1.

A dentin that is formed by newly differentiated odontoblast-like cells due to

the destruction of original odontoblasts.
a. Tertiary dentin
b. Reactionary dentin
c. Reparative dentin
d. Remodeling dentin

2. The following are true about calcification:

a. The cause is enigmatic.
b. A disposition of calcium salt in the degenerated cells.
c. Both A and B are true.
d. None of the above

3. Mechanical exposure of a healthy pulp created during cavity preparation

could be disinfected
with, except:
a. 2% chlorhexidine
b. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
c. Bleach
d. None of the above

4. Dentin hypersensitivity may be related to:

a. Excessive abrasion during tooth brushing
b. Periodontal disease
c. Erosion from dietary or gastric acids
d. Increase following sealing and not planning
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

5. All are symptoms of pulp necrosis, except:

a. Due to long term interruption of blood supply to pulp
b. Pulp is responsive to pulp testing
c. Crown discoloration associated on anterior teeth
d. Usually asymptomatic

6. What is the treatment of choice for the management of pulpal necrosis with
apical pathosis if there is no swelling that exists?
a. Drainage
b. Systemic antibiotic
c. Extraction
d. Complete Canal Debridement

7. The most popular method of performing cold testing is with?

a. Water and air supply
b. CO2
c. Cold compress
d. Refrigerant spray

8. Reactionary dentin is made from odontoblast-like cells while the reparative

dentin is made from original odontoblast.
a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are false.
d. Both statements are true.

9. Represented as a special chronic, short, sharp pulpal pain arises from the
exposed dentin in response to different stimuli.
a. Dentinal sclerosis
b. Dentin hypersensitivity
c. Reversible pulpitis
d. Pulp necrosis

10. Painassociatedwithaninflamedordegeneratingpulpmaybe:
a. Provoked
b. Spontaneous
c. Either provoked or spontaneous
d. None of the above

11. When doing an access preparation, why do we need to conserve the tooth
structure a. minimal of animal weakening of teeth
b. prevention of accidents
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA

12. An instrument used to remove a vital pulp

a. Gates Glidden
b. files
c. barbed broaches
d. reamers

13. The clinician should evaluate a patient's response to the health questionnaire
from the perspective, except?
a. Medical condition and current conditions
b. medical condition that may have oral manifestation
c. mimic dental pathosis
d. NOTA

14. The perceptions of pain in one part of the body that is distant from the source of
pain a. Pulpal pain
b. referred pain
c. normal tooth
d. NOTA

15. A crack type that merely cracks in the enamel and do not extend into the dentin
and either occur naturally or develop a
a.) craze lines
b.) fractures
c. split roots
d. NOTA

16. This type of irrigating solutions it removes inorganic material and also the smear
layer
a. chlorhexidine
b. calcium hydroxide
c. EDTA
d. Sodium hypochlorite

17. In cleaning and shaping root canal the best indication of clean walls is
a. aesthetics
b. level of smoothness
c. well defined shape
d. tapered walls

18. Nickel titanium instruments has these commendable properties except:

a. easily fractures
b. super elasticity
c. reduced transportation
d. resistance to cyclic fatigue

19. Why is it best to precurve inflexible files?

a. to remove smear layer completely
b. for better irrigation of apical areas
c. because essentially all canals are curved
d. it provides a path for irrigants

10. A pulpal diagnosis that has a characteristic of sharp pain upon thermal stimulus and
lingering pain of 30 seconds or longer a
a. symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
b. asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis
c. reversible pulpitis d. pulp necrosis

1. Which of the following could you see if a pulp exposure occurred on a tooth with a
necrotic pulp?
a. Dry space and pus?
b. Blood
c. Swelling
d. All of the above

2. Which of the following conditions is visible on a radiograph?

a. Reversible pulpitis
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. AandB
d. None of the above

3. These are the criteria we need to evaluate to access the technical quality of the root
canal filling. EXCEPT.
a. Length
b. Taper
c. Density
d. Width

4. The main objective of obturation is?

a. Fill the canal and prevent apical percolation of fluids
b. Fill the canal and prevent discoloration of teeth
c. Fill the canal to give support to restoration
d. All of the above

5. Why is cold testing more preferable than heat testing?

a. Because cold testing is the trend
b. Heat testing have a greater potential to produce injury
c. Heat testing is difficult to execute
d. Both B and C

