Cts - Paper - 1 - Question and Answer
Cts - Paper - 1 - Question and Answer
24) Page: 1
INSTRUCTION
A. General Instructions
➢ Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
➢ This question paper contains Three Parts.
➢ Part– A is “Physics”, Part – B is “Chemistry” and Part– C is “Mathematics”.
➢ Each Part is further divided into two section : Section – I & Section – III.
➢ Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
➢ Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your CHAMP ID and write in
ink your Name and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme.
(i) SECTION-I (01 – 10) contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions which have Only One Correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 marks for wrong answer.
SECTION–I (11 – 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
SECTION–III contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9
and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Champ ID
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 2
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 3
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – I (Total Marks : 30)
(Single Correct Answers Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. An alpha particle collides elastically with a stationary nucleus and continues to move at an angle of 60 o with
respect to its original direction of motion. The nucleus recoils at an angle of 30 o with respect to this direction.
Mass number of the nucleus is:-
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
1.Ans. B
3
Sol. 4u = 2v1 + v 2m
2
3 mv 2 u 3
4 v = & v2 =
2 1 2 2
2. The specific heat of alcohol is about half that of water. Suppose you have identical masses of alcohol and
water. The alcohol is initially at temperature TA. The water is initially at a different temperature T W. Now the
two fluids are mixed in the same container and allowed to come into thermal equilibrium, with no loss of heat
to the surroundings. The final temperature of the mixture will be:-
(A) Closer to TA than TW (B) Closer to TW than TA
(C) Exactly halfway between TA and TW (D) Dependent on the volume of alcohol used
2.Ans. B
Sol. SW > SA so Teq will be closer to TW.
3. As part of an experiment to determine the latent heat of vaporization of
Beaker
water, a student boils some water in a beaker using an electric heater as Heater
shown below.
The student notes two sources of error,
Water
Error-1 : thermal energy is lost from the sides of the beaker
Error-2 : as the water is boiling, water splashes out of the beaker.
Which of the following gives the correct effect of these two errors on the Weighing Machine
calculated value for the specific latent heat?
Error-1 Error-2
(A) Increase Decrease
(B) Increase Increase
(C) Decrease Increase
(D) Decrease Decrease
3.Ans. A
Sol. (i) Some energy is lost through sides of beakers
(ii) Water splashes, so mass of water becomes less
4. One mole of oxygen is contained in a rigid container with walls of inner surface area A, thickness d and
thermal conductivity K. The gas is at initial temperature T 0 and the surrounding temperature of air is 2T0. The
temperature of the gas at time t is (R is gas constant) :-
−2KA
t 2KA
t
−2KA
t 2
KA
t
(A) T = T0 2 − e 5dR (B) T = T0 2 − e 5dR (C) T = T0 e 5dR (D) T = T0 e dR
5
4.Ans. A
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 4
dT KA ( 2T0 − T )
Sol. nCv =
dt d
5R
since oxygen is diatomic so CV is .
2
5. 4 2
Find out work done by electric field in shifting a point charge C from
27 S
point P to S which are shown in the figure:
P
100 200 2 cm
450 1 cm
J
0
(A) (B) 45
3 3 P = 2 10 −6
C−m
6. A pendulum has time period T in air. When it is made to oscillate in water, it acquired a time period
T = 2T. The specific gravity of the pendulum bob is equal to
Sol. T = 2
geff
7. In the following figure a wire of cross sectional radius r is fixed lightly at P and 2L
P Q
Q. The Young modulus of the material of the wire is Y and a << L. If it is pulled O
into the form PRQ, the tension generated in the wire is:-
Ya2 Ya2r 2
(A) 2
(B) T a T
2L L2
Ya2r 2 r 2 Ya2
(C) (D)
2L 2
L2 R
7.Ans. C
T / r 2
=Y
( )
Sol.
