(SB-AITS)

Test-12
Complete syllabus (11th + 12th)
Full Length 08
Date : --/--/--- Duration : 3 Hours 20 Mins M.Marks : 720

Physics : Complete Syllabus

Chemistry : Complete Syllabus

Botany : Complete Syllabus

Zoology : Complete Syllabus

Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
2. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum mark is 720.
3. There are four Sections in the Question Paper, Sections I, II, III, and IV consisting of
Section I (Physics), Section II (Chemistry), Section III (Botany) and Section IV
(Zoology) have 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided into two
Sections,
Section A consists of 35 questions (all questions compulsory) and Section B
consists of 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong
MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed, or written, bits of paper,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. Inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the Candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

1
 Physics
SECTION – A

1. In a reflecting astronomical telescope,

if the objective (a spherical mirror) is
replaced by a parabolic mirror of the
same focal length and aperture, then
(1) The final image will be erect
(2) A large image will be obtained
(3) The telescope will gather more
light
(4) Spherical aberration will be
absent (1) 4 V
2. A rectangular loop carrying a current (2) 1 V
I is situated near a long straight wire (3) 2 V
such that the wire is parallel to one of (4) 5 V
the sides of the loop. If a steady
5. A body is moving under the action of
current I is established in the wire, as
shown in figure, the loop will two forces 𝐹⃗1 = 2𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂; 𝐹⃗2 = 3𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂. Its
velocity will become uniform under a
third force 𝐹⃗3 given by
(1) 5𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂
(2) −5𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂
(3) 5𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂
(4) −5𝑖̂ + 9𝑗̂
6. If the mean free path of atoms is
(1) Rotate about an axis parallel to
tripled then the pressure of the gas
the wire will become:(P is initial pressure)
(2) Move away from the wire (1) P/3
(3) Move towards the wire (2) P
(4) Remain stationary (3) P/6
3. Assertion: Impulsive force is large (4) P/4
and acts for a short time. 7. The charge following through a
Reason : Finite change in momentum resistance R varies with time t as, 𝑄 =
should be produced by the force.
𝑎𝑡 − 𝑏𝑡 2 . The total heat produced in R
(1) Both the assertion and the reason
is
are true and the reason is the 𝑎3 𝑅
correct explanation of the (1) 𝑏
assertion. 𝑎3 𝑅
(2) 2𝑏
(2) Both the assertion and the 𝑎3 𝑅
reason are true and the reason is (3) 3𝑏
not the correct explanation of the (4)
𝑎3 𝑅
assertion. 6𝑏

(3) The assertion is true but the 8. The circuit as shown in the figure is
reason is false. equivalent to
(4) The assertion is false but the
reason is true.
4. The potential drop across the 4Ω
resistor is

2
 (1) AND gate (1) 1W
(2) NOR gate (2) 5W
(3) OR gate (3) 4W
(4) NAND gate (4) 2W
9. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 13. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain
and 2 are filled with air at atom correspond to increasing values
temperatures (T1, T2) , volume (V1, V2) of energy i.e., EA < EB < EC. If 1, 2
and pressure (P1, P2) respectively. If and 3 are wavelengths of radiations
the valve joining the two vessels is corresponding to transitions C to B, B
opened, the temperature inside the to A and C to A respectively, which of
vessel at equilibrium will be the following relations is correct?
(1) 𝑇1 + 𝑇2 (1) 𝜆3 = 𝜆1 + 𝜆2
(𝑇1 +𝑇2)
(2) (2) 𝜆1 + 𝜆2 + 𝜆3 = 0
2
𝑇1 𝑇2 (𝑃1 𝑉1 +𝑃2 𝑉2 ) (3) 𝜆23 = 𝜆12 + 𝜆22
(3) 𝜆 𝜆
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑇2 +𝑃2 𝑉2 𝑇1 (4) 𝜆3 = 𝜆 1+𝜆2
(4) 𝑇1 𝑇2 (𝑃1 𝑉1 + 𝑃2 𝑉2 ) 1 2

10. A thin metal plate M is inserted 14. A block of wood weighs 12 kg and has
between the plates of a parallel plate a relative density 0.6. It is to be in
capacitor as shown in figure. The new water with 0.9 of its volume
capacitance in terms of initial immersed. What weight of a metal is
capacitance C is needed if the metal is on the top of
wood? [Relative density of metal = 14]
(1) 2 kg
(2) 4 kg
(3) 6 kg
(4) 8 kg
(1) 2C
(2) C/2 15. In an ac circuit, a resistance of R  is
(3) C connected in series with an
(4) Infinity inductance L. If phase angle between
voltage and current be 45°, the value
11. A body of mass m accelerates of inductive reactance will be
uniformly from rest to v1 in time t1. As (1) R/4
a function of t, the instantaneous
(2) R/2
power delivered to the body is
𝑚𝑣 𝑡 (3) R
(1) 𝑡 1 (4) Cannot be found with given data
1
𝑚𝑣12 𝑡
(2) 16. Electric charges Q, Q and –2Q are
𝑡1
𝑚𝑣1 𝑡 2 placed at the corners of an equilateral
(3) 𝑡1 triangle of side a. The magnitude of
𝑚𝑣12 𝑡 electric dipole moment of the system
(4) 𝑡12 is
12. A current of 3A flows through the 2 (1) 𝑄𝑎
resistor shown in the circuit below. (2) √3𝑄𝑎
The power dissipated in the 5 (3) Zero
resistor is (4) 4𝑄𝑎
17. Four charges are arranged at the
corners of a square ABCD as shown
in the figure. The force on the positive
charge kept at the centre O is

3
 (2) 8 beats per second with intensity
ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and
waning
(3) 8 beats per second with intensity
ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and
waning
(4) 4 beats per second with intensity
ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and
(1) Along the diagonal BD
waning
(2) Along the diagonal AC 21. For a heavily doped n-type
(3) Zero semiconductor, fermi level lies
(4) Perpendicular to side AB (1) A little below the conduction band
18. Time taken by the body to move from (2) A little above the valence band
A to B is 3𝑠. The distance AB is (3) A little inside the valence band
(4) At the centre of the band gap
22. A block of √3 𝑘𝑔 is attached to a
string whose other end is attached to
the wall. An unknown force 𝐹 is
applied so that the string makes an
angle of 30° with the wall. The tension
𝑇 is (𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑔 = 10𝑚𝑠 −2 )

𝑢
(1)
√3
4𝑢
(2)
√3
2𝑢
(3)
√3
3𝑢
(4) (1) 20 𝑁
√3
(2) 30 𝑁
19. A plate of thickness t made of a (3) 40 𝑁
material of refractive index  is placed (4) 50 𝑁
in front of one of the slits in a double
slit experiment. What should be the 23. The intensity of magnetic field at a
minimum thickness t, which will point X on the axis of a small magnet
make the intensity at the centre of the is equal to the field intensity at
fringe pattern zero? another point Y on its equatorial axis.
(1) (𝜇 − 1)𝜆/2 The ratio of distances of X and Y from
(2) 𝜆/(𝜇 − 1) the centre of the magnet will be
𝜆 (1) (2)–3
(3) 2
(𝜇 − 1) (2) (2)–1/3
(4) (𝜇 − 1)𝜆 (3) 23
20. Two sources of sound placed close to (4) 21/3
each other are emitting progressive 24. A body of mass 6 kg is hanging from
waves given by another of mass 10 kg as shown in
𝑦1 = 4𝑠𝑖𝑛600𝜋𝑡 and 𝑦2 = 5𝑠𝑖𝑛608𝜋𝑡 figure. This combination is being
An observer located near these two pulled up by a string with an
sources of sound will hear acceleration of 2 ms–2. The tension T1
(1) 4 beats per second with intensity is (g = 10 ms–2)
ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and
waning

4
 29. A square loop of side 4 cm is
positioned in a uniform magnetic field
of magnitude 0.5 T so that the plane
of the loop makes an angle of 60⁰ with
the magnetic field. Find the flux
passing through the square loop.
(1) 240 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 220 N
(4) 192 N (1) 6.9 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
25. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm (2) 4.9 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
and carries a current of 5 amps. The (3) 5.9 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
magnetic field at its centre is (𝜇0 = (4) 3.9 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
4𝜋 × 10−7 weber/amp-m) 30. Two cars travelling towards each
(1) 12.56 × 10−2 𝑤𝑒𝑏𝑒𝑟/𝑚2 other on a straight road at velocity
(2) 6.28 × 10−2 𝑤𝑒𝑏𝑒𝑟/𝑚2 10ms–1 and 12ms–1 respectively.
(3) 8.42 × 10−2 𝑤𝑒𝑏𝑒𝑟/𝑚2 When they are 150 m apart, both
(4) 5.42 × 10−2 𝑤𝑒𝑏𝑒𝑟/𝑚2 drivers apply their brakes and each
car decelerates at 2ms–2 until it stops.
26. If K1 and K2 are maximum kinetic
How far apart will they be when they
energies of photoelectrons emitted
have both come to a stop?
when lights of wavelength 1 and 2
(1) 89 m
respectively incident on a metallic
(2) 98 m
surface. If 1 = 3 2, then
(3) 108 m
(1) K1 > (K2/3)
(4) 150 m
(2) K1 < (K2/3)
(3) K1 = 3K2 31. The mean distance between the
(4) K2 = 3K1 atoms of iron is 3 × 10−10 m and
interatomic force constant for iron is
27. A ball of mass M is thrown vertically
7 Nm–1. The Young’s modulus of
upwards. Another ball of mass 2M is
elasticity for iron is
thrown at an angle  with the vertical.
(1) 2.33 × 105 Nm–2
Both of them stay in air for the same
(2) 23.3 × 1010 Nm–2
period of time. The heights attained
(3) 2.33 × 109 Nm–2
by the two are in the ratio
(4) 2.33 × 1010 Nm–2
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1 32. In an inductor of self-inductance L =
(3) 1 : 1 2mH, current changes with time
(4) 1 : cos according to relation, 𝐼 = 𝑡 2 𝑒 −𝑡 . At
what time e.m.f. is zero?
28. Let T1 and T2 be the time period of (1) 4s
springs A and B when mass M is (2) 3s
suspended from one end of each
(3) 2s
spring. If both springs are taken in
(4) 1s
series and the same mass M is
suspended from the series 1 𝑒2
33. The dimension of the quantity 𝜀0 ℎ𝑐
is
combination, the time period is T.
Then (e = charge of electron, h = Planck’s
(1) 𝑇 = 𝑇1 + 𝑇2 constant and c = velocity of light)
1 1 1 (1) [M–1L–3T2A]
(2) 𝑇 = 𝑇 + 𝑇 (2) [M0L0T0A0]
1 2
(3) 𝑇 2 = 𝑇12 + 𝑇22 (3) [ML3T–4A–2]
1 1 1
(4) 𝑇 2 = 𝑇 2 + 𝑇 2 (4) [M–1L–3T4A2]
1