6. Which term refers to the 15-20um unmineralized organic matrix layer of dentin
located between the odontoblast layer and the mineralized layer?
a. Dentin sheath
b. Odontogenic
c. Predentin
d. Dentin matrix

7. What is the statement for calcium hydroxide?

a. Best intracanal medicament available
b. Its high pH causes an antibacterial effect
c. None of the above
d. AandB

8. It is the technique that used by clinician to passively insert a large instrument

that follows small instrument into canal up to a depth that allows easily progress
a. Crown down
b. Step back
c. Apical preparation
d. None of the above

9. What is the term commonly used to describe a stratum that contains a high
proportion of fibroblast immune cells and mesenchymal stem cells?
a. Fibrous layer
b. Cell-rich zone
c. Mesodermal region
d. Immune matrix

10. What is the most abundant type of collagen produced by odontoblast?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. None of the above

1. Objective of access preparation under straight line access except.

a. Improved instrument control
b. Improved Obturation
c. Decreased procedural errors
d. Does not require adequate tooth structure to be removed

2. Disadvantage of gutta percha; except.

a. Gutta-percha polymerizes easily
b. Lack of adhesion to dentin
c. Elasticity causes rebound to dentin
d. Shrinkage a

3. It is used to Preenlarge coronal areas; cut dentin as they are withdrawn from the
canal.
a. K- Files
b. Gates - Gliddon
c. Hedstrom File
d. Barbed broaches

4. What is the first layer of Primary dentin that has been deposited and produced by
odontoblast that are not yet fully differentiated?
a. Circumpulpal dentin
b. Predentin
c. Mantle dentin
d. Dentinal tubules

5. It is the best intracanal medicament in endodontic treatment because of its

component or properties.
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. NaOCI
d. AOTA

6. It is the first and rapid defense mechanism against dental caries.

a. Dentine Sclerosis
b. Reactionary Dentin
c. Primary Dentin
d. AOTA

7. Where dentin is formed that has been deposited and it constitutes the major part
of primary, and secondary dentine.
a. Intratubular dentin
b. Circumpulpal Dentin
c. Predentin
d. mantle Dentin

8. Symptomatic pulp with spontaneous pain.

a. Symptomatic irreversible
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Pulp necrosis
d. NOTA

9. The following are the characteristics of hyperalgesia; except.

a. Increased pain threshold
b. Spontaneous pain
c. Increased sensitivity of the dentin
d. Increased responsed to a painful stimulus

10. Which of the following has the correct matching according to weine's
configuration system.
a. TYPE I - (1-2)
b. TYPE II - ( 2-1)
c. TYPE III - (1-2)
d. TYPE IV - ( 2-2)

1. It indicates a clean and well shaped walls of the canal, except?

a. Smoothness obtained
b. Glassy like walls
c. A little to no smear layer
d. None of the above

2. Reversible pulpitis indicates pulpal irritation. Therefore, root canal treatment is

always advised.
a. Both statements is true
b. Both statement is false
c. First statement is true, second is false
d. First statement is false, second is true
3. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis has no symptoms.
a. True
b. False

4. During root canal treatment, clinician missed the canal because of the following
reason/s
a. Inadequate access
b. Calcification
c. Unusual location
d. All of the above

5. Root canal treatment contraindicates on

a. Diabetic patient
b. Unrestored teeth
c. Periodontally involved teeth
d. Vertical fracture of root

6. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as the best intracanal medicament because of

a. Its ability to dissolve organic tissue
b. Its ability to dissolve the smear layer
c. Its ability to temporarily seal canal
d. Its antibacterial activity

7. Why is there a need to precurve the files?

a. To retain the canal’s original shape
b. To prevent procedural errors such as ledging, transportation, and zipping
c. BothAandB
d. There is no reason to precurve the files

8. It is produced during tooth development until the teeth have erupted

a. Primary dentin
b. Secondary dentin
c. Tertiary dentin
d. None of the above
9. Primary dentin is regular in structure and contains dentin tubules that form a _____
shaped primary curvature as a result of the directional movement of the odontoblast
a. U shaped
b. Spiraling shaped
c. S shaped
d. Round shape

10. Advantages of Gutta Percha, except?

a. Easy to manage
b. Easy to remove
c. Elasticity causes rebound to dentin
d. Little toxicity
1.Used to remove vital pulp from root canals constriction level, and remove materials
from canals
a. Gates Glidden
b. K-files
c. Barbed Broaches
d. None of the above