2 L2 + a2 − L / 2L
8. In the fusion reaction 12 H +12 H →32 He +10 n, the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in amu are
2.015, 3.017 and 1.009 respectively. If 1 kg of deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount of total
energy released (Take: 1 amu = 931.5 Me/V/c2)
(A) 6.02 1013 J (B) 5.6 1013 J (C) 9.0 1013 J (D) 0.9 1013 J
8.Ans. C
Sol. E = mc2
= mamu 931.5 MeV
236
9. The compound unstable nucleus 92 U often decays in accordance with the following reaction
236
92 U →140
54 Xe + 38 Sr + other particles. In the nuclear reaction presented above, the other particles might be
94
(A) an alpha particle, which consists of two protons and two neutrons
(B) two protons
(C) one proton and one neutron
(D) two neutrons
9.Ans. D
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 5
Sol. 236
92 U →140
54 Xe + 38 Sr + 2n
94
10. A point object is placed at a distance of 1000 mm from a concave mirror of focal length 400 mm. If the object
is moved towards the mirror by 200 mm, the image moves by a distance of
(A) 133.3 mm towards mirror (B) 133.3 mm away from the mirror
(C) 30 mm towards mirror (D) 30 mm away from the mirror
10.Ans. B
1 1 1
Sol. + =
v1 −1000 −400
1 1 1
+ =
v 2 −800 −400
11. Two thin conducting shells of radii R and 2R are shown in figure. The outer shell carries a
charge +Q and inner shell is neutral. Choose the CORRECT option(s):-
(A) With switch S open potential of inner sphere is same as that of point at distance S
3R
from centre
2
(B) When switch S is closed, potential of inner sphere becomes zero
Q
(C) With switch S closed charge on inner sphere is −
2
(D) With switch S closed charge on inner sphere is (-Q)
11.Ans. A, B, C
Sol. If S open, V → same w/i outer sphere
If S closed, Vnner spl. = 0
kQ kq Q
+ =0q=−
2R R 2
12. The radius of the-circular loop is ‘a’. Magnetic field is increasing at the constant rate x x x x x
S
. Magnetic field is confined to a cylindrical region and axis of magnetic field
coincides with axis of the loop. Resistance per unit length of the wire of loop is .
x x x x x
P x R
Choose the CORRECT option(s) :-
a
(A) Current in the loop PQRS is anticlockwise x x x x x
2 Q
a
(B) Current in the loop PQRS in clockwise
(C) Current in the wire PR is zero
a
(D) Current in the wire PR is
2
12.Ans. A, C
dB
Sol. Induced emf = A
dt
or e = a2
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 6
e
IPQRS =
( 2a )
IPR = 0
13. In a YDSE arrangement, white light is used to illuminate the slits. At point on the screen directly front of the
slits, which of these wavelengths is/are missing?
( = wavelength of light used, d = distance between the slits, D = separation between the slits and the screen,
d << D) :-
d2 d2 d2 d2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D 3D 4D 8D
13.Ans. A, B
Sol. Wave-length missing, so condition of destructive interference
yd d2 ( 2n − 1)
A d
= = d 2
D 2D 2
d2
=
D ( 2n − 1)
D
V = 20, m = -1
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 7
1. A train travelling at 72 kmh-1 is checked by track repairs. It retards uniformly for 200 m, covering the nest
400 m at constant speed and accelerates uniformly to 72 kmh -1 in a further 600m. If the time at the constant
lower speed is equal to the sum of the times taken in retarding and accelerating, find the total time, in minutes,
taken.
1.Ans. 2
2. Two charge particles of opposite sign and magnitude Q each are projected directly away from each other with
1/ 2
3Q2
the same speed
32 mr
where r is the initial distance between the particles. Their masses are m and
0
2m. Find the maximum distance between them. Express answer in terms of nr and fill n in OMR sheet.
2.Ans. 2
Sol. 2mv + mv = mu m 2m
+Q -Q
1 Q2 u r u
(m + 2m) u2 − m 2m
2 4 0 r
+Q -Q v
v
1 Q2
= ( m + 2m ) v 2 − x
2 4 0 x
1/ 2
3Q2
Given u = x = 2r
32 mr
0
3. Two vibrating strings of the same material but length L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are
stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L
with frequency 1 and the other with frequency 2. Then find the ratio of 1/2.
