the Earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force.

86)Which force, in the Northern hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and
deflects it to the right until it is blowing parallel to the isobars (assuming outside
of friction layer)?
a) Coriolis.
b) Advection.
c) Pressure gradient.
d) Centrifugal.

87)Which statement concerning wind is correct for the Southern hemisphere?

a) In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height.
b) If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected.
c) The wind veers at the passage of a cold front.
d) The jet streams are easterly.
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88)At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes
from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind:
a) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer.
b) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer.
c) backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer.
d) veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer.

89)In an unsaturated layer in the friction layer the air is well mixed by turbulence.
The layer remains unsaturated. After some time the vertical temperature profile
will:
a) correspond to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
b) at first coincide with the average dry adiabat and then coincide with the average
saturated adiabat.
c) coincide with the average saturated adiabat in the layer.
d) always change toward a more stable position.

90)Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal depression

because of:
a) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air
in the depression.
b) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air
in the depression.
c) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air
in the depression.
d) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of
air in the depression.

91)Divergence in the upper air that is greater than the convergence in the friction
layer results, near the surface, in:
a) rising pressure and likely formation of clouds.
b) falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds.
c) rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds.
d) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds.

92)The intertropical convergence zone

a) forms the boundary between tropical and equatorial air
b) is characterized by different wind directions on both sides of the zone
c) nearly always coincides with the geographical equator
d) is always characterized by CB clouds with high tops
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93)A trough near the surface is an area of

a) divergence and subsidence
b) divergence and widespread ascent
c) convergence and widespread ascent
d) convergence and subsidence

94)Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?

a) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the
southern hemisphere.
b) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
c) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
d) The zone where the Harmattan meets the north-easterly trade winds over Africa.

95)A cold pool

a) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle
troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
b) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the
influence of cold north-westerly airstream
c) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
d) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic
air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high
pressure, in association with occluded systems

96)For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars the gradient wind speed
will be least at:
a) 50°N with a cyclonic circulation.
b) 30°N with a cyclonic circulation.
c) 50°N with anti-cyclonic circulation.
d) 30°N with anti-cyclonic circulation.

97)In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

a) at night up from the valley.
b) during the day up from the valley.
c) during the day down from the mountains.
d) at night down from the mountains.

98)Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of
the tropical oceans?
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a) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea.
b) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds along
sea passage.
c) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation.
d) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with
increase of height.

99)Assuming a generalized zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone
"T" is an area of:
a) SE trade winds.
b) NE trade winds.
c) traveling low pressure systems.
d) subtropical high-pressure systems.

100) The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a mountain is known
as:
a) anabatic wind.
b) katabatic wind.
c) foehn breeze.
d) valley wind.

101) The Foehn wind is a:

a) warm katabatic wind.
b) cold anabatic wind.
c) warm anabatic wind.
d) cold katabatic wind.

102) Which of the following statements regarding the development of valley

inversions is correct?
a) The most important prerequisite for the development of valley inversions is warm
air ascending along the mountain slope, thus leaving cooler air behind in the
bottom of the valley.
b) Valley inversions often are a result of radiation cooling in combination with
gravity, both affecting the air at the surface of a mountain slope.
c) The predominant factor in the development process of valley inversions is the
nonuniformity of incident solar radiation due to orographic conditions in
combination with density variations within the air.
d) Usually a valley inversion is initiated by radiation cooling and anabatic winds
which are due to orographic conditions.
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103) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

a) risk of orographic thunderstorms.
b) presence of valley winds.
c) development of thermal lows.
d) presence of mountain waves.

104) In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows

a) at night up from the valley
b) during the day down from the mountains
c) at night down from the mountains
d) during the day up from the valley

105) Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of
mountain waves?
a) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing
across the mountain ridge
b) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge
c) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge
d) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge

106) Mountain waves should be expected

a) on the downwind side of the mountain chain
b) on the upwind side of the mountain chain
c) directly over the mountain chain
d) when instability is high

107) When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most
severe turbulence be located?
a) Just above the cap cloud
b) On the windward side of the mountain range
c) In the rotor zone
d) Just below the tropopause

108) Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
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a) Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating
high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
b) The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves
c) Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than
flight with tailwind toward high ground
d) Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight
with headwind toward high ground

109) In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

a) Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
b) Severe mountain waves.
c) A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.
d) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.

110) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger
flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of
pressing importance at the time: EISN SIGMET 2 VALID 140800/141100 EINN-;
SHANNON FIR LOC SEV TURB FCST BLW FL050 S OF N53 WKN; LIMM
SIGMET 2; VALID 140900/141500 LIMM-; MILANO UIR MOD TO SEV CAT
FCST FL250/430 STNR NC; EGTT SIGMET 1; VALID 140800/141200 EGRB-;
LONDON FIR/UIR EMBD TS FCST BTN N52 AND N54 E OF E002 TOP
FL300 MOV E WKN. Which decision is correct?
a) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
b) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route
to be flown.
c) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the
route would demand too much of the passengers.
d) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.

111) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH-; SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR
MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF;
a) Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to
cross this area above FL 380
b) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
c) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north
of the Alps
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d) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.

Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380

112) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
a) Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
b) CAT for the first half of the flight
c) Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
d) Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence

113) In an unsaturated layer in the friction layer the air is well mixed by
turbulence. The layer remains unsaturated. After some time the vertical
temperature profile will
a) at first coincide with the average dry adiabat and then coincide with the average
wet adiabat.
b) always change toward a more stable position.
c) correspond to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
d) coincide with the average wet adiabat in the layer.

114) What kind of turbulence is caused by the friction of air flowing over the
earth's surface?
a) Turbulence in downdrafts.
b) Mechanical turbulence.
c) Clear air turbulence.
d) Convective turbulence.

115) What kind of turbulence is dependent on the Sun's radiation and therefore
follows a pronounced diurnal pattern?
a) Convective turbulence.
b) Mechanical turbulence.
c) Orographic turbulence.
d) Turbulence induced by wind speed.

116) Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

a) The environmental lapse rate is higher than 3°C / 1000 ft
b) The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
c) The environmental lapse rate is between the dry and the saturated adiabatic
lapse rate
d) The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C / 100 m
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117) In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of
these clouds depends on the:
a) thickness of the unstable layer.
b) pressure at different levels.
c) wind direction.
d) air pressure at the surface.

118) All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) are requested to report
it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food
service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as:
a) Moderate
b) Light
c) Extreme
d) Severe

119) The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional

to the:
a) height of the aircraft.
b) intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear.
c) intensity of the solar radiation.
d) stability of the air.

120) The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly
of the Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) type. In what way can Moderate to Severe
CAT affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
a) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage. The maneuvering
of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the
passengers the flight will be unpleasant.
b) The turbulence is wave-like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers
but the maneuvering will not be affected essentially.
c) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small
scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make
flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this
turbulence.
d) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to
maneuver. The passengers will feel some slight discomfort.
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121) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid the Clear
Air Turbulence effects?
a) Change of flight level.
b) Increase of speed.
c) Change of course.
d) Decrease of speed.

122) When CAT (Clear Air Turbulence) conditions are anticipated, the
following procedure should be used as soon as turbulent air penetration speed is
established:
a) the airspeed indicator should be used as primary flight instrument.
b) maintain wings level and control pitch attitude smoothly.
c) prepare the use of large control inputs to fight the excessive G-forces that may
occur.
d) the attitude indicator should be used as secondary flight instrument.

123) What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and
all the other jet streams ?
a) Wind direction.
b) Wind speed.
c) Horizontal dimension.
d) Vertical dimension.

124) Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

a) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
b) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
c) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
d) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur

125) Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually
located in the
a) tropical air above the tropopause
b) polar air above the tropopause
c) tropical air below the tropopause
d) polar air below the tropopause

126) At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific
usually strongest?
a) July
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b) October
c) There is no annual variation
d) January

127) Considering the sector Rome to 25°N on the route indicated, what mean
upper winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
a) Light westerlies
b) Variable easterlies
c) Easterlies at 40 kt
d) Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt

128) In the tropopause the position of so called "tropopause breaks" is important

for aviation because
a) winds will reverse direction in these breaks
b) moderate to severe icing often occurs in these breaks
c) the cores of jet streams can be located near these breaks
d) from this position the direction of movement of high pressure systems can be
derived

129) Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
a) Equatorial jet stream / Polar front jet stream.
b) Equatorial jet stream / Arctic jet stream.
c) Arctic jet stream / Subtropical jet stream.
d) Subtropical jet stream / Polar front jet stream.

130) What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to
Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL350 in July?
a) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second
polar front jet stream.
b) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
c) One subtropical jet stream.
d) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.

131) Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

a) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur.
b) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur.
c) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur.
d) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur.
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132) What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?
a) Polar front jet stream.
b) Arctic jet stream.
c) Tropical jet stream.
d) Sub-tropical jet stream.

133) Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
a) The arctic jet stream.
b) The polar night jet stream.
c) The subtropical jet stream.
d) The equatorial jet stream.

134) What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
a) 40 000 ft
b) 30 000 ft
c) 50 000 ft
d) 20 000 ft

135) What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ?
a) Equatorial jet stream
b) Sub-tropical jet stream
c) Arctic jet stream
d) Polar front jet stream

136) When water vapour condenses or water freezes:

a) heat is released and heat is required respectively.
b) heat is required and heat is released respectively.
c) heat is released in both cases.
d) heat is required in both cases.

137) A given mass of air is saturated with water vapour (no condensed water). If
temperature increases:
a) relative humidity increases.
b) the amount of water vapour decreases.
c) the amount of water vapour remains constant.
d) relative humidity remains constant.
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138) The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative
humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in
it?
a) It increases with increasing amount of water vapor.
b) It is only influenced by temperature.
c) It decreases with increasing amount of water vapor.
d) It is not influenced by changes in the amount of water vapor.

139) What is "mixing ratio"?

a) The number of grammes of water vapour per kilogramme of dry air.
b) The volume of water vapour which is mixed with each volume unit of dry air.
c) The percentage of water drops per volume unit of dry air.
d) The ratio between actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content.

140) Frontal fog can be formed:

a) due to evaporation of water at the surface.
b) due to cooling by night.
c) when there is adiabatic cooling and the air becomes saturated.
d) when the air becomes saturated due to evaporation of precipitation and water
vapour condenses

141) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the
weather conditions are most likely to be:
a) unlimited visibility.
b) clear and cool.
c) fog or low cloud.
d) high scattered clouds.

142) After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can
the base of these clouds become higher during the day?
a) The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a warm air
mass.
b) Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point temperature at
the initial condensation level becomes smaller.
c) Because the stability increases.
d) Because the surface temperature increases.

143) The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if:

a) air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another.
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b) the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate.

c) the sky is overcast.
d) the wind is strong.

144) Assuming that an initial "trigger" force is present, the conditions most
likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are:
a) high relative humidity and conditional instability throughout a deep layer.
b) intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing
level.
c) rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals.
d) high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate.

145) Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the
development of thunderstorms?
a) Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below
the freezing level and orographic lifting.
b) Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point
below 0 °C and considerable surface heating.
c) Environmental lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through
a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process.
d) Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level
below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds.

146) Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in

meteorology)?
a) Solid direct to vapour
b) Liquid direct to vapour
c) Liquid direct to solid
d) Solid direct to liquid

147) The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is
known as:
a) supercooling
b) sublimation
c) radiation cooling
d) supersaturation

148) If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
a) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.
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b) the same rate as if the air mass were dry.

c) a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.
d) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.

149) Frontal fog can be formed by

a) condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
b) cooling at night
c) condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
d) evaporation of moisture at the surface

150) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat absorbed?

a) Gas to liquid.
b) Solid to liquid.
c) Gas to solid.
d) Liquid to solid.

151) Which statement is true for condensation?

a) Latent heat is transformed into pure energy.
b) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
c) Precipitation forms.
d) Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

152) A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by:

a) insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level.
b) the release of latent heat due to precipitation.
c) absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer.
d) adiabatic cooling due to subsidence.

153) Fog and cloud formation takes place by:

a) evaporation.
b) condensation.
c) none of the above.
d) sublimation.

154) Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when:

a) in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is
situated below the top of the turbulent layer.
b) absolute instability exists at low level.
c) the wind speed is less than 10 kts and the air is heated by the Earth's surface.
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d) the wind speed is greater than 10 kts and the condensation level is situated just
above the turbulent layer.

155) What is a Foehn wind?

a) It is a flow of warm air up a slope of a hill caused by surface heating.
b) It is a warm and moist anabatic wind that usually carries precipitation.
c) It is an adiabatically heated wind blowing down a mountain side. The temperature
on the lee side is normally lower than on the windward side of the mountain at the
same level.
d) It is an adiabatically heated wind blowing down a mountain side. The
temperature on the lee side is normally higher than on the windward side of
the mountain at the same level.

156) Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:

a) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate.
b) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic
lapse rate.
c) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate.
d) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic
lapse rate.

157) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

a) 2°C/1000FT
b) 0.65°C/100m
c) 1°C/100m
d) 0.5°C/100m

158) The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
adiabatic lapse rate in:
a) freezing fog
b) stratus
c) cirrus
d) cumulus

159) For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
a) environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than
dry adiabatic lapse rate
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b) environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c) dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than
environmental lapse rate
d) environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated
adiabatic lapse rate

160) In case of fronts, what cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels
when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?
a) Altostratus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Cumulus.
d) Cumulonimbus.

161) The formation of a thermal low pressure is by:

a) a temperature rise in an area in relation to the environment.
b) a dynamic effect.
c) advection of cold air.
d) advection of warm air.

162) Convective weather phenomena include:

a) heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large area.
b) thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog.
c) thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes.
d) hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum.

163) Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air
mass thunderstorms?
a) Mountain waves.
b) Advection of cold air over a warm sea.
c) Low level windshear.
d) Advection of warm air over a cold sea.

164) In which of the following situations is the probability for severe

thunderstorms the highest?
a) Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface.
b) Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface.
c) Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface.
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d) Advection of warm air over a cold land surface.

165) In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated

with standing waves are likely to be experienced:
a) on the windward side of the mountain just above the "cap" cloud.
b) in the vicinity of the "roll" cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the
leeward side.
c) between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and
close to the tropopause.
d) just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side.

166) While using the airborne weather radar in order to circumnavigate

thunderstorms, the radar scope is clear between heavy echoes. Which of the
following interpretations of the scope is correct?
a) The clear area indicates an area from which no echoes are received. However,
this radar scope provides no assurance of being in VMC while flying in this
area.
b) The clear area indicates an area from which no echoes are received because the
number of cloud droplets is too small to generate a significant echo. Thus, the pilot
will have a good visual sight of the thunderstorm clouds.
c) This is a typical radar scope from which the region of clear air turbulence between
thunderstorm clouds can be detected.
d) The clear area indicates an area from which no echoes are received. An aircraft
flying in this area will be in VMC due to the absence of precipitation drops.

167) Among the ten groups of clouds, the following two are mentioned
specifically in MET reports and forecasts intended for aviation:
a) altocumulus and stratus.
b) cirrostratus and cumulonimbus.
c) cumulonimbus and towering cumulus.
d) cumulonimbus and nimbostratus.

168) How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather
Chart?
a) EMBD CB.
b) ISOL CB.
c) FREQ CB.
d) OCNL CB.
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169) If weather conditions are reported as "CAVOK", which of the following

could not be present:
a) overcast cloud at 5100 ft.
b) wind speed of 25 kts, gusting to 40 kts.
c) TCU cloud at 7500 ft
d) 1 okta of CB at 9000 ft.

170) Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface

temperature inversion ?
a) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
b) Heating of the air by subsidence
c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over
cold air.
d) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

171) Which of the following is a possible consequence of subsidence?

a) Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation
b) CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area
c) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
d) An inversion over a large area with haze, mist

172) An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

a) remains constant with height
b) decreases with height less than 1°C/100m
c) increases with height
d) decreases with height more than 1°C/100m

173) An inversion is
a) an increase of temperature with height
b) a decrease of temperature with height
c) a decrease of pressure with height
d) an increase of pressure with height

174) The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are
a) wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains -
intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
b) wind direction parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range - wind
speed increasing with height - intense surface heating
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c) wind direction parallel to the mountain range - wind speed increasing with height -
extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopause
d) wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range - wind
speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height - an inversion just above the
crest level with less stable air above and below

175) What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus
clouds?
a) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.
b) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing.
c) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice.
d) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing.

176) In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated

with standing waves are likely to be experienced
a) on the windward side of the mountain just above the 'cap' cloud
b) just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side
c) in the vicinity of the 'roll' cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the
leeward side
d) between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and
close to the tropopause

177) Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus (CB) at summertime are:

a) hazy weather combined with drizzle and turbulence.
b) bad visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence.
c) bad visibility, continuous rain and little turbulence.
d) good visibility, intervals of fine weather and little turbulence.

178) What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
a) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice.
b) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing.
c) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing.
d) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.

179) According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to
the presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
a. < 5000 m
b. >5000 m
c. < or = 5000 m
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d. >or = 5000 m

180) Which statement is correct?

a) Mist and haze consist of water droplets.
b) Fog can be supercooled and can also contain ice crystals.
c) Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility.
d) Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics.

181) An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by:

a) stratiform cloud.
b) continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud.
c) cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation.
d) poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels.

182) When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is
classified as:
a) dust fog
b) fog
c) mist
d) haze

183) Compare meteorological visibility: (Note: RA = rain, DZ = drizzle, FG =

fog, SN = snow, BR = mist)
a) visibility is greater in RA than in DZ.
b) visibility is greater in FG than in DZ.
c) visibility is lower in BR than in +SN.
d) visibility is lower in RA than in DZ.

184) The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
a) fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods).
b) cloud, fog, mist, spray or precipitation.
c) cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog.
d) cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation.

185) TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810
0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007 =. Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
expected at 12:00 UTC?
a) Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 feet.
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b) Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, wind calm.
c) Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots.
d) Visibility 2,5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots.

186) In a METAR message, abbreviations "BR" and "HZ" mean respectively:

a) BR = fog; HZ = haze.
b) BR = mist; HZ = widespread dust.
c) BR = mist; HZ = smoke.
d) BR = mist; HZ = haze.

187) What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

a) 2 000 FT.
b) 5 000 FT.
c) 500 FT.
d) 10 000 FT.

188) What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog ?
a) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection
fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
b) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is
formed by evaporation over the sea.
c) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime
cooling.
d) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.

189) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having a temperature of 15°C
and a dew point of 12°C blows at 10 KT over a sea surface having temperatures of
5°C?
a) Radiation fog
b) Advection fog
c) Frontal fog
d) Steam fog

190) Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

a) Advection fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Frontal fog
d) Arctic smoke
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191) Advection fog is most likely to form when

a) cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
b) a mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is
less than 10 kt
c) warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is
greater than 15 kt
d) cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than
15 kt

192) Which is true of advection fog?

a) It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
b) It develops slowly and clears fast
c) It usually forms by night and clears by day
d) It can appear suddenly by day or by night

193) The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types
of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively
a) frontal fog and advection fog
b) advection fog and steaming fog
c) arctic smoke and frontal fog
d) advection fog and radiation fog

194) The weather most likely to be experienced near to position 'A' is

a) advection fog and drizzle
b) frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation
c) clear skies - radiation fog at night
d) overcast layer cloud - rain later

195) The weather most likely to be experienced at position 'B' is

a) mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle
b) scattered stratocumulus with good visibility
c) clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility
d) frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers

196) Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:

a) that is stable.
b) with warm mass properties.
c) with cold mass properties.
d) that is absolutely stable.
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197) Frontal fog is most likely to occur

a) in rear of a warm front
b) in advance of a warm front
c) in winter in the early morning
d) in summer in the early morning

198) Frontal fog will most likely dissipate with

a) the passage of a warm front
b) a decrease in wind speed
c) backing of the wind
d) decreasing intensity of precipitation

199) Which of the following circumstances most favours the development of

frontal fog?
a) Increase of the relative humidity by evaporation of rain drops.
b) Nocturnal radiation.
c) Absolutely unstable air.
d) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea.

200) Which of the following statements is true concerning orographic fog?

a) It is formed when air is forced to rise up a slope.
b) It usually forms by night.
c) It develops when air is descending down a slope.
d) It usually forms by day.

201) Which of the following statements is true concerning orographic fog?

a) It forms suddenly by day but not by night.
b) It may be formed by day as well as by night.
c) It develops slowly and dissipates rapidly.
d) It is formed when the air is unstable.

202) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "S" is: Note: position
"S" is located in the area of "Cambrian Mountains".
a) overcast with drizzle and orographic fog.
b) small amounts of CU with generally good visibility.
c) scattered thunderstorms and good visibility.
d) increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain.
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203) The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position "Q" is
a) mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight.
b) showery precipitation with generally good visibility.
c) thunderstorms with showers particularly at night.
d) mainly overcast with poor visibility.

204) Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 18:00 UTC. What type of precipitation is
forecast on the approach to Bordeaux? TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT
9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB
PROB30 TSRA =
a) Heavy rain showers.
b) Continuous moderate rain.
c) Moderate snow showers.
d) Light drizzle and fog.

205) Which of the following statements concerning airborne weather radar is

correct?
a) It shows on a plan position indicator the areas of precipitation of rain, snow
and/or hail.
b) It shows the areas which are dangerous for aircraft icing. The intensity levels for
aircraft icing as defined by ICAO are indicated by contour lines.
c) It can also be used for proximity warning and anti-collision protection.
d) The indication on the plan position indicator represents the amount (mm/h) of
water vapour within clouds.

206) What is the meaning of the different coloured areas on a plan position
indicator of an airborne weather radar?
a) Different horizontal dimensions of clouds.
b) Different intensities of turbulence (light, moderate, severe) within clouds.
c) Different ranges of cloud thickness (vertical extent).
d) Different ranges of intensities of precipitation.

207) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at

the time they are observed?
a) TS
b) DZ
c) SQ
d) SA
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208) What is the meaning of "RERA" in a METAR?

a) There has been moderate or heavy rain since the last issue of METAR.
b) It is presently not raining, but there has been rain 2 hours ago.
c) The intensity of rain is decreasing (Retrograding Rain).
d) There is showery precipitation in the vicinity.

209) An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the

location of:
a) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of
hail.
b) zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and also their
intensity.
c) stratocumulus and its vertical development.
d) all clouds.

210) The weather most likely to be experienced near to position "A" is advection
fog and drizzle.
a) overcast layer cloud - rain later.
b) clear skies - radiation fog at night.
c) frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation.

211) Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most
likely to fall in mid-latitudes?
a) Moderate rain with large drops
b) Drizzle
c) Hail
d) Heavy rain with large drops

212) Large hail stones

a) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
b) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
c) only occur in frontal thunderstorms
d) are entirely composed of clear ice

213) How do air masses move at a warm front ?

a) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
b) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
c) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
d) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
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214) How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?

a) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air
is above ground level.
b) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm
air mass is above ground level.
c) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air
mass is above ground level.
d) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the
warm air mass is above ground level.

215) Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
a) At the center of a HIGH pressure system.
b) In the transition zone between two air masses.
c) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter
months.
d) At the center of a LOW pressure system.

216) Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between
two air masses?
a) Radiation fog.
b) An unstable low pressure.
c) A ridge of high pressure.
d) A frontal low pressure.

217) How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?

a) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the
warm air mass is above ground level.
b) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air
mass is above ground level.
c) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air
is above ground level.
d) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm
air mass is above ground level.

218) If cold air is being "replaced" by warm air, the boundary between the air
masses is called:
a) a warm front.
b) an arctic front.
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c) a polar front.
d) a cold front.

219) Significant weather phenomena are usually associated with a low pressure
areas because of:
a) convergence.
b) divergence.
c) convergence with lifting of air masses.
d) a sinking of the air masses.

220) In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

a) Continental polar air.
b) Maritime arctic air.
c) Continental tropical air.
d) Maritime polar air.

221) The air mass affecting position "A" is most likely to be

a) Maritime polar.
b) Maritime tropical.
c) Continental polar.
d) Continental tropical.

222) The air mass affecting position "S" is most likely to be Maritime polar and
unstable.
a) Maritime polar and stable.
b) Maritime tropical and stable.
c) Continental tropical and unstable.

223) The air mass affecting position "P" is most likely to be

a) Maritime polar.
b) Continental polar.
c) Maritime tropical.
d) Continental tropical.

224) The air mass affecting position "P" is most likely to be

a) continental polar.
b) continental tropical.
c) maritime polar.
d) maritime tropical.
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225) What characterizes a stationary front?

a) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front.
b) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air.
c) The surface wind has its direction parallel to the front.
d) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an
intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front.

226) In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression

move?
a) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
b) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
c) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
d) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.

227) In which general direction does a polar front depression move?

a) Along the front towards the west.
b) Along the front towards the east.
c) Across the front towards the south.
d) Across the front towards the north.

228) What is signified if an occlusion is described as "cold"?

a) On meeting the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface.
b) The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the
associated cold front.
c) The air ahead of the associated warm front is colder than the air behind the
associated cold front.
d) It derives from a polar depression.

229) Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar
frontal wave have moved (after a certain time)? (Annex: question_att_id_33216)
a) Position 3.
b) Position 2.
c) Position 1.
d) Position 4.

230) A stable humid warm air mass slowly overrides a cold one. Which one of
the following weather types may originate from this condition?
a) Warm front dissipation.
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b) The formation of thunder storms.

c) The forming of a cold front.
d) The forming of a warm front.

231) What types of cloud will you see flying at FL50 towards a warm front?
a) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin.
b) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB.
c) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front.
d) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening
AS.

232) What is true about thunderstorms?

a) They only occur, when a cold front occlusion is present.
b) They occur at cold fronts only.
c) They occur only in the summertime.
d) They can exceptionally occur at a warm front, when the warm air is
conditional unstable.

233) On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0650Z
19002KT 3000 SCT280 08/07 Q1019 BECMG 5000 =; 0850Z 21004KT 8000
BKN280 10/07 Q1019 NOSlG =; 1050Z 22007KT CAVOK 14/06 Q1017 NOSlG
=; 1250Z 22012KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 BKN250 16/07 Q1016 NOSlG =;
1450Z 22015KT 9999 SCT040 OVC080 17/08 Q1014 NOSlG =; 1650Z 23014KT
8000 -RA SCT030 OVC070 16/10 Q1013 TEMPO 3000 =; 1850Z 24018KT 4000
+RA SCT010 BKN020 OVC040 16/12 Q1011 NOSIG=; 2050Z 26009KT 8000
SHRA SCT030 BKN080 19/13 Q1012 NOSIG =. You conclude, that:
a) a warm front early in the morning, and a cold front in the evening have passed the
station.
b) a cold front in the morning, and a second cold front in the afternoon have passed
the station.
c) a north foehn weather pattern prevailed the entire day.
d) a warm front has passed the station during the day.

234) The front labelled "F" is a: (Annex: question_att_id_33794)

a) cold front.
b) warm occlusion.
c) warm front.
d) cold occlusion.
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235) What does zone B depict?

a) A trough.
b) A ridge.
c) The cold front.
d) The warm sector.

236) The front lying across the route between 50°W and 60°W is a
a) occluded front above the surface moving east.
b) cold front above the surface moving east.
c) quasi-stationary front at the surface.
d) cold front on the surface moving east.

237) The front identified by circle "G" is a

a) warm front.
b) cold front.
c) cold occlusion.
d) warm occlusion.

238) On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450Z
24009KT 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1014 NOSlG=; 0650Z 24010KT 6000
SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSlG=; 0850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13
Q1009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS=; 1050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015
SCT050CB OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW=; 1250Z 31016KT 9999
SCT025TCU BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSlG=; 1450Z 30012KT 9999 SHRA
BKN020TCU 14/10 Q1011 NOSlG =; 1650Z 30009KT 9999 SHRA SCT025
BKN035 13/10 Q1013 NOSIG=; 1850Z 28006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q1014
NOSlG=2050Z 26004KT CAVOK 10/08 Q1015 NOSIG=. You conclude, that:
a) a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have passed the
station.
b) a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather
prevailed in the afternoon.
c) a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the
station.
d) a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather
prevailed in the afternoon.

239) What is the best way in dealing with thunderstorms associated with a cold
front?
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a) Flying through the upper third of the clouds to prevent the aircraft from being
struck by lightning.
b) Flying through the front with maximum speed and perpendicular to the front line
in order to minimize the time of hazard exposure.
c) Flying underneath the cloud base in all cases.
d) Avoidance of embedded CBs by using airborne weather radar.

240) In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal

depression move?
a) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
b) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
c) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
d) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.

241) What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front
depression over Central Europe in the summer?
a) Sky clear
b) BKN CU and CB
c) ST with drizzle
d) Fair weather CU

242) Depressions associated with developing frontal waves can be assumed to

move in the direction of the 3000 feet wind
a) ahead of the warm front
b) behind the cold front
c) in the warm sector
d) at the apex of the wave

243) The warm sector is indicated by

a) number 4
b) number 1
c) number 3
d) number 2

244) Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000
feet wind:
a) in the warm sector.
b) at the apex of the wave.
c) behind the cold front.
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d) in front of the warm front.

245) When a cold front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity:
a) decreases when it reaches the mountains.
b) is not disturbed by the mountains.
c) strengthens "upwind" of the mountains.
d) ceases immediately.

246) When flying through a cold front from the warm air side in the summer, the
following flying weather may be expected:
a) towering clouds with showery precipitation.
b) towering clouds without turbulence.
c) horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases.
d) horizontally extended clouds with drizzle.

247) What type of precipitation would you expect at an active cold front
preceded by unstable warm air?
a) Light to moderate continuous rain.
b) Freezing rain.
c) Drizzle.
d) Showers associated with thunderstorms.

248) Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal
depression in the northern hemisphere is correct?
a) The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the precipitation
zone of the warm front.
b) The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead of
and behind the cold front.
c) The wind veers more at the warm front than at the cold front.
d) While occluding the warm front never becomes a front aloft.

249) What can be said about showers at a cold front?

a) They occur mostly in stable air.
b) Unstable air is present.
c) NS clouds are present.
d) It is a sign for a cold occlusion.

250) An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

a) the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead.
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b) the cold air ahead is lifted.

c) the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air.
d) the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead.

251) In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

a) the approach of a warm occlusion.
b) the formation of advection fog.
c) increasing probability for showers.
d) backing winds with increasing heights.

252) The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position "P", is
a) a warm front.
b) an occlusion on the surface.
c) a cold front.
d) an occlusion above the surface.

253) On a weather chart an occlusion is indicated by a coloured line of:

a) Yellow
b) Violet
c) Green
d) Black

254) What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

a) Cold front.
b) Warm occlusion.
c) Cold occlusion.
d) Warm front.

255) What characterizes a stationary front ?

a) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
b) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an
intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front
c) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
d) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front

256) The front located from 10°W to 10°E is most likely to be

a) an active warm front moving north
b) a quasi-stationary front
c) a cold front moving south
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d) an active occlusion moving south

257) What are the colours with which a stationary front is shown on a surface
chart?
a) Blue and violet
b) Violet and red
c) Red and green
d) Red and blue

258) Which of the following symbols represents a quasi-stationary front?

a) Symbol 3
b) Symbol 2
c) Symbol 4
d) Symbol 1

259) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

a) in an air mass with cold mass properties.
b) behind of a stationary front.
c) ahead of a cold front.
d) at an occluded front.

260) Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal
wave have moved to (after a certain time)?
a) Position 3
b) Position 4
c) Position 2
d) Position 1

261) A non-occluded frontal wave passes the airport. What form of precipitation
do you expect?
a) Continuous rain or snow during several hours until the warm front arrives.
The precipitation stops for several hours or becomes intermittent light within
the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers will occur.
b) Rain or snow for about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm
sector rainfall increases. On the arrival of the cold front precipitation ceases.
c) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm
sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.
d) Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24
hours.
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262) Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar
frontal wave have moved?
a) Position 1
b) Position 4
c) Position 2
d) Position 3

263) What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure
area?
a) Advection.
b) Convergence.
c) Convection.
d) Subsidence.

264) The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high
pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
a) subsidence inversion
b) trade wind inversion
c) radiation inversion
d) friction inversion

265) What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

a) High pressure area over Italy
b) Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
c) Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea
d) High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea

266) What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?

a) The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.
b) The lower limit of the tropopause.
c) The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 400.
d) The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.

267) Troughs are extensions of

a) high pressure areas and generally have small amounts of cloud
b) low pressure areas and generally have large amounts of cloud
c) high pressure areas and generally have large amounts of cloud
d) low pressure areas and generally have small amounts of cloud
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268) In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:

a) clockwise around anticyclones and cyclones.
b) clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anticyclones.
c) clockwise around anticyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones.
d) direct from high to low pressure areas.

269) Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved

isobars the speed of the gradient wind is:
a) less than the geostrophic wind.
b) the same as the thermal component.
c) greater than the geostrophic wind.
d) proportional only to the Coriolis force.

270) Which of the following is correct regarding a warm anticyclone?

a) It weakens with altitude.
b) It increases in intensity with increasing altitude.
c) Apart from a surface inversion, the temperature increases with increasing altitude.
d) It remains the same strength up to the tropopause.

271) Imagine an aircraft during approach to an airfield which is located in a

basin within mountainous area under the influence of a blocking anticyclone in
winter. Mark the most reasonable statement given below.
a) While approaching the airfield in the late evening hours, without the pilot's
intervention the engines of the aircraft are most likely to provide less thrust after
breaking through the inversion layer.
b) While approaching the airfield in the early morning hours, these conditions apply
for the possibility of a marked valley inversion which has to be considered as a
potential flight hazard due to a decreased lift after breaking through the inversion
layer.
c) While approaching the airfield in the early morning, after a short period of
bumpiness the engines of the aircraft will deliver more thrust after breaking
through the inversion layer if the pilot does not intervene.
d) While approaching the airfield shortly before sunrise, the pilot has to consider
turbulence because at first lift will be decreased due to katabatic winds and, after
breaking through a valley inversion layer, lift is likely to improve due to anabatic
winds.
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272) Imagine an airfield during summer with sunny days and clear nights and
with a runway parallel to the shoreline of a large inland lake 5 NM away from the
field. A small aircraft heading for the airfield in the afternoon experiences wind
shear during approach and a cross wind component which makes landing difficult.
The origin of the wind shear and cross wind is most likely to be seen in:
a) a subsidence inversion typical for summer anticyclones causing variations in wind
speed and direction near the surface.
b) a strong land breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway.
c) a strong sea breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway.
d) a radiation inversion due to surface cooling during the clear night.

273) You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country
area. An anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind
affecting you, will be:
a) from your right.
b) from behind.
c) from ahead.
d) from your left.

274) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a

depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and north of the
observer. For this observer the wind direction is:
a) veering.
b) initially backing, then veering.
c) backing.
d) initially veering, then backing.

275) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a

depression and experiencing the associated wind effects. The centre of the
depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer
the wind direction is:
a) initially backing, then veering.
b) continuously veering.
c) initially veering, then backing.
d) continuously backing.

276) A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation
do you expect?
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a) Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24
hours.
b) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm
sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
c) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm
sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.
d) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The
precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of
the cold front, showers within a couple of hours.

277) The arrows labelled "T" represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from:
a) December to April and are called hurricanes.
b) June to October and are called tornadoes.
c) June to October and are called cyclones.
d) June to October and are called hurricanes.

278) Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the
south Atlantic because
a) there is no coriolis force present.
b) of the strong southeast wind.
c) of the low water temperature.
d) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.

279) The arrows labelled 'S' represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from
a) May to November and are called hurricanes
b) December to April and are called cyclones
c) December to April and are called typhoons
d) May to November and are called cyclones

280) The arrows labelled 'U' represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from
a) July to October and are called typhoons
b) December to April and are called tornadoes
c) May to July and are called cyclones
d) January to March and are called willy-willies

281) What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?

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a) Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical

high pressure belt.
b) The equatorial jet stream.
c) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.
d) Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.

282) What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the
presence of a tropical revolving storm?
a) Frequent SC.
b) NS spread over a large area.
c) Excessive accumulation of CU.
d) Dense CI.

283) Tropical revolving storms are not formed in:

a) south Indian ocean.
b) south Atlantic ocean.
c) waters around the Philippines.
d) gulf of Bengal.

284) The arrows labelled "R" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from:
a) June to October and are called typhoons.
b) December to April and are called cyclones.
c) June to October and are called hurricanes.
d) December to April and are called tornadoes.

285) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water
vapour?
a) Lower stratosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Ozone layer
d) Upper stratosphere

286) The thickness of the troposphere varies with

a) longitude
b) latitude
c) the wind
d) rotation of the earth
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287) The troposphere is the

a) part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
b) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
c) part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
d) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

288) The radiation of the sun heats

a) the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
b) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
c) the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
d) the air in the troposphere directly

289) In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
a) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
b) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.
c) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.
d) remains constant at all levels.

290) Central Europe is situated in the zone of:

a) snow climate.
b) dry climate.
c) subarctic climate.
d) mid-latitude climate.

291) What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

a) Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year.
b) Because the Earth's spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the
Sun.
c) Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year.
d) Because the Earth's orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the
year.

292) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the savannah

climate?
a) There are no significant yearly variations in rainfall but there are constant daily
variations.
b) There are significant yearly variations in rainfall with a wet and a dry period.
c) The annual mean temperature is above 25°C.
d) Little or no rainfall occurs.
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293) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the mediterranean

climate?
a) Hot summers alternate with cold winters.
b) In winter it is influenced only by the subtropical high pressure belt.
c) It is not influenced by the westerlies.
d) The annual rainfall is significantly below 700 mm.

294) Which climatic type is to be expected between 10°N and 10°S?

a) Warm temperate rain climate.
b) Tropical transitional climate.
c) Dry climate.
d) Tropical rain climate.

295) Which of the following is typical for the snow (tundra) climate?
a) High pressure weather dominates in summer.
b) Travelling depressions during winter time.
c) Temperatures generally between +5 and +18°C throughout the whole year.
d) High pressure weather dominates in winter, with the sub-soil being frozen.

296) With regard to temperature, which of the following is correct for the polar
climates?
a) The mean temperature of all months is below minus 10°C.
b) The mean temperature of all months is below plus 10°C.
c) The mean temperature of the warmest month is 10°C or above, and of the coldest
month below minus 3°C.
d) The mean temperature of all months is above 0°C, but temperatures as high as plus
10°C will never be reached.

297) On which side of an easterly wave are thunderstorms most likely to

develop?
a) On the south side of the wave.
b) On the north side of the wave.
c) On the east side of the wave.
d) On the west side of the wave.

298) What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold
air pool?
a) Nothing (CAVOK).
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b) Strong westerly winds.

c) Showers and thunderstorms.
d) Fine weather CU.

299) Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical

convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?
a) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area
of the ITCZ.
b) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
c) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.
d) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.

300) Where can windshear associated with a thunderstorm be found? (Choose

the most complete answer.)
a) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side).
b) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
c) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
d) Ahead of the roll clouds or gust front.

301) What are squall lines?

a) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
b) Unusual intensive cold fronts.
c) The paths of tropical revolving storms.
d) Bands of intensive thunderstorms.

302) Cold air pools

a) can easily be recognized on synoptic surface charts
b) only occur at mid-latitudes
c) are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels
d) only occur in winter

303) A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:

a) divergence and subsidence
b) divergence and widespread ascent
c) convergence and widespread ascent
d) convergence and subsidence

304) An area on a synoptic chart appearing as a "V-shaped" extension of a low

pressure area is called a:
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a) trough
b) occlusion
c) col
d) ridge

305) What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

a) Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps.
b) High pressure area over Italy.
c) Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea.
d) High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea.

306) Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be
encountered?
a) Near the Canary Islands
b) In the vicinity of Dakar
c) At the latitudes of Algeria
d) At the latitudes of Gibraltar

307) Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
a) SW monsoon and NW monsoon
b) SW monsoon and NW trade winds
c) SE trade winds and NE trade winds
d) NW monsoon and SW trade winds

308) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement
of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?
a) It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5°S in January.
b) It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15°N - 20°N in July.
c) It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10°N.
d) It oscillates during the year between 10°N and 10°S.

309) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement
of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?
a) It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July
b) It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.
c) It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.
d) It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January

310) A cumulus congestus is:

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a) a cumulus that is of great vertical extent.

b) a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ.
c) a cumulus with little vertical development.
d) a remnant of a CB.

311) The SW monsoon starts in the month of:

a) September in Pakistan to reach southern India in November.
b) December in southern India to reach Pakistan in May.
c) March in southern India to reach Pakistan at the end of April.
d) June in southern India to reach Pakistan in July.

312) Which of the following statements concerning the airflow during the
summer monsoon is correct?
a) Westerly airflow over Japan.
b) Northeasterly airflow over India.
c) Southwesterly airflow over India.
d) Easterly airflow over Japan.

313) What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of
India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
a) South-east trade wind.
b) Indian, maritime tropical air mass.
c) Winter monsoon.
d) South-west monsoon.

314) Weather conditions at Mumbai (India) during January are mainly

influenced by the:
a) SW monsoon.
b) NE monsoon.
c) SE monsoon.
d) NW monsoon.

315) In the METAR code the abbreviation "VCBLDU" means:

a) an active duststorm.
b) blowing dust in the vicinity.
c) an active dust- and sandstorm.
d) an active sandstorm.

316) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is:

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a) early morning fog lifting to low stratus.

b) overcast with drizzle and hill fog.
c) increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain.
d) fine and warm at first - AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with
thunderstorms.

317) What weather is prevalent in easterly waves?

a) Thunderstorms and rain.
b) Frontal weather.
c) Clear skies.
d) Continuous rain.

318) Where are easterly waves found?

a) On the poleward side of the subtropical high-pressure belt.
b) Between subtropical high-pressure cells and ITCZ.
c) In the temperate latitudes.
d) In the region of the subtropical jet stream.

319) Considering a route from Rome to Nairobi - the portion of this route from
10°N to Nairobi, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most
likely to be:
a) easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kts.
b) westerlies in excess of 60 kts.
c) westerlies at 40 kts.
d) light easterlies.

320) Where are the westerlies to be expected?

a) In the mid-latitudes.
b) In the subtropical high-pressure belt.
c) Between 65° and 80° north or south.
d) Between 10° and 30° north or south.

321) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-
pressure areas ?
a) Coriolis force
b) The pressure gradient force
c) Katabatic force
d) Surface friction
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322) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-
pressure belt ?
a) 35° - 55°.
b) 10° - 15°.
c) 55° - 75°.
d) 25° - 35°.

323) In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (VST), the wind speed
around a high-pressure system (VHIGH) and the wind speed around a low-
pressure system (VLOW) in the Southern hemisphere are being compared while
pressure gradient and latitude are constant. Which statement is correct?
a) VST < VHIGH and VST > VLOW.
b) VST > VHIGH and VST > VLOW.
c) VST > VHIGH and VST < VLOW.
d) VST < VHIGH and VST < VLOW.

324) The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by
a) long streaks of cirrus clouds.
b) a high-pressure centre at high level
c) a constant outside air temperature
d) dust or haze at high level

325) Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of
freezing rain?
a) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
b) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C into air
with a temperature above 0°C.
c) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is
falling.
d) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below
0°C.

326) The Foehn wind is a

a) warm katabatic wind
b) cold anabatic wind
c) warm anabatic wind
d) cold katabatic wind
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327) What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes
blows over a certain part of Europe (France)?
a) Foehn.
b) Bora.
c) Mistral.
d) Typhoon.

328) What are the characteristics of the Bora?

a) It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a north-westerly direction
in the Mediterranean
b) It is a warm and moist, south-westerly wind experienced in the eastern
Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation.
c) It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland
(plateau) downwards to the Adriatic
d) It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara Desert, that often
carries dust.

329) The Harmattan is a

a) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.
b) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West
African coast south of 15°N.
c) localised depression giving squally winds.
d) NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing
visibility in rising dust.

330) For an aircraft at FL40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the
direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the
form of:
a) severe turbulence associated with CB.
b) clear ice accretion to the airframe.
c) severe downdraughts from subsiding air.
d) severe turbulence and windshear.

331) An aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The

crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look clear though.
The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that:
a) the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing with fluid of the correct type.
b) nothing particular will happen during take-off.
c) the aircraft will take-off within the normal runway length.
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d) there is a slight risk of ice accretion.

332) Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:

a) between 0 °C and -17 °C in AS.
b) between 0 °C and -17 °C in ST.
c) below -40 °C in CB.
d) between 0 °C and -23 °C in large CU.

333) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick
profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud
consists of small, supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most
correct concerning ice accretion?
a) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing.
b) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
c) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
d) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.

334) For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the
direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the
form of (Annex: question_att_id_: 4186)
a) severe turbulence associated with CB
b) clear ice accretion to the airframe
c) severe downdrafts from subsiding air
d) severe turbulence and wind shear

335) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

a) small, supercooled water drops
b) water vapour
c) snow
d) large, supercooled water drops

336) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
a) large, supercooled water drops.
b) water vapour.
c) small, supercooled water drops.
d) snow.

337) You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250
kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?
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a) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe clear ice.

b) Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.
c) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.
d) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.

338) What are the conditions required for the formation of hoar frost?
a) Falling droplets on a surface while the air temperature is below freezing.
b) The temperature of the surface is lower than the dew point of the air and the
dew point is lower than 0°C.
c) Falling droplets on a surface with a temperature below freezing.
d) The temperature of the surface is higher than the dew point of the air and the dew
point is lower than 0°C.

339) Which of the following combinations is most characteristic of unstable air

behind a cold front?
a) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumuliform clouds
b) Good visibility between showers, persistent precipitation, stratiform clouds
c) Poor visibility, continuous precipitation, stratiform clouds
d) Good visibility between showers, showery precipitation, cumuliform clouds

340) The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing.
Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a) precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently
severe.
b) precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range
between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
c) precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
d) precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently
severe.

341) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour.
b) Airframe icing can occur in clear air.
c) Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs.
d) Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds.

342) In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

a) Flying in dense cirrus clouds.
b) Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.
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c) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below 0°C.
d) Flying in heavy drizzle.

343) Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to
moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of
supercooled cloud droplets?
a) Stratus and cumulonimbus.
b) Stratocumulus and cirrostratus.
c) Altostratus and cirrocumulus.
d) Altocumulus and altostratus.

344) What is the main composition of clouds classified as 'high level clouds'?
a) Supercooled water droplets.
b) Ice crystals.
c) Water vapour.
d) Water droplets.

345) A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains

a) only water droplets
b) only ice crystals
c) ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
d) ice crystals and water droplets but never supercooled water droplets

346) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice
crystals to less than 1000 m
b) When BR is reported then the visibility is more than 1000 m but less than 8000 m
c) VC denotes not at the aerodrome but not within 8 nm
d) HZ is reported only when visibility is reduced to 2000 m or less

347) Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of

a) freezing rain striking the aircraft
b) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
c) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
d) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft

348) The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly
of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air
Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
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a) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small

scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make
flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this
turbulence.
b) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to
manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
c) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers
but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
d) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage. The manoeuvring
of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the
passengers the flight will be unpleasant.

349) The expression "mechanical turbulence":

a) refers to a situation where the terrain or other obstructions are interfering
with the normal airflow.
b) means that the aircraft is experiencing strong structural vibrations caused by
mechanical malfunctions of aircraft components.
c) refers to a situation where the vertical movements of air occur in unstable airmass.
d) has the same meaning as the expression "wake turbulence".

350) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most

pronounced:
a) during the early afternoon.
b) about midmorning.
c) during early morning hours before sunrise.
d) immediately after sunset.

351) Which of the following statements is true?

a) A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more.
b) The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence.
c) The more stable the atmosphere, the more turbulence.
d) A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes.

352) Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) should be anticipated when:

a) immediately after the passage of a thunderstorm.
b) a sharp trough area aloft is present with wind speed considerably higher than that
of jetstream winds.
c) a sharp trough area aloft is present, even though the wind speeds may be
considerably less than that of jetstream winds.
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d) whenever a high pressure is present close to a thunderstorm area.

353) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
a) Altocumulus lenticularis.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Cirrocumulus.
d) Stratocumulus.

354) All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against
their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service
and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a) light
b) moderate
c) extreme
d) severe

355) The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional

to the
a) stability of the air
b) height of the aircraft
c) intensity of the solar radiation
d) intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear

356) Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have
experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the
consequence of these reports?
a) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
b) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
c) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
d) The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning

357) What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

a) m/100 FT.
b) kt.
c) m/sec.
d) kt/100 FT.

358) Where does wind shear occur?

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a) Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain waves.
b) Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connection with jetstreams.
c) Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or when the
jetstream is associated with a strong depression.
d) At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind
direction and/or wind speed.

359) During an ILS approach on RWY 33, a northwesterly wind is blowing

parallel to the runway. Its speed is increasing rapidly with height while its change
in direction is negligible. What has the pilot to be aware of with respect to wind
shear and glide path (no autopilot engaged)?
a) Without the pilot's intervention, the aircraft is likely to fly above the designated
glide path with decreasing deviation from it.
b) Without the pilot's intervention, the aircraft is likely to fly above the designated
glide path with increasing deviation from it.
c) Without the pilot's intervention, the aircraft is likely to fly below the
designated glide path with increasing deviation from it.
d) A deviation from the glide path will not have to be considered since there is no
significant wind shear to be expected.

360) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an

increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) Flies above the
glide path. 2) Flies below the glide path. 3) Has an increasing true airspeed. 4) Has
a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3

361) Two aircraft are flying simultaneously in level flight at different flight
levels on opposite tracks overhead a given position. Aircraft A flying at FL 070
experiences a 30 kts headwind. Aircraft B flying at FL 060 experiences a 20 kts
headwind. None of the aircraft experiences cross wind. This wind condition will
be referred to as:
a) no wind shear since the absolute value of the difference in wind velocity per
height unit is too small to fit the definition of wind shear at all.
b) horizontal wind shear only.
c) vertical and horizontal wind shear.
d) vertical wind shear only.
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362) The wind at 500 ft above ground is 290/15 kts and at the same position at
600 ft above ground 300/22 kts. How is this wind situation called?
a) Gradual horizontal wind shear.
b) Severe horizontal wind shear.
c) Moderate vertical wind shear.
d) Severe low level turbulence.

363) During flight the headwind increases suddenly due to wind shear. What
initial effect does that have on true airspeed?
a) There will only be a gradual increase in true airspeed until equilibrium is
established again.
b) There will be a sudden temporary decrease in true air speed.
c) There will be a sudden temporary increase in true air speed.
d) None, since wind only affects ground speed and drift.

364) Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
a) in unstable atmospheres
b) in association with radiation inversions
c) and early morning only in summer
d) and early morning only in winter

365) The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
b) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
c) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
d) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.

366) Vertical wind shear is

a) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height
b) a horizontal shear of vertical wind
c) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance
d) a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance

367) Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to
a) change significantly in speed and direction
b) experience little or no change in speed and direction
c) change in direction but not in speed
d) change in speed but not in direction
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368) What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be

experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC) ? TAF LSGG
020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA
SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005
BKN015CB=
a) Roll cloud associated with standing waves
b) Low level wind shear
c) Anabatic winds
d) Radiation fog

369) A CB with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is
correct?
a) The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud.
b) In temperatures lower than -23°C icing is still possible.
c) Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud.
d) If hail occurs, it only occurs in downdrafts.

370) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a) An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
b) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
c) Water vapour and high pressure
d) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion

371) Which cloud species is described by the following definition?

"Cumulonimbus characterised by the presence, mostly in its upper portion, of
distinct cirriform parts of clearly fibrous or striated structure, frequently having the
form of an anvil, a plume or a vast, more or less disorderly mass of hair. This
specie is usually accompanied by a shower, or by a thunderstorm, often with
squalls and sometimes with hail; it frequently produces very well defined virga.
a) Calvus
b) Congestus
c) Fractus
d) Capillatus

372) Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of
a cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
a) Convection.
b) Convergence.
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c) Ground radiation.
d) Orographic lift.

373) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:

a) the cold air is stable.
b) the cold air is unstable.
c) the warm air is unstable.
d) the warm air is stable.

374) The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately:

a) 30 - 60 min
b) 5 - 15 min
c) 45 min
d) 20 - 30 min

375) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

a) initial stage.
b) dissipating stage.
c) period in which precipitation is not falling.
d) mature stage.

376) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized

predominantly by downdraughts?
a) Mature stage.
b) Initial stage.
c) Anvil stage.
d) Dissipating stage.

377) With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?
a) Anvil stage.
b) Mature stage.
c) Initial stage.
d) Dissipating stage.

378) What is a stormscope?

a) An instrument to measure wind velocity.
b) The technical term (jargon) for a radar scope showing thunderstorms.
c) An instrument to detect wind shear by means of the Doppler-effect during flight.
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d) An instrument on board an aircraft to detect electrical discharges.

379) Mark the correct statement concerning lightning discharge.

a) The probability of a lightning discharge is reciprocally proportional to the strength
of the electric field the aircraft intruded.
b) The set of possible effects of a lightning discharge does not include welding of
aircraft parts such as joints or bearings.
c) Because an aircraft acts as a "Faraday's cage", the magnetisation associated with a
lightning discharge hardly has an effect on the magnetic compass.
d) While flying through air that is electrically charged the aircraft is likely to
become a charge carrier itself and can initiate a lightning discharge.

380) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at
least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a "Faraday's cage", which
means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be
an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock.
b) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the
lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
c) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may
be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.
d) Aircraft made by composite material can't conduct a lightning and will therefore
very seldom be struck.

381) What is a downburst?

a) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the
surrounding air.
b) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
c) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the
surrounding air.
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

382) A microburst phenomenon can arise in the

a) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
b) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.
c) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
d) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.
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383) What is a microburst?

a) A concentrated downdraught with high speeds and a higher temperature than the
surrounding air.
b) A concentrated downdraught with high speeds and a lower temperature than
the surrounding air.
c) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
d) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.

384) What conditions (amongst others) have to be met for the development of
CBs and thunderstorms?
a) Warm air has to move over a cold surface.
b) There have to be significant pressure differences over a small area.
c) Moist air must be present.
d) A front has to be present.

385) At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and

what is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00:00 UTC? (Annex:
question_att_id_33822)
a) Position C / FL200.
b) Position B / FL270.
c) Position D / FL290.
d) Position A / FL200.

386) In a situation with a weak pressure gradient and no thunderstorms around,

what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
ground do over a period of about ten minutes?
a) Increase rapidly.
b) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
c) Decrease rapidly.
d) Show strong fluctuations.

387) Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:

a) terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night.
b) compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud.
c) gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at
the lower levels.
d) an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at
lower levels.
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388) The most dangerous low level windshear can be typically encountered:
a) when strong ground inversions are present or near thunderstorms.
b) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
c) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kts and near valleys.
d) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts.

389) Mark the correct statement concerning the flight through an inversion
caused by subsidence.
a) During climb, the increased air density above the inversion layer will cause a
certain increase in the aircraft performance (i.e. lift and thrust) and the pilot will
experience a gradual change of the cross wind component.
b) During climb, the reduced air density above the inversion layer will cause a
certain decrease in the aircraft performance (i.e. lift and thrust) and the pilot
will experience a sudden improvement of visibility.
c) During climb, the pilot of an aircraft probably will experience a slight
deterioration of flight visibility when breaking through the top of the inversion
layer and the general aircraft performance will decrease.
d) The pilot of an aircraft probably will experience a gradual increase of the cross
wind component and a gradual improvement of flight visibility when breaking
through the base of the inversion layer during descent.

390) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

a) is almost constant
b) increases at first and decreases afterward
c) increases with altitude
d) decreases with altitude

391) The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few clouds
is known as the:
a) stratosphere
b) jetstream
c) troposphere
d) tropopause

392) Lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate:

a) unstable air.
b) an inversion.
c) turbulence.
d) light variable winds.
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393) Describe the change of wind from the ground and up to the top of the
friction layer (no frontal passage, Northern hemisphere):
a) speed decreasing and direction "veering".
b) speed increasing and direction "veering".
c) speed increasing and direction turning by 180°.
d) speed increasing and direction "backing".

394) The presence of lenticular cloud is an indication of:

a) Stratospheric inversions.
b) Jet streams.
c) Areas of high level clear air turbulence.
d) Mountain waves.

395) Mark the statement most reasonable regarding a valley inversion.

a) Over night, cool dense air as a result of radiation cooling will descend along
the mountain slopes into the basin and lead to the development of a valley
inversion.
b) Small scale density variations due to turbulent mixing (mainly caused by the
roughness of rocks) are a significant prerequisite for the formation of valley
inversions.
c) Provided that the lee side winds are able to displace the air at the bottom of the
basin, the Foehn effect is the predominant factor in the development of a valley
inversion.
d) If the incident solar radiation is non-uniform because of orographic conditions, the
development of a valley inversion is very likely during daytime.

396) Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally will be:
a) smooth with low ceiling and visibility.
b) smooth with moderate turbulence and good visibility.
c) smooth with good visibility.
d) rough with good visibility.

397) Mist (BR) is defined as being:

a) reduced visibility > 1000 m but not more than 5000 m due to the presence of water
droplets in the atmosphere.
b) reduced visibility > 1000 m but not more than 5000 m due to solid or liquid
particles in the atmosphere.
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c) reduced visibility > or = 1000 m but not more than 5000 m due to the
presence of water droplets in the atmosphere.
d) reduced visibility > or = 1000 m but not more than 5000 m due to solid or liquid
particles in the atmosphere.

398) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) When BR is reported then the visibility is more than 1.000 m but less than 8.000
m.
b) FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice
crystals to less than 1.000 m.
c) VC denotes not at the aerodrome but within 8 NM.
d) HZ is reported only when visibility is reduced to 2.000 m or less.

399) Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
a) Snow.
b) Hail.
c) Drizzle.
d) Heavy rain.

400) Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterized by:
a) fog, poor visibility and layered clouds.
b) continuous rain and freezing temperatures.
c) uniform temperature, good visibility.
d) strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility.

401) For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a
Harmattan wind?
a) Dust and poor visibility.
b) Hail.
c) Thunderstorms.
d) Sand up to FL150.

402) Visibility is reduced by haze when:

a) a light drizzle falls.
b) a cold front just passed.
c) small water droplets are present.
d) dust particles are trapped below an inversion.

403) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
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a) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
b) With gusts of at least 25 knots
c) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
d) With gusts of at least 35 knots

404) Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour
can decrease to as low as:
a) about 200 m.
b) about 500 m.
c) about 1000 m
d) tens of metres.

405) What does the METAR code "R24R/P1500" mean?

a) Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24-Right, usable runway length 1500 metres.
b) RVR RWY 24-Right is below 1500 metres.
c) RVR RWY 24-Right is above 1500 metres.
d) RVR RWY 24-Right is 1500 metres.

406) What does RVR stand for?

a) Reduced visibility range.
b) Runway visual range.
c) Radio VHF range.

407) What is a radiosonde?

a) Equipment used for determining upper winds (velocity and direction) by
transmitting different radio waves and measuring the amount of the reflected
waves by the moving air. These values correlate to the speed and direction of the
wind.
b) Instrument intended to be carried by a balloon up through the atmosphere,
equipped with devices to measure meteorological variables and provided with
a radio transmitter for sending this information to the observing station.
c) A meteorological station on ground or water at which measurements of
meteorological variables are made automatically and a radio transmitter sends
automatically this information to a meteorological centre. These data from such a
station are indicated in a METAR by the term auto.
d) Equipment used for determining upper winds only (velocity and direction) by
tracking a free balloon by electronic means at the observing station.

408) The radiosonde can directly measure:

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a) air temperature, humidity, wind.

b) humidity, wind, atmospheric pressure.
c) atmospheric pressure, air temperature, humidity.
d) atmospheric pressure, air temperature, wind.

409) What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service
used for?
a) To measure wind currents on the ground
b) To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
c) To locate precipitation zones
d) To help provide 14-day forecasts

410) An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the

location of
a) zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and also their
intensity
b) stratocumulus and its vertical development
c) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail
d) all clouds

411) Which of the following groups of conditions requires a crew to transmit a

special air-report (subsonic air transport)?
a) Severe turbulence; widespread thunderstorms; severe mountain waves.
b) Heavy wind shears; moderate or severe aircraft icing; moderate or severe
turbulence.
c) Moderate aircraft icing; severe turbulence; embedded thunderstorms.
d) Volcanic ash cloud; isolated thunderstorms; moderate or severe sandstorms.

412) An aircraft encounters atmospheric conditions in which abrupt changes of

attitude and altitude of the aircraft occur. Changes in accelerometer readings go up
to 1.2 g measured at the aircraft's centre of gravity. Lose objects inside the aircraft
are tossed about. Which report, if any, is required?
a) Special air-report.
b) No air-report is necessary.
c) Flight safety report.
d) Routine air-report.

413) On the Significant Weather Chart, we see the following indications: SCT
CU -100/060. The forecast charts for FL 050 and FL 100 both indicate a wind
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from 320°/15 kt. In flight at FL 055 over an area of plains (flat country) during the
validity period of the Significant Weather Chart, we observe moderate turbulence.
This turbulence is caused by
a) the surface radiation.
b) the instability of the air mass between the surface and the top of Cumulus
clouds.
c) a wind shear.
d) advection of warm air between FL 60 and FL 100

414) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:

a) increases with height at a constant rate.
b) increases with height.
c) remains constant with height.
d) decreases with height at a constant rate.

415) Isotachs are lines joining the points of equal:

a) wind speed lapse rates.
b) sea-level pressures.
c) wind speeds.
d) horizontal wind speed gradients.

416) What (amongst other) is the purpose for consulting an SWC chart prior to
flight?
a) To obtain all necesary weather forecasts for the entire route of flight.
b) To obtain exact weather information for the destination airport.
c) To obtain weather information for a VFR flight only.
d) To avoid areas with turbulence.

417) What does the term TREND signify?

a) It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
b) It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-
hourly intervals.
c) It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report.
d) It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions.

418) Which kind of meteorological messages are normally transmitted in an

ATIS?
a) TAF / SPECI
b) AIRMET / GAMET
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c) METAR / SPECI
d) MET REPORT / SPECIAL

419) In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means:

a) wind from 230° true at 20 knots.
b) wind from 230° magnetic at 20 knots.
c) wind from 230° true at 10 miles per hour.
d) wind from 230° magnetic at 10 miles per hour.

420) The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

a) magnetic north
b) the 0-meridian
c) true north
d) grid north

421) What is a trend forecast?

a) A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
b) A routine report
c) A route forecast valid for 24 hours
d) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours

422) What are the normal and official sources of meteorological information for
an aircraft in flight?
a) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS, and from the ATS-units the FIC only
b) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS, and from the ATS-units the TWR only
c) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS, and from the ATS-units the TWR, APP and FIC only
d) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; all ATS-units

423) What is a VOLMET broadcast?

a) Weather information transmitted continuously via radio (special broadcast),
containing weather information for one airport.
b) Provision, as appropriate, of current METAR, SPECI, TAF and SIGMET by
means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcast.
c) That part of an ATIS which is concerned to meteorological information.
d) Information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or
expected occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena which may affect
the safety of aircraft operations.

424) What is an aerodrome warning?

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a) The part of a METAR message that is called supplementary information.

b) A message issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence
and/or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena, which may
affect the safety of aircraft operations.
c) A message prepared by a meteorological office concerning wind shear which
could adversely affect aircraft on the approach path or take-off path or during
circling approach between runway level and a specified upper level, and aircraft
on the runway during landing roll or take-off run.
d) A message issued by a meteorological office concerning the meteorological
conditions which could adversely affect aircraft on ground, including parked
aircraft, and the aerodrome facilities and services.