As compared to unannounced negotiation, formal negotiation

A. is simpler
B. requires less preparation
C. is more time consuming
D. is more difficult
Informal negotiation involves
A. two people
B. four people
C. three people
D. any number of people
Persuasion is an essential element of effective negotiation because it helps in
A. effecting agreements and solutions in the interest of all
B. achieving one’s own interests
C. resolving disputes among people
D. settling issues between two parties
The final aim of negotiation is to
A. end a dispute
B. win at all cost
C. reach an agreement
D. implement an agreement between two parties thực hiện thỏa thuận giữa hai bên
A negotiation is discussed in a tone that focuses attention on the need to reach a satisfactory solution by
A. joint problem-solving giải quyết vấn đề chung
B. making proposals
C. setting conditions
D. setting conditions force
In order to persuade others, facts should be discussed from the point of view of a
A. fourth party
B. third party
C. first party
D. second party
In negotiations, the interpretation of a cue requires skill because it may be
Trong các cuộc đàm phán, việc giải thích một gợi ý đòi hỏi kỹ năng vì nó có thể
A. ambiguous mơ hồ
B. behavioral
C. intentional
D. intentional verbal
Using feedback in sales negotiation, result in
A. distort communication in negotiation
B. motivate the sender to change his or her behavior
C. lead negotiators to change the way that negotiate
D. all of these
Which stage in negotiation process, involve setting of objectives for a sales negotiation
A. preparation
B. presentation
C. value exchange
D. none of these
The sales negotiation process ,start with
A. revealing objections
B. getting to know the negotiator
C. revealing conflicts
D. none of these
The negotiation process has three stages. Which one of the following is NOT a stage?
A. preparation
B. action
C. strategy confirmation
D. settling on details
In third-party negotiations, a third party with the authority to dictate (ra lệnh) an agreement is known as
a(n)
A. conciliator
B. mediator
C. consultant
D. arbitrator
Cooperativeness in sales negotiation, refers to
A. these is an absence of conflict
B. the organization satisfies its own goals
C. one party attempt to satisfy the other party's concerns
D. one party attempt to satisfy his concerns
Sales negotiation is exemplified (được ví như) as
A. values
B. alternatives
C. paradoxes nghịch lý
D. principles
What can be referred as lose-win situation in sales negotiation
A. both parties are dissatisfied with negotiation results
B. one party satisfied and the other not satisfied with the negotiation results
C. one party is prepared to give concessions , and the result may go one way or the other một bên sẵn sàng
nhượng bộ, và kết quả có thể đi theo hướng này hay hướng khác
D. none of these
Which concept used for setting objectives you set fo sales negotiation , refers to what you have to trade
A. cost
B. currency
C. profit
D. value
How a company is situated relative to its competitors is referred to as
A. market share
B. Position
C. competitive advantage
D. brand leadership
"The winner's curse" occurs when
A. a negotiator sets his/her aspirations too high
B. a negotiator makes an offer that is immediately accepted
C. the counterparty demonstrates retaliative behavior
D. no one can be trusted
A type of negotiation behavior known as reactive devaluation is demonstrated by
A. the grass-is-greener negotiator
B. a positional negotiator
C. an overaspiring negotiator
D. an underaspiring negotiator
The three sources of risk in negotiation include
A. tactical risk, strategic risk, overconfidence risk
B. failure risk, BATNA risk, information-sharing risk
C. contractual risk, overconfidence risk, failure risk
D. strategic risk, BATNA risk, contractual risk
The endowment effect is
A. the difference between what sellers demand and what buyers are willing to pay
B. a tendency for people to value an object more once they own it
C. the value we associate with a certain object or outcome
D. saving money instead of purchasing goods
A dispute occurs when
A. parties have to resort to their BATNAs
B. parties fail to exchange resources
C. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party
D. we turn down favors and rewards from others
TYPES OF NEGOTIATION
Win-win negotiations are also called
1. fair division negotiations
2. equal-concession negotiations
3. integrative negotiations
4. distributive negotiations
Which of the following is true about integrative negotiations?
1. compromise is a method for achieving maximum win-win between parties
2. negotiators should reach an agreement to prevent an impasse
3. negotiators should reveal their interests
4. negotiators should reveal their positions
The first level integrative agreements
1. exceed parties' no-agreement possibilities or reservation points
2. do not create value relative to parties' best alternative
3. are as good as parties' reservation points
4. are as good as parties' disagreement alternatives
All of the following strategies can potentially increase joint gain, except:
1. downplaying parties' differences
2. disclosing preferences and priorities
3. negotiating issues simultaneously
4. identifying more than one issue
A negotiated agreement is considered the pareto-optimal frontier if
1. both negotiators are satisfied with the outcome
2. the achieved outcome is beneficial to both negotiators
3. it is impossible to improve any negotiator's outcome without hurting the other party's outcome
4. it is possible to improve one negotiator's outcome without hurting the other party's outcome
Negotiators who make multiple offers have an edge in all of these critical aspects except:
1. gaining better information about the other party
2. sweetening the deal and offering to make future concessions
3. being more aggressive in terms of anchoring the negotiation favorably
4. signaling one's priorities more effectively
The fixed-pie perception refers to
1. simultaneously improving the outcomes for both parties
2. believing that the counterparty's interests are directly opposed to one's own interests
3. fixed alternative agreements that improve one party's outcome
4. settling for outcomes that exceed parties' reservation points
Lose-lose outcomes most often result from
1. lack of time and effort invested in a negotiation
2. believing that one's interests are incompatible with the other party's
3. assumptions we make about our opponent and the negotiation situation
4. bargaining zones that are too narrow
A contingent contract generally refers to a contract in which The illusion of transparency refers to which
phenomenon?
1. both parties are confident in positive outcomes in any turn of events
2. negotiators agree on the probability of future events
3. terms in the future will differ depending on the realization of some future event
4. lots of room is left for ambiguity
The illusion of transparency refers to which phenomenon?
1. Making predictions when information is in short supply
2. Human judgment and decision-making differ from rational choice
3. Making reasonable estimation based on a single known data point
4. People believe they are revealing more than they actually are
A type of negotiation behavior known as reactive devaluation refers to:
A. a negotiator who does not know what he or she really wants other than not wanting what the other party is
offering
B. a negotiator who sets the target point too high and refuses to make any concessions
C. a negotiator who overvalues the counterparty's offer
D. an negotiator who opens the negotiation by setting their target too low
One strategy for improving one's BATNA in negotiation is to:
A. discuss it in explicit terms with the counterparty
B. improve your alternative options before going to the negotiation table
C. replace it with an aspiration point
D. revise it in reaction to progress of the negotiation
A negotiator's reservation point is a quantification of the negotiator's:
A. target point
B. BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. opening offer
In negotiation, buyers and sellers may adopt differing bargaining positions for an object, but their
private valuations for the object should not differ as a consequence of who has possession. The
endowment effect is best described as:
A. the difference between what sellers demand and what buyers are willing to pay
B. a tendency for people to value an object more once they own it
C. the intrinsic value we associate with a certain outcome
D. saving money instead of purchasing goods
A dispute is best defined as a situation in which:
A. parties have to resort to their BATNA's
B. parties fail to exchange resources
C. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party
D. negotiators turn down favors and rewards from others
In negotiation, the fixed-pie perception is defined as:
A. the assumption that attacking the other party is the best way to get most of the pie
B. the assumption that capitulating to the other negotiating party's demands is the best way to a win-win
agreement
C. the belief that concessions are necessary by one or both parties in order to reach an agreement
D. the assumption that sticking to your demands and refusing anything but the majority of the pie is the best
way to get most of the pie
Negotiation is best described as a _______, which involves both _________ and ________.
A. self-assessment ; focus ; introspection
B. grass-is-greener negotiation ; selectiveness ; restlessness
C. strategic risk ; aggressiveness ; gambling
D. mixed-motive enterprise ; cooperation ; competition
Effective negotiation preparation encompasses three general abilities: situation assessment, other-party
assessment, and _______.
A. financial assessment
B. location assessment
C. team assessment
D. self-assessment
In preparing for negotiation, a negotiator needs to determine what would constitute an ideal outcome, or
favorable set of terms, also known as a _______.
A. winner's result
B. target point
C. BATNA
D. reservation point
In order to reach a successful negotiation outcome, the negotiators must understand that their BATNA
is:
A. the outcome that the negotiator wishes to achieve
B. able to be modified by persuasive offers
C. not time sensitive
D. determined by objective reality
The term used to represent the quantification of a negotiator's BATNA with respect to other alternatives
is known as:
A. the reservation point
B. the target point
C. the focal point
D. a sunk cost
Negotiators who make the mistake of not developing a reservation point before they negotiate often focus
on:
A. personal grudges
B. arbitrary values
C. their reputation
D. time constraints
Negotiators should assess themselves and their resources before commencing negotiation. One question a
negotiator should ask is, "What are my sunk costs?" A sunk cost is best defined as:
A. money you have invested, that is for all practical purposes, spent
B. a contractual cost
C. money you expect to be paid at the completion of a service contract
D. the yield expected from a stock price
It is not advisable to focus on a single issue in a negotiation because single-issue negotiations are _______
in nature.
A. variable-sum
B. integrative
C. mixed-motive
D. fixed-sum
Negotiators should take the time to brainstorm how a single-issue negotiation may be segmented into
multiple issues. By identifying and segmenting the negotiation into multiple issues, negotiators may
create _________ .
A. a less complicated negotiation
B. more issues that could lead to an impasse
C. integrative potential
D. a potentially illegal negotiation situation
When you are asked about your desired salary in a job interview, what is the best response to use with
the prospective employer?
A. Make an extreme offer and negotiate your way back down to your acceptable BATNA range
B. Give a salary range that would meet your needs in order to seem less fixated on a particular number.
C. Make a take-it-or-leave-it offer
D. Identify a variety of different combinations of highly attractive offer packages and present those packages to
the employer
Negotiators can focus on gains or losses during a negotiation. Most negotiators are _______ when it
comes to losses, and _______ when it comes to gains.
A. risk-averse ; risk-seeking
B. risk-seeking ; risk-averse
C. rational ; irrational
D. irrational ; rational
What factors can lead a negotiator to be uncertain about his or her BATNA?
A. Potential alternatives present themselves all at once, giving the person a wide range of choices
B. The person is presented with a take it or leave it offer
C. The person is not confident in their reservation point
D. Potential alternatives arrive sequentially, rather than all at the same time
As compared to negotiators who focus on maximizing gains, negotiators who focus on minimizing their
losses are more likely to:
A. reach agreement
B. minimize their strategic risks
C. make few concessions and reach fewer agreements
D. accept a sure thing
The more _____ the negotiator, the more likely it is that she or he will make greater concessions.
A. vigilant
B. risk-averse
C. risk-seeking
D. confident
What is meant by counterfactual thinking in negotiation?
A. A negotiator who focuses intensely on what outcome he or she wants
B. A negotiator who thinks about what might have been but did not occur
C. A negotiator who plays the devil's advocate with the other party
D. A negotiator who considers whether the other party will follow through on the terms of their agreement
In negotiation, having your first offer immediately accepted by the counterparty is likely to lead to
feelings of what might have been different, also known as_________?
A. linkage effects
B. counterfactual thinking
C. hindsight bias
D. gambler's fallacy
What is meant by the hidden table in a negotiation?
A. An undisclosed group of resources
B. The ultimate goal of a good negotiator
C. Important parties who are the real decision makers are not present at the negotiation table
D. The undisclosed offers that could have been made
CULTURAL DIMENSION BATNA
Which of the following statements are not true when it comes to BATNAs?
A. They are dynamic and constantly changing
B. It is generally wise to reveal them
C. They are determined by the negotiator's available options
D. They are a good anchor point for the negotiator
BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) determines the point at which a negotiator is
prepared to
A. make larger concessions
B. keep options open
C. walk away from the negotiation table
D. identify counterparty's alternatives
What is the main benefit of having a good BATNA?
A. it increases awareness of the product in foreign markets
B. it increases negotiation power
C. it increases export capacity
D. it increases market share in foreign markets
The bargaining zone, or zone of possible agreements (ZOPA), is the range
A. below the seller's reservation point and above the buyer's target point
B. above the seller's focal point and above the buyer's aspiration point
C. between negotiators' reservation points
D. between negotiators' target points
The negotiator's surplus is the positive difference between:
A. negotiators' reservation points
B. the settlement outcome and the negotiator's reservation point
C. the bargaining surplus and the settlement outcome
D. the best and worst possible economic outcomes
If you reveal your reservation point during the course of negotiation:
A. the other party has little or no incentive to offer you more
B. parties will reach an impasse
C. the counterparty will reveal his or her reservation point
D. you will get a bigger slice of the pie
4. A negative bargaining zone indicates that:
A. parties are worse off by not reaching agreement than by reaching agreement
B. there is no positive overlap between the parties' reservation points
C. parties should keep negotiating to find a positive bargaining zone
D. the counterparty's first offer was not accepted
Which of the following is a strategically wise method of anchoring?
A. Setting an assertive aspiration point early in the negotiation
B. Immediately rejecting the counterparty's first offer
C. Determining the exact midpoint between the last two offers on the table
D. Refusing to make any concessions
When formulating counteroffers and concessions, negotiators need to consider three things:
A. the starting value, the end value, and the magnitude of concessions
B. the fairness, the misuse, and the pattern of concessions
C. the pattern, the magnitude, and the timing of concessions
D. the impact, the size, and the timing of endowment effects
Some negotiators are tempted to lie to the other party in a negotiation. Lying to the counterparty may
result in all of the following except:
A. damages a negotiator's reputation
B. respect and subordination of the counterparty
C. having the other party call your bluff
D. an increased likelihood of the chilling effect
Concerning the multiple methods of fair resource division, which of the following statements is true
regarding the equity rule?
A. The needs based rule is most commonly used to allocate burdens
B. An example of the equity rule is the U.S. legal system
C. The equity rule prescribes that outcomes are distributed without regard to inputs
D. Distribution should be proportional to a person's contribution
Negotiator's evaluations of the fairness of procedures determines their satisfaction and willingness to
comply with negotiated outcomes. Procedural justice is best defined as:
A. the promises made to a counterparty to deliver on a contract
B. the processes by which decisions are made, the methodology behind how resources are distributed, and how
outcomes are determined
C. the agreements wherein negotiators make bets based on their differences in beliefs, forecasts, risk profiles,
and interests.
D. the rectification of wrongs
If the counterparty opens with an "outrageous" offer, the negotiator should:
A. lower his/her aspirations
B. reveal his/her reservation price
C. immediately re-anchor
D. appeal to norms of fairness
If a negotiator desires to maximize his or her outcomes, which of the following best describes the goal
that a negotiator should have when approaching a negotiation?
A. To reach a settlement that shares the pie equally with both parties
B. To reach a settlement that is most favorable to oneself and does not give up too much of the bargaining zone
C. To gain all of the bargaining surplus
D. To have the counterparty leave defeated
In a positive bargaining zone, negotiators' reservation points overlap. If the parties fail to reach an
agreement when a positive bargaining zone exists, the outcome is ______ because ______.
A. uneven ; of the chilling effect
B. even ; both sides can walk away
C. a suboptimal impasse ; the negotiators left money on the table
D. unilateral ; negotiators will have to exercise their BATNA's
Because negotiations are costly to prolong, it is in both parties' interests to determine whether a positive
bargaining zone is possible. If the negotiators discover that no positive bargaining zone exists, what is the
recommended action they should take?
A. Continue negotiating
B. Stop negotiations and pursue other alternatives
C. Increase the group size of both negotiating parties
D. Take a break
The _______ is a measure of the value that a negotiated agreement offers to both parties over the value of
not reaching a settlement.
A. negotiator's surplus
B. bargaining surplus
C. BATNA
D. target point
Negotiators who desire to increase their share of the bargaining zone are best advised to:
A. set fair aspirations
B. reveal their reservation price
C. improve their BATNA
D. avoid making the first offer
Revealing information about a BATNA or a reservation point:
A. reduces a negotiator's power in a negotiation
B. increases the counterparty's propensity for strategic risk taking
C. is a pie-expanding strategy
D. improves the negotiator's odds of getting what they want
Some negotiators make extreme offers. The result of this strategy often means the counterparty may be
offended and walk away from the table. This is known as the:
A. chilling effect
B. goal-setting paradox
C. social utility decline
D. winner's curse
According to a research study examining post-negotiation satisfaction, negotiators who focus on their
ideal outcomes do not feel as satisfied as negotiators who focus on their:
A. first offer
B. BATNA
C. negotiator's surplus
D. ZOPA
B. BATNA
The Boulwarism strategy, named after a former CEO, often engenders hostility from the counterparty
because it prescribes that negotiators should:
A. make their first offer their final offer
B. immediately re anchor the negotiation if the other party opens first
C. lie about their reservation point
D. manipulate the counterparty's reservation point
What principle is best to keep in mind when making an opening offer in a negotiation?
A. Don't open too high, or you will insult the counterparty
B. Don't open too low, or you will offend the counterparty
C. Offer a numerical range
D. Make several offers that are satisfying to you
What is meant by a premature concession in negotiation?
A. Concessions that are not offered in a timely fashion
B. Concessions that leave the negotiator wondering "what could I have gotten if I had done things differently?"
C. When a negotiator makes multiple concessions before the other party responds
D. When the counterparty gives up on offering concessions before agreement is reached
If the counterparty makes the first offer, negotiators are best advised to:
A. accept their first offer
B. make a counteroffer in a timely fashion
C. make your counteroffer your final offer
D. adjust your BATNA based upon the counterparty's offer
Counteroffers accomplish two things; first they signal your willingness to negotiate, and second:
A. they establish your reputation
B. they help you save face
C. they diminish the prominence of the counterparty's initial offer as an anchor point
D. they indicate your acceptance of the counterparty's anchor point
Unilateral concessions refer to ______; bilateral concessions refer to ________.
A. differential concessions ; homogeneous concessions
B. general concessions made by both sides ; specific concessions made by one party
C. consistent concessions ; inconsistent concessions
D. concessions made by one party ; concessions made by both parties to the negotiation
Regarding effective strategies for a successful negotiation outcome, why should a negotiator be wary of
the even-split ploy?
A. You can seem altruistic and cooperative by considering an even-split
B. By accepting the even-split ploy, you will harm your reputation
C. The pattern of concessions is not always fair and the pattern of offers is not always equal
D. By not accepting you can invite aggressiveness from the counterparty
18) One strategy for improving one's BATNA is to
A. discuss it with the counterparty
B. follow the "falling in love" rule
C. replace it with aspiration point
D. change it as a result of the progress of the negotiation
19) The reservation point is mostly related to the
A. negotiator's target point
B. negotiator's BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. negotiator's opening offer
20) Most commonly, third-party intervention takes the form of
A. power differential
B. pie-slicing
C. partnership
D. mediation or arbitration
If an English tourist in Tokyo pays more in British Pounds for the same amount of Yen that she bought
last week, then:
A. the Yen has depreciated relative to the British Pound.
B. the British Pound has appreciated relative to the Yen.
C. A Japanese tourist in London pays more in Yen for the same amount of British Pounds that she bought the
week before.
D. the British Pound has depreciated relative to the Yen.
Philip Kotler distinguishes the following four types of marketing control, each involving different
approaches, purposes and allocation of responsibilities:
A. production control, planning control, human resources control and long-term control
B. strategic control, efficiency control, annual plan control and profit control
C. pricing control, efficiency control, communication plan control and product quality control
D. strategic control, systematic control, human resources control and feedforward control
The world’s number one producer of sunglasses is:
A. China
B. India
C. The United States of America
D. Italy
Which of the following countries is the most culturally challenging for a Westernized organization
wishing to expand internationally?
A. The United States of America
B. Japan
C. France
D. Germany
Guinness is a stout market leader in which region(s)?
A. North America
B. Middle East
C. Africa
D. B and C
Business negotiations between equals (low power distance) is not a concept found in:
A. Russia
B. Korea
C. Japan
D. all of the above countries
48. Those attempting to negotiate in China recognize the value the Chinese place in saving < face
= Which of the following cultural elements should also be examined in approaching discussions
with the Chinese?
A) Social linkage
B) Harmony
C) Roles
D) Reciprocal obligations
E) All of the above should be considered
38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more
compelling by using
A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party.
B) low immediacy.
C) high intensity.
D) low verbal diversity.
E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.
Câu 33: When the your party use Making The First Offer Strategy, you should:
A. Plan your concessions.
B. Immediately reanchor
C. Accept “Even Split”
D. Use facts and objectives criteria.
The more _____ the negotiator, the more likely it is that she or he will make greater concessions.
A. vigilant
B. risk-averse
C. risk-seeking
D. confident
In negotiation, having your first offer immediately accepted by the counterparty is likely to lead to
feelings of what might have been different, also known as_________?
A. linkage effects
B. counterfactual thinking
C. hindsight bias
D. gambler's fallacy
Unilateral concessions refer to ______; bilateral concessions refer to ________.
A. differential concessions ; homogeneous concessions
B. general concessions made by both sides ; specific concessions made by one party
C. consistent concessions ; inconsistent concessions
4.An individual’s behaviour in a foreign society becomes noticeable when it
____________ in relation to the foreign culture.
Correct Answer:deviates
55. The resistance point is established by the ____________ expected from a particular outcome, which is
in turn the product of the ____________ and ____________ of an outcome.
A) cost, value, worth
B) value, worth, cost
C) value, cost and timeliness
D) cost, importance, value
E) None of the above.
56. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are
____________, the more modest will be the other's resistance point.
A) high
B) modest
C) extreme
D) low
E) None of the above.
62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the
_____________ process.
A) expanding the pie
B) logrolling
C) nonspecific compensation
D) bridging
E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.