3.Ans. 1
4. The angle of a prism is 30o. The rays incident at 60o on one refracting face suffer a deviation of 30o. Then the
angle of emergence is 3Ko. Find the value of K.
4.Ans. 0
Sol. e = (A + ) – i = (30 + 30) – 60 = 0
5. A particle is projected with velocity 2 gh so that it just clears two walls of equal height h which are at a
h
distance 2h from each other. The time of passing between the walls is * , where * is not readable. Find *.
g
5.Ans. 2
Space for Rough Work
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 8
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
1. Aqueous saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt M 2X (MW = 100) is observed to be 100 ppm then solubility
product of salt will be
(A) 4 10-9 (B) 4 10-12 (C) 4 10-18 (D) None
1.Ans. A
2. An aqueous solution containing KIO3 was treated with an excess of KI solution. The solution is acidified with
HCl. The liberated iodine consumed 10 ml of 0.1 M thiosulphate solution to decolourise the starch iodine
complex. Then millimoles of KIO3 consumed
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/6 (D) 1/3
2.Ans. C
3.Ans. B
4. Arrange the following complex in increasing order of vibrational frequency of C-O bond
(I) [(PPh3)3Mo(CO)3] (B) [(Ph2PCl)3Mo(CO)3]
(C) [(PhPCl2)3Mo(CO)3] (D) [(PCl3)3Mo(CO3)]
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I = IV > III > II (C) VI = I > II > III (D) I < II < III < IV
4.Ans. D
5.Ans. A
7. Which of the following acid radical gives ppt. with AgNO 3 only under boiling condition and gives no ppt. under
hot condition respectively
(A) HCO3 − and CO32− (B) S2O32− and SO32−
7.Ans. C
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 9
3
4 CH
CH 3
3
10. +
H C HC CH CH OCH
5 2 1 3
2
During rearrangement
(A) H1 undergoes 1, 2 shift (B) H2 undergoes 1, 2 shift
2
(C) CH3 undergoes 1, 2 shift (D) None
10.Ans. A
11. If electron of hydrogen atom is replaced by another particle of same charge but of double mass then
(A) Radii of orbits will increase (B) Ionisation energy will increases
(C) Velocity of new particle will be more (D) Energy gap between two levels will be doubled
11.Ans. B, D
12. For electrolysis of aq. Na2SO4 using Hg cathode & Pt anode. Select correct statement
(A) Na+ will be reduced at anode
(B) H2O will be reduced at cathode
(C) SO42- will be oxidised at higher concentration of Na 2SO4
(D) H2O will be oxidised at lower concentration of Na2SO4
12.Ans. C, D
13. Lead nitrate solution can be used to detect which of the following acid radicals
(A) S2O32- (B) SO32- (C) SO42- (D) S-2
13.Ans. A,B,C,D
NH CH C NH CH C O
3
R O R O
1 2
F
NH CH COOH
CH
3
O N NO followed by H3 O . R1 & R2 can be respectively.
2 2
(A) –CH3, -CH3 (B) –CH3, -H (C) –H, -CH3 (D) –H, -H
14.Ans. B
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 10
O
O C OEt
NaBH4
15. H3C C HC Product. the product will be:
C H H2O
NO 2 O
OH OH
NO 2
(A) (B)
CH2OH CH2OH
HC HC
NH2 CH2OH CH2OH
OH O
NO 2 NH2
O
(C) (D)
OEt CH2OH
HC HC
CH2OH CHO
15.Ans. C
1. The energy of activation for a reaction is 10 kJ/mol. The presence of catalyst lowers the energy activation by
75%. Find the factor by which rate of reaction increases at 27oC due to catalyst. (Take R = 25/3 J/mol-k)