5
34. A spherical soap bubble of radius 1 39. For the given incident ray as shown
cm is formed inside another soap in figure, the condition of total
bubble of radius 3 cm. The radius of internal reflection of ray will be
a single soap bubble which maintains satisfied if the refractive index of
the same pressure difference as block will be
inside the smaller and outside the
larger soap bubble as
(1) 0.75 cm
(2) 0.75 m
(3) 7.5 cm
(4) 7.5 m
35. A 15 g ball is shot from a spring gun
whose spring has a force constant
600 Nm–1. The spring is compressed √3+1
(1)
by 5 cm. The greatest possible 2
horizontal range of the ball for this √2+1
(2)
2
compression is (Take g = 10 ms–2)
3
(1) 6 m (3) √2
(2) 8 m
7
(3) 10 m (4) √6
(4) 12 m
40. An irregular closed loop carrying a
SECTION – B current has a shape such that the
entire loop cannot lie in a single
36. The rms value of the electric field of plane. If this is placed in a uniform
the light coming from the sun is 720 magnetic field, the force acting on the
NC–1. The average total energy density loop
of the electromagnetic wave is (1) Must be zero
(1) 3.3 × 10–3 Jm–3 (2) Can never be zero
(2) 4.58 × 10–6 Jm–3 (3) May be zero
(3) 6.37 × 10–9 Jm–3 (4) Will be zero only for one particular
(4) 81.35 × 10–12 Jm–3 direction of the magnetic field
41. A thin wire of length L and uniform
37. Force on a 1 kg mass on earth of linear mass density  is bent into a
radius R is 10 N. Then the force on a circular loop with centre at O as
satellite revolving around the earth in shown. The moment of inertia of the
the mean orbital radius 3R/2 will be loop about the axis 𝑋𝑋’ is
(mass of satellite is 100 kg)
(1) 4.44 × 102 N
(2) 3.33 × 102 N
(3) 500 N
(4) 6.66 × 102 N
38. A body is thrown horizontally from
the top of a tower of 5 m height. It
touches the ground at a distance of
𝜌𝐿3
10 m from the foot of the tower. The (1)
8𝜋2
initial velocity of the body is (Take g = 𝜌𝐿3
(2)
10 ms–2) 16𝜋2
5𝜌𝐿3
(1) 2.5 ms–1 (3) 16𝜋2
(2) 5 ms–1 3𝜌𝐿3
(3) 10 ms–1 (4) 8𝜋2
(4) 20 ms–1

6
42. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a 46. The moment of inertia of a rod about
series of decay according to the its perpendicular bisector is I. When
𝛼 𝛽− 𝛼 𝛾 the temperature of the rod is
scheme 𝐴 → 𝐴1 → 𝐴2 → 𝐴3 → 𝐴4 . If the
mass number and atomic number of increased by T, the increase in the
A are 180 and 72 respectively, then moment of inertia of the rod about the
what are these numbers for 𝐴4 same axis is
(1) 172 and 69 (Here,  is the coefficient of linear
(2) 174 and 70 expansion of the rod)
(3) 176 and 69 (1) 𝛼𝐼Δ𝑇
(4) 176 and 70 (2) 2𝛼𝐼Δ𝑇
𝛼𝐼Δ𝑇
(3)
43. A physical quantity X is related to 2
2𝐼Δ𝑇
four measurable quantities a, b, c (4) 𝛼
and d as given, 𝑋 = 𝑎2 𝑏 3 𝑐 5/2 𝑑−2 . The
47. Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg are
percentage error in the measurement
suspended with the help of massless
of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 2% and
inextensible strings as shown in
4% respectively. What is the
figure. The whole system is going
percentage error in quantity X?
upwards with an acceleration of
(1) 15%
2 ms–2. The tensions T1 and T2 are
(2) 17%
respectively
(3) 21%
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
(4) 23%
44. The electric current in a circular coil
of two turns produced a magnetic
induction of 0.2 T as its centre. The
coil is unwound and then rewound
into a circular coil of four turns. If
same current flows in the coils, the (1) 96 N, 36 N
magnetic induction at the centre of (2) 36 N, 96 N
the coil now is (3) 96 N, 96 N
(1) 0.2 T (4) 36 N, 36 N
(2) 0.4 T
(3) 0.6 T 48. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas
(4) 0.8 T at temperature T0 expands slowly
𝑃
according to the law, 𝑉 = constant. If
45. A light rod of length 2 m is suspended
from the ceiling horizontally by the final temperature is 2T0, heat
means of two vertical wires of equal supplied to the gas is
length tied to its ends. One of the (1) 2𝑅𝑇0
wires is made of steel and is of cross- (2) 𝑅𝑇0
3
section 0.1 cm2 and the other of brass (3) 𝑅𝑇0
2
of cross-section 0.2 cm2. Along the (4)
1
𝑅𝑇0
rod at what distance a weight may be 2

hung to produce equal stresses in 49. A nucleus of mass number 220,

both the wires? initially at rest, emits an 𝛼 −particle.
(YSteel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2, YBrass = 1 × 1011 If the Q value of the reaction is 5.5
Nm–2) MeV, the energy of the emitted
4
(1) 3 𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝛼 −particle will be.
4 (1) 4.8 MeV
(2) 3
𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑏𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒
(2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 1 𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒
1
(4) 4 𝑚 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑏𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 (3) 5.5 MeV
(4) 6.8 MeV

7
50. The electric charges are distributed in
a small volume. The flux of the
electric field through a spherical
surface of radius 10 cm surrounding
the total charge is 20 Vm. The flux
over concentric sphere of radius 20
cm will be
(1) 20 V m
(2) 25 V m
(3) 40 V m
(4) 200 Vm

8
 Chemistry
SECTION – A

51. The total number of stereoisomers for 55. Increase in atomic size down the
−
the complex [Cr(ox)2 CIBr]3 group is due to
(where ox = oxalate) is: (1) Increase in number of orbit
(1) 2 (2) Increase in number of protons
(2) 3 and neutrons
(3) 1 (3) Increase in number of protons
(4) 4 (4) Increase in number of protons,
52. The electronic configuration of an neutrons and electrons
element is 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p³. What 56. Number of angles of 109°28′ is
is the atomic number of the element, present in CCl4
which is just below the above element (1) 2
in the periodic table? (2) 4
(1) 36 (3) 6
(2) 49 (4) 8
(3) 33 57. Match the statements given in
(4) 34
Column I with the oxidation states
53. Given below are the structures of few
given in Column II.
compounds with molecular formula
Column Column II
C4 H10 O . Select metamers from these
structures. (i) Oxidation state (1) +2
(i) CH3 − O − CH2 CH2 CH3 of Mn in MnO2
is
(ii) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
(ii) Most stable (2) +3
(iii) CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 − CH3 oxidation state
of Mn is
(iv) (iii) Most stable (3) +4
oxidation state
(1) (i) and (ii) of Mn in oxides
(2) (ii) and (iii) is
(3) (i) and (iii) (iv) Characteristic (4) +5
(4) (ii) and (iv) oxidation state
54. The stability of carbanions in the of lanthanoids
following compounds, is
(i) RC ≡ C̅H (5) +7
(1) (i)→(b),(ii)→(d),(iii)→(a),(iv)→(e),(v)
(ii) →(c)
(2) (i)→(d),(ii)→(b),(iii)→(a),(iv)→(e),(v)
(iii) R 2 C = C̅H
→(c)
(iv) R 3 C − C̅H2
(3) (i)→(b),(ii)→(d),(iii)→(e),(iv)→(a),(v)
is in the order of
(1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) →(c)
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) (4) (i)→(b),(ii)→(c),(iii)→(a),(iv)→(e),(v)
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) →(d)
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)

9
58. Which of the following is not 64. Statement-I: Baryta water becomes
bidentate ligand? turbid on passing CO2 gas through it
(1) acac but turbidity becomes clear on
(2) ox passing more CO2 gas.
(3) en Statement-II: Carbonates give white
(4) dien precipitate with silver nitrate
59. Assertion: Cu cannot liberate solution. The precipitate becomes
hydrogen from acids. yellow or brown if the mixture is
Reason: Because it has positive boiled.
electrode potential. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are II are correct and the Statement-
correct and the Reason is a correct II is a correct explanation of the
explanation of the Assertion. Statement-I.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-
correct but Reason is NOT a II are correct but Statement-II is
correct explanation of the NOT a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Statement-I.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but (3) Statement-I is correct but
Reason is incorrect. Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and (4) If the Statement-I is incorrect and
Reason is correct. Statement-II is correct.
60. Which of the following electronic in a 65. Change in volume when 100 mL PH3
transition hydrogen atom will require decomposed to solid phosphorus and
the largest amount of energy? H2 gas.
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (1) Increase in 50 mL
(2) n = 2 to n = 3 (2) Decrease in 50 mL
(3) n = 1 to n = ∞ (3) Increase in 150 mL
(4) n = 3 to n = 5 (4) Decrease in 200 mL
61. If the uncertainty in the position of 66. Statement-I: Isotonic solution do not
electron is zero, the uncertainty in its show the phenomenon of osmosis.
momentum would be Statement-II: Isotonic solutions
(1) Zero have equal osmotic pressure.
(2) Greater than h/4π (1) Both Statement I and Statement
(3) Less than h/4π II are correct
(4) Infinite (2) Statement I is correct but
62. When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is Statement II is incorrect
added to Sn2+ changes to: (3) Both Statement I and Statement
(1) Sn4+ II are incorrect
(2) Sn+ (4) Statement I is incorrect but
(3) Sn3+ Statement II is correct
(4) Sn 67. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10 B
63. Which of the following statements (19%) and 11 B (81%). The atomic
regarding orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is mass that should appear for boron in
false? periodic table is:
(1) It acts as a weak monobasic acid. (1) 10.8
(2) It is soluble in hot water. (2) 10.2
(3) It has a planar structure. (3) 11.2
(4) It acts as a tribasic acid. (4) 10.0

10
68. The complex compound bearing 73. The addition of a catalyst during a
square planar geometry is chemical reaction alters which of the
(1) Ni(CO)4 following quantities?
(2) [Ni(CN4 )]2− (1) Activation energy
(3) [Mn(CN)6 ]3 (2) Entropy
(4) [MnCl4 ]2− (3) Internal energy
69. Among the following marked proton (4) Enthalpy
of which compound shows lowest pK a 74. The rate constant of the reaction A →
value? B is 0.6 × 10−3 mole per second. If the
concentration of A is 5 M, then
(1) concentration of B after 20 minutes is
(1) 0.36 M
(2) 0.72 M
(2) (3) 1.08 M
(4) 3.60 M
75. Choose the correct reagents used in
the conversion.
(3)

(4)
p q r s
alc.
(1) Br2 NaOH Al2 O3
70. The relationship between osmotic KOH
pressure at 273K when 10g glucose alc.
(2) HBr CaC2 KMnO4
(P1 ) , 10g urea (P2 ) and 10g sucrose KOH
(P3 ) are dissolved in 250 mL of water alc. Red hot
(3) HBr NaNH2
is: KOH iron tube
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 alc. Red hot
(4) Br2 NaNH2
(2) P3 > P1 > P2 KOH iron tube
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 76. Assertion: Electrophilic substitution
(4) P2 > P3 > P1 reactions in haloarenes occur slowly
71. Electrolysis of water with 1 Faraday and require more drastic conditions
electricity gives: as compared to those in benzene.
(1) 1 mole of oxygen Reason: Halogens are ortho and
(2) 1 gram equivalent of oxygen para-directors.
(3) 1 molecule of oxygen (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) 1 atom of oxygen correct and the Reason is a correct
72. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of explanation of the Assertion.
formic acid is 200 ohm and cell (2) If both Assertion and Reason are
constant is 2.0cm−1 . The equivalent correct but Reason is NOT a
conductivity (in Scm2 eq−1 ) of 0.1 N correct explanation of the
formic acid is: Assertion.
(1) 100 (3) If the Assertion is correct but
(2) 10 Reason is incorrect.
(3) 1 (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and
(4) None of these Reason is correct.

11
 79. Match the column I with column II
and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
77.
Alkyl halide
+ Sodium in
(A) (i) Sulphonation
presence of
X in the reaction is dry ether
Arene + Acid
halide in Wurtz
(B) (ii)
presence of reaction
(1) AlCl3
Arene +
Fuming Catalytic
(C) (iii)
sulphuric hydrogenation
acid
Arene +
Hydrogen in Friedel-Crafts
(D) (iv)
presence of reaction
(2) Ni
(1) (A)→(i), (B)→(iii), (C)→(ii), (D)→(iv)
(2) (A)→(iv), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iii), (D)→(i)
(3) (A)→(iii), (B)→(i), (C)→(iv), (D)→(ii)
(4) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(iii)
80. Hexane and 3-methylpentane are
(3)
examples of
(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Stereoisomers
(4) Constitutional isomers
81. Which of the following reactions will
not yield phenol?
(4)

(1)

78. An alkyl chloride produces a single

alkene on reaction with sodium (2)
ethoxide and ethanol. The alkene
further undergoes hydrogenation to
yield 2-methylbutane. Identify the
alkyl chloride amongst the following (3)
compounds.
(1) CICH2 CH(CH3 )CH2 CH3
(2) CICH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
(4)
(3) CICH2 CH(CH3 )CH2 CH3
(4) CH3 C(Cl)(CH3 )CH2 CH3

12
82. Tertiary butyl alcohol can be (4) 1.0 × 10−15 mol L−1
prepared by the reaction of 87. Which one of the following
(1) Acetaldehyde and ethyl arrangements represents the correct
magnesium iodide order of least negative to most
(2) Acetone and methyl magnesium negative electron gain enthalpy for C,
iodide Ca, Al, F and O?
(3) Formaldehyde and propyl (1) Ca< Al < C <O<F
magnesium iodide (2) Al < Ca < O <C<F
(4) Butanone and methyl magnesium (3) Al <O < C < Ca < F
iodide (4) C<F<O < Al < Ca
83. Alkene (X) (C5 H10 ) on ozonolysis gives 88. The number of antibonding electron
a mixture of two compounds (Y) and pairs in O−2
(Z). Compound (Y) gives positive (1) 2
Fehling's test and iodoform test. (2) 3
Compound (Z) does not give Fehling's (3) 1
test but give iodoform test. (4) 4
Compounds (X), (Y) and (Z) are 89. Solid ammonium carbamate
X Y Z dissociated according to the given
(1) C6 H5 COCH3 CH3 CHO CH3 COCH3 reaction
NH2 COONH4 (s) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g)
(2) CH3 CHO CH3 COCH3 Total pressure of the gases in
equilibrium is 5 atm. Hence K p
(3) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 CH3 CH2 CHO HCHO (1) 18.5
(2) 25
CH3 − CH = CH −
(4) CH3 CHO CH3 CHO (3) 1/5
CH3
84. The final product (Y) in the following (4) 12.5
sequence of chemical reaction is 90. At 100℃, K w = 10−12 . pH of pure water
CH3 OH →
Cu
X→
NaOH
Y + CH3 OH at 100℃ will be
300°C (1) 7.0
(1) An alkene
(2) 6.0
(2) A carboxylic acid
(3) 8.0
(3) An aldehyde
(4) 12.0
(4) Sodium salt of carboxylic acid
85. Fe(OH)3 can be separated from 91. Identify the compounds (X), (Y) and
Al(OH)3 by addition of: (Z) in the following reaction:
Mg/ether (i) CO2 CH3 OH,H+
(1) H2SO4 solution CH3 Br → X→ Y→
(ii) water ∆
(2) dil. HCl solution
(3) NaOH solution (1) (X) = CH3 MgBr,
(4) NH4Cl and NH4OH (Y) = CH3 COOH,
(Z) = CH3 COOCH3
SECTION – B (2) (X) = CH3 CH2 Br,
(Y) = CH3 CH2 OH,
(Z) = CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
86. The K sp for a sparingly soluble
(3) (X) = CH3 CH2 MgBr,
Ag 2 CrO4 is 4 × 10 .−12
The molar
(Y) = CH3 CH2 COOH,
solubility of the salt is
(Z) = CH3 CH2 COCH3
(1) 2.0 × 10−6 mol L−1
(4) (X) = CH3 COOH,
(2) 1.0 × 10−4 mol L−1 (Y) = CH3 CH2 COCH3 ,
(3) 2.0 × 10−12 mol L−1

13
 (Z) = CH3 COOCH3 97. The major product obtained in the
92. Assertion: Gabriel phthalimide following reaction is
synthesis can be used to convert alkyl
chlorides into primary amines.
Reason: With proper choice of
reagent, Gabriel synthesis can be
used to prepare primary, secondary
and tertiary amines.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the (1)
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but (2)
Reason is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and
Reason is correct.
93. The incorrect statement from the
following for borazine is: (3)
(1) It has electronic delocalization
(2) It contains banana bonds.
(3) It can react with water.
(4) It is a cyclic compound.
94. The correct group of halide ions (4)
which can be oxidised by oxygen in
acidic medium is
(1) Br − only
(2) Cl− , Br − and I − only 98. Assertion: ∆H is positive for
(3) Br − and I − only endothermic reactions.
(4) I − only Reason: If total enthalpies of
95. The oxidation number of C in reactants and products are HR and
CH4 , CH3 Cl, CH2 Cl2 , CHCl3 and CCl4 is HP respectively then for an
respectively endothermic reaction HR < HP .
(1) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4 (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(2) +2, 4, 0, –2, –4 correct and the Reason is a correct
(3) 4, 2, 0, –2, 4 explanation of the Assertion.
(4) 0, 2, –2, 4, 4 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct but Reason is NOT a
96. Which statement is correct?
dH dE
correct explanation of the
(1) ( dT ) < (dT) Assertion.
P V
dH dE (3) If the Assertion is correct but
(2) ( dT ) + (dT) =R Reason is incorrect.
P V
dE (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and
(3) (dV) for ideal gas is zero
T Reason is correct.
(4) All of these

14
99. Few simple chemical tests are given 100. Statement I: SO2 and H2O both
below to differentiate between the possess V-shaped structure.
pairs of compounds. Which of the Statement II: The bond angle of SO2
following tests is not correct for is less than that of H2O.
differentiation? (1) Both Statement I and Statement
(1) Propanal and propanone – Silver II are correct
mirror test (2) Statement I is correct but
(2) Acetophenone and benzophenone Statement II is incorrect
– Iodoform test (3) Both Statement I and Statement
(3) Ethanal and propanal – Fehling’s II are incorrect
test (4) Statement I is incorrect but
(4) Benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate – Statement II is correct
Sodium bicarbonate test

15
 Botany
SECTION – A

101. The process of classification, based 107. Phloem component that is absent in
on characteristics of organism is – primary phloem but present in
(1) Taxonomy secondary phloem-
(2) Nomenclature (1) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Systematics (2) Companion cell
(4) All of them (3) Sieve element
102. Which pigment give bright and blue (4) Phloem fiber
green in the chromatogram? 108. Hub and Spoke are present in
(1) Xanthophyll ……………………. region of centriole,
(2) Chlorophyll a respectively.
(3) Chlorophyll a and b both (1) Proximal and peripheral
(4) Chlorophyll b (2) Peripheral and proximal
103. What is the genetic material for given (3) Both peripheral
organism below- (4) Both proximal
109. Some cells of a tissue are
metabolically active but do not show
proliferation. Cells are in phase -
(1) Interphase
(2) Interkinesis
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Quiescent stage
110. Mark the incorrectly matched pair-
(1) Animal cell - Centriole
(1) Single stranded RNA (2) Reductional division- Meiosis I
(2) Double stranded DNA (3) Equational division – Male honey
(3) Protein bee
(4) Single stranded DNA (4) Crossing over – Sister chromatids
104. Bryophytes differ from pteridophytes 111. How can one differentiate an
in having: exclusive heterotrophic organism?
(1) Multicellular sporophyte (1) They all have cellulosic cell wall
(2) Rhizoids outside their structure.
(3) Presence of sex organs (2) They all are multicellular and
(4) All the above without cell wall
105. Gametophyte of gymnosperm is- (3) They have no means of
(1) Dependent on sporophyte photosynthesis and obtain food
(2) Photosynthetic and vegetative from other organism.
(3) Diploid and non-dependent (4) All of them
(4) Free living and photosynthetic 112. Assertion: Chromatography is
106. Axillary bud can develop into methodology to separate leaf
(1) Spines pigments.
(2) Tendrils Reason: Chromatographic
(3) Leaves separation of leaf pigment shows the
(4) All of them colour that are observed in leaves.
(1) If assertion and reason is true and
reason is correct explanation of
assertion.

16
 (2) If assertion and reason is true and (2) Solanaceae can be viable for
reason is not correct explanation months.
of assertion. (3) Pollens can be stored in seed
(3) If assertion is true and reason is banks.
false. (4) Pollen grains can be stored for
(4) If both assertion and reason is years in liquid nitrogen
false. 119. The ancient feature of RNA is
113. Fermentation process during represented by-
respiration is performed by (1) Process of splicing
(1) Unicellar eukaryotes like bacteria (2) Presence of introns
(2) Multicellular eukaryotes like (3) Presence of exons
plants (4) Presence of split gene
(3) Aerobic condition like present of arrangement
carbon dioxide 120. Assertion: Homozygous parents form
(4) None of them all similar gametes.
Reason: Heterozygous parents form
114. Consider the following statement
two kinds of gametes having one
w.r.t. products of TCA cycle & choose
allele with equal proportion.
correct one:
(1) Total six carbon dioxide (1) If assertion and reason is true and
molecules are produced in one reason is correct explanation of
turn assertion.
(2) Total 6 molecule of NADH2 and 2 (2) If assertion and reason is true and
FADH2 are produced in two turns reason is not correct explanation
(3) Total 2 molecule of ATP are of assertion.
produced in one turn (3) If assertion is true and reason is
(4) GTP formation takes place during false.
succinic acid conversion into (4) If both assertion and reason is
malic acid false
115. Effects of ethylene in plants are- 121. Mark the correct one-
(1) Breaking of seed dormancy and (1) Beet – Perispermous
bud dormancy (2) Orchid – One ovule in ovary
(2) Increase in respiratory rate (3) Cashew – Fleshy fruit
(3) Petiole elongation in deep water (4) All of them
(4) All of them 122. An RNA molecule has AGU UAC
codon. What will be sequence of
116. Decomposition gets slower, if
anticodon?
………………….. and …………………..
(1) UCA AUG
are in abundance in detritus.
(1) Lignin and chitin (2) UAC UGA
(2) Lignin and sugar (3) AUG UAC
(3) Sugar and nitrogen (4) AUG UCA
(4) Lignin and nitrogen 123. The initial clue about mechanism of
chromosomal sex determination can
117. Nucleic acid can be found in-
(1) Acid soluble fraction be traced back by experiments on-
(1) Human
(2) Acid insoluble fraction
(2) Drosophila
(3) Ash
(3) Insect
(4) None of them
(4) Birds
118. Choose the incorrect statement from 124. Initiator tRNA performs for
the following sentences- (1) Initiation of replication
(1) Pollen grain loose viability in 30 (2) Initiation of Protein synthesis
minutes from release in cereals (3) Initiation of recombinant DNA
like wheat (4) Initiation of RNA synthesis

17
125. Which of the following is not related Column I Column II
to phenylketonuria - A Aspergillus I Cyclosporin-A
(1) Single gene mutation B Acetobacter II Citric acid
(2) Autosomal recessive trait C Trichoderma III Biogas
(3) Sex-linked trait D Methanogen IV Acetic acid
(4) Accumulation of phenyl pyruvic (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
acid (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
126. Mark the correct one regarding (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
enzyme used for following processes- (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) Transcription - DNA dependent
DNA polymerase
131. Microbe used for commercial
enzyme production of butyric acid-
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(2) Replication - DNA dependent
RNA polymerase
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
enzyme (3) Clostridium butylicum
(4) Streptococcus butylicum
(3) Translation - Aminoacyl tRNA
synthase 132. Statement I: Birth rate and death
enzyme rates are attribution of organisms.
Statement II: Natural selection
(4) All of them
operates to evolve at organism level.
127. Assertion: Honeybee has (1) Statement I is correct and
haplodiploid sex determination statement II is incorrect.
system. (2) Statement I is incorrect and
Reason: Honeybees produces sperm statement II is correct.
by means of meiosis in females. (3) Both Statement I and statement II
(1) If assertion and reason is true and are correct.
reason is correct explanation of (4) Both statement I and statement II
assertion. are incorrect.
(2) If assertion and reason is true and 133. Growth status of population is
reason is not correct explanation reflected by-
of assertion. (1) Shape of pyramid
(3) If assertion is true and reason is (2) Size of pyramid
false. (3) Status of population
(4) If both assertion and reason is (4) Size of population
false 134. What does ‘Z’ represent in
128. Base pairing confers unique property geographical representation of
to nucleotide chains as species -area relationship?
(1) They help in prediction of (1) Species richness
sequence of other strand if (2) Intercept
sequence of one strand is known (3) Regression coefficient
(2) They make nucleotide chains (4) Area for wide variety
complementary to each other 135. Which of the following statement is
(3) Only (1) incorrect for biodiversity at
(4) Both (1) and (2) latitudinal gradients?
129. Mark the correct one- (1) Equator has 10 times of vascular
(1) The seed in grasses are not plants than Midwest of USA.
endospermic. (2) Amazonian forests possess
(2) Mango is false fruit. greatest biodiversity on earth.
(3) Maize grain are Albuminous seed. (3) Species diversity decrease away
(4) In embryo, root tip is not covered from poles to equator.
by root cap. (4) Tropics harbour more species
130. Match the following column I with than temperate areas.
column II:

18
 SECTION – B (3) Both Statement I and statement II
are correct.
136. Mycelium is - (4) Both statement I and statement II
(1) Network of thread like fungus are incorrect.
body 141. Bivalents are-
(2) Fruiting body of fungi (1) Pair of non-homologous
(3) Network of filamentous lichen chromosomes in pachytene
(4) Both (1) and (3) (2) Pair of synapsed homologous
137. Find out given organism is placed in chromosomes in zygotene
which class of plant kingdom? (3) Tetrad of chromosomes formed in
diakinesis
(4) Both (2) and (3)
142. Consider the following statement and
choose the incorrect one-
(1) Proteins are heteropolymer.
(2) Essential amino acids are
obtained from dietary protein.
(3) Cellulose can bind I2 into helix.
(1) Algae (4) Glucosamine are mostly
(2) Bryophyte homopolymer.
(3) Pteridophyte 143. Which of the following statement is
(4) Gymnosperm correct for photosynthesis?
(1) Membranous structure of
138. Match the following column I with chloroplast consists of grana only
column II: (2) Membrane system of chloroplast
Column I Column II is not responsible for trapping the
(Aestivation) (Example) light energy
A Twisted I Pea (3) Carbon reaction is dependent on
B Valvate II Gulmohar products such as ATP and NADPH
C Imbricate III Calotropis (4) Starch formation takes place in
D vexillary IV Lady’s matrix
finger 144. Complex II perform the mechanism
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III of-
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1) Succinate to Fumarate
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I conversion
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) Succinate to Malate formation
(3) Succinate to Oxaloacetate
139. Tissues having cells thickened by
generation
deposition of cellulose, lignin in
(4) Transport of 2 H+ across
homogenous layer or patches are-
membrane
(1) Collenchyma
145. Assertion: Any PGR has diverse
(2) Sclerenchyma
physiological effect on plants.
(3) Parenchyma
Reason: Diverse PGR can exhibit
(4) Fibers
similar effects.
140. Statement I: Mycoplasma is a well-
(1) If assertion and reason is true and
defined nucleated eukaryotic cell.
reason is correct explanation of
Statement II: Mycoplasma do not
assertion.
contain any cell wall outside their cell
(2) If assertion and reason is true and
membrane.
reason is not correct explanation
(1) Statement I is correct and
of assertion.
statement II is incorrect.
(3) If assertion is true and reason is
(2) Statement I is incorrect and
false.
statement II is correct.

19
 (4) If both assertion and reason is 148. Two pink flowered snapdragon plants
false (Rr) are self-pollinated. The
146. Primary endosperm cell is formed probability of the offsprings to have
after- white flowers are-
(1) Double fertilisation (1) 100%
(2) Syngamy (2) 75%
(3) Triple fusion (3) 50%
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) 25%
147. Mark the correct one- 149. Which of the following statement is
(1) Promoter - Present at 3’ correct for pond ecosystem?
end of coding (1) It is self-sustainable unit
strand (2) It has complex interactions
between abiotic and biotic
(2) Terminator - Present at 5’
end of template component
strand (3) Biotic component contains all
inorganic and organic substances
(3) Structural - Present at
(4) Soil is rich in only organic
gene upstream of
component
promoter
150. Attributes of population are-
(4) Terminator - Present at 3’ (1) Birth rate
end of template (2) Death
strand (3) Sex ratio
(4) Both (1) and (3)

20
 Zoology
SECTION – A

151. Which among the following statement (C) Starch, cellulose and Insulin are
is correct regarding frog: polymer of monosaccharides From
(1) Fertilization is external above statements
(2) Development is indirect (1) All are correct
(3) A mature female frog can lay 2500- (2) All are incorrect
3000 ova at a time. (3) Only A and B are correct
(4) All of these (4) Only B and C are correct

152. What change will happen according to 156. Read the following statements and
the mechanism of generation of nerve select the correct statement regarding
impulse conduction , when a stimulus coelenterates:
is applied on a polarized membrane- (a) The coelenterates have tentacles
(1) Na+ moves out of axoplasm which bear cnidoblasts.
(2) Na+ moves into axoplasm (b) Digestion is both extracellular and
(3) K+ moves into axoplasm intracellular.
(4) Ca2+ moves into axoplasm (c) They exhibit metastasis
(d) They have cellular level of
153. Function of __A__ epithelium is organization and are triploblastic
secretion and absorption. This is
(1) (a) and (b) only
commonly found in ducts of ___B__.
(2) (b) and (c)
Choose the option which fill the
(3) (a) and (c)
blanks A and B correctly
(4) (b) only
A B
1. Squamous Endocrine gland 157. Match the column I with column II in
2. Ciliated Exocrine gland the below given table and choose the
3. Cuboidal Glands correct answer.
4. Compound Pancreas Column – I Column – II
(Scientists) (Theories)
154. How many of the following features
A. Lamarck p. Origin of life
are related to Lippe’s loop?
A. IUD B. Darwin q. Chemical
B. Non-medicated evolution
C. Induces phagocytosis of sperms C. HugoDe r. Use and
D. Cu+ ion releasing Vries Disuse of
(1) Two organs
(2) Three
(3) Four D. oparin and s. Mutation
Haldane
(4) one
155. Consider the following statements and (1) A – (q); B – (p); C – (r); D – (s)
choose the correct answer. (2) A – (p); B – (q); C – (s); D – (r)
(A) Lecithin is an example of (3) A – (r); B – (q); C – (s); D – (p)
phospholipid. (4) A – (r); B – (p); C – (s); D – (q)
(B) The binding of the substrate
induces the enzyme to alter its
shape, fitting more tightly around
the substrate

21
158. Choose the mismatch w.r.t animal (3) Assertion is true but Reason is
and its characterics false
(1) Ancylostoma - Muscular pharyx (4) Both Assertion and Reason are
(2) Hirundinaria - Circular and false
longitudinal
muscles help in 163. How many bones does middle ear has:
locomotion (1) 3
(3) Sepia - unsegmented (2) 6
body (3) 11
(4) Pleurobrachia - Triploblastic and (4) 8
acoelomate
159. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t 164. What is true for corpus callosum?
cockroach (1) It connects forebrain and
(1) Two pairs of wings are present, midbrain
one pair each on 2nd and 3rd (2) It is a strip of nerves from
segment of thorax midbrain to medulla oblongata
(2) The head is connected with thorax (3) It is a strip of nerve fibres which
by a short extension of the connects two cerebral
prothorax known as the neck hemispheres
(3) The nervous system of cockroach (4) It connects thalamus and
consists of a series of fused, hypothalamus
segmentally arranged ganglia 165. In spirometry of health adult, the
joined by paired longitudinal value of FRC is always
connectives on the ventral side. (1) More than VC
(4) Forewings and hind wings are (2) Less than RV
present before moulting (3) Equal to TLC
(4) More than the ERV
160. Which among the following has no
significant role in regulation of 166. The SAN generates a new action
respiratory rhythm potential
(1) CO2 (1) At the initiation of ventricular
(2) H + ions systole
(3) O2 (2) At the end of ventricular diastole
(4) None of these (3) At the end of joint diastole
(4) At the end of atrial systole
161. CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH is the chemical
167. Under the normal physiological
formula of
conditions, during each cardiac cycle
(1) Palmitic acid
two prominent sound are heard, first
(2) Stearic acid
one is associated with………………….:
(3) Glycerol
(1) closure of bicuspid valve
(4) Galactose
(2) closure of tricuspid valve
(3) closure of semilunar valve
162. Assertion: In the ECG of a normal
(4) closure of bicuspid valve and
healthy individual repolarization of
tricuspid valve
atria is not present
Reason: Atrial repolarization occur
168. In most of the invertebrates, the
during ventricular depolarization
excretory structures are present in
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are
simple tubular forms, green glands
true and Reason is the correct
perform the excretory function in
explanation of Assertion.
(1) Planaria
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are
(2) Prawns
true but Reason is not the correct
(3) Amphioxus
explanation of Assertion.
(4) Rotifers

22
169. All of the following are correct for organism and chance events in
function of PCT except nature
(1) Reabsorption of 𝐻𝐶𝑂3−
174. Which of the following is a palindromic
(2) Reabsorption of H+
sequence?
(3) Maximum reabsorption of water
(1) 5’ – GAACCC – 3’
(4) Secretion of NH3
3’ – CTTGGG – 5’
170. Which of the following part(s) of (2) 5’ – CTATCG – 3’
nephron has osmolarity less than 300 3’ – GATAGC – 5’
mOsmolL-1? (3) 5’ – ATCGAT – 3’
(1) PCT and collecting duct 3’ – TAGCTA – 5’
(2) PCT only (4) 5’ – CTTGAA – 3’
(3) Loop of Henle 3’ – GAACTT – 5’
(4) DCT
175. Which of the following is not true w.r.t
171. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t cloning vector pBR322?
locomotion in different organisms? (1) It does not possess any restriction
(1) Hydra uses its tentacles for site for EcoRI in ampR gene
locomotion (2) Hind III restriction site is excluded
(2) In paramecium, cilia helps in from ampR gene and tetR gene
locomotion (3) It has restriction site for Bst 1
(3) In human all muscles help in (4) ampR gene tetR gene help in
movement that lead to identifying and eliminating non-
displacement of the body transformant and selectively
(4) Pseudopodia helps in movement of
permitting the growth of the
leucocytes
transformant.
172. Read the following statements A and B 176. How many structures, given below in
and select the correct option. the box, are present in appendicular
Statement A: the Step elution is used Skelton?
for isolation of genetic material in the Clavicle, Sternum, Coccyx,
process of recombinant DNA Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Tarsals, ribs
technology
Statement B: If insertional (1) Two
inactivation occurs in Lac Z gene the (2) Four
colonies of non-recombinant do not (3) Five
produce any colour. (4) Six
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Both the statements are correct 177. Match the Column – I and Column – II
(3) Only statement A is incorrect and select the correct answer
(4) Only statement B is incorrect Column – I Column – II
(A) Cry II Ab (i) Reduce post-
173. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t
harvest losses
evolution.
(B) GM plants (ii) Powerful technique
(1) Industrial melanism is an example to identify many
of evolution by anthropogenic genetic disorder
action (C) PCR (iii) Controls the cotton
(2) Antibiotic resistance in bacteria boll-worms
supports the evolution by natural (D) 𝛼−1− (iv) Used to treat
selection antitrypsin emphysema
(3) Evolution by natural selection is (1) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
the directed process in the sense (2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
of determinism (3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(4) Evolution is a stochastic process (4) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
based on chance mutation in

23
178. At present __A__ recombinants (2) Colostrum has abundant
therapeutics being marketed in India antibodies (lgA) and provide
whereas __B__ recombinants passive immunity to infant
therapeutics have been approved over (3) Mucosa-associated lymphoid
world -wide use for human. Correct tissue constitutes about 50 per
option for A and B is cent of the lymphoid tissue in
A B human body
(1) 30 12 (4) For HIV infected persons, time-leg
(2) 12 30 between the infection and
(3) 36 24 appearance of AIDS symptoms
(4) 40 30 may vary from a few months to
179. Identify the statements as true (T) or many years
false (F) and select the correct option. 182. The uses of vaccines and
(i) The spleen is a small bean shaped immunization programmes have
organ enabled us to completely eradicate
(ii) hepatitis B vaccine produced from deadly disease like
yeast (1) Dengue
(iii) Allergy is due to the release of (2) Polio
chemicals like histamine and (3) Diptheria
serotonin from the NK- cells (4) Smalll pox
(iv) The use of drugs like anti-
histamine, adrenalin and steroids 183. Identify the correct set of STDs which
quickly reduce the symptoms of are completely curable if detected
early and treated properly.
allergy
(1) Genital hereps, HIV
I II III IV
(2) Genital warts, Trichomoniasis
1. F T F F (3) Hepatitis -B, HIV
2. F T F T (4) Chlamydiasis, Genital herpes
3. F T T T
184. Which of the following statement is
4. T F F T incorrect for contraceptives?
(1) Barrier methods prevent
180. Statement-1: 16 di-sulfide bonds are conception by blocking the entry of
present in a IgG antibody. sperms through the cervix
Statement-2: The body is able to (2) Mode of action implants is similar
differentiate ‘self’ and ‘non-self’ and to that of pills but their effective
the antibody -mediated immune periods are much lesser compare
response is responsible for the graft to later
rejection. (3) Administration of progestogens or
(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are progestogen estrogen combination
correct within 72 hours of coitus
(2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are considered as emergency
incorrect contraceptives
(3) Statement 1 is correct, 2 is (4) LNG-20 prevents implantation as
incorrect well as alter the quality of cervical
(4) Statement 2 is correct 1 is to retard entry of sperms
incorrect 185. Identify the stage of plasmodium
181. Which of the following statements is which forms gametes, and taken up by
incorrect? female anopheles mosquito when bites
(1) Vaccines produced using an infected persons
Recombinant DNA technology, (1) Sporozoite
provide passive immunity to infant (2) Gametocyte
(3) Merozoite
(4) Gamete

24
 SECTION – B 192. Which of the following gastro-
intestinal hormone acts on gall
186. Which of the following ART does not bladder as well as exocrine pancreas?
involve in vitro fertilisation? (1) Cholecystokinin
(1) ICSI (2) Gastrin
(2) ZIFT (3) Secretin
(3) GIFT (4) Gastric inhibitory peptide
(4) IUT
193. Choose the correct match
187. How many primary spermatocytes are (1) Insulin - Gluconegonesis
required to form 1000 sperms? (2) Catecholamines - Glycogenolysis
(1) 1000 (3) Glucagon - Glycogenesis
(2) 500 (4) Androgens - Catabolic
(3) 250 effects on
(4) 750 protein and
188. Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs carbohydrate
in which phase of meiosis: metabolism
(1) Leptotene of prophase 1 194. Forebrain consists of
(2) Pachytene of prophase 1 (1) Cerebellum, thalamus and
(3) Metaphase 1 hypothalamus
(4) Diakinesis of prophase 1 (2) Pons, cerebrum and medulla
(3) Amygdala, hippocampus and
189. If a male ejaculates about 300 million
brain stem
sperms during a coitus of which, how
(4) Thalamus, hypothalamus and
many of them must show normal
shape, size and vigorous motility for cerebrum
normal fertility?
195. In myosin filament, A and B are sites
(1) 180 million
for binding of respectively?
(2) 72 million
(3) 150 million
(4) 300 million
190. Read the following statements and
select the correct option.
Statement A: The process of childbirth
is called parturition which is induced
by complex neuroendocrine (1) ATP and actin
mechanism involving cortisol, (2) Actin and ATP
estrogen and oxytocin, (3) Troponin and ATP
Statement B: By the end of the 8 (4) Troponin and actin
weeks of pregnancy, the foetus
196. Statement I: Leydig cells are located
develops limbs and digits
in interstitial spaces in testes.
(1) Both the statements are correct
Statement II: Sertoli cells of
(2) Both the statements A is incorrect
seminiferous tubules provide
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
nourishment to developing sperms.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
191. All of the followings interact with are correct
intracellular receptors except (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
(1) Estrogen are incorrect
(2) Erythropoietin (3) Statement I is correct & Statement
(3) Cortisol II is incorrect
(4) Aldosterone (4) Statement I is incorrect &
Statement II is correct

25
197. Pressure within the lungs is called 200. Which two groups of the following
(1) Inter-pulmonary pressure formula are involved in peptide
(2) Intra-pulmonary pressure linkage between different amino
(3) Interstitial pressure acids?
(4) Alveolar pressure
198. The number of cranial nerves found in
frog are:
(1) 10 pairs
(2) 12 pairs
(3) 8 pairs
(4) 11 pairs (1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 4
199. Select the incorrect statement (3) 1 and 3
(1) RNAi silencing takes place in all (4) 2 and 4
eukaryotic organisms as a method
of cellular defense
(2) RNAi requires silencing of mRNA
by binding of complementary
ssDNA molecule
(3) Complementary nucleic acid could
be from mobile genetic elements
(transposons)
(4) Using Agrobacterium vectors,
nematode-specific genes were
introduced into the host plant.

26
 Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

1. (4) 51. (2) 101. (1) 151. (4)
2. (3) 52. (3) 102. (2) 152. (2)
3. (1) 53. (3) 103. (2) 153. (3)
4. (3) 54. (3) 104. (2) 154. (2)
5. (4) 55. (1) 105. (1) 155. (1)
6. (1) 56. (3) 106. (2) 156. (1)
7. (4) 57. (1) 107. (4) 157. (4)
8. (4) 58. (4) 108. (1) 158. (4)
9. (3) 59. (1) 109. (4) 159. (4)
10. (4) 60. (3) 110. (4) 160. (3)
11. (4) 61. (4) 111. (3) 161. (1)
12. (2) 62. (1) 112. (2) 162. (1)
13. (4) 63. (4) 113. (1) 163. (2)
14. (3) 64. (2) 114. (2) 164. (3)
15. (2) 65. (1) 115. (4) 165. (4)
16. (2) 66. (2) 116. (1) 166. (3)
17. (4) 67. (1) 117. (2) 167. (4)
18. (4) 68. (2) 118. (3) 168. (2)
19. (3) 69. (3) 119. (4) 169. (2)
20. (4) 70. (3) 120. (2) 170. (4)
21. (1) 71. (2) 121. (1) 171. (3)
22. (1) 72. (1) 122. (1) 172. (1)
23. (4) 73. (1) 123. (3) 173. (3)
24. (4) 74. (2) 124. (2) 174. (3)
25. (1) 75. (4) 125. (3) 175. (3)
26. (2) 76. (2) 126. (3) 176. (1)
27. (3) 77. (1) 127. (3) 177. (2)
28. (3) 78. (3) 128. (2) 178. (2)
29. (1) 79. (4) 129. (3) 179. (2)
30. (1) 80. (4) 130. (1) 180. (3)
31. (4) 81. (4) 131. (3) 181. (1)
32. (3) 82. (2) 132. (4) 182. (4)
33. (2) 83. (2) 133. (1) 183. (2)
34. (1) 84. (4) 134. (3) 184. (2)
35. (3) 85. (3) 135. (3) 185. (2)
36. (2) 86. (2) 136. (4) 186. (3)
37. (1) 87. (1) 137. (3) 187. (3)
38. (3) 88. (2) 138. (3) 188. (4)
39. (3) 89. (1) 139. (1) 189. (2)
40. (1) 90. (2) 140. (2) 190. (1)
41. (4) 91. (1) 141. (2) 191. (2)
42. (1) 92. (3) 142. (3) 192. (1)
43. (3) 93. (3) 143. (3) 193. (2)
44. (4) 94. (4) 144. (1) 194. (4)
45. (1) 95. (1) 145. (2) 195. (2)
46. (2) 96. (3) 146. (3) 196. (1)
47. (1) 97. (4) 147. (2) 197. (2)
48. (1) 98. (1) 148. (4) 198. (1)
49. (2) 99. (3) 149. (1) 199. (2)
50. (1) 100. (2) 150. (4) 200. (3)

27
 SB-AITS Test 12 (Full Length 08 - Class 11 & 12) - Solution
S1. (4) S6. (1)
Parabolic mirror helps in removing Mean free path is inversely
spherical aberration. proportional to pressure
S2. (3) S7. (4)
Given: 𝑄 = 𝑎𝑡 − 𝑏𝑡 2
𝑑𝑄
⇒𝑖= 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑡
Therefore, current will be zero at
𝑎
𝑡 = 2𝑏
We know that; 𝑑𝐻 = 𝑖 2 𝑅𝑑𝑡
𝑎/2𝑏
⇒ 𝐻 = ∫0 (𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑡)2 𝑅𝑑𝑡
𝑎/2𝑏
⇒𝐻= ∫ (𝑎2 + 4𝑏 2 𝑡 2 − 4𝑎𝑏𝑡) 𝑅𝑑𝑡
0
𝑎3 𝑅
The forces acting on arms BC and ⇒𝐻= 6𝑏
AD are equal and opposite. The S8. (4)
force on arm B is given by A B Y
𝜇0 𝐼 𝑖
𝐹1 = 0 0 1
2𝜋𝑎
Which is directed towards the 0 1 1
1 0 1
wire. The force on arm CD is given
1 1 0
by
0 𝜇 𝐼𝑖
𝐹2 = 2𝜋𝑎(𝑎+𝑏) S9. (3)
Which is directed away form the Total energy before mixing 𝐸𝑖 =
3 3
wire. Since 𝐹1 > 𝐹2 , the loop; will 𝑛 𝑘𝑇 + 𝑛2 𝑘𝑇2
2 1 1 2
move towards the wire. Hence the Total energy after mixing, 𝐸𝑓 =
correct choice is (c). 3
(𝑛1 + 𝑛2 )𝑘𝑇
2
S3. (1) 𝐸𝑖 = 𝐸𝑓
Impulsive force acts for short 𝑛1 𝑘𝑇1 + 𝑛2 𝑘𝑇2 = (𝑛1 + 𝑛2 )𝑘𝑇 ….(i)
𝑃 𝑉 𝑃 𝑉
interval but produces a significant 𝑛1 = 1 1 𝑛2 = 2 2
𝑅𝑇1 𝑅𝑇2
change in momentum
Putting values of 𝑛1 & 𝑛2 in (i)
𝑇1 𝑇2 (𝑃1 𝑉1 + 𝑃2 𝑉2 )
S4. (3) 𝑇=
3×6 𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑇2 + 𝑃2 𝑉2 𝑇1
Total resistance, 𝑅𝑛 = 4 + 3+6 = S10. (4)
6 𝑜ℎ𝑚 As the plates are connected by a
3 1
Total current, 𝐼 = 6 = 2 𝐴 thin metal plate, the potential (V)
Potential drop across between the plates is zero.
𝑄 𝑄
1
4 𝑜ℎ𝑚, 𝑉4 𝜊ℎ𝑚 = 4 × = 2 𝑉 Capacitance, 𝐶 = = =∞
𝑉 0
2
S5. (4) S11. (4)
A body is moving under the action Let a be the constant acceleration
of two forces. Using 1st equation of motion
⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑣1 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡1
𝐹1 = 2𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐹2 = 3𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂
𝑣1 = 0 + 𝑎𝑡1
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
A third force 𝐹3 is applied on it 𝑣
𝑎 = 𝑡 1 … … . . (𝑖)
such that its velocity becomes 1

⇒ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹1 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹2 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹3 = 0 At any instant t, the velocity v of
the body
⇒ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹3 + 5𝑖̂ − 9𝑗̂ = 0
𝑣 = 0 + at
⇒ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐹3 = −5𝑖̂ + 9𝑗̂

28
 𝑣1
𝑣= . 𝑡 … … . (𝑖𝑖) S16. (2)
𝑡1
∵ 𝑃 = 𝐹𝑣
𝑃 = 𝑚𝑎𝑣
𝑣 𝑣
𝑃 = 𝑚 ( 𝑡 1 ) (𝑡 . 𝑡)
1 1
𝑚𝑣12
𝑃= 𝑡12
𝑡
S12. (2)
Current in 2Ω resister = 3A
Potential across 2Ω resister 𝑉 =
𝐼𝑅 = 3 × 2 = 6𝑉
Potential is equal in parallel ⃗⃗⃗⃗1 | = 𝑄𝑎, |𝑃
|𝑃 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗2 | = 𝑄𝑎
connection. And they are at 60° inclination.
Current flow in 1Ω & 5Ω resister ∴ 𝑃𝑛𝑒𝑡 = √𝑃12 + 𝑃22 + 2𝑃1 𝑃2 cos 𝜃
𝑉 6
𝑖 = 𝑅 = 5+1 = 1𝐴 1
= √𝑄 2 𝑎2 + 𝑄 2 𝑎2 + 2𝑄 2 𝑎2 .
Power dissipates in 5Ω resister = 2
𝑖 2 𝑅 = 12 × 5 = 5 𝑊 = √3𝑄𝑎.
Power dissipates in 5Ω resister is S17. (4)
5W Total force due to a pair of charges
S13. (4) kept on diagonal BD is towards B.
Total force due to a pair of charges
kept on diagonal AC is towards B.
So net force will be vector sum of
above two total forces. Direction
will be perpendicular to AB.
S18. (4)
𝑢 cos 60° × 3 = 𝐴𝐵 𝑐𝑜𝑠30°
3𝑢
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 𝐴𝐵 =
= + √3
𝜆3 𝜆2 𝜆1 S19. (3)
Path different is (𝜇 − 1)𝑡
S14. (3) For the intensity to be zero
Let the weight of metal needed be (𝜇 − 1)𝑡 = (𝑛 + ) 𝜆
1
m 2

Volume of metal = 𝑚/14 For minimum thickness 𝑛 = 0

𝜆
Weight of wood = 12 kg 𝑡=
2(𝜇−1)
12
Volume of wood = 0.6 = 20 S20. (4)
Total volume = 20 +
𝑚 𝑦1 = 4 sin 600𝜋𝑡 𝑦2 = 5 sin 608𝜋𝑡
14 Comparing with general equation
Now, Weight = Buoyant force
𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 2𝜋𝑓𝑡
The volume displaced will be of
We get,
only of wood
𝑓1 = 300 𝑓2 = 304
=> (𝑚 + 12)𝑔 = 𝑔(0.9 × 20)
Then,
=> 𝑚 = 6𝐾𝑔
Number of beats = 304 – 300 = 4
S15. (2)
beats/sec Intensity ratio is given
In 𝑎. 𝑐. 𝐿𝑅 circuit,
𝑉 𝐼𝑋𝐿 𝑋𝐿
as,
tan 𝜙 = 𝑉𝐿 = 𝐼𝑅
= 𝑅 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑎 +𝑎 2
𝑅
𝑋𝐿 𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
= (𝑎1 −𝑎2 )
1 2
tan 45° = 𝑅 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 4+5 2
⇒ 𝑋𝐿 = 𝑅 tan 45° = 𝑅 𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
= (4−5)
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 81
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
= (1)

29
 ∴ 𝐼_ max: 𝐼_ min = 81: 1 ⇒ 𝐻𝑚𝑎𝑥 is same
S21. (1) S28. (3)
Fermi level lies below conduction 𝑀 𝑀
𝑇1 = 2𝜋√𝐾 and 𝑇2 = 2𝜋√𝐾
band 𝐴 𝐵

S22. (1) When springs are joined in series –

Component of 𝑇 along y direction 1 1 1
= 𝐾 + 𝐾 ⇒ 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 𝐾 𝐴+𝐾𝐵
𝐾 𝐾
𝐾𝑒𝑞
balances weight of the block 𝐴 𝐵 𝐴 𝐵

𝑀(𝐾𝐴 +𝐾𝐵 )
𝑇𝑠𝑖𝑛60° = √3𝑔 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ (𝐾𝐴 𝐾𝐵 )
𝑇 = 20 𝑁
⇒ clearly, 𝑇 2 = 𝑇12
+ 𝑇22
S23. (4)
S29. (1)
If 𝑑1 is the distance of point X on
⃗⃗. 𝐴⃗ = |𝐵
𝐵 ⃗⃗||𝐴⃗| cos 30° = 6.9 × 10−4 𝑊𝑏
axial line and 𝑑2 is distance of
point Y on equatorial line, then S30. (1)
𝜇0 2𝑀 𝜇0 𝑀 Given: 𝑢𝐴 = 10 m/s, 𝑢𝐵 = 12 m/s,
𝐵1 = 4𝜋𝑑13
, 𝐵2 = 4𝜋𝑑23 a = 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 , 𝑑 = 150 𝑚
As 𝐵1 = 𝐵2 The distance travelled by car A,
𝜇0 2𝑀 𝜇0 2𝑀
∴ 4𝜋𝑑13
= 4𝜋𝑑23
when it stops,
𝑢2 102
3 𝑑1 𝑆𝐴 = 2𝑎𝐴 = 2×2 = 25 𝑚
𝑑13 = 2𝑑2 ; 𝑑 = 2 1/3
2
S24. (4) 𝑢𝐵2 122
𝑆𝐵 = = = 36 𝑚
𝑇1 = (𝑀1 + 𝑀2 )𝑎 + (𝑀1 + 𝑀2 )𝑔 2𝑎 2 × 2
𝑇1 = (10 + 6)(2) + (10 + 6)(10) ∴ Minimum distance between the
𝑇1 = (20)(2) + (20)(10) cars when both are stop is
𝑇1 = 240 𝑁 150 – (25 + 36) = 89 𝑚
S25. (1) S31. (4)
200 Interatomic force constant =
𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑁𝐼 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 × −2 × 5 Young’s modulus × mean atomic
10
= 12.56 × 10−2 distance
S26. (2) ⇒ 7 𝑁/𝑚 = Young’s Modulus
∴ For wavelength 𝜆1 , 𝐾1 =
ℎ𝑐
− × 3 × 10−10 𝑚
𝜆1 ⇒ Young’s modulus = 2.33 ×
𝜙 … … . (1) 1010 𝑁/𝑚2
ℎ𝑐
For wavelength 𝜆2 , 𝐾2 = − S32. (3)
𝜆2
𝜙 … . . (2) 𝐿 =2𝑚ℎ
Given: 𝜆1 = 3𝜆2 𝐼 = 𝑡 2 𝑒 −𝑡
−𝐿𝑑𝑖 −𝐿𝑑 2
∴ Equation (1) becomes 𝐾1 =
ℎ𝑐
− 𝐸= ⇒ [𝑡 𝑒 −𝑡 ]
3𝜆2 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

𝜙 … . (3) Here emf is 0

𝑑𝑖
From (2)-(3), we get 𝐾2 − 𝐾1 = 𝜆 −
ℎ𝑐
𝑑𝑡
= 2𝑡. 𝑒 −𝑡 − 𝑡 2 𝑒 −𝑡 = 0
2
ℎ𝑐 2𝑡 𝑒 −𝑡 = 𝑡 2 𝑒 −𝑡 ⇒ 𝑡𝑒 −𝑡 (𝑡 − 2) = 0
3𝜆2 𝑡 = 2𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝑡𝑒 −𝑡 = 0
2ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 3
𝐾2 − 𝐾1 = ⇒ = (𝐾2 − 𝐾1 )
3𝜆2 𝜆2 2
3 S33. (2)
Put this in (2), 𝐾2 = 2 (𝐾2 − 𝐾1 ) − 𝜙 [ℎ𝑐] = [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ][𝐿]
⇒ 𝐾2 − 3𝐾1 = 2𝜙 = [𝑀𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ]
As 𝜙 > 0 ⇒ 𝐾2 − 3𝐾1 > 0 𝑒2
𝐾2
[ 𝜀 ] = [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ][𝐿2 ]
Thus 𝐾1 < 0
3 = [𝑀𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ]
S27. (3) 1𝑒 2
Time of flight is same [𝜀 ] = 𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 0 𝐴0
𝑜ℎ𝑐
⇒ vertical component of velocity is S34. (1)
same

30
 Excess pressure inside a soap sin 𝜃𝑐 = 𝜇
1
4𝑇
bubble = 𝑟 1
Where r is the radius of the cos 𝜃𝑐 = √1 − sin2 𝜃𝑐 = √1 −
𝜇2
bubble. 𝜇 cos 𝜃𝑐 = √𝑢2 − 1 … … … … … (1)
Hence Applying Snell’s law at first
4𝑇 4𝑇 4𝑇
3
+
1
=
𝑅
incident
⇒
3×1
𝑐𝑚 𝜇0 sin 𝜃𝑖 = 𝜇 sin 𝜃𝑟
3+1 ⇒ 1 × sin 45° = 𝜇 sin(90 − 𝜃𝑐 )
⇒ 𝑅 = 0.75 𝑐𝑚 1
⇒ = 𝜇 cos 𝜃𝑐 = √𝜇2 − 1
√2
S35. (3) 3
⇒ 𝜇 = √2
𝑢2
𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑔 𝑎𝑡𝜃 = 45°
𝑚𝑣 2 2 1 2
𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ( 2 ) (𝑚𝑔) = (2 𝑘𝑥 2 ) (𝑚𝑔) S40. (1)
1 1 𝑘𝑥 2 If closed loop carrying a single
𝐴𝑠 ( 𝑚𝑣 2 = 𝑘𝑥 2 ) ⇒ 𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 = current is placed in uniform
2 2 𝑚𝑔
Substituting the values magnetic field, net magnetic force
(600)(5×10−2 )
2
on loop is zero.
𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = 10 .0 𝑚
(15×10−3 )(10) S41. (4)
S36. (2) The moment of inertia of a thin
Energy density of electromagnetic hoop about its diameter is 2 𝑀𝑅 2
1

wave is given by:

2 here, 𝑀 = 𝐿𝜌 also, we have
𝐸 = 𝜖0 𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠
2𝜋𝑅 = 𝐿
= 8.85 × 10−12 × (720)2 𝐿
𝐸 ≈ 4.58 × 10−6 𝐽/𝑚3 ⇒ 𝑅 = 2𝜋
S37. (1) So, we have
On the surface of earth, the force 1 1 𝐿 2 𝐿3 𝑃
𝐼 = 𝑀𝑅 2 = 𝐿𝜌 ( ) =
2 2 2𝜋 8𝜋2
on a mass of 1kg is
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀×1 Now using parallel axis theorem,
𝐹= 𝑅2
= 𝑅2
= 10 … … . (𝑖) we have
When the radius of the satellite, 𝐿3 𝜌 𝐿 2
𝐿𝑥𝑥′ = 𝐼𝑐𝑚 + 𝑀𝑅 2 = + 𝐿𝜌 ( )
𝑟 = 3𝑅/2, the force on the satellite 8𝜋2 2𝜋
𝐿3 𝜌 𝐿3 𝜌 3𝐿3 𝜌
is + 4𝜋2 =
𝐺𝑀𝑚′ 𝐺𝑀×100 10×4×100 8𝜋2 8𝜋2
𝐹= 𝑟2
= (3/2)2 𝑅2 = 9
= S42. (1)
2 𝛼 𝛽− 𝛼
4.44 × 10 𝑁 72 𝐴
180
→ 70 𝐴176
1 → 176
71 𝐴2 →
𝛾
172 172
69 𝐴3 → 69 𝐴4
S38. (3)
S43. (3)
2ℎ 5
𝑆=𝑢× √𝑔 ⇒ 10 = 𝑢√2 × ⇒𝑢= 𝑋 = 𝑎2 𝑏 3 𝑐 5/2 𝑑−2
10
Percentage error in X is
10 𝑚/𝑠 Δ𝑋 Δ𝑎 Δb 5 Δc
S39. (3) 𝑥
× 100 = [2 ( 𝑎 ) + 3 ( 𝑏 ) + 2 ( 𝑐 ) +
Δ𝑑
2 ( )] × 100 = 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 +
𝑑
5
2
× 2 + 2 × 4 = 21%
S44. (4)
When there are two turns in the
coil, then
𝑙
𝑙 = 2 × 2𝜋𝑟1 𝑜𝑟 𝑟1 = 4𝜋
𝜇0 𝑁1 𝐼 𝜇 ×2×𝐼 𝜇0 4𝜋𝐼
Then 𝐵1 = 2𝑟1
0
= 2×(𝑙/4𝜋) = 𝑙

For critical reflection

31
 When there are four turns in the
coil, then
𝑙
𝑙 = 4 × 2𝜋𝑟2 𝑜𝑟 𝑟2 = 8𝜋
𝜇0 𝑁2 𝐼 𝜇 ×4×𝐼 𝜇0 16𝜋𝐼
Then 𝐵2 = 2𝑟2
0
= 2×(𝑙/8𝜋) = 𝑙
𝐵1 4 1
= = = 𝑜𝑟 𝐵2 = 4𝐵1 = 4 ×
𝐵2 16 4
0.2𝑇 = 0.8𝑇
The free body diagram of 3kg
S45. (1)
block is as shown in the fig. (a).
Let a weight W be suspended at a
The equation of motion of 3kg
distance x from steel wire. Let 𝑇𝑠
block is 𝑇2 − 3𝑔 = 3𝑎
and 𝑇𝐵 be tensions in the steel and
𝑇2 = 3(𝑎 + 𝑔) = 3(2 + 10) =
brass wires respectively.
𝑇𝑆
36 𝑁 … … (𝑖)
∴ Stress in steel wire = The free body diagram of 5kg is as
𝐴𝑆
Stress in brass wire
𝑇
= 𝐴𝐵 shown in the Fig (b).
𝐵 The equation of motion of 5kg
for equal stress in both the wires. block is
𝑇𝑆 𝑇
𝐴𝑆
= 𝐴𝐵 𝑇1 − 𝑇2 − 5𝑔 = 5𝑎
𝐵
𝑇𝑆 𝐴𝑆 0.1 𝑐𝑚2 1 𝑇1 = 5(𝑎 + 𝑔) + 𝑇2
= = 0.2 𝑐𝑚2 = 2 … (𝑖)
𝑇𝐵 𝐴𝐵 = 5(2 + 10) + 36 = 96 𝑁 (𝑈𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 (𝑖))
For the rotational equilibrium of
the rod, S48. (1)
𝑇𝑆 𝑥 = 𝑇𝐵 (2 − 𝑥) In a process 𝑃𝑉 𝑥 = constant,
2−𝑥 𝑇 1
= 𝑇 𝑆 = 2 [𝑈𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 (𝑖)] molar heat capacity is given by 𝐶 =
𝑥 𝐵 𝑅 𝑅
4 − 2𝑥 = 𝑥 𝑜𝑟 3𝑥 = 4 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 = 3 𝑚
4 +
𝛾−1 1−𝑥
𝑃
As the process is = constant,
𝑉
S46. (2) i.e., 𝑃𝑉 −1
= constant, therefore,
Moment of inertia of a uniform rod 𝑥 = −1
of mass M, length L about its For an ideal monatomic gas, 𝛾 = 3
5
perpendicular bisector is 𝑅 𝑅 3 𝑅
1
𝐼 = 12 𝑀𝐿2 … … . (𝑖) 𝐶=5 + 1−(−1) = 2 𝑅 + 2 = 2𝑅
−1
3
When the temperature of the rod Δ𝑄 = 𝑛𝐶(Δ𝑇) = 1(2𝑅)(2𝑇0 − 𝑇0 ) =
is increased by Δ𝑇, there is an 2𝑅𝑇0
increase in the length of the rod Δ𝐿 S49. (2)
is given by 𝐾𝛼 =
(𝐴−4)
𝑄
𝐴
Δ𝐿 = 𝐿𝛼Δ𝑇……. (ii)
Here, A = 220, Q = 5.5 MeV
∴ New moment of inertia about the 220−4
same axis is 𝐾𝛼 = ( ) 5.5 MeV = 5.4 MeV
220
1
𝐼 ′ = 12 𝑀(𝐿 + Δ𝐿)2 = 12 𝑀[𝐿2 +
1 S50. (1)
The total flux linked with a closed
(Δ𝐿)2 + 2𝐿Δ𝐿]
surface only depends on the
Since Δ𝐿 is small quantity, the
enclosed charge and independent
term (Δ𝐿)2 being very small can be
of the shape and size of the surface.
neglected.
1
∴ 𝐼 ′ = 12 𝑀[𝐿2 + 2𝐿Δ𝐿] S51. (2)
1 1 [𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝑥)2 𝐶𝑙𝐵𝑟]−3
= 12 𝑀𝐿2 + 12 𝑀𝐿2 2𝛼Δ𝑇 (𝑈𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 (𝑖𝑖))
• No. of isomers –
= 𝐼 + 2𝛼𝐼Δ𝑇(𝑈𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 (𝑖))
Increase in moment of inertia,
𝐼 ′ − 𝐼 = 2𝛼𝐼Δ𝑇
S47. (1)

32
 109.28° will be in Total ‘6’ 2Cl—C—Cl4
3Cl—C—Cl4

S57. (1)
(i)→(b),(ii)→(d),(iii)→(a),(iv)→(e),(v)→(c)
S58. (4)
• This structure has plane of Dien is not a bidentate ligand.
symmetry, So no optical S59. (1)
isomerism will be shown. Assertion and reason both are
correct and reason is correct
explanation of assertion. Cu can
not liberate hydrogen from acids
because it has positive electrode
potential. Metal having negative
value of electrode potential liberate
• This structure does not contain
H₂gas.
plane of symmetry, So two
forms d as well as I will be S60. (3)
shown. Largest amount of energy is
S52. (3) required for the transition between
1 1 1
Electronic configuration represents 1→∞ ∆𝐸 = ℎ𝑐 × 𝜆 ⇒ ℎ𝑐𝑅 [𝑛2 − 𝑛2 ]
1 2
'P', 1𝑠 2 , 2𝑠 2 , 2𝑝6 , 3𝑠 2 , 3𝑝³ = 15 down [Large the difference between 𝑛1
the group add 18𝑒 − because 3rd and 𝑛2 large will be the value of DE]
period have 18 elements. S61. (4)
∴ Atomic number of element below ℎ
∆𝑥 × ∆𝑃 = 4𝜋 if ∆𝑥 = 0
is 33.
S53. (3) ℎ ℎ
∆𝑃 = 4𝜋×∆𝑥 = 4𝜋×0 = ∞
𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 and
S62. (1)
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 are metamers. (ii)
The correct option is A 𝑆𝑛4+
and (iv) i.e., 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 and
When acidified 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 solution is
added to 𝑆𝑛2+ , it oxidises 𝑆𝑛2+ to
𝑆𝑛4+ .
𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72− + 14𝐻 + + +3𝑆𝑛2+ → 2𝐶𝑟 3+
Are position isomers.
+ 3𝑆𝑛4+ + 7𝐻2 𝑂
S54. (3)
Sn belongs to the carbon family
Higher the no. of electron releasing
which generally shows +2 and +4
groups lower will be stability of
oxidation states. So, on oxidation,
carbanion, and vice versa. So, the
Sn cannot show +3 oxidation state.
order of stability of carbanions is
S63. (4)
(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Boric acid, also called hydrogen
S55. (1)
borate, is a weak, monobasic lewis
On moving down the group no. of
acid of boron. Option D only is the
shells are added
wrong statement because it acts as
∴ Size increases
monobasic acid not tri basic.
S56. (3)
S64. (2)
1Cl—C—Cl2
Baryta water (aqueous solution of
1Cl—C—Cl3
barium hydroxide) reacts with
1Cl—C—Cl4
carbon dioxide to give white
2Cl—C—Cl3
precipitate of barium carbonate,

33
 thus the solution looks turbid but
when excess of carbon dioxide is
passed then carbonate ions turns
into bicarbonate ions.
𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂₂ → 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑂3 ↓ ⇒ 𝑑𝑠𝑝2
(𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑡. ) ⇒ Square planer
𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐵𝑎(𝐻𝐶𝑂3 )2 S69. (3)
Carbonates when reacts with silver The conjugate base of (c) is most
nitrate forms white precipitate of stable, hence (c) is most acidic and
silver carbonates. If the solution of therefore (c) has least 𝑝𝐾𝑎 value.
formed precipitate is boiled it gets S70. (3)
𝑤 𝑆𝑇
converted into yellow coloured ∵𝜋= , 𝑤, V and T are constant.
𝑚𝑉
silver oxide. 1
Thus, 𝜋 ∝ 𝑚 ∴ 𝑃2 > 𝑃1 > 𝑃3
𝐶𝑂32− + 𝐴𝑔+ → 𝐴𝑔2 𝐶𝑂3 ↓ (𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑡. )
boiled S71. (2)
𝐴𝑔2 𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐴𝑔2 𝑂3 (yellow/brown That’s the thumb rule, one faraday
𝑝𝑝𝑡. ) + 𝐶𝑂2 ↑ current releases one gram
S65. (1) equivalent of the concerned
4𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) → 𝑃4 (𝑠) + +6𝐻2 (𝑔) substance.
4 moles 6 moles S72. (1)
As 4 moles of 𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) converts into 1
𝜅 = 𝐺. 𝐺 ∗ ⇒ 200 2 ⇒ 0.01;
6 moles 𝐻2 (𝑔) 𝜅
∴ 4 × 22.4 𝐿 of 𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) will produce Λ eq = × 1000
𝑁
0.01
= 6 × 22.4 𝐿 of 𝐻2 ⇒ × 1000 ⇒ 100
0.1
89.6 𝐿 of 𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) will produce S73. (1)
= 134.4 𝐿 Catalyst decreases the activation
1 L of 𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) will produce energy and thus increases the rate
134.4
= 89.6
= 1.5 𝐿 of reaction
100 mL of 𝑃𝐻3 (𝑔) will produce S74. (2)
=
134.4
× 100 = 150 𝑚𝐿 For zero order reaction:
89.6
𝑥 =𝐾⋅𝑡
∴ Increase in volume will be 50 mL
= 0.6 × 10−3 × 20 × 60
S66. (2)
𝑥 = 0.72 𝑀
It is true that isotonic solution S75. (4)
doesn't show the phenomenon of Bromination followed by 𝐸2
osmosis. Isotonic solutions are
elimination.
those solution which have same
3 moles of alkyne in presence of
osmotic pressure. Here both
Red hot iron tube forms benzene.
statement and explanation are
S76. (2)
correct but explanation is not
Halogen atom because of its –I
correct for statement.
effect has some tendency to
S67. (1)
withdraw electrons from the
Atomic mass
10×19+81×11 190+891
benzene ring, as a result, the ring
= 100
= 100 gets somewhat deactivated as
=
1081
= 10.81 compared to benzene.
100
S68. (2)
[𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁)4 ]2− ⇒ 3𝑑6

34
S77. (1) S82. (2)

⇒ Due to +M effect of –OH Group at

para position, a stable benzyl
carbocation is formed.
S78. (3) S83. (2)

S84. (4)
S79. (4) CH3 OH →
Cu
HCHO →
NaOH

Conceptual 300℃ (X) Cannizzaro reaction

S80. (4) HCOONa + CH3 OH

(Y)
Both hexane and 3-methylpentane S85. (3)
have molecular 𝐶6 𝐻14 , therefore, The correct option is C NaOH
are the examples of constitutional solution
isomers. Fe3+ and Al3+ both belong to group
S81. (4) III of inorganic analysis and both
Sulphonation are precipitated as their hydroxides
on adding group reagent, i.e.,
NH4OH in presence of NH4CI.
𝐹𝑒 3+ + 3𝑂𝐻 − → 𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)3
𝐴𝑙 3 + 3𝑂𝐻 − → 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3
only the precipitate of 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3 is
soluble in NaOH solution. Hence,
𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻)3 and 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3 are separated
by using NaOH solution.
S86. (2)
Ag 2 CrO4 ⇌ 2Ag 2+
1
1–S 2S
⇒ 𝐾𝑠𝑝 = (2𝑆) 𝑆 = 4 𝑆 3
2

Or, 4 𝑆 3 = 𝐾𝑠𝑝 = 4 × 10−12

⇒ 𝑆 3 = 10−12
⇒ 𝑆 = 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1

35
S87. (1)
C<O<F
Left to right electronegativity
increases
Down the group electronegativity
decreases
∴ Ca < Al < C < O < F
S88. (2)
𝑂2− = 17
= 𝜎1𝑠 2 , 𝜎 ∗ 1𝑠 2 , 𝜎2𝑠 2 , 𝜎 ∗ 2𝑠 2 , 𝜎2𝑝𝑧2 , 𝜋2𝜌𝑥2 B3 N3 H6 + 9H2 O → 3NH3 + 3H3 BO3 + 3H2
= 𝜋2𝜌𝑦2 , 𝜋2𝜌𝑥2 S94. (4)
= 𝜋 ∗ 2𝜌𝑦1 Only 𝐼 − among halides can be
oxidised to Iodine by oxygen in
Number of antibonding electron
acidic medium
pairs are 3.
4𝐼 − (𝑎𝑞) + 4𝐻 + (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑂2 (𝑔) →
S89. (1)
2𝐼2 (𝑠) + 2𝐻2 𝑂(𝑙)
NH2 COONH4 (s) ⇌ 2NH3 (𝑔) + CO2 (𝑔)
S95. (1)
2P P CH4 → x + 4 = 0 ⇒ x = −4
Total pressure CH3 Cl → x + 3 − 1 = 0 ⇒ x = −2
= 2P + P = 3P = 5 atm CH2 Cl2 → x + 2 − 2 = 0 ⇒ x = 0
5
⇒𝑃= atm CCl3 → x + 1 − 3 = 0 ⇒ x = +2
3
2
𝐾𝑝 = 𝑃𝐶𝑂2 × 𝑃𝑁𝐻 CCl4 → x − 4 = 0 ⇒ x = +4
3
2 S96. (3)
5 2×5
= atm × ( atm) = 18.51 For an ideal gas,
3 3
S90. (2) 𝑑𝑈 or 𝑑𝐸 = 0 when T is constant
𝑑𝑈 𝑑𝑈
Given 𝐾𝑤 = 10−12 ∴ (𝑑𝑉 ) i.e., at constant volume is
𝑇 𝑑𝑉
⇒ [𝐻 + ][𝑂𝐻 −1 ] = 10−12
0.
⇒ [𝐻 + ] = 10−6 [∵ Water is pure]
S97. (4)
𝑝𝐻 = − log10[𝐻 + ] = 6
S91. (1)

S98. (1)
If 𝐻𝑅 and 𝐻𝑃 are total enthalpies of
reactants and products
S92. (3) respectively, then for an
Gabriel synthesis can be used only endothermic reaction
for the preparation of primary 𝐻𝑅 < 𝐻𝑃
amines. Or, 𝐻𝑃 − 𝐻𝑅 < 0
S93. (3) ⇒ ∆𝐻 < 0
Borazine is B3N3H6

36
S99. (3) NCERT XI pg. no. 159.
Both ethanal and propanal will give S115. (4)
silver mirror test and red NCERT XI, pg. no. 177
precipitate with Fehling’s solution. S116. (1)
They can be differentiated by NCERT XII pg. no. 208
iodoform test. S117. (2)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 111.
S100. (2)
S118. (3)
NCERT XII, pg. no. 8.
S119. (4)
NCERT XII pg. no. 95
S120. (2)
Both are bent in shape. NCERT XII pg. no. 59.
Bond angle of SO2 (sp²) is greater S121. (1)
than that of H2O (sp³) due to NCERT XII pg. no. 20
higher repulsion of multiple S122. (1)
bonds. Anticodon are complementary
S101. (1) sequence of codon present on
NCERT XI, pg. no. 5. mRNA.
S102. (2) S123. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 137 NCERT XII pg. no. 69
S103. (2) S124. (2)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 20. NCERT XII pg. no. 98.
S104. (2) S125. (3)
Bryophytes have root like structure NCERT XII pg. no. 75
rhizoid while pteridophytes have S126. (3)
true roots. NCERT XII pg. no. 98
S105. (1) S127. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 33 Honey bees are diploid female and
S106. (2) haploid male insects. Their males
Old NCERT XI, pg. no. 68 produce sperm by mitosis.
S107. (4) S128. (2)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 88 NCERT XII, pg. no. 81
S108. (1) S129. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 100. NCERT XII, pg. no. 20
S109. (4) S130. (1)
NCERT XI pg. no. 122 NCERT XII, pg. no. 153
S110. (4) S131. (3)
Crossing over occurs between non- NCERT XII, pg. no. 153.
sister chromatids of homologous S132. (4)
chromosomes. NCERT XII, pg. no. 191.
S111. (3) S133. (1)
Heterotrophic organisms are NCERT XII, pg. no. 191.
dependent on other organisms for S134. (3)
their nutrition and are unable to NCERT XII, pg. no. 220
form own food. S135. (3)
S112. (2) NCERT XII, pg. no. 219
NCERT XI pg. no. 137. S136. (4)
S113. (1) NCERT XI, pg. no. 16
NCERT XI, pg. no. 157 S137. (3)
S114. (2) NCERT XI, pg. no. 31

37
S138. (3) Refer to Class XII NCERT
NCERT XI, pg. no. 64 EVOLUTION MIXED Chapter
S139. (1) S158. (4)
Old NCERT XI, pg. no. 86. Refer to Class XI NCERT Animal
S140. (2) kingdom
NCERT XI, pg. no. 90. S159. (4)
S141. (2) Refer to Class XI old NCERT
NCERT XI, pg. no. 126. Structural organization in animals
S142. (3) S160. (3)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 110, 111. Refer to Class XI old NCERT Page
S143. (3) NO-190
NCERT XI, pg. no. 136 S161. (1)
S144. (1) Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
NCERT XI pg. no. 160. 107
S145. (2) S162. (1)
NCERT XI, pg. no. 179 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S146. (3) 201
NCERT XII pg. no. 18 S163. (2)
S147. (2) Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
NCERT XII pg. no. 92 224,225,226
S148. (4) S164. (3)
In the cross of two heterozygous Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
pink flowered flowers, the 236
probability of forming recessive S165. (4)
characters is 25%. So, probability Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
of forming white flowers would be 186 and 187
25%. S166. (3)
S149. (1) Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
NCERT XII, pg. no. 206 199
S150. (4) S167. (4)
NCERT XII, pg. no. 191 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S151. (4) 200
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S168. (2)
84 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S152. (2) 206
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S169. (2)
233 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S153. (3) 209
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S170. (4)
NO-101 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S154. (2) 211
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S171. (3)
NO-44 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S155. (1) 218
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S172. (1)
107&115 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S156. (1) 198 &200
Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO- S173. (3)
41 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S157. (4) NO-116
S174. (3)

38
 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S188. (4)
NO-1166, 167 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S175. (3) 126
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S189. (2)
NO-169 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S176. (1) NO-32
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S190. (1)
NO-25 & 26 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S177. (2) NO-38
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S191. (2)
NO-209,212,213 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S178. (2) 247
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S192. (1)
NO-181 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S179. (2) 247
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S193. (2)
NO-137 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S180. (3) 245,246
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S194. (4)
NO-136 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S181. (1) 236
Refer to Class XII NCERT Human S195. (2)
health and disease Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S182. (4) 221
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S196. (1)
NO-134 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S183. (2) 27
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S197. (2)
NO- 47 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S184. (2) 185
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S198. (1)
NO-44, 45 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S185. (2) NO-83
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S199. (2)
NO-132 Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
S186. (3) NO-188
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page S200. (3)
NO-48 Refer to Class XI NCERT Page NO-
S187. (3) 111
Refer to Class XII NCERT Page
NO-31

39