2.Used to preenlarge coronal canal areas; cut dentin as they are withdrawn from canal
a. Hedstrom files
b. K- files
c. Nickel-titanium rotary instruments
d. Gates Glidden

3.Working lengths decrease in stepwise manner with increasing instrument size

a. Crown down
b. Step-back
c. Aseptic

4.Is a dental procedure used to treat exposed dental pulp

a. Dessication
b. Direct pulp capping
c. RCT

5. It is the best intracanal medicament. It is high in pH that causes an antibacterial

effect.
a. EDTA
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. Calcium hydroxide
d. Chlorhexidine

6. It is a cell of the pulp that participants in immune reactions and it acts as scavengers
a. Macrophage
b. Lymphocyte
c. Dendritic cell
d. Mast cell

7. The following are classic functions of the pulp, except

a. Nutritive
b. Protective
c. Constructive
d. NOTA

8. During the tooth development, cementum and pdl arises from?

a. Enamel Organ
b. Dental Follicle
c. Tooth Germ
d. AOTA

9. This part of the morphologic zone of the pulp houses the fibroblast?
a. Pulp Core
b. Odontogenic Zone
c. Cell Free Zone
d. Cell Rich Zone

10. Safe distance that is maintained between the site of the surgery and teeth for minimal
disruption
a. 3-6 mm
b. 4-8 mm
c. 5-10 mm
d. NOTA

11. The ff. are signs and symptoms of NaOCl accident, except:

A. Rapid swelling of erythema
B. Instant excessive pain
C. Bruising and sensory and motor nerve deficits
D. Excessive bleeding from the gingiva

12. It is the best intracanal medicament available.

A. EDTA
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Calcium hydroxide
↳

D. Mineral trioxide aggregate

13. It is the diameter of the file where the cutting flutes end (16mm).
A. D1
B. D2
C. D3
D. D4

14. This morphologic zone includes Type I and Type III collagen fibers.
A. Cell-rich zone
B. Cell-free zone
C. Odontogenic zone
D. All of the above

15. The ff are the advantages of Gutta percha, except:

A. Easy to manage
B. Shrinkage after cooling
C. Little toxicity
D. Self-sterilizing

16. Instrument that is need to remove the vital pulp from root canals.
A. Barbed broaches
B. K-File
C. Niti Files
D. Hedstrom files

17. This stage assumes the final shape and the formation of the hard tissues of the crown.
A. Bud stage
B. Cap stage
C. Bell stage
D. None of the above

18. It is the first and fastest defense to cavities and is called dentin sclerosis.
A. Decrease in dentin permeability
B. Tertiary dentin formation
L

C. Inflammatory and immune reactions

D. None of the above

19. It is a potential benefits of pulpal reactions to laser procedures, except:

A. Precision
B. Reduced sensitivity
C. Disinfection
D. Sufficiency

20. This phenomenon can occur during dental procedures when the tooth is exposed to air for
an extended period, leading to the loss of moisture.
A. Chemical irritation
B. Dessication
C. Physical irritation
D. Pulp inflammation

21. Neuropeptides, include:

A. VIP
B. Neuropeptide Y
C. CGRP
D. AOTA

22. Biocompatible material known for its excellent sealing ability and ability to stimulate tissue
repair.
A. MTA
B. GIC
C. ZOE
D. EDTA

23. Type of collagen found in most unmineralized connective tissue.

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

24. The following are the advantages of gutta percha, except:

A. Plasticity
B. Easy to manage
C. Little toxicity
D. NOTA

25. Acts as a filter for molecules passing between cells and blood vessels and places a role in
regulating tissue characteristics.
A. Interstitium
B. Pulpal collagen
C. Elastic fibers
D. Ground substance

26. Hyperalgesia include, except:

A. Substance P
B. Decreased pain
C. Spontaneous pain
D. Increase response to stimulate

27. It is a layer of materials composed of dentin, remnants of pulp tissue, sometimes bacteria
that are always in the canals.
A. Pulp layer
B. Reticular layer
C. Smear layer
D. NOTA

28. Classification of pulp stones, except:

A. According to structure
B. According to size
C. According to shape
D. According to location
29. These cells present antigens to T cells, which is key for immune responses.
A. Lymphocyte
B. Mast cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. Macrophage

30. Best indicator of clean walls is the level of ___________obtained.

A. Roughness
B. Smoothness
C. Hardness
D. Softness

31.FOCAL TERTIARY DENTIN FORMED BY ORIGINAL ODONTO BLASTS

a. DENTINAL TUBULES
b. REACTIONARY DENTIN
c. TERTIARY DENTIN
d. PRIMARY DENTIN

32. MOVEMENT INVOLVES THE APPLICATION

OF MECHANICAL FORCES TO MOVE TEETH INTO DESIRED POSITIONS?
a.EXTRACTION
b. RCT
c. RESTORATION
d. ORTHODONTIC

33. WHAT TYPE OF COLLAGEN IS FOUND IN SKIN, TENDON, BONE, DENTIN, AND PULP?
a. TYPE I COLLAGEN
b. TYPE II COLLAGEN
c. TYPE III COLLAGEN
d. TYPE IV COLLAGEN

34. THESE ARE THE CLASSIC FUNCTIONS OF THE PULP, EXCEPT:

a. FORMATIVE
b. PROTECTIVE
c. DEFENSIVE
d. PROLIFERATIVE

35. WHAT DOES ODONTOBLAST SECRETES?

a. SODIUM PHOSPHATASE
b. AMELOBLAST
c. DENTIN SIALOPROTEIN AND PHOSPHORYN
d. CEMENTOBLAST

36. THIS IS ALSO CALLED AS "LANGERHAN CELLS"?

a. DENDRITIC CELLS
b. MONOCYTES
c. EOSINOPHILS
d. PHAGOCYTES

37. MANAGEMENT OF IRREVERSIBLE PULPITIS, EXCEPT?

a. COMPLETE CLEANING AND SHAPING OF ROOT CANALS
b. PULPOTOMY
c. ANTIBIOTICS ARE GENERALLY INDICATE
d. REDUCING OCCLUSION

38. INDICATION OF FLARE-UPS, EXCEPT?

a. A TRUE EMERGENCY
b. NO HISTROY OF PREOPERATIVE PAIN
c. UNSCHEDULED VISIT & TREATMENT IS REQUIRED
d. NOTA

39. CONTAINS BLOOD VESSELS AND NERVES "PLEXUS OF RASHKOW"?

a.CELL RICH ZONE
b. PULP CORE
c. CELL FREE ZONE
d. ODONTOGENIC ZONE

40. ARE IMMUNE SYSTEM HELPERS ALSO FOUND IN SKIN AND MUCOUS MEMBRANES
WHERE THEY'RE CALLED "LANGERHANS CELLS"?
a. DENDRITIC CELLS
b. ODONTOBLAST
c. MACROPHAGE
d. LYMPHOCYTE

41. The morphogenesis of the crown is controlled by specialized signaling centers called?
a. Primary enamel knots
b. Epithelial enamel knots
c. Fibroblast growth factors
d. Bone morphogenetic protein
42. The pulp has the ability to produce energy through a shunt type of carbohydrate
metabolism?
a. Phosphogluconate
b. Interstitium
c. B-lymphocytes
d. Exocytosis

43. The first layer of the primary dentin to be deposited?

a. Circumpulpal dentin
b. Pre-Dentin
c. Dentinal Tubules
d. Mantle Dentin

44. What are the collagen components of the basement membrane?

a. Type I and Type II
b. Type IV and Type VII
c. Type III and Type V
d. Type VI and Type VIII

45. It is irregular dentin formed in response to abnormal stimuli?

a. Primary Dentin
b. Secondary Dentin
c. Tertiary Dentin
d. Reactionary Dentin

46. These cells are termed "antigen-presenting cells”?

a. Dendritic Cells
b. Macrophage
c. Mast Cells
d. Lymphocyte

47. Modular calcified masses appearing in either coronal/radicular pulp/tooth?

a. Reactionary dentin
b. Pulpal stones
c. Adherent stones
d. Free stones

48. It is formed after the layer of the mantle has been deposited?
a. Mantle dentin
b. Pre-Dentin
c. Circumpulpal dentin
d. Dentin
49. Most numerous cells of the pulp?
a. Odontoblasts
b. Fibrils
c. Fibroblasts
d. Proteoglycon

50. Collagen found in cartilage?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV