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THPT Quốc Gia 2024 English Mock Exam

The document provides a sample test for the 2024 Vietnamese national high school graduation exam in English. It contains 10 parts with 43 multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and sentence structure.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
58 views16 pages

THPT Quốc Gia 2024 English Mock Exam

The document provides a sample test for the 2024 Vietnamese national high school graduation exam in English. It contains 10 parts with 43 multiple choice questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension and sentence structure.

Uploaded by

qry5556
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Homework

[Đề số 10] Đề thi thử tiếng Anh THPT Quốc gia 2024
- Tuyển tập 10 đề Dự án Giáo viên Tiếng Anh
Họ tên: nhập tên
DỰ ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPTQG NĂM 2024 – MÔN
TIẾNG ANH
Tuyển tập 10 đề thi thử Tốt nghiệp THPT 2024 môn Tiếng Anh
Đề thi do đội ngũ hơn 100 thầy cô khắp cả nước biên soạn và chia sẻ miễn
phí
Đề thi bám sát ma trận đề minh họa 2024 do Bộ GD&ĐT công bố
Nguồn: Dự án Giáo viên Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ SỐ 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. stage
B. sand
C. grade
D. cave
Question 2.
A. song
B. sugar
C. soft
D. stuff

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. industry
B. confidence
C. quality
D. computer
Question 4.
A. balloon
B. balance
C. action
D. pressure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The sudden change in weather threw ______ their plans for a
picnic in the park.
A. a wrench in
B. caution to the wind
C. them off the scent
D. in the towel
Question 6. Their project was _______ over a two-month period, but
failed due to poor planning.
A. given up
B. carried out
C. looked after
D. turned off
Question 7. I ______ myself occupied by watching television and
gardening every afternoon.
A. put
B. make
C. gave
D. keep
Question 8. Who will be in charge of the department _______?
A. by the time Sophie was leaving
B. when Sophie leaves
C. as soon as Sophie had left
D. after Sophie left
Question 9. Some tourists _______ a skiing lesson on the nursery slope
when it snowed.
A. are having
B. have
C. were having
D. have had
Question 10. His son became addicted to social media last year, ______?
A. does he
B. didn’t he
C. doesn’t he
D. did he
Question 11. They are acquainted _______ sharing the household duties
among members of their family.
A. at
B. of
C. with
D. in
Question 12. Jimmy enjoys studying in the garden because it is ______
place in his house.
A. more relaxing
B. the more relaxing
C. the most relaxing
D. as relaxing
Question 13. A laboratory technician forbade us _______into the lab
without permission.
A. going
B. go
C. to going
D. to go
Question 14. The valuable painting ______ from the museum by a
mysterious thief two days ago.
A. has stolen
B. was stealing
C. was stolen
D. steals
Question 15. My brother lives next door to _______ Jacksons.
A. ∅ (no article)
B. an
C. the
D. a
Question 16. Thousands of _______ from all over the world will take part
in the contest.
A. compete
B. competitive
C. competitors
D. competitively
Question 17. The marauding invaders ______ every village they
encountered along their predetermined route of conquest.
A. bounced
B. terminated
C. sacked
D. dismissed
Question 18. ______ for a big company, I don’t have any chance to work
with foreigners.
A. Not to work
B. Not work
C. Not worked
D. Not working
Question 19. To everyone’s surprise, he _______ the defending champion.
A. defeated
B. damaged
C. destroyed
D. devastated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Peter is talking to Mary about her daughter.
- Peter: “How beautiful your daughter is!”
- Mary: “_______”
A. Yes, I share your opinion.
B. Don’t say anything about it.
C. Thank you for your compliment.
D. Sorry, I have no idea.
Question 21. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one
roof.
- Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living
under one roof. They can help one another.”
- Janet: “______. Many old-aged parents like to lead an independent life in
a nursing home.”
A. Me, too.
B. That’s not true
C. I agree with you completely
D. It’s nice to hear that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. We need to qualify the president's remark by considering the
diverse perspectives and potential biases involved.
A. expose
B. discover
C. recognize
D. validate
Question 23. The CEO had to justify the company's decision to invest in
new technology during the shareholders' meeting.
A. ignore
B. oppose
C. dismiss
D. clarify

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Despite facing setbacks, her optimistic outlook kept her
motivated to pursue her dreams.
A. pessimistic
B. upbeat
C. hopeful
D. positive
Question 25. Due to unexpected work commitments, I had to take a rain
check on the dinner date with my friends.
A. postpone
B. prepare
C. change
D. accept

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. Anna said, "I will never forget this moment".
A. Anna told she would never forget this moment.
B. Anna said she will never forget this moment.
C. Anna said she would never forget this moment.
D. Anna said she would never forget that moment.
Question 27. I am sure Helen’s taking Dobber to the vet because her car is
not here.
A. Helen can’t be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
B. Helen may be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
C. Helen needn’t be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
D. Helen must be taking Dobber to the vet because her car is not here.
Question 28. The last time she took her children to the zoo was two
months ago.
A. She hasn’t taken her children to the zoo for two months.
B. She didn’t take her children to the zoo two months ago.
C. She has taken her children to the zoo for two months.
D. She had two months to take her children to the zoo.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. Seniors are especially appreciable of thoughtful gifts that
make them feel appreciated, and improve their quality of life.
A. quality
B. appreciable
C. thoughtful
D. appreciated
Question 30. Le Van Duoc, a 9th grader in Nghe An, has been
praised for their courageous action in saving five children
from drowning.
A. drowning
B. has been praised
C. grader
D. their
Question 31. Samantha has difficulty doing her Maths homework yester
day.
A. doing
B. homework
C. has
D. Maths

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate


the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. His parents supported and encouraged him. He did really
well in the competition.
A. Such were his parents’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do
really well in the competition.
B. If his parents had given him support and encouragement, he could have
done really well in the competition.
C. No matter how much his parents supported and encouraged him, he
couldn’t do well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his parents’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t
have done so well in the competition.
Question 33. Laura was badly injured in the accident. She didn’t take part
in the marathon.
A. Laura would have taken part in the marathon if she hadn’t been badly
injured in the accident.
B. If Laura had taken part in the marathon, she wouldn’t have been badly
injured in the accident.
C. If Laura hadn’t been badly injured in the accident, she might not have
been taken part in the marathon
D. Laura could take part in the marathon if she weren’t badly injured in the
accident.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D


on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
CAN WE CHANGE THE CLIMATE?
It may seem hard to believe that people can actually change the Earth’s
climate. But scientists think that the things people do that send greenhouse
gases into the air are making our planet warmer. Once, all climate changes
occurred naturally. ___(34)___, during the Industrial Revolution, we
began altering our climate and environment through agricultural and
industrial practices. The Industrial Revolution was a
time ___(35)___ people began using machines to make life easier. It
started more than 200 years ago and ___(36)___ the way humans live.
Before the Industrial Revolution, human activity released very few gases
into the atmosphere, but now through population growth, fossil fuel
burning, and deforestation, we are affecting the mixture of gases in the
atmosphere. Since the industrial revolution, the need for energy to
run ___(37)___ has steadily increased. some energy, like the energy you
need to do your homework, comes from the food you eat. But other
energy, like the energy that makes cars run and ___(38)___ of the energy
used to light and heat our homes, comes from fuels like coal and oil –
fossil fuels. Burning these fuels releases greenhouse gases.
(Adapted from: https://www.monografias.com/trabajos64/global-
warming/global-warming2)
Question 34.
A. Otherwise
B. Although
C. However
D. Therefore
Question 35.
A. whom
B. which
C. when
D. that
Question 36.
A. transformed
B. turned
C. converted
D. changed
Question 37.
A. machines
B. devices
C. appliances
D. tools
Question 38.
A. few
B. many
C. much
D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D


on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 39 to 43
Experts say that if you feel tired during the day, even during boring
activities, you don’t sleep enough. If you often fall asleep within five
minutes of lying down, you may suffer a state of lacking sleep.
“Microsleeps,” periods of sleep that last from a few to several seconds, are
another mark of not getting enough sleep. Moreover, the common practice
of “burning the candle at both ends” - working hard until late at night - in
western countries has created so much sleep deprivation.
Many studies have shown that not sleeping enough is dangerous. When
sleep-deprived people – those who don’t have enough sleep - are
tested, they perform as badly as or worse than those who are drunk. Lack
of sleep also increases alcohol’s effects on the body. Therefore, if people
without enough sleep drink, they will become much more impaired than
someone who is well-rested. Driving when extremely tired is the cause of
about 100,000 motor vehicle accidents and 1,500 deaths each year, and
driving while tired can lead to disaster. Caffeine and other stimulants
cannot overcome the effects of severe sleep deprivation. Health experts
say that if you have trouble keeping your eyes focused, if you can’t stop
yawning, you may be too tired to drive safely.
(Adapted from “501 Reading Critical Reading Questions- Learning
Express, First Edition)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. discussing the effects of alcohol on a sleep-deprived person
B. offering measures for people with sleep deprivation
C. alerting readers to the signs and risks of not getting enough sleep
D. explaining why sleeplessness has become common in Western cultures
Question 40. Which of the following is the symptom that sleep-deprived
people have according to paragraph 1?
A. working hard until late at night
B. having microsleeps when working
C. feeling sleepy after reading books
D. having sleep loss recently
Question 41. In paragraph 2, the word “they” refers to ______.
A. many studies
B. sleep-deprived people
C. western countries
D. alcohol’s effects
Question 42. The word “impaired” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
______.
A. weakened
B. excited
C. interested
D. improved
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT true according to the
passage?
A. When feeling tired, people have trouble concentrating and can’t stop
yawning.
B. About 100,000 motor vehicle accidents are caused by drunk drivers
annually.
C. Alcohol has stronger impacts on people who are sleep-deprived.
D. Caffeine is believed to be useless to get over the serious lack of sleep.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 44 to 50.
Willis Carrier designed the first air-conditioning unit in 1902, just a year
after graduating from Cornell University. At a Brooklyn printing plant,
fluctuations in heat and moisture were causing the size of the printing
paper to keep changing slightly, making it hard to align different colors.
Carrier’s invention made it possible to control temperature and humidity
levels and so align the colors. The invention also allowed industries such
as film, processed food, textiles and pharmaceuticals to improve the
quality of their products.
In 1914, the first air-conditioning device was installed in a private house.
However, its size, similar to that of an early computer, meant it took up too
much space to come into widespread use, and later models, such as the
Weather maker, which Carrier brought out in the 1920s, cost too much for
most people. Cooling for human comfort, rather than industrial need,
really took off when three air conditioners were installed in a department
store in Detroit, Michigan. People crowded into the shop to experience the
new invention. The fashion spread from department stores to cinemas.
To start with, money-conscious employers regarded air conditioning as a
luxury. They considered that if they were paying people to work, they
should not be paying for them to be comfortable as well. So in the 1940s
and ‘50s, the industry started putting out a different message about its
product: according to their research, installing air conditioning increased
productivity amongst employees. They found that typists increased their
output by 24% when transferred from a regular office to a cooled one.
Another study into office working conditions, which was carried out in the
late 1950s, showed that the majority of companies cited air conditioning as
the single most important contributor to efficiency in offices.
However, air conditioning has its critics. Jed Brown, an environmentalist,
complains that air conditioning is a factor in global warming.
Unfortunately, he adds, because air conditioning leads to higher
temperatures, people have to use it even more. However, he admits that it
provides a healthier environment for many people in the heat of summer.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS band 4-5)
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Air Conditioning – A Luxury.
B. Willis Carrier – A Great Inventor.
C. The Critics of Air Conditioning.
D. The History of An Invention.
Question 45. When Willis Carrier invented air conditioning, his objective
was to _______.
A. set up a new business
B. solve problems in a factory
C. produce more attractive paper
D. make workers feel cooler
Question 46. The word plant in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
_______.
A. flora
B. interviews
C. tree
D. factory
Question 47. The word took off in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
_______.
A. copied
B. became popular
C. left
D. removed
Question 48. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. companies
B. stores
C. offices
D. employers
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the
passage?
A. Jed Brown is in favour of the use of air conditioners to protect the
environment.
B. Jed Brown says that air conditioning is good for people, but bad for the
environment.
C. Home air conditioners were not popular at first because they were too
big and expensive.
D. The research done in the 1940s and ‘50s was to persuade businesses to
buy air conditioners.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Employers refused to put air conditioning in workplaces at first because
they did not want to spend money improving working conditions.
B. The first air-conditioning unit was designed by an environmentalist
with a view to reducing global warming.
C. It was found that the productivity rose 50% for typists who worked in
an air-conditioned office.
D. The first air-conditioning device was installed in a private house in the
1940s and soon became a popular device.

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