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Exam 2017, questions and answers

Physical Pharmacy (University of Perpetual Help System DALTA)

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Anesthesiology

1. The regional block technique which is used in the diagnosis of causalgias and tic douloureux
is:
A. Mandibular nerve block ; Gow Gates technique
B. Mandibular nerve block, Akinosi technique
C. classical inferior alveolar nerve block
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

2. In greater palatine nerve block, the solution is deposited where?

A. palatally to the distal aspect of upper first molar
B. palatally to the distal aspect of third molar
C. palatally to the distal aspect of second molar
D. either A or B
E. Either A or C

3. In infraorbital nerve block, the solution is deposited where?

A. distal of maxillary canine
B. a little behind the second premolar and passed downwards and a little forward for
approximately 1cm.
C. distal of maxillaryfirst molar
D. height of buccal sulcus in the mid-maxillary premolar region and is advanced
parallel to premolar roots.
E. mesial of maxillary canine

4. The site of injection in mental nerve block anesthesia.

A. distal of mandibular canine
B. distal of mandibular first molar
C. a little behind the second premolar and passed downwards and little forward for
approximately 1 cm.
D. the height of the buccal sulcus in the mid-maxillary premolar region and is advanced
parallel to the premolar roots.

5. The depth of needle insertion in maxillary nerve block is?

A. 10mm B. 15mm C. 20mm D. 25mm E. 30mm

6. In PSAN block, the needle should on no account be inserted beyond 2.5cm because
A. it will ten be merely passing away from the nerve
B. it is liable to enter the pterygoid plexus of veins with resultant hematoma formation
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B.

7. The amount of anesthetic solution required for PSAN block is?

A. 0.5ml B. 1.0ml C. 1.5 to 1.8ml D. 1.8 to 2.0ml

8. Infiltration anesthesia where the anesthetic solution is deposited between the periosteum and
the cortical plate.

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A. submucous injection D. subperiosteal injection

B. supraperiosteal injection E. intraseptal injection
C. intraosseous injection

9. The following are the indications of intraligamentary injections:

I. treatment of children
II. single tooth procedure
III. endodontic and periodontal therapy
IV. multiple quadrant procedures
V. long rooted teeth
A. I, II, III & IV B. II, III, IV & V C. I, III, IV & V D. I, IV & V

10. This type of injection is loosely referred to as infiltration:

A. submucous injection D. subperiosteal injection
B. supraperiosteal injection E. intraseptal injection
C. intraosseous injection

11. Infiltration technique most effectively carried out by the use of bone drills and needles
especially designed for the purpose.
A. intraseptal injection D. submucous injection
B. intraosseous injection E. supraperiosteal injection
C. subperiosteal injection

12. This refers to the maxillary nerve block, tuberosity approach:

A. similar to PSAN block, however, needle is inserted up to 30mm
B. technically the most difficult of the intraoral approach
C. Either A or B
D. none of the choices

13. Landmarks of which includes mental foramen, pupil of the eye, supraorbital notch, infraorbital
notch, infraorbital foramen, bicuspid teeth.
A. PSAN D. infraorbital nerve block
B. Mental nerve block E. incisive nerve block
C. maxillary nerve block

14. In fraorbital nerve block, the needle approximates:

I. beneath angular head of quadratus labii superioris
II. beneath infraorbital head of quadratus labii superioris
III. parallel to zygomaticus minor
IV. above origin of caninus
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & IV D. I & IV E. II & III

15. in PSAN block, the needle approximates:

I. posterior to posterior surface of maxilla
II. anterior to external pterygoid muscle
III. anterior to pterygoid plexus of veins
IV. posterior to external pterygoid muscle
A. I, II, III & IV B. I, II & III C. I, III & IV D. II, III & IV E. III & IV only

16. Which of the following is not anesthezied by PSAN block?

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A. distobuccal root of 16/26 D. mesiobuccal root of 16/26

B. palatal root of 16/26 E. none of the choices
C. mesiobuccal root of 17/27

17. Landmarks includes external oblique line, anterior border of ramus, pterygomandibular
ligament, internal oblique line.
A. closed-mouth approach (akinosi) D. infraorbital nerve block
B. classical inferior alveolar nerve block E. none of the chocies
C. PSAN

18. In this technique, the anesthetic solution is deposited at the neck of the condyle.
A. PSAN block D. Gow Gates technique
B. long buccal nerve block E. A, B and D
C. both A and B

19. Main indication of topical anesthesia in paste form:

A. relieve pain in cases of ulceration of the oral mucosa
B. minor surgical procedures
C. surface analgesic prior to an injection
D. for deep scaling
E. for an incision of an abscess

20. Nerve supply of the palatal alveolar plates:

I. ASAN
II. Anterior palatine
III. MSAN
IV. Nasopalatine
V. Lingual nerve
A. I, II & III B. I, III & V C. I, III & IV D. II, IV & V E. II & IV

21. These are network of nerves that supply the individual roots of all teeth:
A. outer nerve loop D. Dental plexus
B. Superior dental plexus E. Inferior dental plexus
C. Inner nerve loop

22. This is the foramen of exit for the terminal branches of maxillary nerve:
A. Foremen rotundum D. foramen ovale
B. mental foramen E. Superior orbital fissure
C. Infraorbital foramen

23. Classified as a mixed nerve originating from pons varolii.

A. Opthalmic division D. Trigeminal nerve
B. Maxillary division E. both B and C
C. Mandibular division

24. This supplies the premaxillary region of the palatal alveolar plate.
A. nasoplataine nerve D. anterior palatine nerve
B. buccinator nerve E. MSAN
C. PSAN

25. Which of the following structures is not supplied by maxillary division of 5th cranial nerve?

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A. nasal cavity D. tonsillar region

B. side of nose E. both A and B
C. parotid gland

26. This nerve lies anterior to chorda tympani as it passes medially to the external pterygoid
muscle.
A. mylohyoid nerve D. inferior alveolar nerve
B. auriculo-temporal nerve E. Incisive nerve
C. lingual nerve

27. This is associated with the first division of the trigeminal nerve.
A. supraorbital nerve D. frontal nerve
B. ciliary ganglion E. otic ganglion
C. lacrimal nerve

28. Which one is true as regards to trigeminal nerve?

A. purely motor in function
B. purely sensory in function
C. conveys both exteroceptive and proprioceptive impulses
D. both A & C
E. both B & C

29. Which of the following is true as regards to maxillary nerve?

A. both sensory and motor in function
B. terminal branches are given off at the orbit
C. associated with ciliary ganglion
D. originates from the semilunar ganglion
E. foramen of exit- foramen ovale

30. Branch of maxillary nerve given off before it enters the inferior orbital fissure.
A. PSAN C. ASAN
B. MSAN D. nasopalatine nerve E. greater palatine nerve

31. Branch of maxillary nerve given off at the cranium:

A. nervus spinosus D. middle meningeal nerve
B. zygomatic nerve E. auriculo-temporal nerve
C. sphenopalatine nerve

32. Xerostomia is a complication of mandibular blocking which occurs due to the association of
lingual nerve to which of the the following?
A. chorda tympani D. buccal nerve
B. glossopharyngeal E. all except A
C. mylohyoid nerve

33. A branch of the facial nerve with sensory function to the tongue and is associated with the
lingual nerve.
A. Glossopharyngeal D. chorda tympani
B. buccal nerve E. A, B and D
C. both A & B

34. Analgesia refers to:

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A. raisning pain threshold

B. pain perception
C. psychomotor relief
D. pain loss without consciousness
E. none of the choices

35. The term toxicity refers to:

A. drug allergy
B. overdosage
C. drug hypersensitivity
D. CNS symptoms
E. none of the above

36. Depolarization means:

A. sodium ions in and potassium ions out
B. sodium ions out and potassium ions in
C. all sodium ions in
D. all potassium ions out
E. none of the above

37. Odontectomy of tooth #13:

A. IAN block
B. PSAN block
C. ASAN block
D. buccal block
E. none of the above

38. Management of syncope:

A. place patient on chair
B. cold water
C. lie down raise feet
D. raise head
E. fan

39. Psychogenic pain:

A. has organic basis
B. no organic basis
C. unraised pain threshold
D. true pain
E. none of the above

40. Why do local anesthesia is not indicated for abscess site:

A. hematoma formation
B. causes trismus
C. anaphylaxis
D. spread of infection
E. none of the above

41. The mental nerve innervates the following, except:

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A. skin of the chin

B. lower lip
C. part of the cheek
D. lower bicuspid
E. none of the above.

42. Too much local anesthesia can result to:

A. paresthesia
B. hematoma
C. anaphylaxis
D. localized osteitis
E. allergy

43. Nerve block is:

A. field block
B. regional anesthesia
C. local infiltration
D. topical anesthesia
E. none of the above

44. Areas anesthesized by nasopalatine nerve block:

A. anterior hard palate
B. alveolar bone
C. soft palate
D. upper lip
E. none of the above

45. Areas anesthesized by anterior palatine nerve block:

A. upper lip
B. labial alveolar bone
C. lower eyelid
D. posterior hard palate
E. none of the above

46. Long-acting anesthesia have a duration of:

A. 180 minutes
B. 500 minutes
C. 45-75 minutes
D. 90-150 minutes
E. none of the above

47. Short-acting anesthesia have a duration of:

A. 90-150 minutes
B. 5-45 minutes
C. 180 minutes
D. 45-75 minutes
E. none of the above

48. Areas anesthesized by the lingual nerve block, except:

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A. floor of the mouth

B. lingual gingiva
C. posterior third of the tongue
D. sublingual glands
E. none of the above

49. Lidocaine HCL 2% contains epinephrine concentration of:

A. 1:25,000
B. 1:50,000
C. 1:100,000
D. 1:150,000
E. 1:200,000

50. The first barrier to local anesthesia is:

A. nerve shealth
B. saliva
C. mucosa
D. bone
E. blood

51. Toxic symptoms of local anesthesia is:

A. pain and swelling
B. CNS stimulation
C. shock
D. cardiac arrest
E. none of the above

52. Needle breakage can result from:

A. sudden puncture
B. sudden removal
C. sudden twist
D. slow removal
E. none of the above

53. Algesics are the following, except:

A. endorphin
B. histamine
C. bradykinin
D. acetylcholine
E. potassium chloride

54. What is the basic functional unit of the nervous system?

A. cell body
B. reflex arc
C. neuron
D. neutron
E. none of the above

55. The brain and the spinal cord are the:

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A. peripheral nervous system

B. sympathetic nervous system
C. central nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
E. none of the above

56. Morphine-like chemical released by the body following stress caused by pain:
A. bradykinin
B. prostaglandins
C. histamines
D. endorphins
E. glutamate

57. Auriculotemporal nerve innervates the following, except:

A. TMJ
B. side of the nose
C. parotid gland
D. branches of the VII nerve
E. scalp

58. Area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in IAN block:

A. external oblique ridge
B. internal oblique ridge
C. coronoid notch
D. sigmoid notch

59. Unmyelinated fiber of the alveolar bone:

A. A-fiber
B. B-fiber
C. C-fiber
D. D-fiber
E. none of the above

60. Myelinated fiber for oral soft tissues:

A. A-fiber
B. B-fiber
C. C-fiber
D. D-fiber
E. none of the above

61. Needle gauge used for intraligamentary anesthesia:

A. 21G
B. 25G
C. 27G
D. 30G
E. none of the above

62. Reason for ¾ insertion of the needle in IAN block;

A. less painful
B. to reach lingual nerve
C. to reach parotid gland
D. not to reach parotid gland
E. none of the above

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63. Gauge 30 needle is indicated for:

A. old patients
B. young patients
C. patients with trismus
D. thick bone
E. none of the above

64. Sudden swelling of the face after MSAN injection:

A. infection
B. broken needle
C. trauma
D. emphysema
E. none of the above

65. Muscle trismus after IAN block is due to:

A. fast injection
B. no epinephrine
C. slow injection
D. dull needle
E. all of the above

66. Sudden twitching of the face after IAN block:

A. allergy to local anesthesia
B. IV injection
C. facial nerve damage
D. fear
E. all of the above

67. Hematoma after injection is common in blocking of:

A. nasopalatine nerve block
B. buccal nerve block
C. PSAN nerve block
D. greater palatine nerve block
E. none of the above

68. Anterior palatine nerve innervates the:

A. anterior hard palate
B. posterior hard palate
C. both
D. soft palate
E. none of the above

69. Safe method that gives anesthesia to the lower posterior teeth:
A. buccal
B. infraorbital
C. maxillary
D. lingual
E. IAN nerve block

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70. Anesthesia for the closure of cleft lip:

A. ASAN block
B. nasopalatine nerve block
C. PSAN block
D. infraorbital nerve block
E. none of the above

71. Injection for submandibular abscess incision and drainage:

A. IAN block
B. maxillary nerve block
C. ring block
D. lingual nerve block
E. none of the above

72. Anesthesia for removal of palatal torus:

A. infraorbital nerve block
B. maxillary nerve blokc
C. PSAN block
D. greater and nasoplalatine nerve block
E. none of the above

73. In conduction anesthesia, the depth of anesthesia is:

A. low
B. moderate
C. high
D. none of the above

74. Complications of infraorbital nerve block:

A. ecchymosis
B. edema
C. tachycardia
D. blindness
E. all of the above

75. Indications for anterior palatine nerve block:

A. exodontias for tooth #16
B. labial flap sugery
C. RCT of tooth #25
D. incision and drainage for palatal abscess
E. none of the above

76. Areas anesthesized by the infraorbital nerve block:

A. tooth #11 and #14
B. labial alveolar palte
C. upper lip
D. tooth #27
E. all of the above

77. Areas anesthesized by the lingual nerve block, except:

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A. floor of the mouth

B. lingual gingiva
C. posterior 3rd of the tongue
D. sublingual glands
E. none of the above

78. Indications for buccinator nerve block:

A. buccal gingiva of tooth #46
B. exodontia of tooth #46
C. RCT of #34
D. RCT of #31
E. none of the above

79. Areas anesthesized by the incisive nerve block:

A. mandible
B. labial structure
C. lower anteriors
D. lower lip
E. all of the above

80. The most widely used method of dental pain control is:
A. removal of cause
B. blocking of pathways of umpulse
C. cortical depression
D. raising pain threshold
E. none of the above

81. A patients ability to tolerate pain is designed as his:

A. pain reaction threshold D. both A & B
B. pain perception E. both B & C
C. pain reaction.

82. For what purpose is epinephrine added to lidocaine?

I. reduction of hemorrhage in the operative field
II. prevention of toxic effects from too rapid absorption
III. prolongation of the anesthesia
IV. constriction of the blood vessels in the area of injection
A. I, II, III & IV B. II, III & IV C. I, II & IV D. I & III E. III & IV

83. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a nerve at rest:

A. Electrochemical gradient between the inside and outside of nerve membrane is –70 to
90 mv.
B. K ions are concentrated inside while CI and Na ions are concentrated outside the
nerve membrane
C. CI diffuses into the nerve membrane
D. Greater number of anions inside membrane and equal number of cations outside the
membrane
E. Na pump helps maintain the resting potential

84. Which of the following patients are not recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis?

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A. Hypertensive
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Diabetic
D. Under steroid therapy
E. None of these

85. Type of infiltration anesthesia where the solution is deposited just beneath the mucous
membrane.
A. Supra-periosteal injection
B. Submucous injection
C. Subperiosteal injection
D. Intraosseous injection
E. none of the above

86. Infiltration anesthesia where the anesthetic solution is deposited between the periosteum and
the cortical plate.
A. Supra-periosteal injection
B. Submucous injection
C. Subperiosteal injection
D. Intraosseous injection
E. none of the above

87. Infiltration technique where the solution is deposited within the medullary bone:
A. Supra-periosteal injection
B. Submucous injection
C. Subperiosteal injection
D. Intraosseous injection
E. none of the above

88. Modified version of the intra-osseous technique where the solution is injected under pressure
through the medullary bone and periosteal tissue.
A. Supra-periosteal injection
B. Submucous injection
C. Subperiosteal injection
D. Intraosseous injection
E. none of the above

89. Infiltration technique most frequently used in dentistry.

A. Supra-periosteal injection
B. Submucous injection
C. Subperiosteal injection
D. Intraosseous injection
E. none of the above

90. Archetypal local anesthetics prior to the introduction of Lidocaine.

A. Tetracaine
B. Propoxycaine
C. Procaine
D. Benzocaine
E. none of the above

91. Ester local anesthetics 10 times as potent and 10 times as toxic as Procaine.

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A. 2-Chloroprocaine
B. Propoxycaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Benzocaine
E. none of the above.

92. Ester local anesthetics with equal potency and toxicity to Tetracaine.
A. Procaine
B. Propoxycaine
C. Benzocaine
D. 2-Chloroprocaine
E. none of the above

93. Most commonly used amide local anesthetics.

A. Prilocaine
B. Etidiocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine

94. Ester local anesthetics twice as potent but less toxic than procaine.
A. Propoxycaine
B. Benzocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. 2-Chloroprocaine
E. None of the above.

95. The least vasodilatory of the amide local anesthetics.

A. Prilocaine
B. Etidiocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Lidocaine’
E. Mepivacaine

96. Long lasting amide local anesthetics used for temporary relief of acutely painful conditions
such as trigeminal neuralgia.
A. Prilocaine
B. Etidiocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine

97. Amide local anesthetic whose prime indication is when vasocontrictor-free solution must be
employed.
A. Prilocaine
B. Etidiocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine

98. Amides are metabolized in:

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A. plasma
B. kidney
C. liver
D. both A and C
E. none of the above

99. Ester local anesthetic that has poor solubility in water thus available only in topical
preparations:
A. Propoxycaine
B. Benzocaine
C. Procaine
D. 2-Chloroprocaine
E. Tetracaine

100. Ester local anesthetic that do not possess vasoconstricting propertied and is popular
for production of spinal anesthesia.
A. Propoxycaine
B. Benzocaine
C. Procaine
D. 2-Chloroprocaine
E. Tetracaine

101. Technically the most difficult technique of the intraoral approaches:

A. infraorbital nerve block
B. Mental nerve block
C. Maxillary nerve block greater palatine canal approach
D. Nasopalatine nerve block
E. inferior alveolar nerve block

102. Area anesthesized by an infraorbital nerve:

A. Hard palate
B. pulp and periodontium of all teeth on side
C. premaxilla
D. ASAN on one side
E. None of the above.

103. Extent of anesthesia of a maxillary nerve block.

A. Pulp and periodontium of the teeth on one side of the maxilla
B. Buccal and palatal gingiva on one side
C. Lateral side of the nose on one side
D. Cheek, lower eyelid on one side
E. The soft palate and uvula

104. Extent of the greater palatine nerve block anesthesia:

1. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth
2. Bone of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth

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3. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one side of the midline up to
the canine region
4. Pulps of the upper molar teeth
5. Buccal gingival, periodontium and buccal bone; bone adjacent to the
molars
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 4 and 5
E. none of the above

105. Extent of the nasopalatine nerve block anesthesia:

1. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth
2. Bone of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth
3. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one side of the midline up to the
canine region
4. Pulps of the upper molar teeth
5. Buccal gingival, periodontium and buccal, bone adjacent to the molars
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 4 and 5
E. none of the above

106. Extent of the posterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia.

1. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth
2. Bone of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the anterior teeth
3. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one side of the midline up to the
canine region
4. Pulps of the upper molar teeth
5. Buccal gingival, periodontium and buccal, bone adjacent to the molars
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 4 and 5
E. none of the above

107. Complication of posterior superior alveolar nerve block anesthesia.

A. Hematoma formation
B. infection which may travel back to the cavernous sinus via the venous drainage
C. High risk of needle breakage
D. Both B and C only
E. All of the above

108. The act of drawing up material at the tip of the needle into the syringe or cartridge.
A. deposition
B. aspiration
C. both A and B

109. Advantage of using a 27-gauge needle:

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A. it maintains an extremely sharp point

B. inexpensive enough to be discarded after use
C. aspiration is much easier and certain through the larger lumen
D. both A and B only
E. None of the above

110. Large bubbles in the anesthetic cartridge are:

A. caused by freezing na dmay no longer be considered sterile
B. usually nitrogen gas bubbled into the cartridge to prevent oxygen which would cause
deterioration of the vasoconstrictor
C. either A or B
D. none of the above

111. Small bubbles (1-2mm) inside an anesthetic cartridge are:

A. caused by freezing na dmay no longer be considered sterile
B. usually nitrogen gas bubbled into the cartridge to prevent oxygen which would
cause deterioration of the vasoconstrictor
C. either A or B
D. none of the above

112. Normal heartbeat in adults

A. 110-130 beats per minute
B. 80-100 beats per minute
C. 60-80 beats per minute
D. none of the above

113. Normal heartbeat in children.

A. 110-130 beats per minute
B. 80-100 beats per minute
C. 60-80 beats per minute
D. none of the above

114. This instrument relies on the elasticity of the rubber diaphragm of the anesthetic
cartridge to produce negative pressure necessary for aspiration.
A. self-aspirating syringe
B. aspirating syringe
C. none aspirating syringe
D. none of the above

115. Its use is justifiable only for application of medicaments into a root canal during
endodontic treatment.
A. self-aspirating syringe
B. aspirating syringe
C. none aspirating syringe
D. none of the above

116. Contents of the anesthetic cartridge.

A. anesthetic drug
B. vasoconstrictor
C. sodium bisulfite
D. distilled water
E. all of the above

117. Consideration when treating diabetic patients:

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A. vasoconstrictor should be kept at a minimum

B. do not treat them unless they are well-stabilized or under the care of a physician
C. antibiotic cover is desirable for all surgical treatment
D. both A and B only
E. all of the above

118. A safe suggestion for local anesthesia of the questionable patient:

A. administration of not more than 4 cartridges containing 1:200,000 epinephrine
B. administration of not more than 2 cartridges containing 1:50,000 epinephrine
C. administration of not more than 2 cartridges containing 1:100,000 epinephrine
D. none of the above

119. In the absence of the MSAN, the maxillary bicuspids receive their sensory innervation
from what nerve?
A. PSAN
B. ASAN
C. Either of the two
D. Superior dental plexus
E. None of the above

120. A branch of the facial nerve associated with the lingual nerve.
A. lacrimal nerve
B. frontal nerve
C. nasocillary nerve
D. chorda tympani
E. none of the above

121. Method of pain control induced by deposition of local anesthetic agent :

A. blocking the pathway of painful impulses
B. raising the pain threshold
C. preventing pain reaction by cortical depression
D. using psychosomatic methods
E. none of the above

122. Method of controlling pain induced by drugs possessing analgesic properties.

A. blocking the pathway of painful impulses
B. raising the pain threshold
C. preventing pain reaction by cortical depression
D. using psychosomatic methods
E. none of the above

123. Theory of dentin sensitivity which proposes that odontoblasts are sensory cells>
A. Direct conduction theory
B. Transduction theory
C. Hydrodynamic theory
D. none of the above

124. Factors that determine the level of pain tolerance:

A. fatigue
B. age
C. weight
D. height
E. both A and B only

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125. Theory of dentin sensitivity which states that sensitivity results from mechanical
stimulation of free nerve endings in the pulp caused by rapid fluid flow in the dentinal fluid:
A. Direct conduction theory
B. Transduction theory
C. Hydrodynamic theory
D. none of the above

126. Pain theory which states that pain results when the total output of the cells exceeds a
critical level.
A. Specificity theory
B. Pattern theory
C. Gate-Control theory
D. None of the above

127. The jumping of impulse from node to node:

A. synaptic transmission
B. neurotransmitter
C. salutatory conduction
D. none of the above

128. The physioanatomical process whereby an impulse is generated.

A. pain perception
B. pain reaction
C. pain threshold
D. none of the above

129. The individual’s overt manifestation of the unpleasant perceptual process:

A. pain perception
B. pain reaction
C. pain threshold
D. none of the above

130. Injection is performed slowly for the following reasons:

1. Maintain solution at the needle tip
2. Increase risk of toxic reaction
3. Detect any adverse reaction
4. Cause tissue distention
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
E. 3 and 4

131. The addition of a vasoconstrictor in the local anesthetics produces the following:
1. Delays absorption into the general circulation
2. Increases depth of anesthesia
3. Decreases the speed of onset

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A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3

132. The first toxic symptom of all synthetic local anesthetic is usually manifested in the:
A. respiratory system
B. cardiovascular system
C. lymphatic system
D. skeletal system
E. Central nervous system

133. Neutralization of transmembrane charge.

1. Interaction of local anesthetics with receptor areas result to alteration of
surface charges
2. Receptors are located at or near the channel where sodium passes during
depolarization
3. Increased in pressure results in constriction of pores where sodium passes.
4. Local anesthetics attaches receptor sites externally or internally.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 only
D. 3 and 4
E. 2 only

134. In local infiltration, the bevel of the needle is facing the bone for the following:
1. direct the solution to the point of interest
2. lessen post-injection discomfort
3. deposit the solution between periosteum and bone
4. decrease the chance of tearing the periosteum
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4
E. 2, 3 and 4
F. 1,2 ,3 and 4

135. Propietary name is levarterenol.

A. Felypressin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Phenylephrine
D. Adrenaline
E. Levonordefrin

136. Most stable but weakest vasoconstrictor.

A. Felypressin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Phenylephrine
D. Adrenaline
E. Levonordefrin

137. Most widely used vasoconstrictor.

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A. Felypressin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Phenylephrine
D. Adrenaline
E. Levonordefrin

138. Least vasodilatory among the amides

A. Lignocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine

139. Has a half-life of 90 minutes

A. Lignocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine

140. Proprietary name is Citanest

A. Lignocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine

141. Main indication of topical anesthesia in paste form:

A. relieve pain in cases of ulceration of the oral mucosa
B. minor surgical procedures
C. surface analgesic prior to an injectio
D. for an incision of an abscess
E. For deep scaling

142. Xerostomia is a complication of mandibular blocking which occurs due to the

association of this nerve:
A. mylohyoid
B. buccinator
C. glossopharyngeal
D. hypoglossal
E. chorda tympani

143. Terminal branch of the 3rd division that supplies the chin and skin of the lower lip:
A. buccal nerve
B. temporal nerve
C. medial pterygoid nerve
D. mental nerve
E. mylohyoid nerve

144. The sensory branch of the anterior division of the mandibular division of trigeminal
nerve:
A. buccal nerve
B. temporal nerve
C. medial pterygoid nerve
D. mental nerve
E. mylohyoid nerve

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145. Too much anesthesia can result to:

A. paresthesia
B. hematoma
C. anaphylaxis
D. localized osteitis
E. none of the above

146. Factors affecting the relative position of the mandibulat foremen:

A. width of the ascending ramus
B. width of the arch of the mandible
C. obliquity of the angle of the mandible
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

147. Regional block technique which is of particular use in the diagnosis of facial pains such
as causalgia and tic douloureux:
A. mental nerve block
B. mandibular nerve block
C. inferior alveolar nerve block
D. Either B or C
E. None of the above

148. Vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in the following conditions, except:

A. uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
B. angina pectoris
C. emphysema
D. severe cardiac rhythm abnormalities
E. severe hypertension

149. Conducts slow or dull pain.

A. beta fibers
B. delta fibers
C. C fibers
D. beta and delta fibers
E. none of the above

150. Conducts fast or sharp pain:

A. beta fibers
B. delta fibers
C. C fibers
D. beta and delta fibers
E. none of the above

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