If your answer is ex then fill x in OMR sheet
1.Ans. 3
2. Calculate partial pressure of HCl (g) in bar at TK above the sample of NH4Cl(s) as result of it decomposition.
3. Sum of total number of lone pair of electrons on central atom in XeO3, XeO2, XeF2, XeOF4, XeO2F2
3.Ans. 8
4. The ratio between the total number of stereoisomer and the pair of enantiomer in [M(AA)b 2c2]n
4.Ans. 4
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 11
5. Among the following, the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is :
H C CH
3 N 3 COOH OCH CH
2 3
CH OH
2
(a) (b) (c)
OH NO CH CH
2 2 3
CH CH
2 3
(d) (e) (f)
NH
2
COOH CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
(C) HO NO (D) O N OH
2 2
NO
2
5.Ans. 7
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 12
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
1. A curve y = f(x) passing through (1, 1) given by the solution of the differential equation
dy x
x2ey . = − 2xe y + tan−1 x, is
dx 1 + x 2
4x tan−1 x + 4e −
(A) y = log (B) y = log(2x − 1) + (x − 1) tan−1 x + 1
4x 2
x tan−1 ( x − 1) + 4e 4x tan−1 x + e − 1
(C) y = log (D) y = log
4x3 x
1.Ans. A
dy x
Sol. x2ey . = − 2xe y + tan−1 x
dx 1 + x 2
x
x 2 e y .dy + 2xey dx = + tan−1 x dx
1+ x 2
( ) (
d x 2 e y = d x.tan−1 x ) x2ey = xtan-1x + C
at (1,1),e = +CC = e−
4 4
x 2 e y = x tan−1 x + e −
4
−1
4x tan x + 4e −
ey =
4x 2
4x tan−1 x + 4e −
y = log
4x 2
=
(
13.sin2 4.cos2 4 + 6 sin4 4 + cos4 4 ) =1
6(sin + cos 4) + 13.sin 4.cos 4
4 4 4 4
−18 − x 2 + 6 | x |
3. The maximum value of the function f(x) = ,x R is
| x | +1
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 13
1 + ia
4. Value of ‘a’ for which there exists exactly one complex number ‘z’ satisfying |z - 4| = 2 and z = z is
1 − ia
1 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) − (D) −
3 2 3 2
4.Ans. A
Sol. Writing the curves in terms of x & y
y = ax & (x - 4)2 + y2 = 4
1
for tangency | 2a |= 1 + a2 a =
3
5. A tangent is drawn at a point P on the parabola y 2 = 4x to intersect x-axis at Q. From Q a line is drawn
perpendicular to PQ to intersect y-axis at R and rectangle PQRS is completed, the equation of locus of point S
is
(A) x(4 - x)2 + 8y2 = 0 (B) x(4 - x)2 – 8y2 = 0 (C) x(4 + x)2 + 8y2 = 0 (D) x2(4 - x) – 8y2 = 0
5.Ans. B
Sol. Let P be (t2, 2t)
PQ : ty = x + t2
Q : (-t2, 0)
RQ : y = -tx – t3 R = (0, -t3)
Let S be (h, k)
h + ( −t 2 ) t 2 + 0 k + 0 2t − t 3
= & =
2 2 2 2
Eliminating t, we get
x(4 - x)2 – 8y2 = 0
6. If z, z1 and z2 are complex numbers such that z = z1.z2 and | z2 − z1 | 1, then maximum value of |z| - Re(z) is
1 1
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 4
6.Ans. C
Sol. | z2 − z1 |2 =| z2 |2 + | z1 |2 −2Re(z1z 2 )
| z2 − z1 |2 (| z2 | − | z1 |)2 1 (| z 2 | − | z1 |)2
| z | − Re(z) = −
2 2 2 2
1
| z | − Re(z)
2
n
7. If (4x 2 + 1)n = a (1 + x
r =0
r
2 n −r
) x 2r , then the value of ar is
7.Ans. B
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 14
n r
3x 2
n
x2
Sol. Given expression can be written as 1 +
1 + x 2
=
r =0
ar
1 + x 2
ar = n Cr 3r
1 25 81 45 9 5
9. If x, y, z R+ satisfy xyz 2 2 + 2 2 + 2 2 = + + , then x, y & z are in
y z x y x y z
x z
a2 a 4 a6
10. Let f(x) = a6x6 + a5x5 + a4x4 +…..+a0 be a real polynomial such that a0 R+ and a0 + + + 0. The
3 5 7
equation f(x) = 0
(A) has a real root in (-1, 1) (B) has no real roots in (-1, 1)
(C) has no real roots. (D) has all the roots equal.
10.Ans. A
1
a6 a7 a2
Sol. f(x)dx = 2 7 + 5 + 3 + a
−1
0
0 There exists x (-1, 1) with f(x) < 0
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12. Which of the following statement(s) is true about two square matrices A & B of same order
(A) AB is symmetric (AB)2 is symmetric
(B) AB is symmetric BA - AB is symmetric
(C) Trace (BA + AB) = 0
(D) AB and AB both are symmetric (B - B)A = A(B - B)
12.Ans. A, B, D
Sol. (AB) = BA AB = BA BA - AB = 0
(AB) = AB BA = AB & (AB) = AB BA = AB
Subtracting (B - B)A = A(B - B)A = A(B - B)
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about continuous functions y = f(x) & y = g(x)
f(x)
(A) h(x) = max f(x) − 2g(x), is continuous.
| f(x) − g(x) | +1
(B) If f(x) & g(x) are real polynomials of degree 5 and 7 respectively, then the equation f(x).g(x) has atmost 10
imaginary roots.
(C) lim f(x) = 0 lim f(x).g(x) = 0
x →0 x →0
13.Ans. A, B, C, D
Sol. (A) max(f(x),g(x)) is always continuous if f(x) & g(x) are continuous
(B) f(x) & g(x) has atleast one real root
(C) lim f(x).g(x) = 0
x →0
g(x) is continuous at x = 0
(D) true
f(x) & g(x) are is continuous at x = 0.
14. If [x2] + x = a has solution(s), a N, then ‘a’ may be (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 24
14.Ans. A, B, C
Sol. x = a – [x2]
x = a – x2 a = x(x + 1)
a can be 2, 12 & 20
n
15. A kid want to put 5 different chocolates into his three different pockets. Let (in lowest terms) n, m N,
m
denotes the probability of placing chocolates in such a manner that none of his pockets are empty. Which of
the following option(s) is/are correct?
(A) m is square of natural number (B) n is square of natural number
(C) m – n = 31 (D) m – n = 33
15.Ans. A, C
Sol. Either two pockets each have two chocolates & other pocket has 1 or two pockets each have one chocolate &
other pocket has 3
Number of ways
= 3 C2 5 C2 3 C2 1 3 C2 5 C1 4 C1 = 150
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 16
n 150 50
= 5 =
m 3 81
1. If area of the region given by inequalities 0 y 4 − x 2 and x y + x 2 is ‘A’ square units, then [A] is,
-2 2
f(x)
2. A function f : [0, ) → R satisfies f(x) = xe-f(x). The value of lim is
x → log x
2.Ans. 1
Sol. As x → , f(x) →
log f(x) log x
+1=
f(x) f(x)
log x
0 + 1 = lim
x → f(x)
− +
− 5
3. If
0
| sin x | dx = 8 and | cos x | dx = 9, 0, then the value of
0
is
3.Ans. 3
+
9
Sol. | cos x |dx = 9 + =
0
2
−
| sin x |dx = 8 − = 4
0
17
= & =
4 4
− 5
=3
4. A parallelogram ABCD with area 255 sq. units is such that the sides AB & AD are along the line y = x &
y = mx respectively, m N – {1}. If the vertices B & D has both x & y coordinate integer & n denotes number
n
of such parallelograms, then is
9
4.Ans. 3
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CTS – Advanced-Paper–1 (17.05.24) Page: 17
5. Eight points are taken on a circle C 1 : x2 + y2 = 1, z = 2 to form a regular octagon. The circle along with the
octagon is reflected on xy-plane to form a circle C2 : x2 + y2 = 1, z = -2. If the number of ways in which 3
N
non-coplanar vectors can be chosen out of the position vectors of these 16 points is N, then is
64
5.Ans. 7
16 14
Sol. First vector can be chosen in C1 ways, second in C1 ways (leaving vector along its line of action) third in
12
C1 ways.
16 14 12
N = = 16 4 7
3!
N
=7
64
Space for Rough Work
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