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AAI (Airport Authority of India) Junior Executive (JE) Airport Operations (AO) Coaching Programs

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LMRC Assistant Manager IT/CS: 2018 Official Paper: Answers, Solutions, & Explanations at
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Q 46. If A and B are regular languages, then A ∪ B is a ________ language.
a. regular
b. non-regular
c. finite
d. natural
Q 47.
What is the type of strings accepted by the following finite automata?

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a. Strings of a and b, ending with ab

b. Strings of a and b, ending with ba
c. Strings of a and b, ending with bb
d. Strings of a and b, ending with aa
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Q 48. A language is said to be ________ if it can be recognised by an NFA (Nondeterministic Finite Automation)
a. regular
b. non-regular
c. non-formal
d. natural
Q 49. The language L = {anbn | ⩾ 1} is a ________ language.
a. regular
b. natural
c. virtual
d. non-regular
Q 50. Which of the following is strictly more powerful than regular expression?
a. Nondeterministic Finite Automation (NFA)
b. Context-free grammar
c. DFA
d. Recursive function
Q 51. Pushdown automata are ________ machines augmented with additional memory in the form of a stack.
a. nondeterministic infinite state
b. deterministic finite state
c. nondeterministic finite state
d. deterministic infinite state
Q 52. Which of the following is the correct regular expression to represent the of strings in {a, b} ⚹ with an odd number of a՚s?
a. b⚹ ab⚹ (ab⚹a) ⚹b⚹
b. (ab) ⚹ (ab) ⚹
c. b⚹ ab (ab⚹) ⚹
d. b⚹ (ab⚹ ab⚹) ⚹ ab⚹
Q 53.
State whether True or False.
I. For every language L accepted by an NFA, there exists a DFA that also accepts L.
II. For every alphabet ∑ , every regular language over ∑ can be accepted by a finite automaton.
a. I – True, II - True
b. I – True, II – False
c. I – False, II – True
d. I – False, II – False
Q 54. The analysis part of the structure of a compiler is often called the ________ of the compiler
a. back end
b. front end
c. machine code
d. symbol table
Q 55. ________ is done by attaching rules or algorithms or program fragments to productions in a grammar.
a. Syntax-directed translation
b. Lexical analysis
c. Execution
d. Loading
Q 56. ________ is a data structure that holds information about identifiers.
a. Intermediate code
b. Lexical analyser
c. Symbol table
d. Context free grammar
Q 57. A grammar that produces more than one left most derivation or right most derivation for the same sentence is known is ________.
a. Non ambiguous
b. Context sensitive

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c. Regular
d. Ambiguous
Q 58. Lexical analysis is the ________ phase of a compiler.
a. First
b. Second
c. third
d. fourth
Q 59. A (n) ________ is a sequence of characters in source program that is matched by the pattern for a token.
a. Lexeme
b. Operator
c. Operand
d. Function
Q 60. In LR (k) parsing, when the value of k is omitted, it is assumed to be ________.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
Q 61.
State whether True or False.
I. If two regular expressions denote the same language, then both are said to be equivalent.
II. The regular expression a⚹ denotes the set of all strings of one or more a՚s
a. I- True, II – True
b. I – True, II – False
c. I – False, II – True
d. I – False, II – False
Q 62. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. In LR (k) praising, “L” stands for left-to-right scanning of the input
b. In LR (k) parsing, “R” stands for constructing a rightmost derivation in reverse
c. In LR (k) parsing, “R” stands for constructing a leftmost derivation in reverse. n
d. The LR parsing method is the most general non – backtracking shift-reduce parsing method
Q 63. A parse tree showing the values of attributes at each node is called a (n) ________
a. AVL tree
b. Trie tree
c. Annotated parse tree
d. Rooted tree
Q 64. When a system call is excited, it is treated by the hardware as a ________
a. virtual memory
b. Software interrupt
c. Page – Fault
d. Thrashing
Q 65. The hardware allows privileged instructions to be executed only in ________ mode.
a. Kernel
b. User
c. Virtual
d. mode

Q 66. Which of the following is not related to the file-system management functionality of an operating system?
a. Creation and deletion of files
b. Creation and deletion of directories
c. Deciding which process or data to move into and out of memory
d. Mapping files onto secondary storage.
Q 67. A process waiting to be assigned to a processor is considered to be in ________ state.
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a. waiting
b. ready
c. terminated
d. running
Q 68. Which of the following is also called job scheduler?
a. DMA controller
b. CPU scheduler
c. Short-term scheduler
d. Long-term scheduler
Q 69.
A process execute the following code:
For (I = 1; I ⩽ n; I ++) fork () ;
How many child processes are created?
a. n - 1
b. 2n - 1
c. 2n-1
d. 2n-1 -1
Q 70.
Match the following.

List I List II

I. Stack Algorithm P. Deadlock

II. Elevator Algorithm Q. Disk Scheduling

III. Priority Scheduling Algorithm R. Page Replacement

IV. Havender՚s Algorithm S. CPU Scheduling

Table Supporting: LMRC Assistant Manager IT/CS: 2018 Official Paper: Answers, Solutions, & Explanations at ExamPYQ. Com & DoorstepTutor. Com

a. I – R, II – Q, III – S, IV – P
b. I – Q, II – R, III – S, IV – P
c. I – R, II – Q, III – P, IV – S
d. I – Q, II – R, III – P, IV – S
Q 71. Consider a system with n processes and m resource types. Safety Algorithm may require an order of ________ operations to decide
whether a state is state is safe or not.
a. n _ m
b. n ⚹ m
c. n2 ⚹ m
d. n ⚹ m2
Q 72.
Consider the following.

Process ID CPU Burst Arrival Time

P1 5 0

P2 7 2

P3 3 3

Table Supporting: LMRC Assistant Manager IT/CS: 2018 Official Paper: Answers, Solutions, & Explanations at ExamPYQ. Com & DoorstepTutor. Com

The completion order of the three processes under the policies FCFS and RR (with CPU quantum of 2 time units) are:
a. FCFS: P1, P2, P3 and RR: P1, P3, P2
b. FCFS: P1, P2, P3 and RR: P1, P2, P3
c. FCFS: P1, P2, P3 and RR: P3, P2, P1
d. FCFS: P1, P3, P2, and RR: P1, P2 P3
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Q 73.
Consider the following page reference string:
1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3,2, 4,1
Assume that there are three-page frames which are initially empty. Let LRU, FIFO, OPTIMAL denote the number of page faults under the
corresponding page replacement strategy. Then, which of the following is TRUE?
a. LRU = FIFO = OPTIMAL
b. LRU = OPTIMAL
c. FIFO < OPTIMAL < LRU
d. OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
Q 74. Which of the following disallows multivalued attributes, composite attributes and their combinations?
a. 2 NF
b. 3 NF
c. 1 NF
d. BCNF
Q 75. ________ constraint is specified between two relations and is used to maintain the consistency among tuples of the two relations.
a. Entity integrity
b. Referential integrity
c. Primary key
d. Unique key
Q 76. ________ is based on the concept of full functional dependency.
a. 1 NF
b. 3 NF
c. BCNF
d. 2 NF
Q 77. Which of the following is a schema evolution command?
a. Alter
b. Delete
c. Drop
d. Truncate
Q 78. Which of the following is considered a virtual table and DOES NOT necessarily exist in physical form?
a. Tigger
b. View
c. Stored procedure
d. Table
Q 79. ________ model and its variations are frequently used for the conceptual design of database applications, and many database design
tools employ its concepts.
a. Functional analysis
b. Transaction implementation
c. Application program design
d. Entity Relationship
Q 80. Which of the following occurs when a transaction cannot proceed for an indefinite period of time while other transactions in the
system continue normally?
a. Starvation
b. Deadlock
c. Wound-wait
d. Wait – die
Q 81. Which of the following commands can be used to delete a relation schema if it is not needed anymore?
a. update
b. alter
c. drop
d. delete

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Q 82. ________ occurs when two transactions that access the same database items have their operations interleaved in a way that makes the
value of some database items incorrect.
a. Starvation
b. Deadlock
c. Disk Failure
d. Lost update problem
Q 83.
The statement given below describes which of the ACID properties of transactions?
“The changes applied to the database by a committed transaction must persist in the database, and these changes must not be lost because
of any failure”
a. Durability
b. Atomicity
c. Isolation
d. Consistency preservation
Q 84. An IPv4 address consists of two parts: a ________ part and a/an ________ part.
a. network: Ethernet
b. Host: Ethernet
c. Network: Host
d. Host; Error
Q 85. What is the range of the first (leftmost) octet values of the IPv4 Class – B address?
a. 128 to 191
b. 128 to 192
c. 127 to 191
d. 127 to 192
Q 86. FTP differs form other client-server applications because it establishes ________ connections between hosts.
a. only one
b. two
c. three
d. four
Q 87. For a network, the first IPv4 address is the ________ address and the last IPv4 address is the ________ address.
a. Broadcast; Network
b. Network; Broadcast
c. Broadcast; Severer
d. Network; Sever
Q 88. ________ Transfer messages from sender՚s mail servers to the recipient՚s mail severs using ________ connections.
a. POP3; UDP
b. POP3; TCP
c. SMTP; HTTP
d. SMTP; TCP
Q 89. A non-periodic composite signal has a bandwidth of 440 kHz. With a middle frequency of 600 kHz and a peak amplitude of 100 V. The
two extreme frequencies have an amplitude of 20 V Determine the lowest and the highest frequencies.
a. 450 kHz and 890 kHz, respectively.
b. 360 kHz and 800 kHz, respectively.
c. 380 kHz and 820 kHz, respectively.
d. 400 kHz and 840 kHz, respectively.
Q 90.
State whether True or False.
I. A Packet-Filter Firewall filters at the Application Layer whereas a Proxy Firewall filter at the Network or Transport Layer.
II. The idea that the cryptanalyst knows the algorithms and that the secrecy lies exclusively in the keys is called Kerckhoff՚s principle.
a. I – false, II – False
b. I – False, II – True
c. I – True, II – False
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d. I – True, II – True

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