It is not advisable to focus on a single issue in a negotiation because single-issue negotiations are _______
in nature.
A. variable-sum
B. integrative
C. mixed-motive
D. fixed-sum
Negotiators should take the time to brainstorm how a single-issue negotiation may be segmented into
multiple issues. By identifying and segmenting the negotiation into multiple issues, negotiators may
create _________ .
A. a less complicated negotiation
B. more issues that could lead to an impasse
C. integrative potential
D. a potentially illegal negotiation situation
Negotiators can focus on gains or losses during a negotiation. Most negotiators are _______ when it
comes to losses, and _______ when it comes to gains.
A. risk-averse ; risk-seeking
B. risk-seeking ; risk-averse
C. rational ; irrational
D. irrational ; rational
Negotiation is best described as a _______, which involves both _________ and ________.
A. self-assessment ; focus ; introspection
B. grass-is-greener negotiation ; selectiveness ; restlessness
C. strategic risk ; aggressiveness ; gambling
D. mixed-motive enterprise ; cooperation ; competition
Effective negotiation preparation encompasses three general abilities: situation assessment, other-party
assessment, and _______.
A. financial assessment
B. location assessment
C. team assessment
D. self-assessment
______ is a type of negotiation in which the buyer and seller of a product dispute the price which will be
paid and the exact nature of the transaction that will take place in hope that they will come to an
agreement.
A. Bargaining
B. Bazaar
C. Bureaucracy
D. Bribery

A strategy of ______ pricing involves using price as a competitive weapon in order to push competitors
out of a national market.
A. incremental
B. premium
C. predatory
D. psychological
GAM stands for ______
A. Global Account Management
B. Global Association of Manufacturers
C. Ghana Angola and Mali
D. Global Auditing of Manufacturers
The belief that a very technically competent employee from a domestic market will perform just as well
in any of the foreign countries where the organization operates is a(n) ______ approach to international
HR staffing.
A. recommended
B. low risk
C. excellent
D. high risk
Câu 38: Unilateral Concessions is ....
A. The type concessions from one side
B. The kind of concession from all parties in the negotiation.
C. minimizing the magnitude of concessions to maximize your surplus.
D. offer more than a single concession at a time to the counterparty.
Câu 14: In Positive Bargaining Zone ...:
A. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are not coincided
B. The parties can not negotiate to reach an agreement. Therefore, they must step out
of negotiation and use BATNAs.
C. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are coincided
D. The most amount a buyer is willing to pay, less than the least the most that the
the seller is willing to accept.
Consumer product channels tend to be ______ industrial product channels.
A. identical to
B. longer than
C. the same length as
D. shorter than
______ involves charging a high price to achieve the highest possible contribution in a short period of
time.
A. Skimming
B. Penetration pricing
C. Psychological pricing
D. Transfer pricing
______ implies that the prices in the individual countries may only vary within a set range.
A. A price corridor
B. Transfer pricing
C. Barter
D. Standardized pricing
Tariff levels from country to country affect an organization's ______ strategies.
A. pricing
B. product
C. processes
D. sales management
WIN-WIN - WIN-LOSE
Question 9: The negotiation strategy in which the focus of the negotiations is on the
objective problem rather than on the positions of the negotiators is
A. Soft negotiation
B. Hard negotiation
C. Principled negotiation
D. Win-Win negotiation
Question 10: In __________, participants are friends, the goal is agreement.
A. Soft negotiation
B. Hard negotiation
C. Principled negotiation
D. Win-Win negotiation
Question 11: _________ often involves a higher degree of trust and the forming of a
relationship. It can also involve creative problem-solving that aims to achieve mutual gains. It is also
sometimes called win-win negotiation.
A. Integrative (thành một thể thống nhất) negotiation
B. Positional negotiation
C. Distributive (phân biệt) negotiation
D. Hard negotiation
What can be referred as lose-win situation in sales negotiation
1. both parties are dissatisfied with negotiation results
2. one party satisfied and the other not satisfied with the negotiation results
3. one party is prepared to give concessions , and the result may go one way or the other một bên sẵn sàng
nhượng bộ, và kết quả có thể đi theo hướng này hay hướng khác
4. none of these
Win-win negotiations are also called
1. fair division negotiations
2. equal-concession negotiations
3. integrative negotiations
4. distributive negotiations
Which of the following is true about integrative negotiations?
1. compromise is a method for achieving maximum win-win between parties
2. negotiators should reach an agreement to prevent an impasse
3. negotiators should reveal their interests
4. negotiators should reveal their positions
In negotiation, the fixed-pie perception is defined as:
A. the assumption that attacking the other party is the best way to get most of the pie
B. the assumption that capitulating to the other negotiating party's demands is the best way to a win-win
agreement
C. the belief that concessions are necessary by one or both parties in order to reach an agreement
D. the assumption that sticking to your demands and refusing anything but the majority of the pie is the best
way to get most of the pie
3. A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable
solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following?
A) mutual gains
B) win-lose
C) zero-sum
D) win-win
E) None of the above.
8. A zero-sum situation is also known by another name of a situation. Which of the following is that?
A) integrative
B) distributive
C) win-lose
D) negotiat
E) None of the above.
59. Which one of the following is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it has a decidedly
different image?
A) collaboration
B) avoidance
C) engagement
D) accommodation
46. In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or
lose-lose) negotiations than in other types?
A) Identity
B) Loss-gain
C) Outcome
D) Process
E) Substantive
62. Accommodative strategies emphasize:
A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others.
B) Secrecy and defensiveness
C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit
D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose"
E) All of the above
Lose-lose outcomes most often result from
1. lack of time and effort invested in a negotiation
2. believing that one's interests are incompatible with the other party's
3. assumptions we make about our opponent and the negotiation situation
4. bargaining zones that are too narrow
"The winner's curse" occurs when
A. a negotiator sets his/her aspirations too high
B. a negotiator makes an offer that is immediately accepted
C. the counterparty demonstrates retaliative behavior
D. no one can be trusted
52. Which of the following is not a cognitive bias?
A) the irrational escalation of commitment
B) the belief that the issues under negotiation are all "fixed pie"
C) the process of anchoring and adjustment in decision making
D) the winner's curse
E) All of the above are cognitive biases.
In preparing for negotiation, a negotiator needs to determine what would constitute an ideal outcome, or
favorable set of terms, also known as a _______.
A. winner's result
B. target point
C. BATNA
D. reservation point
Some negotiators make extreme offers. The result of this strategy often means the counterparty may be
offended and walk away from the table. This is known as the:
A. chilling effect
B. goal-setting paradox
C. social utility decline
D. winner's curse
BARGAINING
2. To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are
A) mutually exclusive.
B) interchangeable.
C) not related.
D) interdependent.
E) None of the above.
4. Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation?
A) conflict between parties
B) two or more parties involved
C) an established set of rules
D) a voluntary process
E) None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation.
2. Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by
A) the process through which an agreement is reached and the dollar value of concessions made by each party.
B) the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation as compared to the initial bargaining positions of the
negotiators.
C) the process through which an agreement is reached and by the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation.
D) the total dollar value of concessions made by each party.
E) Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by none of the above.
51. Distributive bargaining strategies
A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use.
B) are used in all interdependent relationships.
C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships.
D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common.
E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.
54. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following
as possible?
A) bargaining range
B) resistance point
C) target point
D) bargaining mix
E) None of the above.
57. The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the other's
bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance
points.
A) high
B) low
C) modest
D) extreme
E) None of the above.
58. A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the deadline is
A) near.
B) flexible.
C) past.
D) undefined.
E) None of the above.
61. The bargaining range is defined by
A) the opening stance and the initial concession.
B) the initial round of concessions.
C) the bargaining mix and the opening stance.
D) the opening offer and the counteroffer.
E) The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.
63. Good distributive bargainers will
A) begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance
point.
B) ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions.
C) accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli.
D) immediately identify the other party's target point.
E) All of the above are actions that good distributive bargainers will take.
72. When people do not trust each other they are more than likely to engage in which of
the following behaviors?
A) promoting collaboration
B) communicating accurately
C) positional bargaining
D) committing to a joint solution
E) none of the above
75. Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining
situation?
A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
 E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.
67. Effective planning requires hard work on the following points:
A) Defining the issues
B) Defining the bargaining limit
C) Defining interests
D) Defining limits and alternatives
E) All of the above
75. Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining relationship
discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major substantive ones have been raised?
A) What agenda should we follow?
B) Where should we negotiate?
C) What is the time period of the negotiation?
D) What might be done if negotiation fails?
E) How will we keep track of what is agreed to?
49. Frames are shaped by conversations that the parties have with each other about the issues in the
bargaining mix. Which of the following factors can affect how the conversation is shaped?
A) Negotiators tend to argue for stock issues, or concerns that are raised every time the parties negotiate.
B) Each party attempts to make the best possible case for his or her preferred position or perspective.
C) Frames may define major shifts and transitions in a complex overall negotiation.
D) Multiple agenda items operate to shape issue development.
E) All of the above contribute to the shaping of the conversation.
If a negotiator desires to maximize his or her outcomes, which of the following best describes the goal
that a negotiator should have when approaching a negotiation?
A. To reach a settlement that shares the pie equally with both parties
B. To reach a settlement that is most favorable to oneself and does not give up too much of the bargaining zone
C. To gain all of the bargaining surplus
D. To have the counterparty leave defeated
Because negotiations are costly to prolong, it is in both parties' interests to determine whether a positive
bargaining zone is possible. If the negotiators discover that no positive bargaining zone exists, what is the
recommended action they should take?
A. Continue negotiating
B. Stop negotiations and pursue other alternatives
C. Increase the group size of both negotiating parties
D. Take a break
73. Hardball tactics are designed to
A) be used primarily against powerful negotiators.
B) clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach.
C) pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do.
D) eliminate risk for the person using the tactic.
E) Hardball tactics are designed to accomplish all of the above.
Question 19: The reservation point is mostly related to the
A. negotiator's target point
B. negotiator's BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. negotiator's opening offer
A negotiator's reservation point is a quantification of the negotiator's:
A. target point
B. BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. opening offer
The bargaining zone, or zone of possible agreements (ZOPA), is the range
A. below the seller's reservation point and above the buyer's target point
B. above the seller's focal point and above the buyer's aspiration point
C. between negotiators' reservation points
D. between negotiators' target points
In a positive bargaining zone, negotiators' reservation points overlap. If the parties fail to reach an
agreement when a positive bargaining zone exists, the outcome is ______ because ______.
A. uneven ; of the chilling effect
B. even ; both sides can walk away
C. a suboptimal impasse ; the negotiators left money on the table
D. unilateral ; negotiators will have to exercise their BATNA's
The _______ is a measure of the value that a negotiated agreement offers to both parties over the value of
not reaching a settlement.
A. negotiator's surplus
B. bargaining surplus
C. BATNA
D. target point
Negotiators who desire to increase their share of the bargaining zone are best advised to:
A. set fair aspirations
B. reveal their reservation price
C. improve their BATNA
D. avoid making the first offer
Câu 14: In Positive Bargaining Zone ...:
A. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are not coincided
B. The parties can not negotiate to reach an agreement. Therefore, they must step out
of negotiation and use BATNAs.
C. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are coincided
D. The most amount a buyer is willing to pay, less than the least the most that the
seller is willing to accept.
Câu 16: When Bargaining Zone is negative, we should:
A. Make a deal
B. Exercise our BATNA
C. Change the reservation point.
D. None of these above.
______ is a type of negotiation in which the buyer and seller of a product dispute the price which will be
paid and the exact nature of the transaction that will take place in hope that they will come to an
agreement.
A. Bargaining
B. Bazaar
C. Bureaucracy
D. Bribery
Q9) What is not a part of the negotiation process
1. bargaining and problem solving
2. clarification and justification
3. evaluation of process
4. closure and implementation
The negotiator's surplus is the positive difference between:
A. negotiators' reservation points
B. the settlement outcome and the negotiator's reservation point
C. the bargaining surplus and the settlement outcome
D. the best and worst possible economic outcomes
4. A negative bargaining zone indicates that:
A. parties are worse off by not reaching agreement than by reaching agreement
B. there is no positive overlap between the parties' reservation points
C. parties should keep negotiating to find a positive bargaining zone
D. the counterparty's first offer was not accepted
STAND FOR/ DEF.
61. The bargaining range is defined by

A) the opening stance and the initial concession.

B) the initial round of concessions.
 C) the bargaining mix and the opening stance.
D) the opening offer and the counteroffer.
E) The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.
41. Perception is
A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment.
B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of
earlier communications.
C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed.
D) a complex physical and psychological process.
E) All of the above describe perception.
9. BATNA stands for
A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement.
B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement.
C) best alternative to a negative agreement.
D) best alternative to a negative assignment.
E) BATNA stands for none of the above.
GAM stands for ______
A. Global Account Management
B. Global Association of Manufacturers
C. Ghana Angola and Mali
D. Global Auditing of Manufacturers
Negotiators should assess themselves and their resources before commencing negotiation. One question a
negotiator should ask is, "What are my sunk costs?" A sunk cost is best defined as:
A. money you have invested, that is for all practical purposes, spent
B. a contractual cost
C. money you expect to be paid at the completion of a service contract
D. the yield expected from a stock price
32. Encoding can be defined as
A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for
interpreting the decoded messages.
B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form.
C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense.
D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message.
E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.
34. "Interpretation" can be defined as
A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message.
B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual.
C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for
interpreting the decoded messages.
D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals.
E) None of the above define "interpretation."
A dispute is best defined as a situation in which:
A. parties have to resort to their BATNA's
B. parties fail to exchange resources
C. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party
D. negotiators turn down favors and rewards from others
54. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem
would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to
agree on a statement of the problem?
A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides.
B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness.
C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal.
D) depersonalizing the problem.
E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.
59. Negative emotions may lead parties to
A) more integrative processes
B) escalate the conflict
C) promote persistence
D) define the situation as integrative
E) more integrative outcomes
36. Define exonerating circumstances.
A) Negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did.
B) Negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current
position may appear negative it derives from positive motives.
C) Outcomes can be explained by changing the context.
D) Negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes.
E) None of the above can define exonerating circumstances.
Negotiator's evaluations of the fairness of procedures determines their satisfaction and willingness to
comply with negotiated outcomes. Procedural justice is best defined as:
A. the promises made to a counterparty to deliver on a contract
B. the processes by which decisions are made, the methodology behind how resources are distributed, and how
outcomes are determined
C. the agreements wherein negotiators make bets based on their differences in beliefs, forecasts, risk profiles,
and interests.
D. the rectification of wrongs
EXCEPT
Negotiators who make multiple offers have an edge in all of these critical aspects except:
1. gaining better information about the other party
2. sweetening the deal and offering to make future concessions
3. being more aggressive in terms of anchoring the negotiation favorably
4. signaling one's priorities more effectively
Question 7: To find the way to solve people problems, it is useful to think in terms of
basic categories below except:
A. Perception (sự am hiểu) nhận thức
B. Emotion
C. Communication
D. Relationship
Question 17: Below are modes of conflict management except:
A. Compromise
B. Accommodative
C. Collaborative
D. Uncooperative
All of the following strategies can potentially increase joint gain, except:
1. downplaying parties' differences
2. disclosing preferences and priorities
3. negotiating issues simultaneously
4. identifying more than one issue
Some negotiators are tempted to lie to the other party in a negotiation. Lying to the counterparty may
result in all of the following except:
A. damages a negotiator's reputation
B. respect and subordination of the counterparty
C. having the other party call your bluff
D. an increased likelihood of the chilling effect
'Locked-up' channels occur for all the following reasons except:
A. significant volume requirements from manufacturers
B. agreement prohibiting distributors from selling competitive products
C. channel members' ability to change allegiance without major negative consequences
D. channel members' unwillingness to risk pioneering new products
BATNA-ZOPA
Question 16: What does BATNA mean?
A. Best Alternative to Negotiated agreement
B. Bad Alternative to Negotiating agreement
C. Best Alternative to No agreement
D. Bad Alternative to No agreement
Question 19: The reservation point is mostly related to the
A. negotiator's target point
B. negotiator's BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. negotiator's opening offer
Question 28:Main benefit of BATNA
Good power
Question 18: One strategy for improving one's BATNA is to
A. discuss it with the counterparty
B. follow the "falling in love" rule
C. replace it with aspiration point
D. change it as a result of the progress of the negotiation
The three sources of risk in negotiation include
A. tactical risk, strategic risk, overconfidence risk
B. failure risk, BATNA risk, information-sharing risk
C. contractual risk, overconfidence risk, failure risk
D. strategic risk, BATNA risk, contractual risk
One strategy for improving one's BATNA in negotiation is to:
A. discuss it in explicit terms with the counterparty
B. improve your alternative options before going to the negotiation table
C. replace it with an aspiration point
D. revise it in reaction to progress of the negotiation
A negotiator's reservation point is a quantification of the negotiator's:
A. target point
B. BATNA
C. bargaining zone (ZOPA)
D. opening offer
A dispute is best defined as a situation in which:
A. parties have to resort to their BATNA's
B. parties fail to exchange resources
C. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party
D. negotiators turn down favors and rewards from others
In order to reach a successful negotiation outcome, the negotiators must understand that their BATNAis:
A. the outcome that the negotiator wishes to achieve
B. able to be modified by persuasive offers
C. not time sensitive
D. determined by objective reality
The term used to represent the quantification of a negotiator's BATNA with respect to other alternatives
is known as:
A. the reservation point
B. the target point
C. the focal point
D. a sunk cost
When you are asked about your desired salary in a job interview, what is the best response to use with
the prospective employer?
A. Make an extreme offer and negotiate your way back down to your acceptable BATNA range
B. Give a salary range that would meet your needs in order to seem less fixated on a particular number.
C. Make a take-it-or-leave-it offer
D. Identify a variety of different combinations of highly attractive offer packages and present those packages to
the employer
A dispute occurs when
A. parties have to resort to their BATNAs
B. parties fail to exchange resources
C. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party
D. we turn down favors and rewards from others
Which of the following statements are not true when it comes to BATNAs?
A. They are dynamic and constantly changing
B. It is generally wise to reveal them
C. They are determined by the negotiator's available options
D. They are a good anchor point for the negotiator
BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement) determines the point at which a negotiator is
prepared to
A. make larger concessions
B. keep options open
C. walk away from the negotiation table
D. identify counterparty's alternatives
What is the main benefit of having a good BATNA?
A. it increases awareness of the product in foreign markets
B. it increases negotiation power
C. it increases export capacity
D. it increases market share in foreign markets
The bargaining zone, or zone of possible agreements (ZOPA), is the range
A. below the seller's reservation point and above the buyer's target point
B. above the seller's focal point and above the buyer's aspiration point
C. between negotiators' reservation points
D. between negotiators' target points
In a positive bargaining zone, negotiators' reservation points overlap. If the parties fail to reach an
agreement when a positive bargaining zone exists, the outcome is ______ because ______.
A. uneven ; of the chilling effect
B. even ; both sides can walk away
C. a suboptimal impasse ; the negotiators left money on the table
D. unilateral ; negotiators will have to exercise their BATNA's
The _______ is a measure of the value that a negotiated agreement offers to both parties over the value of
not reaching a settlement.
A. negotiator's surplus
B. bargaining surplus
C. BATNA
D. target point
Negotiators who desire to increase their share of the bargaining zone are best advised to:
A. set fair aspirations
B. reveal their reservation price
C. improve their BATNA
D. avoid making the first offer
Revealing information about a BATNA or a reservation point:
A. reduces a negotiator's power in a negotiation
B. increases the counterparty's propensity for strategic risk taking
C. is a pie-expanding strategy
D. improves the negotiator's odds of getting what they want
According to a research study examining post-negotiation satisfaction, negotiators who focus on their
ideal outcomes do not feel as satisfied as negotiators who focus on their:
A. first offer
B. BATNA
C. negotiator's surplus
D. ZOPA
B. BATNA
If the counterparty makes the first offer, negotiators are best advised to:
A. accept their first offer
B. make a counteroffer in a timely fashion
C. make your counteroffer your final offer
D. adjust your BATNA based upon the counterparty's offer
What factors can lead a negotiator to be uncertain about his or her BATNA?
A. Potential alternatives present themselves all at once, giving the person a wide range of choices
B. The person is presented with a take it or leave it offer
C. The person is not confident in their reservation point
D. Potential alternatives arrive sequentially, rather than all at the same time
9. BATNA stands for
A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement.
B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement.
C) best alternative to a negative agreement.
D) best alternative to a negative assignment.
E) BATNA stands for none of the above.
Câu 14: In Positive Bargaining Zone ...:
A. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are not coincided
B. The parties can not negotiate to reach an agreement. Therefore, they must step out
of negotiation and use BATNAs.
C. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are coincided
D. The most amount a buyer is willing to pay, less than the least the most that the
seller is willing to accept.
Câu 16: When Bargaining Zone is negative, we should:
A. Make a deal
B. Exercise our BATNA
C. Change the reservation point.
D. None of these above.
Câu 27: What is NOT Positional Negotiation Strategy?
A. Research the other party’s BATNA and estimate their reservation point.
B. Determine your reservation point but do not reveal it.
C. Set low aspirations.
D. Make the first offer (if you are prepared)
7. What is the main benefits of having a good Batna?
B. Increasing nego power
TÊN NƯỚC, TÊN RIÊNG
If an English tourist in Tokyo pays more in British Pounds for the same amount of Yen that she bought
last week, then:
A. the Yen has depreciated relative to the British Pound.
B. the British Pound has appreciated relative to the Yen.
C. a Japanese tourist in London pays more in Yen for the same amount of British Pounds that she bought the
week before.
D. the British Pound has depreciated relative to the Yen.
Philip Kotler distinguishes the following four types of marketing control, each involving different
approaches, purposes and allocation of responsibilities:
A. production control, planning control, human resources control and long-term control
B. strategic control, efficiency control, annual plan control and profit control
C. pricing control, efficiency control, communication plan control and product quality control
D. strategic control, systematic control, human resources control and feedforward control
The world’s number one producer of sunglasses is:
A. China
B. India
C. The United States of America
D. Italy
Which of the following countries is the most culturally challenging for a Westernized organization
wishing to expand internationally?
A. The United States of America
B. Japan
C. France
D. Germany
Guinness is a stout market leader in which region(s)?
A. North America
B. Middle East
C. Africa
D. B and C
Business negotiations between equals (low power distance) is not a concept found in:
A. Russia
B. Korea
C. Japan
D. all of the above countries
48. Those attempting to negotiate in China recognize the value the Chinese place in saving
<face.= Which of the following cultural elements should also be examined in approaching
discussions with the Chinese?
A) Social linkage
B) Harmony
C) Roles
D) Reciprocal obligations
E) All of the above should be considered
38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more
compelling by using
A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party.
B) low immediacy.
C) high intensity.
D) low verbal diversity.
E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.
Câu 33: When the your party use Making The First Offer Strategy, you should:
A. Plan your concessions.
B. Immediately reanchor
C. Accept “Even Split”
D. Use facts and objectives criteria.
Question 2: China is known as a __________ culture that values relationships and
the harmony ___________and facework that nurture them.
A. collectivist/cooperation
B. collectivist/competition
C. individualist/cooperation
D. individualist/competition
The Boulwarism strategy, named after a former CEO, often engenders hostility from the counterparty
because it prescribes that negotiators should:
A. make their first offer their final offer
B. immediately reanchor the negotiation if the other party opens first
C. lie about their reservation point
D. manipulate the counterparty's reservation point
Question 3: Japanese businessmen typically do not believe in
A. using first names unless in the very best interest of personal relationships
B. low context cultures and their informal downplay business status
C. business friendships and group decisions
D. any of the above
Question 8: Which statement is NOT true about how L'Oreal, a global brand, is
perceived in various world markets?
A. In individualistic cultures L'Oreal is viewed as a 'must have in order to be
successful'
B. In low power distance cultures L'Oreal is viewed as friendly.
C. In high uncertainty avoidance cultures L'Oreal is viewed as trustworthy.
D. In collectivistic cultures L'Oreal is viewed as prestigious (có uy tín) and
international.

TRUE, NOT TRUE, CORRECT, NOT CORRECT EXCEPT

Câu 40: When the negotiator plan his concession, he should pay attention to the following:
A. Should not offer more than a single concession at a time to the counterparty
B. Wait for a concession from the counterparty before making further concessions
unless you feel that the counterparty’s offer is truly at his reservation point.
C. Shoul begin few early concessions and later made larger concessions.
D. All are correct.
31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order?
A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides
feedback to the sender
B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides
feedback to the sender
C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides
feedback to the sender
D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender,
receiver decodes the message
E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The German and British organization models are similar in terms how personal command is exercised.
B. The British organization model is more of a pyramidal hierarchy held together by a united command issuing
strong rules compared to the French organization model where resolution of problems is achieved by
negotiating.
C. The German model of organization is more like a well-oiled machine compared to the British model of
organization which resembles that of a village market with no decisive hierarchy.
D. The French organization model is more of a pyramidal hierarchy held together by a united command issuing
strong rules compared to the British system where the exercise of personal command is largely unnecessary
because rules settle everything.
3. Which of the following statements about conflict is true?
A) Conflict is the result of tangible factors.
B) Conflict can occur when two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same
outcome.
C) Conflict only occurs when both parties want a very different settlement.
D) Conflict has a minimal effect on interdependent relationships.
E) All of the above statements about conflict are true.
65. What statement about concessions is false?
A) Concessions are central to negotiations.
B) Concessions is another word for adjustments in position.
C) Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk.
D) Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process.
E) All of the above statements are true.
57. Which of the following statements about interests is true?
A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute.
B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake.
C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values.
D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation.
E) All of the above statements about interests are true.
69. Which is not true of limits?
A) Are the point where you should stop the negotiation
B) Are also called resistance point
C) Establishing them is a critical part of planning
D) They should be ignored in a bidding war
E) All of the above
53. Which of the following statements is true:
A. Negotiators from some cultures primarily use integrative strategy while those in other
cultures primarily use distributive strategy
B. You can apply the same way of dealing with negotiators from the same culture
C. Culture is everything you need to consider before a negotiation
D. A negotiator does not necessarily behave like those who share the culture with him/her
Câu 2: Which is NOT TRUE about the content of the Generate option principle is:
A. Make negotiation become a brainstorming to come up with ideas and options thát
can meet interests of both sides.
B. Discuss to understand both sides' interests and search for common ones and
mutual gains.
C. Narrow the options on the table, rather than look for a single answer.
D. Select the most persuasive option to offer the other side.
Câu 20: Which of the following is synonym for Distributive Negotiation?
A. Positional Negotiation
B. Bargaining Negotiation
C. A & B are False
D. A & B are True
Câu 10: Independent and objective standards can be used:
A. Scientific findings & Professional standards
B. Business or industry practices & Legal precedent & Efficency/Cost
C. Fairness among customers & Ethical standards & Market value
D. All of the above are correct.
Câu 11: How to apply criteria in negotiation?
A. Consider each negotiation as a search for objective criteria. If the other party
suggest criteria in advanced, aske them why
B. Using the other parties’ criteria to support your own position and interests can be a
powerful way to negotiate.
C. Don’t give in to pressure, threats or bribes but be willing to reconsider our
positions when there is reason to
D. When the other party stubbornly refuses to be reasonable, the first party may shift
the discussion from a search for substantive criteria to a search for procedural
criteria.
E. All of the above are correct.
F. All of the above are incorrect.
Câu 28: Why is the first offer important in negotiation?
A. You will never achieve more than your first offer.
B. The first offer plays a role as an important anchor point in negotiation.
C. We base the other party's first offer as a measure of that party's desire.
D. All of the above are correct.
Câu 29: In set high aspirations strategy, people should:
A. Be realistics but optimistic.
B. Make the first offer slightly lower than the other parties' reservation points, and
then you can negotiate to their reservation point.
C. A & B are true.
D. A & B are false.
Question 8: Which statement is NOT true about how L'Oreal, a global brand, is
perceived in various world markets?
A. In individualistic cultures L'Oreal is viewed as a 'must have in order to be
successful'
B. In low power distance cultures L'Oreal is viewed as friendly.
C. In high uncertainty avoidance cultures L'Oreal is viewed as trustworthy.
D. In collectivistic cultures L'Oreal is viewed as prestigious (có uy tín) and
international.
Which of the following statements are not true when it comes to BATNAs?
A. They are dynamic and constantly changing
B. It is generally wise to reveal them
C. They are determined by the negotiator's available options
D. They are a good anchor point for the negotiator
FILLING
Câu 14: In Positive Bargaining Zone ...:
A. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are not coincided
B. The parties can not negotiate to reach an agreement. Therefore, they must step out of negotiation and use
BATNAs.
C. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are coincided
D. The most amount a buyer is willing to pay, less than the least the most that the the seller is willing to accept.
The _______ is a measure of the value that a negotiated agreement offers to both parties over the value of
not reaching a settlement.
A. negotiator's surplus
B. bargaining surplus
C. BATNA
D. target point
The more _____ the negotiator, the more likely it is that she or he will make greater concessions.
A. vigilant
B. risk-averse
C. risk-seeking
D. confident
In negotiation, having your first offer immediately accepted by the counterparty is likely to lead to
feelings of what might have been different, also known as_________?
A. linkage effects
B. counterfactual thinking
C. hindsight bias
D. gambler's fallacy
Unilateral concessions refer to ______; bilateral concessions refer to ________.
A. differential concessions ; homogeneous concessions
B. general concessions made by both sides ; specific concessions made by one party
C. consistent concessions ; inconsistent concessions
4.An individual’s behaviour in a foreign society becomes noticeable when it
____________ in relation to the foreign culture.
Correct Answer:deviates
55. The resistance point is established by the ____________ expected from a particular outcome, which is
in turn the product of the ____________ and ____________ of an outcome.
A) cost, value, worth
B) value, worth, cost
C) value, cost and timeliness
D) cost, importance, value
E) None of the above.
56. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are
____________, the more modest will be the other's resistance point.
A) high
B) modest
C) extreme
D) low
E) None of the above.
62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the
_____________ process.
A) expanding the pie
B) logrolling
C) nonspecific compensation
D) bridging
E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.
It is not advisable to focus on a single issue in a negotiation because single-issue negotiations are _______
in nature.
A. variable-sum
B. integrative
C. mixed-motive
D. fixed-sum
Negotiators should take the time to brainstorm how a single-issue negotiation may be segmented into
multiple issues. By identifying and segmenting the negotiation into multiple issues, negotiators may
create _________ .
A. a less complicated negotiation
B. more issues that could lead to an impasse
C. integrative potential
D. a potentially illegal negotiation situation
Negotiators can focus on gains or losses during a negotiation. Most negotiators are _______ when it
comes to losses, and _______ when it comes to gains.
A. risk-averse ; risk-seeking
B. risk-seeking ; risk-averse
C. rational ; irrational
D. irrational ; rational
Negotiation is best described as a _______, which involves both _________ and ________.
A. self-assessment ; focus ; introspection
B. grass-is-greener negotiation ; selectiveness ; restlessness
C. strategic risk ; aggressiveness ; gambling
D. mixed-motive enterprise ; cooperation ; competition
Effective negotiation preparation encompasses three general abilities: situation assessment, other-party
assessment, and _______.
A. financial assessment
B. location assessment
C. team assessment
D. self-assessment
______ is a type of negotiation in which the buyer and seller of a product dispute the price which will be
paid and the exact nature of the transaction that will take place in hope that they will come to an
agreement.
A. Bargaining
B. Bazaar
C. Bureaucracy
D. Bribery
A strategy of ______ pricing involves using price as a competitive weapon in order to push competitors
out of a national market.
A. incremental
B. premium
C. predatory
D. psychological
GAM stands for ______
A. Global Account Management
B. Global Association of Manufacturers
C. Ghana Angola and Mali
D. Global Auditing of Manufacturers
The belief that a very technically competent employee from a domestic market will perform just as well
in any of the foreign countries where the organization operates is a(n) ______ approach to international
HR staffing.
A. recommended
B. low risk
C. excellent
D. high risk
5. in ------ participants are friend the goal is agreement
A Soft nego
Câu 38: Unilateral Concession is ....
A. The type concessions from one side
B. The kind of concession from all parties in the negotiation.
C. minimizing the magnitude of concessions to maximize your surplus.
D. offer more than a single concession at a time to the counterparty.
Câu 14: In Positive Bargaining Zone ...:
A. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are not coincided
B. The parties can not negotiate to reach an agreement. Therefore, they must step out
of negotiation and use BATNAs.
C. The Reservation Points of negotiating parties are coincided
D. The most amount a buyer is willing to pay, less than the least the most that the
seller is willing to accept.
Question 2: China is known as a __________ culture that values relationships and
the harmony ___________and facework that nurture them.
A. collectivist/cooperation
B. collectivist/competition
C. individualist/cooperation
D. individualist/competition
Question 12: ________ bargainers (người mặc cả) conceive of negotiation as a
process of distributing a fixed amount of value.
A. Integrative
B. Positional
C. Distributive
D. Hard
Question 13: _________ use contentious strategies to influence, utilizing (tận
dụng) phrases such as "this is my final offer" and "take it or leave it." They make
threats, are distrustful of others, insist on their position, and apply pressure to
negotiate. They see others as adversaries (đối thủ) and their ultimate (tối thượng)
goal is victory.
A. Soft negotiators
B. Hard negotiators
C. Principled negotiators
D. Soft bargainers
Question 14: Individuals who bargain this way seek integrative solutions, and do so
by sidestepping commitment to specific positions __________ focus on the problem
rather than the intentions, motives, and needs of the people involved. They separate
the people from the problem, explore interests, avoid bottom lines, and reach results
based on standards (which are independent of personal will)
A. Soft negotiators
B. Hard negotiators
C. Principled negotiators
D. Soft bargainers
Question 25: The decision-making process for those with______preferences is
objectively based on logic & analysis & for those with a preference for _____ there is
a greater emphasis in personal values involving social & human factors
thinking (T)/Feeling (F)
Question 26: People with a lot of ___ get along well with everyone
A.Whorfts
B.Loops
C.Arches
D. accidentals
Consumer product channels tend to be ______ industrial product channels.
A. identical to
B. longer than
C. the same length as
D. shorter than
______ involves charging a high price to achieve the highest possible contribution in a short period of
time.
A. Skimming
B. Penetration pricing
C. Psychological pricing
D. Transfer pricing
______ implies that the prices in the individual countries may only vary within a set range.
A. A price corridor
B. Transfer pricing
C. Barter
D. Standardized pricing
Tariff levels from country to country affect an organization's ______ strategies.
A. pricing
B. product
C. processes
D. sales management
Question 4: Negotiation strategy is partly concerned with:
A. searching for a common goal
B. prolonging (gia hạn, kéo dài) the length of the negotiation
C. avoiding failure
D. ending the discussion
Question 5: Negotiation implies that both parties accept that the agreement
between them is:
A. subject to further dispute (cuộc tranh cãi, bàn cãi)
B. conditional
C. final and binding cuối cùng và ràng buộc
D. necessary
Question 6: One's negotiation objective should be:
A. Ideal
B. Personal
C. Social
D. Realistic
Question 15: Determining the issues to be negotiated is critical. What is the best
method to establish negotiation objectives?
A. To get the lowest price for the Government.
B. Developing three positions: minimum, most likely, and maximum objective.
C. To minimize the profit of the contractor.
D. Developing a schedule and cost that is most advantageous to the Government.
Question 20: Most commonly, third-party intervention takes the form of
A. power differential
B. pie-slicing
C. partnership
D. mediation or arbitration
Question 21: The goals of negotiation in international business are:
Get financial benefit
Question 22: Which of following is not a problem in cross-culture international
business negotiation:
Prepare for negotiation
Question 23: A negotiation is discussed in a tone that focuses attention on the need
to reach a satisfactory solution by
Joint problem-solving
Question 24: The final aim of negotiation is to
implement an agreement between two parties
Question 29: Gì tượng trưng cho cái chết ở Trung quốc (china), đồng hồ là quà
tặng
Chọn Death (chắc đồng hồ là quà thì tượng trưng cho cái chết)
Question 30: More cooperative and Creative behavior
Chọn A: Low masculine-low power distance
Question 31: Individualistic cultures is a must have to be successful
Chọn A ???
Countries in which the retail systems are fragmented tend to have:
A. no cartels
B. longer distribution channels
C. fewer customers
D. few suppliers
In international marketing, the most critical distribution questions are:
A. choice of market-entry methods
B. 'choice of international shipping method' and 'choice of local logistics in foreign markets'
C. choice of international shipping method
D. choice of local logistics in foreign markets
The physical storage of goods waiting to be passed on to the customers is known as:
A. audit
B. warehousing
C. stock control
D. merchandising
When an organization's intermediary is located in the target foreign market, the international entry
model is known as:
A. direct exporting
B. indirect exporting
C. franchising
D. joint-venture
Which of the following does not contribute to price escalation in foreign markets?
A. Shipping charges
B. Insurance charges
C. Product image
D. VAT
Which currency is also referred to as a vehicle currency?
A. The US Dollar.
B. The Japanese Yen
C. The Euro
D. The British Pound
The main differences between the gray and the black markets are:
A. that black markets are the parts of an economic activity involving illegal deals while gray markets refer to
the flow of goods through unauthorized distribution channels.
B. that black markets may be the subject of illegal product dealings, such as weapons and illegal drugs.
C. that gray market goods are not illegal while black market goods may be illegal.
D. all of the above.
The most restrictive type of countertrade is:
A. counterpurchase
B. switch trading
C. barter
D. offset
One of the following is not a form of letter of credit:
A. irrevocable but unconfirmed L/C
B. confirmed irrevocable L/C
C. revocable L/C
D. confirmed revocable L/C
Which staffing policy is the most consistent with an international multidomestic strategy?
A. Polycentric
B. Ethnocentric
C. Geocentric
D. Regiocentric

The purpose of the global marketing plan is to create sustainable competitive advantages in the global
marketplace. In SMEs, this process is likely to be:
A. systematized
B. better put together than in LSEs
C. formal
D. informal
In which of the following situations do geographical structures best serve firms wishing to
internationalize?
A. When companies are more experienced with international markets and business.
B. When firms have a homogeneous range of products that need fast and efficient world-wide distribution.
C. When firms have diversified product lines and extensive R&D activities.
D. None of the above
Which type of marketing structure implies that divisions become primarily responsible for the
development and implementation of the overall international strategy?
A. The matrix structure
B. The functional structure
C. The international division structure
D. The geographical structure
One of the main advantages of an ethnocentric staffing policy in international markets is:
A. it facilitates the transfer of core competencies to and among the firm's foreign subsidiaries.
B. it results in very technically competent staff.
C. it is cheaper.
D. none of the above
Which type of relationship has the advantage of allowing the understanding of global account opening?
A. The 'concentric' relationship
B. The 'bow' tie relationship
C. The 'diamond' relationship
D. None of the above
The world-wide sunglasses market is usually segmented by:
A. status and price
B. function and brand
C. price and function
D. price and season
According to Svend Hollensen, the simplest approach to global marketing organization is represented by:

A. the product structure

B. the functional structure
C. the matrix structure
D. the geographical structure
The main situations when the existence of regional management centers is necessary are:
A. 'when sales volume in a particular region becomes substantial' and 'when each region needs to be treated
separately due to the homogeneity within regions and the heterogeneity between them' are correct.
B. when each region needs to be treated separately due to the homogeneity within regions and the heterogeneity
between them.
C. when sales volume in a particular region becomes substantial.
D. when management is not trained to manage large regions.
`A ______ style is the pattern of behaviour an individual develops in response to conflict with others,
such as differences of opinion.
A. autocratic management
B. consultative management
C. laissez-faire management
D. conflict management
Compared to North Americans and North Europeans who prefer short negotiations and to 'get down to
business' as soon as possible, Japanese businessmen prefer:
A. to meet up several times before negotiating
B. to take their time
C. to feel that there is mutual trust and respect
D. all of the above
Business negotiations between which cultures usually result in more cooperative and creative behaviour?
A. When a business person from a low masculine culture meets a business person from a low power distance
culture.
B. When a business person from a high masculine culture meets a business person from a high power distance
culture.
C. When a business person from a collectivist culture meets a business person from an individualist culture.
D. None of the situations described above
Compared to feminine cultures, in masculine cultures conflict is usually resolved through:
A. compromise
B. cooperation
C. fighting
D. invasion
Compared to negotiators from low risk-avoidance countries, negotiators from high risk-avoidance
countries are likely to seek:
A. specific commitments in terms of volume, timing and requirements
B. clearly defined structure and guidance
C. flexibility and compromise
D. A and B
International marketers must know that when contemplating offering gifts to their Chinese business
counterparts or their families, clocks are inappropriate because:
A. they are generally cheap and bear 'no value'.
B. they are associated with death.
C. Chinese do not put so much emphasis on time.
D. their presence implies that work hours are not over 'yet'.
When meeting a devout Muslim businessman, one must not:
A. point to the clock as clocks are associated with death in high context cultures.
B. show creative behaviour or behave in any way over-cooperative as it is considered to be a sign of
humiliation.
C. show seniority, as the meeting will come to a sharp end.
D. shake with the left hand as it is considered to be rude.
The main differences between bribery and lubrication are:
A. bribery involves large sums of money, which are frequently not accounted for, and is designed to entice an
official to commit an illegal act on behalf of the one paying the bribe.
B. lubrication payments involve small cash sums, gifts or services made to a low-ranking official in a country
where such offerings are prohibited by law.
C. lubrication payments accompany requests for a person to do the job more rapidly and efficiently.
D. all of the above
Informal negotiation involves
1. two people
2. four people
3. three people
4. any number of people
Persuasion is an essential element of effective negotiation because it helps in
1. effecting agreements and solutions in the interest of all
2. achieving one’s own interests
3. resolving disputes among people
4. settling issues between two parties
The final aim of negotiation is to
1. end a dispute
2. win at all cost
3. reach an agreement
4. implement an agreement between two parties thực hiện thỏa thuận giữa hai bên
A negotiation is discussed in a tone that focuses attention on the need to reach a satisfactory solution by
Một cuộc đàm phán được thảo luận với giọng điệu tập trung sự chú ý vào nhu cầu đạt được một giải
pháp thỏa đáng bằng cách
1. joint problem-solving giải quyết vấn đề chung
2. making proposals
 3. setting conditions
4. setting conditions force
In order to persuade others, facts should be discussed from the point of view of a
1. fourth party
2. third party
3. first party
4. second party
In negotiations, the interpretation of a cue requires skill because it may be
Trong các cuộc đàm phán, việc giải thích một gợi ý đòi hỏi kỹ năng vì nó có thể
1. ambiguous mơ hồ
2. behavioral
3. intentional
4. intentional verbal
Using feedback in sales negotiation, result in
1. distort communication in negotiation
2. motivate the sender to change his or her behavior
3. lead negotiators to change the way that negotiate
4. all of these
Which stage in negotiation process, involve setting of objectives for a sales negotiation
1. preparation
2. presentation
3. value exchange
4. none of these
The sales negotiation process ,start with
1. revealing objections
2. getting to know the negotiator
3. revealing conflicts
4. none of these
The negotiation process has three stages. Which one of the following is NOT a stage?
1. preparation
2. action
3. strategy confirmation
4. settling on details
In third-party negotiations, a third party with the authority to dictate (ra lệnh) an agreement is known as
a(n)
1. conciliator
2. mediator
3. consultant
4. arbitrator
Cooperativeness in sales negotiation, refers to
1. these is an absence of conflict
2. the organization satisfies its own goals
3. one party attempt to satisfy the other party's concerns
4. one party attempt to satisfy his concerns
Sales negotiation is exemplified (được ví như) as
1. values
2. alternatives
3. paradoxes nghịch lý
4. principles
Which concept used for setting objectives you set fo sales negotiation , refers to what you have to trade
1. cost
2. currency
3. profit
4. value
How a company is situated relative to its competitors is referred to as
1. market share
 2. Position
3. competitive advantage
4. brand leadership
01) Which of the following is accomplished during planning step in the negotiation process
A. developing procedures necessary for implementation.
B. actual give-and take in trying to reach an agreernent.
C. educating and informing each other on the issues.
D. anticipating the opponent's position.
02) What is not a distinctive feature of a negotiation
A. conflict between parties
B. an established set of rules
C. two or more parties involved
D. a voluntary process
03) Which of the following is unethical during negotiations
1. misrepresentation
2. bluffing
3. inappropriate information collection
4. All of these
05) Which of the following is the first step of the negotiation process
1. None of these
2. Getting to know the negotiators
3. Revealing conflicts
4. Revealing objections
06) What is the common form of negotiation
1. Successively talking
2. Haggling
3. Wise agreement
4. None of these
07) Which of the following is not applicable for negotiations
1. licensing agreements
2. determirang exchange rates
3. debt repayment schedules
4. large-scale export sales
08) Which of the following is the best method to establish negotiation objectives
1. To get the lowest price for the Government.
2. Developing three positions, miriimum, most likely, and maximum objective
3. To minimize the profit of the contractor
4. Developing a schedule and cost that is most advantageous to the Government
A type of negotiation behavior known as reactive devaluation is demonstrated by
A. the grass-is-greener negotiator
B. a positional negotiator
C. an overaspiring negotiator
D. an underaspiring negotiator
The endowment effect is
A. the difference between what sellers demand and what buyers are willing to pay
B. a tendency for people to value an object more once they own it
C. the value we associate with a certain object or outcome
D. saving money instead of purchasing goods
TYPES OF NEGOTIATION
The first level integrative agreements
1. exceed parties' no-agreement possibilities or reservation points
2. do not create value relative to parties' best alternative
3. are as good as parties' reservation points
4. are as good as parties' disagreement alternatives
A negotiated agreement is considered the pareto-optimal frontier if
1. both negotiators are satisfied with the outcome
2. the achieved outcome is beneficial to both negotiators
3. it is impossible to improve any negotiator's outcome without hurting the other party's outcome
4. it is possible to improve one negotiator's outcome without hurting the other party's outcome
The fixed-pie perception refers to
1. simultaneously improving the outcomes for both parties
2. believing that the counterparty's interests are directly opposed to one's own interests
3. fixed alternative agreements that improve one party's outcome
4. settling for outcomes that exceed parties' reservation points
A contingent contract generally refers to a contract in which The illusion of transparency refers to which
phenomenon?
1. both parties are confident in positive outcomes in any turn of events
2. negotiators agree on the probability of future events
3. terms in the future will differ depending on the realization of some future event
4. lots of room is left for ambiguity
The illusion of transparency refers to which phenomenon?
1. Making predictions when information is in short supply
2. Human judgment and decision-making differ from rational choice
3. Making reasonable estimation based on a single known data point
4. People believe they are revealing more than they actually are
A type of negotiation behavior known as reactive devaluation refers to:
A. a negotiator who does not know what he or she really wants other than not wanting what the other party is
offering
B. a negotiator who sets the target point too high and refuses to make any concessions
C. a negotiator who overvalues the counterparty's offer
D. an negotiator who opens the negotiation by setting their target too low
In negotiation, buyers and sellers may adopt differing bargaining positions for an object, but their
private valuations for the object should not differ as a consequence of who has possession. The
endowment effect is best described as:
A. the difference between what sellers demand and what buyers are willing to pay
B. a tendency for people to value an object more once they own it
C. the intrinsic value we associate with a certain outcome
D. saving money instead of purchasing goods
Negotiators who make the mistake of not developing a reservation point before they negotiate often focus
on:
A. personal grudges
B. arbitray values
C. their reputation
D. time constraints
As compared to negotiators who focus on maximizing gains, negotiators who focus on minimizing their
losses are more likely to:
A. reach agreement
B. minimize their strategic risks
C. make few concessions and reach fewer agreements
D. accept a sure thing
The more _____ the negotiator, the more likely it is that she or he will make greater concessions.
A. vigilant
B. risk-averse
C. risk-seeking
D. confident
What is meant by counterfactual thinking in negotiation?
A. A negotiator who focuses intensely on what outcome he or she wants
B. A negotiator who thinks about what might have been but did not occur
C. A negotiator who plays the devil's advocate with the other party
D. A negotiator who considers whether the other party will follow through on the terms of their agreement
In negotiation, having your first offer immediately accepted by the counterparty is likely to lead to
feelings of what might have been different, also known as_________?
A. linkage effects
B. counterfactual thinking
C. hindsight bias
D. gambler's fallacy
What is meant by the hidden table in a negotiation?
A. An undisclosed group of resources
B. The ultimate goal of a good negotiator
C. Important parties who are the real decision makers are not present at the negotiation table
D. The undisclosed offers that could have been made
CULTURAL DIMENTION
If you reveal your reservation point during the course of negotiation:
A. the other party has little or no incentive to offer you more
B. parties will reach an impasse
C. the counterparty will reveal his or her reservation point
D. you will get a bigger slice of the pie
Which of the following is a strategically wise method of anchoring?
A. Setting an assertive aspiration point early in the negotiation
B. Immediately rejecting the counterparty's first offer
C. Determining the exact midpoint between the last two offers on the table
D. Refusing to make any concessions
When formulating counteroffers and concessions, negotiators need to consider three things:
A. the starting value, the end value, and the magnitude of concessions
B. the fairness, the misuse, and the pattern of concessions
C. the pattern, the magnitude, and the timing of concessions
D. the impact, the size, and the timing of endowment effects
Concerning the multiple methods of fair resource division, which of the following statements is true
regarding the equity rule?
A. The needs based rule is most commonly used to allocate burdens
B. An example of the equity rule is the U.S. legal system
C. The equity rule prescribes that outcomes are distributed without regard to inputs
D. Distribution should be proportional to a person's contribution
If the counterparty opens with an "outrageous" offer, the negotiator should:
A. lower his/her aspirations
B. reveal his/her reservation price
C. immediately re-anchor
D. appeal to norms of fairness
What principle is best to keep in mind when making an opening offer in a negotiation?
A. Don't open too high, or you will insult the counterparty
B. Don't open too low, or you will offend the counterparty
C. Offer a numerical range
D. Make several offers that are satisfying to you
What is meant by a premature concession in negotiation?
A. Concessions that are not offered in a timely fashion
B. Concessions that leave the negotiator wondering "what could I have gotten if I had done things differently?"
C. When a negotiator makes multiple concessions before the other party responds
D. When the counterparty gives up on offering concessions before agreement is reached
Counteroffers accomplish two things; first they signal your willingness to negotiate, and second:
A. they establish your reputation
B. they help you save face
C. they diminish the prominence of the counterparty's initial offer as an anchor point
D. they indicate your acceptance of the counterparty's anchor point
D. concessions made by one party ; concessions made by both parties to the negotiation
Regarding effective strategies for a successful negotiation outcome, why should a negotiator be wary of
the even-split ploy?
A. You can seem altruistic and cooperative by considering an even-split
B. By accepting the even-split ploy, you will harm your reputation
C. The pattern of concessions is not always fair and the pattern of offers is not always equal
D. By not accepting you can invite aggressiveness from the counterparty

EMAIL
1.Business letters produce immediate effect because they are:
Correct Answer: informal
2.Letters that please the receiver are called:
Correct Answer: good-news letters
3. The purpose of a “no” response letter is to leave the reader with:
Correct Answer: minimum disappointment
4. Form letters are also known as:
Correct Answer:persuasive sales letters
5.A memorandum (memo) is considered a brief form of written communication
for:
Correct Answer: internal use
6.Simplicity in writing means essentially:
Correct Answer:plainness
7.Writing a letter with “you-attitude” means writing:
Correct Answer:from the point of view of the reader
8. business letters are characterized by the following personal quality of the
writer:
Correct Answer:sincerity
9.The simplified style business letter has:
Your Answer:a subject line
10. Modern business letters are usually written in:
Correct Answer:full-block style
1.In international business, the trend to “go local” has led to local people and
foreign experts performing as:
Correct Answer:a team
2.Culture is embedded in our:
Correct Answer:minds
3.Cultural intelligence helps us to know cultural:
Correct Answer:differences
4.An individual’s behaviour in a foreign society becomes noticeable when it
____________ in relation to the foreign culture.
Correct Answer:deviates
5. Culture refers to:
Your Answer:rules of behaviour
6. People in high-context cultures make business decisions on the basis of:
Correct Answer:interpersonal relations
7.The exclusive centre of interest in low-context communication is:
Your Answer:information
8.In monochronic cultures, the priority is:
Correct Answer:the job
9.The aim of cross-cultural communication training is to:
Correct Answer:create strong cultural ties
10.An e-mail’s style is determined by a person’s:
Correct Answer:culture
NON-VERBAL
1.Non-verbal communication does not involve:
Correct Answer:words
2. Meta-communication conveys a meaning that is:
Your Answer:implied
3.Grooming is a form of non-verbal communication that is:
Correct Answer:conscious
4. Positive gestures are body signals that make you look:
Your Answer:relaxed
5.Between a speaker and a listener, the closest zone of personal space possible is:
Your Answer:intimate
6.The percentage of working time business executives spend in listening is:
Correct Answer:30 to 70 per cent
7.By choosing to speak from the floor instead of the dais, a speaker can show the audience a sense of:
Correct Answer:equality
8.If a speaker winks after saying something, it suggests to the audience that the subject is:
Your Answer:incredible
9.Paralanguage is a kind of action language that refers to:
Correct Answer:the tone of voice, speed of speech, and hesitation
10. Giving non-verbal messages is:
Correct Answer:spontaneous
1. Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation?
A) economics
B) psychology
C) anthropology
D) law
E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation
5. Tangible factors
A) include the price and terms of agreement.
B) are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations.
C) include the need to look good in negotiations.
D) cannot be measured in quantifiable terms.
E) None of the above statements describe tangible factors.
6. Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation?
A) the need to look good
B) final agreed price on a contract
C) the desire to book more business
D) fear of setting a precedent
E) All of the above are intangible factors.
7. Interdependent parties’ relationships are characterized by
A) interlocking goals.
B) solitary decision making.
C) established procedures.
D) rigid structures.
E) Interdependent relationships are characterized by all of the above.
0. What are the two dilemmas of negotiation?
A) the dilemma of cost and the dilemma of profit margin
B) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of profit margin
C) the dilemma of trust and the dilemma of cost
D) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of trust
E) None of the above.
1. How much to believe of what the other party tells you
A) depends on the reputation of the other party.
B) is affected by the circumstances of the negotiation.
C) is related to how he or she treated you in the past.
D) is the dilemma of trust.
E) All of the above.

4. In intragroup conflict,
A) sources of conflict can include ideas, thoughts, emotions, values, predispositions, or drives that are in
conflict with each other.
B) conflict occurs between individual people.
C) conflict affects the ability of the group to resolve differences and continue to achieve its goals effectively.
D) conflict is quite intricate because of the large number of people involved and possible interactions between
them.
E) None of the above describes intragroup conflict.
5. Which of the following contribute to the conflict's destructive image?
A) increased communication
B) misperception and bias
C) clarifying issues
D) minimized differences; magnified similarities
E) All of the above contribute to the conflict's destructive image.
6. In the Dual Concerns Model, the level of concern for the individual's own outcomes and the level of
concern for the other's outcomes are referred to as the
A) cooperativeness dimension and the competitiveness dimension.
B) the assertiveness dimension and the competitiveness dimension.
C) the competitiveness dimension and the aggressiveness dimension.
D) the cooperativeness dimension and the assertiveness dimension.
E) None of the above.
7. An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the
other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using another of the following strategies. Which one?
A) yielding
B) compromising
C) contending
D) problem-solving
E) None of the above.
8. Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy
A) show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but are quite interested in whether
the other party attains his or her outcomes.
B) pursue their own outcome strongly and show little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her
desired outcome.
C) shows little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and does not show much concern
about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes.
D) show high concern for attaining their own outcomes and high concern for whether the other attains his or her
outcomes.
E) Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy demonstrate none of the above behaviors.
9. Parties pursuing one of the following strategies show little interest or concern in whether they attain
their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her
outcomes. Which of the ones listed below?
A) contending
B) compromising
C) problem solving
D) yielding
E) None of the above.
CHAPTER 2: STRATEGY & TACTICS
51. Distributive bargaining strategies
A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use.
B) are used in all interdependent relationships.
C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships.
D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common.
E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.
52. The target point is the
A) point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.
B) negotiator's bottom line.
C) first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent.
D) initial price set by the seller.
E) None of the above describes the target point.
53. Starting points
A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes.
 B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way.
C) are not known to the other party.
D) are given up as concessions are made.
E) None of the above describes starting points.
59. Disruptive action tactics can cause
A) embarrassment.
B) increased costs.
C) anger.
D) escalation of conflict.
E) Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.
60. The opening stance is
A) another name for the first round of concessions.
B) the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller.
C) the attitude to adopt during the negotiation.
D) a package of concessions.
E) All of the above describe the opening stance.
62. What action can be taken after the first round of offers?
A) hold firm
B) insist on the original position
C) make some concessions
D) make no concessions
E) All of the above.
64. Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n)
A) immediate settlement.
B) single round of concessions.
C) progression of concessions.
D) fait accompli.
E) All of the above.
66. Concession making
A) indicates an acknowledgment of the other party.
B) shows a movement toward the other's position.
C) implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position.
D) recognizes the other party's position
E) All of the above are characteristics of concession making.
67. When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that
A) the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point.
B) the resistance point is being reached.
C) the concession maker's position is weakening.
D) the negotiator has passed the resistance point.
E) None of the above.
68. Skilled negotiators may
A) suggest different forms of a potential settlement that are worth about the same to them. B) recognize that not
all issues are worth the same amount to both parties.
C) frequently save a final small concession for near the end of the negotiation to "sweeten" the deal.
D) make the last concession substantial to indicate that "this is the last offer".
E) Skilled negotiators may take all of the above actions.
69. A commitment
A) should not be interpreted as a threat.
B) postpones the threat of future action.
C) is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options.
D) removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action.
E) All of the above.
70. A commitment statement should have a
A) low degree of finality.
B) high degree of specificity.
C) an indefinite statement of consequences.
D) a high degree of emotionality.
E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.
71. Negotiators who make threats
A) are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats.
B) receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats.
C) are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations.
D) should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences. E) All of the above
describe negotiators who make threats.
72. To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could
A) give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully.
B) acknowledge the other's commitment.
C) reiterate the commitment.
D) make a joke about the commitment.
E) None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.
74. Aggressive behavior tactics include
A) the relentless push for further concessions.
B) asking for the best offer early in negotiations.
C) asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item.
D) forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement.
E) Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.
75. The negotiator's basic strategy is to
A) get information about the opposition and its positions.
B) reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible.
C) convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals.
D) promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable.
E) All of the above.

51. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations?

A) a focus on commonalties
B) an attempt to address positions
C) a required exchange of information and ideas
D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance
E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.
Answer: B Page: 72
52. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements?
A) moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated
B) exchanging information about each party's position on key issues
C) emphasizing the commonalties between the parties
D) searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties
E) All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.
53. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process?
A) identifying and defining the problem
B) understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface
C) generating alternative solutions to the problem
D) choosing a specific solution
E) All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.
55. An interest is instrumental if
A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future.
B) the parties value the interest in and of itself.
C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation.
D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates.
E) All of the above relate to instrumental interests.
56. Substantive interests
A) are the interests that relate to the focal issues under negotiation.
B) are related to the way we settle the dispute.
C) mean that one or both parties value their relationship with each other and do not want to take actions that
will damage the relationship.
D) regard what is fair, what is right, what is acceptable, what is ethical, or what has been done in the past and
should be done in the future.
E) All of the above relate to substantive interests.
58. Successful logrolling requires
A) that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade off among these issues so
one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred
outcome on the second issue.
B) no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and assumes that simply enlarging the
resources will solve the problem.
C) that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off" the other party for
accommodating his/her interests.
D) a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing sufficient information to
discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs.
E) Successful logrolling requires all of the above.
59. What approach can parties use to generate alternative solutions by redefining the problem or
problem set?
A) brainstorming
B) logrolling
C) surveys
D) nonspecific compensation
E) None of the above approaches can be used to redefine the problem.
60. In nonspecific compensation
A) resources are added in such a way that both sides can achieve their objectives. B) one party achieves his/her
objectives and the other's costs are minimized if he/she agrees to go along.
C) the parties are able to invent new options that meet each sides' needs.
D) one person is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and "pay off" the other person for accommodating his
interests.
E) All of the above are related to nonspecific compensation.

61. What questions can be asked to facilitate nonspecific compensation?

A) What are the other party's goals and values?
B) How can both parties get what they are demanding?
C) What issues are of higher and lower priority to me?
D) What risks and costs does my proposal create for the other?
E) None of the above can be used to facilitate nonspecific compensation.
62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the
_____________ process.
A) expanding the pie
B) logrolling
C) nonspecific compensation
D) bridging
E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.
63. In brainstorming
A) individuals work in a large group to select a single optimal solution.
B) all solutions are judged and critiqued as they are recorded, and a weighted-average
percentage is assigned to each solution.
C) parties are urged to be spontaneous and even impractical.
D) the success of the approach depends on the item-by-item evaluation and critique of the solutions as
presented.
E) None of the above is a part of the brainstorming process.
64. When identifying options in an integrative negotiation, solutions are usually attained through:
A) hard work
B) information exchange
C) focusing on interests rather than positions
 D) firm flexibility
E) Solutions are attained by using all of the above.
65. When confronted with complex problems, or a large number of alternative options, which of the
following steps is necessary?
A) broaden the range of solution options
B) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality, standards, and acceptability
C) decide on criteria while evaluating options
D) maintain a focus on the influence of tangibles in selecting options
E) All of the above steps should be used when confronted with complex problems.
66. Which guideline should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus?
A) keep the range of solution options as wide as possible
B) evaluate the solutions on the basis of speed and expediency
C) keep detailed records throughout the discussion and evaluation process
D) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options
E) None of the above should be used in the evaluation process.
67. A common goal is one in which
A) all parties share the result equally
B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently
C) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared
D) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. E) All of the above are
characteristics of a common goal.
68. A joint goal is one in which
A) all parties share the result equally.
B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently.
C) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort.
D) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared.
E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.
69. Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed?
A) Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—
each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own.
B) The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own
ends.
C) The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open
and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding).
D) Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and
accepted.
E) All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.
70. Which of the following is a major characteristic of a pre-settlement settlement?
A) The settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties.
B) It occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation.
C) The parties intend that the agreement will be replaced by a more clearly delineated long-term agreement
which is to be negotiated.
D) It resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree, and may simply establish a framework
within which the more comprehensive agreement can be defined and delineated.
E) All of the above are characteristics of a pre-settlement settlement.

71. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between
negotiators?
A) We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive
attitude toward us.
B) We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or
hurt them.
C) We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior.
D) We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions.
E) All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.
73. When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding
alternatives and can use which of the following?
A) conversations over coffee breaks
B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions
C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
74. Integrative negotiation fails because
A) negotiators fail to perceive the integrative potential of the negotiating problem. B) of
distributive assumptions about the negotiation problem.
C) of the mixed-motive nature of the issues.
D) of the negotiator's previous relationship with one another.
E) All of the above are reasons why integrative negotiations fail.
51. What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives?
A) Effective strategizing, planning and preparation
B) goal setting and target planning
C) defining frames and setting goals
D) framing and strategizing
E) none of the above
52. Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail?
A) Allowing insufficient time for planning
B) Failing to set clear objectives
C) Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions
D) Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations
53. A negotiator's goals:
A) are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals
B) have no boundaries or limits
C) are explicitly stated wishes
D) must be reasonably attainable
E) all of the above
54. The less concrete and measurable goals are:
A) the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want
B) the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants
C) the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals
D) the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was
E) all of the above
55. Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics?
A) Scale
B) Goals
C) Perspective
D) Immediacy
56. A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support which of the following
strategies?
A) collaborative
B) accommodating
C) competitive
D) avoidance
E) none of the above
57. A strong interest in achieving only the relationship outcomes suggests one, if any, of the following
strategies. Which one?
A) competitive
B) accommodation
C) collaborative
D) avoidance
E) none of the above
58. Avoidance could best be used when:
A) negotiation is necessary to meet your needs
B) the time and effort to negotiate are negligible
C) the available alternatives are very strong
D) the only available negotiator is a senior manager.
E) all of the above
60. Characteristics of collaborative strategies include:
A) long-term focus
B) trust and openness
C) efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions
D) pursuit of goals held jointly with others
E) all of the above
61. In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have:
A) a short-term focus
B) a long-term focus
C) may be either short term or long term
D) none of the above
63. Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences represents what key
step in the negotiation process:
A) preparation
B) information gathering
C) relationship building
D) information using
E) None of the above
64. The general structure of a phase model of negotiations involves:
A) Three phases: initiation; problem-solving; resolution
B) Four phases: pre-initiation; initiation; problem-solving; resolution
C) Two phases: problem-solving and resolution
D) None of the above
65. Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process?
A) Preparation
B) Relationship Building

C) Information Gathering
D) Bidding
E) All of the above are key steps
66. What is the dominant force for success in negotiation?
A) a distributive vs. integrative strategy
B) the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue
C) the discussions that precede planning sessions
D) the tactics selected in support of strategic goals
E) all of the above
68. Interests can be:
A) substantive, directly related to the focal issues under negotiation
B) process based, related to the manner in which we settle this dispute
C) relationship based, tied to the current or desired future relationship between the parties
D) based in the intangibles of the negotiation
E) all of the above
70. Does any of the following represent the point at which we realistically expect to achieve a settlement?
A) specific target point
B) resistance point
C) alternative
D) asking price
E) none of the above
71. Which represents the best deal we can possibly hope to achieve?
A) specific target point
B) resistance point
C) alternative
D) asking price
E) none of the above
72. Reactive strategies:
A) encourage negotiators to be more flexible and creative
B) can efficiently clear up confusion about issues
C) will lessen a negotiator's defensive posture
D) can make negotiators feel threatened and defensive
E) none of the above
73. If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will
A) be dependent on achieving a satisfactory agreement
B) appear aggressive and hostile in negotiations
C) set and push for high objectives
D) have unlimited negotiating authority
E) all of the above
74. A negotiator should ask which of the following questions when presenting issues to the other party to
assemble information.
A) What facts support my point of view?
B) Whom may I consult or take with to help me elaborate or clarify the facts?
C) What is the other party's point of view likely to be?
D) How can I develop and present the facts so they are most convincing?
E) All of the above questions should be asked.
PERCEPTION, COGNITION & EMOTION
41. Perception is
A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment.
B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of
earlier communications.
C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed.
D) a complex physical and psychological process.
E) All of the above describe perception.
42. Which of the following lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order?
A) stimulus, translation, attention, recognition, behavior
B) stimulus, behavior, translation, attention, recognition
C) stimulus, attention, recognition, translation, behavior
D) behavior, stimulus, recognition, attention, translation
E) None of the above lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order.
43. Halo effects occur when
A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or
demographic group.
B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual.
C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out
information that does not confirm that belief.
D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves.
E) All of the above describe halo effects.
44. Projection occurs when
A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or
demographic group.
B) People generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual.
C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out
information that does not confirm that belief.
D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves.
E) All of the above describe projection.
45. Frames are important in negotiation because
A) they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues
B) they can be avoided
C) disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations
D) do not allow negotiators to articulate an aspect of a complex social situation E) all of the above
47. An insight drawn from research of the frames negotiators use in disputes would suggest that parties
discussing salary may be likely to use outcome frames and may be related to which of the following.
A) Negotiators can use more than one frame.
B) Mismatches in frames between parties are sources of conflict.
C) Particular types of frames may led to particular types of agreements.
D) Specific frames may be likely to be used with certain types of issues.
E) Parties are likely to assume a particular frame because of various factors.
50. One of the most important aspects of framing as issue development is the process of reframing, or the
manner in which the thrust, tone, and focus of a conversation change as the parties engage in it.
Reframing is or occurs:
A) the way parties challenge each other, as they present their own case or refute the other’s.
B) a dynamic process that may occur many times in a conversation.
C) when using metaphors, analogies, or specific cases to illustrate a point.
D) and may be used intentionally by one side or the other.
E) all of the above apply to reframing as parties often propose new ways to approach a problem.
51. The irrational escalation of commitment bias refers to
A) the standard against which subsequent adjustments are measured during negotiation.
B) the perspective or point of view that people use when they gather information and solve problems.
C) how easily information can be recalled and used to inform or evaluate a process of a decision.
D) a negotiator's commitment to a course of action, even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior
on his/her part.
E) None of the above refer to irrational escalation of commitment.
53. The availability of information bias operates with which of the following statements?
A) when negotiators sometimes maintain commitment to a course of action even when that commitment
constitutes irrational behavior on their part.
B) when thorough preparation, along with the use of a devil’s advocate or reality check, can help prevent errors.
C) when information that is presented in vivid, colorful, or attention-getting ways becomes easy to recall, and
thus also becomes central and critical in evaluating events and options.
D) when the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is
actually true
E) when the tendency will often lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, as follows: People who expect to be treated in
a distributive manner will (1) be more likely to perceive the other party’s behavior as distributive, and (2) treat
the other party in a more distributive manner
54. Which of the following cognitive biases can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the
judgment of others?
A) Irrational escalation of commitment
B) Mythical fixed-pie beliefs
C) Anchoring and adjustment
D) Availability of information
E) Overconfidence
55. The Endowment Effect
A) is making attributions to the person or the situation
B) is drawing conclusions from small sample sizes
C) is negotiators believing that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than actually true
D) is the tendency to overvalue something you own or believe you possess
56. Reactive devaluation
A) leads negotiators to minimize the magnitude of a concession made by a disliked other.
B) leads to reduced willingness to respond with a concession of equal size.
C) may be minimized by maintaining a more objective view of the process.
D) can lead to motivation to seek even more once a concession has been made.
E) All of the above are elements of reactive devaluation.
57. The best way to manage perceptual and cognitive biases is:
A) to be aware that they exist.
B) to participate in group discussions.
C) to tell people about the bias.
D) complete a questionnaire.
E) All of the above help manage biases but may not be enough in and of themselves.
58. The distinction between mood and emotion is based on which of the following characteristics?
A) specificity
B) intensity
C) duration
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
59. Negative emotions may lead parties to
A) more integrative processes
B) escalate the conflict
C) promote persistence
D) define the situation as integrative
E) more integrative outcomes
60. Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate?
A) Negotiations only create negative emotions.
B) Positive feelings do not promote persistence.
C) Negative feelings may create positive outcomes.
D) Positive emotion may result from impasse.
E) Negative emotions do not undermine a negotiator’s ability to analyze a situation accurately.

COMMUNICATION
33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from
being understood completely?
A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver
B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment
C) the avoidance of symbolic communication
D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels
E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.
35. The presence of feedback can
A) distort communication in negotiation.
B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes.
C) influence the offers that negotiators make.
D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction.
E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.
37. Which of the following is not one of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats?
A) the use of polarized language
B) the conveyance of verbal immediacy
C) the degree of lexical diversity
D) the extent of low-power language style
E) All of the above are elements of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats.