Multiple Choice Questions 245

Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 1: General Introduction: Parasitology

1. Definitive host is one 6. Xenodiagnosis is useful in
a. In which sexual multiplication takes place and harbors a. Wuchereria bancrofti
adult form b. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. In which asexual multiplication takes place and harbors c. Trichinella spiralis
adult form d. All of the above
c. In which sexual multiplication takes place and harbors 7. The following are zoontic disease except
larval form a. Leishmaniasis
d. In which asexual multiplication takes place and harbors b. Balantidiasis
adult form c. Scabies
2. Autoinfection is seen in all except d. Taeniasis
a. Hymenolepis nana 8. Two hosts are required in
b. Enterobius vermicularis a. Taenia solium
c. Taenia solium b. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Trichuris trichiura
3. Antigenic variation is exhibited by d. Giardia
a. Entamoeba 9. Which of the following parasite passes its life cycle
b. Schistosoma through three hosts
c. Trypanosoma a. Fasciola hepatica
d. Leishmania b. Fasciola buski
4. Which parasite enters, the body by piercing the skin c. Schistosoma hematobium
a. Trichuris trichiura d. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Ascaris 10. Man is the intermediate host for
c. Necator americanus a. Strogyloides stercoralis
d. Plasmodium b. Plasmodium vivax
5. Which parasitic infection leads to malignacy c. Entamoeba histolytica
a. Babesioses d. Enterobious vermiculasis
b. Clonorchis sinensis
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Schistosoma hematobium
246 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Answer
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c
5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a
9. d 10. b

Chapter 2: Protozoa
1. Protozoa belong to kingdom 4. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites multiply by
a. Monera a. Binary fission
b. Protista b. Schizogony
c. Plantae c. Gametogony
d. Animalia d. All of the above
2. All are intercellular parasites except 5. In humans, malarial parasites multiply by
a. Leishmania a. Binary fission
b. Plasmodium b. Budding
c. Toxoplasma c. Gametogony
d. None of the above d. Schizogony
3. Non-nuclear DNA present in addition to nucleus in 6. Which of the following is not a flagellate
protozoan parasite is a. Naegleria
a. Chromatid body b. Leishmania
b. Karyosome c. Giardia
c. Kinetoplast d. Dientamoebanj
d. Basal body

Answer
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a
5. d 6. a

Chapter 3: Amoebae
1. The main reservoir of Entamoeba histolytica is c. Brain
a. Man d. Spleen
b. Dirty water 5. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating
c. Dog a. Cyst in the sterile pus
d. Monkey b. Trophozoites in the pus
2. The infective form of Entamoeba histolytica is c. Cyst in the intestine
a. Trophozoite d. Trophozoites in the feces
b. Binucleate cyst 6. Stool of amoebic dysentry has all of the following
c. Quadrinucleate charactristics except
d. None of above a. Charcot-Leyden crystals
3. The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicaded by b. Pyknotic bodies
a. Zymodeme pattern c. RBCs
b. Size d. Ghost cell
c. Nuclear pattern 7. The term amoeboma is used to describe
d. ELISA test a. Amoebic liver abscess
4. M/C site for extraintestinal amoebiasis is b. Skin lesion due to draining amoebic abscess
a. Liver c. Granuloma at ileocaecal junction
b. Lung d. None of the above
 Multiple Choice Questions 247

8. True statement regarding Entamoeba histolytica is 10. Chronic amoebickeratitis in seen in

a. The trophzoites are infective to man a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Mature cyst has eccenteric nucleolus b. Acanthamoeba
c. It can cause primary amoebic encephalitis c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Cyst are resistant to chlorine concentration used in d. Hemoflagellates
drinking water 11. Etiologic agent of granulomatous amoebic encephalitis is
9. All are nonpathogenic amoeba living in the lumen of large a. Entamoeba histolytica
intestine except b. Acanthamoeba
a. Entamoeba coli c. Naegleria
b. Entamoeba hartmanni d. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Endolimax nana
d. Entamoeba gingivalis

Answer
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. a
5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d
9. d 10. b 11. b

Chapter 4: Intestinal, Oral and Genital Flagellates

1. Normal habitat of Giardia is 6. True about Giardia is
a. Duodenum and jejunum a. May cause traveller’s diarrhea
b. Stomach b. Giardia inhabits ileum
c. Caecum c. Trophozoites are infective to man
d. Ileum d. Encystment of trophozoites occur in jejunum
2. All of the folowing protozoans are found in small intestine 7. Which one following test is used for diagnosis of Giardia
except lamblia infections
a. Giardia lamblia a. Enterotest
b. Balantidium coli b. Casoni’s test
c. Cyclospora caytanensis c. Parasight F test
d. Isospora belli d. Napier’s test
3. The following is true of giardiasis except 8. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as
a. Fever and presence of blood and mucus in stool a. Amoeboid
b. Acute or chronic diarrhea b. Jerky
c. Duodenum and jejunum are the prime sites of c. Falling leaf
involvement d. Lashing
d. Giardia cysts are resistant to dessication 9. Vaginal discharge in Trichomonas vaginitis is
4. Giardia lamblia was discovered by a. Colorless
a. Giard b. Yellow
b. Robert hook c. Curd–white
c. Leeuwenhoek d. Blood stained
d. Losch 10. All of the following protozoan can be transmitted by sexual
5. Drug of choice in giardiasis is contact except:
a. Metronidazole a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Albendazole b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Thiabendazole c. Enteromonas hominis
d. Diloxanide furoate d. Giardia lamblia

Answer
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. c
5. a 6. a 7. a 8. b
9. b 10. c
248 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Chapter 5: Hemoflagellates
1. Vector for Trypanosoma cruzi is 8. Chronic infections with which of the following
a. Reduviid bug hemoflagellates may be associated with megaesophagus or
b. Tsetse fly megacolon
c. Sandfly a. Trypanosoma gambiense
d. Hard tick b. Trypanosoma cruzi
2. All of the following are obligate intracellular parasite c. Leishmania donovani
except d. Leishmania tropica
a. Plasmodium 9. True about visceral leishmaniasis is/are
b. Trypanosoma cruzi a. Caused by Leishmania tropica
c. Toxoplasma gondii b. Post leishmaniasis dermatitis develops in 20% of patients
d. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense c. Antimonial compounds are useful
3. Romana’s sign occurs in d. Vector is tsetse fly
a. Babesiosis 10. Which of the following is most severely affected in
b. Leishmaniasis Kala-azar
c. Trypanosomiasis a. Spleen
d. Schisotosomiasis b. Liver
4. Vector for T. brucei gambiense is c. Lymphnodes
a. Sandfly d. Bone marrow
b. Reduviid bug 11. LD bodies are
c. Tsetse fly a. Amastigotes of Leishmania donovani inside RBCs
d. House fly b. Giant cells seen in leishmaniasis
5. Winterbottom sign in sleeping sicknens refers to c. Degenerative lesions seen in leishmaniasis
a. Unilateral conjunctivitis d. Amastigotes of Leishmania donovani inside
b. Posterior cervical lymphadenitis macrophages
c. Narcolepsy 12. In a case of Kala-azar, aldehyde test becomes positive after
d. Trasient erythema a. 2 weeks
6. The drug that can clear trypanosomes from blood and b. 4 weeks
lymph nodes and is active in late nervous system stages of c. 8 weeks
African sleeping sickness is d. 12 weeks
a. Emetine 13. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by
b. Melarsoprol a. Leishmania braziliensis
c. Nifutrimox b. Leishmania donovani
d. Suramin c. Leishmania tropica
7. Which of the following is not true about West African d. None of the above
trypanosomiasis 14. Chiclero's ulcer is caused by
a. Primary reservoirs are human a. Leishmania mexicana complex
b. Low parasitemia b. Leishmania braziliensis complex
c. Illness is usually chronic c. Leishmania tropica
d. Minimal lymphadenopathy d. Leishmania infantum

Answer
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c
5. b 6. b 7. d 8. b
9. c 10. a 11. d 12. d
13. a 14. a
 Multiple Choice Questions 249

Chapter 6: Malaria and Babesia

1. Old RBCs are preferentially infected by 8. Crescent-shaped or banana-shaped gametocytes are seen
a. Plasmodium falciparum in infection with
b. Plasmodium malariae a. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale c. Plasmodium malariae
2. The infective form of the malaria parasite is d. Plasmodium ovale
a. Oocyst 9. Malaria is not seen in patients with
b. Sporozoite a. G6PD deficiency
c. Bradyzoite b. Sickle cell trait
d. Tachyzoite c. Duffy negative blood group
3. Prolonged parasitism in malaria is due to d. All of the above
a. Antigenic variation 10. Which plasmodial infection is more often associated with
b. Intracellularity of parasite nephritic syndrome
c. Immunosuppression a. Plasmodium vivax
d. Sequestration b. Plasmodium falciparum
4. Malaria pigment is formed by c. Plasmodium malariae
a. Parasite d. Plasmodium ovale
b. Bilirubin 11. Which is the treatment of choice for benign tertian malaria
c. Hemoglobin a. Sulfamethoxazole – pyrimethamine
d. All of the above b. Quinine
5. Schuffner's dot in RBCs are sesen in infection with c. Mefloquine
a Plasmodium vivax d. Chloroquine
b Plasmodium falciparum 12. Gametocidal perinicious malaria may occur in
c Plasmodium malariae a. Plasmodium vivax
d Plasmodium ovale b. Plasmodium falciparum
6. Quartan Malaria is caused by c. Plasmodium malariae
a. Plasmodium vivax d. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium falciparum 13. Babesiosis is transmitted by
c. Plasmodium malariae a. Ticks
d. Plasmodium ovale b. Mites
7. Schizonts of Plasmodium falciparum are not found in c. Flea
peripheral blood because d. Mosquito
a. Schizonts are absent in the life cycle 14. Maltose cross is a characteristic feature of
b. Schizonts are killed by antibodies a. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Schizonts develop only in capillaries of internal b. Babesia microti
organs c. Blastomycosis
d. None of the above d. Micrococcus

Answer
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. c
5. a 6. c 7. c 8. b
9. d 10. c 11. d 12 b
13. a 14. b
250 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Chapter 7: Coccidia
1. Route of transmission of Toxoplasma 7. Frenkels’ skin test is positive in
a. Blood a. Spinal cord compression
b. Feces b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Urine c. Pemphigus
d. None d. Pemphigoid
2. Toxoplasma gondii lives inside the 8. In humans, cryptosporidiosis presents as
a. Lumen of small intestine a. Meningitis
b. Lumen of large intestine b. Diarrhea
c. Reticuloendothilial cell and many other nucleated cell c. Pneumonia
d. RBC d. Asymtomatic infection
3. Oocyst of toxoplasma is found in 9. Which stain demonstrates the oocyst of Cryptosporidium
a. Cat best
b. Dog a. Hematoxylin-eosin
c. Mosquito b. Gram’s stain
d. Cow c. Kinyoun modified acid fast stain
4. Toxoplasmosis in the fetus can be best confirmed by d. Modified trichrome stain
a. IgM antibodies in the mother 10. All of the following cause diarrhea except
b. IgM antibodies in the fetus a. Entamoeba histolytica
c. IgG antibodies in the mother b. Giardia lamblia
d. IgG antibodies in the fetus c. Naegleria fowleri
5. Intermediate hosts of toxoplasmosis are d. Cyclospora caytanensis
a. Sheep 11. The oval oocyst of Isospora belli found in human feces
b. Cattle measures
c. Pigs a. 1–3 µm × 5–7 µm
d. All of the above b. 3–5 µm × 8–10 µm
6. The following statements regarding congenital c. 5–8 µm × 10–15 µm
toxoplasmosis are correct except d. 22–33 µm × 10–15 µm
a. Most severe form of congenital infection occurs, if it is 12. Stool in Isospora belli infection may contain all except
acquired in 1st trimester a. High fecal content
b. Chorioretinitis and hydrocephalus are common b. Blood
manifestations in congenital infections c. Fatty acid crystals
c. Presence of Toxoplasma-specific IgM antibodies in an d. Charcot-Leyden crystals
infant are suggestive of congenital infection
d. Most severe form of congenital infection occur if it is
acquired in 3rd trimester

Answer
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. b
5. d 6. d 7. b 8. b
9. c 10. c 11. d 12. b

Chapter 8: Microspora
1. All are true about Microsporidia except 2. Laboratory diagnosis of Microsporidia can be done by all
a. First protozoan parasite studied by Louis Pasteur except
b. Causative agent of silk worm disease a. Modified trichrome stain
c. Extracellular spore-forming protozoa b. Hematoxylin and eosin-stain
d. Cause infection in immunocompromised subjects c. Direct fluorescent antibody
d. Electron microscopy
 Multiple Choice Questions 251

3. Enterocytozoon bieneusi preferentially infects 4. Microsporidial kerotoconjunctivitis is commonly caused by

a. Brain a. Enterocytozoon bieneusi
b. Conjunctiva b. Vittaforma
c. Kidneys c. Encephalitozoon hellem
d. Small intestine d. Encephalitozoon intestinalis

Answer
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c

Chapter 9: Pneumocystis Jirovecii

1. Which of the following has been recently classified as 3. In a case of pneumocystis pneumonia, chest can reveal all
fungus the following except
a. Pneumocystis jirovecii a. Cavitation
b. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Nodular densities
c. Isospora belli c. Lobar infiltration
d. Microsporidia d. Honey-comb appearance
2. Infective form of Pneumocystis jirovecii is 4. All of the following cause oppurtunistic infections in AIDS
a. Tachyzoite except
b. Cyst a. Pneumocystis jirovecii
c. Sporozoite b. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Trophozoite c. Entamoeba coli
d. Microsporidia

Answer
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. c

Chapter 10: Balantidium Coli

1. Largest protozoal parasite is 3. Which of the following acts as the main resevrvior of
a. Entamoeba histolytica Balantidium coli infection
b. Trichomonas vaginalis a. Man
c. Leishmania donovani b. Monkey
d. Balantidium coli c. Pig
2. The infective form of Balantidium coli is d. Cow
a. Tachyzoite 4. Drug of choice for treating balantidiasis
b. Cyst a. Doxycycline
c. Sporozoite b. Tetracycline
d. Trophozoite c. Metronidazole
d. Pentamidine

Answer
1. d 2. b 3. c 4. b
252 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Chapter 11: Helminths: General Features

1. Digestive tract is completely absent in c. Separate sexes
a. Trematodes d. Cylindrical body
b. Cestodes 4. Which of the following worm requires two intermediate
c. Nematodes host
d. All of the above a. Taenia saginata
2. Sexes are always separate in b. Diphyllobothrium latum
a. Cestodes c. Hymenolepis nana
b. Trematodes d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Nematodes 5. Which of the following statement is true in respect to
d. None of the above trematodes
3. Nematodes are differentiated from other worms by the a. Dorsoventrally flattened
following except b. Intermediate host is snail
a. Absent fragmentation c. Hermaphrodite except schistosomes
b. Flat or fleshy leaf-like worm d. All of the above

Answer
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b
5. d

Chapter 12: Cestodes: Tapeworms

1. Autoinfection is a mode of transmission in 6. All of the following are true about neurocysticerosis, except
a. Trichinella a. Not acquired by eating contaminated vegetables
b. Cysticercosis b. Caused by regurgitation of larva
c. Ancylostoma c. Acquired by orofecal route
d. Ascaris d. Acquired by eating pork
2. Pigs are resevoir for 7. The longest tapeworm found in man
a. Taenia solium a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Diphyllobothrium latum b. Taenia sagnata
c. Trichinella spiralis c. Taenia solium
d. Ancyclostoma d. Echinococus granulosus
3. On microscopic examination, eggs are seen, but on 8. Second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is
saturation with salt solution eggs are not seen. The eggs a. Cyclops
are likely to be of b. Man
a. Trichuris trichiura c. Snail
b. Taenia solium d. Fresh water fish
c. Ascaris lumbricoides 9. Dwarf tapeworm refers to
d. Ancylostoma duodenale a. Echinococcus granulosus
4. Which of the following is not a cestode b. Loa loa
a. Diphyllobothrium latum c. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia saginata d. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma mansoni 10. The egg of which of the following parasites consists of
d. Echinococcus granulosus polar filaments arising from either end of the embryophore
5. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of a. Taenia saginata
the following helminthic disease b. Taenia solium
a. Taenia saginata c. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium d. Hymenolepis nana
c. Hydatid cyst
d. Trichuris trichiura
 Multiple Choice Questions 253

11. Conenurus is the larval form of 13. The adult worm of Echinococcus granulosus contains
a. Taenia solium a. 3–4 segments
b. Taenia multiceps b. 50–100 segments
c. Echinococcus granulosus c. 100–200 segments
d. Echinococcus multilocularis d. 1000–2000 segments
12. Larval form of Echinococcus granulosus is seen in 14. Which skin test is useful for diagnosis of hydatid disease
a. Dog a. Casoni's test
b. Man b. Schick test
c. Wolf c. Dick's test
d. Fox d. Tuberculin test

Answer
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c
5. b 6. a 7. a 8. d
9. c 10. d 11. b 12. b
13. a 14. a

Chapter 13: Trematodes: Flukes

1. Which of the following flukes is carcinogenic 5. Largest trematode infecting humans
a. Fasciola a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Clonorchis b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Gastrodiscoides d. Paragonimus westermani
2. Organism causing biliary tract obstruction 6. The second intermediate host of Faciola hepatica is
a. Ancylostoma duodenale a. Snail
b. Clonorchis sinensis b. Fresh water fish
c. Strongyloides stercoralis c. Crab
d. Enterobius vermicularis d. Aquatic plants
3. All float in a saturated salt solution except 7. Schistosoma japonicum resides in
a. Clonorchis sinensis a. Superior mesenteric vein
b. Fertilized eggs of Ascaris b. Inferior mesenteric vein
c. Larva of Strongyloides c. Small intestine
d. Trichuris trichiura d. Gall bladder
4. Terminal spined eggs are seen in 8. All of the following lead to bloody diarrhea except
a. Schistosoma haematobium a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma mansoni b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Schistosoma japonicum c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Clonorchis sinensis d. Schistosoma hematobium

Answer
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a
5. b 6. d 7. a 8. d
254 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Chapter 14: Nematodes: General Features

1. All of the following nematodes are oviparous except 4. Most common cause of visceral larva migrans
a. Ascaris a. Ancylostoma braziliensis
b. Ancylostoma b. Anisakis simplex
c. Trichinella c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius d. Toxocara canis
2. Nematoda residing in large intestine 5. Cutaneous larva migrans is due to
a. Necatar a. Ancyclostoma braziliensis
b. Trichinella b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Strongyloides c. Brugia malayi
d. Trichuris d. Dracunculus medinensis
3. All of the following are somatic nematodes except 6. A teenager who plays with dogs developed skin rash,
a. Loa loa eosinophilia, and an enlarged liver and spleen for 1 year.
b. Capillaria philippinensis The most likely cause of this infection is
c. Onchocerca volvulus a. Trichinosis
d. Brugia malayi b. Schistosomiasis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Visceral larva migrans

Answer
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. d
5. a 6. d

Chapter 15: Trichinella Spiralis

1. Larva found in muscle is 4. Best site for taking biopsy for diagnosis of trichinellosis is
a. Trichinella spiralis a. Deltoid muscle
b. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Diaphragm
c. Trichuris trichiura c. Pectoralis major
d. Enterobius vermicularis d. Liver
2. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite 5. Bachman's test is done to diagnose infections with
a. Taenia solium a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Acanthamoeba b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Naegleria c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Trichinella spiralis d. Ancylostoma duodenale
3. Which of the following is viviparous 6. The larval form of Trichinella can be destroyed by
a. Strongyloides stercoralis a. Smoking of meat
b. Trichinella spiralis b. Deep freezing of meat
c. Enterobius c. Drying of meat
d. Ascaris d. Salting of meat

Answer
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a
5. b 6. b
 Multiple Choice Questions 255

Chapter 16: Trichuris Trichiura

1. Which of the following resides in caecum 3. Heavy infection of Trichuris is characterized by
a. Trichuris trichiura a. <10 eggs in stool
b. Ascaris lumbricoides b. >10 eggs in stool
c. Strongyloides c. <50 eggs in stool
d. Ancylostoma d. >50 eggs in stool
2. The common name for Trichuris is 4. All of the following statements about Trichuris are correct
a. Roundworm except
b. Hookworm a. It resides in large intestine of man
c. Whipworm b. Eggs of Trichuris float in saturated salt solution
d. Seatworm c. Eggs of Trichuris do not float in saturated salt solution
d. Embryonated eggs containing rhabditiform larvae are
infective to man

Answer
1. a 2. c 3. d 4. c

Chapter 17: Strongyloides Stercoralis

1. Parasites penetrating through skin for entry into the body 5. Smallest nematode known to cause infection in man is
are a. Trichinella spiralis
a. Trichinella b. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Strongyloides c. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Roundworm d. Trichuris trichiura
d. Trichuris trichiura 6. Infective form of Strongyloides is
2. Larval form of the following parasites is found in stool a. Eggs
except b. Rhabditiform larva
a. Strongyloides stercoralis c. Filariform larva
b. Ancylostoma duodenale d. Cercaria larva
c. Ascaris lumbricoides 7. Baermann's funnel gauze method is used for detection of
d. Necator americanus larva of
3. Autoinfection is seen with a. Necatar
a. Cryptosporidium b. Strongyloides
b. Strongyloides c. Ancylostoma
c. Giardia d. Ascaris
d. Gnathostoma 8. Strongyloides can be cultured in /by
4. The term larva currens is used for migrating larva of a. NNN medium
a. Stronglyloides stercoralis b. Harada Mori method of stool culture
b. Necator americanus c. Agar plate culture
c. Ancylostoma duodonale d. Hockmeyer's medium
d. Hymenolepis nana

Answer
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. a
5. b 6. c 7. b 8. c
256 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Chapter 18: Hookworm

1. Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to a. Rhabditiform larva
a. Hookworm b. Filariform larva
b. Thread worm c. Eggs
c. Ascaris d. Adult worm
d. Guinea worm 5. A 6-year-old girl is emaciated with a hemoglobin level of
2. The average blood loss per worm in ancylostomiasis is 6 g/dL. Her face appears puffy with swollen eyelids and
a. 0.2 mL/day edema over feet and ankles. There are no laboratory facilities
b. 2 mL/day available. The most likely cause of the child’s condition is
c. 0.33 mL/day a. Schistosomiasis
d. 1 mL/day b. Cercarial dermatitis
3. Which of the following does not cause biliary tract c. Ascariasis
obstruction d. Hookworm disease
a. Ascaris lumbricoides 6. All of the following are characteristics of Ancylostoma
b. Ancylostoma duodenale except
c. Clonorchis sinensis a. Its copulatory bursa has 13 rays
d. Fasciola hepatia b. Caudal spine is present in females
4. Which of the following stages of Ancylostoma duodenale is c. Head is bent in a direction opposite to body
infective to human beings d. Vulval opening is situated in the middle of the body.

Answer
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. b
5. d 6. c

Chapter 19: Enterobius Vermicularis

1. Most common presenting symptom of thread worm 4. History of mild intestinal distress, sleeplessness,
infection amongst the following is itching, and anxiety is seen in preschool child attending
a. Abdominal pain play school. Possible parasite agent causing these
b. Rectal prolapse manifestations is
c. Urticaria a. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Vaginitis b. Enterobius vermicularis
2. Which one of the following does not pass through the lungs c. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. Hookworm d. Necator americanus
b. Ascaris 5. The common name for Enterobius vermicularis is
c. Strongyloides a. Threadworm
d. Enterobius vermicularis b. Pinworm
3. Infection with which of the following parasites may cause c. Seatworm
enuresis d. Whip worm
a. Ascaris lumbricodes 6. Which of the following nematodes lays eggs contaning
b. Enterobius vermicularis larvae
c. Trichinella spiralis a. Trichinella spiralis
d. Wuchereria bancrofti b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Brugia malayi
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

Answer
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b
5. c 6. b
 Multiple Choice Questions 257

Chapter 20: Ascaris Lumbricoides

1. Which of the following parasites does not penetrate human 4. All of the following are correct regarding fertilized egg of
skin Ascaris except
a. Ascaris lumbricoides a. It is always bile-stained
b. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Covered by an outer mamilliated coat
c. Stronglyoides stercoralis c. Floats in saturated solution of salt
d. Schistosoma haematobium d. Does not float in saturated solution of salt
2. The common name for Ascaris lumbricodes is 5. All of the following parasites have bile-stained eggs except
a. Roundworm a. Ascaris
b. Hookworm b. Clonorchis
c. Threadown c. Taenia solium
d. None of the above d. Enterobius
3. The largest intestinal nematode infecting humans is 6. Loeffler's syndrome may be seen in infection with
a. Necator americanus a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Enterobius vermicularis c. Trichinella spiralis
d. None of the above d. Trichuris trichiura

Answer
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. d
5. d 6. b

Chapter 21: Filarial Worms

1. All are true regarding filariasis except 6. Which of the following microfilariae is unsheathed
a. Man is an intermediate host a. Mf. loa
b. Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti b. Mf. bancrofti
c. Involves lymphatic system c. Mf. malayi
d. DEC is used in treatment d. Mf. perstans
2. All of the following are true about Brugia malayi 7. All of the following parasites can be detected in urine
except sample except
a. The intermediate host in India is Mansonia mosquito a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. The tail tip is free from nuclei b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Nuclei are blurred, so counting is difficult c. Trichomonas vaginals
d. Adult worm is found in the lymphatic system d. Giardia lamblia
3. Hydrocele and edema in foot occurs in 8. Fugitive or calabar swelling is seen in infection with
a. Wuchereria bancrofti a. Onchocerca volvulus
b. Brugia malayi b. Loa loa
c. Brugia timori c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Onchocerca volvulus d. Brugia timori
4. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in 9. River bliness is the name given to disease caused by
peripheral blood a. Loa loa
a. Tropical eosinophilia b. Onchocerca volvulus
b. Early adenolymphangitis stage c. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Late adenolymphangitis stage d. Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
d. Elephantiasis 10. The filarial worm which can be seen in conjunctiva is
5. Diurnal periodicity is seen in larvae of a. Brugia malayi
a. Brugia malayi b. Loa loa
b. Wuchereria bancrofti c. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Loa loa d. None of the above
d. Mansonella perstans
258 Textbook of Medical Parasitology

Answer
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. b
5. c 6. d 7. d 8. b
9. b 10. b

Chapter 22: Drancunculus Medinensis

1. Which of the following parasite does not enter into the body 3. Guinea worm is
by skin penetration a. Enterobius
a. Dracunculus b. Trichuris
b. Necator americanus c. Dracunculus
c. Ancylostoma duodenale d. Taenia solium
d. Strongyloides 4. Cyclops is the source of infection in
2. Definitive host for Guinea worm is a. Dracunculus
a. Man b. Spirometra
b. Cyclops c. Both
c. Snail d. None
d. Cyclops and man

Answer
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. c

Chapter 23: Miscellaneous Nematodes

1. Rat lung worm is the common name of 3. All of the following parasites are found in CSF except
a. Paragonimus westermani a. Naegleria
b. Toxocara canis b. Acanthamoeba
c. Angiostrongylus cantonensis c. Angiostrongylus
d. Mansonella streptocerca d. Trypanosoma
2. Paratenic host for angiostrongyns cantonensis is 4. Definitive host for Capillaria phillippinensis is
a. Rat a. Man
b. Man b. Rat
c. Frog c. Birds
d. Camel d. Fish

Answer
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c
 Multiple Choice Questions 259

Chapter 24: Diagnostic Methods in Parasitology

1. Time of collection of blood is important in 3. Sputum examination is commonly done for detecting the
a. Microfilaria eggs of
b. Trypanosoma spp. a. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Leishmania spp. b. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Babesia spp. c. Paragonimus westermani
2. Modified acid-fast stain is used for the diagnosis of d. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. Entamoeba histolytica 4. Larval forms of which parasite can be found in muscle
b. Toxoplasma gondii biopsy
c. Cryptosporidium parvum a. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Leishmania donovani b. Taenia solium
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Ancylostoma duodenale

Answer
1. a 2. c 3. c 4. b