Parasitology

6. Entamoeba coli in the intestinal lumen is

1. Which of the following correctly represents the supplied with nourishment and is protected from
three major groups of clinically significant harm while it doesn’t cause any damage to the
parasites? tissue of the host:
A. Protozoa: worms; Metazoa: A. Parasitism
single-celled parasites; Arthropods: B. Mutualism
insects and their allies C. Commensalism
B. Protozoa: insects and their allies; D. Any of the above
Metazoa: worms; Arthropods:
single-celled parasites 7. Parasites that can be collected in CSF:
C. Protozoa: single-celled parasites; I. Naegleria fowleri
Metazoa: worms; Arthropods: insects II. Acanthamoeba spp.
and their allies III. Trypanosoma brucei
D. Protozoa: single-celled parasites;
Metazoa: insects and their allies; A. I only
Arthropods: worms B. I and II
C. II and III
2. Epidemiological term used if certain infection D. I, II and III
is present in low numbers but constantly present
in the area: 8. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the
A. Sporadic following characteristics:
B. Endemic A. Central karyosome in the nucleus,
C. Pandemic ingested RBCs and clear pseudopodia
D. Epidemic B. No ingested RBCs, blunt pseudopodia
and dirty looking cytoplasm and
3. Type of vector that is essential in the eccentric karyosome
parasite’s life cycle: C. Eccentric karyosome. No peripheral
A. Biologic chromatin and large glycogen vacuole in
B. Mechanical the cytoplasm
C. Both D. Large central or eccentric in location
D. Neither blot-like karyosome, small vacuole that
may contain bacteria
4. Relapses in malarial infections are cause by:
A. Further mosquito bites 9. An intestinal flagellate possessing a large
B. Delayed development of red cell sucking disc, two nuclei, two axostyles, eight
schizonts flagella and two parabasal bodies would be:
C. Differentiation of gametocytes into A. Chilomastix mesnili
trophozoites B. Giardia lamblia
D. Reinvasion the blood from infected liver C. Trichomonas vaginalis
cells D. Trichomonas tenax

5. Host in which the parasite does not develop 10. A patient with cardiac irregularities and
but remains alive and able to infect another congestive heart failure suddenly dies.
susceptible host: Examination of the myocardium revealed
A. Reservoir host numerous amastigotes, an indication that the
B. Final host cause of death is most likely:
C. Paratenic host A. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania
D. Accidental host donovani
 B. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania 16. The process of emerging from the encysted
braziliense state is:
C. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma A. Encystation
gambiense B. Encystment
D. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma C. Excystation
cruzi D. Gametocytes

11. Which malarial organism characteristically 17. A type of tapeworm larva with a large
has a band form trophozoites stretching across bladder producing daughter cysts, blood
the red blood cell? capsules and numerous scolices is:
A. Plasmodium vivax A. Cysticercoid
B. Plasmodium ovale B. Coenurus
C. Plasmodium falciparum C. Cysticercus
D. Plasmodium malariae D. Hydatid cyst

12. Which malarial organism features a ring 18. The part of an adult tapeworm which
trophozoite that has double chromatin dots, contains the organs of attachment is the:
applique forms and often have multiple parasites A. Immature proglottid
in the infected RBC? B. Scolex
A. Plasmodium vivax C. Rostellum
B. Plasmodium ovale D. Gravid proglottid
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae 19. The Leishmania parasites which cause
Kala-azar and Oriental sore are transmitted by:
13. Which of the following patients would be A. Deer fly
more likely to contract an infection with C. belli? B. TseTse fly
A. HIV-positive man C. Sand fly
B. Female leukemia patient D. Black fly
C. Farmer
D. Caregivers 20. A fish-carrying metacercariae may transmit:
A. F. buski
14. Heart-lung migration is observed in what B. S. japonicum
parasite/s? C. O. felineus
A. Ascaris lumbricoides D. S. haematobium
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Enterobius vermicularis 21. An organism which is usually parasitic upon
D. All of the above another but still capable of independent
existence is a ________ parasite:
15. Which of the following ova is distinguishable A. Obligate
from its partner? B. Spurious
A. Diphyllobotrium latum, Paragonimus C. Incidental
westermani D. Facultative
B. Hymenolepis diminuta, Hymenolepis
nana 22. Which pair of ova can be easily identified to
C. Taenia solium, Taenia saginata the species level?
D. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma A. M. yokogawai and H. heterophyes
duodenale B. T. solium and T. saginata
C. N. americanus and A. duodenale
D. P. westermani and H. nana
 Examination of the myocardium revealed
23. A dog parasite that almost never develops to numerous amastigotes, an indication that the
an adult in humans has been found in some cause of death was most likely:
persons as a cause of subcutaneous nodule or a A. L. donovani
solitary peripheral nodule in the lung. This B. L. braziliense
nematode is: C. T. gambiense
A. A. braziliense D. T. cruzi
B. D. immitis
C. D. caninum 30. Humans, especially children are occasional
D. E. granulosus hosts of this cestode parasite of dogs, cats and
wild carnivores. Transmission results from
24. An egg which is practically spherical in accidental swallowing of infected fleas from
shape, has two membranes, two hair-like dogs and cats. Finding the proglottids or eggs in
processes (polar filaments) and three pairs of the feces is diagnostic.
hooks belongs to: A. D. caninum
A. T. saginata B. E. granulosus
B. D. caninum C. H. diminuta
C. H. nana D. T. canis
D. D. latum
Matching type
25. The larval stage of D. Latum which occurs in
an infected fish is known as the:
A 31. Ixodes a. Babesiosis
A. Procercoid scapularis
B. Cysticercoid
C. Plerocercoid E 32. Anopheles b. Chaga’s
D. Cysticercus flavirostris disease

26. Which of the following does not ordinarily D 33. Glossina spp. c. Snail fever
produce eggs in the feces? B 34. Triatoma spp. d. African
A. A. duodenale sleeping
B. A. lumbricoides sickness
C. S. stercoralis
D. N. americanus C 35. Oncomelania e. Blackwater
spp. fever
27. Periorbital edema is an early sign of acute
infection with:
E 36. Trichomoniasis a. Circumoval
A. E. vermicularis precipitin test
B. A. cantonensis
C. T. spiralis C 37. Paragonimiasis b. RDT
D. S. stercoralis
D 38. Trichinellosis c. Sputum
28. Platyhelmithes are commonly called: exam
A. Roundworms B 39. Malaria d. Biopsy
B. Earthworms
C. Flatworms A 40. e. Wet mount
D. Leeches Schistosomiasis

29. A 60-year old man with cardiac irregularities

and congestive heart failure suddenly dies.
41. Presence of ______ indicates a positive b. Sporozoites are considered to be
circumoval precipitin test infective stage allowing it to enter the
A. Small agglutinates erythrocytes
B. Septate precipitates c. Sprogony is also called as gametogony,
C. Dark stained flocculates referred as the sexual cycle
D. White sediments d. Differentiated male and female
gametocytes shows banana and
42. Harada-Mori technique is LESS likely to be crescent shape in appearance when
used for isolation of Giemsa-stained smears are examines
i. A. duodenale
ii. N. americanus 47. This parasite causes cutaneous lesions that
iii. S. sterccoralis are generally more aggressive, last longer and
iv. T. spiralis often disseminate to mucous membranes such
v. A. lumbricoides as the nasal and pharyngeal areas.
a. T. cruzi
A. All of the above b. L. donovanni
B. None of the above c. L. braziliensis
C. i, ii, iii d. T. brucei complex
D. iv and v
48. This ameboid pathogen infects the colon and
43. Which order of development is has been associated with diarrhea among
INCORRECT? children. It was reclassified as a flagellate on the
a. Sporozoite → schizont → merozoites basis of its ultrastructural detail and antigenic
b. Ova → L1 → L3 → adult worm similarities.
c. Miraidium → oocysts → rediae → a. E. coli
cercariae → metacercariae b. E. dispar
d. Embryonated egg → procercoid larva → c. R. hominis
plerocercoid larva d. D. fragilis

44. Which of the following stains for coccidian 49. Co-infection with this STH is common with
oocysts will be considered the least effective? D. fragilis
a. Modified Kinyoun stain a. E. histolytica
b. Trichome stain b. A. lumbricoides
c. Modified acid-fast dimethyl sulfoxide c. E. vermicularis
d. Auramine-O stain d. S. stercoralis

45. If Baermann technique is employed for 50. This protozoan was orginally identified as an
testing, S. stercoralis larvae are recovered at the amoeba but through modern technique it was
the _______. classified as a flagellate.
a. Bottom of the funnel a. E. polecki
b. Dampened gauze pad b. C mesnili
c. Filter paper c. T. tenax
d. Moist agar medium d. D. fragilis

46. Which of the following statements is not tru 51. Infective stage of G. lamblia
for malaria? a. trophozoite
a. Reactivation of hypnozoites results to b. mature cyst
relapse c. flagella
d. metacyst
 c. E. histolytica
d. Naegleria
52. Non-invasive procedure such as Enterotest 59. Harada-mori Technique is for
collects what type of sample. a. Concentration of nematode eggs in
a. duodenal contents feces
b. tissue b. Staining protozoan cyst
c. blood c. Culture of feces to obtain hookworm
d. stool larvae
d. Staining technique for hemoflagellates
53. Small race E. histolytica
a. T tenax 60. Quantitative estimates of worm parasites
b. E dispar load can be obtained using
c. E hartmanni a. Sheather sugar concentration technique
d. E polecki b. Stoll dilution technique
c. Kato-thin smears
54. Morphologically similar to E. histolytica but d. Membrane filtration technique
cases are rare because it’s primarily a free-living
amoeba. 61. Macrocytic RBCs with normal gastric pH is
a. E. polecki consistent with
b. E. dispar a. Pernicious anemia
c. E. dispar b. Bothriocephalus anemia
d. E. moshkovskii c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency
55. I. butschlii shows dark brown nucleus with
DFS using saline and iodine due to its ______. 62. Ova os pseudophyllidean cestodes are
a. Glycogen vacuole described to be
b. Nucleus a. Mature, operculated and with terminal
c. Affinity to iodine knob
d. Cilia b. Immature, non-operculated, no
abopecular thickening
56. Ideal specimen for testing in identifying c. Mature and with presence of terminal
infection due to Naegleria. spine
a. Stool d. immature , operculated
b. Blood
c. CSF 63. Graham scotch tape swab test may
d. Exudates demonstrate presence of
i. T. spiralis
57. Which of the following is the LEAST effective ii. Taenia spp.
prevention measure for free living pathogenic iii. A. cantonensis
parasites thriving in pools? iv. D. latum
a. Salination v. E. vermicularis
b. Chlorination
c. Regular cleaning and frequent change a. i, ii, iii
in water b. ii, iv, v
d. UV exposure from the sun c. iii, iv, v
d. ii, v
58. Causative agent of balantidial dysentery
a. B. coli 64. Mode of transmission for Dracunculiasis
b. E. coli
 a. Ingestion of contaminated water with L3
larva 71. Which of the following is NOT true for
b. Vectorborne Paragomiasis?
c. Skin penetration due to filariform larva A. Proper food preparation as prevention
d. Aerosol and control measure
B. Utilization of X-ray as definitive
65. Which pair is INCORRECT? diagnosis
a. R. garrisoni - flour beetle C. Adult fluke appears to be reddish-brown
b. C. philippinensis - brackish water fish in color and coffee-bean shaped
c. E. pancreaticum - red ant D. Worm migration is possible during
d. P. westermanni - crustaceans erraticity

66. Diagnostic test to recover coccidian oocysts 72. Hookworm with a tridigitate bursa and plain,
a. Kato-Katz bristle-like copulatory spicule
b. Sheather’s sugar floatation a. N. americanus
c. Formalin ether concentration b. A. duodenale
d. Grahams scotch tape swab c. A. brazilense
d. A. caninum
67. Which of the following is NOT true for
Kato-thick smear? 73. A spurious parasite that passes through the
a. Exactly measured amount of stool alimentary tract of man causing infection but not
sample disease is known as:
b. Employs use of cellophane, malachite a. Pseudo????
green and glycerin b. Incidental parasite
c. Useful for detecting presence of ova c. Saprophyte
with thick shells d. Coprozoic parasite
d. Not intended for watery stool samples
74. An organism which is usually parasitic upon
68. Which of the following trematodes include another but still capable of independent
snail as both primary and second intermediate existence is a:
host? a. Facultative parasite
a. Heterphyes heterophyes b. Obligate parasite
b. Echinostoma ilocanum c. Incidental parasite
c. Euretrema pancreaticum d. None of these
d. Opistorchis felineus
75. The process of emerging from the
69. Which prevention and control measure is encystated state is:
LESS likely to be useful for Taeniasis? a. Encystation
a. Sufficient cooking of meat dishes b. Encystment
b. Avoid use of night soil c. Excystation
c. Proper disposal of human excreta d. Gametocytes
d. Case finding
76. Which species of malaria parasite usually
70. Which prevention and control measure is has ameboid trophozoites and produces small
LESS likely to be useful for Schistosomiasis? reddish dots in the red cell cytoplasm?
a. Use of molluscicides a. P. knowlesi
b. Refrain from indiscriminate defecation b. P. falciparum
c. Proper food preparation c. P. malariae
d. Environmental sanitation d. P. vivax
 A 88. Acidic douche
77. Finding ingested RBC in the cyst stage D 89. Cytostomal fibril “shepherd’s crook”
practically identifies: B 90. Large ventral sucking disk
a. E. histolytica
b. E. coli Modified true or false
c. E. nana a. If only the FIRST statement is correct
d. D. fragilis b. If only the SECOND statement is correct
e. None c. If both statements are INCORRECT
d. If both statements are CORRECT
78. The early stage of malaria parasites in the
RBCs are called as: B 91. Ectoparasites are parasites found inside
a. Segementer the body. They are capable of causing
b. Schizont “infestation
c. Ring form
d. Sporozoites D 92. P. westermanni is usually found in the
lungs. Plasmodium falciparum infects blood cells
79. The diagnostic technique to detect blood particularly the RBCs.
parasite like malaria using fluorescent dyes:
a. Dip quick strip method A 93. The final host harbours the sexual stage of
b. Mefloquine testing the parasite. Example of which is a man infected
c. Quantitative buffy coat with P. vivax
d. Giemsa technique
D 94. The oral cavity or mouth is the portal of
80. Asexual form in the developmental cycle of entry (POE) for cases of Giardiasis. On the other
the malaria parasite that are liberated into the hand, the intranasal cavity is the POE for
bloodstream when the schizont reaches primary amoebic encephalitis
maturity.
a. Signet B 95. The intermediate host harbors the adult
b. Merozoites stage of the parasite. Species of crab and snail
c. Gametocytes are intermediate host for P. westermanni
d. Sporozoites
e. Ookinete D (?) 96. T. hominis is larger than T. vaginalis. T.
tenax is capable of encystation
Determine if the following items are
associated. D 97. C. mesnili is the largest flagellate in man.
a. Cyst B. coli is the largest protozoan
b. Trophozoite
A 98. G. lamblia and T. vaginalis are pathogenic
B 81. Diagnostic stage of Trichomonas vaginalis flagellates. Acanthamoeba and Naegleria are
A 82. Infective stage of entamoeba histolytica non-pathogenic free-living amoeba.
B 83. Product of excystation
B 84. Feeding stage A 99. Infection due to T. vaginalis is more
D 85. Morphologic form(s) of Trypanosomes symptomatic in females. In males, lambliasis is
asymptomatic and less persistent.
a. Trichomoniasis
a. Giardiasis A 100. Proper use of “night soil” is a preventive
control measure for Amoebiasis. The same is
A 86. Trophozoite as infective stage true for Trichomoniasis.
C 87. Trophozoite as diagnostic stage