SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE

TESTS OF THE
COLLEGE BOARD
THE COLLEGE BOARD
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE
TESTS OF THE
COLLEGE BOARD

COLLEGE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION BOARD

NEW YORK
The Admissions Testing Program (ATP) is a program of the College Board, a nonprofit membership
organization that provides tests and other educational services for students, schools, and colleges.
The membership is composed of more than 2,500 colleges, schools, school systems, and education
associations. Representatives of the members serve on the Board of Trustees and advisory councils
and committees that consider the programs of the College Board and participate in the determina-
tion of its policies and activities.
This book was prepared and produced by Educational Testing Service (ETS), which develops and
administers the tests of the Admissions Testing Program for the College Board. The text of this book
is adapted from Taking the SAT, a booklet that is shipped at the beginning of each academic year to
secondary schools for free distribution to students who plan to register for the SAT. (Copies of
Taking the SAT are available for purchase at $4.00 each, or in quantities of 50 or more at $2.00
each.)
The College Board and Educational Testing Service are dedicated to the principle of equal oppor-
tunity, and their programs, services, and employment policies are guided by that principle.

Cover design by Bob Silverman.

Copyright © 1983 by College Entrance Examination Board. All rights reserved.

Library of Congress Catalog Card Number: 83-71936

The test questions in this book are reprinted by permission of ETS, the copyright owner.

Printed in the United States of America

987654321
Contents
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Introduction
The College Board knows that some people are uncomfortable when they are
faced with the prospect of taking any test, but that there is even greater uneasiness
before taking national standardized tests such as the Scholastic Aptitude Test
(SAT). One of the reasons that people tend to worry so much about how they will
do on the SAT is their lack of understanding about what will be on the test, what
it measures, and how the results will be used.
This book attempts to help students get better acquainted with the SAT and, in
the process, alleviate some of that anxiety. The College Board believes that every-
one who takes the SAT should be fully familiar with the test beforehand and thus
be able to demonstrate their abilities. Before taking the SAT, every student should
know:
e What the SAT is designed to measure
The format of the test as a whole
The kinds of questions on the test
¢ How to mark the answer sheet and how each question is scored
Rules of good test-taking practice
e How scores are reported and used
¢ How to use sample tests for practice and self-scoring
The College Board provides this information free of charge to all students plan-
ning to take the SAT. Before taking the test, students receive through their schools
a copy of Taking the SAT, which provides directions, examples, and explanations
of the test, as well as a sample SAT and answer sheet. All the information in
Taking the SAT is included in this book.
In addition, the College Board currently makes public an average of five edi-
tions of the SAT per year as part of its ongoing program to insure full public
information about these tests. Ten of these editions, all of which have been ad-
ministered in the past few years, are included in this book.
Except to help students become familiar with the overall format of the SAT, the
use of all ten tests in preparing for the SAT probably will be of extremely limited
value. These tests are provided to give examples of the range of questions and
topics on any SAT test; however, there is no evidence that extensive drill or prac-
tice on these particular tests will increase scores. Students are encouraged not to
allow any sample tests to distract them from the kind of general academic study
that will help them develop the verbal and mathematical reasoning skills that the
SAT measures and that are important for college. Research on the relative effec-
tiveness of activities and materials intended to prepare students to take the SAT
indicates that short-term efforts to cram or drill with sample questions have little
effect on test performance. The soundest preparation for the SAT continues to be
serious application to regular school studies, with emphasis on academic courses
and plenty of outside reading.
Although this book has been written for students and others who are planning
to take the SAT, it also may be useful to parents, teachers, and individuals who
have an interest in the SAT and who use its results.
 Digitized by the Internet Archive
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 How the Tests Are Developed
Many people are involved in the development of a whole. Each reviewer prepares a list of answers that
every new edition of the Scholastic Aptitude Test is compared with other reviewers’ lists to verify
(SAT) and the Test of Standard Written English agreement on the correct answer for each question. In
(TSWE). Questions are written by high school and addition, specially trained ‘sensitivity’ reviewers
college teachers and by test specialists at Educational read the test material and eliminate any references
Testing Service. Questions then are placed in one of that might be unfair or offensive to some student
the experimental sections of the SAT. In this way, new groups because of stereotyping, sex bias, or meaning
questions are tried out under standard testing condi- . that could produce negative emotional feelings.
tions by representative samples of students taking the After the new edition has been assembled, the SAT
SAT. Each question then is analyzed statistically for and TSWE Committees, composed of high school
its usefulness and may be revised, if necessary. Satis- teachers, college faculty, and educational administra-
factory questions become part of a pool of questions tors, review the test a final time before it is given to
from which new editions of the SAT are assembled. students. In addition to reviewing all new tests, these
In developing a new edition of the SAT, several test committees also are responsible for overall test speci-
specialists and a test editor review each question and fication, recommending related research, and advis-
reading selections on which questions are based for ing the College Board on policy matters related to the
accuracy and to ensure balanced content of the test as tests.

SAT Committee 1982-83

Willie May, Wendell Phillips High School, Chicago, Jeanette B. Hersey, Connecticut College, New London,
Illinois, Chairman Connecticut

James R. Buch, University of Oregon, Eugene, Oregon Robert S. Moore, South Carolina State Department of
Education, Columbia, South Carolina
Nancy S. Cole, University of Pittsburgh, Pittsburgh,
Pennsylvania Allen Parducci, University of California — Los Angeles,
Los Angeles, California
William Controvillas, Farmington High School, Farmington,
Connecticut Hammett Worthington-Smith, Albright College, Reading,
Pennsylvania
Margaret Fleming, Cleveland Public Schools, Cleveland, Ohio
Lynn H. Fox, Johns Hopkins University, Baltimore, Maryland

TSWE Committee 1982-83

Ronald B. Newman, University of Miami, Coral Gables, Florida, Maurice Lee, Bard College, Annandale-on-Hudson, New York
Chairman Marjorie G. Roemer, Brookline High School, Brookline,
Carlota Cardenas de Dwyer, University of Texas, Austin, Texas Massachusetts

Michael C. Flanigan, University of Oklahoma, Norman,

Oklahoma
 About the Tests
The Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) e 2 SAT-verbal sections,
e 2 SAT-math sections,
The SAT is a multiple-choice test made up of verbal
and mathematical sections. The verbal questions test e 1 TSWE section, and
your vocabulary, verbal reasoning, and understand- ¢ 1 section of experimental verbal, mathematical, or
ing of what you read. The mathematical questions TSWE questions.
test your ability to solve problems involving arithme- The questions in the experimental section do not
tic, elementary algebra, and geometry. These verbal count toward your score. -They are used to maintain
and mathematical abilities are related to how well the quality of the tests and to provide essential infor-
you will do academically in college. The SAT does mation for future editions.
not measure other factors and abilities — such as cre- You will be given 30 minutes to work on each sec-
ativity, special talents, and motivation — that also
tion. The six sections are not in the same order in
may help you do well in college. every test book. Later in this book you will find de-
SAT scores are useful to college admissions officers tailed explanations of each type of question as well as
in comparing the preparation and ability of appli- tips on how to make the best use of the testing time.
cants from different high schools, which may vary
widely in courses and grading standards. Colleges
also consider your high school record and other in- How to Register
formation about you in making admissions decisions.
Your high school record is probably the best single The Student Bulletin for the SAT and the Achieve-
indicator of how you will do in college, but a combi- ment Tests contains a registration form and all the
nation of your high school grades and test scores is an information you will need on how to register for
even better indicator. these tests and how to have your score reported. The
Bulletin also describes the other tests and services of
the Admissions Testing Program (ATP), such as the
The Test of Standard Written Achievement Tests, the Student Descriptive Ques-
tionnaire (SDQ), and the Student Search Service
English (TSWE) (S5S)k
The TSWE is a multiple-choice test given at the same The SAT is administered on a regular schedule (six
time as the SAT, but it has a different purpose. The times a year in most states) at thousands of test cen-
TSWE is intended to be used to help the college you ters throughout the world. To avoid late fees, you
attend choose an English course appropriate for your must send in your registration form at least five
ability. The questions in it measure your ability to weeks before the test date you have chosen.
recognize standard written English, the language that A supply of the Student Bulletin is sent to all high
is used in most college textbooks and that you proba- schools each year. High school students should be
bly will be expected to use in the papers you write in able to pick up a copy of the Bulletin at their school
college. guidance or counseling office. Test candidates who
are not currently in high school may obtain a copy by
writing to the address below.
How the Tests Are Organized
The SAT and TSWE are included in the same test
book. Each test book is divided into six sections:

If you want Address —

to write or College Board ATP Princeton, NJ
call... Box 592 (609) 771-7600
Princeton, NJ 08541 8:30 a.m. to
9:30.p.m.
 How to Prepare ior the Tests
Know What to Expect tions for what to do on the day or evening before the
tests:
The best way to prepare for the tests is to familiarize
yourself with their organization, the types of ques-
¢ Spend an hour or so reviewing the sample ques-
tions that will appear on them, and what will be ex-
tions and explanations in this book. Hours of in-
pected of you on the actual test day. To make sure
tense study the night before the test day probably
you are prepared for the actual test administration,
will not help your performance on the tests and
you should:
might even make you more anxious. But a short
review of the information you studied earlier prob-
¢ Read this book or Taking the SAT carefully. Be
ably will make you feel more comfortable and
sure you understand how each test is organized and
prepared.
how it will be scored. The information in these
books will help you learn the answers to such ques-
tions as “Should I guess?” “Do difficult questions Get your testing materials together and put them
get more credit than easy ones?” “Should I memo- in a place that will be convenient for you in the
rize mathematical formulas?”
morning. Use this checklist:
v Admission ticket
e Study the sample questions and explanations. v Positive identification (You won't be admitted to
The sample questions and explanations that begin the test center without it. See the Student
on page 12 will give you a good idea of the kinds of Bulletin.)
questions that actually appear on the tests. The ~ Two No. 2 pencils with erasers
more familiar you are with the sample questions,
v Directions to the test center if you need them
the more comfortable you'll feel when you see the
questions in your test book on the day of the tests. v All the materials you will need to register as a
standby, if you have not preregistered (See the
¢ Study and understand the test directions. The di- Student Bulletin.)
rections for answering the questions are printed
here exactly as they appear in the test book. Study e Spend the rest of the evening relaxing. You'll ac-
them now so you will understand them when you complish little by worrying about the next day.
take the test. The less time you need to spend read- Read a book, watch a television program you en-
ing and figuring out the directions on the test day, joy, or do anything you find relaxing.
the more time you'll have for answering the
questions. ¢ Get a good night’s sleep. You'll want to feel your
best when you take the tests, so try to be well rested
Take at least one sample test. Included in this and refreshed. Get to bed early, set your alarm early
book are 10 complete SATs (and one TSWE) to- enough to avoid having to rush, and feel satisfied
gether with copies of answer sheets. Try to take a that you've prepared yourself well for the test day.
test for practice under conditions as similar as pos-
sible to those of the actual test day. (Suggestions for Special Preparation
doing so appear on page 34, just before the practice If you or your parents have been thinking about spe-
test.) Make sure that you use one of the answer cial preparation for the SAT outside your regular
sheets provided. That way you'll already have been classroom activities, consider the following points:
through a “dry run” before you actually take the
SAT. ¢ This book (or Taking the SAT) and the Student Bul-
letin are the best sources of information about the
SAT. All the questions in these books are taken
The Day Before the Tests from actual SATs that have been administered dur-
ing the past few years.
Learning as much as you can about the tests is some-
thing you'll want to do several weeks before the day ¢ The SAT measures developed verbal and mathe-
you plan to take the tests. Following are some sugges- matical reasoning abilities that are involved in suc-

9
 cessful academic work in college; it is not a test of seem to vary considerably from program to pro-
some inborn and unchanging capacity. gram, and for each person within any one program.
Studies of special preparation programs carried on
Scores on the SAT can change as you develop your
in many high schools show various results, averag-
verbal and mathematical abilities both in and out of
ing about 10 points for the verbal section and 15
school.
points for the mathematical section over and above
Your abilities are related to the time and effort the average increases that would otherwise be ex-
spent. Short-term drill and cramming are likely to pected. In other programs, results have ranged
have little effect; longer-term preparation that de- from no improvement in scores to average gains of
velops skills and abilities can have greater effect. 25-30 points for particular groups of students or
One kind of longer-term preparation is the study of particular programs. Recent studies of commercial
challenging academic courses. coaching have shown a similar range of results. You
should satisfy yourself that the results of a special
While drill and practice on sample test questions
program or course are likely to make a difference in
generally result in little effect on test scores, prepa-
relation to your college admissions plans.
ration of this kind can familiarize you with different
question types and may help to reduce anxiety
Generally, the soundest preparation for the SAT is
about what to expect. You can help yourself to be-
to study widely with emphasis on academic courses
come familiar with the test by using the explana-
and extensive outside reading. Since SAT score in-
tions and a full sample test in this book.
creases of 20-30 points result from about three addi-
Whether longer preparation, apart from that avail- tional questions answered correctly, your own inde-
able to you in your regular high school courses, is pendent study in addition to regular academic
worth the time, effort, and money is a decision you course work could result in some increase in your
and your parents must make for yourselves; results scores.

10
-Test-Taking Tips
Think of the number of things you do easily every questions that seem easy to you before you spend
day that would seem mysterious or difficult if you time thinking about the questions that seem difficult.
didn’t know how to approach them. For example,
You can guess. If you know that some of the choices
when you go to school or work each morning, you
for a question are definitely wrong, then it’s to your
know that you have to turn left at one corner or right
advantage to guess from the remaining choices. But
at another. And you have a good idea of how far
because of the way the test is scored, random guess-
away your school or your work is and how long it
ing is unlikely to increase your score.
will take you to get there. But if you hadn’t learned
these things at one time or another and received tips You can omit questions. Many students who do well
from others on shortcuts and new routes, your trip on the SAT omit some questions. You can always
would be much more difficult. return to questions you've omitted if you have time
Taking the SAT and the TSWE does not have to be left to work on that section.
a mysterious experience. You already have read
You don’t have to answer every question correctly
about how to prepare for the tests in general. Here
to score well. In fact, many students who receive
are some specific test-taking tips that will help when
average or slightly above-average scores answer
you actually take the tests.
only 40-60 percent of the questions correctly.
“Within each group of questions of the same type,
You get credit for each question you answer cor-
the easier questions usually are at the beginning of
rectly. You lose a fraction for each question you an-
the group and the more difficult ones are at the end.
swer incorrectly. You neither gain nor lose credit for
(An exception to this is the reading comprehension
questions you omit. (See page 62 for more detailed
questions. The reading passages usually are ordered
information on scoring.)
easiest to hardest, but the questions that follow each
passage are ordered according to the logic and orga- Use the test book for scratchwork and to mark
nization of the passage.) questions you omitted, so you can go back to them
if you have time. Do not make extra marks on the
vif you're working on a group of questions of a par-
answer sheet. They may be misread as answers by
ticular type and find that the questions are getting
the scoring machine.
too difficult for you, quickly read through the rest
of the questions in that group and answer only vlf the scoring machine reads what looks like two
those you think you know. Then go on to the next answers for one question, that will be considered an
group of questions in that section. (Again, this is omitted question. So it’s in your best interest to
not necessarily true of the questions about a reading keep your answer sheet free of any stray marks.
passage. A difficult reading comprehension ques-
Do not omit an entire section of the test. If you do
tion might be followed by an easier one.)
not respond to at least three SAT-verbal, SAT-math,
You get just as much credit for correctly answering or TSWE questions, you will receive the minimum
easy questions as you do for correctly answering score for that part.
difficult ones. So make sure you answer all the

EH!
 Sample Questions and Explanations
Following are sample questions and explanations for EXAMPLE:
each type of question that appears on the SAT. Pay GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red
special attention to the sample directions. You'll see (D) hot (E) ugly
them again on the actual test. O@GOO®

Verbal Sections of the SAT You can probably answer this example without think-
The verbal sections of the SAT contain four types of ing very much about the choices. However, most of
questions: the antonyms in the verbal section require more care-
ful analysis. When you work on antonym questions,
e 25 antonyms, remember that:
¢ 20 analogies,
e 15 sentence completions, and 1. Among the five choices offered, you are looking
e 25 questions based on reading passages. for the word that means the opposite of the given
word. Words that have exactly the same meaning
The antonyms usually take the least time per ques- as the given word are not included among the five
tion, followed by analogies, sentence completion choices.
questions, and, finally, the reading comprehension
questions. Individual students spend varying 2. You are looking for the best answer. Read all of the
amounts of time working on the different types of choices before deciding which one is best,
questions. Some students can answer two or three an- even if you feel sure you know the answer. For
tonyms a minute, but the same students may take example:
more than seven minutes to read a 400-word passage SUBSEQUENT: (A) primary (B) recent
and answer five questions on it. (C) contemporary (D) prior (E) simultaneous
Your answers to the 85 questions in the verbal sec-
tions make up your total verbal score. (See page 62.) Subsequent means ‘following in time or order;
The score report you receive will also show two sub- succeeding.”” Someone working quickly might
scores: (1) a vocabulary subscore, based on the anto- choose (B) recent because it refers to a past action
nym and analogy questions, and (2) a reading sub- and subsequent refers to an action in the future.
score, based on the sentence completions and the However, choice (D) prior is the best answer. It is
questions on the reading passages. more nearly the opposite of subsequent than is
A careful balance of reading materials and words recent.
drawn from a variety of subject-matter fields helps
ensure that the test is fair to students with different 3. Few words have exact opposites, that is, words
interests. However, no specialized knowledge in sci- that are opposite in all of their meanings. You
ence, social studies, literature, or other fields is should find the word that is most nearly opposite.
needed. For example:
FERMENTING: (A) improvising (B) stagnating
Antonyms (Opposites) ES
i (C) wavering (D) plunging (E) dissolving
Antonym questions primarily test the extent of your Even though fermenting is normally associated
vocabulary. The vocabulary used in the antonym with chemical reactions, whereas stagnating is nor-
questions includes words that you are likely to come mally associated with water, fermenting means be-
across in your general reading, although some words ing agitated and stagnating means being motion-
may not be the kind you use in everyday speech. less. Therefore, choice (B) stagnating is the best of
the five choices.
Directions: Each question below consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose
the word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to 4. You need to be flexible. A word can have several
the word in capital letters. Since some of the questions re- meanings. For example:
quire you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, consider all DEPRESS: (A) force (B) allow (C) clarify
the choices before deciding which is best. (D) elate (E) loosen

EZ
 The word depress can mean “to push down.” pressed in the relationship, and to recognize a similar
However, no word meaning “to lift up” is included or parallel relationship.
among the choices. Therefore, you must consider
another meaning of depress, “to sadden or dis- Directions: Each question below consists of a related pair of
courage.” Option (D) elate means to fill with joy words or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
or pride. The best answer is (D) elate. phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relation-
ship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
5. You'll often recognize a word you have encoun-
EXAMPLE:
tered in your reading but have never looked up in YAWN : BOREDOM : : (A) dream: sleep
the dictionary. If you don’t know the dictionary (B) anger: madness (C) smile : amusement
meaning of a word but have a feeling for how the (D) face : expression (E) impatience : rebellion
word should be used, try to make up a short O®O@Ba®©
phrase or sentence using the word. This may give
you a clue as to which choice is an opposite, even The first step in answering an analogy question is to
though you may not be able to define the word establish a precise relationship between the original
precisely. pair of words (the two capitalized words) before you
INCUMBENT: (A) conscious (B) effortless examine the five answer choices. In the example
(C) optional (D) improper (E) irrelevant above, the relationship between yawn and boredom
can best be stated as “(first word) is a physical sign of
You may remember incumbent used in a sentence
(second word),” or “(first word) is a facial expression
such as, “It is incumbent upon me to finish this.” If
of (second word).” The pair of words that best ex-
you can think of such a phrase, you may be able to
presses a similar relationship is found in choice (C): a
recognize that incumbent means “imposed as a
(smile) is a physical sign of (amusement), or a (smile)
duty” or “obligatory.” Of the five choices, (A), (B),
is a facial expression of (amusement). None of the
and (D) are in no way opposites of incumbent and
other choices shares a precise relationship with the
you can easily eliminate them. Choice (E) means
capitalized pair of words: a dream is something that
“not pertinent” and choice (C) means “not compul-
occurs when you are asleep, but it is not usually
sory.” Although choice (E) may look attractive,
thought of as being a sign of sleep as, for example,
choice (C) optional is more nearly an exact oppo-
closed eyes or a snore might be; anger denotes strong
site to incumbent. Choice (C), therefore, is the
displeasure and madness can refer to rage or insanity,
answer.
but neither word is a physical sign of the other; an
expression is something that appears on a face, but a
Some General Tips for Answering Antonym face is not a sign of an expression; impatience may
Questions BERET lead to rebellion or be characteristic of a rebel-
Answering antonyms depends on knowing the uses as lious person, but impatience is not a physical sign of
well as the meanings of words, so just memorizing rebellion.
word lists is probably of little use. You're more likely Each analogy question contains a relationship be-
to improve your performance on antonyms and other tween two pairs of words (the capitalized pair and the
kinds of verbal questions by doing things that help correct answer). Try to establish a relationship be-
you to think about words and the way they are used. tween each pair of words. For example:
So, it would be a good idea to: SUBMISSIVE : LED: : (A) wealthy : employed
~ Read some good books or magazines on subjects (B) intolerant : indulged (C) humble : humiliated
with which you're not already familiar. This will (D) incorrigible : taught (E) inconspicuous : overlooked
give you a better idea of how even familiar words The relationship between submissive and led can be
can have different meanings in different contexts. expressed as “to be submissive is to be easily led.”
Use a dictionary when you come across words that Only choice (E) has the same relationship: “to be in-
you don’t understand in your reading. This will conspicuous is to be easily overlooked.”
help to broaden your vocabulary and consequently To be intolerant is not to be easily indulged, to be
could improve your performance on the tests. humble is not to be easily humiliated, and to be incor-
rigible (or incapable of being reformed) is not to be
easily taught. With regard to choice (A), although the
Analogies BEET wealthy may find it easier to get employment than do
Analogy questions test your ability to see a relation- the poor, the statement ‘to be wealthy is to be easily
ship in a pair of words, to understand the ideas ex- employed” is an expression of opinion and not an ex-

13
pression of the relationship between the words ac- Some choices may have relationships that are close
cording to their dictionary meanings. but not parallel to the relationship in the original pair.
Most of the pairs of words listed in the choices have
Practice describing verbal relationships. Below are
_relationships that can be stated; however, the correct
some examples of the kinds of relationships that
answer has most nearly the same relationship as the
could be used.
original pair. Look at the following example.
SONG : REPERTOIRE : : (A) score : melody KNIFE : INCISION : : (A) bulldozer : excavation
(B) instrument : artist (C) solo : chorus (B) tool : operation (C) pencil : calculation
(D) benediction : church (E) suit : wardrobe (D) hose : irrigation (E) plow : agriculture
The best answer is choice (E). The relationship be- On the most general level, the relationship between
tween the words can be expressed as “several (first knife and incision is that the object indicated by the
word) make up a (second word).” Several (songs) first word is used to perform the action indicated by
make up a (repertoire) as several (suits) make up a the second word. Since “a (knife) is used to make an
(wardrobe). (incision),”’ ‘‘a (bulldozer) is used to make an (excava-
REQUEST : ENTREAT : : (A) control : explode tion),”” and “a (hose) is used for (irrigation), there
(B) admire : idolize (C) borrow: steal appear to be two correct answers. You need to go
(D) repeat : plead (E) cancel : invalidate back and state the relationship more precisely. Some
aspect of the relationship between the original pair
The best answer is choice (B). Although both of the
exists in only one of the choices. A more precise rela-
capitalized words have similar meanings, they ex-
tionship between knife and incision could be ex-
press different degrees of feeling; to (entreat) is to (re-
pressed as: “a knife cuts into something to make an
quest) with strong feeling as to (idolize) is to (admire)
incision” and ‘a bulldozer cuts into something to
with strong feeling.
make an excavation.” This relationship eliminates
To answer analogy questions, you must think care- hose : irrigation as a possible answer. The best answer
fully about the precise meanings of words. For in- is choice (A).
stance, if you thought the word “entreat” meant only
“to ask” instead of “to ask urgently,” you would have Remember that a pair of words can have more than
trouble establishing the correct relationship between one relationship. For example:
request and entreat. PRIDE : LION : : (A) snake: python (B) pack : wolf
(C) rat: mouse (D) bird: starling (E) dog : canine
FAMINE : STARVATION : : (A) deluge : flood
(B) drought : vegetation (C) war : treaty A possible relationship between pride and lion might
(D) success : achievement (E) seed : mutation be that “the first word describes a characteristic of the
second (especially in mythology).” Using this reason-
The best answer is choice (A). The relationship can be
ing, you might look for an answer such as wisdom :
stated as (famine) results in (starvation) as a (deluge)
owl, but none of the given choices has that kind of
results in a (flood). None of the other pairs of words
relationship. Another relationship between pride and
expresses a causal relationship. Choice (C) is close,
lion is “a group of lions is called a pride”; therefore,
since a treaty often follows after a war, but we do not
the answer is (B) pack: wolf, since “a group of
think of a war “causing” a treaty in the same way that
wolves is called a pack.”
a famine “causes” starvation.

AMPLIFIER : HEAR: : (A) turntable : listen

(B) typewriter : spell (C) platter : eat Some General Tips for Answering Analogy
(D) camera : feel (E) microscope : see
QuestiOnS 2a
The best answer is choice (E). An (amplifier) magni-
fies in order to help a person (hear) in the same way State the relationship between the two capitalized
that a (microscope) magnifies in order to help a per- words in a sentence or phrase as clearly in your
son (see). Note that, in (A), while a turntable is part mind as you can. Next, find the pair of words that
of a larger mechanism that allows a person to listen, has the most similar or parallel relationship.
the choice is not as good an answer as (E) because a ~ Always compare the relationship between the pair
turntable does not magnify anything. Choice (D) is of capitalized words to the relationships between
also wrong for a similar reason: a camera produces the pairs of words in each of the choices. Don’t try
pictures that may make a person feel something, but to set up a relationship between the first word in the
a camera does not magnify in order to help a person original pair and the first word in each of the five
to feel. choices.

14
¥% Think carefully about the meanings of words. The sophisticated and amateur are nearly opposites, be-
words in analogy questions are used according to cause an “intelligent, well-acted, handsomely pro-
their dictionary definitions or meanings closely re- duced” film isn’t amateurish. Only choice (A), when
lated to their dictionary definitions. The better you inserted in the sentence, makes a logical statement.
know the precise meanings of words, the less trou- For a better understanding of sentence completion
ble you'll have establishing the correct relationships questions, read the following sample questions and
between them. explanations.
Don't be misled by relationships that are close but Nearly all the cultivated plants utilized by the Chinese have
not parallel to the relationship in the original pair. been of ---- origin; even rice, though known in China since
The correct answer has a relationship that is most Neolithic times, came from India.
nearly parallel to the relationship between the cap- (A) foreign (B) ancient (C) wild (D) obscure
talized words. (E) common

To answer this question, you need to consider the en-

Sentence Completion Questions EEE tire sentence — the part that comes after the semico-
Sentence completion questions test your ability to lon as well as the part that comes before it. If you
recognize relationships among parts of a sentence. only consider the first part of the question, all five
Each question has a sentence with one or two words choices seem plausible. The second part of the sen-
missing. Below the sentence, five words or pairs of tence adds a specific example — that rice came to
words are given. You must choose the word or set of China from India. This idea of origin supports and
words that best fits with the other parts of the sen- clarifies the “origin” mentioned in the first part of the
tence. In sentence completion questions, you have to sentence and eliminates (C), (D), and (E) as possible
know the meanings of the words offered as choices answers. The mention of Neolithic times makes (B)
and you also have to know how to use those words harder to eliminate, but the sentence is not logical
properly in the context of a sentence. The sentences when (B) is used to fill in the blank because the em-
are taken from published material and cover a wide phasis in the second part of the sentence — country of
variety of topics. You'll find that even if you're not origin — is inconsistent with that in the first — age.
familiar with the topic of a sentence, there’s enough Only choice (A) produces a sentence that is logical
information in the sentence for you to find the correct and consistent.
answer from the context of the sentence itself. The excitement does not ---- but ---- his senses, giving him a
keener perception of a thousand details.
Directions: Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each
blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath (A) slow .. diverts (B) blur . . sharpens
the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. Choose (C) overrule .. constricts (D) heighten . . aggravates
the word or set of words that best fits the meaning of the (E) forewarn . . quickens
sentence as a whole.
Since the sentence has two blanks to be filled, you
must make sure that both words make sense in the
EXAMPLE: sentence. If you look for grammatical clues within the
Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself is sentence, you will see that the word but implies that
intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced, and the answer will involve two words that are more or
altogether ----. less opposite in meaning. If you keep this in mind,
(A) tasteless .. respectable (B) extensive . . moderate you can eliminate all of the choices except for (B) blur
(C) sophisticated .. amateur (D) risqué. . crude . . sharpens. Only the words in choice (B) imply op-
(E) perfect . . spectacular position. Also, “sharpens his senses” is consistent
@ DOO ® with the notion that he has a “keener perception of a
thousand details.”
The word although suggests that the publicity gave
They argue that the author was determined to ---- his own
the wrong impression of the movie, so look for two
conclusion, so he ---- any information that did not support it.
words that are more or less opposite in meaning.
Also, the second word has to fit in with “intelligent, (A) uphold .. ignored (B) revise . . destroyed
(C) advance .. devised (D) disprove . . distorted
well-acted, handsomely produced.” Choices (D) and
(E) reverse . . confiscated
(E) are not opposites. The words in Choice (B) are
somewhat opposite in meaning, but do not logically The logic of the sentence makes it fairly easy to elimi-
fulfill the expectation set up by the word although. nate choices (B), (D), and (E). The first word in
Choice (C) can’t be the correct answer, even though choice (A), uphold, and the first word in (C), ad-

FS:
 vance, seem all right. However, the second word in Humanities: (art, literature, music,
choice (C), devised, does not make sense in the sen- philosophy, folklore)
tence. Why would an author who wished to advance Social Studies: (history, economics,
his theory devise information that did not support sociology, government)
it? Only choice (A) makes a logically consistent
Argumentative: (the presentation of a definite
sentence.
point of view on some
She is a skeptic, ---- to believe that the accepted opinion of the subject)
majority is generally ----.
Each passage contains all the information you'll need
(A) prone .. infallible (B) afraid . . misleading
to answer the questions that follow it.
(C) inclined . . justifiable (D) quick . . significant
(E) disposed . . erroneous
Several types of questions are asked about the pas-
sage. Some ask about the main idea of a passage.
The words to be inserted in the blank spaces in the Some questions ask about those ideas that are stated
question above must result in a statement that is con- directly in the passage. Some ask you to recognize
sistent with the definition of a skeptic. Since a skeptic applications of the author's principles or opinions. In
would hardly consider the accepted opinion of the some questions you must make an inference from
majority as infallible, justifiable, or significant, you what you have read. And in others you must eval-
can eliminate choices (A), (C), and (D). A skeptic uate the way the author develops and presents the
would not be afraid that the accepted opinion of the passage.
majority is misleading; a skeptic would believe that it Following are a sample passage, sample questions,
was. Therefore, choice (B) is not correct. Only choice and explanations of each of the questions.
(E) disposed. . erroneous makes a logical sentence.
Directions: The passage below is followed by questions
based on its content. Answer all questions following the pas-
Some General Tips for Answering Sentence sage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Completion Questions EEE Any survey of medieval town life delights in the color of
guild organizations: the broiders and glovers, the ship-
Read the entire sentence carefully; make sure you
wrights and upholsters, each with its guild hall, its distinc-
understand the ideas being expressed.
tive livery, and its elaborate set of rules. But if life in the
~ Don't select an answer simply because it is a popu- guilds and at the fairs provides a sharp contrast with the
lar cliché or “sounds good.” stodgy life on the manor, we must not be misled by surface
resemblances into thinking that guild life represented a fore-
“In a question with two blanks, the right answer
taste of modern life in medieval dress. It is a long distance
must correctly fill both blanks. A wrong answer
choice often includes one correct and one incorrect from guilds to modern business firms, and it is well to fix in

word. mind some of the differences.

In the first place, the guild was much more than just an
v After choosing an answer, read the entire sentence institution for organizing production. Whereas most of its
to yourself and make sure that it makes sense. regulations concerned wages and conditions of work and
~ Consider all the choices; be sure you haven't over- specifications of output, they also dwelt at length on non-
looked a choice that makes a better and more accu- economic matters: on a member’s civic role, on his appropri-
rate sentence than your choice does. ate dress, and even on his daily deportment. Guilds were the
regulators not only of production but of social conduct.
Between guilds and modern business firms there is a pro-
found gulf. Unlike modern firms, the purpose of guilds was
Reading Comprehension Questions ===
not first and foremost to make money. Rather, it was to pre-
The reading comprehension questions on the SAT test serve a certain orderly way of life — a way which envisaged a
your ability to read and understand a passage. The decent income for the master craftsmen but which was cer-
test will have one or more passages taken from any of tainly not intended to allow any of them to become “’big’’
the following categories: businessmen. On the contrary, guilds were specifically
designed to ward off any such outcome of an uninhibited
Narrative: (novels, short stories,
struggle among their members. The terms of service and
biographies, essays)
wages were fixed by custom. So, too, were the terms of sale: a
Biological Science: (medicine, botany, zoology) guild member who cornered the supply of an item or bought
Physical Science: (chemistry, physics, wholesale to sell at retail was severely punished. Competi-
astronomy) tion was strictly limited and profits were held to prescribed

16
levels. Advertising was forbidden, and even technical 2. According to the passage, modern business enterprises,
progress in advance of one’s fellow guildsmen was consid- compared to the medieval guilds, are
ered disloyal. (A) more concerned with increasing profits
Surely the guilds represent a more ‘“modern”’ aspect of feu- (B) influenced more by craftsmen than by tradesmen
dal life than the manor, but the whole temper of guild life (C) more subordinate to the demands of consumers
was still far removed from the goals and ideals of modern (D) less progressive in financial dealings
business enterprise. There was no free competition and no (E) less interested in quantity than quality
restless probing for advantage. Existing on the margin of a
To answer this question, locate the parts of the pas-
relatively moneyless society, the guilds were organizations
sage that compare guilds and modern business — the
that sought to take the risks out of their slender enterprises.
beginnings of the third and fourth paragraphs. Lines
As such, they were as drenched in the medieval atmosphere
19-20 suggest that the foremost purpose of modern
as the manors.
firms is to make money. Lines 35-38 indicate that
-“free competition” and “restless probing for advan-
Following are sample questions about this passage.
tage” are central to modern business enterprise.
You may be asked to identify the main idea or pri-
Choice (A) is the most appropriate answer among the
mary focus of the passage. For example:
choices given. There is no justification in the passage
1. The author is primarily concerned with
for any of the other choices. Some people might ar-
gue from their own experience or opinion that (C) is a
(A) analyzing the origins of the guild system possible answer. However, since the question says,
(B) explaining the relationships between manors, fairs, “According to the passage ...,”” the answer must be
and modern business firms
based on what is stated in the passage.
(C) depicting the weaknesses of the guilds’ business
Some questions ask you to make inferences based
practices
(D) stressing the historical evolution of guilds to modern on the passage. For example:
business firms
(E) discussing some differences between medieval and 3. It can be inferred that the guilds were organized as they
modern business practices were because

The answer to the question is (E). The passage com- (A) life on the manors was boring and drab
pares medieval business practices, as represented by (B) technical improvements were still improbable
the guilds, with modern business practices. The au- (C) they stressed preservation and stability, not progress
thor describes the guilds and suggests some ways in (D) people in medieval times were interested in advancing
individual liberty
which they differ from contemporary business orga-
(E) social status was determined by income
nizations. The most concise statement of what the au-
thor intends to discuss in the passage is made at the This question is not answered simply and directly in
end of the first paragraph, in lines 8-10. Choice (A) is the passage itself, but the passage gives you informa-
incorrect because the passage does not mention the tion to draw on. In the third paragraph, the author
origins of the guild system. Choice (B) is unaccept- notes that the purpose of guilds “was to preserve a
able because the author’s main comparison is not be- certain orderly way of life” and that guilds were spe-
tween manors, fairs, and modern business firms, cifically designed “to ward off...uninhibited struggle
even though all are mentioned in the passage. among their members.” In the fourth paragraph, the
Choices (C) and (D) are slightly harder to eliminate. author states that the guilds ‘were organizations that
Readers who think that the author is criticizing the sought to take the risks out of their slender enter-
guilds by pointing out the ways in which they differ prises.” From these statements and the comparisons
from modern business enterprise are mistaken; there between guilds and modern business firms that the
is no evidence in the passage to suggest that the au- author makes elsewhere in the passage, choice (C) is
thor wants either to praise or to criticize the guilds. the most reasonable conclusion to draw. Choice (A)
Choice (D) mentions the author’s main concerns — is stated in the passage, but is not related to the pur-
guilds and modern business firms — but is incorrect pose of the organization of the guilds. The statement
because the passage does not deal with the evolution about technical progress made in lines 31-33 weakens
from medieval to modern practices. the plausibility of the inference in (B). The passage
Another type of question asks about details stated doesn’t provide enough information to justify the in-
in the passage. Sometimes this type of question asks ferences made in (D) and (E). This is a fairly easy and
about a particular phrase or line; at other times, the straightforward inference question. You may be
part or parts of the passage referred to are not as pre- asked others that will require somewhat more sophis-
cisely identified. For example: ticated reasoning processes.

a7
 Other types of questions ask you to apply informa- guilds than of modern business firms. There is little or
tion in the passage to situations that are not specifi- nothing in the passage to support (E) as the answer;
cally mentioned in the passage or to evaluate the the author stresses the competition rather than coop-
author's logic, organization, attitude, tone, or lan- eration of modern businesses. When answering such
guage. Following is an example of one type of ques- questions, remember to read the question carefully
tion that asks you to apply information given in the and to look for evidence in the passage to support
passage. your choice. In this question, for example, you are
not asked which of the statements about modern
4. According to the passage, which of the following would business is true or which of the statements you agree
LEAST likely be found in a guild handbook? with, but which one the author is most likely to agree
(A) The fees a master guildsman should charge with based on what he or she has written in the pas-
(B) The bonus a member would receive for record sales sage. Sometimes questions that ask for the most
(C) The maximum number of hours a guildsman would be likely or least likely answer require you to make care-
expected to work ful distinctions between choices that are partly cor-
(D) The steps a new shipwright would follow to become a rect and those that are more complete or more
master craftsman accurate.
(E) The organizations to which a member should contrib-
ute as an upstanding citizen
Some General Tips for Answering Reading
To answer this question, you must decide which of
the five choices is least likely to have been included in Comprehension Questions
a guild handbook. The passage does not mention a Read each passage closely and attentively. Follow
handbook, but it does provide enough information the author's reasoning; notice how each piece of in-
about the areas of business and personal life that the formation relates to the ideas being presented. No-
guilds attempted to regulate to enable you to make tice attitude, tone, and general style.
reasoned judgments. The passage suggests that (A),
(C), and (E) would definitely be included in such a You may want to mark an important fact or idea,
handbook and that (D) would be a logical area of but don’t waste too much time underlining or mak-
concern and regulation for a guild. Choice (B) seems ing notes in the margin of the test book. Try to get a
to be the least likely area of regulation and is, there- sense of the principal ideas, facts, and organization
fore, the correct answer. In fact, the statements made of the passage.
in the passage about the purpose of the guilds — to vA passage with a subject that is familiar to you or in
enable all master craftsmen to earn a decent income which you are interested may be easier for you. If
and to discourage ruthless competition among mem- you find a passage that seems too difficult for you,
bers — suggest that offering a bonus for record sales you might want to skip it and go on. You would be
would indeed be an unlikely activity for a guild to omitting only a few questions and saving yourself
engage in.
time. You can always return to that passage if you
The question below is another type of evaluation
finish before time is up for that section of the test.
question.
You might want to read the questions before you
5. With which of the following statements concerning mod- read the passage so that you have a sense of what to
ern business firms would the author be most likely to . look for. But if the content of the passage is familiar
agree?
to you, looking at the questions before you read the
(A) They make rules concerning appropriate business passage might be a waste of time. Try both methods
practices for employees. when taking the practice test in this book and see if
(B) They permit the free play of price in terms of service one approach is more helpful to you than the other.
and sales.
(C) Their main concern is the stability of profit levels. Answer questions on the basis of what is stated or
(D) Their aim is to discourage competition among inde- implied in the passage. Don’t answer questions on
pendent manufacturers. the basis of your personal opinion or knowledge.
(E) They are organized in such a way that cooperating
monopolies will develop. Read all of the choices before you choose your
answer.
Paragraphs three and four provide information about
the author's characterization of modern business Answer the question that is asked. Don't pick one of
practices and support choice (B) as the correct re- the choices simply because you know it’s a true
sponse. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are more true of statement.

18
v Make sure the answer you choose is the best among Words and Phrases You Should Know
the choices given. Don’t be misled by choices that
are partially true. When You See: Think:

~In answering main idea questions, don’t be dis- Positive Integers TP a ar oe

tracted by statements that are true according to the Negative Integers —1, -—2, -3, -4,...
passage but that are secondary to the central point. Integers elena ee Opa 2 a ODhe cote
Odd Numbers sedb, see), aes). ae%%, sfOQh 5 oc
Even Numbers UL ab, eae Satyam gh e
Mathematical Sections of the SAT Consecutive Integers n,n + 1,n + 2,...(n = an integer)
Prime Numbers PN SS oe ke Taea RG onAe RS
Some questions in the mathematical sections of the
SAT are like the questions in your math textbooks.
Other questions ask you to do original thinking and
may not be as familiar to you. The questions are de- Arithmetic and Algebraic Concepts
signed for students who have had a year of algebra You Should Know
and some geometry. Many of the geometric ideas in-
volved are usually taught in the elementary and ju- Odd and Even Numbers :
nior high years, but a few of the questions involve Addition: Multiplication:
topics that are first taught in high school geometry. even + even = even even X even = even
Most of the questions are classified as arithmetic, al- odd + odd = even even X odd = even
gebra, or geometry, and there is approximately an even + odd = odd odd x odd = odd
equal number of each type.
When you take the SAT, remember to use the avail-
able space in the test book for scratchwork. You are
not expected to do all the reasoning and figuring in
your head. Percent means hundredths or number out of 100, so that
Following is a review of some specific words, 40. = 40 percent and 3 is 75 percent of 4 (because 3_ 75 _
phrases, and concepts you should know. Sample 100 4 100
questions and explanations follow the review. The 75 percent).
two types of questions that appear in the mathemati-
cal sections are explained separately. Some Percent General Method of Converting a
Equivalents Fraction 5to a Percent:

Mathematics Review == 10 es
* b 100
5 = 0.2 = 20% x = 100(#)
Some Mathematical Concepts with
Which You Should Be Familiar
=21 = 0.5 = 50% Example: eri
4 100
Arithmetic — simple addition, subtraction, multipli- ye es
cation, and division; percent; average; odd and even 1 1.0 = 100% Therefore, x = 100 (3) = 75
numbers; prime numbers; divisibility (for example,
=21 = 2.0 = , 200% oes)” e750
24 is divisible by 8) 7 a0 75%

Algebra — negative numbers; simplifying algebraic

Note: To convert a
expressions; factoring; linear equations; inequalities;
fraction or decimal
simple quadratic equations; positive integer expo- to percent,
nents; roots multiply by 100.
Geometry — area (square, rectangle, triangle, and
circle); perimeter of a polygon; circumference of a
circle; volume of a box and cube; special properties of
isosceles, equilateral, and right triangles; 30°-60°-90°
and 45°-45°-90° triangles; properties of parallel and
perpendicular lines; locating points on a coordinate
grid
 Percents Greater Than 100

Problem: 5 is what percent of 2? The most common mathematical meaning of the word aver-
Solution
i
1:. 55 =
100
xX
age is the arithmetic mean. The average (arithmetic mean) of a
set of n numbers is the sum of the numbers divided by n. For
example, the average of 10, 20, and 27 is
pea, SOO}
a 250
10 + 20
3 + 27 _ 57
3 _ 19
Therefore, 5 is 250 percent of 2.
Solution 2: ‘’5 is what percent of 2?’’ is equivalent to Unless otherwise indicated, the term average will be used
on the mathematical portion of the SAT to denote the arith-
se VE wee metic mean. Questions involving the average can take several
Same 100Mae E100
forms. Some of these are illustrated below.
500 = 2x
x = 250
This solution is a fairly direct translation of the question into Finding the Average of Algebraic Expressions
an algebraic statement as follows:
Problem: Find the average of (3x + 1) and (x — 3).
5 is what percent of 2?
SS Oo
ye i 2 = 2a
Yin Hea ’ Solution
;
eeeet
2
= C00 2
Note that saying 5 is 250 percent of 2 is equivalent to saying
that 5 is 2 5times 2. Finding a Missing Number if Certain Averages Are Known

Problem: Sue earned $10 on Monday and $12 on Tuesday. Problem: The average of a set of 10 numbers is 15. If one of
The amount earned on Tuesday was what percent these numbers is removed from the set, the average
of the amount earned on Monday? of the remaining numbers is 14. What is the value
of the number removed?
An equivalent question is ‘*$12 is what percent of $10?’’
Solution: The sum of the original 10 numbers is 10°15 = 150.
pee~ 100
S's
Solution: 10 The sum of the remaining 9 numbers is 9°14 = 126.
Therefore, the value of the number removed must
x = 1.290 — 120 be 150 — 126 = 24.

12 ag 208s
So, 10 100 120% one
Finding a Weighted Average

Problem: In a group of 10 students, 7 are 13 years old and 3

Percents Less Than 1 are 17 years old. What is the average of the ages of
these 10 students?
Problem: 3 is what percent of 1,000?
Solution: The solution is not the average of 13 and 17, which
a=
Solution: 1,000 0.003 a= 0.3%
50 or anne:
10 of 1 percent is 15. In this case the average is

Problem: Socks are $1.00 a pair or 2 pairs for $1.99. The sav-
7 (13) 10+ 3(17) _ 91 10+ 51 _ 14.2 years
ings in buying 2 pairs is what percent of the total
cost at the single pair rate? The expression ‘‘weighted average’’ comes from
the fact that 13 gets a weight factor of 7 whereas 17
Solution: At the single pair rate, 2 pairs would cost $2.00, so gets a weight factor of 3.
the savings is only $0.01. Therefore, you must an-
swer the question ‘’$0.01 is what percent of $2.00?’’
tat
0.01 _ 0.5
2.00 = 100’ the savings is 0.5% or
3 of 1 percent.

20
 Finding the Average Speed in Distance-Rate-Time Problems

Problem: Jane traveled for 2 hours at a rate of 70 kilometers ee 20 ae (a9 12)

per hour and for 5 hours at a rate of 60 kilometers e-1=(*+
1) - 1
per hour. What was her average speed for the 7- P+ ae +1 = & + 1) & + 1) = (x + 1)
hour period? x -— 3x —4= (x — 4) (x + 1)

Solution: In this situation, the average speed is:

Total Distance
Total Time
Geometric Figures

The total distance is 2 (70) + 5 (60) = 400 km. The Figures that accompany problems on the test are in-
total time is 7 hours. Thus, the average speed was tended to provide information useful in solving the
440
an _ 628 kilometers per hour. Note that in this problems. They are drawn as accurately as possible
EXCEPT when it is stated in a particular problem that
example the average speed, 62 g is not the average
the figure is not drawn to scale. Lines that appear to
of the two separate speeds, which would be 65. be straight may be assumed to be straight. Several
examples to illustrate the way figures can be interpre-
ted are given below.
Squares of Integers

nw 1 4 9 | 16 | 25 | 36 | 49 | 64 | 81 | 100 | 121 | 144

ees 4 — 5 | — 6 | — 71) — SO SAO) 6 hyaa

nv 1 4 9} 16) 25) 36) 49} 64; 81] 100| 121} 144

Signed Number Properties

In this figure, you may assume that AD and BE are line seg-
positive x positive = positive ments that intersect at C. You should not assume that AC =
negative X negative = positive CD, p = 60, orr = 90, even though they might look that way.
negative X positive = negative Since 2 ACB and DCE 2 are vertical angles, you can con-
—-(a-—b)=b-a clude that x = y.
(— xP = x
Ifx <0, >0

____ SEER
ence ae
On the number
line above: x < y For example, —2 < — 5 Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
y>0

Dee
For example, 6) < 5} Although the note indicates the figure is not drawn to scale,
you may assume that points P, Q, R, S, and T are on line PT.
For example, (— 2)’ > 5 You may also assume that Q is between P and R, that R is
between Q and S, and that S is between R and T. You may not
assume PQ, QR, RS, and ST are of equal length. In fact, since
the lengths of PT and PS are shown to be 18 and 12, respec-
tively, the length of ST is 6 while PQ has length 4. In general,
even when a figure is not drawn to scale, points on lines may
be assumed to be in the order shown, but specific lengths (for
example, PQ and ST) might not be accurately represented. In
such cases, your answer should be based on other informa-
tion given about the figure such as the specific lengths
shown.

2d
 Note: Words like “‘alternate interior’’ or ‘‘corresponding”’ are
generally not used on the test, but you do need to know
which angles are equal.

Angle Relationships ‘

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

This figure is also not drawn to scale. However, you may as-
sume that ABC, ABD, and DBC are triangles, and that D is
between A and C. The following are valid observations:
(1) length AD < length AC
(2) 2 ABD < 2 ABC
x+y+z = 180 y = 70
(3) Area A ABD < Area A ABC
(Because the sum (Because x
of the interior is equal to y
The following observations are not valid. (These may or may
angles of a and 60 + 50 + x = 180)
not be true statements.):
triangle is 180°)
(1) length AD > length DC
(2) 2 BAD = 2 BDA fe =) ty
(3) 2 DBC < 2 ABD (When two straight lines
intersect, vertical angles
The three valid observations illustrate that information about
are equal.)
the relative positions of points and angles may be assumed
from the figure, but the three observations that are not valid
illustrate that specific lengths and degree measures might not A
be accurately shown.

Geometric Skills and Concepts

150° @ rs

Properties of Parallel Lines

y = 30 i
(Because a (Because 4x + 5x
1. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the alternate
straight angle is = 90°) Also, the
interior angles are equal.
180°, y = 180 — 150) length of side AC
For example:
is greater than the
x = 80 length of side BC
(Because 70 + 30 + x = 180) (Because 2 Bis
or
greater than 7 A)

2. If two parallel lines are cut by a third line, the correspond-

ing angles are equal.
For example:

The sum of all angles of the If AB is parallel to CD,

polygon above is 3 (180°) = then x + y = 180
540° because it can be (Because x + z = 180
divided into 3 triangles, and y = z)
each containing 180°.

ae
Side Relationships Area and Perimeter Formulas

Area of a rectangle = length x width = L x W

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(L + W)
Examples:

4 3
10

(i 5S)
x=5 x=y= 10 4 (x + 3)
(By the (Because the un-
Pythagorean marked angle is
Theorem, 60°, all angles of Area = 12 Area (x — 3) (x + 3) =
Pl i a the triangle are x?>-9
x? =9+ 16 equal, and, there-
Perimeter = 14 Perimeter 74| (6235 3) se (63= 8)
e925 fore, all sides of
2(2x) = 4x
x= V25 = 5) the triangle are
equal)

Area of a circle = mr? (where r is the radius)

Circumference of a circle = 2ar md (where d is the
diameter)
Examples:

y=1 x= y = 45° Area = 7(3’) = 97 Area = 7(8’) = 647

(Because the (Because two Circumference 27(3) Circumference = 7(16) = 167
length of the side sides are equal, = 67
opposite the 30° the right triangle
angle in a right is isosceles and
triangle is half angles x and y are 1
Area of a triangle = (base X altitude)
the length of the equal. Also, x + y = 2
hypotenuse) 90 which makes both
angles 45°)
Zeus
(By the Pythagorean z= V2
Theorem, (Because 1? + 1? = 2’)
v?+ LP = 2?
=.= 3
x = V3) -—3
Area = $+8+6 = 24

23
 Standard Multiple-Choice Questions
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any
available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide
which is the best of the choices given and blacken the corre-
sponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving

‘ |
some of the problems.

Circle of radius r: Triangle: The

) x Area = tr’; sum of the measures
Circumference = 2zr in degrees of the
56 == BD The number of degrees angles of a triangle
of arc ina circle is 180.
Area = 1. 5°12 = 30 (Because x? + x? = (2V2)?
2 is 360.
Perimeter = 12 + 5+13= 30 2x7 =4:2 The measure in degrees
r= of a straight angle is 180.
a)
Area = 5°2+2=2

Perimeter = Dot 2 uel

= 4+ 2V2 If 2 CDA is a right
angle, then
(1) area of A ABC =
AB xX CD
Volume of a Rectangular Solid (box)
7
Volume of a box = length x width x height = L°W:-H (2) AC? = AD? + DC
Examples:
Definitions of symbols:
= is equal to is less than or equal to
# is unequal to IA
IV is greater than or equal to
< is less than || is parallel to
> is greater than _|_ is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are in-
tended to provide information useful in solving the prob-
lems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when
it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
All numbers used are real numbers.

The problems that follow will give you an idea of

Volume = 5°3°4 = 60 Volume = (3k)(2k)(2k) = 12k
the type of mathematical thinking required. First, try
to answer each question yourself. Then read the ex-
planation, which may give you new insights into
Types of Questions EEE solving the problem or point out techniques you'll be
able to use again. Note that the directions indicate
Two types of multiple-choice questions are used that you are to select the best of the choices given.
_ in the mathematical sections of the SAT:
~ 1. Standard multiple-choice questions (approxi- 1. If2a + b = 5, then 4a + 2b =
_ mately two-thirds of the math questions) _
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C)10 (D) 20 (E) 25
2. Quantitative comparison questions (approxi-
Fe one-third of the math questions) This is an example of a problem that requires realiz-
ing that 4a + 2b = 2(2a + b). Therefore, 4a + 2b =
The formulas ond symbols given in the direc-
2(2a + b) = 2(5) = 10. The correct answer is (C).
n low appear in the test book. Learn-
ee help you when you take the

24
2. If 16° 16°16 = 8°8°P, then P = 5. If the symbol V between two expressions indicates that the
expression on the right exceeds the expression on the left
(A)4 (B)8 (C)32 (D)48 (E) 64
by 1, which of the following is (are) true for all real num-
This question can be solved by several methods. A bers x?
time-consuming method would be to multiply the I. x(x + 2)V (x + 1)
three 16s and then divide the result by the product of II. x? V (x + 1)
8 and 8. A quicker approach would be to find what W.2y =+1
additional factors are needed on the right side of the Uear al

equation to match those on the left side. These addi- (A) None (B)I only (C) II only
tional factors are two 2s and a 16, the product of (D) Wlonly (E) I and III
which is 64. Yet another method involves solving for
This kind of problem involves working with a newly
P as follows:
defined symbol. One approach is to check the state-
ol oly ‘ments one at a time. Statement I reduces to x? + 2x V
p = 10+} 16 — 2+2+16
=64 x’ + 2x + 1, so the expression on the right does ex-
ceed the expression on the left by 1. Therefore, state-
ment | is true. Statement II reduces to x7 V x? + 2x +
The correct answer is (E). 1, so the right expression exceeds the left expression
by 2x + 1, which is not equal to 1 except when x = 0.
3. The town of Mason is located on Eagle Lake. The town of This makes statement II false. Statement III is more
Canton is west of Mason. Sinclair is east of Canton, but difficult to check, but you can verify by subtraction
west of Mason. Dexter is east of Richmond, but west of or by substituting numbers (for example, x = 3, y =
Sinclair and Canton. Assuming all these towns are in the 5), that the expression on the right does not exceed
United States, which town is farthest west?
the expression on the left by 1. Therefore, statement
(A) Mason (B) Dexter (C) Canton III is false. The only true statement is I, so the correct
(D) Sinclair (E) Richmond answer is (B).
For this kind of problem, drawing a diagram may In a problem of this kind, if you are able to decide
about only one or two statements, you can still elimi-
help. In this case, a line can be effectively used to
nate some choices and guess among those remaining.
locate the relative position of each town. Start with
For example, if you can conclude that I is true, then
the statement “The town of Canton is west of Mason”
the correct answer is either (B) or (E) because these
and, using abbreviations, draw the following:
choices contain statement I.

fe 6. If a car travels X kilometers of a trip in H hours, in how

e M many hours can it travel the next Y kilometers at this rate?
From the remaining information, place the other XY
(A) FF (B)
HY
(C)
AX
OD
Igl ap JE XGcre
gee (E) “+7
towns in their correct order:
You can solve this problem by using ratios or by us-
ing the distance formula.
Using the ratio method, X kilometers is to H hours
as Y kilometers is to L] hours, where C] represents the
amount of time required to travel Y kilometers:
The final sketch shows that the town farthest west is
Richmond (R) and the correct answer is (E). Bee
H
ale
CL
4. If the average of seven x’s is 7, what is the average of four- XS cheiy
teen x’s?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C)1 (D)7 (14
ORYX
Don’t get caught up in the wording of this problem, The correct answer is (B).
which might lead you to choose (E) 14. The average
of any number of equal numbers such as x is always
x. Since you are given that the average of seven x's is
7, it follows that x = 7 and that the average of four-
teen x's is also 7. The correct answer is (D).

25
7. If 90 percent of P is 30 percent of Q, then Q is what percent 9. A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisi-
of P? ble by 9. Which of the following numbers is divisible by
45?
(A) 3% (B) 27% (C) 30% (D) 270% (E) 300%
(A) 63,345
Writing an algebraic equation for this percent prob- (B) 72,365
lem not only simplifies the work, it also helps you or- (C) 99,999
ganize your thoughts. “90 percent of P is 30 percent of (D) 72,144
Q” can be written as 0.90P = 0.30Q (or = P= =Q). (E) 98,145
It would be very time-consuming to divide each
“Q is what percent of P” tells you to find ‘sand choice by 45. In order for a number to be divisible by
45 it must be divisible by both 9 and 5. Choices A, B,
express it as a percent. 8 = 3 and, therefore, Q is and E are divisible by 5, but choices C and D are not.
So you can eliminate choices C and D immediately.
300 percent of P and the correct answer is (E). (See
You are given that a number is divisible by 9 if the
pages 19-20 for a review of percent.) sum of its digits is divisible by 9. The sum of the digits
in choices A, B, and E are 21, 23, and 27, respectively.
Of these choices only 27 is divisible by 9. The cor-
rect answer is (E). Your scratchwork for this problem
might appear as follows:

8. The figure above shows a piece of paper in the shape of a

parallelogram with measurements as indicated. If the pa-
per is tacked at its center to a flat surface and then rotated
about its center, the points covered by the paper will be a
circular region of diameter
(A) V3 (B)2 (C5 (D)V28 (E) V39
The first step in solving the problem is to realize that
the center of the parallelogram is the point of inter-
section of the two diagonals; thus, the diameter you
are looking for is the length of the longer diagonal
AC. One way to find AC is to think of the additional
lines drawn as shown below.

10. In the triangles above, if AB,CD,and EF are line segments,

what is the sum of the measures of the six marked angles?
(A) 180° (B) 360° (C) 540° (D) 720°
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

This problem requires a creative problem-solving ap-

proach. One solution involves recognizing that the
The triangles at each end are congruent (equal in size sum of the three unmarked angles in the triangles is
and shape), so the length of DE and CE are 1 and 180°.
V3, respectively. AEC is a right triangle; therefore, This can be seen from the figure at the top of page
the Pythagorean Theorem can be used in solving the 27:
problem:
AC? = CE? + AE?
AC? = (V3)? + (6) = 3 + 36 = 39
The diameter AC is V39 and the correct answer is
(E).

26
 EXAMPLES

Column A Column B | Answers Explanations:

(The answer is A
El. 2x 6 2+ 6 @®OoO | because 12 is
greater than 8.)

(The answer is C
xr y? because x + y =
180, thereby
oma tGU— y ®®©eo | making 180 — x
equal to y.)

Because CD is a line segment, the sum of angles x, y, (The answer is D

and z is 180°. Also, y = w because they are vertical E3 p-4q ey Pee ap because nothing
angles. Therefore, x + w + z = 180. Since the sum is known about
of the measures of all angles in the three triangles is either p or g.)
540° (3 * 180°) and the sum of the unmarked angles of
the triangles in the original figure equals 180°, it fol- To solve a quantitative comparison problem, you
lows that the sum of the marked angles is 540° — compare the quantities in the two columns and decide
180° = 360°. The correct answer is (B). With this whether one quantity is greater than the other,
type of problem, if you don’t reach a solution in a whether the two quantities are equal, or whether the
minute or so, go on to the next problem and go back relationship cannot be determined from the informa-
to it if you have time. tion given. Remember that your answer should be:
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Quantitative Comparison Questions C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the
Quantitative comparison questions emphasize the information given.
concepts of equalities, inequalities, and estimation.
They generally involve less reading, take less time to Problems are clearly separated and the quantities
answer, and require less computation than regular to be compared are always on the same line as the
multiple-choice questions. Quantitative comparison number of the problem. (See example 2 on page 25.)
questions may not be as familiar to you as other types Figures and additional information provided for
of questions. Therefore, give special attention to the some problems appear above the quantities to be
directions ahead of time. compared. The following are some practice problems
with explanations to help you understand this type of
Directions: Each of the following questions consists of two question.
quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken
space Column A Column B

A if the quantity in Column A is greater; 1. (37) Gs) (58) (59) Gs) (37)
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal; Because the numbers in this problem are fairly large,
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the infor- it may save time to study the multipliers first before
mation given.
attempting the calculations. Note that (37) and (Fy)
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or appear in both quantities; thus, the only numbers left
both of the quantities to be compared is centered
for you to compare are 58 and 59. Since 59 > 58, the
above the two columns.
2. In a given question, a symbol that appears in both
quantity on the right is greater and the correct answer
columns represents the same thing in Column A as is (B).
it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,n,and k stand for real numbers.

af
Figures are also included in some questions that ap- Column A Column B
pear in the quantitative comparison format.
5. Be ap pag
ae il

Because both expressions contain a “1,” the problem

Column A Column B is one of comparing x with 2x. When you compare
algebraic expressions, a useful technique is to con-
sider zero and negative numbers for possible values
of the unknown.
~<— Given 2x > x for positive values of x
information Ont ae fOr OU
2x < x for negative values of x
The correct answer is (D), as the relationship cannot
be determined from the information given. If you had
2. The perimeter The perimeter + Quantities to
of the square of the rectangle be compared been given that x was positive (that is, x > 0), the
correct answer would have been (B) because 2x
It can be assumed that the units used to indicate mea- would be greater than x.
sures in a given problem are the same in all figures in
that problem unless otherwise stated. The correct an- Column A Column B
swer is (C) because the perimeter of the square is 4 * 7
= 28 units and the perimeter of the rectangle is (2 * 5)
+ (2°9) = 28 units.

Column A Column B Note: Figure not

drawn to scale.

x<45<y

6. y 90
Because the sum of the angles of a triangle is 180, x +
y + 45 = 180 or x 4+ y = 135. Sincemaestopeit
follows that y > 90. The answer is (A). In this prob-
AB= BC
lem you should not try to determine the answer from
the appearance of the figure because the note indi-
3. x y
cates that the figure is not drawn to scale.
Since AB = BC, the angles opposite AB and BC are
Column A Column B
equal and, therefore, x = y. The correct answer is
ar 6 SI

Column A Column B 7 vr-1 a

x-1
4, Eee Sic wena!
The condition x # 1 (read x is not equal to 1) is given
For any positive number x, the symbol Vx denotes because the algebraic fraction in Column A is not de-
the positive square root of x. The fact that V3 > fined for x = 1 (the denominator becomes zero). The
/2 leads to the conclusion that V3 — 1 > V2 —1. solution of this problem involves simplifying the frac-
The correct answer is (B). Note that x? = 9 has two tion in Column A as follows:
solutions, x = 3 orx = —3. However, V9 = Omenot
=
aos sas S17 a)(ackteri) aaa)
rams gre pe
Therefore, the quantity in Column A is equal to x + 1.
Since x + 1 is always greater than x, the answer is
(A).

28
 Column A Column B questions, punctuation marks such as the semicolon
8. Area of a triangle Area of a triangle or apostrophe are important in arriving at the correct
with altitude 4 with base 5 answer, but these questions primarily test the struc-
ture in which the punctuation appears.
To answer this question, you need to know how to A good way to prepare for the TSWE is to practice
find the area of a triangle. To find the area of a trian- writing and rewriting; pay particular attention to
gle, you need to know the length of a base and the clarity and effectiveness of expression. You might try
altitude to that base. You can’t find the “area of a writing for a teacher, parent, friend, or fellow student
triangle with altitude 4” without knowing the base, so who can respond directly to your writing. As with
the area of such a triangle could be any number de- the SAT, reading the sample questions and explana-
pending on the length of the base. Likewise, you can’t tions and taking the sample tests provided in this
find the “area of a triangle with base 5” without book will help you prepare for the TSWE. After
knowing the length of the altitude. Since you can’t youve taken and scored a sample test, look carefully
tell anything about the two areas, the correct answer at the questions you missed. Talk over those ques-
is (D). tions with your teachers and other students and look
up the portions of your textbooks that discuss writing
and problems in wording and sentence structure.
The Test of Standard
Written English Usage Questions EEE
The questions on the TSWE measure skills that are The questions in this section measure skills that are impor-
important to the kind of writing you will do in most tant to writing well. In particular, they test your ability to
college courses. In particular, the questions test your recognize and use language that is clear, effective, and correct
ability to recognize the kind of language essential to a according to the requirements of standard written English,
finished piece of writing — writing that would be the kind of English found in most college textbooks.
considered acceptable by most educated readers and
writers of American English. Directions: The following sentences contain problems in
grammar, usage, diction (choice of words), and idiom.
The TSWE is made up of 50 questions of two types:
usage questions ana sentence correction questions. Some sentences are correct.
The test is arranged in the following way: No sentence contains more than one error.

e 25 usage questions, You will find that the error, if there is one, is underlined and
e 15 sentence correction questions, and lettered. Assume that elements of the sentence that are not
e 10 more usage questions. underlined are correct and cannot be changed. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written
The questions in the TSWE ask you to recognize sev- English.
eral different types of language problems. If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must
be changed to make the sentence correct and blacken the cor-
© Use of basic grammar — for example, subject-verb responding space on your answer sheet.
agreement, agreement of pronouns with the nouns
If there is no error, blacken answer space €.
to which they refer, and the correct use of a verb
tense
EXAMPLE: SAMPLE ANSWER
e Sentence structure — for example, distinguishing O®D@eOQ©
between complete and incomplete sentences and The region has a climate so severe that plants
recognizing when the connections between parts of A
a sentence are clear and when they are not
growing there rarely had been more than twelve
B C
© Choice of words — for example, recognizing when
inches high. No error
words or phrases should be revised to make the D E
meaning of a sentence clear or to make the language
consistent with that normally expected of educated
writers. ; As you can see from the example, a usage question
consists of a sentence in which four short portions of
You will not be asked to define grammatical terms. the sentence are underlined and lettered, and a fifth
No questions test spelling or capitalization. In a few underline, “No error,” follows. Sometimes the under-

29
lined portion of the sentence is only a single word, as The four sample questions that follow originally ap-
in (D) above. In other cases it is a group of words or a peared in the TSWE. They are arranged in order of
phrase, as in (A),.(B), and (C). increasing difficulty. Together, the example question
For each question, you must decide whether one of and the four samples should give you a sense of the
the underlined portions must be changed to make the difficulty level of the questions you will be asked.
sentence acceptable in standard written English. In
the example above, the underlined portion lettered 1. One of the goals of women’s organizations
(C) must be changed because the verb has earlier in
the sentence leads the reader to expect are or possibly is to encourage projects that will make life easier for
have been. The tense of the verb at (C) must be B Cc D
changed to be consistent with the tense of has. There- working mothers. No error
fore, the correct answer to the example is (C). E
It is true that changes could be made in the other
underlined portions of the sentence in the example,
but none of those changes is necessary to make the Probably the first impression you get from reading
sentence acceptable. It is also true that the sentence the sentence is that nothing is really wrong with it.
could be corrected by changing has in the first part of But before you make a final decision, you should
the sentence to had, but in this type of question the look at the sentence again, especially at the under-
change must be made in a portion of the sentence that lined portions. The (A) portion, goals of, seems cor-
is underlined. Notice that if none of the underlined rect; of is the appropriate preposition for the context.
portions needed to be changed, the correct answer The (B) portion, is to encourage, is a little more com-
would be (E). By choosing (E) as the answer, you plicated but also seems correct; is is the appropriate
would be indicating that the sentence was correct as verb to use with one and to encourage is alright fol-
written. lowing is, even though encouraging might be nearly
Most usage questions test your ability to recognize as good. In (C), make is appropriate with the subject
problems in basic grammatical structure or in choice projects and is idiomatic in the expression make life
of words. Some usage questions also test problems in easier. In (D),.easier is a comparative form of easy
sentence structure. To give you a better sense of the and is used correctly, and for is the preposition that
variety of problems tested by usage questions, a few should follow it for the meaning intended.
more sample questions follow. Keep in mind the fol- Even though your analysis probably would not be
lowing suggestions as you work through the sample as extensive as this, you should do something fairly
questions. similar, quickly checking each underlined portion of
the sentence to make sure that each is acceptable as
For each question, read the entire sentence carefully written. For some portions, you might have been able
but quickly. to think of another way of writing the sentence, even
a way of improving it a little, but you probably de-
Go back over the sentence, looking at each under- cided that no changes were necessary in the under-
lined portion to see whether or not anything needs lined portions. At this point, you should have been
to be changed to make the sentence correct. able to decide on (E), No error, as the correct answer.
Keep in mind that some usage questions are correctly
v If you find an error, mark the space on your answer answered with (E).
sheet with the same letter as the underlined portion
with the error.
2. Probably the best-known baseball player of all time,
A B
~ If you don’t find an error, don’t waste time search-
ing for one. Mark the space for (E), No error, on Babe Ruth established a record for lifetime home runs that
your answer sheet to indicate that you believe the has only recently been broke. No error
sentence is correct as written. C D E

“In general, you should be able to move quickly You may have noticed when you read the question
through the usage questions on the test, since they for the first time that broke in (D) should be changed
do not involve much reading. If you mark the usage to broken. But if you didn’t see the error immediately,
questions you want to return to, you will be more or if you were not sure of it, you should look at the
likely to allow enough time for the sentence correc- sentence again, especially at the underlined portions.
tion questions, which probably will take more time In (A), probably is the appropriate adverb, in (B) of
per question. all time is an acceptable idiom and is used correctly,

30
and in (C) the adverbs only and recently are accepta- Sentence Correction Questions =
ble together, with only modifying recently. But at Directions: In each of the following sentences, some part or
(D), broke is clearly incorrect and needs to be all of the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence you
changed to make the sentence acceptable in standard will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the
written English. The complete and correct verb for answer that produces the most effective sentence, one that is
this part of the sentence is has been broken. With has clear and exact, without awkwardness or ambiguity, and
been, the only possible form of the verb break that blacken the corresponding space on your anwer sheet. In
can be used is broken. The correct answer is (D). choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard writ-
ten English. Choose the answer that best expresses the mean-
ing of the original sentence.
3. Many travelers claim having seen the Abominable
A Answer (A) is always the same as the underlined part. Choose
Snowman, but no one has proved that answer (A) if you think the original sentence needs no
B revision.
such a creature actually exists. No error
C D E
EXAMPLE: SAMPLE ANSWER
The answer is (A). In the context of this sentence, the O@GoOODO
verb claim requires the expression to have seen; claim Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was
having seen is not idiomatic in American English and sixty-five years old then.
is therefore not acceptable. The word but at (B) pro- (A) and she was sixty-five years old then
vides a link between the two major parts of the sen- (B) when she was sixty-five years old
tence and appropriately suggests a contrast between (C) at age sixty-five years old
the ideas they present. The expression at (C), such a (D) upon reaching sixty-five years
creature, and the adverb actually at (D) are correct, (E) at the time when she was sixty-five
although other expressions and adverbs could be sub-
stituted. Sentence correction questions present you with a sen-
tence and four possible revisions of it — (B), (C), (D),
4. The administration’s statements on economic policy or (E). The (A) version is always a repetition of the
A underlined portion of the original sentence. The un-
indicates that the elimination of hunger will be given first
derline in the original sentence tells you how much of
B C
priority. No error
the sentence will be revised in the other versions that
E are presented to you.
The example question above is a sentence in which
This question is more difficult than any of the others, the connection between the two major ideas is weak.
sO you may not immediately see the error in it. For a The use of and to join the two clauses suggests that
question as difficult as this one, you should be sure to the ideas are of equal importance in the sentence, but
look carefully at the underlined portions when you the wording and the ideas in the clauses themselves
reread the sentence. In (A), on is correct and idiom- suggest that the first idea should actually be the major
atic, though the word about could possibly be substi- point of the sentence and that the second should be
tuted. Similarly, the preposition of is idiomatic with secondary to it. Versions (B), (C), (D), and (E) all be-
elimination in (C), and elimination is itself the right gin with more appropriate connecting words, but (B)
word for the meaning implied by the rest of the sen- is the only one in which the second idea of the sen-
tence. In (D), will be given is correct in tense and uses tence is clearly, concisely, and idiomatically ex-
the correct form of the verb give. But indicates at (B) pressed. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
is incorrect; it is a singular verb and should not be The directions for the sentence correction questions
used with the plural subject statements. The singular tell you to look for the most effective sentence. In
noun policy before (B) may appear at first to be the some questions you may find a version of the original
subject of the sentence, but a good writer would sentence that has no grammatical errors, but that
eventually see that the real subject statements is plu- does not express the ideas of the sentence as effec-
ral and therefore requires the plural verb indicate. tively as another version. For other questions you
The correct answer is (B). may be able to think of a version you consider better
than any of the choices, but you should select the ver-
sion that is the best of those presented.
Sentence correction questions are primarily con-
cerned with problems of sentence structure. But

31
you'll also need to consider basic principles of gram- able to decide which version of the sentence was best
mar and word choice to decide which of the versions simply by reading through all of the choices. How-
makes the clearest and most effective sentence. For ever, to help you feel more certain of your choice and
example, some versions will be grammatically incor- to help you understand more fully how the decision
rect or the ideas in the sentence will be presented so can be made, it’s worth looking separately at each
awkwardly or imprecisely that they cannot be con- version. The (A) version, the same as the original sen-
sidered acceptable. You'll get a sense of the problems tence, has a problem similar to the one in the pre-
tested in the sentence correction questions from the vious example: and does not adequately convey the
discussion of the sample questions provided here. relationship between the two clauses in the sentence.
You'll also have an idea of the range of difficulty The (B) version has the same problem and an addi-
found in the questions, since the sample questions tional one: the use of being and playing makes it an
given here are arranged in order of increasing diffi- incomplete sentence. In the (C) version, playing
culty. To learn as much as possible from the sample seems at first to have corrected the original problem,
questions, you should read carefully the directions but the use of being gives the second idea no more
that appear before the example question above and importance than the first and also makes this version
approach the questions with the following sugges- an incomplete sentence. In (E), you can see that a
tions in mind. comma is used improperly as a means of connecting
two independent clauses. Thus, (D) is the only ac-
In each question, read the original sentence care-
ceptable version. In (D), the major point appears in
fully but quickly. Note the underlined portion of
the main part of the sentence and receives most em-
the sentence because that is the portion that may
phasis, while the less important point appears in the
have to be revised. Remember that the portion with
who clause and so is emphasized less.
no underline stays the same.
You won't need to analyze most of the sentence
v Keep in mind the portion of the original sentence correction questions in this much detail. You'll be
that stays the same when you read through each of able to make your decisions by reading through each
the versions presented. version and looking closely at one or two of them.
But you should use this approach for the questions
Decide which version seems best. If you can’t de-
that are most difficult for you, especially the ones
cide between two choices, go back and read each
you miss on the sample TSWE.
version you have chosen in the context of the entire
sentence.

¥ If you still feel uncertain about your answer, put a

2. After placing the meatballs in a pan, the cook sautéed them
mark next to that question in your test book and
until they were brown and then let them simmer in the
note which versions you thought might be correct. sauce.
You can return to the question later if you have
time. (A) and then let them simmer
(B) then they were simmered
(C) and then simmering it
(D) then letting them simmer
1. Althea Gibson was the first Black American to win major (E) and then the simmering was done
tennis championships and played in the 1950s.
You should have read the original sentence quickly,
(A) Althea Gibson was the first Black American to win ma- noting that the entire portion preceding the underline
jor tennis championships and played in the 1950s.
as well as the short phrase after the underline will be
(B) Althea Gibson, being the first Black American to win
the same in all versions of the sentence. The original
major tennis championships, and playing in the 1950s.
(C) Althea Gibson, playing in the 1950s, being the first sentence and choice (A) seem plausible, but you
Black American to win major tennis championships. should go on to the other versions before making a
(D) Althea Gibson, who played in the 1950s, was the first final decision. In the (B) version, the unexpected shift
Black American to win major tennis championships. from the cook as subject to they (the meatballs) is
(E) Althea Gibson played in the 1950s, she was the first awkward and somewhat confusing. The (C) version
Black American to win major tennis championships. uses simmering where simmered is needed to parallel
sautéed. Furthermore, the pronoun it does not seem
Here the original sentence is entirely underlined, so to refer back to anything named earlier in the sen-
you can expect the versions that follow to be revi- tence. In the (D) version, the use of letting rather than
sions of the whole sentence. let again neglects the parallel with sautéed. The (E)
This question is fairly easy. You may have been version is wordy and, like the (B) version, involves a

aZ
shift in which a passive construction replaces a more 4. The Dutch had been trading with the Orient since the six-
appropriate active one and in which the action is teenth century, their ships have visited Persia and Japan.
described without reference to the person responsible (A) century, their ships have visited
for it. Therefore, the best version of the sentence in (B) century while their ships had visited
this case is the original one, so the correct answer is (C) century, but their ships had been visiting
(A). (D) century, when their ships visited
(E) century, where their ships were visiting

The original sentence and the (A) version present two

3. Being as it was a full moon, the tides were exceptionally
problems. First, two independent statements are
high when the storm struck.
joined by a comma, with no indication of the rela-
(A) Being as it was a full moon tionship between them. Second, the tense of the verb
(B) With the moon as full have visited is not consistent with the tense of had
(C) Due to there being a full moon been trading earlier in the sentence. The (B) version
(D) The moon was full
may appear to be acceptable, but the relationship be-
(E) Because the moon was full
tween the ideas in the sentence is not the one implied
The problems most immediately apparent in this by while and the use of while makes the sentence il-
question are problems in wording. The (A) version, logical. Similarly, the (C) version appears plausible,
like the underlined portion in the original sentence, but the contrast implied by but is not appropriate to
uses Being as, an expression that is not considered the relationship between the two parts of the sen-
acceptable in standard written English. In addition, tence. The (D) version corrects both of the problems
the indirect it was construction introduces unneces- presented in the original sentence and is more logical
sary wordiness. The (B) version seems acceptable in than either (B) or (C). Notice that the tense of visited
itself, but leads the reader to expect a construction (as is consistent with the earlier verb had been trading. It
it was) different from the one that follows in the rest suggests that Dutch ships had traveled to Persia and
of the sentence. In the (C) version, due to is used in a Japan in the sixteenth century, and that such travel
manner that is generally considered unacceptable us- was part of a process of Dutch trade with the Orient
age, and there being introduces unnecessary wordi- that continued until some later, unspecified time. Ver-
ness. The (D) version is acceptable in its wording but, sion (E) resembles (D), except that where is substitu-
when combined with the rest of the sentence, results ted for when and were visiting for visited. Since the
in the unacceptable joining of two independent connection with century is clearly one of time rather
clauses with a comma. What is needed in this sen- than place, the use of where is not appropriate.
tence is an expression that is acceptable in good Futhermore, the use of were visiting would imply em-
written English and that accurately reflects the rela- phasis on visits occurring over a period of time. Such
tionship between the first and second parts of the sen- emphasis is not called for, because the purpose in this
tence. Version (E) solves the problem—the word be- part of the sentence is to describe the point at which
cause indicates that the fullness of the moon was the Dutch began trading with the Orient. Therefore,
causally related to the high tides described in the sec- (D) expresses most effectively the ideas in the two
ond part of the sentence. Therefore, (E) is the correct parts of the sentence as well as the relationship be-
answer. tween them. The correct answer is (D).

33
 The Sample Tests
The first SAT in this book (pages 37 - 61) is the actual ¢ Did you finish most of the questions in each sec-
test that was given on November 6, 1982. A complete tion? Although the last few questions in each sec-
TSWE also is included as part of this first test. (The tion usually are very difficult and are omitted by
experimental sections have been omitted because they many students, you might want to adjust your pac-
contain questions that may be used in future editions ing if you didn’t get to a large number of questions
of the test.) So that you will have an idea of what the at the end of each section.
actual test administration will be like, try to take this
¢ Did you make a lot of careless mistakes? Perhaps
test under conditions as close as possible to those of
you were rushing too fast and should slow down
the actual test. It probably will help if you:
your pace.
¢ Set aside two and one-half hours when you will not e Did you spend too much time on particular ques-
be interrupted so that you can complete all of the tions? Perhaps you should have moved on after
test in one sitting. (The first sample test contains a marking them in your text book (not the answer
TSWE in addition to the two verbal and two math- sheet) and gone back to them if you had extra time
ematical SAT sections, so two and one-half hours at the end of the section.
should be allowed for this test. The other sample
e Did you guess when you had eliminated some of
tests include only the SAT sections, so only two
the choices but weren’t sure of the answer? (Re-
hours should be allowed for these tests.)
member, although wild guessing probably won't
e Sit at a desk with no other papers or books. You affect your scores, you shouldn't be too cautious
can't take a calculator, a dictionary, other books, or either.)
notes into the test room.
e Were there particular types of questions that gave
e Have a kitchen timer or clock in front of you for you more difficulty than others? If so, you might
timing yourself on the sections. want to review the descriptions of those questions
in the beginning of this book and then practice
e Allow yourself only 30 minutes for each section of
again on one of the other sample tests in this book.
the test.
e Did you spend so much time reading directions that
e Tear out the practice answer sheet on page 35 and
you took time away from answering questions? If
fill it in just as you will on the day of the test.
you become thoroughly familiar with the test direc-
e Read the instructions on page 37. They are re- tions printed in this book, you won't have to spend
printed from the back cover of the test book. When as much time reading them during the test.
you take a test, you will be asked to read them be-
¢ Look at the specific questions you missed. Did you
fore you begin answering questions.
get caught by a choice that was only partly correct?
e After you finish the practice test, read “How To Figure out what step you overlooked in your
Score the Practice Test,” on page 62. reasoning.
For most students, practice on one or two sample
tests is enough. If, however, you still feel uneasy
Reviewing Your Performance about a particular type of question (or if you happen
to enjoy taking tests), you can work on some of the
Although you're probably most interested in your other tests in this book. Whatever you do, don’t
scores, you should spend some time after you take memorize answers. It’s highly unlikely that any of
this practice test reviewing your mistakes on actual these actual questions will be on a test you will take.
questions and also your overall approach to the test. But whenever you run across a word or an idea that’s
When you complete the test, ask yourself these new to you, be sure you learn what it means and how
questions: to use it.
 COLLEGE BOARD—SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only for compieting this answer sheet. Be sure
. P p each mark is dark and completely fills the intended ems
and Test of Standard Written English SIGHS cssistely etaselanylacters OF stray iiarkd. |
1. 5. YOUR NAME
YOUR NAME:
(Print) Last ’ First MI First 4 letters of last name

SIGNATURE:
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HOME ADDRESS: Fee
(Print) Number and Street
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shown on the back cover of your test book. USE ONLY D/O) OlOI@
2. TEST FORM 4. REGISTRATION NUMBER GD CONC 1COICO
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TEST CENTER
NUMBER NAME OF TEST CENTER ROOM NUMBER

IMPORTANT: The following codes are unique to your testbook. Copy them on your answer sheet exactly as shown.

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and Test of Standard Written English

You will have three hours to work on the questions in this test book, which is divided into six 30-minute
sections. The supervisor will tell you when to begin and end each section. If you finish before time is
called, you may check your work on that section, but you are not to work on any other section.
Do not worry if you are unable to finish a section or if there are some questions you cannot answer. Do
not waste time puzzling over a question that seems too difficult for you. You should work as rapidly as
you can without sacrificing accuracy.
Students often ask whether they should guess when they are uncertain about the answer to.a question.
Your test scores will be based on the number of questions you answer correctly minus a fraction of the
number you answer incorrectly. Therefore, it is improbable that random or haphazard guessing will change
your scores significantly. If you have some knowledge of a question, you may be able to eliminate one
or more of the answer choices as wrong. It is generally to your advantage to guess which of the remaining
choices is correct. Remember, however, not to spend too much time on any one question.
Mark all your answers on the separate answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each question. Since the
answer sheet will be machine scored, be sure that each mark is dark and that it completely fills the
answer space. In each section of the answer sheet, there are spaces to answer 50 questions. When there
are fewer than 50 questions in a section of your test, mark only the spaces that correspond to the question
numbers. Do not make stray marks on the answer sheet. If you erase, do so completely, because an
incomplete erasure may be scored as an intended response.
You may use the test book for scratchwork, but you will not receive credit for information written there.

(The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily
represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service.)

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL

THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.
 SECTIONAL
Time —30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. .moderate
1. WILT: (A) prevent (B) drain (C) expose (C) sophisticated. amateur (D) risqué. .crude
(E) perfect. spectacular
(D) revive (E) stick @DoOO®D

2. ISSUE: (A) dilute (B) revolve (C) depend

(Dy "subsstitintes (detract 16. He claimed that the document was ---- because it
merely listed endangered species and did not specify
3. PREMEDITATED: (A) spontaneous penalties for harming them.
(B) conclusive (C) disruptive (D) vindictive (A) indispensable (B) inadequate (C) punitive
(E) strenuous (D) aggressive (E) essential

4. SUMMARY: (A) bracing (B) accented 17. The author makes no attempt at ---- order; a scene
(C) detailed (D) animated (E) disconcerting from 1960 is followed by one from 1968, which,
in turn, is followed by one from 1964.
5. WOE: (A) honesty (B) obedience
(C) generosity (D) happiness (E) cleverness (A) an impartial (B) an innovative
(C) amotley (D) a chronological
6. RABID: (A) poignant (B) circular (E) an extemporaneous
C) skillful (D) d E) cal
(C)_ stalltyle> (D) dense Saeaca 18. Traditionally, countries with ---- frontiers requiring
7. AIR: (A) conceal (B) conform (C) detain ---- must maintain a large army and support it by
(D) mislead (E) satisfy imposing taxes.

8. CIRCUMSCRIBED: (A) unbounded “ age anaes

(B) imperfect (C) injurious 1 ole, SBGAan
D dil ded (E ly legibl hi
cD sessile evade AE) pbarelysleeible (D) unwanted. .elimination
9. RANCOR: (A) carelessness (E) contested. .estimation
(B) restlessness (C) inexperience
(D) kindness (E) self-consciousness 19. The ability to estimate distance comes only with -
----; a baby reaches with equal confidence for its

,
10. PERIPHERAL: (A) colossal (B) central bottle or the moon.
(C) condensed (D) subsequent (E) adjacent (A) tranquility (B) talent (C) experience

11. PROFUSION: (A) activity (B) cleanliness (D) assurance (FE) distress
(C) separation (D) adversity (E) scantiness 20. She undertook a population census of the island with
F the ----, if not always the enthusiastic support, of the
12. TURGID: (A) strong (B) glossy ee
(C) deflated (D) easily described
(E) haphazardly distributed (A) objection (B) elation (C) suspicion
’ (D) acquiescence (E) disdain
13. DISINTERESTED: (A) attractive (B) scholarly
(C) biased (D) abandoned (E) profitable

14. DISPARITY: (A) fearfulness (B) punctuality GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(C) prejudice (D) similarity (E) notoriety

15. GARNER: (A) disfigure (B) hedge

(C) connect (D) forget (E) disperse
38
Copyright © 1982 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. 7
Princeton, NJ 08541
 Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

One of the most significant political advances for pipe The career of E. A. Johnson is important to the
the Black community in New York was the election of main idea of the passage because it
Harlemites to legislative offices. In 1920, for the first
(A) illustrates a precedent in the acquisition of
time, a Black man, E. A. Johnson, was nominated by a
political power by Harlem Blacks
district organization for the state assembly. In electing
(B) exemplifies the new aggressive politics of
Johnson, Harlem Republicans chose a well-qualified
Blacks in the rural South
politician whose career symbolized a major transition in
(C) symbolizes the thwarted political ambitions
American history: the transfer of Black political power
of American Blacks
from the South to northern metropolitan centers.
(D) heralds the end of political subjugation of
Harlem was, until the early 1920’s, solidly residential,
Blacks in the South
. but the Black vote was split between assembly districts
(E) reflects the desire of Harlem Blacks for
which included substantial numbers of Jews in the Nine-
separation from the White community
teenth District and Irish in the Twenty-First, as well as
other ethnic groups. This unintentional gerrymander 235 According to the passage, Black representation in
forced Blacks to share power with White politicians. By the New York State Assembly before 1920 was
1920, after a decade of mass migration, Blacks composed hampered by the
seventy percent of the population of each district. Blacks
(A) solidly residential nature of the Black com-
were aided by an active two-party system in Harlem. Al-
munity
though most Blacks voted for Republicans, the United
(B) indifference of other ethnic groups
Colored Democracy was a special organization within the
(C) division of the Black vote between two districts
Democratic Party. Its leader, Ferdinand Q. Morton,
(D) inability of Black voters to agree on candidates
worked sympathetically with White Democratic bosses
(E) failure of Harlem voters to sponsor candidates
until 1935 when Mayor La Guardia, perhaps fortunately
for the growing spirit of independence among Harlem 24. It can be inferred that, beginning with 1932,
Blacks, deliberately broke Morton’s control of Black Harlem’s Black vote was
patronage.
Although Republican presidential candidates received (A) delivered by Ferdinand Q. Morton to the local
Democrats
Harlem’s Black vote until 1932, Democratic mayoralty
(B) split between two state assembly districts
candida’ e John Hylan polled an amazing seventy-five per-
(C) a point of controversy in all presidential
cent of that vote in 1921. Black Democrats had repre-
primaries
sented Harlem on the Board of Aldermen before the
(D) the controlling factor in the mayoral elections
twenties, but in 1922, with a landslide vote for Al Smith
in New York
for governor of New York, Harlem became the first Black
(E) frequently accorded to Democratic presidential
community in the nation to significantly support the
Democratic Party. No longer could politicians boast that
candidates
the Black vote could never be driven from the party of aos The author cites Harlem’s landslide vote for
Lincoln. Al Smith in 1922 as an illustration of the
After his victory in 1921, Hylan appointed Morton
chairman of the Civil Service Commission, the first time (A) desire of Harlemites to be free of political
a Black had held that important municipal post. Hylan’s bosses
successor, James J. Walker, reappointed Morton to the (B) Blacks’ ability to vote as a unit in spite of
post. In 1925, five Black physicians became, for the first gerrymandering
time, regular staff members of the Harlem Hospital. This (C) need for a two-party system in Harlem
was the result of prodding from Morton, Republican alder- (D) changing party alignment of Black voters in
men, the NAACP, and the North Harlem Medical Society. Harlem
And, after a decade of pressure, Black Republicans in the (E) fact that political analysts are often wrong in
state assembly forced the creation of a new administrative their predictions
entity by subdividing the old Seventh District. This inten-
tional gerrymander guaranteed the election of two Black
judges—another city first—to the municipal bench in 1929.

21. Which of the following titles best summarizes the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
content of the passage?
(A) The Black Migration to New York
(B) Harlem Politics in Transition
(C) The Black Vote in Presidential Elections
(D) Prominent Black Politicians
(E) The Black Vote and the Democratic Party
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. The ideas contained in them do not oe
necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the text suitable for testing purposes, we may
© in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.
l Studies of children’s acquisition of language suggest Ze Unlike a patient with Wernicke’s aphasia, a
that the faculty of language includes an inborn knowl- patient with Broca’s aphasia can do which of
edge of the formal principles of language structure, a the following?
knowledge that depends on genetically determined por- (A) Comprehend written but not spoken language.
tions of (usually) the left cerebral hemisphere. Although (B) Hear and read with comprehension.
it is well established that the left hemisphere is special- (C) Speak articulately and also comprehend
ized for language, one cannot say that language is spoken language.
“located” in this or that part of the hemisphere. (D) Write and speak readily and coherently.
What is known is that language disorders are the result (E) Neither write nor understand his or her
of lesions in the left hemisphere. Disorders of language native language.
resulting from damage to the brain are called aphasias.
The anterior portion of the “language area”’ is 28. According to the passage, which of the following
termed Broca’s area. Lesions in this area interfere statements about the right hemisphere of the
with the motor and articulatory aspects of language. brain is (are) accurate?
Speech is slow, labored, grammatically incorrect, and I. It has the potential to serve as a
telegraphic; in extreme cases, it may be impossible to “language area.”
carry Out. Writing is likewise severely impaired. Com- II. It controls the ability to comprehend but
prehension of the spoken or written word, however, not the ability to speak a language.
may be unimpaired or nearly so. (It is interesting to III. If it is damaged, gross motor control of
note that under emotional stress, a patient with Broca’s the left side of the body may be affected.
aphasia may be temporarily fluent.) Because Broca’s
(A) I only
area is close to the motor cortex, if the former is
(B) I and II only
damaged, the latter is often damaged simultaneously.
(C) I and III only
Hence, such patients often suffer from weakness or
(D) II and III only
paralysis of the right side of the body. Similar lesions
(E) I, I, and Ill
in the right hemisphere will cause a left-sided weakness
or paralysis but will have no effect on language. co: It can be inferred that aphasias in adults often
Damage to the posterior portion of the “language result in permanent damage because
area,” especially to Wernicke’s area, results in a loss of
(A) much memory is lost
comprehension of the spoken word and often of the
(B) adults have more trouble learning a foreign
written word. The patient’s native language is now like
language
a foreign language. In addition, the patient’s speech is
(C) the right hemisphere is no longer as adaptable
rapid and well-articulated, but without meaning. Writing
as it once was
is defective, and words that are heard cannot be re-
(D) brain cells in adults are especially vulnerable to
peated, although hearing itself is completely normal.
infection
Similar lesions in the right hemisphere usually have
(E) adults can readily become adept at nonverbal
no effect on language.
communication
Injuries to the “language area” in children result
in severe aphasias, but the development of language 30. It can be inferred that the author uses which of
mechanisms in the right hemisphere can often the following as evidence for the specialization of
compensate for them to an extraordinary degree. the left hemisphere?
This potential function of the right hemisphere is (A) Clinical studies of instances of damage in the
probably normally suppressed by the left hemisphere. left hemisphere {
In adults, aphasias from similar lesions are often (B) Studies of language development in children
permanent. without brain damage
(C) Microscopic examination of the left
26. The author is primarily concerned with hemisphere
(A) describing the process of language acquisition (D) Examples of the integration of functions of
(B) explaining potential treatments of language the left and right hemispheres
defects (E) Theoretical explanations of brain specialization
(C) showing the importance of the left hemisphere
of the brain to language mechanisms
(D) depicting various means of diagnosing
language defects
(E) explaining why the left hemisphere of the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
brain dominates the right hemisphere

40
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
l
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
cue Edward was rather ---- about what paintings were relationship similar to that expressed in
the original pair.
hung in his study, but, in contrast, was quite ---- Example:
about what furniture was in the room.
YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(A) fastidious. .indifferent
(B) anger:madness (C) smile :amusement
(B) inflexible. obstinate (D) face : expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(C) undecided. tentative CORO BO)
(D) demanding. .definite
(E) submissive. .timid 36. COW:BARN:: (A) pig:mud (B) chicken: coop
(C) camel: water (D) cat:tree
wee A curious self-interest, and not the concern for
(E) horse: racetrack
others which might have been expected, motivated
his ----. 37. LEAVE:LINGER:: (A) manipulate : manage
(A) ambition (B) malevolence (C) apathy (B) warrant:employ (C) surprise: astonish
(D) eccentricity (E) philanthropy (D) cease:prolong (E) flout: violate

538 The dinner was a culinary -----, confirming to all 38. NOTES:SCALE:: (A) solos: harmony
its partakers the reputed ---- of the host. (B) sentences: punctuation (C) attitudes: fact
(A) orgy..extravagance (D) fractions:numerator (E) letters: alphabet
(B) escapade. .conventionality 39. APPAREL:PERSON:: (A) plumage: bird
(C) tragicomedy. expertise (B) prey:animal (C) water: fish
(D) classic. ineptitude (D) insignia: officer (E) scenery: theater
(E) nightmare. infallibility
40. SONG:RECITAL:: (A) author: bibliography
34. One of the paradoxes of life is the friction between (B) episode:series (C) coach:team
our hunger for ---- and our grudging ---- that there is (D) intermission: play (E) poetry: prose
indeed nothing new under the sun.
(A) variety. .denial
41. ANALGESIC:PAIN::
(B) infamy..acceptance (A) vaccination : injection
(C) novelty..awareness (B) anesthetic: sleep
(D) security. .insistence (C) antidote : poisoning
(E) conformity. .admission (D) prescription : medication
(E) liniment: ointment
3, If improved technology enables researchers to per-
42. FEINT:ILLUSION::
form more refined experiments, startling evidence
may be uncovered that will lead to the ---- of even
(A) insanity : hallucination
(B) decoy :enticement
_ the most sacrosanct of scientific theories.
(C) ambush: cache
(A) tempering (B) diagnosing (C) utilization (D) impasse :exit
(D) supposition (E) formulation (E) ploy : vengeance
43. BURNISH:LUSTER:: (A) resist: aggression
(B) preserve:area (C) accelerate: rapidity
(D) pivot:reflex (E) plunge: distance

44. HEIRLOOM:INHERITANCE::
(A) payment:currency (B) belongings: receipt
(C) land:construction (D) legacy: bill
(E) booty: plunder

45. PHILISTINE:CULTIVATED::
(A) regionalist : authoritarian
(B) anarchist : disorderly
(C) capitalist :greedy
(D) visionary :practical
(E) eccentric: artistic

poled
Bee 1Bia
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
4]
 SECTION 2
Time
—30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 2mr C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB XCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A D B (1) area of AABC = 5)
<— is less than \| is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

LOSE Sexe yi eoehrs, then Vacs 3. If x =-3 and y=0,then xy+l=

(A) 25M (B)! PN Aik(C) ey Se sR aE ge (A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 0
(BE) 73
Xo Naya
y? 4. The number 99,999,999 is NOT divisible by

(Ayo. (B) Lacy soo

(D) 111 (E) 9,999
2. In the figure above, two lines intersect as shown.
What is the value of x ?

(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 120 (E) 180

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
 5. If the days of a month are numbered consecutively
backward as shown on the partial calendar above,
on what day of the week will the day numbered 1
occur?

(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday

(D) Friday (E) Saturday

- x > Questions 7-8 refer to the following price list.

a — Sa
a PLACE SETTING OF TABLEWARE

6. In the figure above, a 5-meter pole and a 3-meter

pole are tied together so that the length of the over-
lapping portion is 2 meters. What is the length x of

iis
the two poles combined in this way? Salad plate $2.45

ee
(C) 6

m
Per [so
7. Charles bought one of each of the 5 items listed.
What was the average (arithmetic mean) price per
item for the 5 items?

(A) $2.00 (B) $2.21 (C) $2.29

(D) $2.32 (E) $2.39

8. If the price of each item in the list above is reduced

by 10 percent during a sales promotion, which of
the following is the amount of money saved by
purchasing 8 saucers at the sale price?

(A) $1.52 (B) $1.73 (C) $13.68

(D) $15.20 (E) $17.00

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

43
 Of the following numbers, which is the LEAST? 14. Points A,B, X,and Y lie on the same line but
not necessarily in that order. Given the lengths
(A) 0.102 AB = 12, BX =2,and XY = 8,what is
(B) 0.11 length AY ?
(C) 0.1201
(D) 0.101 (A) 2
(E) 0.1001 (B) 6
(C) 18
(D) 22
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

Eas When x is divided by 7, the remainder is 4. What

is the remainder when 2x is divided by 7 ?

In the figure above, one side of the square is a (A)1 (B)2 ©) 3 @M)4 5
diameter of the circle. If the area of the circle
is p and the area of the square is s, which of
B

Li
the following must be true?

If Ky Bap
il sor
ONS ye am x 2x mis

(A) None (B) Ionly (C) Il only 16. In AABC above, what is the length of side AC?
(D) Ilonly (E) IandIl
(A) 24 (B) 18 (C) 12 (D) 8
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
List. Poe Ls35050 given.
List II: 2,4, 6,8

Le For how many different ordered pairs, (x,y), where

Whe If one hundred equally priced tickets cost a total
x isanumber from List I and y is a number from
of d dollars, then, in terms of d, five of these
List[lop issexetyess Ilia?
tickets cost how many dollars?
(A) Nine (B) Seven (C) Six
(D) Four (E) Three
(a) 4
(B)
i2Z, If a and 5 are even integers, which of the follow-
ing must be true? (C) 5d
marl .
5 is odd.
(D)
lisa= bis even:

Ill. a+b is divisible by 2. (E) ale

alg
(A) III only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) 1, HI, and If

If x*-y? = 27, then 3(x + y\(x-y)= GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(A) 9 (B) 24 (C) 27° (D) 36 (E) 81
 2
ae 2 and == =s which of the following
y 3 Z 2
4 must be true?

I ==-1
2-4 S z
Il, 3p =o
18. In the figure above, what is the area of AABC?
Ik. (x 44z)7=,0
(A) 12
(B) 14 (A) None (B) Ionly (C) I only
(C) 16 (D) III only (E) I and Ill
(D) 24
(E) 28
A

19. In a certain period, an agency’s editors read 4 out of

every 20 scripts submitted. What was the ratio of
unread scripts to scripts read during that time?

(A) 3:4 G D
(B) 4:5
23: In the figure above, points A,B,C,D,and FE divide
(C) 5:4
the circle into 5 equal arcs. If the area of the circle
(D) 4:1
is 257, what is the length of are CDE ?
(BE) S21
(A) 27
(B) 47
(C) St
(D) 87
(E) 107

24. If x isan odd number, what is the sum of the next

two odd numbers greater than 3x + 1?

(A) 6x + 8
(B) 6x + 6
20. In the figure above, what is y in terms of x ? (C) 6x +5
(D) 6x + 4
meta, Ot x (E) 6x+ 3
(B) 90+ 2x
C) 180-
oD 180 - ee 25. Inarace, if Bob’s running speed was : Alice’s, and
(E) 2x Chris’s speed was 2 Bob’s, then Alice’s speed was
h ti the ithmetic mean) of
40 Ten people meet and everybody shakes hands Sire ne aueraeg lecithin )
exactly once with everybody else. What is the the other two runners’ speeds?
total number of handshakes? A . We 6 .

(A)9 (B) 10 (C) 45 (D) 50 (£) 90 Ce eee CaO irre),

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

45
 SECTION 4
Time —30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, 7. IMPUGN: (A) speak well of
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the (B) describe in detail (C) forget to complete
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning (D) disassociate (E) stimulate
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques-
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, 8. A thiue
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. (By apa

seals (C) prevent delivery of

GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red (D) reaffirm belief in
(D) hot (E) ugly Speen (E) accept remuneration for

9. DEPRAVITY: (A) talent (B) certainty

(C) noble behavior (D) successful venture
1. VERSATILE: (A) unadaptable (B) mediocre (E) elaborate decoration
(C) impatient (D) egocentric (E) vicious
10. EPHEMERAL: (A) lasting (B) inhumane
2. FRAUDULENT: (A) rather pleasing (C) contemporary (D) destructive
(B) extremely beneficial (C) courteous (E) appropriate
(D) authentic (E) simplified

3. PROTRUSION: (A) mirage (B) indentation

(C) deceleration (D) disorder (E) fruitlessness

4. BOLT: (A) cleanse

(D) move sluggishly
(B) slide (C) look upon
(E) exhibit proudly
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
5. ANTIQUATED: (A) fake (B) flat
(C) modern (D) secret (E) applied

6. SNIPPET: (A) vague response (B) bargain

(C) sudden plunge (D) fantasy
(E) large amount
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
4
Each question below consists of a related pair of words
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
Choose the word or set of words that best fits the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example:
YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself (B) anger:madness (C) smile :amusement
is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced, (D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
and altogether ----. ®Odeqooe
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude 16. PAINTING:CANVAS:: (A) drawing: lottery
(E) perfect. spectacular eau'e'o (B) fishing:pond (C) writing: paper
(D) shading:crayon (E) sculpting: design

17. VOLUME:SPHERE:: (A) altitude: triangle

11. Inthe North Pacific, the number of whales has been
(B) diagonal:square (C) area:circle
so drastically reduced that the sighting of even one
(D) angle:rectangle (E) length: cube
is ---- event.
(A) anewsworthy (B) a treacherous 18. RAMSHACKLE:COLLAPSE::
(C) aneveryday (D) an elaborate (A) intact:explode (B) threadbare: hem
(E) an expected (C) waterlogged:sink (D) dilapidated: repair
(E) flammable: quench
12. Musicians’ salaries have risen so much faster than
concert admission prices and donations that some 19. TRICK:ROGUE:: (A) stratagem: friend
famous ---- are threatened with ----. (B) sentence:criminal (C) accident: witness
(D) conspiracy:traitor (E) novel:reader
(A) composers. .silence
(B) orchestras. bankruptcy 20. CALIPERS:MEASURING:: (A) nails: hammering
(C) works. oblivion (B) crops:harvesting (C) glasses: polishing
(D) conductors. strikes (D) decisions: weighing (E) scissors: cutting
(E) soloists. taxation
21. WHEEDLE:FLATTERY::
13. In view of the ---- value of the new treatment for (A) inspire:creations (B) intimidate: threats
this complicated case, ---- with another physician is (C) scrutinize:clues (D) accuse: denials
advisable. (E) appreciate : offers
(A) questionable. .a consultation 22. CACOPHONY:SOUND::
(B) necessary..an interlude (A) beauty :vision
(C) accepted. .an exploration (B) stench: smell
(D) impossible..a confrontation (C) decadence :age
(E) presumed..an argument (D) radiance: illumination
14. Parental devotion, especially if overly solicitous, (E) ignorance : knowledge
has its ----, one of which is ---- a child’s progress 232) LECHER? LUSTEULS:
toward maturity. (A) glutton:surly (B) fanatic: ungodly
(A) delusions. envisioning (C) skinflint: miserly (D) disciplinarian: unruly
(B) excesses. abetting (E) spendthrift :homely
(C) targets. ensuring
24. INSOLVENCY:FUNDS:: (A) economy: inflation
(D) rewards. .ameliorating
(B) coinage:money (C) exhaustion: energy
(E) pitfalls. .protracting
(D) addiction:cure (E) liquidity: cash
15. Chesnutt enables the reader to witness the people’s
25. SCOFF:DERISION::
conscious ---- of history, to observe how one group
(A) soothe: mollification
in society could ---- turn its back on the truth.
(B) slander:repression
(A) manipulation. .inadvertently (C) swear: precision
(B) suppression. .accidentally (D) stimulate :appearance
(C) investigation. .blithely (E) startle: speediness
(D) -distortion. .willfully
(E) tabulation. .involuntarily

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

47
4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

My grandmother’s notorious pugnacity did not confine Mars revolves around the Sun in 687 Earth days,
itself to the exercise of authority over the neighborhood. which is equivalent to 23 Earth months. The axis of
There was also the defense of her house and her furniture Mars’s rotation is tipped at a 25° angle from the plane of
against the imagined encroachments of visitors. With my its orbit, nearly the same as the Earth’s tilt of about 23°
grandmother, this was not the gentle and tremulous pro- Because the tilt causes the seasons, we know that Mars
tectiveness of certain frail people who infer the fragility goes through a year with four seasons just as the Earth
of all things from the brittleness of their own bones and does.
hear the crash of mortality in the perilous tinkling of a From the Earth, we have long watched the effect of
teacup. No, my grandmother’s sentiment was more auto- the seasons on Mars. In the Martian winter, in a given
cratic: she hated having her chairs sat in or her lawns hemisphere, there is a polar ice cap. As the Martian spring
stepped on or the water turned on in her sinks, for no comes to the Northern Hemisphere, for example, the
reason but pure administrative efficiency; she even grudged north polar cap shrinks and material in the planet’s more
the mailman his daily promenade up her sidewalk. Her temperate zones darkens. The surface of Mars is always
home was a center of power, and she would not allow it mainly reddish, with darker gray areas that, from the
to be insulted by easy or democratic usage. Under her Earth, appear blue green. In the spring, the darker regions
jealous eye, its social properties had withered and it func- spread. Half a Martian year later, the same process hap-
tioned in the family structure simply as a political head- pens in the Southern Hemisphere.
quarters. Family conferences were held there, consulta- One possible explanation for these changes is bio-
tions with the doctor and the clergy; unruly grandchildren logical: Martian vegetation could be blooming or spread-
were brought there for a lecture or an interval of thought- ing in the spring. There are other explanations, however.
taking; wills were read and loans negotiated. The family The theory that presently seems most reasonable is that
had no friends, and entertaining was held to be a foolish each year during the Northern Hemisphere springtime, a
and unnecessary courtesy required only by the bonds of a dust storm starts, with winds that reach velocities as high
blood relationship. Holiday dinners fell, as a duty, on as hundreds of kilometers per hour. Fine, light-colored
the lesser members of the organization: sons and daugh- dust is blown from slopes, exposing dark areas underneath.
ters and cousins respectfully offered up baked alaska on a If the dust were composed of certain kinds of materials,
platter, while my grandparents sat enthroned at the table, such as limonite, the reddish color would be explained.
and only their digestive processes acknowledged the festal
nature of the day. 29. It can be inferred that one characteristic of limonite
is its
26. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to (A) reddish color
(B) blue green color
(A) review childhood impressions and fears
(B) mourn the vanishing unity of the nuclear family
(C). ability to change colors
(D) ability to support rich vegetation
(C) create a vivid portrait of a strong personality
(D) revive the memory of a dimly recalled ancestor (E) tendency to concentrate into a hard surface
(E) commend some of a grandmother’s firmly held 30. According to the author, seasonal variations on
principles Mars are a direct result of the
27. It can be
inferred from the passage that all of the (A) proximity of the planet to the Sun
following are characteristic of the author’s grand- (B) proximity of the planet to the Earth
mother EXCEPT (C) presence of ice caps at the poles of the planet
(A) desire for order (D) tilt of the planet’s rotational axis
(B) pride in authority (E) length of time required by the planet to revolve
(C) disdain for sentiment around the Sun
(D) reluctance to compromise 31. It can be inferred that, as spring arrives in the
(E) jealousy of youth Southern Hemisphere of Mars, which of the
28. The tone of the passage is best described as following is also occurring?

(A) sympathetic and sentimental (A) The northern polar cap is increasing in size.
(B) restrained and cautious (B) The axis of rotation is tipping at a greater angle.
(C) apathetic and aloof (C) A dust storm is ending in the Southern
(D) satirical and candid Hemisphere.
(E) bitter and loathing (D) The material in the northern temperate zones
is darkening.
(E) Vegetation in the southern temperate zones is
decaying.

48
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
 4
Heresy was a profoundly troublesome problem 833), The author refers to Manichaeanism (line 12) chiefly
for Christians in twelfth- and thirteenth-century in order to
Europe. Heretics were those who deliberately
(A) contrast Manichaeans with the Catharists of
Line dissented from accepted Christian belief and repu-
the Middle Ages
(5) diated ecclesiastical authority in matters of faith.
(B) define what is meant by heresy in the con-
Differences in belief had disturbed the unity of the
text of this discussion
Christian Church from its beginning and had con-
(C) emphasize that heresy has always been a prob-
tributed to the split between Constantinople and
lem for the Christian church
Rome. But Western Christendom had never con-
(D) show that the beliefs of the Catharists had a
(10) fronted a large-scale attack on its unity before the
precedent
twelfth century. Essentially, the threat was a
(E) demonstrate the consistency of the established
revival in a new form of Manichaeanism, an old
Christian doctrine
heresy condemned by Church leaders in early
medieval centuries. There had always been 34. It can be inferred that each of the following applies
(15) Christians who, from an orthodox point of view, to the perfecti EXCEPT that they
had put too great an emphasis on the problem of
(A) received the veneration of their followers
evil. The Catharists, as the late-medieval Mani-
(B) enjoyed luxuries denied to their followers
chaeans were called, went even further and deified
(C) rejected the sacrament of marriage
the principle of evil as an actual god of darkness.
(D) should not have had need of the consola-
(20) For them God was spirit and Satan was matter, and
mentum
the two were engaged in a cosmic struggle in which
(E) were deeply concerned with spiritual matters
humanity must take part. The body, particularly its
sexual aspect, was to be denied. The perfecti, or BG According to the passage, one way in which Catharist
leaders, were expected to live entirely without sin. doctrine differed from accepted Christian belief
(25) For the mass of believers the chief duty was rever- was the Catharist notion that Christ
ence toward the perfecti. Catharists rejected the
(A) was not free from sin
Christian doctrine of the incarnation, believing
(B) demanded that humans live without pleasure
that Christ could not have appeared in the corrupt
(C) did not assume human form
human body. They also rejected the sacraments. (D) rejected the performance of sacraments
(30) In their religion there was one sacrament only, the (E) overemphasized the problem of evil
consolamentum, a \ast absolution for sin usually
administered just before death.

Pa The passage is primarily concerned with pre-

senting the
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) conflicts that led to the decline of the Middle
Ages
(B) difficulty Christianity has had with heresy
throughout its history
(C) origins of the belief in the split between mind
and body
(D) beliefs of the Catharists in relation to those of
the established Western church
(E) development of the Catharists from their pre-
decessors, the Manichaeans

49
4
Certain economists have criticized advertising as 36. The primary purpose of the passage is to
economically wasteful. Most of these attacks usually (A) criticize advertising as economically wasteful
concentrate on competition in advertising. Other attacks (B) describe and discuss effective advertising
focus on the relative cost of advertising as a percentage strategies
of sales. Sometimes an arbitrary percentage, such as (C) find fault with various arguments that have been
5 percent of total sales, is selected as the dividing line made against advertising
between “high” and more “reasonable” levels of expendi- (D) persuade consumers to pay more attention to
ture. Such cutoff points are meaningless, however, since advertising
the proper relative expenditure for advertising is a function (E) define and describe counteradvertising and the
of the product’s characteristics. It is not an accident that range of effects it has had
relative advertising costs are highest for low-priced items
that are available from many retail outlets and are subject 37. According to the fourth paragraph, some economists
to frequent repeat purchases (for example, soaps, soft feel that certain products detract from the general
drinks, cigarettes, etc.). well-being because they
Particularly criticized as wasteful are emotional (A) decrease the demand for public services
appeals, persuasion, and “tug-of-war” advertising when (B) cost the consumer more than they are worth
it appears that their main effect is to shift sales among (C) are attractive to only a small segment of the
firms rather than to-increase the total sales volume of the public
industry. In such cases, it has been charged that advertising (D) increase the necessity for businesses to employ
departs from its main function, which is to inform con- expensive counteradvertising
sumers. However we must bear in mind that in a competi- (E) divert money that might have been spent on
tive economy such as ours, a company must try to per- social improvements
suade consumers to buy its goods rather than someone
else’s and that unsold goods are not being put to use.
Sometimes critics claim that if advertising succeeds
in expanding the total demand for a product, the result
is a shift of demand from other products, the producers
of which will then be forced to advertise to attempt to GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
recover their position. The net result of such ‘“‘counter-
advertising” is to add to costs and to prices. But all
increases in demand do not necessarily represent a diver-
sion from other products. Thus, an expanded demand for
new products can be accompanied by an increase in
income and in purchasing power flowing from their
production.
Another claim is that advertising is wasteful because
it is said to create useless or undesirable wants at the ex-
pense of things for which there is greater social need.
When advertising makes consumers want and buy such
products as powerful automobiles with fancy racing stripes
and large, ostentatious swimming pools, critics argue, there
is less money available to improve public hospitals, build
better schools, or combat juvenile delinquency.
These criticisms of socially undesirable wants are value
judgments reached by some economists on the basis of
their own subjective standards. The real question is who
is to decide what is good for consumers and what they
should purchase? In a free economy, there is a wide
diversity in opinion as to what combinations of goods
_ and services should be made available. Each one of us
must decide what purchases will yield the greatest satis-
factions. We may be misled on occasion by popular fads,
advertising, or even advice from friends. But these deci-
sions, in the final analysis, are made by the buyers and not
by the advertisers, as the latter have so often discovered to
their regret.

50
 4
38. Which of the following best expresses the author’s 40. With which of the following statements about
reaction to those who argue that advertising con- marketing would the author most probably agree?
tributes to the formation of socially undesirable I. Emotional appeal does not necessarily
consumer demands?
constitute an unfair advertising practice.
(A) The critics do not independently formulate II. Buyers should be allowed to choose the
the criteria they employ. kinds of products they want to purchase.
(B) The arguments used by the critics are not based III. The consumer needs to be legally protected
on appropriate standards. against certain forms of advertising.
(C) Too few economists have input in determining
(A) I only
what the ideal components of a desirable
(B) II only
market should be.
(C) Ill only
(D) The theories of these critics cannot predict (D) I and II only
trends in the popularity of a product.
(E) I and III only
(E) Businesses are not likely to spend too much
money on ineffective advertising.

32: The author apparently feels that which of the fol-

lowing is most important for our economy?
(A) Laws that regulate advertising
(B) A better understanding of advertising strategies
(C) Freedom for advertisers and consumers
(D) A better evaluation of consumer needs
(E) Objective standards for rating the quality of
goods

So laeOee
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

ey
 SECTION)
Time —30 minutes

35 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = r?; Circumference = 27r C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB XCD
# is unequal to >= is greater than or equal to A D B (1) area of AABC = eet
<_ is less than || is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

Wee eihy 2 i me
5 2, then x = 6. Asset of numbers P is called “heavier” than a set of
numbers Q if every number in P is exactly twice
(Ay. 0 (By 9(C)a (Deo ues some number in Q. If P= {2,6, 10, 14}, then
P is “heavier” than which of the following?
2. A triangle with sides of lengths 4, 8, and 9 has the
same perimeter as an equilateral triangle with side (A) {5: Ee Sy +}
of length 252° 2° 2

(A) S7e5(B)c6. a(Cla6- we(Dinlam(E) ar

(C) {35437}

3ealf x=o and 10x = 14,then p= (DOG. ees

(A) 28 (2) 44442720, 285,

(B) 14
(cy 7. Ina certain city, the average (arithmetic mean) of
(D) 5 the high temperature readings for four days was
(E) 2 63°F. If the high temperature readings on the
first three days were 62°F, 56°F, and 68° F,
4. If 14is5 more than x and 12 is 3 less than y, then respectively, what was the high reading on the
x-y,= fourth day in degrees Fahrenheit?

(A) 24 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D)-2 (E) -6 (A) 70 (B) 66 (C) 63 (D) 62 (E) 58
5. The memory capacity of one microcomputer is
4K bytes, whereas a larger computer has a memory
capacity of 32K bytes (K = 1,024). The memory
capacity of the larger computer is how many times
that of the smaller?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) 6
(B) 6K
(C) 8
(D) 8K
(E) 28

52
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D_ if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,m, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES
Column A Column B Column A Column B

El. yp ans) rar

y 1

13. The value of 3y? - 2x 0

A triangle has angles with measures x°, 100°,

and %Zi%

14. 90 ig
Column A Column B
15s a(b + ce) DiniaG
8. 0) OX 2
Viste
9. aap PS a= 5 0

; 16 35 y

J)
sae
ik- 30+
9

Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 710°\x° Q,

On segment AD, length AB is not equal to .

length CD. 2 Q2
10. Length AC Length BD
Q, 12,
When a certain pitcher contains 3 cups of water, the 17. x + 40 y
pitcher contains half its capacity.

11. The capacity,

in cups, 6 cups = OO a aes
of the pitcher The numbers -1, 0, 1 repeat in a sequence as shown.

12. The cost of astereothat The cost of a television 18. The 34th number in the 0
is marked “15% off” | _set that is marked “20% sequence
oft”

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

53
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

19. A speed of one meter A speed of 60 meters B Exte

per second per hour

A D

ABCD isa rectangle.

24. Perimeter of AABE Perimeter of AAED

2n +1 isa multiple of 3 and n isa positive

The sum of the three numbers in the column is equal integer less than 10.
to the sum of the three numbers in the row,
De n 5
20. x w

The ratio of Tina’s weight to Rita’s weight is 3:2.

The ratio of Rita’s weight to Maria’s weight is 1:2.

g41G Tina’s weight Maria’s weight

\ 26. Area of square ABCD 10

\ y, x is called a “perfect hypercube” if x = y* and

D y isa positive integer.

The two circles have centers A and C, respectively, 21a Pe Beno ees ;
and diameter of length x. B and D are the points BUENO
; 3 1,000
of intersection of the two circles.

22. Perimeter of quadrilat- 2X

eral ABCD

ae xe
x>y GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
aos a3 1

54 :
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
5
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
*
28. The number of seniors at East High School is =3
the number ofjuniors and the number ofjuniors is
2 the number of sophomores. What is the number
of seniors if the total enrollment for the three
classes is 360 ?
; 33. If the wedge above is half of a rectangular solid,
Werou. (B) 120 “(C) 100 what is the total surface area of this wedge in square
(D) 80 (E) 60 | centimeters?

Questions 29-30 refer to the operation defined by the (A) 68 + 14

equation a®@b=ab ta. (B) 68 + 46
wot 4 = (C) 6V68 + 14
(A) = (D) 3/68 + 46
(B) 12 (E) 6/68 + 46
(Cy715
io . 34. Jim is now twice as old as Polly. In 2 years Jim will
be n years old. In terms of n, how old will Polly
30. If 4¢6=x@5,then x= pare
G)

Ae n
~3 @¢
14
© 24 Ms «>6 he
(Bee
n
won

n
(C) 5 42

(D); nh?

(E) 2n

35. The price of a shirt, after it was reduced 20 percent,

31. " ooae er - a ation ce ib 4 pate CHE was the price of the shirt be-
) ore the reduction?
could have coordinates (r, s)?
| See ey nes (A) $1.80P (B) $1.25P (C) $1.20P
meee EP EOC) Coe (D) DS (B) (D) $0.80P (E) $0.75P
32. If 3=b%*,then 3b must equal
(A) p**}

(B) px*2

(C) px*3

(D) b2*

(E) p3*

See lie): 3k
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

55
 SECTION 6
Time —30 minutes
50 QUESTIONS

The questions in this section measure skills that are important to writing well. In particular, they test your ability to
recognize and use language that is clear, effective, and correct according to the requirements of standard written English,
the kind of English found in most college textbooks.

Directions: The following sentences contain problems in grammar, usage, diction (choice of words), and idiom.

Some sentences are correct.

No sentence contains more than one error.

You will find that the error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. Assume that elements of the sentence that are not
underlined are correct and cannot be changed. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.

If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct and blacken the
corresponding space on your answer sheet.

If there is no error, blacken answer space © .

EXAMPLE: SAMPLE ANSWER

The region has a climate so severe that plants O®D@OQDo

A
growing there rarely had been more than twelve
C
inches high. No error
D E

1. Most people listen to the weather forecast every day, 4, Charter flights, although much less expensive than

but they know hardly nothing about the forces scheduled travel, isEa ee for late takeoffs

ie influence the eae No — and other cheery No error

D E D E

2. Him and the other delegates immediately accepted 5. Many women reenter the job market when their

ierasa drafted by the ea states. youngest children started kindérparten =

Naveaer D C D E

E 6. After facing so many groups of angry people,

3. The foundations of psychoanalysis were established satinLuther King, Jr. became sccustumed to
by Sigmund F er who begun to develop his confrontations that were unpredictable and even

theories a the 1880’s. Noeno 5 potentially explosive, No

eno 4

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

56
 6
During the early Middle Ages, before the develop- 13; In contrasting to the popular view, the
A A
ment of the printing press, virtually the only books characteristic way of life of many Native
B B
were those that are laboriously copied by monks. American peoples was neither nomadic nor
C D
No error warlike. No error
E i

The decision that has just been agreed with by the 14. Until recently, Americans drank five cups of
A B A B
committee members should serve as a basis for their coffee for every cup of tea, but now they are
(¢
work in the years to come. No error drinking more of it. No error
D E D E

In her novels, Nella Larson focused on the problems 15: All our neighbors are wondering what the govern-
A
of young black women which lived in Europe and ment will do about the raising gasoline prices and the
: B C B
America during the 1920’s. No error shortage of oil. No error
D E D E

10. As general supervisor, Ms. Rodriguez expects her 16. There are certain areas of the southern United States
A A B
staff to work as carefully and as hard the way she where snow has never fallen. No error
B (% D C D E
herself does. No error
17. When Pele was playing soccer, he was as talented as,
A B
it: People who dislike cats sometimes criticize them or more talented than, baseball or basketball.
A G D
for being aloof and independent; people who are No error
B E
fond of cats often admire them for the same
GC D 18. The needs of children often are not taken
qualities. No error A B
E into account in the design of public buildings
C
12. - Only a few feet beyond those abandoned nor residential areas. No error
A B D E
and crumbling buildings stand a beautiful
C D
cluster of weeping willow trees. No error
E

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

eve
 19. In a recent created wildlife refuge, the birds Zon Astronomy and astrology are both concerned in
A B
are now building their nests, thereby the heavenly bodies, but their purposes and
B C
greatly changing the ecology of the area. methods are quite different. No error
D D E
No error
E 24. As the discussion between the two candidates
A
Because flashes of light distract them, entertainers continued, they spoke more and more loudly
A B Cc
often request that people with a camera refrain from and with less and less dignity. No error
B C D
taking pictures during performances. No error
E pay The doctor lived in the tropics for three years

213 Color blindness may handicap one in some before he was inflicted by malaria. No error
C D E
respects, but you can still function normally
B C
in almost all situations you encounter. No error
D E

22. Rising at a rate of ten inches per hour, the Red River
A B GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
soon posed a serious threat to the residents of the
C D
valley. No error
E

58
 6
Directions: In each of the following sentences, some part or all of the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence you will
find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer that produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear
and exact, without awkwardness or ambiguity, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. In choosing
answers, follow the requirements of standard written English. Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the
original sentence.

Answer (A) is always the same as the underlined part. Choose answer (A) if you think the original sentence needs no revision.

EXAMPLE: SAMPLE ANSWER

Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book D@OOQOo

and she was sixty-five years old then.
(A) and she was sixty-five years old then
(B) when she was sixty-five years old
(C) at age sixty-five years old
(D) upon reaching sixty-five years
(E) at the time when she was sixty-five

26. Because dodo birds could not fly, so they were 29. Violin makers know that the better the wood is
killed by the hogs and monkeys brought to the seasoned, the better the results for the tone of the
islands by the explorers. instrument.
(A) fly, so they were killed (A) better the results for the tone of the instrument
(B) fly, they were killed (B) better the tone of the instrument
(C) fly and they were killed (C) better the result is for the instrument’s tone
(D) fly, and this allowed them to be killed (D) resulting tone will be better
(E) fly, killing them (E) result will be a better instrument tone

vaE Performing before an audience for the first time, 30. Although today many fabrics are made from
fear suddenly overcame the child and she could synthetic fibers, at one time all natural fibers
not
remember her lines. were used in their manufacture.
(A) fear suddenly overcame the child and she (A) all natural fibers were used in their manu-
could not remember her lines facture
(B) the lines could not be remembered by the (B) all fabrics were made of natural fibers
child because she was overcome by fear (C) they were making them all of natural fibers
(C) the child was suddenly overcome by fear and (D) they made fabrics all of natural fibers
could not remember her lines (E) their manufacture was of all natural fibers
(D) the child was suddenly overcome by fear,
she could not remember her lines 31. Between three and four per cent of all children
(E) suddenly the child was overcome by fear, and born with hearing defects serious enough to
consequently not remembering her lines require medical treatment.
(A) born with hearing defects
28. Young people are not rejecting marriage, but
(B) being born with hearing defects that are
some
postponingit. (C) are born with hearing defects
(A) some postponing it (D) are born with hearing defects, these are
(B) some are postponing it (E) born with hearing defects which are
(C) it is postponed by some of them
(D) it is being postponed
(E) some having postponed it

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

ag
 32s Issued in Great Britain in 1840, the first gummed 373 The Romans built many magnificent aqueducts
postage stamp in history was known as the and roads, they were truly the great engineers
“Penny Black.” of the ancient world.
(A) the first gummed postage stamp in history (A) roads, they were truly the great
was known as (B) roads, consequently they were truly the great
(B) they called the first gummed postage stamp (C) roads and as a consequence, they were truly
in history the greatest
(C) history refers to the first gummed postage (D) roads; truly the great
stamp as (E) roads; they were truly the great
(D) was the first gummed postage stamp in
history, 38. The Japanese began their remarkable postwar
(E) the first gummed postage stamp in history recovery, but they were able to recover from the
being known as psychological effects of the war.
(A) recovery, but they were
33; A number of parents are concerned about the
(B) recovery, where they were
protection of high school athletes and the many
(C) recovery only when they were
injuries being reported. (D) recovery only when being
(A) athletes and the many injuries being reported (E) recovery because it was
(B) athletes and numerous reports of injuries
(C) athletes because of reports of numerous injuries Bo: For success in sports, it is important not only to be
(D) athletes, but many injuries are being reported in good physical condition but also to know the rules
(E) athletes, numerous injuries have been reported of the game.
(A) to be in good physical condition but also to
34. Many inferior films earn a great deal of money for
know
their producers, some extremely good ones do not.
(B) being in good physical condition but also to
(A) Many inferior films earn know
(B) Many an inferior film earns (C) to be in good physical condition but also
(C) With many inferior films which earn knowing
(D) However, many inferior films earn (D) being in good physical condition but also
(E) Although many inferior films earn knowing
(E) that one be in good physical condition but also
3): Gas rationing would force consumers to use their that you know
cars less, use public transportation more, while
conserving gasoline. Founded in 1910, the Urban League was established
(A) while conserving and has continuously had for its purpose the aim of
(B) as well as conserving assisting blacks who live in large cities.
(C) conserving (A) was established and has continuously had for
(D) and thereby conserve its purpose the aim of
(E) to conserve (B) was established to aim in the purpose of
(C) has continuously had for its purpose the aim of
36. Dolphins have a basic social organization, a system (D) has always aimed at
of communication, and their brains are highly (E) was with the purpose of
developed.
(A) and their brains are highly developed
(B\ and highly developed brains
(C) with highly developed brains
(D)
(E)
while their brains are developed highly
but their brains are developed highly
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

60
 6
Note: The remaining questions are like those at the beginning of the section.

Directions: For each sentence in which you find an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the
sentence correct and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

If there is no error, blacken answer space © .

EXAMPLE: SAMPLE ANSWER

The region has a climate so severe that plants CAOR JORG)

A
growing there rarely had been more than twelve
C
inches high. No error
D E

41. Idealists are not always as ignorant of realities as his After she had spoke for fifteen minutes, the
A B C A
critics would like to believe. No error senator answered candidly the questions asked by
D E B
the reporters, whose skepticism was obvious.
42. Once an Italian colony, Eritrea was captured by D
A B No error
the British in 1941 and was united with Ethiopia E
C
in the early 1950’s. No error 47. Demonstrating new products is a more expensive
D E
but more effective sales technique than
43. More women are competing in athletics as new B
A B C merely talking about them. No error
opportunities for training develop and as sports C D E

programs will expand. No error 48. Moscow’s city officials plan doubling the size of
D E A
the city’s subway system, which already includes
Mayor Jameson was eager to demonstrate that she B
A B more than one hundred miles of track. No error
was not prejudiced in favor of any particular political C D E

groups and residents of specific areas of the city. 49. The speaker argued that neither industry nor
C D
No error government have taken full responsibility ‘
E
for reducing the eal of inflation. No error
45. In any lively debate, there is at least two sides to C D E
A B C
an issue and five arguments for every point of 50. The average taxpayer waits until April file
to a
D
view presented. No error tax return unless they expect to receive ater
E
of considerable size. a error
D E

SeeelaOsoP
IF YOu FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

61
 How to Score the Practice Test
Before you can find out what your scores are on the Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
College Board 200 to 800 scale, you need to deter- number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
mine your SAT verbal and mathematical, and TSWE questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through
raw scores. The steps for doing so for each section of 35) in section 5 and record the numbers in the
the test and a scoring worksheet are provided below. spaces provided on the worksheet. To determine
Use the table on page 64 to check your correct and subtotal B, use the formula:
incorrect answers for each section. number correct — number incorrect = subtotal B
4

Determining Your Raw Scores Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4 record the numbers in the spaces provided on
the worksheet. To determine subtotal C, use the
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- formula:
tion 1 and record this number in the space provided
number correct — number incorrect = subtotal C
on the worksheet. Then do the same for the incor-
3
rect answers. (Do not count omitted answers.) To
determine subtotal A, use the formula: Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
number correct — number incorrect = subtotal A
subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the result-
4 ing figure on the worksheet.

Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and round D to the nearest whole number. (For exam-
record the numbers in the spaces provided on ple, any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
the worksheet. To determine subtotal B, use the Enter the resulting figure on the worksheet.
formula:
number correct — number incorrect = subtotal B TSWE: Section 6
4

Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec-
keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on tion 6 and record the number in the space provided
the worksheet. on the worksheet. Then do the same for the in-
correct answers. (Do not count omitted answers.)
Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C To determine your unrounded raw score, use the
to the nearest whole number. (For example, any formula:
number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
number correct — number incorrect = total unrounded
the resulting figure on the worksheet. 4 raw score

SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5 Step B: To obtain B, your raw TSWE score, round A
to the nearest whole number. (For example, any
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and number from 34.50 to 35.49 rounds to 35.) Enter
the number of incorrect answers for section 2 and the resulting figure on the worksheet.
record the numbers in the spaces provided on
the worksheet. To determine subtotal A, use the
formula:
number correct — number incorrect = subtotal A
4
 SCORING WORKSHEET
FOR THE PRACTICE TEST

SAT-Verbal Sections

. Section 1: — 1/4 ( )
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

. Section 4: — 1/4 ( )
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) Cc

. Total rounded raw verbal score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

SAT-Mathematical Sections

. Section 2: — 1/4 ( )
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

. Section 5: Le Oe )
Questions 1 through 7 and 0. correct no. incorrect subtotal B
28 through 35 (5-choice)

. Section 5: = 21/3 ( )
Questions 8 through 27 no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C
(4-choice)

. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B + C) D

. Total rounded raw math score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

TSWE

. Section 6: Total
unrounded raw score ae ee ag WY i Se,
a See |
no. correct no. incorrect A

. Total rounded raw TSWE score

(Rounded to nearest whole number)
B

63
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND PERCENTAGE OF STUDENTS
ANSWERING EACH QUESTION CORRECTLY
Section 1—Verbal Section 2—Mathematical Section 4—Verbal Section 5—Mathematical Section 6—TSWE
Percentage Percentage Percentage Percentage Percentage
of students of students of students of students of students
answering answering answering answering answering
Question Correct the question |Question Correct the question |Question Correct the question |Question Correct the question |Question Correct the question
number answer correctly number answer correctly number answer correctly number answer correctly number answer correctly
il iD) 93 % 1 D 93 % 1 A 85 % 1 B 89 % 1 B 90%
7 lz 88 2 B 76 z D 68 Z, D 80 zs A 94
3 A 82 3 D 82 3 B 63 3 c 70 3 B 90
4 iC 82 = D 70 4 D 74 4 E Hee + G 78
5 D 77 5 A 88 5 Cc 63 5 Cc 60 5 D 86
6 iE 61 6 (C 81 6 E 43 6 D 71 6 E 88
7 A 67 7 Cc 84 7 A 35 7 B 63 7 D 74
8 A 55 8 A 63 8 D 29 8 (E 98 8 B 64
9 D 36 9 E 65 9 (Cc 25 9 A 79 9 B 80
10 B 47 10 B 45 10 Je 29 10 D 76 10 D 74
1b Je 26 1a je 66 11 A 86 11 E 82 stat E 88
12 C 29 12 D 61 12, B 70 12 D 85 12 D 64
aS) C 28 i E 62 ie A 89 13 A 82 13 A 52
14 D Shit 14 Ip 58 14 E 54 14 A 72 14 D ips
US) E 26 15 A 48 aie) D 5o 15 D 68 15 GE 70
16 B 94 16 C 58 16 @ 92 16 B 72. 16 le 76
17 1D) 93 A7 A 43 7, (C 81 ie c 65 17 D 66
18 B 88 18 A 4] 18 Ee 72 18 B 71 18 D 65
19 Cc 74 19 D 31 19 D 50 19 A 48 19 A oy!
20 D 37 20 A 24 20 jE 61 20 B 40 20 € 43
21 B 70 Pui Cc 29 Aik B 49 7asil = 8} 42 Zi A 50
22 A 56 22 E iy 22) B 4] 7) G 41 22 8 63
23 (C 56 23 B LS ~ e Cc 23 23 B 23 PH: B S¥/
24 E 38 24 B 19 24 G 30 24 B oF 24 E 47
25 D 35) 25 D 10 WS) A 21 2S D 26 25 D 44
26 Cc 52 26 E sy) 26 G 18 26 B 92
27 B 50 Da E Wik 27 (C 13 27 (E 68
28 (Cc 36 28 D 37 28 D 28 28 B 88
29 c 65 29 A 87 7) Cc aM IY) B 50
30 A 38 30 D 78 30 B 35 30 B 60
il A 22 31 A 43 31 le 38 31 G 74
32 le 17 32 D 24 32 A 19 32 A 67
33 A 39 33 D 24 33 D 23 33 a 59
34 c 22. 34 B 49 34 B 13 34 je 70
35 A 09 35 G 68 35 B 08 35 D 56
36 B 87 36 Ee 25 36 B 66
37 D 70 ay E Zl oF E 33
38 E 74 38 B 7172 38 Ke 60
39 A 45 39 C 2 39 A 62
40 B 58 40 D 29 40 D 29
41 C 4] 4] Gc 67
42 B 18 42 E 72
43 C 21 43 D Ths}
44 le 20 44* G
45 D 16 45 B 48

A
E
A
B
Cc

Notes: The percentages for the SAT-verbal and SAT-mathematical sections are based on the analysis of the answer sheets for a random sample of juniors and seniors who took this
test in November 1982 and whose mean scores were 434 on the SAT-verbal sections and 473 on the SAT-mathematical sections.
The percentages for TSWE are based on the analysis of the answer sheets for a random sample of all students who took this test in April 1981 and whose mean score was 43.
*Question 44 in Section 6 in the edition of the TSWE administered on April 4, 1981, was not counted in computing scores. In the practice test in this book, this question is printed as
it appears in a later edition. .
 SCORE CONVERSION TABLE
Practice SAT and TSWE
College Board
College Board Scaled Score College Board Scaled Score
Scaled Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score
{—. <I

460 600
450
440
440
430

65
Finding Your College Board Scores When you take the SAT, your score is likely to dif-
fer somewhat from the score you obtained on a sam-
Use the table on page 65 to find the College Board ple test. People perform at different levels at different
scores that correspond to your raw scores on this edi-
times, for reasons unrelated to the test itself. The pre-
tion of the SAT. For example, if you received a raw
cision of any test also is limited because it represents
verbal score of 32 on this edition of the test, your only a sample of all the possible questions that could
College Board score would be 410. If your raw math- be asked.
ematical score were 22, your College Board score
would be 430 for this edition. If your raw TSWE How Difficult Were the Questions?
score were 31, your College Board score would be 45
for this edition. The table on page 64 gives the percentages of a sam-
Because some editions of the SAT may be slightly ple of students who chose the correct answer for each
easier or more difficult than others, statistical adjust- question. (These students obtained a mean SAT-
ments are made in the scores to ensure that each Col- verbal score of 434, mean SAT-mathematical score of
lege Board score indicates the same level of perfor- 473, and mean TSWE score of 43.) These percentages
mance, regardless of the edition of the SAT you take. will give you an idea of how difficult each question
A given raw score will correspond to different Col- was.
lege Board scores, depending on the edition of the test For example, 77 percent of this group of students
taken. A raw score of 40, for example, may convert answered question 5 in verbal section 1 correctly.
to a College Board score of 460 on one edition of the However, only 36 percent selected the correct answer
SAT, but might convert to a College Board score of for question 9 in section 1. In other words, question 5
480 on another edition of the test. was easier than question 9 for the students who took
this edition of the SAT. _

After the Test

Receiving Your Score Report A Sample Score Report
About six weeks after you take the SAT and TSWE, A sample score report for a fictional student is pro-
you will receive a report that includes your scores vided on page 67. The report has five major parts:
and percentile ranks. With the report, you'll receive a
booklet, Your Score Report, which will help you in- 1. Identification Information
terpret and understand the scores, percentile ranks, This is the information that will be used to identify
and other information on your report. your record, which is stored at Educational Test-
ing Service. If you have any questions about your
report, call or write to the College Board’s Ad-
SAT Question-and-Answer Service missions Testing Program at the address given on
If you take the SAT on one of the dates for which the page 8.
SAT Question-and-Answer Service is available, you
may order the service anytime up to five months after 2. High School Information
the test date. You will receive a copy of your test This information comes from the Student Descrip-
questions and answer sheet, a list of the correct an- tive Questionnaire (SDQ), which you fill out
swers, and scoring instructions. See the Student Bul- when you register to take the test. It describes
letin for additional information and an order form. your high school and summarizes your grades.

66
 DATE OF BIRTH SOCIAL SECURITY NO REPORT DATE
HOMPSON MICHAEL S$ 432-01-3448
TELEPHONE NUMBER STATE AND COUNTY OF LEGAL RESIDENCE
999 -- 123-4567 20071 KS GREELEY 7654321
ENGLISH BEST LANGUAGE [ U.S. CITIZEN VETERAN ARS
asTheta) See
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SELF-REPORTED TESTING
HIGH PROGRAM
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HIGH SCHOOL INFORMATION SCHOOL
H S CODE H S NAME AND ADDRESS GRADES COLLEGE
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SCORES
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& PERCENTILES
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PERCENTILES
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COLLEGE-BOUND SENIORS ACHIEVEMENT
TEST CODES

M 1 500 CH 550 AH American History

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Biology
Chemistry
European History
& World Cultures
English Composition
English Composition
NOSdWOHL
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COLLEGE PLANS IN THESE COLLEGES ritecatore

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Math Level |

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Math Level |!

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VOCAT | MATH PERSONAL| READING] STUDY
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3. Scores dent Descriptive Questionnaire. It also provides
This section summarizes your test scores and in- additional information, if available, about col-
cludes all of your scores from any Admissions leges in which you have expressed an interest.
Testing Program tests (SAT or Achievement Test)
5. Activities, Interests, Awards
that you have taken at any time while in high
Your answers to some of the questions in the Stu-
school. dent Descriptive Questionnaire about your activi-
— . College Plans ties, interests, and awards are summarized in this
This section includes information about your section.
plans for future study that you reported in the Stu-

SAT and TSWE Scores

SAT scores are reported on a scale of 200 (lowest) to high school juniors and seniors in the United States
800 (highest). You receive separate scores for the in 1974.
verbal and mathematical sections of the SAT. SAT- Percentile ranks also may be included in the “Col-
verbal subscores (reading comprehension and vocab- lege Plans” section of your score report. There, your
ulary) are on a scale of 20 to 80. TSWE (Test of Stan- scores are compared with those of recently enrolled
dard Written English) scores are reported from 20 to freshmen in each college you named to receive your
60+. The tests have no passing or failing scores, and scores. Your percentile ranks in that section indicate
they are not scored on a curve — that is, the scores of the percentage of freshmen in each college who re-
other students who took the test with you had no ef- ceived lower scores than you on each test. Achieve-
fect on how you did. ment Tests 1, 2, and 3 represent the same tests as
those in the “Scores” section of your report. The last
What Do Your Percentile two columns (HS RANK and HS AVERAGE) are
based on the high school rank and grades you gave
Ranks Mean?
on the Student Descriptive Questionnaire.
The percentile ranks on your score report allow you An asterisk (*) indicates that the college did not
to compare your scores with those of other students. provide information on its students’ scores, perhaps
A percentile rank tells you the percentage of students because its admissions policies are changing or its
in a given group whose scores were below yours. Re- programs are too varied to be described in terms of
member that the same score can have a different per- one group of students.
centile rank for different groups, depending on the If your percentile ranks are lower when compared
ability of the group. (For example, a runner whose with those of a college’s enrolled freshmen than when
time ranks in the 80th percentile when compared with compared with those of all college-bound seniors,
the junior varsity track team might rank in the 50th that college’s freshmen generally scored higher than
percentile when compared with the varsity team, the total group of college-bound seniors. These per-
which usually has faster runners.) centile ranks give you an idea of the academic level of
Percentile ranks are given in two places on your students at the colleges you are considering. How-
score report. Under “Current Scores and Percentiles,” ever, the percentile ranks may not be a good indica-
your scores are compared with those of “college- tion of your chances of being admitted, because most
bound seniors,” that is, all students in the most recent colleges consider many other factors in making ad-
high school graduating class who took that test any missions decisions and admit students with a wide
time while in high school. For the SAT, your verbal range of scores. For more information, see The Col-
and math scores also are compared with a “national lege Handbook, which includes a section on admis-
high school sample,” a representative sample of all sions in each college description.

68
How Precise Are Your Scores? Who Receives Your Scores?
When you consider your scores, keep in mind that no A copy of your report will be sent to your high school
test can measure anyone's abilities with perfect accu- if you give your high school code number when you
racy. If you took a different edition of a test or the register for the test. Reports also will be sent to any
same edition on different days, your score probably colleges and scholarship programs whose code num-
would be different each time. If you were to take a bers you give. These are listed in the ‘College Plans”
test an infinite number of times, your scores would section of the report sent to you and to your high
tend to cluster about an average value. Testing spe- school.
cialists call this average your “true score,” the score The College Board may use your scores and de-
you would get if a test could measure your ability scriptive information for research, but no informa-
with perfect accuracy. To measure the extent to which tion that can be identified with you is ever released
students’ obtained scores vary from their true scores, without your consent.
an index called the standard error of measurement
(SEM) is used.
For the SAT, the SEM is about 30 points. About How Do Colleges Use Your
two-thirds of those taking the test score within 30
points (or one SEM) of their true score. If your true Score Report?
score is 430, for example, the chances are about 2 out
of 3 that you will score between 400 and 460 (430 plus Your SAT scores give college admissions officers an
or minus 30). idea of how far you have developed some of the abili-
You should think of your scores in terms of score ties you will need to do well in college courses. The
bands rather than precise measurements — a 400 SAT scores also help them compare you more easily with
score, for example, should be thought of as probably students from schools with various grading stan-
being anywhere between 370 and 430. This will help dards. Admissions people know that although your
you realize that a small difference between your score high school grades are the best single indicator of
and another student's on the same test may not indi- your readiness to do college work, a combination of
cate any real difference in ability. College admissions your high school grades and your SAT scores to-
officers also are advised to look at scores this way. gether provides a better indicator than either one
alone.
Some colleges also use Achievement Tests in mak-
Will Your Scores Go Up if You ing admissions decisions, for course placement, or
both. The TSWE is a placement test designed to iden-
Take the Test Again? tify students who may need help in developing their
As indicated earlier, you are not likely to get exactly writing skills. Your college may use it to help place
the same score on a test twice. Improving your score you in the freshman English course that is right for
a great deal also is unlikely. Some students who re- you.
peat tests do improve their scores, but, on the aver- Colleges vary in the way they use test scores, but
age, these increases are small. few, if any, make admissions decisions based on
The average increase for a junior who takes the scores alone. Therefore, low or high scores should
SAT again when a senior is about 15 points for the neither discourage you nor make you overconfident.
verbal score and 15 points for the math score. About Admissions officers often consider the descriptive in-
two out of three students who retake the test improve formation on your score report as well as other infor-
their scores, but the scores of about one student in mation sent by you and your school.
three go down. About one student in 20 gains 100 or Different colleges value different qualities in appli-
more points, and about one in 100 loses 100 or more cants: One college may be looking for leadership
points. Students whose first SAT scores are low are potential, while another may place more weight on
more likely to achieve score gains. Students whose various extracurricular activities. Some colleges have
initial scores are high are less likely to achieve score open admissions policies and admit almost all appli-
gains. cants. Some will admit students with particular quali-
If you repeat a test, all your scores appear on your ties they want, even if the students’ grades and scores
score report. Colleges evaluate multiple scores on the indicate they will have to make an extra effort. What-
same test in. different ways. Some look at all the ever your scores, remember that probably there are
scores on your report; others use just the highest, many colleges that could meet your needs and where
most recent, or an average. you would be happy.

69
COLLEGE BOARD— SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only for completing this answer sheet. Be sure
. . each mark is dark and completely
and Test of Standard Written English SIG@L1,9) cocapiately crasttany arrets or cra PRfills
a: the intended space.
P
1. 5. YOUR NAME
YOUR NAME:
(Print) ib at > re First. er ry MI it
~~] First 4 letters of last name

SIGNATURE:

HOME ADDRESS: A> 2d alMarl

(Print) Number and Street

State Zip Code r

CENTER: We . att.
(Print) City State Center Number

IMPORTANT: Please fill in these boxes exactly as FOR ETS

shown on the back cover of your test book. USE ONLY

2. TEST FORM 3. FORM CODE | 4. REGISTRATION NUMBER

(Copy from your Admission Ticket.)

6. DATE OF BIRTH co)

Month | Da =< Year SB)
© Jan. | (2)
© Feb.
=f
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© Mar. @
© Apr. ce)
© May ©
© June 0000 @ O0000000
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AOAC
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© Sept.
© Oct. 00000000 7. SEX 8. TEST BOOK SERIAL NUMBER

0000000000
© Nov. © Male
© Dec. CO00O00000 © Female OVDHDDD
ODODH
OVOODDDDDOQDD
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Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer than 50 questions, leave the extra answer spaces blank.

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FORM CODE 2I
SECTION 1 I
Time —30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example:
Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly ®DeO@DoO
and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
HUMANE: (A) mutinous (B) brutal (E) perfect. spectacular PAs wa)
(C) misty (D) lavish (E) proud
SERVICEABLE: (A) informal (B) useless 16. Although few in number, women in Congress have
(C) impure (D) unfamiliar (E) temporary had ---- impact on a variety of issues.

SCOFF AT: (A) impose on (B) follow up (A) an arbitrary

(C) quarrel with (D) get away with (B) a negligible
(E) speak highly of (C) a substantial
(D) a minor
DILUTE: (A) concentrate (B) infiltrate (E) an inadvertent
(C) extricate (D) excavate (E) accelerate
17. Asa scientist, Leonardo da Vinci was capable of
CONVERGE: (A) avoid (B) stop ---, but his mistakes are remarkably few in
(C) winddown (D) move apart light of his --.
(E) fall behind (A) error. accomplishments
JEOPARDIZE: (A) hasten (B) exaggerate (B) artistry. failures
(C) genius. works
(C) shelter (D) turnaside (E) melt away
(D) trivia. lapses
ABHOR: (A) confuse (B) shout (C) advise (E) innovation. achievements
(D) unite (E) admire
18. Inarecent biography of this renowned millionaire,
DISSUADE: (A) explain (B) argue the subject emerges as a -- and gentle man, proving
(C) address (D) detail (E) induce that money does not necessarily —--.
(A) lonely. alienate
AUGMENT: (A) immobilize (B) reduce (B) perceptive. enlighten
(C) parody (D) irritate (E) hide (C) generous. .corrupt
(D) dignified. ennoble
VERDANT: (A) false (B) unlikely
(E) headstrong. liberate
(C) moist (D) unclear (E) barren
19. Goodrich’s summary of the aims of modern science
AMASS: (A) err (B) squander (C) prolong
is so --- as to be useless; he seems to consider every-
(D) conceal (E) beautify
thing and its opposite to be aims.
EPHEMERAL: (A) numerical (B) timeless (A) unobtrusive (B) discriminatory
(C) methodical (D) peerless (E) fearful (C) generalized (D) skeptical
(E) practical
EXTRANEOUS: (A) intermediate
(B) inaccessible (C) relevant 20. Drake hungered for riches, and with this --- came
(D) intermittent (E) effective a ruthless capacity for action.
FURTIVE: (A) flagrant (B) refined (A) indolence (B) avarice (C) aversion
(C) confused (D) creative (E) inquisitive (D) irresolution (E) fantasy

INNOCUOUS: (A) indigent (B) restrained

(C) ambitious (D) injurious
(E) understandable ifs)

e
Copyright © 1982 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
Princeton, NJ 08541
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
l
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Beowulf, the greatest extant work composed in Old Boe According to the passage, the author of Beowulf
English, is thought to have been written in England during saw the past as
the first half of the eighth century A.D. It is a historical (A) needing to be preserved in the most minute
poem about the pagan past, or an attempt at one—literal detail possible
historical fidelity founded on modern research was, of (B) leading naturally to Christian beliefs of the
course, unknown at the time. It is a poem by a learned eighth century
Christian writing of earlier times, who, looking back on the (C) possessing something valuable for people of all
heroism and sorrow, feels in them something permanent times
and something symbolical. (D) demonstrating a violence that has since vanished
Nearly all the censure, and most of the praise, that has (E) containing a complex and fascinating literature
been bestowed on Beowulf has been due either to the be-
lief that it was something that it was not—for example, 23% In the allegory, it can be inferred that the man who
primitive, pagan, an allegory (political or mythical), or built the tower represents
most often, an epic; or to disappointment at the discovery (A) the author of the passage
that it was itself and not something that the scholar would (B) one of the scholars who criticize Beowulf
have liked better—for example, a heathen heroic ballad, a (C) the poet who wrote Beowulf
history of Sweden, a manual of Germanic antiquities, or a (D) the main character of Beowulf
statement of Nordic theology. (E) the poem Beowulf itself
The pitfalls of such an approach to Beowulf are best
expressed in an allegory. A man inherited a field in which 24. Which of the following statements best expresses the
there was an accumulation of old stone, part of an old message of the allegory?
hall. Of the old stone, some had already been used in (A) Scholarly research always does more harm than
building the house in which the man actually lived, not good.
far from the old house of his ancestors. Of the rest, the (B) The best way to understand a work of art is to
man took some and built a tower. But when his friends take it apart and examine the pieces.
came, they perceived at once (without troubling to climb (C) Art should be practical and not merely enjoy-
the steps) that these stones had formerly belonged to a able.
more ancient building. So they pushed the tower over, (D) Those who focus on their own interests often
with no little labor, in order to look for hidden carvings miss the point of a work of art.
and inscriptions, or to discover when the man’s distant (E) Only works of art that are entirely original will
ancestors had obtained their building material. Some, last.
suspecting a deposit of coal under the soil, began to dig
for it and forgot even the stones. They all said: “This 25. The author’s attitude toward the Beowulf critics
tower is most interesting.”’ But they also said (after described in the passage is one of
pushing it over): “What a muddle it is in!” And even the (A) tolerant acceptance
man’s own descendants, who might have been expected to (B) grudging admiration
consider what he had been about, were heard to murmur: (C) unallayed suspicion
“He is such an odd fellow! Imagine his using these old (D) gentle mockery
stones just to build a nonsensical tower! Why did he not (E) lofty indifference
restore the old house? He had no sense of proportion.”
But from the top of that tower the man had been able to
look out upon the sea.

21. Which of the following would be the most appro-

priate title for the passage?
(A) Beowulf: An Anglo-Saxon Masterpiece
(B) Beowulf As Allegory GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) How Not to Read Beowulf
(D) The Historical Accuracy of Beowulf
(E) The Tower in Beowulf

The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. The ideas contained in them do not
necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the text suitable for testing purposes, we may
in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.

76
 l
Tuberculosis, measles, chicken pox, mumps, Pile The author focuses on the interaction between in-
and influenza constitute a roster of infectious dis- fectious diseases and human populations in order
eases with which people of traditional urban societ- to show that the relationship
Line ies remain well acquainted. For all these diseases ex-
(A) has been overemphasized by public health
(5) cept tuberculosis and influenza, a single case of ill-
agencies
ness forms antibodies in the bloodstream that give
(B) is responsible for the development of traditional
the individual prolonged, often lifelong, immunity.
urban societies
As a result, these diseases have most commonly af-
(C) can have political and social repercussions
flicted children, and continue to do so where vacci-
(D) reveals novel aspects of human physiology
(10) nations and other artificial methods have not altered
(E) must be appreciated before civilization can
the natural patterns of disease propagation. In tradi-
advance
tional urban societies, such childhood diseases need
not be very serious, in the sense that nursing care can 28. According to the passage, which of the following is
usually assure recovery. When a given population true when an infectious disease has been present
(15) has adapted sufficiently to survive the childhood dis- in a population for a long time?
eases that can only persist among large, concentrated
(A) A large portion of the population has developed
human populations, it has acquired a very potent
long-term immunity.
biological weapon. For these same infections, when
(B) The population has had little or no contact with
invading a human population without any previous
the diseases of neighboring populations.
(20) exposure to them, are likely to kill a high proportion (C) The percentage of 20 to 40 year olds in the
of those who fall sick. Infections in all populations
population becomes disproportionately small.
usually manifest their greatest virulence among
(D) Standards of nursing care are not very high.
young adults, owing, some doctors believe, to ex-
(E) The social structure has recently been drastically
cessive vigor in this age-group’s antibody reactions
altered.
(25) to the invading disease organism. Epidemic popula-
tion losses within the twenty-to-forty age bracket Pas). Which of the following is implied by the statement
are obviously far more damaging to society at large about the Aztec religious institutions being “‘unable
than comparably numerous destruction of either to compete” (line 54) with the Spanish god?
the very young or the very old. If an initial exposure
(A) The Spanish missionaries were extraordinarily
(30) of a society to one unfamiliar infection is swiftly persuasive.
followed by similarly destructive exposure to others, (B) The Aztec society enthusiastically adopted
_the structural cohesion of the community is almost Spanish values.
certain to collapse. (C) The epidemic did not appear to affect the
Historians studying political and social changes strength of the Aztecs.
(35) brought about by invasions and military campaigns (D) Neither the Aztecs nor the Spanish had elabo-
have found that epidemiologists can shed consider- rate religious rituals.
able light on their work. The disruptive effect of an (E) The Aztecs and the Spanish thought immunity
epidemic on a population without immunities is to a disease might indicate divine favor.
likely to be even greater than the actual loss of life,
(40) severe as that may be. Often survivors are demoral- 30. How is the second paragraph related to the first
ized and lose all faith in age-old customs and beliefs paragraph?
that had not prepared them for such a disaster. For (A) It demonstrates the need for mass immunization
example, there were significant psychological and against the diseases described in the first para-
social consequences of the medical fact that a small- graph.
(45) pox epidemic arrived in Mexico with the Spaniards (B) It illustrates the historical significance of the
and decimated the Aztec population during the con- ‘medical principles described in the first para-
quest. An unknown disease that killed only Aztecs graph.
and left the invaders unharmed seemed to show a (C) It challenges the assumption in the first para-
partiality that could only be explained by both graph that infections are not a major health
(50) parties as supernatural, and that circumstance left hazard.
little room for doubt about which side of the strug- (D) It repeats the description given in the first
gle enjoyed divine favor. The religions, priesthoods, paragraph of infectious disease among an
and ways of life built around the traditional Aztec
affected population.
gods were unable to compete with such a demonstra-
(E) It points out the need for more medical infor-
(55) tion of the impressive power of the god worshipped
mation about the contagious diseases described
by the Spanish. in the first paragraph.
26. Which of the following is the most suitable title for
this passage?
(A) New Forms of Old Diseases
(B) Childhood Diseases in the New World
(C) Effects of Infection on Ancient Civilizations
(D) The Epidemic as a Force in Social Change 77
(£) Invasions, Conquests, and Mortality
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. We were less offended by the irate professor’s relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
---- than we were curious about how he had Example:
gained this familiarity with a stevedore’s vocab-
YAWN: BOREDOM :: (A) dream:sleep
ulary.
(B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(A) profanity (B) apathy (C) sophistry (D) face:expression (E) impatience :rebellion
(D) pretentiousness (E) punctiliousness ©®@O@eQ®

32. The indigenous inhabitants of America have been

called ‘‘Indians” thanks to one of the greatest ~-- 36. STANZA:POEM:: (A) prose:story
ever to be ---- by history: when Columbus discov- (B) rhyme: proverb . (C) climax:play
ered the New World, he thought he had reached (D) comedy :tragedy (E) chapter :novel
India.
37. ISOLATE:APART:: (A) agitate :lengthy
(A) enigmas. foreshadowed (B) refrigerate:cool (C) duplicate :alone
(B) misnomers. .obliterated (D) concentrate :active (E) regulate: large
(C) predictions. immortalized
(D) misapprehensions. hallowed 38. PATENT: INVENTOR::
(E) truths. contradicted (A) advertisement : merchant
(B) money : customer
33. Although aware of the hazards of extrapolating a (C) copyright :author
life-style from a bone fragment or the reconstruction (D) monopoly : consumer
of a skull, most anthropologists by the nature of (E) novelty :journalist
their work are inclined to indulge in ----.
39. SUGARCOATING:TASTE:: (A) analysis :thought
(A) indecision (B) pessimism (C) reticence
(B) eyelid:sight (C) static:sound
(D) skepticism (E) speculation
(D) perfume:smell (E) regret :pleasure
34. Considering the --- of Juan Rulfo’s published works
40. LETTER:CORRESPONDENCE ::
and their enduring influence, we can conclude that
(A) hunger:nutrition (B) invitation: loneliness
few other writers have --- so much in so few pages.
(C) bell:silence (D) lock:entry
(A) abstruseness. divulged (E) comment :dialogue
(B) paucity. .contributed
(C) immaturity. developed 41. STRUT:VANITY:: (A) flaunt: humility
(D) vituperation. experienced (B) swagger:pride (C) amble: determination
(E) realism. .printed (D) cringe:dignity (E) simper:greed

35. Sucha solemn, almost ---- tone is not really appro- 42. QUIP:CLEVER:: (A) insult :derogatory
priate for this biography because, although its (B) hint:tactless (C) plea:superficial
subject experienced many misfortunes, she strongly (D) pledge:truthful (E) complaint: valid
believed in the value of ----.
43. STALEMATE:VICTORY ::
(A) reverent. accuracy (A) strategy:diplomacy (B) bias: impartiality
(B) pompous. .catharsis (C) majority:election (D) satisfaction : peace
(C) lugubrious. levity (E) leadership
:battle
(D) supercilious. .fatalism
(E) incongruous. .candor 44. SEQUESTER:JURY:: (A) eradicate : problem
(B) quarantine: patient (C) elect: politician
(D) liquidate:opponent (E) evacuate :city
- 45. DESPOT:RULER::
(A) counselor: potentate (B) teller: banker
(C) peasant:duchess (D) magnate: businessman
(E) anarchist :authority

Sol OsaP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 SECTION 2
Time —30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 27r C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. | triangle is 180.
| , ;
Definitions of symbols: | If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB XCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A Doe, (1) area of AABC = 5)
<__ is less than I is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. If 6-x=0,then 10-x= 4
6
(A) 16 (B) 10 (C)6 (D)4 (E) 0 5

2. Joe buys a tennis racket and one can of tennis balls

for $38. Mary buys the same-priced racket and two
cans of the same-priced tennis balls for $41. How :
much does one of these rackets cost? l
0
(A) $33
(B) $34
(C) $35 5. In the figure above, what is the area of the shaded
(D) $36 region?
(E) $37
(A) 21 (B) 24 (C25 (WD) 28 (E) 32
3. Kim was k years of age 2 years ago. In terms of k,
how old will Kim be 2 years from now?

(A)k+4 (BR) k+2 (© 2k

mk © * GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
4. Club A has 10 members and Club B has 15. Ifa
total of 21 people belong to the two clubs, how
many people belong to both clubs?

‘bel
z
6. If x-y =7, what is the value of x? - y2 ?

(A) 0
(B) 14
(C) 49
(D) 98
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

If a right triangle is drawn on the grid above with

2 4 PQ as the hypotenuse, which of the following could
be the coordinates of the vertex of the right angle?
on
(A) 1,4) *®@) @.1)) ©) Gy
The figure above represents six containers whose (D) G1) (€) G,2)
capacities, in gallons, are shown. The 5-gallon con-
tainer is full of vinegar and the rest are empty. The
contents of the 5-gallon container are used to fill the 10. If ./x isa whole number, which of the following
4-gallon container and the excess is poured into the is NOT necessarily a whole number?
10-gallon container. The 4-gallon container is then
used to fill the 3-gallon container and the excess is
poured into the 10-gallon container. The process
a2 x © O22 Ox
is repeated until all containers are empty except the ty The degree measures of the three angles of a triangle
1-gallon and 10-gallon containers. What percent of are p,q, and r, respectively. If p is the average
the 10-gallon container is filled? (arithmetic mean) of q and r, then p =
(A) 4% (B) 6% (C) 40% (Aji0.
(D) 60% (E) 140% (B) 45,
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
If the product of the digits of a two-digit number is
(E) 120°
odd, then the sum of those digits must be

(A) even
(B) odd
(C) less than or equal to 5
(D) greater than 5 and less than 10 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
()718

80
 Z
@
16. If N is a prime number greater than 9, then the
sum of NV, 2N, and 4N is divisible by 1, NV, and

QS (A)
(B)
(C)
2
4
6
Questions 12-13 refer to the figure above in which A, B, (D) 7
C, and D represent four of the digits from 1 to 9, inclu- (E) 8
sive,and A+B=10C+D. ie lf x=a-=4 and y=a+t5, then x-y is
equal to which of the following?

Ne
(A) -9
(B) -1
(C) 1
aS 18.
(D)
(E)
9
2a+1
If 8 people are standing on the circumference of a
12. In the figure above, what does C represent?
circle, what is the LEAST number of people who
Paget) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 (E) 10 must move so that all 8 will be standing in a
straight line?

Under the stated conditions, all of the following

(A) 4
could be values of A +B EXCEPT
(B) 5
(C) 6
fayette) 14 (C) 16° (D) 17. (E) 22 (D) 7
(E) 8

14. If j,k,m, and n are positive integers and if

j >k and m >n, which of the following must
be greater than zero?
on, —K
Il. k-m
Il. man

(A) Ionly (B) Ilonly (C) Iand III only

(D) Iland Il only (E) I, Il, and II
19; In the figure above, OR and OS start on OX
and revolve simultaneously in the plane in opposite
$5; A tank contains 33.6 liters of gasoline. The tank is directions around point O. If OR revolves at 4°
emptied in 3 days. If ; of the gasoline is used the per second and OS at 7° per second, how many
complete revolutions will OS have made when OR
Ist day, twice that quantity is used on the 2nd day, has made exactly 336 complete revolutions?
and the rest is used on the 3rd day, how many liters (A) 192
were used on the 3rd day? (B) 448
(C) 588
(A) 9.6 (D) 630
(B) 11.2 (E) It cannot be determined from the information
(C) 19.2 given.
(D) 24.0
(E) 28.8

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

81
2 20. P is the set of 8 consecutive integers whose sum is 23: The average (arithmetic mean) age of Dave, Emily,
4. Q is the set of 6 consecutive integers whose sum and Frank is 12. The average age of Dave and Emily
is 9. How many members of Q are members of P? is 11, and the average age of Emily and Frank is 10.
What is the average age of Dave and Frank?
(A) None
(B) One (A) 10.5
(C) Four (B) 11
(D) Five (C) 12.5
(E) Six (D) 13
(E) 15
Of the 60 people in a room, A are women and 2
24. Let [x] be defined for all x by the equation
are smokers. What is the maximum number of
[x] =3x +1. For example, [5] =76)
women in the room who can be nonsmokers?
if 2a, then x =
(A) 16
(B) 24 (A) 1
(C) 34 (B) 15
1
(D) 36
(E) 40 (C) 2

(D) 252
(E) 3
203 What is the ratio of the area of a rectangle with
width w and length 2w to the area of an isosceles
right triangle with hypotenuse of length w ?
Bs
(A)
22. The square above has area 4x”. If a rectangle with
width x has the same area as the shaded region
shown, what is the length of the rectangle in terms (B)
Of xandaya)

(Aix = (Blea (C)i2x> 2y (C)

(D)-4x=2) “(E) 4x —y
(D)

(E) ple
Ale

io) aed Be 0 Pe
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

82
 SECTION 4
Time —30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, 9. VILIFICATION:

followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the (A) acclaim
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning (B) activity
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- (C) clear communication
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, (D) acquisition of possessions
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. (E) reduction in size

10. SURREPTITIOUS: (A) aboveboard

GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red (B) credible (C) vulnerable
(D) highly successful (E) freely chosen
(D) hot (E) ugly ®@®eooo®

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank

1. MUTED: (A) done quickly indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
(B) seen vaguely (C) turned under the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
(D) made louder (E) kept clean Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
2. SHORTHANDED: (A) leisurely (B) lengthened
(C) overstaffed (D) unrivaled
(E) extraordinary Although its publicity has been —--, the film itself
is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
3. DISSECTION: (A) understanding
and altogether ----.
(B) assembly (C) detection
(D) preference (E) relationship (A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
4. DEMENTED: (A) of doubtful origin (E) perfect. spectacular eu. Oi
(B) of sound mind (C) dangerous
(D) fruitful (E) pliable
5. ACUITY: (A) sympathy (B) boldness 11. In the late nineteenth century, scientists were mysti-
(C) dullness (D) proper behavior fied by the schooling behavior of certain fish;
(E) half-hearted decision today’s marine biologists are still --- by the behavior
of these fish.
6. DISPUTATIOUS: (A) questionable (A) baffled (B) inspired (C) bored
(B) sincere (C) conciliatory (D) frightened (E) convinced
(D) disappointing (E) inoperable
12. Perhaps because they feel --- by the rules of
7. TRANSIENCE: (A) urgency school and society, many children long for an
(B) immaturity (C) unfamiliarity escape to another world.
(D) everlastingness (E) falseheartedness
(A) emancipated (B) nurtured (C) assuaged
8. ANOMALOUS: (D) intrigued (E) constricted
(A) showing no emotion
(B) holding as security
(C) voicing no opinion
(D) fitting a pattern
(E) relating an event GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

83
 13. Many artists maintained that the arts commission 18. STAR: CONSTELLATION :: (A) crew:airplane
was guilty of discrimination because it not only (B) member:club (C) weather:forecast
---- 0 appoint more minorities to policy-making (D) partner:associate (E) hymn:church
positions but also attempted to ---- three female
program directors. FULL-BLOWN:ROSE:: (A) withered: vine
(B) prolific:weed (C) fertile: field
(A) refused..recruit (B) agreed. promote (D) edible:corn (E) ripe:tomato
(C) tried. fire (D) failed. oust
(E) hesitated. .retain 20. ACTOR:PLAYWRIGHT :: (A) editor: novelist
(B) competitor:mascot (C) collector:painter
14. The fact that poverty often ---- in highly industrial- (D) attorney:witness (E) soloist:composer
ized areas may indicate that the condition is ---- by
industrial progress itself. 24e PARALLEL:MEET:: (A) opaque: see
(B) horizontal:span (C) eternal:end
(A) thrives. thwarted (B) occurs. engendered
(D) philosophical: judge (E) conventional: grow
(C) arrives. threatened (D) recurs. .alleviated
(E) languishes. encouraged DR RESPITE : DRUDGERY ::
(A) rumor :information
15. He has several talents that ---- the possibility of (B) malady :hygiene
genius; however, no one of them is quite tran- (C) lull: conversation
scendent enough to ---- that possibility. (D) embarkation :navigation
(A) preclude. surpass (E) divorce :marriage
(B) intimate. .realize
(C) proclaim. .condone Zo. WAIVE:RIGHT :: (A) exercise: authority
(D) vindicate. .challenge (B) forgo:pleasure (C) inhibit
:imagination
(E) verify. .disprove (D) release: feeling (E) denounce: country

24. INSIPID: FLAVOR ::

(A) concise: brevity (B) meticulous: care
Each question below consists of a related pair of words (C) banal:triviality (D) inane :significance
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (E) fortuitous : chance
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. EMBROIL: ARGUMENT :: (A) enlarge : picture
Example: (B) fuel:resentment (C) raise :stake
(D) snare:net (E) conspire:defeat
YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(B) anger: madness (C) smile :amusement
(D) face:expression (E) impatience :rebellion
©OOe@eqo

16. BYSTANDER:EVENT:: (A) juror: verdict

(B) culprit:crime (C) tourist :journey GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) spectator:game (E) model: portrait

17. GLACIER:ICE:: (A) rain:snow

(B) bay:ocean (C) cloud:storm
(D) river:water (E) pond: fish

84
 4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Lately it has become customary to equate wisdom 27. The author’s attitude toward those who equate
with knowledge and knowledge with science. Hence science with progress is best described as
science equals wisdom, and as we all need the latter, (A) dispassionate (B) contemptuous
we must therefore all have the former. Nonsense. (C) threatening (D) sympathetic
Science, whose truths depend on the social beliefs of (E) complimentary
the time and the cultural atmosphere in which they
are created,isbut one special and actually rather small 28. The author’s statements about logic, rational
part of knowledge. If you learned by heart all the non- thought, and science in the second paragraph
scientific articles in an encyclopedia, you would indeed support a belief that
be a very knowledgeable person, though an unscientific
(A) scientific thinking is only one area in which
one. Wisdom is a quite special condition, and one which
logic and rationality are valuable
all people should strive to attain if conditions on this
(B) other disciplines are less effective and less
planet are ever to improve. It has extraordinarily little to
beneficial than science
do with science.
(C) logical reasoning is more useful than science
Another confusion is that between logical, rational
because it is older
thought and science. Now science does require logic and
(D) the qualities of logic and rationality are often
rationality. But it has no monopoly on either. Logic
lacking in science
and rationality are far older than science, and in many
(E) logic and rational thought at times invalidate
circumstances more useful. And they are required, along
the findings of science
with inventiveness and ingenuity and creativity, to improve
current conditions. But to say that only science can bring
progress is to deny humanity its very essence—its ability to
create, to invent, and to think. Human beings have always
displayed these qualities, and will continue to do so. In
fact, it is these qualities that bring about progress. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

26. According to the passage, all of the following can

be said of science EXCEPT:
(A) Science can contribute to knowledge.
(B) Science and knowledge are essentially the
same.
(C) Science is not an absolutely objective pursuit.
(D) Science alone will not bring about progress.
(E) Scientific doctrines are subject to change.

85
 Elizabeth’s father was fond of the country and 30. The passage suggests that Elizabeth agrees with her
of books; and from these tastes had risen his princi- father’s opinion of
pal enjoyments. To his wife he was very little other- (A) the intellectual ability of his wife
wise indebted, than as her ignorance and folly had (B) the disadvantages of marriage
contributed to his amusement. This is not the sort (C) how a talented man should spend his time
of happiness which a man would in general wish to (D) the example a father should set for his children
owe to his wife; but where other powers of enter- (E) how to preserve the reputation of children
tainment are wanting, the true philosopher will de-
rive benefit from such as are given. eRe The passage can best be described as

:
(10) Elizabeth, however, had never been blind to the (A) a description of a disagreement between a
impropriety of her father’s behavior as a husband. woman and her parents
She had always seen it with pain; but respecting his (B) an analysis of the reasons for the disintegration
abilities, and grateful for his affectionate treatment of a marriage
of herself, she endeavored to forget what she could (C) an account of one woman’s reflections on the
(15) not overlook, and to banish from her thoughts that problems in her parents’ marriage
continual breach of conjugal obligation and decorum (D) a discussion of a young woman’s attitude toward
which, in exposing his wife to the contempt of her marriage
own children, was so highly reprehensible. But she (E) a description of a foolish wife and mother
never felt so strongly as now the disadvantages which
(20) must attend the children of so unsuitable a marriage,
nor ever been so fully aware of the evils arising from
so ill-judged a direction of talents; talents which,
rightly used, might at least have preserved the re-
spectability of his daughters, even if incapable of GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
enlarging the mind of his wife.

thet The passage suggests that the “powers of entertain-

ment” that ‘“‘are wanting” (lines 7-8) in the life of
Elizabeth’s father include
(A) amusement at the ignorance and folly of his
wife
(B) the enjoyment he derives from books
(C) pleasure in his wife’s company
(D) satisfaction from his social position
(E) pride in his children

86
 4
According to a listing in the twenty-fifth anniversary 32. Which of the following is the most appropriate title
issue of La Prensa, a Spanish-language newspaper published for the passage?
in San Antonio, Texas, a total of 451 different Spanish- (A) The Success of La Prensa
language newspapers were published in the United States (B) The Political Career of Ignacio Lozano
between 1876 and 1937. These newspapers served the (C) La Prensa’s Coverage of the Mexican Revolution
Hispanic communities as necessary vehicles for the ex- of 1910-1911
change of news, information, and opinions. Their relative (D) The Effects of the Great Depression on Spanish-
success or failure often mirrored the special effects on the Language Newspapers
Hispanic communities of general economic, cultural, and (E) The Influence of Spanish-Language Newspapers
political forces in the United States at the time they were in Hispanic Communities
published. The short-run newspapers were especially sensi-
tive to the ups and downs of the economy, but almost all i According to the passage, which of the following
of the Spanish-language newspapers were equally vulner- most strongly affected the financial well-being of
able to the Great Depression of the thirties. Spanish-language newspapers?
One of the longest-lasting survivors in this highly com- (A) Fluctuations in the size of Hispanic
petitive market was La Prensa, which had a solid commer- communities
cial basis and depended on advertising sales for financial (B) Changing economic trends
support. La Prensa’s editor, Ignacio Lozano, consistently (C) The types of commercial advertisements
steered a course that was perceived as politically nonpar- published
tisan. The newspaper first appeared in 1913, with a politi- (D) The high quality of news reporting
cal posture designed to be neutral and pacifistic at a time (E) The outcome of the Mexican Revolution of
when the Mexican Revolution of 1910-1911 had left 1910
Hispanic communities in the United States wearied of con-
tinuing political hostilities. The appeal of the newspaper, 34. The author seems to consider which of the following
whether intended or not, was based on its ability to project as LEAST important to the success of La Prensa?
an image of a mediator and an agent of peace. This public (A) Its nonpartisan political image
view, in addition to a well-organized business approach, (B) Its large number of advertisements
helped La Prensa survive stiff competition and economic (C) Its publication of poetry and fiction
crises. (D) Ignacio Lozano’s editorial policies
Lozano, according to his biographer, carefully planned (E) Ignacio Lozano’s business sense
the focus of La Prensa’s coverage. Whereas many news-
papers tended to be biased in their coverage of develop- B55 Which of the following can be inferred from the
ments in Mexico, or to concentrate on American news, passage about the first several issues of La Prensa?
Lozano insisted on objective reporting of the politics of the (A) The coverage of Mexican affairs was not as
homeland. Subscribers wanted to read about developments objective as Lozano wished.
brought about by the Revolution; many of the political (B) The circulation per issue was nearly 10,000
exiles and refugees wanted to know about postwar condi- copies.
tions so that they could determine when they should return (C) The issues included reports from the paper’s
to Mexico. Lozano also allocated a section of the news- news correspondents around the world.
paper for announcements of local events, devoted a small (D) The issues were not published every day of the
section to literature, and included an abundance of adver- week.
tising. Within its first year, La Prensa increased its circula- (E) The issues were printed in both Spanish and
tion from 1,500 to 10,000 copies per issue and became a English.
daily. In the 1920’s, the newspaper had correspondents
in Mexico City, New York City, and Paris. By 1926, it had 36. The passage suggests that La Prensa was probably
begun publishing another newspaper in Los Angeles, La useful to all of the following members of the
Opinion, had become a member of El Congreso Panameri- Hispanic community EXCEPT those
cano de Periodistas, an international association of journal- (A) interested in reading Hispanic views about
ists, and had joined a New York news service. This type domestic and foreign affairs
of success helped La Prensa survive the Great Depression (B) wanting to read literature written in Spanish
while other newspapers, both Spanish- and English- (C) interested in information about events in the
language, were going out of business. San Antonio area of Texas
(D) seeking to expand business dealings within the
Hispanic community
(E) wanting to read editorials supporting a partic-
ular side in the Mexican Revolution

87

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

4
A fissionable atom is one that, after capturing a 38. According to the passage, an atom of which of the
neutron, will split, releasing energy and more neutrons. following substances, “after capturing a neutron,
The only naturally occurring fissionable material that will split, releasing energy and more neutrons”
can serve as a fuel for an atomic reactor is the very rare (lines 1-2)?
uranium, U-235. The more plentiful U-238, however,
I. U-235
can be converted into fissionable plutonium, which
I]. Plutonium
may then function as a fuel. This phenomenon has
TE 3233
made possible the so-called breeder reactor. All that
is needed is a supply of neutrons sufficient to con- (A) Ionly (B) Ilonly (C) I and III only
tinue a chain reaction and also to manufacture more (D) Hand TI only (E) I, Il, and Ill
plutonium from U-238. Plutonium (which is first made eek The passage suggests that, when an atom of U-238
when U-238 captures high-energy neutrons from an
in a breeder reactor captures one of the neutrons
initial charge of fissioning U-235) is the source of
released by fissioning plutonium atoms, which of
these neutrons, for when a plutoniuin atom captures the following happens to'the atom of U-238 ?
a neutron, it fissions, yielding an average of 2.9 neu-
trons. One of these can be captured by another (A) It fissions to become U-235.
plutonium atom, thus sustaining the chain reaction, (B) It fissions, releasing 2.9 neutrons.
and most of the remainder can be captured by atoms (C) It is converted to plutonium.
of U-238. Thus the amount of fuel in a breeder (D) It is converted to a fissionable atom of
reactor gradually increases. U-233.
Thorium may also be used in a breeding cycle (E) It remains unchanged until more neutrons
because, when thorium captures a neutron, an atom of are captured.
fissionable U-233 is formed. This latter atom functions
40. The passage suggests that the elements in which
similarly to plutonium except that it produces an average
of the following pairs operate analogously in their
of only 2.3 neutrons per fission.
respective breeding cycles?
37. The passage is primarily concerned with I. Thorium and plutonium
(A) defining what is meant when it is said that an II. U-235 and thorium
atom is fissionable Ill. Plutonium and U-233
(B) revealing that atoms of U-235 can be (A) Ionly (B) Ilonly (C) Ill only
transformed into atoms of plutonium (D) land Ifonly (E) I, Il,and UI
(C) debating the social desirability of the use of
breeder reactors
(D) discussing fission and the breeding cycles
of certain fissionable materials
(E) proposing the thorium cycle as a preferred
alternative to the plutonium cycle

5) ls OP.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

88
 SECTION 5
Time —30 minutes

35 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = tr’; Circumference = 277 C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
If LCDA is a right angle, then
Definitions of symbols:
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB X CD
Dies B (1) area of AABC = ;
# is unequal to > is greater than or equal to
<_ is less than || is parallel to (Q)\b4AG AD? - DC*
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
the problems.
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving
in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

ett tee tt x +3 = 1 2st 3, 5. Which of the following is an expression for

then 3x = 3 times the sum of c and the square of d?

(A) 3(c + d?)

tay I
(B) 3c +d?
(B) 0
(GC) ler a)?
Os (D) 3ca?
(D) 1 (E) 3(¢+ Vd)
(E) 3
6. 2(a)(-b)(-c)(-d) + 2abced =
2. Ifa penguin swims at an average rate of 4 meters per
(A) 4abcd
second, how many seconds will it take for the pen-
guin to swim 50 meters? (B) -4abcd
(B) 11.5 (C).12 (D) 125 (©) 13 (C) -4a?b?c?d?
fagetis
(D) 4a?b*c?d?
(E) 0
Go Sah 2
7. if xy+0, then (2 =
aa 4
= (A) x?y?
(B) x°y°
3. The two triangles above are equilateral with sides as
shown. The ratio of the perimeter of the larger
(hex ye
triangle to that of the smaller is (D) x*y®
(Byexty®
o2 m2 of OF OF
4. John had exactly $7 before Bill paid him a $26 debt.
After the debt was paid, Bill had 4 the amount
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
that John then had. How much did Bill have before
the debt was paid?
(A) $33 (B) $35 (C) $36 89
(D) $37 (E) $47
5 Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,m, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES |
Column A Column B
Column A Column B | Answers

El. DEX 6 Prag ls. @@Ddooe®

14. 90-(x +y) 0

eee
Column A Column B eae!
15 25 yi

8. 1(2 +3(4 +5)) 5(4 +3(2 H))

The monthly rainfall in City X for April was

5 inches.

9. The amount of rainfall in The amount of rainfall in

City X from April lst | City X from April Ist
ee throven Appl Sth If x and y are positive integers less than 12,
x (Jy is defined as the number in the figure
10. 0.4 X 10,000 40 X 100
above that is located by starting at the number x
and moving (y- 1) intervals of x units each in
{ a clockwise direction. For example, 6 CJ) 2 =0,
2 since by starting at 6 and moving | interval of
6 units in a clockwise direction, the number located
it = 3
- * will be 0.
16. 54 10
xtx+x
12. mer ea a 3
17. 10° -10 10° +10
13. The amount of sales tax The amount of sales tax
on $6.00 at arate of 4% on$5.00 ata rate of 5%

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

90
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater,

B if the quantity in Column B is greater,
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

n is an odd positive integer greater than 1.

ee) n-1\

The shaded triangles with bases on diameter AB

are isosceles and congruent. The unshaded triangles
are isosceles and congruent.

18. Total area of shaded Total area of unshaded

triangular regions triangular regions
The square and the equilateral triangle have vertex
PURCHASES BY THREE BOYS P in common.
ON JANUARY 7, 1982 200
23% esr ih

Along a certain highway, City R is 12 kilometers

from City P and 25 kilometers from City Q.
Number of Shirts
Number of Pants 24. The distance in kilome- 13 kilometers
ters from City P to City
Q along this highway

19. 53 y

a b
20. The average (arithmetic The average (arithmetic
mean) of 13, 42, and 67 mean) of 0, 13, 42,
and 67 Cc

isa sequence
OR aX Il
1- a, 2-2a, 3-3a,..., n- ma
of numbers in which n > 15. Ds a be

21. The sum of the first 15 0

i=
terms of the sequence
above when a =1 ts =2

26 rts 4

denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to

x. For example: =4 and =3

27. + [55.2] 0

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

91
5 Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

28. Let x =y+z, where yz#0. If both y and z S23 3x

60 hours 4y
and 300 minutes together equal how
are multiplied by 6, then x is
many seconds?
(A) increased by 1
(A) 180x + 48y
(B) decreased by 1 4
(B) 180x + 5”
(C) multiplied by 6
(C) 3x + 48y
(D) multiplied by :

(E) not changed (D) 3x + Sy

(E) 2x at as
60 18,000

29: In the figure above, x ty +z-(at+tbt+c)=

(A) 360 A POE RGB

(B) 180
(Cc) 90 33. Points P,O,Q, and R are the midpoints of the
(D) 0 diameters of the 4 semicircles in the figure above.
(E) -90 AB isa line segment containing the diameters of
these semicircles. If OB =6, what is the length
of the dotted path from A to B?
30. If 1+~=0, then ~+= is equal to whichof
y gh (A) 37 (B) 6m (C) 9m (D) 12m (E) 367
the following?

(A)-2 (B)-1 ()0 @)2 34. In a certain garden, a of the flowering plants
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given. represents 7 of all the plants. What is the ratio
of flowering plants to nonflowering plants in that
31. If x +y is3 more than x —- y, which of the follow-
ing has exactly one value? garden?

aye (A) 12 le (B) 42 eC yas

B) y
(jeccay (D) 1:9 ,
(E) 1:10

mH ed 35. The lengths of the edges of a rectangular solid are

y whole numbers. If the volume of the solid is 11,
what is the total area of its six faces?

(A) 26
(B) 44
(C) 46
(D) 52
(E) 66

See lt OP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

92
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 2l
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

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*|Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

#3
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
¢ Scanning. Your answer sheet is “read” by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal B
is recorded on acomputer tape. 4
¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
dom guessing. For questions with five answer the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
wrong response; for questions with four answer figure on the worksheet.
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, the conversion table on the back cover. Enter this
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-verbal score you
resulting raw score is determined as follows: just recorded and your reported SAT-verbal score
should be identical. If not, see the paragraph at the
44 right — sewiong = 44 —- 8 = 36raw score points bottom of the next page.)

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
rounded upward to 37. number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
¢ Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number incorrect
number correct — = subtotalA
4
for minor differences in difficulty among different
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
the abilities of the group with whom the student in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
the College Board scale, scores earned by students total B, use the formula:
at different times can be compared. For example, an
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal B
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- 4
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi- Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
tion of the test taken at another time. number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
How to Score the Test worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
mula:
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal C
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you 3
begin, check that the first two characters (number and
Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an-
subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
swer sheet are the same as the form code printed on
figure on the worksheet.
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4 the resulting figure on the worksheet.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the tained in Ein the conversion table on the back cover.
same for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omit- Enter this figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-mathe-
ted answers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula: matical score you just recorded and your reported
SAT-mathematical score should be identical. If not,
number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotalA see the paragraph at the bottom of the next page.)

94
 SAT-SCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODE 2I
SAT-Verbal Sections

A. Section 1: eee tat ee ee en) pa

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 4: oes
a ee RT (ioe, he ak Se Bp Se
ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) Cc

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score pose

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical Sections

A. Section 2: eee eee: 1/4 «( ee ee ee

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and oo es eer RS IAN Ge a
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27 ee a see em iy oe
(4-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(TotalA+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

Should you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the
phone number below. If, after following the above scoring directions and checking
your work at least twice, your results disagree with the SAT-verbal or SAT-mathe-
matical score reported on your ATP score report, you may request rescoring of your
answer sheet. If rescoring confirms that an error had been made (resulting in either
higher or lower scores than those originally reported), corrected reports will be
sent to all recipients of your original scores. Please send your request to:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 771-7600
Please indicate whether it is your SAT-verbal or SAT-mathematical score, or both,
that you want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring
worksheet on which you did your calculations.
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 21
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

85 40

or below

96
 COLLEGE BOARD— SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only for completing this answer sheet. Be sure
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USE ONLY VTcs VRW VVW
FORM CODE 3E SECTION 1
Time —30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence asa whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour. (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ualy see and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. CHERISH: (A) despise (B) utilize (E) perfect. spectacular
(C) aspire (D) encourage (E) compete @DoOO oO

2 VETO: (A) predict (B) discuss 16. The ambassador’s papers are not ---- reading, but
(C) approve (D) display (E) evaluate one who reads slowly and attentively will be
richly repaid.
3. EXTINGUISH: (A) graze (B) revive
(C) correct (D) intrude (E) exceed (A) petty (B) valuable (C) insightful
(D) easy (E) plausible
4. CEREMONIOUS: (A) active (B) enjoyable
(C) permanent (D) informal (E) widespread 17. It is inaccurate to describe Hopkins as a crusader for
progressive reforms, for, although he debunks
5. SYMMETRY: (A) exclusion (B) imbalance certain popular myths, he is not really ---- of change.
(C) isolation (D) immensity (E) validity
(A) an advocate (B) acensor
6. DOCUMENT: (A) edit (B) withhold (C) an adversary (D) a caricature
(C) reproduce in full (D) write for pay (E) a descendant
(E) leave unsupported
18. He was lonely and might have considered himself
7. HARBOR: (A) enlighten (B) burden miserable were it not for a kind of hysterical ----,
(C) permit (D) prepare for (E) turn away which he could neither account for nor ----.
(A) depression. .enhance
8. BREADTH: (A) rarity (B) mobility (B) apathy. .tolerate
(C) complexity (D) narrowness (E) roughness (C) contentment. .enjoy
(D) merriment. .conquer
9. NOXIOUS: (A) diffuse (B) unique
(C) beneficial (D) latent (E) static (E) sorrow. .comprehend
19. Occasionally ---- strain of the bacteria appears,
10. REPREHENSIBLE: (A) matchless
changed by some molecular misprint from what
(B) praiseworthy (C) interesting
was once only ---- into a life-taking poison.
(D) difficult to control (E) seldom recognized
(A) anew. .an epidemic
11. SCANTY: (A) adept (B) copious (B) a deficient. .a derivative
(C) prosaic (D) candid (E) mellow (C) an erratic. .a rudiment
(D) a virulent. .a nuisance
12. ADULATION: (A) initiation (B) vilification (E) an advanced. .a disease
(C) injustice (D) purification (E) deliverance
20. The discussions were often ----, degenerating at
13. PRODIGIOUS: (A) questionable times into name-calling contests.
(B) approximate (C) ultimate
(D) adjacent (E) minuscule (A) lofty (B) auspicious (C) acrimonious
(D) lethargic (E) pragmatic
14. TENSILE: (A) inelastic (B) genuine
(C) tough (D) sympathetic (E) inharmonious
15. AMITY: (A) strife (B) irrelevance GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) realism (D) topicality (E) unseemliness
101
Copyright © 1983 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
Princeton, NJ 08541
 Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

I agree that children need to be—and usually want very 22. The author’s attitude toward children appears to be
much to be—taught right from wrong. But I believe that one of
realistic fiction for children is one of the very hardest me- (A) concern for the development of their moral
dia in which it can be done. It is hard not to get entangled integrity
in simplistic moralism, and all you end up with are the (B) idealization of their inexperience and vulner-
“baddies” and the “goodies” you had hoped to avoid. Or ability
you can trot out the cliché that “there’s a little bit of bad (C) contempt for their inability to accept unpleasant
in the best of us and a little bit of good in the worst of us,” facts
a dangerous trivialization of the fact that there is tremen- (D) exaggerated sympathy for their problems in
dous potential for good and for evil in every one of us. Or daily life
you can try the “‘problem books.” The problem of drugs, (E) envy of their willingness to learn about morality
of divorce, of prejudice, and so on—as if evil were merely a
problem, something that can be solved, that has an answer, 23. According to the author, it is the duty of children’s
like a problem in fifth-grade arithmetic. That is escapism, literature to
that posing of evil as a “‘problem,” instead of what it is:
(A) protect children from learning about anything
all the pain and suffering and injustice we will meet
unpleasant or distressing
throughout our lives, and must admit, in order to live
(B) simplify moral issues so that children can under-
human lives at all.
stand them
But what, then, is the writer for children to do? Can
(C) force children to deal with the facts of pain and
one present the child with evil as an insoluble problem—
suffering
something neither the child nor any adult can do anything
(D) reassure children that every problem has a
about at all? To give the child a picture of a land haunted
solution
by famines or the cruelties of a brutal parent, and say,
(E) present truth in a way that children can accept
“Well, this is how it is. What are you going to make of it?”
and understand
—that is surely unethical. If you suggest that there is a
solution to these monstrous facts, you are lying to the 24. In the passage the author indicates that much of
child. If you insist that there is not, you are overwhelming human experience is
the child with a burden that he or she is not strong enough (A) wretched and unbearable
yet to carry.
(B) difficult and unfair
Children do need protection and shelter. But they also
(C) routine and boring
need the truth. And it seems to me that the way you can (D) unpredictable and meaningless
speak absolutely honestly and factually about both good (E) pleasant and secure a
and evil to children is to talk about themselves, their inner
selves. That is something they can cope with; indeed, their 25. In presenting the argument, the author does all of
job in growing up is to become themselves. They cannot the following EXCEPT
do this if they feel the task is hopeless or if they are led to
(A) define a term
think there is no task.
(B) resolve a problem
Fantasy is the language of the inner self. I personally
(C) refer to an authority
find it the appropriate language in which to tell stories to
(D) illustrate through an analogy
children—and others. I make that statement with some
(E) cite a psychological study
confidence, having behind me the authority of a very great
poet, who put it much more boldly. “‘The great instrument
of moral gdod,” Shelley said, ‘‘is the imagination.”

21. The author’s primary goal in the passage is to do

which of the following? GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) Criticize children’s literature for being
unrealistic
(B) Demonstrate that morality is not a fit subject
for children’s literature
(C) Argue that imaginative fiction is more suitable The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from
than realistic fiction for teaching morality to published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent the
opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the text suit-
children able for testing purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or
point of view of the original.
(D) Propose a solution for the problem of evil in
children’s literature
(E) Describe the way in which fantasy puts children
in touch with the inner selves that they must
obey
102
 One important facet of colonial America’s early devel- Bi It can be inferred that one reason slave art was ‘‘an
opment was the role played by slave artisans from Africa. art of anonymity” (line 3) was that the slave artisans
Slave art was an art of anonymity—an art that rose from
slavery in the form of skilled handicrafts—an art descended (A) received inadequate fees for their work
from African imagery and later rechanneled as a functional (B) were believed to do stylized work
aesthetic, finding its way to the wrought iron balconies of (C) did not receive individual credit for their work
New Orleans and to the magnificent ornamentation on the (D) were required to work only on specifically
mansions of Charleston, South Carolina. Although they assigned projects
received little credit for their labor, slave artisans accom- (E) relied on the artistic techniques of their
plished necessary work in preindustrial America and be- ancestors
came one of the first classes of technical experts in the 28. With which of the following statements regarding
New World.
artisans in Africa would the author most likely
Afro-American arts and crafts originated on the west agree?
coast of Africa where they were important in all aspects
of communal life. Unlike the Europeans, who tended to (A) They were the most respected members of their
perceive art objects only as “curios,” Africans viewed the societies.
arts as functional and art objects were created for specific (B) They were rewarded for their contributions to
use in ceremonies as well as in numerous domestic activi- the community.
ties. Many Africans were master artisans, demonstrating (C) Their skills related primarily to manufacturing
various skills and great proficiency in the fashioning of activities.
wood, bone, and ivory, in weaving, in pottery-making, and (D) All members of a society were considered
in the making of clothes, tools, and other implements. artisans.
There is also strong evidence that some African groups (E) They played a vital role in communal life.
were skilled in the building trades, whereas others proved pak, According to the passage, slave artisans were
skillful in developing exquisite sculptured objects of important to colonial America because they
bronze through new casting techniques.
(A) helped meet the needs of its preindustrial
The major factors surrounding the development of the
society
slave-artisan class included the diversification of farming
(B) persuaded the colonists to diversify farming and
and industry and the scarcity of labor to meet the needs
industry
of colonial America. As a solution to this problem, slaves
(C) recognized the need for new and more complex
were employed in every conceivable fashion. The diversity
manufacturing procedures
of occupations held by slave artisans is a clear example of
(D) taught other slaves skills that led to greater
why skilled slaves became very important agents in the rise
freedom
of manufacturing.
(E) helped to develop plantations into self-sufficient
Although research concerning slave artisans is lacking,
communities
certain general conclusions are apparent. Black artisans
constituted a specialized labor force in colonial America. 30. The author cites specific examples of the work of
Without their achievements it is difficult to imagine how slave artisans primarily to
the colonists would have survived and prospered. As
(A) show that they had mastered basic craft skills
producers of goods, contributors to the building trades,
(B) indicate the conventional and imitative nature
manufacturers of furniture, and designers of household
of their work
objects and decor, slave artisans also aided America in its
(C) explain why they were considered technical
aesthetic development. Their creativity and cleverness laid
experts rather than artists
the foundation for furthering the development of the
(D) attest to the quality and variety of their work
Afro-American artist.
(E) emphasize the limited opportunities granted
to them
26. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) describing the slave artisans’ response to the
limited opportunities for creative expression
in colonial America
(B) discussing the slaves’ artistic heritage and the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
role their skills played in preindustrial America
(C) depicting the specific talents of slave artisans in
the areas of decoration and design
(D) noting that contemporary Black art emerged
from the work of slave artisans
(E) praising the long history of the artistic tradition
of Africa

103
 Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. Many sportswriters have been caught up in the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
activities about which they write and have become Example:
advocates and ---- when they ought to have been YAWN: BOREDOM: (A) dream:sleep
(A) promoters. colleagues (B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(B) participants. .collaborators (D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(C) apologists. .critics 2@Oeodo
(D) opponents. .antagonists
(E) disputants. .defenders
A ext ; 36. JUDGE:COURTHOUSE:: (A) physician: hospital
32. His inability to fathom the latest trends in art led (B) clergyman: library (C) farmer: house
him to fear that his critical faculties had ---- during (D) visitor:hotel «(E) mathematician: computer
his long absence.
(AYidiversified gat(Ry letrophied, a(Giaeommentcd 37. MUMBLE:INDISTINCT:: (A) relent: gentle
a PRE ay ae seen (B) stumble: graceful (C) enunciate: clear
(D) predominated (E) multiplie (D) define: difficult (E) grunt: shrill
33. Though her lecture contained ideas that were pro-
vocative and systematically presented, her style 38. COLORS:SPECTRUM::
of delivery was so ---- that I actually dozed off.
(A) experiments:laboratory (B) panes:glass
: (C) guests:party (D) letters:alphabet
(A) galling (B) pungent (C) desultory (E) leaves: tree
(D) soporific (E) theatrical
39. TADPOLE:FROG:: (A) stream:river
34. Fuentes’ subtly persuasive arguments for continuity (B) acorn:oak (C) politician: diplomat
in Latino culture ---- readers to recognize that their (D) negative:photograph (E) student:graduate
future cannot be ---- from the way they treat their
past. 40. ABODE:VAGRANT :: (A) ship: pirate
(B) fort:sentry (C) faith: prophet
BS) RUE Se (D) costume:eccentric (E) community: outcast
(B) condition. .inferred
(C) invite. divorced 41. CREDITS:MOVIE:: (A) selections: album
(D) command. .projected (B) by-lines:newspaper (C) reviews:journal
(E) inspire. .elicited (D) reruns:television (E) cartoons: government
35. Like most ---- literature, this moving remembrance 42. AMORPHOUS:SHAPE:: (A) amorous:trust
of the poet’s parents primarily expresses lamenta- (B) temporal:patience (C) enticing: guile
tion for their deaths. (D) bland:zest (E) classical: harmony
(A) dogmatic (B) elegiac (C) abstract a
(D)dratnatiGes (BY striking 43. EVIL:MALEFACTOR::
(A) selfishness:hermit
(B) talent:virtuoso
(C) benevolence:miser
(D) mischief: benefactor
(E) friendliness: thief
44. DIGRESS:SPEECH:: (A) dissemble: truth
(B) meander:travel (C) narrate: climax
(D) deter:progress (E) circumnavigate: globe
45. PLAINTIVE:SORROW::
(A) systematic: brevity (B) elusive: eloquence
(C) confident: defeat (D) distasteful: pessimism
(E) contemptuous: disdain

olued
bgt O59 fe
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

104
 SECTION 2
Time —30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 27r C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to < is less than or equal to ABX CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A DRE (1) area of AABC = 5)
< is less than \| is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures
lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

Pee 5—x,then x =

femme! (C):i (D)6 .(E) 12

2. Agymnast competed ina meet and received the

following scores for three events: 9.5 for bars, =
8.7 for balance beam, and 8.8 for floor routine. Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
What is the average (arithmetic mean) of these
three scores? 5. In the right triangle above, x - 10=
(A) 8.9 (A) 60
(B) 9.0 (B) 70
(C) 9.1 (C) 80
(D) 9.2 (D) 90
(E). 9.3 (E) 100

3. Ona number line, if point P has coordinate -3

and point Q has coordinate 5, what is the length 6. sf. (wit-.3)? = (x= 3); then, x=

Oa (A)O (B)1 (C)3 (D6 (© 9

(A)2 (4 ©5 W)8 © 64

Aho 20720) COL EON thee =

(A) 30
(B) 40 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) 50
(D) 60
(E) 70

105
2 V5 Ms. Jones borrowed $1,000 for a year. The cost of 10. If |x| is defined by the equation |x| = ve
the loan was 6 percent of the amount borrowed, to
for all whole numbers x, which of the following
be paid back together with the loan at the end of the
year, What was the total amount needed to pay off equals 5 ?
the loan?
(A) -fIol. (B) [20h (cy ae
(A) $1,000.60
(B) $1,006.00 (D) [50|_ (E) _[100]
(C) $1,060.00
(D) $1,600.00 * To the nearest thousand, what is the number of
(E) $6,000.00
seconds in a 24-hour day?

If a 1 and pape
5 3, then
3) ana
pane: = (A) 8,000
(B) 9,000
(C) 86,000
(D) 87,000
(E) 90,000

12. The figure above is a square divided into four equal

smaller squares. If the perimeter of the large square
is 1, then the perimeter of a small square is

amt ®t ©2 Mi ®t

if >= =>then a

In a class of 300 students, 5 students were running

for the position of student representative. If every was @®2 ©2 Me OB
student in the class voted for exactly one candidate
and the distribution of votes is given in the table
above, what is the maximum possible value of x ?

(A) 60 (Byeiase AC)aion

(D) 233 (E) 300

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

106
14, A jar contains 10 pencils, some sharpened and some
unsharpened. Each of the following could be the
ratio of sharpened to unsharpened pencils EXCEPT

(A) 1:1
(U2) eed
(C) 4:1
[Deo |
45°
(B29 1
O RG,0)

Cube X has a volume of 27. If point C is the center In the figure above, if PQ|l|OR, what is the area of
153
of one face of cube X and point D is the center of quadrilateral PORO ?
the opposite parallel face, what is the length of line (AVRO MCBY 14 (Ces (D) 36
segment CD?
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

On the last day of a one-week sale, customers num-

bered 149 through 201 were waited on. How many
customers were waited on that day?
Lo: Initially, there are exactly 18 bananas on a tree. If (A)S Pes(B)o52- ~(C) 953 (D) 152 (EB) 153
1
one monkey eats 3 of the bananas and another
monkey eats ; of the bananas that are left, how
many bananas are still on the tree?
P Q

(A) 4
(B) 6 PA If two points, Q and R, are each placed to the right
(C) 8 of point P online & above so that 2PQ = 3PR,
(D) 10
(E) 16 what will be the value of RQ,
PR.

Li. eee
(a) Wel
= 4 what isthe value of 2a + 42 A> ®F OF OF
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
At Bi OF M4 given.

(E) It cannot be determined from the information

given.

Which of the following is the greater of two numbers

whose product is 220 and whose sum is 10 more GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
than the difference between the two?

(noe (B) 10 | (C) 22 “(D) 44 «(&) 55

q07
 Xd 24.° If x =G ands x” = =,what is the value of x in
ip it Zl terms of y ?
DOES 3

22. If x isanumber from column X and y isa :

number from column Y in the table above, how (B) 3
many different values are possible for x + y?

(A) Nine (B) Eight (C) Seven (Cy

(D) Six (E) Five (D) 3y

(ES 2
-

23. Three lines intersect as shown in the figure above.

What is the sum of the degree measures of the
marked angles?

(A) 360° (B) 540° (C) 720°. (D) 900°

(E) It cannot be determined from the information 25. Inthe figure above, ABCD isa rectangle and the
given. curved path is made up of 16 semicircles of equal
diameter. If the total length of this curved path
is 327, then the area of rectangle ABCD is

(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 48 (D) 64 (EB) 192

ey ADCte
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

108
 SECTION 4
Time —30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence asa whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example:
Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
S2eooo
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. RECALL: (A) oppose (B) forget (C) injure (E) perfect. spectacular
@®DoOO®
(D) assist (E) quiet

2. INTERCEDE: (A) render harmless 11

Medieval kingdoms did not become constitutional
(B) stand aside (C) direct incompetently ;
republics overnight; on the contrary, the change
(D) protect publicly (E) convene hastily
was ----,
3. GRANDIOSE: (A) attractive (B) unhealthy (A) unpopular (B) unexpected
(C) bright and shiny (D) small and unimpressive (C) advantageous (D) sufficient
(E) soft and manageable (E) gradual
4. UNNERVE: (A) warn (B) release 12. This carefully researched book is useful because it ----
(C) evaluate (D) strengthen (E) believe the ---- concerns and influences that have connected
women writers over three centuries.
5. RUFFIANISM: (A) gentle behavior
(A) omits. .essential
(B) cold disdain (C) false piety
(B) distorts. .ephemeral
(D) ignorant statement (E) wishful thinking
(C) charts. .underlying
6. PALPABLE: (A) retroactive (B) decorative (D) dispels. unimpeachable
(C) imperturbable (D) not tangible (E) foresees. documented
(E) not trustworthy 13. The reef’s fragile surface of living polyps is probably
7. MIRED: (A) dismissed (B) corrected more ---- to wounds and infection than a child’s skin;
; (C) ee (D) unhampered indeed, merely brushing against living coral ---- its
(E) unregulated delicate protoplasm.
(A) resistant. revives (B) susceptible. .enhances
8. DISPARAGE: (A) Pidise profusely (C) immune..imperils (D) vulnerable. damages
(B) surrender silently (C) fraternize (E) attractive. impairs
(D) exorcise (E) reprieve
9. DISSONANCE: (A) practicality (B) agreement
(C) probability (D) loyalty (E) cheerfulness

10. CAJOLE: (A) animate (B) browbeat GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(C) measure upto (D) work intensively
(E) determine rapidly

109
4
14. Though discrepant popular belief makes the findings 18. POET:WORDS:: (A) sculptor :stone
appear to be ----, recent behavioral studies suggest (B) painter:artistry (C) sailor: ocean
that most teen-agers are actually happy. (D) physician:care (E) philosopher: book
(A) discriminating (B) heretical CONTEMPLATION : THINKER ::
(C) anticipated (D) obligatory (A) corrosion: chemist (B) construction: builder
(E) depressing (C) sullenness: fighter (D) hesitation: liar
(E) pain: soldier
15. The validity of her experimental findings was so ----
that even the most ---- investigators could not refrain 20. RIDDLED: HOLES :: (A) untangled: knots
from extolling her. (B) wrinkled: materials (C) flawed: repairs
(A) enigmatic. .officious (D) pitted:indentations (E) sharpened: injuries
(B) fallacious. .credulous
pA MUSE: INSPIRATION :: (A) editor: personality
(C) unassailable. .disputatious
(B) model:criticism (C) epic : superstition
(D) inevitable. convivial
(D) plot:characterization (E) patron:support
(E) dubious. .skeptical
22, VEHEMENT: ENERGY ::
Each question below consists of a related pair of words (A) domineering: caution
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (B) compassionate: sympathy
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a (C) dauntless: fear
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. (D) ruthless: suspicion
(E) amiable: apathy
Example:
DEP FLAGRANT: OBSERVER ::
YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(A) blaring: listener
(B) anger:madness (C) smile :amusement
(D) face : expression (E) impatience : rebellion (B) monotonous: speaker
®O@Oeoe® (C) mischievous: prankster
(D) temporary: visitor
(E) aggressive : attacker
16. HEIGHT:MOUNTAIN:: (A) depth:trench
(B) shade:tree (C) weight:age 24. ASTUTE:INSIGHT:: (A) dutiful: efficiency
(D) speed: highway (E) mineral: mine (B) affable: friendliness (C) gullible: dependence
(D) zealous:nobility (E) proud: ambition
17. CENSUS:POPULATION ::
(A) election:government (B) criterion:judgment 2a LABOR: RESPITE:: (A) opinion: dissent
(C) inventory:stock (D) drought: thirst (B) commitment:betrayal (C) action:resentment
(E) recipe: cake (D) error:erasure (E) debate: lull

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

110
 4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

However one chooses to define weather and climate, ai Which of the following comparisons most closely
there is a simple practical distinction between them: parallels the relationship between weather and
weather is a matter of everyday experience, whereas cli- climate described in the first paragraph?
mate is a statistical generalization of that experience. (A) A particular game to a team’s season record
Weather is what usually interests us, but to interpret it (B) A heat-seeking missile to a fighter plane
correctly we must first determine what the underlying cli- (C) A bacterium to its colony
mate is in general; otherwise, we have no yardstick for (D) An element to a compound
comparison. In a sense, climate is like the carrier wave in (E) A waterfall to a lake
radio broadcasting on which the irregular signals of pro-
gramming—weather—are superimposed. We have to study 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the defi-
the “normal” distribution of the meteorological elements nition of precipitation includes which of the
before we can begin to understand the “‘variability around following?
the norm” that constitutes weather. ]. Water vapor
Of all the climatic elements, solar radiation is the most
Il. Rain and snow
basic. The intensity and duration of sunshine is a partial
III. Hail and sleet
indication of this radiation, but there are also invisible
parts of the radiation that have not by any means been as (A) I}only (B) I and II only
closely studied. Cloud cover is possibly the next most im- (C) Iand WI only (D) IJ and III only
portant because it determines both how much solar radia- (E) I, Il, and Ill
tion reaches the ground and how much is radiated back
into space from the Earth’s surface. Temperature, which
depends on radiation, influences cloud cover and controls
humidity, and is obviously important in itself. Winds and
pressure are interdependent, the latter representing the
weight of the atmosphere, the former representing the air GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
movement that ensues when adjacent vertical columns of
the atmosphere have different weights. Humidity indicates
the amount of water in vapor form in the atmosphere; pre-
cipitation measures the amount of water in its liquid or
solid phase that falls to the Earth’s surface.

26. Which of the following is the best title for the

passage?
(A) Weather and Its Consequences
(B) Technology and Climate
(C) Can Weather Be Controlled?
(D) Climate: A Mixed Blessing
(E) The Components of Climate

414
 “It seems very odd, very sad,” Margaret returned, “that 30. According to the passage, Margaret asked
you can never act unselfishly in society affairs. If Iwished Mrs. Horn’s opinion because she
to go and see those girls just to do them a pleasure, and (A) wished to emulate her aunt’s behavior in society
perhaps because they’re new in town and lonely, I might (B) could not choose a suitable course of action
do them good, even—but it would be impossible.” (C) thought she would receive good advice
“Quite,” said her aunt. “Such a thing would be (D) needed to bolster her aunt’s self-confidence
quixotic. Society doesn’t rest upon any such basis. It (E) wanted to show respect for her aunt
can’t; it would go to pieces if people acted from unselfish
motives.” EI According to the passage, Mrs. Horn sees her
“Then it isn’t society at all!” said the girl. “All its relationship with Margaret as one in which she
favors are really bargains. Its gifts are for gifts back (A) protects Margaret from the natural evil of
again.” society
“Yes, that is true,” said Mrs. Horn, with no more sense (B) consoles Margaret in her disillusionment and
of a judgment in the fact than the political economist has loss of innocence °
in the fact that wages are the measure of necessity and not (C) enlightens Margaret by pointing out limitations
of merit. “You get what you pay for. It’s a matter of of her ideas
business.” She satisfied herself with this formula, but she (D) humiliates Margaret through constant proof
did not dislike her niece’s revolt against it. That was part that she is wrong
of Margaret’s originality, which pleased her aunt in pro- (E) irritates Margaret by frequent intrusions into
portion to her own conventionality; she was really a timid her personal life
person, and she liked the show of courage which
Margaret’s magnanimity often reflected upon her. She
thought that she set bounds to the girl’s originality
because she recognized them. Margaret understood this
better than her aunt and knew that she had consulted her
about going to see the girls out of deference and with no
expectation of luminous instruction. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
29. Mrs. Horn would most likely consider which of the
following a good example of the way society actu-
ally works?
(A) A celebrity lavishly supports a charity organiza-
tion solely to obtain favorable publicity.
(B) A city government intervenes to halt construc-
tion of a shopping center in a residential
district.
(C) A parent provides a child with high ideals but
cannot translate theory into practice.
(D) A building contractor secretly replaces expen-
sive materials with shabby and inadequate
goods.
(E) A doctor receives a prestigious award for the
discovery of a cure for a dangerous disease.

112
 4
Rodents are the largest order of mammals, both in Sy The author states that the laboratory rodents’ life
number of species and in individuals, outnumbering all span is especially helpful to scientists studying
other warm-blooded quadrupeds and bipeds combined.
(A) the effect of captivity on laboratory animals
There is considerable variation in this order, which
(B) means of controlling the rodent population
includes beavers, porcupines, rats, lemmings, badgers, and
(C) population distribution and predatory patterns
the familiar cage pets, gerbils and hamsters. Rodents are
(D) genetic characteristics and growth patterns
ubiquitous, inhabiting almost every continent, either as (E) the social habits of rodents
natives or as immigrants. Most are hypertense and forever
on the alert for predators, since rodents are the principal ae The passage mentions all of the following facts about
item on the menus of most furred and feathered rodents EXCEPT that they
carnivores. The common denominator among rodents is
(A) eat insects
their teeth—oversize, chisel-like incisors that grow
(B) are amphibious
constantly throughout their lives and that are kept sharp
(C) are easy to handle
and trimmed by constant chewing on wood, nuts, plaster
(D) chew constantly
walls, or other hard matter. Untrimmed, their teeth will
(E) can eat a variety of foods
grow into inward-curving tusks that can seriously injure
or even kill them. 34. It can be inferred that the author thinks rodents are
The most familiar rodents are rats and mice, whose useful for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that
usefulness as laboratory animals and as important links in they
the food chain is virtually unrivaled. In laboratories all
tend to be very alert
over the world, domesticated rats and mice are the prime
can make excellent laboratory animals
subjects of scientific experiments and research projects
are similar to humans in some ways
that aim to cure human diseases and determine the effects
are a source of food for other animals
of myriad drugs on human beings. Because rodents are
are an important part of the balance of nature
similar to humans in the adaptability of their eating habits,
rats and mice are invaluable to scientists doing studies on
diet and nutrition. Another asset is the rodents’ life span; Sh According to the author, which of the following
in the wild, rats and mice rarely live longer than one year is (are) true of rodents?
because they are preyed on by a large number of animals, I. They are a staple in the diets of many
including snakes, dogs, cats, owls, and hawks, but in cap- predators.
tivity they may live as long as three years. Such a period II. Many laboratory rodents live longer than
is just right for studies on aging, growth, and heredity. In wild rodents do.
addition, rats and mice are a perfect size to house and Il]. Most species spread devastating diseases.
handle with ease in laboratories. In the United States
alone, scientific studies use some 18 miliion rats each year. (A) I only
It is the rare person who has not reaped, directly or (B) II only
indirectly, the benefits of the medical and psychological (C) Ill only
research done with these adaptable rodents. (D) I and II only
To most people, the destructiveness and havoc rats (E) Il and III only
ad mice wreak on the environment far outweigh any of 36
Which of the following best describes the develop-
their virtues. Yet the vast majority of rodents are actually
ment of this passage?
beneficial and essential to the overall balance of nature;
they furnish food for other animals and prey on insects, (A) Major points, minor points
whose numbers they keep in check. These rodents should (B) Statement of problem, examples, proposed
never be confused with the true villains of the order: solution
the brown or Norway rat, the black rat, and the innocent- (C) Introduction, positive factors, negative factors
looking house mouse. As carriers of plague, typhus, and (D) Introduction, cause, results
other epidemic diseases, this trio has inflicted death and (E) Thesis, analogy, antithesis
misery on the world since prehistoric times. The Black
Death, the most catastrophic plague in history, killed
approximately one-quarter of the population of medieval
Europe and was almost certainly spread by rats, which
serve as hosts for plague-bearing fleas.
60 ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

113
 “What if all scientists were to publish anony- 38. It can be inferred that Dr. Green is dissatisfied with
mously?” I was asked this question recently by the
Dr. Lester Green. ‘Don’t you think,” he continued, (A) desire for anonymity among noted scientists
“that scientific literature would be far less cluttered (B) overall quality of articles appearing in scientific
with nearly useless and carelessly produced articles literature
were the authors to receive no public credit for their (C) small number of articles published by scientists
contributions? We might, in fact, be able to achieve (D) recent emphasis on secrecy in the scientific
that great nirvana in which science would be prac- community
ticed for its own sake, rather than for fame and
(E) lack of recognition given to scientists who
(10) fortune.”
publish articles
What lies at the heart of the notion pondered by
Green is the idea that individual and community 39. Which of the following best describes the author’s
interests are necessarily separate entities. Does attitude toward the “nirvana” (line 8) mentioned
Green seriously believe that the best interests of by Dr. Green? :
(15) society would be served by depersonalizing science?
(A) Excited enthusiasm
Would he suggest that artists not sign their paintings?
(B) Indulgent tolerance
“The highest form of vanity is love of fame,”
(C) Fascinated curiosity
wrote George Santayana. But is an ambition for
(D) Cautious skepticism
fame the worst reason for practicing science?
(E) Disapproving dismissal
(20) Dr. Samuel Johnson said, ““None but a blockhead
ever wrote except for money.” We scientists might 40. The author implies that an artist who did not sign
paraphrase him, “None but a blockhead ever pub- his or her painting should be regarded as
lished a scientific article except for recognition.”
(A) afool (B) amartyr (C) an egotist
Furthermore, anonymity leads to secrecy and
(D) aconformist (E) a pioneer
(25) secrecy in science is deplorable. Even when coun-
tries are at war, recognition of individual perfor-
mance is necessary. True, scientists have, during
periods of crisis such as the Second World War,
sacrificed public recognition. In time, however,
(30) most of the important breakthroughs were credited
to their discoverers.

Bs The author’s purpose in the passage is apparently to

(A) trace the history of an idea
(B) merge two differing views of an issue
(C) discredit the majority of research scientists
(D) argue against a proposed change
(E) demand a new set of standards

See laa) B
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

114
 SEC LION 3
Time —30 minutes

35 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr*; Circumference = 27r C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB X CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A D B (1) area of AABC = 5)
K is less than || is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. Aman’s grocery bill is $8, but the store deducts 5. Ifthe perimeter of a rectangular garden plot is
$1.50 from his bill for coupons. If the man gives 80 meters, which of the following could be the
the grocery clerk $10, how much change should length of one of its sides?
he get?
PS Onmeters
(A) $8.50 II. 40 meters
(B) $6.50 III. 50 meters
(C) $5.50
(D) $4.50 (A) Ionly (B) Ilonly (C) Il] only
(E) $3.50 (D) andl (E) Mand Il
2. Which of the following numbers iis divisible by 3 and
fepuhnot by 22 6. A wire of uniform diameter and composition that
ot by weighs 32 pounds is cut into two pieces. One piece
(A) 955 is 90 yards long and weighs 24 pounds. What was
(B) 975 the length, in yards, of the original wire?
(C) 990 (A) 60
(D) 995 (B) 120
(E) 999 (C) 135
(D) 270
3. The members of a club decided to wash cars in order (E) 360
to earn money for the club. Each member of the
club washed 3 cars and charged $2 per car. When 1 : 1
they had finished, their receipts totalled $66, which Teomlt- 5 of a number is 2 more than 3 of the number,
included $6 in tips. How many members were in the whathethe number?
club?
(A) 2
(A) 9 (B) 6
(B) 10 (10
(C) 11 (D) 20

(E) 22

4. If x and y are positive integers such that GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

%2 hy?
= 13 and x >y,then x-y=

bare (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 -(E) 5

it
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,n, and k stand for real numbers.

ColumnA — Column B
EXAMPLES |
Column A Column B | Answers
12. The number of edgesof |The number of faces of
2X6 BATE ‘@@Qoo®
a cube a cube

n is an integer. .

13. The remainder when n The remainder when n

is divided by 9 is divided by 6

14. Average (arithmetic Average (arithmetic

mean) of -9, -8, 8, mean) of -7, -6, 0,
Column A Column B and 9 6, and 7

OF
1 1 pe
=. We 15

n is a negative integer.

9. i XonXGt On nt+nt+nt+n
246° a

171°
Path 273345
130°
Q= {1, 2,3, 4,5} C is the center of the circle.
x >0
10. The number that is a A number that is a
member of set Q but member of both sets Se Se 66
not of set P P and Q

-+—s—_
A B c D
poecamasseee ieee
16. Length of AD 18
te
sulk IS

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

116
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A _ if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

A fair six-sided die with faces numbered | through

Secrets Sa 6 is to be rolled twice.
si ae
x and y are even integers. 23. The probability of ob- The probability of ob-
taining a 6 on the top taining a 5 on the top
17 . y face on the first rolland _ face on both the first
; a 5 on the top face on and second rolls
the second roll

°
a 609 x and y are consecutive terms of a sequence whose
CecMSalteInates (2 le al = 2 eke

60° jay 24. xy vey

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

18. x x

x= 2 y
x 10
19. x-4 y

20 es IVE
4

25 x 9
x = 501
y = 500

at: (x + y\(x - y) 1,000 26. 0.7x + 0.9y 0.7(x + y)

R a, b, and c are positive.

Q
S 27. Average (arithmetic Average (arithmetic
mean) of a, b, and c mean) of a7, b*, and c?

Ye

The diameter of the circle is 1.

P, Q, R, and S§ are on the circumference of the

oi G0 ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

22. Perimeter of quadrilat- =
eral PORS

117
5 Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Questions 32-33 refer to the following definition.

5
: For all positive integers n,

let (n) = sn if n is even;

Onin). nade let (n) = 2n if n is odd.

28. Which of the following points, when plotted on the 32. If y isa prime number greater than 2, then 0) a
grid above, will be twice as far from P(2, 3) as from 1 1
Q(1, 2)? (A) gy (B) sy (C) vy (D) 2 (E) 4y
(A) (0,1) (B) 0,3) (©) C, 3)
(D) 3,4) €) GB.5) 33. ()-(0) =
suieett Woagek Speen Se 6 rae (A) G3) B) (C)
29. If 15 kilograms of pure water is added to 10 kilo- (D) (E)
grams of pure alcohol, what percent by weight of
the resulting solution is alcohol?

(A) 665% (B) 40% (©) 25%

(D) 15% (E) 10%

34. In the figure above, the radius of the smaller circle

is half the radius of the larger circle. If the circles
have the same center O, what is the ratio of the area
of the shaded region to the area of the larger circle?

(A)-4:5. -(B)NBE4* a (CC)

(D)ci4- SUB) gies
30. In the figure above two lines intersect. Which of the
following must equal 180- x?
(a) ( 35. If the operation A is defined for all positive x and
A) xe (Bex Zz (Chere eee 2% |
een ee y by xAy ee which of the following
must be true for positive x, y, and z?

1 1 1 l 1 IL xAx= uf
31. lis = Zz
ee
a 8
een
16.32
2
1 I. xAy=yAx
t=1+ 55s then t exceeds s by
Mm. xA(yvAz=GAyAz
AM @®; OF OF OF (A) Ionly (B) IandIonly (C) Land II only
(D) Iland II only (E) I, I, and Il

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

118
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3E
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

1
_A
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B 3
D 4
B 5
E 6
E 7
D 8
Cc 9
B 10
B 11
OB 12
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A 14
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348) 16.
LA 17
ie) 18
bilD, 19
HG 20
GG 21
A 22
nut 23
eels} 24
se 25 MrOoOmMProaoadqgqsdTeMoarFrFoONdOMOoOmMmMoawWBorWDWDODWO
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me ®)
1B
za rPMDMDOOTrPDWIVOMPUYrPMMBramMowarorodow—wvonomowoar
=o
18)
2B
mis)
Pile
*Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

119
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
¢ Scanning. Your answer sheet is “‘read”’ by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal B
is recorded on acomputer tape. 4

e Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran-
the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
wrong response; for questions with four answer figure on the worksheet. _
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, the conversion table on the back cover. Enter this
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-verbal score you
resulting raw score is determined as follows: just recorded and your reported SAT-verbail score
should be identical. If not, see the paragraph at the
44 right — se wrong = 44 — 8 = 36raw score points bottom of the next page.)

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
rounded upward to 37. the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
e Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to number incorrect
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number correct — = subtotalA
4
for minor differences in difficulty among different
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
the abilities of the group with whom the student in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
the College Board scale, scores earned by students total B, use the formula:
at different times can be compared. For example, an number incorrect
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number correct — = subtotal B
4
istration indicates the same level of developed ver-
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi- Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
tion of the test taken at another time. number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
How to Score the Test record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported mula:
to you recently by using the information in this booklet
number incorrect
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you number correct — = subtotal C
3
begin, check that the first two characters (number and
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an- Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
swer sheet are the same as the form code printed on subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses figure on the worksheet.
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of
Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers.
round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4 any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
the resulting figure on the worksheet.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec-
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the same look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omitted an- tained in Ein the conversion table on the back cover.
swers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula: Enter this figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-mathe-
matical score you just recorded and your reported
number incorrect SAT-mathematical score should be identical. If not,
number correct — 4 = subtotalA
see the paragraph at the bottom of the next page.)

120
 SAT-SCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODE 3E
SAT-Verbal Sections

A. Section 1: Lec walaatinleea PSA OS

a Ae | a
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 4: BE Nee Sevele nner el -21/4h (eres

a ete) ees ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) C

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) ; D

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score Ries S|

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical Sections

A. Section 2: eee eee /4t (ee Oe)

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and eee see 3/4 t( ) ‘=
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27 cases
Stee eh a ON RS CS aeeinen (ae ja
(4-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(TotalA+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score Eons

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

Should you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the
phone number below. If, after following the above scoring directions and checking
your work at least twice, your results disagree with the SAT-verbal or SAT-mathe-
matical score reported on your ATP score report, you may request rescoring of your
answer sheet. If rescoring confirms that an error had been made (resulting in either
higher or lower scores than those originally reported), corrected reports will be
sent to all recipients of your original scores. Please send your request to:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 771-7600
Please indicate whether it is your SAT-verbal or SAT-mathematical score, or both,
that you want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring
worksheet on which you did your calculations.

fot
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3E
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

85 40
39

9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
ai
id
a
=A
-5
=
7
-8
or below

22
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and Test of Standard Written English SiN naa
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YOUR NAME: First 4 letters of last name
(Print) Last First M1

SIGNATURE:
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USE ONLY OO) OO |OL@O]@
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 COLLEGE BOARD — SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only for completing this answer sheet. Be
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Completely erase any errors or stray marks. the intended space.

Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer than 50 questions, leave the extra answer spaces blank.
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FORM CODE 3F SECTION 1
Time —30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence asa whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
©O@®eaoo®D
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. CONTAMINATE: (A) activate (B) exhibit (E) perfect. spectacular @DdDooo
(C) diagnose (D) cleanse (E) generate
2. EXPLICIT: (A) illegal (B) fulfilled 16. With all its ----, the journey had nonetheless been
(C) flat (D) unclear (E) fortunate an extremely eventful and successful one.
3. INDUSTRIOUS: (A) sensitive (B) lazy (A) discomfort (B) adventure (C) glory
(C) cruel (D) imitative (E) unpaid (D) diligence (E) accomplishment

4. DEPLETE: (A) disclose (B) surround 17. The reactor is a tool of enormous ----: its energy is
(C) addto (D) varyfrom (E) respond to turned to the service of many disciplines, from
metallurgy to archaeology.
5. MARRED: (A) overheated (B) enjoyable
(C) perfect (D) comfortable (E) tart (A) versatility (B) disparity (C) vagueness
(D) fragility (E) fluctuation
6. CLAMOR: (A) temporary setback
18. The ---- of music these days provides the exposure
(B) orderly discussion (C) disguised sympathy
that enables any person to discover that he or she
(D) plaindemeanor (E) fair judgment
has an ---- for some sort of music.
7. CONCUR: (A) laugh (B) disagree (A) polyphony. .esteem
(C) compensate (D) release (E) exceed (B) enrichment. .articulation
(C) classicism. .aptitude
8. PLASTIC: (A) unavailable (B) jagged (D) vibrance. .antipathy
(C) receding (D) indivisible (E) rigid (E) accessibility. appreciation
9. FLEDGLING: (A) impostor (B) veteran 19. There is little chance of ---- in a static society in
(C) opponent (D) reluctant supporter which all people think and live alike.
(E) accurate reporter
(A) consensus (B) boredom (C) regularity
10. AMBULATORY: (A) bedridden (B) hostile (D) tranquility (E) innovation
(C) contagious (D) frail (E) glum
20. By comparing the actual architectural ---- of the
11. BUTTRESS: (A) straighten (B) forward Aztec pyramids with those reported in ancient
(C) undermine (D) show off Aztec documents, it is possible to ---- the general
(E) observe secretly descriptive accuracy of these records.
(A) designs. falsify (B) details. .assess
12. SACCHARINE: (A) caustic (B) allergic (C) blueprints..delay (D) devices. .initiate
(C) magnetic (D) reticent (E) polluted
(E) dimensions. .ignore
13. EXPEDITE: (A) absolve (B) encompass
(C) alter radically (D) speak in anger
(E) make more difficult
14. VENERATION: (A) intrusion (B) collaboration
(C) irreverence (D) continence (E) inversion GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
15. DESICCATE: (A) darken (B) sedate
(C) migrate (D) soak (E) erase
Copyright © 1983 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
127
Princeton, NJ 08541.
 Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Usually the designation “father of modern biology” is 22. The author seems to regard Harvey’s work as which
given to William Harvey. In the early 1600’s, Harvey of the following?
observed that the beating heart expelled the blood within (A) Revolutionary (B) Hypothetical
it. He then reasoned: if the heart contains two ounces of (C) Controversial (D) Rudimentary
blood and beats sixty-five times each minute, then it must (E) Prosaic
eject into the body over ten pounds of blood per minute.
It had previously been thought that blood was derived 23. With which of the following is the passage primarily
from the food that is eaten. But one cannot imagine ten concerned?
pounds of blood being formed anew each minute from the (A) Explaining the workings of the human heart
amount of food a person consumes. Reflection on this and the blood system
observation and simple deduction led Harvey to postulate (B) Tracing the development of biology from
that blood expelled by the heart must circulate through Harvey to Descartes
the body and return to the heart. He then performed (C) Discussing early misconceptions about the
experiments to investigate the hypothesis. He showed that heart and blood
obstruction of a vein causes pooling of blood on the side (D) Describing the significance to biology of
of the obstruction away from the heart. He showed that William Harvey’s work
the bleeding arises from the nearest end to the heart of a (E) Criticizing investigations made prior to the
severed artery and the farthest end of a severed vein. And
adoption of the new scientific method
he demonstrated with elegant simplicity the function of
the venous valves, concerning which he wrote that “so 24. It can be inferred that Harvey’s observation of
provident a cause as nature had not so plac’d many valves pooling of blood on the side of a vein obstruction
without design.” away from the heart led him to the conclusion that
Harvey’s discovery of the circulation of blood was a
(A) the blood was returning to the heart
monumental and far-reaching contribution to science. In
(B) blood was manufactured as it circulated
the first place, it discredited the beliefs of fourteen
(C) blood was expelled from the heart with each
centuries that the heart was not a muscular organ and that
beat
the blood passed through the septum between the right
(D) the heart had to pump harder when the blood
and left ventricles. In addition, Harvey knowingly or un-
was far away from it
knowingly used the scientific method in almost astound-
(E) previous calculations as to the amount of blood
ingly modern fashion. And, finally, he bolstered his
contained by the body were incorrect
already incontrovertible claim to immortality by conceiv-
ing the heart as a pump, for in this notion Harvey heralded 25. It can be inferred from the passage that the con-
a new view concerning living organisms—though he did not cept of mechanism was important to the scientific
appreciate the meaning of his own work on this score. method because it supported the idea that
But to his successors his work gave proof to the concept
(A) living organisms were part of a universal
that a living organism could be viewed as a material ma-
design
chine. Descartes was quick to praise Harvey for “having
(B) scientists could work together, each one per-
broken the ice in this matter,” and in his own discourses
forming part of an experiment
he relied heavily on the work of Harvey to illustrate the
(C) hypotheses must be based on experimental
mechanical nature of living objects. Their only differ-
evidence
ence from man-made machines, he insisted, was in the
(D) the somewhat complicated method could lead
degree of complexity. With these assertions, sudden new
to a simplistic theory of life
excitement entered the realm of biological thought. For
it now seemed reasonable that if the living organism were
(E) organisms could be expected to function in
a material mechanism, then it, too, could be investigated
understandable and regular ways
by the new method of science.

21. It can be inferred that Harvey is considered the

“father of modern biology” because
(A) he was the first to document his findings

G0 ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(B) his experiments could be easily duplicated
(C) everyone before him had thought of the heart
as a muscular organ
(D) he was the first to describe with precision
the position of the heart The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of
(E) he introduced the concept of mechanism into excerpts from published material. The ideas contained in them do not
biology necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational
Testing Service. To make the text suitable for testing purposes, we may
in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the
128 Original.
 Is it wicked to take pleasure in spring, and other sea- ole According to the passage, many readers find
sonal changes? Is it politically reprehensible, while we are references to nature in the author’s articles to be
living under an imperfect social order, to point out that (A) politically offensive
life is frequently more worth living because of a bluebird’s (B) delightfully sentimental
song, a maple tree in October, or some other natural phe- (C) morally admirable
nomenon that does not cost money and does not have (D) inadequately documented
what newspaper editors call a political angle? There is no (E) carelessly irrelevant
doubt that many people think so. A favorable reference
to “Nature” in one of my articles is likely to bring me 28. In the last sentence, the author states that exclusive
abusive letters, and though the key word in these letters is admiration of “steel and concrete” may have which
usually “sentimental,” two ideas seem to be mixed up in of the following effects?
them. One is that any pleasure in the actual process of life (A) Alienation from the ideals of society
encourages a sort of political quietism. People, so the (B) Disappearance of parks and wooded areas
thought runs, ought to be discontented; we ought to mul- (C) Loss of sympathy for the perceptions of a
tiply our wants and not simply increase our enjoyment of child’s mind
the things we already have. The other idea is that this is (D) Replacement of human affections with mechan-
the age of machines and that to dislike the machine, or ical efficiency
even to want to limit its domination, is reactionary and
(E) Diversion of natural impulses to harmful ends
slightly ridiculous. Love of nature, the argument goes, is
a foible of urbanized people who have no notion what 29. The author answers his opponents by doing all of
nature is really like; those who have to deal with the soil the following EXCEPT
do not love it, and take at most a utilitarian interest in
(A) providing an explanation of his own views
birds and flowers. To love the country one must live in
(B) asking rhetorical questions
the town, merely taking an occasional weekend ramble at
(C) refuting each argument exhaustively
the warmer times of the year.
(D) taking a longer view than they do
History disproves this last notion. The other idea
(E) claiming to understand their point of view
seems to me wrong in a subtler way. Certainly we ought
to be discontented, we ought not simply to make the best 30. The author would most likely agree with which of
of a bad job, and yet if we kill all pleasure in the actual the following statements?
process of life, what sort of future are we preparing for
(A) Financial price determines value.
ourselves? If we cannot enjoy the return of spring, what
(B) Life will become increasingly complex.
will we do with the leisure that the machine will give us?
(C) Farmers have no affection for nature.
If our economic and political problems are solved, life may
(D) Machines can serve a beneficial purpose.
become simpler instead of more complex, and the sort of
pleasure one gets from finding the first violet will loom (E) Childhood values do not suit adults.
larger than the sort one gets from watching the Sunday
football game on television. By retaining one’s childhood
love of trees, butterflies, and even toads, one makes a
peaceful and decent future a little more probable. But by
preaching the doctrine that only steel and concrete are to
be admired, one makes it a little surer that human beings
will have no outlet for their surplus energy except in
hatred and leader-worship.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
26. Which of the following statements best represents
the author’s response to the opening question?
(A) Yes, spring never gave a person freedom.
(B) Yes, the seasons are unimportant in a machine
age.
(C) Yes,pleasure has no place in an unjust society.
(D) No, nature makes us forget our discontent.
(E) No, appreciation of nature makes life more
bearable.

129
]
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
eRe All these plans and programs are going to produce relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
no ---- changes in our cities since they touch only Example:
the surface of the ugliness, the --- ways in which
the system manifests its disorders. YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(B) anger: madness (C) smile :amusement
(A) exterior. .bizarre
(D) face : expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(B) minimal. obnoxious
©®@deO0Oq®
(C) appreciable. .vital
(D) visible. .petty
(E) significant. .superficial 36. FISH:OCEAN:: (A) snake:path (B) bird:cage
(C) bear:zoo (D) camel: desert
S23 His ---- disposition, by turns sunny and sullen, was (E) elephant: river
a reflection not of inner turmoil but of external
stimuli. Sis PAINTER:SMOCK :: (A) mason: trowel
(A) somber (B) contentious (C) stoic (B) lumberjack:ax (C) baby: bib
(D) volatile (E) callous (D) umpire: baseball (E) prophet: beard

33. While regent of Japan, Hideyoshi desired approval 38. SOB:GRIEF:: (A) apology: punishment
of his poetry, and since there was no dearth of (B) letter:acceptance (C) whisper:silence
sycophants at the court, his work was almost (D) cheer: approval (E) voice: music
unanimously ----. 39; LOTTERY: DRAWING ::- (A) gambling: dice
(A) amended (B) distilled (C) interred (B) election: tally (C) education: grades
(D) collated (E) extolled (D) football: practice (E) hockey: penalties

34. So great was her desire to explain every nuance of AVIARY:FLY:: (A) aquarium: swim
her metaphysical theory that even the variety and (B) kennel:climb (C) solarium: observe
copiousness of her native language seemed ---- the (D) satellite:launch (E) terrarium: glide
---- of that desire.
41. CRESCENDO: INTENSITY ::
(A) inadequate to. .fervor (A) innocence: youth (B) acceleration: speed
(B) untapped by. .intensity (C) uproar:attention (D) adaptation: power
(C) untouched by. .rigor (E) abbreviation: length
(D) sufficient for. fanaticism
(E) unmatched by. .torpor 42. CONFLUENCE: STREAMS ::
(A) greenhouse: plants (B) foundation: buildings
358 The present court is ----, for never before has partisan (C) resemblance: pictures (D) junction: roads
politics played such a demonstrable role in judicial (E) ebb: tides
decisions or so ---- the quality of jurisprudence.
(A) unique. .colored 43. FLIPPANT: DEFERENTIAL ::
(B) effective. interrupted (A) vain:handsome (B) frivolous: serious
(C) impartial. .reflected (C) devout:sincere (D) studious: intelligent
(D) perfect. .investigated (E) indifferent: apathetic
(E) didactic. .complicated
CONJUGAL: MARRIAGE ::
(A) spiritual:sin (B) corrupt: politics
(C) fiscal: money (D) deteriorating: alliance
(E) blissful: retirement

45. PERFIDY: TRAITOR::

(A) execution: criminal (B) loyalty: contributor
(C) veracity: patriot (D) generosity: benefactor
(E) pacifism: belligerent

Sau
|O)= PB
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

130
 SECTION 2
Time —30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 2mr C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
=
#
is equal to
is unequal to
< is less than or equal to
2 is greater than or equal to Doss (1) area of AABC = AB
X5 CD
<__ is less than || is parallel to (25 AC AD? DC*
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. Jane had 4.25 meters of rope and used 3.5 meters. 4. The expression “2 less than the product 3 times x”
How many meters of rope does she have left? can be written as

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.25 3x

(A) “
foyer. ~~(E) 7.75
(B) 2 3-0
2. Which of the following is NOT equal to a whole
number? (Cy 3x32

ee
54 + 27 54 + 27 54
+ 27 (D)t3:= 2)x

54 + 27 54 + 27 (Be 2a 3x
(D) 27 iE) 81

3. Ifthe price of nails has been increased from 5 pounds

for $1 to 3 pounds for $1, how many fewer pounds
can now be bought for $6 than could be bought
before?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 12
(E) 15
If PR = RQ in the figure above, what are the
coordinates of point Q?

(A) (x,-y) (B) Ox) (C) &,-x)

(D) (-x,y) (E) (-x,-y)

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131
 The average (arithmetic mean) of a student’s scores
ee If 2x =-1, then (2x
- 3)? = Me
on four tests was 78. If she received a score of 70
(A)O (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 16 (E) 25 on each of the first two tests and 84 on the third,
what was her score on the fourth test?

If 9X9X9= 2i* occ r= (A) 58

(B) 69
(C) 77
(A) 51 (D) 80
(E) 88
(B) 1
11. If x-y =8, what is the value of x? - y? ?
(C) 3
(A) -64 (B) -16 (C) 16 (D) 64
(D) 6 (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
(E) 9

0.84? - 0.83? = Y
(A) 0.00167
(B) 0.0167
(GC) eec0167.
(D) 16.70
(E) 167.0 a°

eS
Df LZ,

/*-——— 160 m iz. In AXYZ above, if XY = YZ, then a=

(A) 125 (B) 115 (C) 110 (D) 70 (EB) 55

120m
wea
13: The fraction 60 equals all of the following EXCEPT

A gardener wants to enclose a rectangular lot and

(y= @) 2 (Cc) 52
Oe OF15
divide it into four equal parts, as shown above. If 14
If. ax t+y=x+2y
=7 -and x=1, then
every line segment represents one section of fence
and no sections of fence overlap, how many meters
(A) 2
of fencing are needed?
(B) 3
(A) 560 (B) 760 (C) 800 (C) 4
(D) 5
(D) 920 (E) 980 (E) 6

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132
15. If the distances between points A,B,and C are 20. At a certain college, x liters of milk are needed per
equal, which of the following could be true? month for each student. At this rate, y liters of
milk will supply z students for how many months?
I. A,B,and C are vertices of an equilateral

I].
triangle.
A,B,and C are vertices of a right triangle.
(A
Ill. B and C lie on an arc of a circle with
center A. Oli
(A) I only (B) IIonly (C) II only
(Ou
(D) I and III (E) If and III
(D) **
, > ac ae|
iGmemeer abe any integer. If kK=2k and k=-—k,
> + 2 (E) xyz
what does the product k times k equal?
k2
A! 8&4 ©>7 Ok ®@K

17. What fraction of 15 hours is 15 seconds?

1
(A) 6
1
iP) 225

(©) x
1 2a: The figure above shows water in a tank whose base
is 2 feet by 2 feet. When a solid cube | foot on an
.) 3,600
edge is completely immersed in the water, how
1 many inches will the water rise in the tank?
i) 54,000
(A) = (B) 3 (C)4 ()12 (&® 24
Questions 18-19 refer to the following definition.

The d-distance of an integer M from an integer NV

is M-N.

18. What isthe d-distance of 5 from —5 ?

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
faet0 (B) 5 (C)0 (D)5 ©) 10

a G Di aee
{ t { t {

19. Of the integers indicated on the number line above,

which has the least d-distance from 7 ?

maa (Bb) 8B ()C (DD (EE

133
Z 22; N years ago Sue was twice as old as Joe was. If Joe
is now 25 years old, how old is Sue now in terms
of N?

(A) 50-2N : :
(By) a0 ay
(C25 — iy, 24. If the triangle and rectangle above have equal areas
Sy = iHe and if i = 60,then xy =

(A) 240 (B) 120 (C) 60 (D) 30 (€) 15

25. If the sum of the first «positive integers is x,

then, in terms of m and x, which of the following
equals the sum of the next ” integers?

(A) nx
(B) a-Fx
(C) n? +x
(D)) 2s
23. The circle above has center O and radius 2. If the (E) n+ 2x
total area of the shaded regions formed by the two
diameters is 7,then x =

(A) 45 (B) 90. 4C) 120 }(D) 135 (8) 270

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

134
 SECTION 3
Time —30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been —-, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
©O@®eO®O®
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated. .amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. MINGLE: (A) revolve (B) despise (E) perfect. spectacular @DoOooO
(C) flow smoothly (D) remain apart
(E) regulate well
11. Only since the 1850’s have large numbers of women
2. VALID: (A) unjustified (B) impervious been able to ---- the scientific community in the
(C) unrepentant (D) inevitable (E) unclaimed United States, and even today they have to ----
lingering male bias.
3. EGGON: (A) remove (B) restrain
(C) respect (D) conclude (E) immerse (A) rescind. .submit to
(B) penetrate. .protect
4. CONVENTIONAL: (A) ornamental (C) escape. .combat
(B) unorthodox (C) misunderstood (D) enter. .contend with
(D) widely dispersed (E) rapidly constructed (E) evaluate. .seek out
5. OPTIMUM: (A) most expensive 12. The attempt to demonstrate that matter can exist
(B) most diverse (C) least precise in a form too small to be seen by the eye revealed
(D) least familiar (E) least favorable that it is possible to discover truth ----, that is, by a
process of inference based on observation.
6. SAGE: (A) bystander (B) procrastinator
(C) fanatic (D) eccentric (E) ignoramus (A) immediately (B) indirectly
(C) momentarily (D) infallibly
7. VOUCHSAFE: (A) isolate (B) weaken (E) definitively
(C) refuse to grant (D) talk crudely
(E) abstain from pleasure 13. We cannot endorse developments that make our
surroundings more hideous, our culture more ----,
8. CLEMENCY: (A) remorse (B) severity or our lives less complete.
(C) incompetence (D) private opinion (A) viable (B) effectual (C) tolerant
(E) careful consideration (D) provocative (E) tawdry
9. INTRACTABLE: (A) obvious (B) talented
(C) bountiful (D) obedient (E) joyous
10. SUFFRAGE: (A) lack of eloquence
(B) lack of franchise (C) lack of pain
(D) desire for power (E) desire for retribution
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

135
3
14. Her political thought was developed in a series of 19: SILKWORM: SILK:: (A) oyster: pearl
essays characterized by a reliance on ----; general- (B) branch:leaf (C) ant: anthill
izations and imprecise grand statements --— her. (D) moth:wool (E) mosquito: disease
(A) universalities. .evaded 20. SONATA:MUSICAL:: (A) epic: whimsical
(B) minutiae. .disturbed (B) novel:literary (C) song: humorous
(C) details. .preoccupied (D) testimony:rhymed (E) pantomime: vocal
(D) abstractions. .disconcerted
(E) ambiguities. infuriated CENTRIFUGE: SEPARATION ::
(A) dial: instrumentation
15. Unfortunately, routine military operations are (B) degree: measurement
described ---- in this account of the conflict, whereas (C) thermometer: refrigeration
analyses of the more significant political considera- (D) apparatus: filtration
tions are relegated to ---- paragraphs. (E) microscope: magnifi¢ation
(A) concisely. .lavish
(B) summarily. .interminable CATACOMB: CEMETERY ::
(C) exhaustively. occasional (A) subway:railroad (B) dirigible: airplane
(D) superficially. .brief (C) elevator:shaft (D) bridge: highway
(E) adequately. .ample (E) grotto: cave

23. RED HERRING: MISLEAD::

Each question below consists of a related pair of words (A) smoke screen: obscure
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (B) blank check: bewilder
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a (C) clean slate: condemn
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. (D) white lie: damage
(E) loan shark: haggle
Example:
YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep 24. APERTURE:CAMERA:: (A) rope: pulley
(B) anger: madness (C) smile
:amusement (B) window:room (C) piston: engine
(D) face : expression (E) impatience
:rebellion (D) eyeglasses: vision (E) wrench: pipe
@S2@deoeoqoo®d
25. PERCIPIENT : DISCERNMENT ::
(A) ravenous:hunger (B) punctual: tact
16. GLAZE:CLAY:: (A) easel: paint (C) heroic: conflict (D) artificial: reality
(B) color:chalk (C) varnish: wood (E) concerned: indifference
(D) title:book (E) tea:cup

7k FLEET: SHIPS:: (A) dictionary: syllables

(B) committee: people (C) clock: time
(D) photograph: subjects (E) hospital: nurses

18. THREATEN: ATTACK :: (A) cancel: revise

(B) annihilate: defile (C) rehabilitate: discard GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) promise: deliver (E) assume:doubt

136
 3
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Despite their seemingly infinite formulations, Op It can be inferred from the passage that compounds
invisible inks generally fall into one of three cate- “that must be developed in several intermediate
gories, depending on the way they are made visible. steps’ (lines 18-19) are desirable particularly because
Line First there are organic liquids such as milk, (A) their color definition is improved propor-
(5) lemon juice, vinegar, and some body fluids. These tionately
inks are crude and are detected by heating the paper (B) interception of messages is more difficult
to which they are applied. Gentle warming actually (C) complex procedures themselves encourage
chars the inks into visibility. Although they can be further technical innovation
detected easily, organic inks have the advantage of (D) legibility increases as an ink requires more
(10) being always available. developing reagents
The second category of inks comprises chemical (E) such processes facilitate the timely detection of
solutions. Colorless when dry, they become visible any error
when treated with an appropriate reagent. Such inks
are called “sympathetic inks” because each writing 28. It is most likely that the author does not list water as
(15) solution requires a specific developing reagent to a fourth category of invisible writing fluids because it
make the message appear. Of course, the trick with (A) does not need a distinct developing process
sympathetic inks is to find compounds that are (B) is so easily made visible as to be of little use
extremely reagent-specific or, better yet, that must (C) has not yet gained acceptability as an espionage
be developed in several intermediate steps before tool
(20) color appears. (D) is quickly noticeable even to ordinary citizens
A third type of ink—radioactive ink—is developed (E) is too elementary a substance to be considered
by photographic processes. Solutions of radium D in an ink
acetone, for example, have been used to write mes-
sages on clothing without raising the suspicion of
(25) counterespionage agents who were looking for secret
ink on paper. Messages written in this way are de-
veloped simply by exposing the clothes to an X-ray
film plate.
It is also possible to write messages with plain
(30) water and avoid the use of chemicals altogether.
Water disturbs paper fibers; the message can be made
visible by exposure to iodine vapor. The vapor set- GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
tles on the paper’s surface in the written lines where
the fibers have been disturbed.

26. According to the passage, “‘sympathetic inks”

(line 14) are so named because they
(A) have an affinity for various types of writing
surfaces
(B) resemble each other in that they leave no color
trace when dry
(C) are developed through interaction with a
particular substance
(D) can be made visible only for a limited length
of time
(E) possess a great degree of internal molecular
cohesion

137
 My first glimpse of the flat black stretches of 29. The passage as a whole is best characterized as
Chicago depressed and dismayed me, mocked all my (A) a description of an individual’s reactions to a
fantasies. Chicago seemed an unreal city whose new environment
mythical houses were built of slabs of black coal (B) a portrait of the residents of a city
wreathed in palls of gray smoke, houses whose (C) an illustration of the energy and optimism of
foundations were sinking slowly into the dank youth
prairie. Flashes of steam showed intermittently on (D) an analysis of racial discrimination in an urban
the wide horizon, gleaming translucently in the setting
winter sun. The din of the city entered my con- (E) a comparison between romantic illusions and
(10) sciousness, entered to remain for years to come. The
mundane reality
year was 1927.
What would happen to me here? Would I sur- 30. In the context of the passage, the author’s “fan-
vive? My expectations were modest. I wanted only tasies” (line 3) most probably have to do with
a job. Hunger had long been my daily companion.
(A) dreams of great personal wealth and power
(15) Diversion and recreation, with the exception of
(B) memories of scenes and characters from favorite
reading, were unknown. In all my life—though
books
surrounded by many people—I had not had a single
(C) theories about the nature of personal relation-
satisfying, sustained relationship with another human
ships
being and, not having had any, I did not miss it. I
(D) the desire for physical isolation and intellectual
(20) made no demands whatever upon others.
independence
The train rolled into the depot. Aunt Maggie
(E) notions of the magnificence of the city
and I got off and walked slowly through the crowds
into the station. I looked about to see if there were che To the author, Chicago seemed to be all of the fol-
signs saying: FOR WHITE—FOR COLORED. I lowing EXCEPT
(25) saw none. Black people and White people moved
(A) boring
about, each seemingly intent upon a private mission.
There was no racial fear. And yet, because every- (B) gloomy
(C) crowded
thing was so new, I began to grow tense again, al-
(D) noisy
though it was a different sort of tension than I had
(E) unpredictable
(30) known before. I knew that this machine-city was
governed by strange laws and I wondered if I would Bok The author’s attitude in lines 38-41 is best de-
ever learn them. scribed as
As I stood in the icy wind waiting for the street-
car, I wanted to talk to Aunt Maggie, to ask her (A) deep despair
questions, but her tight face made me hold my (B) pretended indifference
(35)
tongue. I was learning already from the frantic light (C) calm assurance
in her eyes the strain that the city imposed upon its (D) apprehensive resolve
people. I was seized by doubt. Should I have come (E) excited expectation
here? But going back was impossible. I had fled 33
On the basis of the passage, which of the following
(40) a known terror, and perhaps I could cope with this
statements about Aunt Maggie can most logically
unknown terror that lay ahead.
be made?
The streetcar came. Aunt Maggie motioned for
me to get on and pushed me toward a seat in which (A) She has just had an argument with the author.
a White man sat looking blankly out the window. (B) She will find the author a job.
(45) I sat down beside the man and looked straight ahead (C) She has become indifferent to the welfare of
of me. After a moment I stole a glance at the White the author.
man; he was still staring out the window, his mind (D) She wishes she were anywhere but Chicago.
fastened upon some inward thought. I did not exist (E) She feels the pressure of life in Chicago.
for him; I was as far from his mind as the stone
(50) buildings that swept past in the street. It would
have been illegal for me to sit beside him in the
part of the South that I had come from.

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138
 The chief reason for the development of the 34, According to the author, which of the following
3
medieval Italian into the modern Italian lies in the was a paradox of Renaissance Italy?
character of the states of Renaissance Italy (A) Italy was the birthplace of individualism.
Line including, ironically, even the despotisms. In the (B) Renaissance people perceived the state
(5) Middle Ages both sides of human consciousness— objectively.
that which was turned within and that which was (C) Renaissance people recognized themselves
turned without—lay as though dreaming or half as spiritual individuals.
awake beneath a common veil. The veil was woven (D) Renaissance people gained more power as they
of faith, illusion, and childlike prepossession, became more independent.
(10) through which the world and history were seen (E) Despotism helped lead to a greater sense of
clad in strange hues. Medieval people were individuality.
conscious of themselves only as members of a race,
people, party, family, or corporation—only through 35; Which of the following best describes the style of
some general category. It was in Italy that the veil lines 4-11?
(15) was first lifted. In Italy there arose an objective (A) Rambling (B) Satirical (C) Ironic
treatment and consideration of the state and of all (D) Metaphoric (E) Paradoxical
things of this world, and at the same time a subjec-
tive side asserted itself with corresponding 36. It can be inferred from the passage that those
emphasis. Italians began to recognize themselves people “who were protected or used by the
(20) as individuals, and they began to behave in tyrant” (lines 23-24) were NOT likely to
accordance with this recognition. believe that they
Despotism fostered the utmost individuality
(A) should be able to depend on themselves when
not only in the tyrant but also in the persons who
the need arose
were protected or used by the tyrant—the
(B) were always in danger of being deprived of
(25) secretaries, ministers, poets, and companions.
their power or influence
These people were forced to know all the inward
(C) ought to make the most of any good fortune
resources of their own nature, the momentary as
that befell them
well as the permanent. Their enjoyment was (D) had identities independent of any group
enhanced and concentrated by the desire to obtain
allegiance
(30) the greatest satisfaction from a period of relative (E) could disregard the demands and authority
power and influence that held no guarantee of long
of the despot
duration.

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189
 Confronted by an enigmatic spectacle the writer 38. The author suggests that a writer appeals to a “part
descends within the self, and in that lonely inward of our nature” (line 6) that is
region of stress and strife the writer, if deserving (A) unsympathetic (B) analytical
and fortunate, finds the terms of his or her appeal.
(C) innate (D) readily apparent
The appeal is made to our less obvious capacities: (E) hard and resisting
to that part of our nature which, because of the
warlike conditions of existence, is necessarily kept 39. It can be inferred that the author would most likely
out of sight within the more resisting and hard describe “‘wisdom”’ (lines 12 and 15) as
qualities—like the vulnerable body within a steel
(A) preeminent (B) mutable (C) timeless
(10) armor. The appeal is less loud, more profound, less
(D) liberating (E) accumulative
distinct, more stirring—and sooner forgotten. Yet
its effect endures forever. The changing wisdom of The author’s primary point about writers is that they
successive generations discards ideas, questions facts,
demolishes theories. But the writer appeals to that (A) descend within themselves to avoid confronta-
part of our being which is not dependent on wisdom; tion with the mass of humanity
(15)
to that in us which is a gift and not an acquisition— (B) have an effect that is permanently enduring
and, therefore, more permanently enduring. The because they appeal to the wisdom of
writer speaks to our capacity for delight and wonder, humanity
to the sense of mystery surrounding our lives; to our (C) address the underlying sense of affinity with
sense of pity, and beauty, and pain; to the latent others that exists within all human beings
(20)
feeling of fellowship with all creation—and to the (D) choose to ignore the joys, dreams, sorrows,
subtle but invincible conviction of solidarity that and fears of other human beings
knits together the loneliness of innumerable hearts, (E) can foretell what existence will be like for
to the solidarity in dreams, in joy, in sorrow, in
future generations of humans
(25) aspirations, in illusions, in hope, in fear, which binds
people to each other, which binds together all
humanity—the dead to the living and the living to
the yet unborn.

Side According to the passage, if writers are to find the

terms of their “appeal” (line 4), they must be which
of the following?
I. Clever
Il. Worthy
II. Lucky
(A) Ionly (B) III only (C) Iand II only
(D) IL and III only (E) I, II, and III

S Sele Osah
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

140
 SECTION®5
Time—30 minutes
35 QUESTIONS
in this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = tr?; Circumference = 2mr C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: : If CDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to < is less than or equal to AB XCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A D B (1) area of AABC = 5
<__ is less than \| is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

l. If a+2=4, then 204 +2=

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 (E) 12

Height
(in centimeters)

5. If parallel lines 2; and 2, are intersected by

line 23, what is the value of x + y ?

(A) 180 (B) 150 (C) 120 (D) 90

(E) It cannot be determined from the information
2. Exactly how many of the trees listed in the table given.
above are more than 2 meters high? (1 meter =
100 centimeters)
Pe AS eee EEO
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three 000M 21000. 10
ee 2) Five (A) 0.0035 (B) 0.2753 (C) 0.3527
(D) 0.377. (E) 0.72
3. 2x(3x+5Sy)=
7. A traffic flow of 1,440 cars during a 24-hour period
(A) 5x +7xy (B) 6x+10xy (C) 6x? +5y is equivalent to a rate of how many cars per minute?
(D) 6x2 +10y (E) 6x? +10xy
(A) 240 (B) 120 (C) 60 (D) 24 (£) 1
4. Kate and Beth are both members of team X, which

played n games ina certain season. Kate played in

; of the games and Beth played in 12 of the games.
If Beth played in fewer games than Kate, which of GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
the following is a possible value for n ?

(A) 10 (B) 14 C) 18 (D)

(C) (D) 24 (E) 26
(E) 141
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
a In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,m, and k stand for real numbers.

Column A ‘ Column B
EXAMPLES |
Column A Column B | Answers

2X 6 Date 6 ‘@@Doo®
Q, my m,

Ma

2 The value of x The value of y

Column A Column B
Car X travels at an average speed of 60 kilometers
8. 2? +2 23 per hour.
13. The distance traveled by 40 kilometers
The total price of 1 apple and 1 peach is 75 cents. mak. ;
car X in vm hour at its
9; The price of | apple The price of 1 peach
average speed

10. ls 1.6
5
6

x and y are both positive integers.

xy =30

1] x: y

15. Birgit x +e

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater,

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

Last year the gross income of Corporation C was x isa prime number and
$5,200,000. This year its gross income was 10 per- De 30,
cent higher than last year.
22)
16. The gross income of $5,700,000
Corporation C this year

t<-1 23: The sum of two different

odd positive integers
The sum of three differ-
ent even positive inte-
Le (t- 1)?(t +1)? 0 each less than 10 gers each less than 10

AABC is equilateral. 2X eee)

18. Length of the altitude Length of side AB IF POSS x
to side AB
24. Xeteay’ 3

20% Area of the triangular region 18

bounded by the X-axis,
Y-axis, and the graph of the
hte Se oriP=C

The sum of the numbers in the row is equal to the The operation V is defined for all nonzero numbers
sum of the numbers in the column.
2
x and y by the equation x Vy = (=) :
19. x ay

wz #0
ox Foy = 30
20. The average (arithmetic 3 Oe wVz w VY (-z)
mean) of x and y

A wheel with a radius of 50 centimeters rolls with- a and b are positive integers.
out slipping along a straight line and completes one a+]
revolution each second. 27. S/R Dieta
zh. Distance along the line 400 centimeters
that the wheel travels
in 2 seconds

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

143
5 Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

28. If each time the symbol ~ is used it can represent ep. If 12 and 16 each divide N without remainder, what
either of the arithmetic operations + or X, which must be the value of VV?
of the following could be the result of 1~(2 ~~ 4)?
(In this expression, the second ~ need not represent (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 120 (D) 192
the same operation as does the first ~). (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.
Lt
II. 8
iia 3 33% In the Lost Dog Kennel there is a total of 25 dogs.
Of these, exactly 10 dogs have black spots, exactly
(A) I only 12 dogs have brown spots, and exactly 5 dogs have
(B) II only both brown and black spots. What is the total num-
(C) Land III only ber of dogs in the kennel that have neither brown
(D) II and III only spots nor black spots?
(E) I, I, and Il (A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 13
(EyeiS

34. The number of boys attending Fairfield High School

“aS C
is twice the number of girls. If 2 of the boys and

29. In the figure above, if the area of AABC is 30, + of the girls are in the school band, what fraction
then the area of ABDC is of the students at Fairfield are in the school band?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D)20 (E) 40
(A)

30. What is the thickness, in centimeters, of 1 sheet of (B)

paper if the thickness of a uniform pack of 500 such
sheets is 2.5 centimeters? (C)
(A) 0.005 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.05
(D) 0.125 (E) 02 (D)

(E) BIS
Ja
Blo
Bla
SIP
_ No
B
xo
SP A square floor with sides of length 6 meters is to be
tiled with square tiles. If each tile has a perimeter of
1 meter, what is the minimum number of such tiles
needed to cover the floor?
48°
A M C (A) 12. (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 144 (BE) 576
31. In AABC above, what is the value of x ?

(A) 40 (B) 42 (C) 50 (D) 58

(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

SiO P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
144
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3F
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 3 Section 2 Section 5

5 2) _
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*|Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

145
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 3 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
e Scanning. Your answer sheet is “read” by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal B
is recorded on acomputer tape. 4

¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
Step D:.To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran-
the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
figure on the worksheet.
wrong response; for questions with four answer
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, the conversion table on the back cover. Enter this
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-verbal score you
resulting raw score is determined as follows: just recorded and your reported SAT-verbal score
should be identical. If not, see the paragraph at the
44 right — 32wrong = 44 —- 8 = 36 raw score points bottom of the next page.)

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
rounded upward to 37. the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
¢ Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to number incorrect
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number correct. .— = subtotalA
4
for minor differences in difficulty among different
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
the abilities of the group with whom the student in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
the College Board scale, scores earned by students total B, use the formula:
at different times can be compared. For example, an
number incorrect
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number correct —
4
= subtotal B
istration indicates the same level of developed ver-
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi- Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
tion of the test taken at another time. number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
How to Score the Test record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported mula:
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you number correct — = subtotal C
3
begin, check that the first two characters (number and
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an- Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
swer sheet are the same‘as the form code printed on subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses figure on the worksheet.
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 3 the resulting figure on the worksheet.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the same tained in E in the conversion table on the back cover.
for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omitted an- Enter this figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-mathe-
swers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula: matical score you just recorded and your reported
number incorrect SAT-mathematical score should be identical. If not,
number correct — 4 = subtotalA see the paragraph at the bottom of the next page.)

146
 SAT-SCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODE 3F
SAT-Verbal Sections

A. Section 1: eee se P| ec 1
no. correct no. incorrect subtotalA

B. Section 3: a
A Ft
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) C

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical Sections

A. Section 2: aa Ye ee ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotalA

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and — Wy ( i
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27 — V3 ( } =
(4-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(TotalA+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

Should you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the
phone number below. If, after following the above scoring directions and checking
your work at least twice, your results disagree with the SAT-verbal or SAT-mathe-
matical score reported on your ATP score report, you may request rescoring of your
answer sheet. If rescoring confirms that an error had been made (resulting in either
higher or lower scores than those originally reported), corrected reports will be
sent to all recipients of your original scores. Please send your request to:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 771-7600
Please indicate whether it is your SAT-verbal or SAT-mathematical score, or both,
that you want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring
worksheet on which you did your calculations.

147
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3F
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

40

Glhag
O0
PRON]
ODNWO
ANWEAHA

-5
-6
or below

148
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and Test of Standard Written English Side 1 Par caraerisiant Mi colnet deine rh mahal aa
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(Print) City State Center Number

IMPORTANT: Please fill in these boxes exactly as

shown on the back cover of your test book. USE ONLY

2. TEST FORM 3. FORM CODE _» | 4. REGISTRATION NUMBER

(Copy from your Admission Ticket.)

6. DATE OF BIRTH (>) <P)

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USE ONLY VTCS WEW
FORM CODE 3X SECTION 1
Time —30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
and altogether ----.
(D) hot (E) ugly ©O®SO®Q ®
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. BRITTLE: (A) dim (B) flexible (C) soluble (E) perfect. spectacular @ ©O@®Q®
(D) reliable (E) transparent

2. INHOSPITABLE: (A) sensitive (B) healthy 16. John’s back ailment was very painful, but he was
(C) inoffensive (D) enduring (E) welcoming not ---- and could manage to complete his per-
formance.
3. COMPRESS: (A) displace (B) entangle
(C) expand (D) soothe (E) delay (A) inconvenienced (B) incapacitated
(C) indifferent (D) competitive (E) aggressive
4. CONVINCE: (A) dissuade (B) reveal
(C) impede (D) betray (E) refuse 17. To understand the people of another culture, one
must not form a ---- impression; one must play the
5. ONLOOKER: (A) seeker (B) failure role of the ---- and evaluate all of the evidence
(C) fugitive (D) participant (E) thinker carefully.
6, SLACKEN: (A) enjoy (B) accumulate (A) distrustful. skeptic
(C) accelerate (D) set free (E) turn aside (B) sympathetic. .radical
(C) hasty. .scientist
7. INCOMPATIBLE: (A) receptive (B) meticulous (D) graphic. .artist
(C) harmonious (D) finished (E) fallible (E) biased. .guide

8. FACILITATE: (A) hamper (B) shorten 18. One reason for optimism is that the social institu-
_(C) possess (D) equalize (E) anticipate tions responsible for our present difficulties are
not as ---- as they appear to be.
9. QUAINT: (A) agreeable (B) brave
(A) immutable (B) harmless (C) flawless
(C) ordinary (D) comfortable (E) affordable
(D) divisible (E) improvable
10, WITTICISM: (A) conclusion (B) insult
(C) comment (D) rebuttal (EF) platitude 19. All too often in this book ---- conclusions distort
illuminating descriptions and tendentious captions
11. FALLOW: (A) humid (B) profound spoil ---- photographs.
(C) undeviating (D) actively cultivated (A) illogical. inane
(E) excessively tedious (B) pertinent. .irrelevant
(C) inevitable. .passable
12. DEFERENCE: (A) abnormality (B) isolation
(D) outlandish. superfluous
(C) cowardice (D) disrespect (E) pessimism
(E) unjustified. evocative
13. EMBELLISH: (A) revise (B) abbreviate
20. Humor springs from an unexpected and, more
(C) collaborate (D) examine carefully
specifically, ---- juxtaposition of ideas so that the
(E) challenge defiantly audience is surprised into laughter.
14. EXECRABLE: (A) feeble (B) persistent (A) unnecessary (B) common (C) slapstick
(C) momentous (D) admirable (E) sensible (D) incongruous (E) deliberate
15. ATROPHY: (A) growth (B) neutralization
(C) ambition (D) selection (E) conformity
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
153
Copyright © 1983 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
Princeton, NJ 08541.
l
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

(This passage was published in 1964.)

The issues of poverty and civil rights are 21. The passage primarily concerns
deeply intertwined, presenting the central moral (A) the results of the passage of the Civil Rights
problem of our time. Although it is true that Bill
Line three-quarters of the poor are white, it is a tragic (B) the economic effects of discrimination
(5) fact that half the nonwhites are poor. (C) the task of building a community-oriented
The statistics of poverty bear witness to the America
results of years of discrimination and apathy on (D) the employment practices of impoverished
the part of the white majority. In 1962, the Americans
average income of a white family was $5,642, (E) practical ways of eliminating the burdens of
(10) that of a black family was $3,023, and that of poverty
an American Indian family was $1,500. According
to the 1960 census figures, Mexican Americans 22. The author indicates that the passage of the Civil
did not fit into a single classification in which their Rights Bill should be regarded as
average family income even approximated $3,000. (A) an event whose importance has been over-
(13) Contrary to the widely held belief that Ameri- emphasized
can Indians receive some sort of consistent dole (B) a reward for the efforts of all mature
from the federal government, they are as dependent Americans
on the general economy to provide opportunities (C) the first step in a long and difficult, but
and jobs as is the rest of the population. Often necessary, process
(20) unable to gain acceptance in the general com- (D) a goal that most Americans have worked
munity, they tend to stay on the reservations, toward
which cannot provide more than minimal employ- (E) the final solution to the dilemmas of poverty
ment at low levels. Forty to fifty per cent, and civil rights
seven to eight times the national average, are
(25) unemployed. 23. It can be inferred that the sources of the “energy
Of the approximately 4.5 million Mexican and vitality” mentioned in lines 44-45 are
Americans, almost one-quarter become migrant
(A) branches of the federal government
workers, following the harvest from state to state.
(B) members of the white majority ;
Because they lack a fixed place of residence and
(C) politicians who supported the Civil Rights Bill
(30) employment, migrant workers are neither pro-
(D) Americans whose income is less $3,000
tected by federal laws nor eligible for public
(E) minority groups that have suffered from
assistance.
discrimination
Discrimination costs this country between
thirteen and seventeen billion dollars every year 24. Which of the following best describes the key that
(35) in revenue and production. This is more than a unlocks the ‘door’ mentioned by the author in
fourth of the amount spent for national defense. lines 46-48 ?
This does not include the incalculable costs we
(A) The passage of the Civil Rights Bill
pay in higher crime rates, poor health, mounting
(B) The end of poverty for nonwhite Americans
welfare costs, and the countless other indirect
(C) The enormous costs of discrimination
(40) costs that flow from discriminatory practices.
(D) The courage of every American citizen
A great barrier began to swing aside on the (E) Opportunities for new jobs for all Americans
day when the Civil Rights Bill passed—a barrier
that for generations had been damming tremendous 25. The author’s intention in the last paragraph of the
intellectual resources and incalculable energy and passage is apparently to
(45) vitality, all lost to the American nation.
(A) suggest specific solutions
I say “began.” For if the door is being un-
(B) warn of unexpected dangers
locked, if the door is swinging open, it is only
(C) criticize exaggerated reports
ajar. There will be no miracle wrought overnight.
(D) inspire constructive attitudes
Rather, then will come the real test of the
(E) soothe agitated tempers
(50) maturity of our people. The test will be whether
all people in America can work together to dissolve
the barriers that have grown and to develop a
healthier sense of community. That task will test GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE —
the wisdom, courage, patience, and judgment of
all of us.
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from
published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent the
opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the text suit-
able for testing purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents,or
154 point of view of the original.
 The sun has been found surprisingly inconstant 27. According to the passage, which of the following
both in its rotation and its sunspot activity. Yet is (are) true about “the full cycle” (line 11) of
it also appears that sunspot occurrences, while sunspot activity?
irregular, are controlled by a highly precise timer
Line I. It is repeated approximately once every
(5) deep within the sun. The intervals between maxi-
22 years.
mum sunspot activity average out to about eleven
II. It can be roughly divided into two periods
years, but since magnetic fields on the sun reverse
of 11 years.
themselves with each cycle, it actually takes about
III. It affects the rotation of the sun.
twenty-two years for the sun to return to its origi-
(10) nal configuration. It has recently been found that (A) Ionly (B) Ifonly (C) J and II only
the full cycle is controlled by an internal timer (D) I and Ill only (E) I, Il, and II
that maintains a stable period of 22.27 years, the 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the word
error margin being only 0.08 year. A possible ex-
“minimum,” as used in “Maunder Minimum”
planation for the failure of sunspots to adhere to
(lines 40-41), probably refers to.the decline in the
(15) this precise rate may be that the transport of a
magnetic field from deep interior to surface is (A) earth’s temperature
subject to irregularities induced by turbulence in (B) number of sunspots
the convective layer, the region in which hot gas (C) atmospheric ratio of deuterium to hydrogen
rises to the solar surface, cools, and subsides again. (D) relative speed of the sun’s rotation
A regularity in climate fluctuations on earth (E) variety of discernible tree rings
(20)
has been attributed to the sunspot cycle. The
29 According to the passage, if in the future the
fluctuations are evident in the varying ratio of
earth were to observe an increase in the rotational
deuterium to hydrogen in cellulose extracted from
velocity of sunspots, we should probably expect
tree rings. The ratio in air moisture seems con-
which of the following to occur?
(25) trolled by atmospheric and sea surface temperature,
and evidence of this becomes incorporated into I. A general cooling of the earth’s climate
the wood of each annual tree ring. Available data II. An increase in the number of sunspots
on the formation of tree rings fit the long-term visible on the earth
sunspot rhythm, supporting the belief in a link III. A change in the cycle of the sun’s internal
(30) between such activity and the climate. timer
It is now widely believed that, from 1645 to (A) Ionly (B) If only (C) III only
1715, virtually no sunspots were evident; the (D) Iand II only (E) I and III only
chilling of the climate during this period is known
as the “Little Ice Age.” The timer deep inside the 30. The author includes the parenthetical sentence
(35) sun, however, did not miss a beat: when the cycle (lines 44-46) for which of the following reasons?
again became evident, sunspot activity was in step
(A) To provide an example supporting a
with the earlier rhythm. But it has recently been
generalization
found that the sun underwent remarkable changes
(B) To state a proposition that is explained in
in rotational behavior just before that 70-year
the passage
(40) intermission, now referred to as the Maunder
(C) To present information that clarifies a
Minimum. As the minimum and the “Little Ice
previous statement
Age” approached, the rotational velocity of sun-
(D) To emphasize the main point of the passage
spots increased, primarily in the equatorial regions.
(E) To shift the description from the abstract
(The sun, being gaseous, does not rotate as a
to the concrete
(45) solid body; normally, the equator rotates every
25 days, the latitudes near the pole every 34.)
According to available evidence, the difference
between the rotation rate near the equator and
that near the poles increased threefold as the
minimum approached. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
26. According to the author of the passage, the
explanation given for the sunspots’ failure to
adhere to a precise rate of occurrence is
(A) the only credible explanation
(B) a recently documented theory
(C) a highly controversial issue
(D) an unproven hypothesis
(E) a questionable and probably untrue assump-
tion

155
I
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
Bde The Mediterranean fruit fly proved to be a ---- to relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
farmers, a pest niore ---- to fruits and vegetables Example:
than even the Japanese beetle.
YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(A) delight. indifferent (B) dilemma. .averse (B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(C) boon..deadly (D) triumph. .partial (D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(E) nightmare. .-harmful COMO BOs)

32. The assassination of Zapata had ---- the agrarian 36. TEACHER:FACULTY:: (A) actor:cast
movement, but had not ---- it; peasant guerrillas (B) student:library (C) painter: mural
still fought, and an Agrarian Party was founded (D) composer:orchestra {E) soloist :audience
in Mexico City to defend Zapata’s ideals.
37. DEVOUR:FOOD:: (A) conserve :energy
(A) destroyed. .deterred (B) borrow:money (C) sweeten: candy
(B) impaired. .ended (D) soften: noise (E) guzzle:liquid
(C) generated. .decimated
(D) produced. .exterminated 38. GHASTLY:HORROR:: (A) soothing: injury
(E) engendered. .endangered (B) momentary:time (C) indifferent: stupidity
(D) excruciating:agony (E) feeble: power
33; Much in keeping with its ---- start, the cooperative
is doing a thriving business and is making 39. CREST:WAVE:: (A) trunk: tree
plans to expand in the near future. (B) shore:lake (C) hub:wheel
(D) base:triangle (E) peak:mountain
(A) problematic (B) premature
(C) blemished (D) auspicious 40. CHAMELEON:LIZARD:: (A) eagle: hawk
(E) erratic (B) zebra:camel (C) rainbow: sun
34. This book is particularly valuable because it obliges (D) blossom:root (E) peacock: bird
us to ---- our assumption that source material in 41. GULLIBLE: CREDULOUS::
Central Africa is too meager to allow more than (A) ravenous:voracious (B) overflowing: thirsty
---- accounts of local history. (C) secretive:curious (D) frivolous: needy
(A) devise..personal (B) defend. .comprehensive (E) gorgeous : appreciative
(C) disclose. radical (D) limit. .optional
(E) modify. .impressionistic 42. PERFUNCTORY: ENTHUSIASM ::
(A) persistent : uniformity
35. The gaily lit garlands strung across Oxford Street, (B) tolerant: indecision
the enticing shop windows, the crowded theaters— (C) impulsive : effectiveness
all of these things ---- the ---- of the economic (D) hesitant: certainty
crisis that has come to haunt the country. (E) ambitious: interest
(A) bespeak. .severity 43. NERVE:TEMERITY::
(B) underline. .existence (A) courage :eminence
(C) belie. .gravity (B) skill: finesse
(D) protest. .superficiality (C) conviction: reliance
(E) malign. enormity (D) foresight :learning
(E) determination : coordination

44. MEDLEY:MUSIC:: (A) panorama: vision

(B) tapestry:thread (C) prism:color
(D) patchwork:cloth (E) encyclopedia: textbook
45. SHRIVELED: TURGIDITY ::
(A) hoary : decadence
(B) prolific: progeny
(C) ambulatory : motion
(D) comatose : animation
(E) ethereal: inspiration

Se. P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS.CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 SECTION 2
Time —30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = tr?; Circumference = 27r Cc Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: : If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to < is less than or equal to AB XCD
# is unequal to = is greater than or equal to 4 DIB (1) area of AABC = 5
< isless than II is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. Ali figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

Loeeott saute =5, then x = 5. If n isa multiple of 3, which of the following is

also a multiple of 3 ?
(A) $ (B) 4 (Chat) {D) 241 1),4 (Ayn
(B) n+2
3 7 (C) 2n+6
yiaay ta a of n is 30, then S of n is (D) 3n-5
(E) 3n +4
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 18
(E) 20

3. If x *?y means that x? is less than y?, then

' which of the following relations is true?

(Ad 75 (B)Z1 7s1 (©) 22 i2

(year 2 (E) 472

6. In the figure above, the area of the rectangle is

(A) 63 (B) 36 (C) 27 (D) 24 (E) 18

4. In the figure above, AB is parallel to CD. What

is the value of a+b? . GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) 90 (B) 120 (C) 150 (D) 180
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
_ given.

157
 $+ tS) ee a
-0 ++ +0 0O-
0+ 00 +- -0
In the array of pairs of signs above, a pair has
value 1 if a + sign is paired with another + sign
or with a 0; any other combination has value 0.
What is the total value of the array? 12; Five line segments intersect to form the figure
above. If p +q +r =285°, what is the value
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C)4 (6 (€)7 Of Ets 2

34 - 32 = (A) 60
(Byee7>
(A) 3? (C) 90
(B) 3° (D) 105
(Cc) 3° (E) It cannot be determined from the information
(D) 9° given.
(E) 98
Four empty trucks are on a bridge that has a
If the perimeter of AABC is 50 units and if maximum capacity of 30,000 pounds. If the
side AB is 2 units longer than side BC, what is average (arithmetic mean) weight of three of the
the length of side AC ? trucks is 7,800 pounds, then the greatest possible
safe weight of the fourth truck is
(A) 2
(B) 16 (A) 6,000 Ib.
(C) 24 (B) 6,600 Ib.
(D) 25 (C) 6,800 Ib.
(E) It cannot be determined from the information (D) 7,600 Ib.
given. (E) 8,000 Ib.
10. Half of the sum of two numbers is 7. If one of
the numbers is 3, then the product of the two
numbers is

(A) 10° °(B) 415 (GC) 2 eye) IE) 3

4
14, In the figure above, circles with centers at L, M,
and N each have a radius of 2 and are placed as
4
shown. If PQRS is the smallest rectangle that
3 will enclose the 3 circles, what is the area of
2 PQRS ?
aS (A) 8
Ore ite2 354 x (B) 12
(C) 16
ite If C(P,r) represents a circle with center at the (D) 32
point P and radius r, then the circle in the figure (E) 48
above can be represented as

(A) C(P,2) (B) C(P, 1) (C) C(P, 2V2)

(D) C(P,4) (E) C(P, 4m)
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

158
 2
12 centimeters 19) What is the maximum number of circles that can
be made from a piece of string 100 meters long,
8 centimeters if the radius of each circle is 5 meters?

(A) 2
10 centimeters (B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
15. How many cubes 2 centimeters on an edge can be (E) 6
packed into the box shown above?

(A) 960 (B) 480 (C) 192 Q R

(D) 120 (E) 15 T
16, If 1 skip equals 3 hops and 1 jump equals 2 skips,
how many jumps equal “‘a hop, a skip, and a
jump”?
P Useows
1
(A) 1 3
20. If, in rectangle PORS above, PT = =p9 and

(B)152 PU = =ps , what is the ratio of the area of

APTU to the area of CIPQRS ?
1
(C) 25
“M2 ®t OF OF
(D) 3 (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given,
1
(E) 35
Population of Yourtown
Me If x and y are nonzero integers and if 1900-1950
x? +y>? =0 and x? + y5 =0, which of
the following number lines shows the relative
positions of x, y, and 0 ?.

(A) __..pea ine Ciena

pale In the table above, the percent increase in the

population was greatest in which of the following
periods?

(A) 1900-1910
18, A stack of red and blue chips is 5 centimeters (B) 1910-1920
high. If the red chips are 0.4 centimeters thick (C) 1920-1930
and the blue chips are 0.3 centimeters thick, what (D) 1930-1940
is the greatest possible number of blue chips that (E) 1940-1950
could be in the stack?

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C). 14 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) 12
(E) 10

159
L
a2. What are all values of b such that (b - 5)(b + 2) 24. Rock B in one pan of a scale balances with
is negative? Rock C plus a 0.6-kilogram weight in the other
pan. If the weight of Rock C is 0.6 of B’s weight,
(A) -S5<b<2 what is the weight of Rock C?
(B) i= 2-5
(C) 92 bs (A) 0.9 kg
(D) b =<=-5 and b> 2 (B) 0.12 kg
(2) "b <2" and (b= 5 (C) 0.36 kg
(D) 1.0 kg
SED If p+q=2(rts), which of the following is the (E) 1.2 kg
average (arithmetic mean) of p,q,r, and s in
terms of r and s? 25. In how many different color combinations can
ar +5) eee 3 balls be painted if each ball is painted one
(A)r+s_ (B) Bariey (C) 5 color and there are 3 colors available? (Order
is not considered; e.g., red, blue, red is considered
(D) 2 + s (E) r = the same combination as red, red, blue.)
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C)9 (D)10 (&) 27

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

160
 SECTION 3 3

Time —30 minutes

40 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in aneaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.

Although its publicity has been —-, the film itself

GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot and altogether ----.
(E) ugly DSOeOOO
(A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. moderate
1. ACCESSIBLE: (A) impure (B) inactive (C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
(E) perfect. spectacular OGO.© ©
(C) unimportant (D) purposefully designed
(E) difficult to approach
11. The body is protected by a natural defense system
2. INEVITABLE: (A) pleasurable (B) fictitious that acts in the blood to destroy the army of
(C) beneficial (D) avoidable (E) suitable germs ---- our bodies daily.
3. BUNGLE: (A) perform efficiently (A) guarding (B) vacating (C) attracting
(B) retire quickly (C) shout angrily (D) invading (E) nurturing
(D) energize (E) excuse
12. Annoyed by his seemingly endless attempts to
4. HYPOTHESIZE: persuade her to his point of view, Nancy wished
(A) argue enthusiastically that Hamilton were just a bit less ----.
(B) know with certainty (A) vain (B) controlled (C) persistent
(C) exaggerate noticeably (D) impressive (E) devious
(D) plan with care
(E) reflect morally 13. The scientists reported that the pollution in the
coastal areas had already ---- their tentative limit
5. NEGOTIABLE: (A) unpopular of tolerability and that a higher scale of tolerability
(B) illogical (C) unreliable would have to be postulated.
(D) indiscriminate (E) nontransferable (A) restored (B) ignored (C) validated
6. REITERATE: (D) surpassed (E) determined
(A) refuse to accept
14. Traditional views assume that violence is somehow
(B) neglect to examine
--- “masculine” behavior, rather than a way of
(C) fail to repeat
behaving which may be ---- by either sex in par-
(D) tend to misinterpret
ticular circumstances.
(E) pretend to ignore
(A) naturally. adopted
7. STEADFASTNESS: (A) lethargy (B) inherently. .perceived
(B) nervousness (C) irresponsibility (C) acceptably. .described
(D) disorganization (E) irresolution (D) accidentally. selected
(E) avoidably. .intensified
8. AUTHORITATIVE: (A) partial
(B) unscrupulous (C) intelligent 15. Smith contends that psychology is bad poetry ----
(D) submissive (E) fickle science, in that many of its theories are based on
unexamined ----, such as the mind as a blank slate,
9. INSIPIDNESS: a computer, or a camera.
(A) sweetness and joy
(A) expanding toward. hypotheses
(B) ribaldry and coarseness (B) inimical to. .facts
(C) indifference and unconcern (C) escaping from. .quandaries
(D) spirit and animation (D) analagous to. .redundancies
(E) curiosity and acquisitiveness (E) masquerading as. .metaphors
10. IMPORT: (A) meaninglessness
(B) inopportuneness (C) externality GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) negligence (E) humility
161
3
Each question below consists of a related pair of words 21. SCRIBBLING: READER:: (A) gibberish: listener
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (B) snore:sleeper (C) daub:artist
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a (D) warble:singer (E) perjury:witness
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
Example: 22. CULMINATION :PROJECT::
(A) precaution:accident (B) wisdom:judgment
YAWN: BOREDOM :: (A) dream:sleep (C) frustration:
plan
idea
(D) arrival: journey
(B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement (plantation
(D) face:expression (E) impatience :rebellion
®@OeO® 23. VERVE:PERFORMANCE:: (A) aspect: feature
(B) valor:courage (C) admiration: talent
16. SEE:INVISIBLE:: (A) correct :inverted (D) imagination: writing (E) sensation: gloom
B) hear:inaudible (C) enjoy :improper
No buy:invaluable (E) ceape virial 24. fA eee ie oe
A) offensive: aggravation
17. STEAM:GEYSER:: (A) power: generator (B) passive:obedience
(B) atoms:reactor (C) coal: mine (C) impecunious: caution
(D) lava:volcano (E) rock: quarry (D) oblivious: meditation
18. CUSTOMER:SHOPKEEPER:: (A) patron:concert BNEMua ee
(B) member:club (C) advocate: policy 25. SATURATE:MOISTEN:: (A) extol: commend
(D) peddler:house (E) client: lawyer (B) donate:give (C) contaminate :infect
(D) postulate: query (E) assist :hamper
19. EPIDERMIS:BODY:: (A) stem: plant
(B) air:diver (C) bark: tree
(D) fur:coat (E) nail: finger

20. OGRE:CRUELTY::
(A) elf: skepticism
(B) pixie : mischievousness GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) gnome: punishment
(D) dragon : mythology
(E) goblin: innocence

162
 >
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Above this race of humans stands an immense and Din The last sentence suggests that, under the power
tutelary power, which takes upon itself alone to secure described, people are kept from all of the follow-
their gratification and to watch over their fate. That ing EXCEPT
power is absolute, minute, regular, provident, and mild.
(A) thinking clearly
It would be like the authority of a parent if, like that (B) acting energetically
authority, its object were to prepare people for adult-
(C) working efficiently
hood; but it seeks, on the contrary, to keep them in
(D) creating freely
perpetual childhood: it is well content that the people
(E) living fully
should rejoice, provided they think of nothing but
rejoicing. It covers the surface of society with a network "28
The author develops the paragraph by means of
of small complicated rules, minute and uniform, through
which of the following?
which the most original minds and the most energetic
characters cannot penetrate, to rise above the crowd. I. Analogy and metaphor
Such a power does not destroy, but it prevents existence; II. Unsupported generalization
it does not tyrannize, but it compresses, enervates, III. Recollected personal experience
extinguishes, and stupefies a people, till each nation is (A) I only
reduced to nothing better than a flock of timid and (B) I and II only
industrial animals of which the government is shepherd. (C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
26. Which of the following statements summarizes the (E) I, II, and Ill
main idea of the passage?
(A) Creativity finds full expression in a state of
anarchy.
(B) Energy not applied toward a specific goal is
lost.
(C) Any exercise of power is, by its nature, evil.
(D) Human beings are, by their nature, dependent GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
creatures.
(E) Government is an all-pervasive and inhibiting
force.

163
3
When Samuel Carboy entered through the swinging 30. It can be inferred that Nathan Longman is
door, the floor of the stock exchange was in a state of (A) the owner of a bankrupt business
turmoil. The excitement was due to the still unauthenti- (B) Carboy’s long-standing rival
cated but, alas, well-supported rumor that Bonaparte (C) Carboy’s business partner
had beaten the Duke of Wellington. The members to a (D) a friend of the Duke of Wellington
man were trying to cell. Anyone who could get posses- (E) a highly respected trader
sion of a chair was standing above the crush and re-
peating the usual formula with frantic vehemence: “I’m SL. According to the passage, which of the following
here. I’ll sell. D’ye hear me? I'll sell. I’ve got govern- were written on the slips of paper by the broker?
ment securities and I’ve got bank paper and I’ve got
(A) Comments on the present worth of the stocks
shipping stocks. I’m not going to give these securities
(B) Names of companies certain to fail
away.” One member, Roger Gridsby, varied this by
(C) Estimates of the dividends Carboy will earn
shouting: ‘Come, men, come! You’re Englishmen
(D) The prices Carboy wishes to pay for the stocks
aren’t you? Do you want to take advantage of a
(E) Types of stock owned by Carboy
temporary darkness on the horizon of England? Do
you want to traffic in our monetary despair? Have you cps This passage was most likely taken from
no feeling of shame? Support the market, if ye’re
(A) a history textbook
honest Englishmen. D’ye want to drive prices down to
(B) a treatise on the effects of hysteria on eco-
nothing?”
nomics
A smartly dressed broker came to Samuel Carboy’s
(C) a historical novel
side and asked in a cautious tone, “What is it to be
(D) a biography of the life of Nathan Longman
today?”
(E) Samuel Carboy’s autobiography
The merchant looked down at him and said,
“Westerby, I’m going to buy.” BP The primary purpose of the passage is most
“Buy!” The little broker’s voice rose almost to a probably to present
yelp. “Buy, Samuel? You’re joking, Samuel.”
“Westerby,” declared Carboy, “‘our army could not (A) an explanation of an economic depression
be beaten by the usurper Bonaparte. I refuse to believe (B) a description of the bartering process used in
it. Make what you will out of these rumors. I don’t the stock exchange
believe them. Westerby, I am going to buy.” (C) an important decision in the life of Samuei
“But, Samuel, Samuel!”” The broker was speaking Carboy
now in a beseeching voice. ‘‘Haven’t you heard about (D) the role and responsibilities of a broker
Nathan Longman? He came in here looking like a (E) the story of Wellington and Bonaparte
death’s head. That’s exactly what he looked like. He
said just exactly nothing at all. He just kept stamping
his hat firmer on his head and looking very sick. And
then he turned and walked out. That means he’s
selling. If he intended to buy he’d stay here and wait
for his prices, wouldn’t he? It stands to reason, Samuel.”
“Westerby, I’m going to buy.” GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
They retired to a relatively quiet corner and Carboy
gave the broker his orders. Westerby marked the prices
down on slips of paper, making clucking sounds of
disapproval. Then, he shoved the little slips into the
silver-embroidered pocket of his plum-colored coat.
“It may bessome time before they get as low as this,”’
he said. “But they'll get there. You'll be ruined in
the end, Samuel, mark my words. If you change your
mind, get to me fast.”

29. For which of the following reasons was there so

much activity on the floor of the exchange?
(A) The army was in retreat.
(B) There was talk of the army’s defeat.
(C) The pound had been devalued.
(D) A famous bank had gone bankrupt.
(E) There was fear of a military attack on the
exchange.

164
 Since many people are unwilling to accept art for According to the passage, the moralistic view of
3
its own sake, they have sought theories that will reduce art and the theory of functionalism are alike in
artistic values to values that are more easily recognized. that both
They seize on doctrines that have been given a limited (A) have been adopted by artistically sensitive
critical application by serious writers on art and try to persons
make these doctrines the basis of all judgment. Thus (B) are based on a tenet of Gothic architecture
we get theories, such as the moralistic view of art in the (C) are concerned solely with the means of
nineteenth century and the doctrine of functionalism at artistic expression
the present time, which satisfy those who have a craving (D) are justifications of art which go beyond
for explanation but which run counter to the experi- purely artistic values
ence of artistically sensitive persons. Art and morals
(E) marked an abrupt change in the moral values
are indeed most closely connected, but the morals of a
of an era
work of art are to be found less in its ostensible subject
matter than in its means of expression. A song may
have pious words but a false and wicked tune; a picture nab. The author of the passage implies that most
may have an improving subject, but the shapes and adherents of the moralistic doctrine demanded
colors, the very touch of the artist’s pencil may be mean that a work of art
and morally revolting. These are truisms, but they were (A) be moral in both its subject matter and its
not always present in the mind of even so great a critic means of expression
as Ruskin and were generally ignored by his contempo- (B) be concerned with some morally improving
raries. The moralistic theory of art suffered when the subject
too crude interpretation of morality that it accom- (C) have no ostensible subject
panied was finally brought into popular disfavor. When (D) conform to the standards of artistically
people ceased to believe that they knew what was good sensitive persons
and bad in morals, they were no longer able to discrimi- (E) support the material values of the nineteenth
nate between good and bad in art by the application of century
moral standards. They had lost faith in everything
except material values, values that could be measured.
Hence they developed the theory of functionalism,
which took its rise from one of several conflicting
justifications of Gothic architecture, and began to apply
this theory with a kind of desperate simplicity to all the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
visible arts.

34. The author believes that the connection between

art and morality is to be found
(A) primarily in the views of art critics
(B) in the subject matter of a work of art
(C) during periods when people can easily
discriminate between good and bad
(D) in the minds of those who are not artistically
sensitive
(E) in the form of a work of art more than in
its content

165
 The “sere and yellow leaf” of autumn is likely to 38. In the passage, parasite and host refer, respec-
bear a tumor. These tumors, called galls, may develop tively, to the
in any part of a plant—leaf, stem, flower, or root—pro- (A) larva and the plant
vided the part contains vascular tissue to keep it sup- (B) gall and the insect
plied with nutrients. The derangement of growth and (C) larva and the seed
structure may form a tiny wart or a bulging mass the (D) seed and the fruit
size of a baseball. Such growths are frequently seen in (E) gall and the cancer
the fall on the withered stalks of goldenrod.
Plant galls inevitably bring to mind their counter- 39. All of the following are necessary for the initial
part in animals: the cancer tumor. In support of this development of a gall EXCEPT
analogy, the gall always contains in its interior a mass (A) vascular tissue (B) nutrients
of amorphous cells. We know, however, that galls are (C) epidermal tissue (D) a host
caused by insects or by viruses, molds, and other micro- (E) a parasite
organisms. The parasite supplies some sort of stimulus
to initiate abnormal growth, and the galls seem to grow 40. The author states that a larva in a gall resembles
only so long as the stimulus persists. Many animal (A) a tumor in an animal
cancers appear to grow indefinitely without external (B) an insect in an egg
stimulation. On the other hand, it may turn out that (C) a seed ina fruit
these tumors too are initiated by viruses or by some (D) an embryo in an egg
other infectious process. (E) acell in a stem
Gall growth can originate when the insect causes
tissue to develop into new and different cells and pro-
motes more rapid continued growth than would ordi-
narily occur. In the insect-induced leaf gall, the para-
site provokes its host to grow what is in effect a new
organ that is adapted to shelter and nurture the insect
egg and larva. The amorphous cells within the gall
which feed the larva are enclosed in an intricate struc-
ture of supporting tissues covered on the outside by
epidermal tissue characteristic of the plant stem.
From the cellular point of view, a leaf gall bears some
similarity to the stem. The globular gall forms as an
appendage to the leaf, a kind of fruit in which the
insect embryo takes the place of the plant seed. The
insect thus exerts a regulatory power over the growth
pattern of the plant that suggests a new line of experi-
mental attack on the secrets of cellular specialization
and growth.

37. According to the passage, cancerous growths and

galls are alike in that both
(A) contain unspecialized cells
(B) appear to grow indefinitely once they have
begun
(C) originate under identical conditions
(D) require external stimulation for continuous
growth
(E) are modifications of epidermal tissues

Sal Ook
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

166
 SECTION
Time —30 minutes
5 5
35 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr*; Circumference = 2mr C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to AB X CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to A= D B (1) area of AABC = 5
<__ is less than || is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? +.DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. If x =2 and y = 98, then 10x +y)= 5.

(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 118

(D) 980 (E) 1,000

2. If x is 40 percent of y and if z is 30 percent

of y, then, when x #0, the ratio <=

(A) 12
(D)
(B) 2
(E)
© +
(D) =
Oz
3. If the first two terms in a sequence of numbers 6. In the figure above, the triangle is equilateral and
are 1 and 2 and each succeeding term is formed the area of the square is 25, The perimeter of the
by adding all of the preceding terms, what is the triangle is
fifth term in the sequence?
(A) = (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25 (E) 75
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 12 (W)15 () 24

4, A month with 5 Wednesdays could start on a 7. If the average (arithmetic mean) of 3, 4, 5, and x
is 6, then x =
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 24 (E) 60
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
(E) Saturday
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

167
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A_ if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Cif the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to.be compared is centered
above the two columns.
In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
Letters such as x,n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES | Column A Column B

Column A Column B | Answers

EP 26 26 @e@do®

P is a point, not shown, inside the circle with

center O.

13, AO AP

Row |
Row 2
Row 3
An airplane flying at an altitude of 34,000 feet
above sea level descends 7,500 feet. Row 6

9. The altitude above sea 26,000 feet In each row a black dot has two lines connecting
level of the airplane after it to two dots in the row beneath.
making this descent
14, Total number of black 60
dots that would be in
x ty =3
tow 6
XE eS

10. 5 J: The number of multiples The number of multi-

:
of 2 between integers x ples of 6 between
78,452 and x +78 integers x and x + 78
: 100
ae 1,000
Box A has volume 24,
Box B has volume 15.

16. Base area of A Base area of B

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

168
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A

40 mi.

20 mi.

20 mi.|County A 30 mi. County B

Counties A and B are rectangular,

17. Papulation of County A Population of County B

if there are 10 people if there are 5 people
per square mile per square mile
24. Xi yi per ger rs

<I
n#0

25. iD n
n

3 3
36 x
26. 5 (3)
18, x 2y

U5 reed
1g; 5) 5 x 3
MACHINE-PART PRODUCTION
July 1
Tom is now 5 years older than Bill was 3 years ago.
Bill is x years old now.
Defective
E20. xh Tom’s age now in years com Not | Number as Percent
Company | Defective | Defective of Total

In a certain game, there are only four types of

Pe fe [so
moves, These moves advance a playing piece
2, 3, 7, or 9 spaces, respectively, in any order.

21. The minimum number 4

of moves required to
advance a piece
exactly 26 spaces

2t+y=6+y-4

22, y 8
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
Zou ax" + 4x? +4 x? +2

169
D
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

28. If x >y andif w >z, which of the following

RESERVE SUPPLY OF BAUXITE AND TUNGSTEN
would establish that y > z?
I. x>w
Il. y=w
ll. y>w
(A) I only (B) Il only (C) Ill only
(D) I and Il (E) Il and Ill Tungsten L

33% In the chart above, the amount represented by

each shaded square is twice that represented by
each unshaded square. According to the chart,
the amount of tungsten in reserve is how many
times greater than the amount of bauxite in
29. In the figure above, three lines intersect in a point. reserve?
What is the value of x in terms of y ?

(A) 130 = (B) 230 - y (C200 =32 yy,

Aw?9 OF31 OF OF OF1
(D) 310 - 2» (E) 50 +y
34. A restaurant manager notices that ¢ orders of
iced tea, each sold at c cents, are served per
30. If two odd integers are prime, which of the fol-
hour. If the restaurant is open A hours a day,
lowing statements must be true?
what is the amount of money in dollars received
(A) Their product is an odd integer. in 1 day from the sale of iced tea?
(B) Their sum is prime,
(A) 100 te
(C) Their sum is an odd integer.
(D) Their product is prime.
(E) The sum of their squares is prime.
(B)

31, A mouse located at point M wants to eat the

cheese located at point C. If the mouse can go
only up or to the right along the given lines, how
many different paths can he take from M to C ?

(Ay 12 (By 10 (Cys (D) Gee

fe} °
yy x
32. The sum of two positive consecutive integers is x.
DA B E
In terms of x, what is the value of the smaller of
these two integers? as In AABC above, AC = BC, and DE is a line
segment. If x is 15 less than 2z, then y +z =
(oan (8) iG | (A) 70 (B) 125 (C) 150
Dens Paine
(E)-%abl2.5 (D) 180 (E) 195

ee Aho 8 ee 2
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
170 DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3X
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 3 Section 2 Section 5

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*Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

Ti
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 3 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
¢ Scanning. Your answer sheet is ‘‘read” by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number incorrect
number correct — = subtotal B
is recorded on acomputer tape. 4

¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran-
the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
figure on the worksheet.
wrong response; for questions with four answer
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, the conversion table on the back cover. Enter this
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-verbal score you
resulting raw score is determined as follows: just recorded and your reported SAT-verbal score
should be identical. If not, see the paragraph at the
44 right — Sewrong = 44 — 8 = 36raw score points bottom of the next page.)

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
rounded upward to 37.
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
e Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to
number incorrect
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number correct: — = subtotalA
4
for minor differences in difficulty among different
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
the abilities of the group with whom the student in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
the College Board scale, scores earned by students total B, use the formula:
at different times can be compared. For example, an
number incorrect
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number correct — = subtotal B
4
istration indicates the same level of developed ver-
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi- Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
tion of the test taken at another time. number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
How to Score the Test record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported mula:
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you number correct — = subtotal C
3
begin, check that the first two characters (number and
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an- Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
swer sheet are the same as the form code printed on subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses figure on the worksheet.
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 3 the resulting figure on the worksheet.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the same tained in Ein the conversion table on the back cover.
for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omitted an- Enter this figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-mathe-
swers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula: matical score you just recorded and your reported
number incorrect SAT-mathematical score should be identical. If not,
number correct — 4 = subtotalA see the paragraph at the bottom of the next page.)

172
 SAT-SCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODE 3X
SAT-Verbal Sections

A. Section 1: — VW ( )
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 3: —% ( )
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B)

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number)

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical Sections

A. Section 2: — VW (
)
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and — W% (
)
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27 — V3 ( )
(4-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(TotalA+B+C)

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number)

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

Should you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the
phone number below. If, after following the above scoring-directions and checking
your work at least twice, your results disagree with the SAT-verbal or SAT-mathe-
matical score reported on your ATP score report, you may request rescoring of your
answer sheet. If rescoring confirms that an error had been made (resulting in either
higher or lower scores than those originally reported), corrected reports will be
sent to all recipients of your original scores. Please send your request to:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 771-7600
Please indicate whether it is your SAT-verbal or SAT-mathematical score, or both,
that you want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring
worksheet on which you did your calculations.

173
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 3X
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

40

or below

174
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(Copy from your Admission Ticket.)
4. REGISTRATION NUMBER
Center Number

$50
8. TEST BOOK SERIAL NUMBER

Copyright © 1983 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. Princeton, N.J. 08541
i
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leave the extra answer spaces blank.

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‘JUNLYNSIS
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FORM CODE 0X
SECTION 1
Time—30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capita! letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence asa whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
ODe@eooo
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated. amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. PURIFICATION: (A) heterogeneity (E) perfect. spectacular @®DOoo
(B) negligence (C) contamination
(D) experimentation (E) infiltration
11. On the assumption that planets and meteors were
2. ABOLISH: (A) stretch (B) soothe ---- as a result of the same cosmic catastrophe, their
(C) refurbish (D) establish (E) straighten ---- should be roughly similar.
3. RUPTURE: (A) prove (B) regret (A) formed. .compositions
(C) delay (D) scale down (E) join together (B) discovered. .dates
(C) evolved. .histories
4. DESOLATE: (A) typical (B) populous (D) released. .shapes
(C) enormous (D) full of water (E) destroyed. .configurations
(E) likely to change
12. Advertising alone, no matter how ----, cannot
5. ENTHRALLING: (A) incipient (B) boring convince people to ---- an item that answers
(C) incomplete (D) minute. (E) rejuvenating no real and vital need.
6. DESPONDENCY: (A) blithe hopefulness (A) stringent. .ignore (B) innocuous. .modify
(B) careful attention (C) quick reaction (C) outrageous. disregard (D) extensive. .purchase
(D) proud dignity (E) bitter jealousy (E) enigmatic. .want

7. .EXPEDITIOUS: (A) protracted (B) pretentious 13. Perhaps part of the ---- of adolescent behavior
(C) transcendent (D) sensitive and shy is traceable to the violent swing between being
(E) slim and graceful dependent and wanting to be independent.
(A) capriciousness (B) predictability
8. PROPRIETY: (A) gentility (B) generosity
(C) reticence (D) irony (E) maturity
(C) indecorum (D) servility (E) inability
14. Self-consciously and ----, but insistently, philoso-
9. PARSIMONY: (A) formality (B) inhumanity phers keep asking these traditional questions.
(C) obesity (D) arrogance (E) extravagance
(A) confidently (B) diffidently (C) frequently
10. RECALCITRANT: (A) repetitious (D) pugnaciously (E) progressively
(B) meandering (C) determined
(D) indecisive (E) compliant 15. The artistic success of ancient vase painting did not
depend entirely on the artist’s skill in ---- imitation
of observed appearances.
(A) slavish (B) forceful (C) incompetent
(D) potential (E) creative

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

Copyright © 1979, 1980 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. 179
Princeton, N.J. 08541
I
Each question below consists of a related pair of words 22, DEBATE: ARGUMENT :: (A) debut: debutante
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (B) illness: convalescence (C) campaign: expedition
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a (D) duel: fight (E) audition: performance
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
pS INCANTATION: MAGICAL ::
Example:
(A) idiom: persuasive
YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep (B) lisp: ungrammatical
(B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement (C) phrase :definitional
(D) face : expression (E) impatience : rebellion (D) endearment: affectionate
ORO MO) (E) nomenclature: random

24. MELODEON: ORGANIST ::

16. PRACTICE: IMPROVEMENT:: (A) memory : event (A) reveille: bugler
(B) chaos:arrangement (C) assignment: praise (B) solo: accompanist
(D) thought:regret (E) polish: sparkle (C) crescendo: pianist
(D) anthem: choirmaster
17. BREATHE:PANT:: (A) borrow: pay
(E) kettledrum: tympanist
(B) drop:bounce (C) stride: gallop
(D) spend:save (E) scare:leap 25% LINGUISTICS: LANGUAGE ::
(A) statistics: sociology
18. LEMON:FRUIT:: (A) author:symposium
(B) ceramics: clay
(B) branch:tree (C) poetry: prose
(C) gymnastics: health
(D) hammer:tool (E) partner: syndicate
(D) dynamics: motion
19. SCRAMBLE:WALK:: (A) race: compete (E) economics: warfare
(B) scrawl: write (C) speak: state
(D) rebel: disagree (E) attack: engage

20. GENE:HEREDITY:: (A) germ: disease

(B) blood:vein (C) cell: nourishment
(D) pain:nerve (E) strength: muscle

21. MERGER:CORPORATIONS::
(A) budget: finances
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(B) indenture: services
(C) marriage : persons
(D) transaction: dealers
(E) annihilation : countries

180
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Archaeology, by its very nature, moves at a slow and PAI The author provides information that would answer
deliberate pace, yet it is in the midst of a quiet revolu- all of the following questions EXCEPT:
tion today. No longer does the study of history confine (A) Do archaeological studies have implications
itself to quests for exotic art objects that glorified rulers for scientists dealing with problems of
in times past. Today, archaeologists are trying to put modern-day man?
together a working picture of how ancient societies— (B) What sort of studies would an archaeologist
particularly the common people in those societies— following the new approach undertake?
behaved. (C) What kind of devices are used to aid the new
This fresh approach embraces a number of separate archaeology?
strands. Sophisticated instruments developed by physical (D) What are some of the views held by archaeolo-
scientists—computers, nuclear sensors, and even cameras gists on the new archaeology?
aboard earth satellites—are helping archaeologists to (E) What are some of the goals of archaeology?
identify and explore promising sites that will yield arti-
facts for them to interpret. Techniques gleaned from
sociology and psychology are supplying archaeologists 28. The author’s attitude toward the new approach to
with reams of statistical data. Some modern archaeolo- archaeology would best be described as
gists do not even bother to dig anymore. They prefer (A) sentimental
to study such relatively modern monuments as grave- (B) condescending
stones and latter-day examples of primitive peoples like (C) approving
the aborigines of Australia and the Bushmen of Botswana. (D) pedantic
The old and the new archaeologists, however, share (E) apathetic
one fundamental assumption: that modern society can
learn from the mistakes of its ancestors. By analyzing
how ancient societies coped with such problems as
pollution, overpopulation, scarcity of resources, and
warfare, archaeologists believe that they can suggest
means to help deal with the modern versions of these
social scourges.

26. Which of the following would be the most appro- GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
priate title for the passage?
(A) Past and Present Archaeological Techniques
(B) The Objectives of Archaeology: Predicting the
Future
(C) Critical Attack on the New Archaeology
- (D) Finding New Sites for Archaeological
Exploration
(E) A New Approach to Archaeology

The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. The ideas con-
tained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the
text suitable for testing purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.

181
 Perhaps it is a kind of ethnic chauvinism that is 30. The main purpose of the passage is to
responsible for the fact that many physiologists and (A) report on the use of a new technical pro-
nutritionists were surprised to discover that a large cedure
percentage of the human adult population is deficient (B) challenge the significance of recent experi-
in lactase, the enzyme that breaks down lactose (milk mental data
sugar). The few human populations in which lactose (C) describe the investigation of a common
tolerance exceeds intolerance include most Northern condition
European and white American ethnic groups. (D) analyze the reasons for a medical phenomenon
A period of active investigation of lactose intoler- (E) describe the symptoms of a human ailment
ance was initiated at the end of the 1950’s. In 1965
investigators who had administered lactose to American Sule According to the passage, a person receiving the
blacks and whites reported some startling findings: maximum dosage of lactose would weigh at least
whereas only fifteen per cent of the whites showed (A) 10 kilograms
clinical symptoms of lactose intolerance, about seventy
(B) 50 kilograms
per cent of the blacks were lactose intolerant.
(C) 100 kilograms
In the study various methods of measuring intoler-
(D) 150 kilograms
ance were used. One was recording the appearance of
(E) 200 kilograms
clinical symptoms after the ingestion of a dose of
lactose, which was standardized at two grams of lactose a) The author suggests that prior to the late 1950’s,
per kilogram of body weight up to a maximum of 100 Scientists were unaware of the common occurrence
grams. Another measured low lactase activity, deter- of lactose intolerance in adults because
mined through an intestinal biopsy, after ingestion of
the lactose. A third recorded the elevation of blood (A) lactose intolerance was not prevalent among
glucose after ingestion of the lactose. white ethnic groups
Since clinical symptoms are variable, and the biopsy (B) they did not know the symptoms of lactose
method is inconvenient for the subject being tested, the intolerance
blood-glucose method was preferred. It is a direct (C) they had not identified the function of lactase
measure of lactose breakdown, and false negative results in human digestion
are rare if the glucose is measured fifteen minutes after (D) they did not know the source of lactose in the
human diet
lactose is administered.
By 1970 enough data had been accumulated to indi- (E) it was not yet possible to measure enzyme
cate that more people all over the world are intolerant activities
to lactose than are tolerant.

29. On the basis of the information in the passage, which

of the following conclusions can be made about the
participants in the 1965 study?
(A) The majority of the participants were black.
(B) The majority of the participants were white.
(C) None of the participants exhibited clinical G0 ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
symptoms of lactose intolerance.
(D) A majority of the blacks were intolerant to
lactose.
(E) A majority of the whites had a lactase
deficiency.

182
 I call myself a conservationist and am therefore 34. It can be inferred from the passage that the
anxious to preserve the environment, particularly my (A) workmen did not want the narrator to know
personal environment, and most especially the maple that they were pruning the trees
trees in front of my house. One day, sitting in my (B) man in charge of the work crew sympathized
study, devising strategies of how to deal with “them”
with the narrator
when they came on their next, inevitable visit—I heard
(C) workmen were antagonistic toward the
them. They were here! The snarling of the chain saw
narrator
was a reality and not just a figment of my imagination.
(D) maple trees had been pruned without the nar-
I leapt from my chair and ran around the corner of
rator’s permission on previous occasions
the house to the group of men standing around the
(E) workman cutting the branches off the trees
truck, looking up at the elevated basket that carried the
was planning to cut the trees down
workman with the chain saw. He was cutting branches
off my maple trees as if they were so many bunches of
bananas. a5; The enemy referred to in the last sentence is
“What do you think you’re doing?” probably
“Pruning your trees,” said a man who looked as if (A) the workman using the chain saw
he might be in charge. (B) the narrator
“Why?”
(C) the narrator’s neighbors
He told me that they needed to put an additional (D) builders of new developments
set of wires along the poles. ‘“‘What is it?” I was still (E) manufacturers of electrical equipment
shouting. “Another subdivision going up? More houses
going to be built? Because if...”
“No,” he interrupted evenly. ‘“‘We just need to get
more electricity to the houses already here.” Defeated,
I turned back to the old farmhouse with its electric
toothbrush, self-cleaning oven, drier, and electric can
opener. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
I had met the enemy.

33. The passage suggests that the workmen’s primary

objective is to
(A) increase the supply of electricity in the nar-
rator’s neighborhood
(B) comply with the wishes of the narrator
(C) preserve the trees in the area
(D) provide a source of electricity for a planned
housing development
(E) replace the narrator’s trees

183
 To emphasize the stagnation and the narrowness Si. The author would probably disagree with those
of the society depicted in Jane Austen’s novels is to critics or readers who find that the society in
take a narrow and mechanical view of them. Emma Jane Austen’s novels is
is not a period piece, nor is it what is sometimes
(A) unsympathetic (B) uninteresting
called a “comedy of manners.” We read it to illu- (C) crude (D) authoritarian (E) provincial
minate not only the past but also the present. And
we must face here in both its crudity and its impor- 38. The author implies that a work of art is properly
tance a question: Exactly what relevance and help- judged on the basis of its
fulness does Emma have for us today? In what
sense does a novel dealing skillfully and realisti- (A) universality of human experience truthfully
(10) recorded
cally with a society and its standards, which are
dead and gone forever, have value in our very dif-
(B) popularity and critical acclaim in its own age
ferent world today? Stated in such terms, the (C) openness to varied interpretations, including
seemingly contradictory ones
question itself is unsatisfactory. If Emma today
(D) avoidance of political and social issues of
(15) captures our imagination and engages our sympa-
minor importance
thies (as, in fact, it does), then either it has some
genuine value for us, or else there is something (E) continued popularity through different eras
wrong with the way we give our sympathy and our
and with different societies
values are pretty useless. 39. It can be inferred that the author considers the
(20) Put this way, it is clear that anyone who enjoys question stated and restated in lines 8-13 to be
Emma and then remarks “but of course it has no unsatisfactory because it
relevance today” is, in fact, debasing the novel,
looking at it not as a living, enjoyable work of art (A) fails to assume that society and its standards
but as a mere dead picture of a past society. Such are the proper concern of a novel
an attitude is fatal both to art and to life. It can (B) neglects to assume that the novel is a definable
(25)
be assumed that Emma has relevance. The helpful art form
approach is to ask why this novel still has the (C) suggests that our society and Jane Austen’s
power to move us today. are quite different
What gives Emma its power to move us is the (D) fails to emphasize Jane Austen’s influence on
realism and depth of feeling behind Jane Austen’s modern writers
(30)
attitudes. She examines with a scrupulous yet (E) wrongly states the criteria for judging a novel’s
passionate and critical precision the actual prob- worth
lems of her world. That this world is narrow can-
The author’s attitude toward someone who “enjoys
not be denied. But the value of a work of art rests
Emma and then remarks ‘but of course it has no
(35) on the depth and truth of the experience it com-
relevance today’ ” (lines 21-22) can best be de-
municates, and such qualities cannot be identified
scribed as one of
with the breadth of the work’s panorama. A con-
versation between two people in a grocery store (A) amusement
may tell us more about a world war than a volume (B) astonishment
(40) of dispatches from the front. The silliest of all (C) disapproval
criticisms of Jane Austen is the one that blames (D) resignation
her for not writing about the Battle of Waterloo (E) ambivalence
and the French Revolution, which were in the
headlines of the newspapers she read. She wrote
(45) about what she genuinely understood, and no
artist can do more.

36. The main idea of the passage is that

(A) aconstricted view of Emma is natural and
acceptable
(B) anovel should not depict a vanished society
(C) a good novel is an intellectual rather than an
emotional experience
(D) many readers have seen only the comedy in
Emma
(E) Emma should be read with sensitivity and an
open mind

Seeli
O: -3P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
184 DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 SECTION 3
Time—30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
rect answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?: Circumference = 2mr Triangle: The sum of the measures
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. C in degrees of the angles of
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. * a triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If CCDA is a right angle, then
ey ass Xx
=) is equal to is less than or equal to (Cimren oO AABC= AB X CD
is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to 2
< is less than ll is parallel to A Deed (2\PACe="AD- 4 DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the prob-
lems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

Peltex + y= 2, then x + y - 4= 4. If n is a positive integer greater than 1 and if the

remainders are the same when 9 and 16 are each
Poeeeee(b) O (C)2 (D)4 (E) 6 divided by n, then n=

(A) 2
oy 4 = 35 is (B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(A) 49 (E) 8

1 5. How many tenths of a meter are there in

(B) 4 21.1 meters?
(C) 5 (A)LO te By ater (Cjs2 tine (DD) 21 ene) 624 1

6. Which of the following is NOT equal to the ratio

(D) 49 of two whole numbers?

(E) none of the above

(A) +
Be
3. According to the rules of an organization that has (B) ai
100 members, no member may serve on more than
3 committees. What is the maximum permissible C) 03
number of 10-man committees? (C) 0.

(A) 30

(C) 21
(D) 20 (E) v3
(E) 10 1

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

185
 It, In the figure above, if 2; || 22, then p- q=

P Q R S
(A) 40
(B) 70
Ue In the figure above, if PS is a line segment and (C) 100
PQ = QT=TR=RS, then y = (D) 110
(E) 140
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 (E) 50

12. If x and y are integers andif x- y>xty,

A shipment of 1,680 items is trucked across states which of the following must be true?
M and N. If State M levies a tax of 7 cents for
each lot of 7 items and if State N levies a tax of (A) y<0
5 cents for each lot of 5 items, what is the total (B) x <0
tax levied by the two states? (C) x=y
(D)y x
(A) $5.76 (E) x>y
(B) $33.60
(C) $35.52
(D) $74.00
(E) $576.00
eo
oe
4 B P e) R = i
-k—_—_—_——15-——____—__>}
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

A 13; In the figure above, if R is the midpoint of QS,

Cc
then PQ=

KA) deee(B)n2> (C) 23 (D) 4 (E) 5

1B)

In the figure above, what is the length of a side of In a set of 24 cubic blocks, each block has pictures
square ABCD ? on two sides and letters on the remaining sides.
How many sides of the entire set have letters?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 12 Wy 13” (25
(A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 72 (D) 96 (EB) 144
10. Colored banners are strung on a cord to advertise
a carnival. If the colors form a repeating pattern
If p=27+t,r=27-t,and t? =9, then
starting with white, red, yellow, blue, green, purple;
white, red, yellow, blue, green, purple, and so on, (A) 2
what is the color of the 76th banner? (B) 26
(Cj?
(A) Red (D) 80
(B) Yellow (E) 81
(C) Blue
(D) Green
(E) Purple

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

186
 3
20. ofhthe
If s = Gk > 0, and m > 0,whic
Circle P
following must be true?
Circle Q (A) m<k
(B) k<m
(C) k=7,m=8 only
16. In the figure above, if circle P has radius R and (D) k =8,m=7 only
circle Q has radius r, the area of the shaded (E) None of the above
region is

(A) 1(R? +12) (B) 2(R? - 12) (C) a(R - 1)? ae If a man reads for 5 hours and x minutes at an
average rate of 40 printed pages an hour, then,
ferment t) (E) 27(R +1) in terms of x, he will read exactly how many
printed pages?

iT. In a certain country the ratio of the number of (A) 200x

people 30 years of age or under to the number of
people over 30 is 3 to 2. What per cent of the (B) 200 + 40x
population of this country is over 30 ? »
(C) 200 + 3x
(A) 40%
(D) 200 + 2400x
(B) 50%
(E) 12,000 + 40x
(C) 60%
) 22: Which of the following must be greater than N if
(D) 663 % O<N< 1?

1
(E) 885% ot VNae (B) ok (C) N?

18. Three prizes, with an average value of $75.00, (D) 0.9N (E) =
were offered in a poster contest. However, the
judges chose 2 first-place winners and 2 second-
place winners and decided to split the prize
money so that each first prize was twice as
much as each second prize. How much was
awarded to each first-place winner?

(A) $25.00 (B) $37.50 (C) $62.50

(D) $75.00 (E) $100.00 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
19. Tom and Joe together earn $750 per week. If
Tom’s salary is two-thirds of Joe’s, what is three-
fourths of Tom’s weekly salary?

(A) $187.50
(B) $225.00
(C) $275.00
(D) $337.50
(E) $375.00

187
323. A polygon with all sides equal is inscribed in a
circle with center O. If R and S are adjacent
vertices of the polygon, LROS CANNOT equal

(A) 25°
(B) 24°
(C)etsa
(Djs
(E)) 8°
24. If 125 per cent of m is equal to 80 per cent of n 25. In the figure above, w+x ty +2 =
and n #0, then = = (A) 180
a (B) 210
(C) 240
OE.16 (D) 270
(E) 360
4
(B) =

(C) 1

) 5

m5)
(E) 76

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

188
 SECTION 5
Time—30 minutes
35 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
rect answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 2ar Triangle: The sum of the measures
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. C in degrees of the angles of
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. a triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: ' If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to < is less than or equal to _ AB X CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to OUR Mei NS 2
<_ is less than | is parallel to Dis. B (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the prob-
lems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

[uiigeoye—e21—) 13aeand) x +ty = 4, then x=

1 1 23
eee) C) (D) > EE) 9

bbe re
2. What is the average of
oe ?
co|~N

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D).1. (E) 2 5. In the figure above, the coordinates of point P are
(4, 5). If PQ is a diameter of a circle with center
; (0, 0), what are the coordinates of point Q ?
3. Which of the following figures can be drawn without
lifting the pencil or retracing a segment? (A) (-5,-4) (B) (5,4) (C) (4, 5)
1 (D) 44, =5) = (E) (4, ~5)

6. In triangles ABC and DEC above, x =

Il.
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 (E) 50

7. Which of the following is a pair of numbers that

(A) Ionly (B) Ilonly§ (C) III only are NOT equal?
D) land II
(D) (E) I and Ill (A) i30.125 (B) 35,55
33 (©) 22,5lt
4. If p is a whole number such that the only positive (D) CARAS (E) 44 28
divisors of p are 1 and p and if 20p is divisible 63’ 45 122088
by 6, then p=

(A)2 ()3 (C)4 (D)5 () 6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

189
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Cif the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x, n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES
Column A Column B | Answers

s Xx Dae te
a ee eco Column A Column B

Charge for laying tile is $5 per square meter.

12. Charge for tiling a Charge for tiling a

rectangular region rectangular region
32 meters by 20 meters by
20 meters 32 meters

Column A Column B

8. The number of hoursin The number of days in

a day a month

1B peers I C,
9. The value of 3x - 8 The value of 3y - 8
when x = 8 when y =-8 ABCD is a square and the semicircles have equal
diameters.

13% Area of ABCD Area of the figure out-

lined with the heavy
solid line

14. 9(7 + 3) (3 X 3)(2 + 8)

Nese SS
= y =75
P, Q, R, and S are vertices of the cube. 1s y 5

10. Length of diagonal PR —_ Length of diagonal QS

(not shown) (not shown)

i 0.001 + 8 0.008 + 1
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

190
 A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

Questions 22-23 refer to the following definition.

For all positive numbers n, represents the value

of n* rounded to the nearest integer.
7 g
ee The product of 4 and
16. Perimeter of the square _ Perimeter of the rec-
tangle
23: +]
p, q, and r are distinct positive integers.

17. Por g+ 1 par 24. 0.049 0.07

18. The length of the hy- 5

potenuse of a right
triangle with legs of
lengths 4 and 2,
respectively

19;
Vim x< 0
a
ESS -

Points Q and R are on the circle with center P.

3x?
-3
Meee
ye i)
I II

A rectangle and a triangle are arranged without The price of a hat increased by 25 per cent and
overlapping in the two ways shown. then the new price was decreased by 20 per cent.
20. Perimeter of arrange- Perimeter of arrange- 27. The hat’s original price The hat’s more recent
ment I ment II price

21;
<
\ Pad
<

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

19T
5
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then indicate the one
correct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.

28. If x is a number greater than 0, which of the A grocer buys m crates of strawberries for q cents
following must be true? per crate. If each crate contains p liters which he
sells at c cents per liter and if other expenses are
(Ajises eek disregarded, which of the following represents his
(sy) Se Sl total profit, in cents, on the strawberries?

(C) 1 awa
(D) xix weg Cc

(BE) xo el
(B) pe- q
29. The centers of two circles are 6 centimeters apart.
If the circumference of one of the circles is 47
centimeters and the circumference of the other is
(Cc) & - mg
147 centimeters, which of the following is true?
(D) pc - mq
(A) The circles do not intersect and no part of the
small circle is within the large circle.
(E) mpc - mq
(B) The circles do not intersect and no part of the
small circle is outside of the large circle.
(C) The circles intersect at one point only. If xy =-1 and (x+y)? = 10, then x? + y? =
(D) The circles intersect at two points only. (A) 8
(E) The number of points of intersection cannot (B) 9
be determined from the information given. (C) 10
(D) 11
S10),
1 1 Ly 47 ;
LAE 3 + aT + ' oN , then all of the following (E) 12
are integers EXCEPT Which of the following is the graph of all x values
Ay N
Ot
N
OF N
OF N
OF
N such that) x 2. and =x. =e)

AQD——_—_—_—_—_—_—_—_—_—__
+ +
31. If for all real numbers
(a, b, c X x, y, z) = ax + by + cz, then
PRONG a (B) <———+—+—_
++ er
(=4, -1,-6 X 2, 2, 5)
(A) -40 (() ><?
——— ————
(B) -1
(C)0
(D) 1 OO _—__———ooo,
(E) 198
32, sf4(25 24)? =727) =o ewhatasix 2
CE) mp
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Si, »P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

192
 SECTION 6
Time—30 minutes
45 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example: Although its publicity has been —, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
CO MOOR es)
(A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated. .amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. VERTICAL: (A) even (B) horizontal (E) perfect. spectacular @Dooo
(C) straight (D) open (E) parallel
2. SCURRY: (A) dawdle (B) calm 16. Common sense tells us that a person’s ---- to use
(C) align (D) recline (E) capture certain kinds of words ---- past experiences.
3. INNUMERABLE: (A) worthless (B) yielding (A) desire..recovers (B) refusal. .decides
(C) harsh (D) very few (E) moderately easy (C) wish. determines (D) tendency. .reflects
(E) inability. inhibits
4. IRRATIONAL: (A) curious (B) honest
(C) pleasant (D) attentive to detail 17. Only a ---- in the field will comprehend this highly
(E) guided by reason ---- material.
(A) veteran. .general (B) critic. .complimentary
5. STAGNANT: (A) deep (B) overt
(C) novice. .intricate (D) master. .conventional
(C) crooked (D) flowing (E) tasteless (E) specialist. sophisticated
6. MOTIVATE: (A) deter (B) pester
18. The harshness of political struggle --- Ralph but
(C) misconstrue (D) alienate (E) minimize
at the same time fascinated him, so that he could
7. DOUR: (A) unable to respond neither ---- the battle nor fully commit himself
_(B) cheerful in appearance (C) youthful to it.
(D) crafty (E) clean (A) frightened..dread (B) inspired. comprehend
(C) repelled..abandon (D) intrigued. .forsake
8. HARDINESS: (A) vulnerability
(E) annoyed. .influence
(B) superficiality (C) skillfulness
(D) good fortune (E) poor judgment 19. By attempting to ---- all the writer’s inconsistencies
in form, the translator distracts the attention of
9. ENHANCE: (A) vacate (B) insist
the general reader, who is not concerned with such
(C) depreciate (D) volunteer (E) resist
close accuracy.
10. AMASS: (A) shut down (B) give away (A) improve (B) reproduce (C) equalize
(C) dress up (D) shine forth (E) show off (D) interpret (E) omit
11. SQUALOR: (A) silence (B) elegance 20. If the world’s present known reserves of jossil fuels
(C) rapidity (D) regularity (E) truthfulness could be ----, construction of nuclear power plants
would doubtless be less ----.
12. HACKNEYED: (A) liberated (B) fresh
(C) afoot (D) logical (E) understood (A) augmented. .precipitate
(B) depleted. .expedient
13. RESCIND: (A) advise (B) falter (C) husbanded. .regulated
(C) implement (D) demand (E) predict (D) recycled. .reliable
(E) discovered. hazardous
14. PAUCITY: (A) ambition (B) eminence
(C) intensity (D) hugeness (E) plenty GO ON TO THE WEXT PAGE
15. INCORPOREAL: (A) active (B) unusual
(C) isolated (D) accurate (E) material 193
6
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Americans disapproved a preliminary draft of the rab The author implies that, if the Americans had
Declaration of Independence that indicted the king of indicted the king of England according to their
England for waging “cruel war against human nature original plan, their action would have been
itself, violating its most sacred rights of life and liberty (A) hypocritical (B) underhanded
in the persons of a distant people who never offended (C) unjustified (D) futile (E) pragmatic
him, captivating and carrying them into slavery in
another hemisphere, or to incur miserable death in their
POE The author is primarily concerned with
transportation thither.”’ The Americans were themselves
not ready to abolish slavery and instead used the words (A) describing the status of blacks immediately
“all men are created equal,” which did not commit them before and after the Revolutionary War
to any specific action in regard to slavery. This state- (B) suggesting ways that blacks can help solve the
ment represented a goal that some Americans hoped to problems of the United States
achieve some day rather than a plan most of them were (C) showing the social and political achievements
willing to act upon immediately. made by blacks since the founding of the
Blacks were at first barred from serving in the revolu- United States
tionary army although some blacks had already involved (D) tracing the effect that blacks have had on
themselves in the struggle. Fearing that blacks would the development of the United States since
enlist in the British army, which welcomed them, and the Revolutionary War
facing a manpower shortage, the Continental army soon (E) showing that the abolitionists were ineffective
began to accept free blacks. Runaway slaves, however, in their efforts to improve the condition of
joined the British. More than 30,000 slaves ran away blacks
in 1778 alone, preferring military service to slavery.
The states started to enroll both free and enslaved oe According to the passage, blacks were denied en-
blacks, and finally Congress authorized military service trance into antislavery societies because
for slaves, who were to be emancipated in return for
their service. (A) the black abolitionists were too radical for the
whites
After the war a few blacks achieved material success
(B) such societies were against the law
and some owned slaves, but the vast majority knew only
(C) the abolitionists were afraid of public opinion
poverty. Forbidden to settle in some areas and segre-
(D) most blacks were unwilling to associate with
gated in others, free blacks were targets of prejudice and
whites
discrimination. In the South, they were denied freedom
(E) the societies were afraid that white members
of movement, restricted in their choice of occupation,
would misunderstand the presence of black
and forbidden to associate with whites or slaves. Whites
members
could legally challenge their freedom at any time, and
free blacks lived in constant danger of being enslaved.
In both the North and the South, they were denied 24. It can be inferred that in the first half of the
political power and were regularly the victims of mobs. nineteenth century under United States law free
Some Americans, Washington and Jefferson among blacks
them, advocated the gradual emancipation of slaves, and (A) could not permanently reside in any one place
in the nineteenth century, a movement to abolish slavery (B) had fewer rights than did slaves
grew in importance. A few white abolitionist leaders (C) could be deported to another country without
wanted full equality for blacks, but others sought only warning
to eliminate the institution itself. And some antislavery (D) received as fair treatment as poor whites
societies, fearing that the inclusion of black members (E) could be bound over into slavery
would unnecessarily offend those who were unsympa-
thetic with abolitionist principles, denied entrance to
black abolitionists. Peay According to the author, the words in the Declara-
Most Americans were, in fact, against abolishing tion of Independence, “‘all men are created equal,”
slavery. They refused to rent their halls for antislavery were meant to represent
meetings. They harassed abolitionist leaders who sought (A) an objective (B) a pretext
to educate white and black children together. They (C) a provocation (D) an overstatement
attacked those involved in the movement. Mobs some- (E) arationalization —
times killed abolitionists and destroyed their property.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

194
 6
Since the days of Copernicus, the greatest 26. According to the passage, Lobachevski and Bolyai
change that has occurred in our way of thinking discovered that
about the universe is the modern conception of (A) there were errors in Euclid’s axioms
Line the universe as finite. This does not mean merely (B) there is an infinite amount of matter in space
(5) that there is a finite amount of matter in space, (C) Euclid’s axioms could be applied to Copernicus’
but that space itself is finite. The instant impulse theories of the universe
that most lay people have to reject this statement (D) Riemann’s geometry was applicable to physical
as absurd is really an indication that they are space
unconsciously dominated by certain assumptions. (E) a consistent system of geometry other than
(10) These assumptions can be isolated and analyzed Euclid’s could be developed
and shown to be logically arbitrary. The analysis
is now about a hundred years old. It began with PAR According to the passage, Einstein was the first to
the invention of the first non-Euclidean geometry. recognize the
About a hundred fifty years ago Lobachevski, (A) use of vibrating atoms as measuring devices
(15) a Russian, and Bolyai, a Hungarian, found, inde- (B) logical necessity of Euclid’s axioms
pendently of one another, that Euclid’s geometry (C) absurdity in the theory that the matter in
is not a logical necessity. This is not to say that space is finite
Euclid’s geometry is incorrect. If we start by (D) possibility that Euclid’s axioms could be
accepting Euclid’s axioms, then we must also revised
(20) accept the whole superstructure Euclid built on (E) importance of applying Riemann’s geometry
them. But the fact is that it is not necessary to to actual, physical space
accept Euclid’s axioms. Quite different axioms
can be postulated and a perfectly self-consistent Dhak By “‘this skepticism” (line 35), the author means
system of geometry can be built on them. It (A) denying the existence of non-Euclidean
(25) then becomes a matter of experiment to determine geometries
which system of geometry best fits our experience. (B) questioning whether Euclid’s axioms were
The invention of the non-Euclidean geometries
the only possible ones
is one of the most remarkable feats in the intellec-
(C) doubting people’s ability to devise new sys-
tual history of humanity. For two thousand years
tems of geometry
(30) Euclid’s axioms had reigned unchallenged. That
(D) resisting scientific pressure for the develop-
they were ‘‘necessary truths,” true even for God,
ment of new philosophies
was admitted by all the philosophers. Merely to
(E) criticizing the accuracy of the axioms in
wonder whether these could be transcended was
Euclid’s geometry
an effort of extraordinarily imaginative daring.
(35) And to translate this skepticism into the creation Pas) The content of the passage primarily answers
of a new, coherent, and complete system of which of the following questions?
geometry was a wonderful and exhilarating achieve-
(A) How is deductive geometry similar to geometry
ment of the free human mind.
based on Euclid’s axioms?
Gradually the science of deductive geometry
(B) How did Lobachevski and Bolyai develop new
(40) has acquired a new status. The question has
systems of geometry?
arisen as to which geometry we are to apply to
(C) Why have people assumed that Euclid’s
actual, physical space, the space in which all the
geometry is a logical necessity?
millions of stars exist. The question is a matter
(D) Why has our concept of space changed since
of measurement. Our measuring instruments the days of Copernicus?
(45) may be rods and clocks or rays of light and (E) How do the laws of Riemann’s geometry apply
vibrating atoms. Which geometry best describes to the measurement of actual, physical space?
the observed behavior of the stars? A particular
form of geometry invented by the German 30. We can infer from the passage that Euclidean
geometer Riemann best meets the facts of the geometry is
(50) case. Einstein was the first to realize this and he
(A) inconsistent
applied this geometry with immense success.
(B) unnecessarily complex
Scientists are now convinced that we live in a
(C) no longer applicable
space governed not by the laws of Euclid’s
(D) not completely adequate for describing space
geometry, but by the laws of Riemann’s geometry.
(E) more abstract than other geometries and there-
fore too restrictive for modern science

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

195
6Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
oh From a high-flying jet, the earth appears virtually relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
----; that is, rolling land is ironed out and the
Example:
land’s general ---- are almost eliminated.
(A) flat. contours YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(B) uninteresting. .colors (B) anger: madness (C) smile :amusement
(D) face : expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(C) round. .markings
®©®@®De@e® ®
(D) unrecognizable. .features
(E) motionless. .guidelines
36. SUBMARINE: SHARK:: (A) sled: dog
o2. To submit such ---- testimony is to ---- the
(B) plow:horse (C) caravan: camel
defendant while pretending to prove his
(D) airplane:hawk (E) subway: tiger
innocence.
(A) arbitrary. acquit EWE MAGNIFY :SIZE:: (A) pacify: blandness
(B) implausible. .incriminate (B) rectify:generosity (C) dignify: wisdom
(C) airtight. exonerate (D) fortify:strength (E) verify: fear
(D) favorable. sentence
38. FORUM: DISCUSSION :: (A) casino: gambling
(E) conflicting. .confuse
(B) palette: painting (C) library: printing
33. Well-intentioned ---- all too often defeats its basic (D) itinerary:traveling (E) armory: fighting
purpose by destroying the recipient’s self-reliance.
aoe CRUNCH:SNOW:: (A) wade: beach
(A) benevolence (B) modesty (C) negligence (B) ripple:sand (C) whistle: wind
(D) arrogance (E) gratitude (D) slosh: water (E) drizzle:rain

34. A man of great sensibility, the writer ---- the laying PROTEST: DISCONTENT :: (A) anger: indecision
bare of his first work; he had put into the book (B) inaction:apathy (C) mockery:contrition
everything he had that was good, true, and beautiful, (D) sympathy: misery (E) supremacy :anarchy
and it was regarded as ----.
41. BRAWN: WEIGHT LIFTER:: (A) fame: painter
(A) thrilled to. nonsense (B) wound:doctor (C) uniform: soldier
(B) shrank from. .artistry (D) obedience: pioneer (E) tact: diplomat
(C) suffered at. .drivel
(D) glossed over. .caricature 42. BRINK: PRECIPICE:: (A) bank: river
(E) agonized over. .abstraction (B) tree:forest (C) lake: ocean
(D) tunnel: mountain (EF) whirlpool: waterfall
So The union leader made the ---- statement that no
union member, not even the maintenance crew, 43. DAREDEVIL: RECKLESS :: (A) virtuoso: careless
would be allowed to cross the picket line. (B) hostage:lawless (C) brute: helpless
(A) discreet (B) ambiguous (C) fallacious (D) prodigal: thriftless (E) wizard: relentless
(D) obsequious (E) categorical RACONTEUR: ANECDOTE:: (A) orator:speech
(B) lecturer:applause (C) actor: monologue
(D) operator: message (E) comedian: dialogue

45. APOCRYPHAL: AUTHENTICITY ::

(A) absurd:novelty (B) protean: variety
(C) unseemly:reality (D) illicit: legality
(E) ordained: sanction

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

196
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 0X
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 6 Section 3 Section 5

B A
A
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A
B
A
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B
1B
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51;
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= E
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5 1B)
LA
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*|Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

Aedf
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 6 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
e Scanning. Your answer sheet is ‘‘read”’ by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotal B
is recorded on acomputer tape.
¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran-
the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
figure on the worksheet. |
wrong response; for questions with four answer
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, the conversion table on the back cover. Enter this fig-
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the ure on the worksheet. (The SAT-verbal score you just
resulting raw score is determined as follows: recorded and your reported SAT-verbal score should
be identical. If not, see the paragraph at the bottom
44 right — S2 wrong = 44 — 8 = 36raw score points of the next page.)

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num-
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to SAT-Mathematical Sections 3 and 5
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
rounded upward to 37. number of incorrect answers for section 3 and record
¢ Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number incorrec
for minor differences in difficulty among different number correct — cote eet = subtotalA
editions of the test. This process, known as equat-
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
the abilities of the group with whom the student questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
the College Board scale, scores earned by students provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
at different times can be compared. For example, an total B, use the formula:
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number incorrec
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- number correct — Co = subtotal B
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi-
tion of the test taken at another time. Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
How to Score the Test record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported mula:
to you recently by using the information in this booklet humbeecaracte number correct
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you = subtotalC
begin, check that the first two characters (number and
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an- Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
swer sheet are the same as the form code printed on subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses figure on the worksheet.
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 6 the resulting figure on the worksheet.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the same tained in E in the conversion table on the back cover.
for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omitted an- Enter this figure on the worksheet. (The SAT-mathe-
swers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula: matical score you just recorded and your reported
number incorrect SAT-mathematical score should be identical. If not,
number correct — 4 = subtotal A see the paragraph at the bottom of the next page.)

198
 SAT SCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODE 0X

SAT-Verbal Sections

A. Section 1: pe
cee! Ue DS
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 6: Joe YY See eee

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) C

D. Total rounded raw score ?

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score ome |

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical Sections

A. Section 3: eee —n/ 40(oe) eS ee ee

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and — VW ( ) =
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27
(4-choice) — Vy ( =
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score ora

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

Should you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the
phone number below. If, after following the above scoring directions and checking
your work at least twice, your results disagree with the SAT-verbal or SAT-math-
ematical score reported on your ATP Student Report, you may request rescoring of
your answer sheet. If rescoring confirms that an error had been made (resulting in
either higher or lower scores than those originally reported), corrected reports will
be sent to all recipients of your original scores. Please send your request to:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 883-8500
Please indicate whether it is your SAT-verbal or SAT-mathematical score, or both,
that you want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring
worksheet on which you did your calculations. 1
99
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 0X
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

800
790
780 440 590
770 440 590
760 430 580
760 420 570
750 420 560
740 410 550
730 400 540
720 400 530
720 390 530
710 380 520
700 380 510
690 370 500
680 360 490
680 350 480
670 350 470
660 340 460
650 330 460
640 330 450
640 320 440
630 310 430
620 310 420
610 300 410
600 290 400
600 800 290 400
590 790 280 390
580 780 270 380
580 770 260 370
570 760 260 360
560 750 250 350
560 740 240 340
550 730 240 330
540 720 230 330
530 710 220 320
530 700 220 310
520 690 210 300
510 680 200 290
510 670 200 280
500 660 200 270
490 660 200 270
490 650 200 260
480 640 200 250
470 630 ~% 200 240
470 620 a4 200 230
200 220
200 210
200 200
or below

200
 COLLEGE BOARD—SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only tor completing this answer sheet. Be sure |
and Test of Standard Written English Side 1+ CSempsiety
erasearyerrorsor tray marks. ama. intended ac
1. 5. YOUR NAME
YOUR NAME: « First 4 letters of last name
(Print) Last First M1

SIGNATURE:

HOME ADDRESS:
(Print) Number and Street

State Zip Code

CENTER: =
(Print) j City State Center Number

IMPORTANT: Please fill in these boxes exactly as FOR ETS

shown on the back cover of your test book. USE ONLY

FORM 4. REGISTRATION NUMBER

«(Copy from your Admission Ticket.)

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00000000 7. SEX 8. TEST BOOK SERIAL NUMBER

0000
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Start with number 1 for each new section. If a section has fewer than 50 questions, leave the extra answer spaces blank.

SECTION 4 SECTION 5

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USE ONLY WEW
FORM CODE /G027
SECTION 1 I
Time—30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example:
Although its publicity has been —--, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red _ds intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly Ryemprsitsar and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. .moderate
(C) sophisticated. amateur (D) risqué. .crude
FLABBY: (A) fertile (B) taut (C) radiant (E) perfect. spectacular @®2ooo
(D) fortunate (E) miniature

CONCLUSIVE: (A) debatable (B) tactless

(C) obvious (D) aggravating (E) noisy 16. Because mist is a magician, even the ---- object
may appear beautiful under certain atmospheric
INERT: (A) exact (B) dry (C) active conditions.
(D) congenital (E) hopeful (A) largest (B) heaviest (C) ugliest
(D) simplest (E) strongest
HEARTEN: (A) assume
(B) dismay (C) imitate 17. The great voyages of discovery that expanded
(D) confide in (EE) sympathize with people’s geographic vision served to ---- their
intellectual horizons as well.
OBSCURITY: (A) prominence (B) continuity
(C) reliability (D) gentleness (EE) resistance (A) engulf (B) immobilize (C) clarify
(D) broaden (E) fragment
ADULTERATE: (A) unite (B) conclude
(C) polish (D) purify (E) impute 18. Rebecca’s ---- of ---- in all its forms was consistent
with her commitment to reason and moderation.
ZENITH: (A) slow progress
(A) dismissal. .doubt
(B) hidden side (C) distant object
(B) suspicion. .fanaticism
(D) revealed truth (E) lowest point
(C) disparagement. .frailty
_ CHERUBIC: (A) ecstatic (B) provincial (D) tolerance. .intemperance
(C) very colorful (D) highly potent (E) fiendish (E) exaggeration. .courtesy

ARTFUL: (A) forlorn (B) attentive 19. Some critics maintain that Mahler’s music is un-
(C) guileless (D) oppressive (E) stubborn even, running the gamut from the —- to the great.
(A) unprecedented (B) monumental
GRIEVOUS: (A) minor (B) visible
(C) essential (D) sublime (E) banal
(C) incomplete (D) inevitable (E) genuine
20. The foreign correspondent portrayed the leaders
AMITY: (A) animosity (B) tragedy
of both warring factions so sympathetically that
(C) poverty (D) sobriety (E) ordeal
he was ---- by both sides for his blindness to the
AMELIORATE: (A) aggravate (B) forget enemy’s ----.
(C) refuse (D) hesitate (E) amputate (A) admonished. .virtue
(B) censured. .affability
EPHEMERAL: (A) valiant (B) legible
(C) commended. .integrity
(C) apathetic (D) predestined (E) eternal
(D) vilified. .baseness
BROACH: (A) devalue . (B) close (E) revered. innocence
(C) reprove (D) affirm (E) heed
IRASCIBLE: (A) honorable (B) fickle GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) delectable (D) stubborn (E) impassive

Copyright © 1980 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. 205

Princeton, N.J. 08541 :
l
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Can poverty in the United States be abolished within 21. It can be inferred that the first phase of the New
the limits of the welfare state? Deal
The answer is clear enough. The government’s (A) discouraged investment in industry
own figures demonstrate that the current antipoverty (B) was the source of today’s welfare theory
programs are basically inadequate. I do not, however, (C) stimulated the growth of big-city political
want to dismiss completely the government’s anti- machines
poverty programs. Current serious discussion of (D) provided programs to prepare workers for
poverty in this country is a gain which one owes in jobs in automated industry
part to that program. But there is no point in pre- (E) gave business an opportunity to extend control
tending that a little more welfarism will do away with over the economy
a national shame.
Today’s poor are different from the pre-Second 22. The author credits the government’s antipoverty
World War poor. The “old” poor lived at a time when program with which of the following?
economic opportunity was the national trend, when the (A) Encouraging serious discussions on national
net income from the growth of American manufacturing poverty
increased by 4,500 per cent. It was the “old” poor, (B) Promoting a new welfare system
LIE SU Os AURIEEE aie DY els (C) Establishing programs to generate jobs
guage and culture, who created the big-city political (D) Eliminating a national shame
machines and participated in the organization of unions ; f ; f
and the political struggle for the New Deal. They had (E). Involving the poor In plans (et
objective, realistic reason for hope. 23. The primary purpose of the passage is to
An analysis of the first phase and second phase of
(A) expose those who support government anti-
the New Deal of the Roosevelt administration is quite
poverty programs
relevant at this point. The first phase of the New Deal,
(B) distinguish between the pre- and post-Second
supported by American business and dominated by the
World War poor
National Recovery Act, gave recognition to an old (C)
argue for social investment by the federal
corporate dream—economy planned by business. The
government to alleviate poverty
second phase of the New Deal (the source of today’s (D)
reveal the practices of society that perpetuate
welfare theory and antipoverty wisdom) moved away
poverty
from the concept of planning and toward a “free (E)
distinguish among the first, second, and
market.” The assumption was that in its intervention
third New Deal approaches to reducing
the government should not plan but should stimulate the
economy and that the private sector and initiative would Sa
continue to be the mainspring of progress. 24. According to the passage, today’s poor differ from
After the Second World War, the government started the “old” poor in which of the following ways?
emphasizing training programs because some workers
I. The “old” poor enjoyed a higher average
were not participating in the general economic advance.
income.
However, these training programs have missed the
fundamental problem. The novelty of impoverishment II. The “old” poor had a realistic hope for
economic opportunity.
today is that it takes place in a time of automation.
The government offers education and training and at the III. The “old” poor were better educated.
same time admits that the jobs for its graduates are (A) Il only (B) II only (C) I and III only
obsolete. Such hypocrisy reinforces the cynicism and (D) Il and II only (E) I, Il, and Ill
resistance to organization which characterizes poor
SGnuinunities: 25. The author’s attitude toward the government’s
It is therefore crucial that the federal government current poverty program can best be described as
generate jobs and create an environment of economic (A) unqualified appreciation
hope. The essence of the “third phase” of the New Deal (B) fundamental dissatisfaction
would be social investment, a conscious and political (C) apathetic acceptance
allocation of resources to meet public needs. This New (D) self-righteous pomposity
Deal would be dependent upon a coalition, which would (E) violent indignation
include, but not be confined to, the poor, that would see
to it that planning and social investment were extended
in a democratic way.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. The ideas con-
tained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make the
text suitable for testing purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.

206
 Scientists studying choriocarcinoma, a kind of Dik The author states that foreign tissue will not be
cancer developing out of fetal tissue, are inevitably rejected by the host if
students of the fetus-mother relationship and of the (A) the layer of Nitabuch has been damaged
phenomenon by which a mother’s body suppresses (B) the cells of the host are positively charged
normal rejection of foreign tissue such as the fetus (C) the host is already fighting off other foreign
itself. Many scientists feel that the trophoblast is cells
responsible for this phenomenon. The trophoblast (D) direct contact between a lymphocyte and a
that gives rise to choriocarcinoma first appears as foreign cell is prevented
a layer of cells covering the blastocyst (an early (E) the structure of the foreign cells resembles
stage of the embryo) that is located on the surface that of the host cells
of the placenta. It penetrates and erodes the surface
tissue of the uterine wall with the result that the 28. The author provides information to answer which
blastocyst becomes attached to the uterus. More- of the following questions?
over, the eroding action of the trophoblast damages
(A) Where do the body’s lymphocytes originate?
and thus opens up some of the uterine blood vessels,
(B) What is the process by which antibodies are
providing a source of nourishment for the fetus. It
produced?
appears obvious that the trophoblast has some pecu-
(C) What does a lymphocyte do after making
liar property which permits its toleration by the
contact with a foreign cell?
mother’s body. Especially important may be the
(D) What is the mechanism by which the layer of
noncellular substance called fibrinoid (or the layer
Nitabuch prevents the escape of antigens from
of Nitabuch) covering the cells of the trophoblast. embryonic tissue?
It has recently been hypothesized that the layer of
(E) What are the issues on which scientists disagree
Nitabuch, known for at least a hundred years, may
concerning the role of the trophoblast?
be a barrier to prevent the escape of antigens from
the embryonic tissues so that the mother’s immune 29. The author’s discussion suggests that
response cannot be stimulated into taking action
(A) cancer research has accomplished very little
against the foreign tissue growing in her uterus.
(B) much of the explanation he offers is only
There is a lot of evidence to suggest that in the
tentative
normal rejection process some sort of direct cell-
(C) current cancer research emphasizes prevention
to-cell contact must occur, and that the host cell
rather than cure
making direct contact with the foreign tissue is a
(D) he is not qualified to judge the significance of
white blood cell—the lymphocyte. What the lympho-
the research he describes
cyte does when it establishes contact is not clear.
(E) many scientists have overemphasized study of
Some message goes back to the lymph gland in the
the fetus-mother relationship to the exclusion
area, with the result that there is a proliferation of
of other aspects of cancer research
lymphocytes in the lymph gland. These are special-
ized lymphocytes that can then move in to attack the 30. Which of the following titles best describes the
foreign tissue; and there may also be a secondary content of the passage?
process in which antibodies are produced. But if the
(A) The Layer of Nitabuch—Cause of Chorio-
lymphocyte (which has a fairly high net negative
carcinoma
surface charge) opposed a cell that also had a high
(B) The Lymphocyte and Its Ways of Defeating
negative surface charge, then it might not be possi-
Disease
ble for the lymphocyte to make the appropriate con-
tact, since negative charges repel. It is difficult to
C) The Mutually Beneficial Relationship of the
Trophoblast and the Blastocyst
measure the electrical charge of the trophoblast cell,
(D) Some Discoveries Revealing Possible Cures
but it is likely that it has a high net negative charge,
for Choriocarcinoma
perhaps due to the layer of Nitabuch. If the lymphocyte
(E) Some Speculations as to Why the Mother’s
is prevented from making contact with the cell of the
Body Fails to Reject Choriocarcinoma
foreign body, then the foreign body—be it fetus or the
fetus-originated choriocarcinoma—will not be rejected.

26. Which of the following can be inferred about

choriocarcinoma?
(A) Only embryos are immune to its attack. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(B) It is most commonly associated with pregnancy.
(C) It is the type of cancer which has been most
extensively studied. .
(D) It is the only type of cancer for which the
body’s rejection process is important.
(E) It is the only type of cancer for which a cure
has been found.
207
l Select the word or set of words that best completes Each question below consists of a related pair of words
each of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
Sis Many great dramatic parts make such heavy relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
--- the physical and spiritual resources of
Example:
the chief performers that eight performances a
week are an ---- strain. YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(A) impositions on. .appropriate (B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(B) requirements on. invigorating (D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(C) overtures to. .ultimate ORO BO)
(D) demands on. .unbearable
(E) competition for. unmitigated 36. SEED:SPROUT:: (A) lava: volcano
(B) bud:bloom (C) fish: minnow
32: In their search for artifacts, archaeologists are
(D) pollen:bee (E) vine:tree
often ----, not because a suspected site is
remote and isolated but because it is ----. 37. RUMOR:FACT:: (A) myth:history
(A) misled. .verified (B) guess:assumption (C) science :knowledge
(B) undeterred. .unearthed (D) fiction:story (E) inference: intuition
(C) belittled. .undespoiled 38. SNARL:ANGRY:: (A) bite: pensive
(D) venerated. sacred (B) growl:humble (C) purr:contented
(E) frustrated. .urbanized
(D) search:defensive (E) pounce :secretive
33% The ---- of the individual’s desire for freedom 39. DERIVATION:WORD::
despite constant efforts to destroy it does not (A) ancestry:person (B) nomenclature:
term
mean that freedom will triumph; at best, it
(C) address:family (D) validation
:document
suggests that the desire for it is ----. (E) relationship:brother
(A) repudiation. .enviable
(B) vacillation. insatiable 40. LONESOME:COMPANIONSHIP::
(C) emasculation. .universal (A) nervous: agitation (B) bored: stimulation
(D) reassertion. .unforeseen (C) clumsy: determination (D) suspicious: caution
(E) persistence. indestructible (E) arrogant : ambition

34. The ---- of erecting arbitrary barriers between 41. NEEDLE:SEW:: (A) padlock :enter
the sciences is clearly demonstrated in the study of (B) picture:draw (C) gauge :measure
sensory processes, where progress has been made (D) sound: fear (E) rope:knot
through the ---- efforts of many specialists. 42. EMENDATION: TEXT:: (A) introduction: speech
(A) efficacy. .qualified (B) boundary:territory (C) alteration: garment
(B) utility. united (D) sketch: painting (E) dilapidation: building
(C) possibility. .diverse
(D) irrationality. combined 43. HEMORRHAGE:BLOOD:: (A) battle: wound
(E) practice. .immense (B) deterrence :aggression (C) consensus: opinion
(D) opulence:wealth (E) effusion:emotion
chy Naturally his course brought down on him the ---
44. UNREMITTING: CESSATION ::
of both leftists and moderates, and he had long
since ---- the conservative elements of the popula- (A) unique:corruption (B) irrelevant : distraction
tion. (C) uniform: diversity (D) unbecoming: permanence
(E) indisputable : certainty
(A) admiration. .reactivated
(B) anger. appeased 45. DISFRANCHISEMENT :RIGHTS ::
(C) malediction. .misdirected (A) corruption: ability
(D) respect. .alienated (B) emancipation : freedom
(E) distrust. estranged (C) imitation : originality
(D) organization: individuality
(E) enervation: strength

Siac Ope
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

208
 SECTION 2
Time—30 minutes

25 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one correct
answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr*: Circumference = 27r Triangle: The sum of the measures in
G
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to = is less than or equal to AB X CD
# is unequal to eas greater than or equal to 4 De ts (1) area of AABC =
2
<__ is less than \| is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. The cost of 900 items at $1.65 per 100 is

(A) $14.85
(B) $18.30
(C) $148.50
(D) $183.00
(E) $1,485.00
2. 51(52 +53 + 54) is equal to all of the following
In a certain game, a player gets an additional spin
EXCEPT
if, when he spins the arrow on the disc shown
(A) 51(52) + 51(53 + 54) above, the arrowhead stops in the region numbered
(B) 51(52) + 51(53) + 51(54) 6. On a given spin, what is the chance that he
(C) (54 +53 +52)51 will get an additional spin? (All regions are of
(D) (54 + 53)51 + 52(51) equal size.)
(E) 51 +(52)(53)(54)
(A) 1 in 36
(B) 1 in6
(C) 1 in 5
(D) 1 in 3
(E) 1 in2

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

209
 > If y-4=9, then y+4=

(A) 4-8) 38. (GC) Se (Deis Es

If
x >O and x? -1=15X
17, then x =
(A) 11
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16
(E) 17 9. ABCD is a rectangle and squares I through VI
have equal areas. If EF =2AE, the area of
one of the squares is what fraction of the area
of rectangle ABCD ?

At ®t OF MF OF
fe
Which of the following fractions is the greatest?

16
(A) 17
In the figure above, a square and a rectangle
overlap. Which of the following is equal to x ?
(B) 9
(A) 120 (B) 135 (C) 140 (D) 150
(E) It cannot be determined from the information (C) Ts
given.

(D) 3
A load of 1,000 tons on a truck is increased by
one per cent. What is the weight, in tons, of the
adjusted load?
+
(A) 1,001 iL. A woman made 5 payments on a loan with each
(B) 1,010 payment being twice the amount of the preceding
(C) 1,100 one. If the total of all 5 payments was $465, how
(D) 1,110 much was the first payment?
(E) 1,111
(A) $5
If 6+x +y =20 andif x +y =k, then (B) $15
20- k is equal to (C) $31
(D) $93
(E) 25155
(A) 14 (B)9 (6 (D) 34
(E) none of the above

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

210
12. If 20 -3,000 =6-100%, then x =

(A)2 (B)3 ()4 (D) 5 (E) 6

16. In the figure above, if z =3x, then y =

(A) 30. (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 80 (E) 90

L7. If N is the least positive integer for which 3/N is

13; In the figure above, line 7 intersects line s at P.
> both an even integer and equal to the square of an
If another line m is drawn through P with angles integer, then N =
formed as indicated in the figure, then what is the
value of y in terms of x ? (A)3 (B)4 (C)6 (D) 12 (E) 18
(A) 60 (B) x Bud now weighs 9 kilograms more than he did a
(D) 180-x (E) 180- 2x year ago. If his weight then, in kilograms, was
0 of his present weight, what is his present
14. 3 Ree
- then the least positive weight?
If k= Dt 12:
integer n for which k is an integer is
(A) 72 kg
(B) 81 kg
(A) 2 (C) 90 kg
(B) 3 (D) 99 kg
(C) 4 (E) 108 kg
(D) 6
(E) 8 19. The volume of a cube with edge ./2 is how many
1D: How many integers are both greater than the times the volume of a cube with edge V2 u

i
integer n and less than n +1?
(A) V2
(A) None
(B) One (B) v2
(C) n (C) 2
(D) n+1 (D) 2V2
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given. (E) 4

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

211
2
20. For any integer n, which of the following repre- PE If 3 blots equal 4 bleets and 5 bleets equal 6 blits,
sents three consecutive even integers? what is the ratio of one blit to one blot?

(A) esr 1 nas

(A)
(B) ayn 2 ne 4
(C) 2n, 4n, 6n (B)
(D) 2n, 2n +1, 2n +2
(E) 2n,2n + 2)2n 44 (C)

(D)

(E) elN
Wily
Mloo
mr
wl

B A 24. The average of 10 students’ test scores is 72.

ke In the figure above, if ABC is a triangle, what is When the 2 highest and 2 lowest scores are
the sum of the degree measures of the marked eliminated, the average of the remaining
angles?
scores is 68. What is the average (arithmetic mean)
of those eliminated?
(A) 180°
(B) 270° (A) 64
(C) 360° (B) 76
(D) 450° (C) 78
(E) It cannot be determined from the information (D) 80
given. (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

Don The height of triangle T is 50 per cent of the pny If N is a positive whole number, let N* equal the
width of rectangle R, and the length of the base sum of all whole numbers from | to JN, inclusive;
of triangle T is 40 per cent of the length of for example, 6* =6+5+4+4+3+2+1=21.
rectangle R. If the area of triangle T is 3, what Which of the following are true?
is the area of rectangle R ?
I. 20* is an odd number.
(A) 1 II. If P is an odd whole number, then P*
(B) 10 is odd.
(C) 15 Ill. (R +1)*-R* is equal to Rete
(D) 20
(A) None
(E) 30
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) II only
(E) Il and III

Seal
0. -P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

212
 SECTION 4

Time—30 minutes

40 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example: Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly DOeOOO
and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. PERISHABLE: (E) perfect. spectacular @2oooO
(A) immobile
(B) inexcusable
(C) unable to advance 11. When, in 1972, the Indian government found that
(D) unlikely to deteriorate there were only 1,827 tigers left, the shooting of
(E) unaccustomed to routine tigers was ----, and steps were taken to preserve
tw DRAWBACK: (A) similarity (B) advantage their —--.
(C) prediction (D) evidence (E) introduction (A) prohibited. habitats
(B) limited. examination
3. OUTPOST: (A) central location (C) investigated. .multiplication
(B) large crowd (C) strong defense (D) reduced. .nature
(D) vital fact (E) active leadership (E) legalized. well-being
4. PULVERIZE: (A) mold together 12. Ms. Cartright’s arguments are so well organized,
(B) gain weight (C) make narrow clearly expressed, and extensively documented that
(D) use force (E) push aside even the most zealous of her opponents have ----
the --- of her stance.
5. DAWDLE: (A) liberate (B) soothe
(C) brighten (D) solidify (E) rush (A) recognized. .fallacy
(B) minimized. legitimacy
6. GRAPHIC: (A) politely refused (C) garbled. .frankness
(B) gracefully executed (C) poorly delineated (D) acknowledged. .merit
(D) unintentional (E) modest (E) modified. ambiguity

7. SQUANDER: (A) idealize (B) economize 13. Neither Green nor Simmons had particularly
(C) classify (D) move rapidly (E) agree meekly --- ambitions; both seem to have been con-
cerned more with the ---- of their audience
8. REVERE: (A) despise (B) restrain than with the pursuit of truth.
(C) misunderstand (D) conceal deliberately
(A) humanitarian. .virtues
(E) leave unchanged
(B) laudable. .plaudits
9. SACCHARINE: (A) taciturn (B) elated (C) philanthropic. .needs
(C) vitriolic (D) amicable (E) squalid (D) ignoble. .blandishments
(E) materialistic. treasures
10. RECALCITRANT: (A) obedient (B) energetic
(C) temporary (D) perceptive (E) conservative

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

213
 14. There is an effort afoot among dissatisfied scientists DAM:WATER:: (A) ramp:turnpike
to ---- what has clearly been an imbalance in the (B) tunnel:mountain (C) dock :ships
fields chosen for intensive research. (D) roadblock: traffic (E) balloon:air
(A) augment (B) endorse (C) underbid ADJOINING: LOCATION ::
(D) reinstate (E) redress (A) consecutive:time (B) coincidental: error
15. His characteristic dogmatism is occasionally (C) occasional:duration (D) accidental
: purpose
--— by his ability to see merit in the ideas (E) vacant :space
of others. i)to LARCENY :PROPERTY :: (A) arson: building
(A) rationalized (B) intensified (B) libel:slander (C) plagiarism: ideas
(C) substantiated (D) disqualified (D) counterfeit:evidence (E) forgery: pen
(E) redeemed
LABYRINTH:CONFUSION ::
(A) deadlock :arbitration (B) catalyst: delay
Each question below consists of a related pair of words
(C) treadmill:boredom (D) pattern:chaos
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
(E) riddle: solution
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. PARENTHESIS : PARAGRAPH ::
Example: (A) illness:sanity (B) conclusion: experiment
(C) stage:dialogue (D) knowledge: wisdom
YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep (E) digression : argument
(B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(D) face :expression (E) impatience : rebellion PARIAH:SOCIETY:: (A) novice :sport
CORO MO) (B) exile:country (C) leper: colony
(D) tyrant:dictatorship (E) chairman:committee
16. COMPOSER:PERFORMER:: (A) painter: wall
(B) poet:posterity (C) intellectual :lowbrow
(D) playwright:actor (E) philosopher: eternity

17. CAPILLARY:ARTERY:: (A) bridge: gorge

(B) bank:river (C) ebb: flow
(D) twig:branch (E) blood:heart GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
18. TASKMASTER:CREW:: (A) director: cast
(B) soloist:chorus (C) observer : crowd
(D) prisoner:jury (E) truant :class

19. PAINSTAKING:CAREFUL::
(A) restive:destructive (B) generous: polite
(C) punctual:busy (D) engrossed: disturbed
(E) fastidious: neat

214
 ay
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

We were four companions. Unforeseen chance had 27% It can be inferred from the passage that the
joined us together on a large sugar plantation on the acquaintanceship among the four companions
Peruvian coast. We worked at different occupations developed because they
during the day and met during the evening. Not being (A) held similar views on most issues
Englishmen, we did not play cards. Instead our constant (B) were all of the same nationality
discussions led to disputes. These didn’t stop us from (C) worked in the same general location
wanting to see cach other the next night, however, to (D) had trained in the same profession
continue the interrupted debates and support them with (E) had traveled together previously
new arguments. Nor did the rough sentences of the
preceding wrangles indicate a lessening of affection, of 28 The companions seemed to view the jungle as a
which we assured ourselves reciprocally with the
source of
clasping of hands. On Sundays we used to go on
hunting parties. We roamed the fertile glens, stalking, (A) mysterious danger
generally with poor results, the game of the warm (B) impassive peace
region around the coast. (C) lucrative profits
We came to be tireless wanderers and excellent (D) inconsequential diversion
marksmen. What attracted us was the trans-Andean (E) refreshing vitality
region: fertile plateaus extending on the other side of
the range in the direction of the Atlantic toward the
immense land of Brazil. It was as if primitive nature
called us to her breast. The vigor of the fertile, un-
touched jungles promised to rejuvenate our minds, the
same vigor which rejuvenates the strength and thickness
of the trees each year. At times we devised crazy plans. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
As with all things that are given a lot of thought, these
schemes generally materialized. Ultimately nature and
events are largely what our imaginations make them out
to be. At the end of the year, with arranged vacations,
accumulated money, good rifles, and four hammocks,
our caravan descended the Andean slopes leading to
the endless green ocean.

26. The four companions in the passage are discussed

primarily in terms of
(A) the topics they discussed
(B) their mutual activities
(C) their interaction with others
(D) the characteristics of the land in which they
lived
(E) the different personalities of each

219
 The assumption that chlorofluorocarbons would be 30. It can be inferred that before the publication of
innocuous in the environment because they were chemi- the study of Rowland and Molina, it was widely
cally inert might have gone unchallenged for some time, assumed that chlorofluorocarbons in the environ-
but at a conference someone mentioned their curious ment
persistence in the atmosphere to F. Sherwood Rowland, (A) were harmless
a chemist, who began to wonder what ultimately became (B) absorbed ultraviolet rays
of the synthetic compounds. In 1973, Rowland got a (C) reacted with ozone
research grant to study the question, and he and his (D) were rapidly increasing
associate, Mario J. Molina, set out to prove that (E) could not be reproduced in a laboratory
chlorofluorocarbons must be floating unchanged to the
stratosphere, where the strong ultraviolet rays in sun- Bt. According to the hypothesis of Rowland and
light would cause them to release chlorine atoms. These Molina, the chlorofluorocarbons would release
atoms would act as catalysts to destroy ozone, with each chlorine atoms when
chlorine atom capable of setting off a chain reaction in- (A) the ozone broke up the chlorofluorocarbon
volving thousands of ozone molecules. These ozone
molecules
molecules are part of the atmospheric ozone layer that
(B) they were subjected to the lowered air pres-
protects the earth from solar ultraviolet rays. It is
sure of the stratosphere
thought that if this layer is depleted, the results could
(C) they were exposed to strong ultraviolet rays
be increased incidences of skin cancer, damage to plant
in the stratosphere
life, and even global climatic changes.
(D) they floated down from the stratosphere
Even though the depletion of the ozone layer
closer to the earth’s surface
would be lessened if production of the compounds
(E) the amount of ozone in the stratosphere was
ceased immediately, Rowland and Molina concluded
more than twenty per cent
that a twenty to forty per cent reduction of the layer
was a Strong possibility. The most disturbing conclu-
sion was that the full effect of chlorofluorocarbons
already in the atmosphere would not be felt for at least
a decade, since the gases floated up and down until
they gradually ascended to the ozone layer. “There
was no moment of triumph,” Rowland recalled. “I
just came home one night and told my wife, ‘The work
is going very well, but it looks like the end of the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
world.’”

29. The passage primarily concerns the

(A) effects of ozone on plant and animal life
(B) interaction of ultraviolet rays with ozone
(C) potentially dangerous uses for chlorofluoro-
carbons
(D) discovery of the effect of chlorofluorocarbons
on the ozone layer
(E) variety of gases in the atmosphere surround-
ing the earth

216
 4
Present-day Chicanos are the fulfillment of a B2e According to the author, Aztlan today can be
cosmic cycle from ancient Aztldn (what is now the described as which of the following?
southwestern part of the United States), the seed I. A unifying force
Line ground of the great civilizations of Anahuac, to II. An abstract principle
(5) modern Aztlan. We have rediscovered Aztlan in III. An actual location
ourselves. This knowledge provides the dynamic
principle on which to build a deep unity and (A) I only (B) III only (C) Land II only
brotherhood among Chicanos. Ties much more (D) II and III only (E) I, Il, and III
profound than even language, birthplace, or
33. According to the passage, Prescott’s information
(10) culture bind us together—Aztldn represents the
about Aztlan was derived primarily from his own
unifying force of our nonmaterial heritage.
References to Aztlan as the place of origin of (A) interviews with Mexican Indians
the Mexican Indian peoples are negligible in North (B) careful reading of Aztec hieroglyphics
American chronicles. Two of the most easily (C) study of the writings of earlier historians
(15) obtainable texts by historians of the United States (D) field work done in the American Southwest
are Prescott’s History of the Conquest of Mexico (E) studies of Indian life-styles
(1843) and Josephy’s The Indian Heritage of
America (1968). Prescott, in reviewing the 34. The author mentions the works of Prescott and
Josephy chiefly because
various histories compiled for the most part by
(20) priest-scholars, suggested that the American (A) they are among the few sources that mention
peoples were descended from one of the lost Aztlan
tribes of Israel. He wrote: (B) their authors are particularly knowledgeable
about North American Indians
The theory of an Asiatic origin for Aztec
(C) they stress the significance of Aztlan for the
civilizations derives strong confirmation from
Chicano
(25) tradition. Traditions concerning their origin
(D) they are the texts commonly used in North
were found among the tribes, and were
American schools
preserved both orally and in hieroglyphical
(E) they provide the most comprehensive treat-
maps, where the different stages of their
ments of North American history
migration are carefully noted. But who at
(30) this day shall read them? They are admitted 25) The tone of Josephy’s statement about the location
to agree, however, in representing the populous of Aztldn (lines 49-51) can best be described as
North as the prolific hive of the American one of
races. In this quarter were placed their
Aztldn and their Huehuetlapallan, the abodes (A) apologetic regret
of their ancestors. (B) disguised irony
(35) (C) cautious speculation
In a footnote, he says of the maps, ““But as they (D) dramatic revelation
are all within the boundaries of New Spain, indeed, (E) philosophical resignation
south of the Rio Gila, they throw little light, of
course, on the vexed question of the primitive 36. The information in the passage suggests that the
(40) abodes of the Aztecs.” author is most likely
It so happens that the Rio Gila is part of a con- (A) a historian who is concerned about the validity
vergence of rivers and cultures as significant as of his sources
the confluence of the Tigris and Euphrates. Yet (B) a Chicano who is interested in bringing the
Prescott would have us seek a more distant source. Chicanos together
(45) In a comprehensive study of the Indians of the (C) a-literary critic who questions the conclusions
Americas, Josephy recounts the settling of the of historians
Mexica tribe on the site of today’s Mexico City. (D) an educator primarily concerned with the future
He says that the Mexica took the name Aztec of Chicano children
from Aztldn, whence they had come, “somewhere (E) a researcher who is interested in discovering
(50) vagucly to the Northwest and perhaps even new facts about the Mexican Indians
in the present-day United States Southwest.”
Mexican scholars clearly identify Aztec and
Mexican origins with the southwestern United
States. However, aside from the two sources cited,
(55) further reference to Aztlan is difficult to find in
United States histories. It has obviously been of GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
little consequence to anyone except the Chicano.
We still know very little about our ancient origins.

le
4
If we are to understand the impact of Aristotle on 38. It can be inferred that by “transmission” (line 3)
subsequent thought, we must remember some curious the author means
facts connected with the transmission of his writings. (A) inspiration or motivation for action
When Aristotle died in 322 B.C., he left a very exten- (B) analysis or interpretation of theory
sive body of writings that consisted of two completely (C) alteration or modification of material
different groups. The first group of writings included (D) communication or dissemination of information
a large number of dialogues and other popular treatises,
(E) relocation or replacement of evidence
which had been published during his lifetime and which
continued to be widely read through many centuries 39, The author appears most certain of the answer to
until they were finally lost toward the end of antiquity. which of the following questions?
These popular writings of Aristotle were praised for (A) Why were copies of Aristotle’s popular
their literary elegance, and apparently the most famous treatises lost?
among them were composed in Aristotle’s earlier years (B) How is the influence of Plato evident in
and were comparatively close to Plato in their philosoph- Aristotle’s earlier treatises?
ical opinions. The second group of Aristotle’s writings, (C) What was the content of the lecture courses
which is the one that has come down to us, represents
given by Aristotle at his school?
a collection of lecture courses that he delivered in his (D) Why did Aristotle not publish the lectures
school in Athens. These courses served no immediate
he gave at his school?
literary purpose, but instead are highly technical in
(E) What was the content of Aristotle’s popular
character, very detailed in their reasoning and in the
treatises?
information supplied, and fairly systematic in their
overall arrangement, forming a vast encyclopedia of 40. The author’s attitude toward Aristotle’s writings
philosophical and scientific knowledge. These lectures is best described as one of
of Aristotle were not published by him or his immediate (A) unqualified endorsement
successors; they remained for several centuries in the (B) apologetic approval
library of his school, where they were accessible to its (C) analytical objectivity
professors but not to the general public or to the mem- (D) skeptical reserve
bers of other schools of philosophy. (E) scholarly dissatisfaction

37. Which of the following best summarizes the

“curious facts’’ (lines 2-3) that the author
focuses on in the passage?
(A) Few of Aristotle’s contemporaries were and
no modern scholars are familiar with both
groups of his writings.
(B) Aristotle’s academic lectures were no less
elegantly written than were his more famous
dialogues and treatises.
(C) The content of Aristotle’s popular dialogues
is contradicted in the lecture courses he
delivered in his school.
(D) The popularity of Aristotle’s writings ceased
when he died and it was not revived for
many centuries.
(E) The content of Aristotle’s academic lectures
was popularized not by his followers but by
members of other Athenian schools of
philosophy.

et codbat Pp
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

218
 SECTION 5
Time—30 minutes
5
35 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one correct
answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr*; Circumference = 27r C Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to Xx
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to 4 Der B (1) area of AABC = Coes
Zz
<__ is less than || is parallel to CAC? —=AD DC”
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

CE AVL
Jeu 3
1. If x =8 and y =6, then ——— =
xy
4

(A) 3
4. If the figure above is the mirror image of an
(B) 2 accurate clock, what time will it be 15 minutes
after the time shown?
4
(C) = (A) 1:50 (B) 1:40 (C) 1:10

1 (D) 10:40 (E) 10:05

(D)
fi 5. If the sum of 6 consecutive integers is 75, what

ONG iW is the least of these integers?

(A) 8 (B)9 (C) 10 (D) 1! (E) 12

2. Three bananas cost as much as 2 pears. If bananas
cost 18 cents each, what is the cost of each pear?

(A) 12¢ (B) 18¢ (C) 24¢

(D) 27¢ (E) 36¢

6. If, in APOR above, PS = SR, then x =

(A) 50 (B) 80 (C) 90 (D) 100 (E) 110

BEG BEES = See eee #) If a rectangular sheet of paper is repeatedly folded

et a | = in half until the area of the exposed side is = of
the original area exposed, how many times was the
3. In the figure above, what per cent of the entire paper folded?
figure is shaded?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five
(A) 5% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) Six (E) Eight

(D) 40% (E) 665%

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
217
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Cif the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x, n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES |
Column A Column B | Answers
|
Ele 2X 6 2.6 ‘@@QOo

While blindfolded, Jill picked a marble from

Box P and a marble from Box Q.

13. The chance that Jill The chance that Jill

Column A Column B picked a black marble picked a black marble
from Box P from Box Q

8. 25 (24 + 60) 4qa

(48 + hi20) X = {0.98, 0.098, 0.09}
Y = {0.089, 0.89, 0.9}
7: ues (2x)2y) 14. The greatest number in The greatest number in
va, Stites,
10. 27, + 33 Ea oe

xis 100°
y <3

11. 23 y aus =i ne A

ES 2X y
x+y =10

12. The average (arithmetic 5

mean) of x and y
3 x 6 ¥

oa
Note: Figures not drawn toscale.

16. x .

220
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

r| ; xy >0

ie : oe 23 Koy xy
O 1 2 3 4

x and y are points on the number line. Two circles each with radius 4 overlap in such a
way that their respective centers P and Q lie in
17. 12 eT 4 the interior of both circular regions.
: 24. Length of segment PQ 4
On a certain day, 80 per cent of the girls and
75 per cent of the boys were present in a mathe- J F
matics class. Xe yee)

18. The number of girls The number of boys 25. x y

absent absent
& per centiof _y' is -z.
19. Surface area of asphere Area of a circle of z#0
of radius 5 radius 5
26. 100 =
Questions 20-21 refer to the following definition of
where x is any real number.
“ACS aN alee Meee

20. 1

The diameter of the cylinder is d, where d > 1,

g : 27.
and the height is d- 1.

The radius of the a

largest sphere that will
2
fit completely inside
the cylinder

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

221
5Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then indicate the one
correct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
Cpe Points P,Q, R, and S lie on a straight line in the
28. Dividing a number by 4 gives the same result as order given. The ratio of PQ to QR is 4 to 5 and
multiplying by the ratio of OR to RS is3 to 7. If PQ =12,
what is the length of PS ?

(A) (B) 04 (C) 25% ()2 (&)4 (A) 36

(B) 48
(C) 50
29. Of the following, the closest approximation to (D) 62
14,995,844 . (E) It cannot be determined from the information
2,987 given.

(A) 500
(B) 700 Son There are 6 baseball teams in a certain league. If
(C) 5,000 in one month each of the 6 teams played exactly
(D) 7,000 2 games with each of the other teams, how many
(E) 50,000 games were played in the league that month?

30. In a certain class of 30 students 18 are girls. If (A) 12

5 (B) 15
zi of the girls are either 16 years old or younger, (C) 30
what fractional part of the class is girls over 16 ?
(D) 36
(E) 60
Oe 34. A metal ball is rolled down a street. Without
hitting any bumps, it can travel 200 meters.
(B) —
|
However, every 20 meters the ball hits a bump
and each time the remaining distance it can
travel is cut in half. How many bumps will
(C) the ball hit before stopping?

(D) (A) 2
wl—
M|rw (B) 3
(C) 4
(E) rwl— (D) 5
(E) 6

a Scale | Scale Il

Boiling ae
Freezing fe

SIF The table above shows boiling and freezing points

of the same liquid measured under the same con-
ditions on two temperature scales. If the numbers
on each of the scales are equally spaced, 50° on 35. In the figure above, if one circle has radius r and
scale | would correspond to how many degrees on the other has diameter 7, what is the area of the
scale II ? shaded region?

(A) 125 uf 3mr ula

(B) 150 (A) 5 (1B) AO
(C) 200
(D)
(E)
225
250
(De) AE
Sue lee ()
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

222
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 7G027

VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

B its 1D) 1A ae Ld
A 72, 13} 2. Ec 7 1B)
CG 3. A 3. B 3. B
B 4. A 4. E 4. A
A OE 5: D SC
D 6. C 63E 6. B
= (Bi Us 13} te B
E 8. A Bac “ish (6
Cc 92 C ~ 9A <9. C
A 10. A 10. A "10. A
A 11. A Wiley 13) late 1B)
_A Za 12. A ENG,
=e 13. B ISS E “13. A
. B 14. E 14. C “14. A
aE utes I= 15. A ep 13)
AG 16. D 16. B les 1G
510) fe. 1B) Wife ME) ee 153
eas} 18. A 183 ¢ rash 1B)
sre Wh IE 19% B OA
eae) 20. D 205E 5 20mC
rE 21. A PANG, 2 lS
LA 2256 226 *22. A
= 23. C 23. B PY AB,
_A 24. E 24. C *24. B
8 208 29.. D “Phs), |B)
e 1s) 26. B A,
7 |) 27. C , 15)
A 28. E JE
2B 29. D bXe,
jal = 30. A EB
518 31. C a
-E 32.E 18)
cE 33. C mG
"=D 34. A = B
iE 35. C gE
= 6 36. B
LA 37. A
Be; 38. D
aA 39. C
4B 40. C
he
ac
ye
ie
eal=
“Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

223
 The Scoring Process on the worksheet on the opposite page. Then do the
same for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omit-
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: ted answers.) To determine subtotal A, use the for-
mula:
¢ Scanning. Your answer sheet is ‘‘read”’ by a scanning
number incorrect
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number correct — aa ae hy eae = subtotalA
is recorded on acomputer tape.
Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
e Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
each question with the correct response. Each cor- the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- number incorrec
number correct — number incorrect = subtotal B
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
wrong response; for questions with four answer ing any decimals.
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each
wrong response. For example, the SAT-verbal test Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
has 85 questions with five answer choices each, and the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
if a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
resulting raw score is determined as follows: Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
44 right — 2eefeng = 44 —- 8 = 36raw score points the conversion table on the back cover.

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
rounded upward to 37.
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
e Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to
umber incorrec
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number correct — HS = subtotalA
for minor differences in difficulty between different
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
the abilities of the group with whom the student in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
takes the test. As a result of placing ATP scores on provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
the College Board scale, scores earned by students total B, use the formula:
at different times can be compared. For example, an
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotal B
istration indicates the same level of developed ver-
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi-
Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
tion of the test taken at another time.
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
How to Score the Test
worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
mula:
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
to you recently by using the information in this booklet nUIb
eh Corracte: number correct
= subtotal C
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you
begin, check that the form code you marked in item 3
Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
on your answer sheet is the same as the one printed on
subtotal C, keeping any decimals.
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4
Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided tained in E in the conversion table on the back cover.

224
 FORM CODE 7G027
SAT-Verbal Worksheet

A. Section 1: eee ee (ere eer Se art Pere

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 4: noosa iTec ot all CSI ys | Ak ASR Red) a os elena

ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+ B) C

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) ; D

E. Reported SAT-verbal score Pa

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Verbal

SAT-Mathematical Worksheet

A. Section 2: eee 0/4 (ee ee SS) ae

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and eee 3 /4r (eee ee Ps ae ne
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27
(4-choice) soem seein) 8 Hf) eee)
a eae ors
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. Reported SAT-mathematical score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Math

If you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the phone
number below.
If, after following the above scoring directions and checking your work carefully,
your results disagree with the verbal or mathematical score reported on your ATP
Student Report, you may request a hand scoring of your answer sheet by writing or
calling:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
. Telephone: (609) 883-8500
Please indicate whether it is your verbal or mathematical score, or both, that you
want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring work-
sheet on which you did your calculations.

225
 Score Conversion Tabie
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 7G027
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1

oO
-

ai)
33
=4
-5
-6
-7
or below

226
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FORM CODE 8B210 ebG LLON 31
Time—30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence asa whole. —
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example:
Example:
Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself
GOOD : (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
©®eoeoo
(A) tasteless. . respectable (B) extensive. . moderate
(C) sophisticated. .amateur (D) risqué. . crude
1. TOUGH: (A) neatly garbed (8B) quietly stated (E) perfect. . spectacular @®DdoOOd®
(C) greatly improved (D) easily chewed
(E) extremely clean
11. The castles of the feudal lords were primarily forts
2. FEROCITY: (A) mildness (B) inaccuracy and therefore were constructed more for ---- than
for ----.
(C) originality (D) awkwardness (E) uselessness
(A) privacy. .seclusion
Se)ailY; (A) miser (B) dictator (C) amateur (B) protection. .comfort
(D) opponent (E) daredevil (C) convenience. . security
(D) permanence. . preservation
4. GRACIOUS: (A) surly (B) vague (E) retaliation. .defense
(C) elderly (D) anonymous (E) miraculous
12. Those who ---- the use of force by labor unions
5. FIREBRAND: (A) genius (B) impostor should realize that management cannot be depended
(C) sentinel (D) spendthrift (E) peacemaker on to ---- a program of reform voluntarily.

O-tAlt. (A) revive (B):- murmur (A) laud. .initiate (B) ignore. .discard
(C) soothe (D) prohibit disagreement (C) censure. .deprecate (D) promote. . effect
(E) evaluate performance (E) deplore. .inaugurate

7. FLAGRANT: (A) inferior (B) unnoticeable 13. Standing up quietly for her rights, the heroine of
(C) infallible (D) conclusive (E) rancid Dickens‘ novel ---- bigots and ---- innumerable
affronts to her personal dignity.
8. UNDULATING: (A) level (B) profuse (A) denounced.. replaced (B) converted. .caused
(C) fragmentary (D) pompous (E) buoyant (C) trusted..expanded (D) shamed. .weathered
(E) insulted. . inflicted
9. EXTRICATE: (A) ripen (B) deceive
(C) decrease (D) snare (E) invent 14. Asif to ---- the towering buildings that now dominat
our landscape, biographies of modern American
10. PLATITUDE: authors depend on sheer ---- to compel authority.
(A) valid criticism (B) dishonest approach
(A) embody..intelligence (B) dismantle. .ability
(C) novel utterance (D) mammoth undertaking
(C) emulate..size (D) echo. .talent
(E) significant progress
(E) disregard. . strength

15. Simmons could no longer be ----; with unusual ----

he castigated the council members for their persist-
ent pettiness and provincialism.
(A) abusive..outrage (B) forbearing.. venom
(C) diplomatic..tact (D) polite. .courtesy
(E) censorious. . scorm
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of
excerpts from published material. To make the text suitable for testing
purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or
point of view of the original.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

Zod,
Copyright © 1978, 1980 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
f.) we eee Al | noc AG
 ]
Each question below consists of a related pair of words BlNe CONSERVATORY : MUSIC :: (A) anthology : books
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (B) aerie: birds (C) bivouac
:army
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a (D) seminary:religion (E) arbor: grapes
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
22 HOMOGENEOUS: KIND :: (A) contemporary :age .
Example: (B) enigmatic: force (C) precipitous: length
(D) superficial: surface (E) suitable:form
YAWN : BOREDOM :: (A) dream: sleep
(B) anger: madness (C) smile : amusement 23% MAGICIAN : PRESTIDIGITATION ::
(D) face: expression (E) impatience: rebellion (A) masquerader : conspiracy
®S@eqoo® (B) matador: peccadillo
(C) gymnast : omnipotence
(D) clown : pugilism
16. MOTH:CLOTHING :: (A) woodpecker : hole (E) mimic : imitation
(B) bear:trap (C) lamb: wool
(D) puncture:tire (E) termite: house 24, PRATTLE: DISCOURSE :: (A) trinket?treasure
(B) epithet: effigy (C) halo: crown
17.7 FILTER: LIQUID: (A) melts ice (D) shot:volley (E) answer : response
(B) grind: solid (C) sift: powder
(D) inflate:air (E) chisel: rock - DOUBLE-DEALER 7DUPEICED Ys.
(A) profligate : dissipation
18. ANNULMENT : MARRIAGE :: (B) insurgent : oppression
(A) nullification : contract (C) perjurer : negligence
(B) negation : opinion (D) counterfeiter : authenticity
(C) refutation : authority (E) authoritarian : disobedience
(D) invalidation : discovery
(E) denial : permission

19. FRAME: PAINTING :: (A) orchestra

: violin
(B) shore: lake (C) stage: balcony
(D) window:wall (E) lock:cell
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
20. HIJACK :GOODS :: (A) embezzle: bank
(B) slander: reputation (C) trespass: boundary
(D) forge:document (E) kidnap: person

3k
ach passage below is followed by questions based on its content.
]
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
f what is stated or implied in that passage.

(The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent
the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service.)

In past days Captain Bailey had handled many 26. The passage primarily concerns
thousands of pounds of his employers’ money and
of his own; he had attended faithfully, as by law a (A) Captain Bailey's memories of his career at sea
shipmaster is expected to do, to the corflicting (B) the events that contributed to Captain Bailey's
success as a shipmaster
5 ) interests of owners, charterers, and underwriters.
He had never lost a ship or consented to a shady (C) Captain Bailey's actions and attitudes after
retirement
transaction. He had buried his wife, had married
off his daughter to a man of her unlucky choice, (D) the conditions that caused the loss of Captain
Bailey's fortune
and had lost much in the crash of the notorious
0) ) Travanacore and Deccan Banking Corporation, (E) the experiences shared by Captain Bailey and
Fair Maid
whose downfall had shaken the East-like an earth-
quake. And he was sixty-seven years old.
His age sat lightly on him, and of his ruin he rae The expression "his ruin" (line 13) refers to
was not ashamed. He had not been alone in believing Captain Bailey's
5 ) in the stability of the Banking Corporation. Men
whose judgment in matters of finance was as expert (A) physical condition
as his seamanship had commended the prudence of (B) discredited reputation
his investments, and had themselves lost much (C) loss of his fortune
money in the great failure. The only difference (D) isolation from his former friends
0 ) between him and them was that he had lost his all (E) departure from his job as shipmaster
and yet not his all. There remained to him from
his lost fortune a very pretty little barque, Fair 28. It can be inferred that Captain Bailey's employers
Maid, which he had bought to occupy his leisure as believed that, as a shipmaster, he was
a retired sailor.
(A) loyal but unambitious
5) He had formally declared himself tired of the
(B) competent and ethical
sea the year preceding his daughter's marriage.
But after the young couple had gone to settle in (C) talented but undependable
Melbourne, he found that he could not make himself (D) eccentric and unpopular
happy on shore. He was too much of a merchant (E) restless and erratic
0 ) sea-captain for mere yachting to satisfy him. He
wanted the illusion of affairs, and his acquisition 29; Captain Bailey wished to have Fair Maid sunk on
of Fair Maid preserved continuity in his life. He the day of his funeral because he
introduced her to his acquaintances in various
ports as ''my last command.'’ When he grew too (A) knew that no one else could handle the boat
) ) old to be trusted with a ship, he would lay her up (B) resented the boat's seductive power over him
and go ashore and be buried, leaving directions in (C) realized that maintaining the boat would be a
his will to have the barque towed out and scuttled burden for his daughter
on the day of the funeral. His daughter would not (D) did not want the boat to be under any command
begrudge him the satisfaction of knowing that no but his own
(E) feared that the boat would fall into the hands
0) stranger would handle his last command after him.
All this would be said with a jocular twinkle in of his creditors
his eye: the vigorous old man had too much vitality
for the sentimentalism of regret; and yet a little 30. Captain Bailey regarded Fair Maid with
wistfully because he was at home in life, taking
5 ~— genuine pleasure in its feelings and possessions, (A) weary resignation
in the dignity of his reputation, in his love for his (B) casual indifference
daughter, and in his satisfaction with the ship— (C) sentimental regret
the plaything of his lonely leisure. (D) awe-struck fascination
(E) affectionate delight

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

233
 ]
Any survey of medieval town life delights in the 32. According to the passage, which of the following
color of guild organizations: the broiders and glovers, would LEAST likely be found in a guild handbook?
the shipwrights and upholsters, each with its guild hall,
its distinctive livery, and its elaborate set of rules. (A) The fees a master guildsman should charge
But if life in the guilds and at the fairs provides a sharp (B) The bonus a member would receive for record
contrast with the stodgy life on the manor, we must not sales
be misled by surface resemblances into thinking that (C) The maximum number of hours a guildsman
guild life represented a foretaste of modern life in would be expected to work
medieval dress. It is a long distance from guilds to (D) The steps a new shipwright would follow to
modern business firms, and it is well to fix in mind become a master craftsman
some of the differences. (E) The organizations to which a member should
In the first place, the guild was much more than contribute as an upstanding citizen
just an institution for organizing production. Whereas
most of its regulations concerned wages and conditions
33. According to the passage, modern business
of work and specifications of output, they also dwelt at
enterprises, compared to the medieval guilds, are
length on noneconomic matters: on a member's civic
role, on his appropriate dress, and even on his daily (A) more concerned with increasing profits
deportment. Guilds were the regulators not only of (B) influenced more by craftsmen than by
production but of social conduct. tradesmen
Between guilds and modern business firms there is (C) more subordinate to the demands of consumers
a profound gulf. Unlike modern firms, the purpose of (D) less progressive in financial dealings
guilds was not first and foremost to make money. (E) less interested in quantity than quality
Rather, it was to preserve a certain orderly way of
life—a way which envisaged a decent income for the
34. It can be inferred that the guilds were organized as
master craftsmen but which was certainly not intended
to allow any of them to become "big" businessmen. On they were because
the contrary, guilds were specifically designed to ward (A) life on the manors was boring and drab
off any such outcome of an uninhibited struggle among (B) technical improvements were still improbable
their members. The terms of service and wages were (C) they stressed preservation and stability, not
fixed by custom. So, too, were the terms of sale: a progress
guild member who cornered the supply of an item or (D) people in medieval times were interested in
bought wholesale to sell at retail was severely punished. advancing individual liberty
Competition was strictly limited and profits were held (E) social status was determined by income
to prescribed levels. Advertising was forbidden, and
even technical progress in advance of one's fellow
guildsmen was considered disloyal. 35. With which of the following statements concerning
Surely the guilds represent a more "modern" aspect modern business firms would the author be most
of feudal life than the manor, but the whole temper of likely to agree?
guild life was still far removed from the goals and ideals (A) They make rules concerning appropriate
of modern business enterprise. There was no free business practices for employees.
competition and no restless probing for advantage. (B) They permit the free play of price in terms
Existing on the margin of a relatively moneyless society, of service and sales.
the guilds were organizations that sought to take the (C) Their main concern is the stability of profit
risks out of their slender enterprises. As such, they levels.
were as drenched in the medieval atmosphere as the (D) Their aim is to discourage competition among
manors. independent manufacturers.
(E) They are organized in such a way that co-
31. The author is primarily concerned with operating monopolies will develop.

(A) analyzing the origins of the guild system

(B) explaining the relationships between manors,
fairs, and modern business firms
(C) depic..ng the weaknesses of the guilds'
business practices
(D) stressing the historical evolution of guilds to
modern business firms GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(E) discussing some differences between medieval
and modern business practices

234
 ]
All migrating birds must guide their flight by means 36. Which of the following best describes the passage?
some aspect of their environment which is related in
(A) A comprehensive account of each of the theories
reasonably reliable fashion to the direction of the goal.
that has been developed to explain bird navi-
e€ must also take as certain, unless we are to fall back
gation
1 extrascientific theories, that this environmental cue
(B) A description of a theory of bird navigation
ust be perceived by the birds; it must stimulate some
followed by specific supporting evidence
nse organ or receptor cells, for these are the only
(C) An account of the different methods of naviga-
nctional contacts between a bird's nervous system and
tion used by different varieties of birds
s outside environment. Our problem, then, is to find
(D) A statement of the general problem of explain-
e€ environmental cue, and also to find the sensory
ing bird navigation followed by examples of
echanism by which this cue is recognized and chan-
attempted solutions
sled into the central nervous system, where it can
(E) An account of the findings of research in bird
sult in the appropriate actions to move the bird in the
navigation conducted by the author
ght direction.
Some investigators have tried to account for bird
ivigation in terms of the known sensory mechanisms, Which of the following is an assumption made by
lich are the same in all higher vertebrates. For the author?
‘ample, some have suggested that migrants are guided
(A) Most migrating birds navigate in the same
‘visual landmarks. But the overwater routes such as
manner.
ose of the golden plover are devoid of topography for
(B) The sensory mechanism used by birds in
indreds of miles. Others feel that wind direction may
navigation is common to all higher verte-
fer a guiding cue, but winds are notoriously change-
brates.
le. Only if the bird knew the wind direction char-
(C) Migrating birds can fly in the correct direction
teristic of each type of air mass and weather condition
without aid from environmental clues.
ong its route could it guide itself from the arctic to
(D) Birds have more highly developed sense organs
e tropics.
than most other animals.
On the other side, we find a variety of ingenious
(E) Birds have no specific goal in mind when they
eories hung up on formidable objections from the
begin a migration.
int of view of the sensory physiologist. Best known,
rhaps, are a number of theories based on the idea
at birds have the equivalent of a magnetic compass— 38. Which of the following best states the author's
at they can perceive the earth's magnetic field in opinion of the theories discussed in the last two
yme manner and guide their migrations accordingly. paragraphs?
10se who subscribe to these theories must face the
(A) The theories are not themselves complete
ct, however, that no one has been able to show that
explanations of bird navigation, but they are
rds can sense a magnetic field as weak as the earth's,
steps in the right direction.
ly more than we ourselves can.
(B) The theories are essentially extrascientific
A really new theory was advanced recently, namely
and not worthy of the attention of serious
at birds orient themselves by means of mechanical
scientists.
rces arising from the earth's rotation. One of the
(C) The theories are very clever and interesting,
rms such forces may take is an increase in the
but they are probably untrue.
parent weight of a flying bird depending on the direc-
(D) The theories are untrue, since they are con-
m of its flight. This effect is of a type which might
tradicted by the known facts of bird physiology.
» within the range of a bird's sense organs, since it
(E) The theories are probably true, but they do not
volves mechanical acceleration for which the bird
really explain bird navigation.
§ specialized receptors in the inner ear labyrinth.
it the difficulties in the way of the bird's being able
make the necessary quantitative distinctions are
ormous. The variation in weight is only one part in
veral thousand, and it could easily be masked by the
uch larger accelerations resulting from the flight
self, to say nothing of the slightest turbulence of the
r, or even the bird's own breathing and heartbeat.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
us this hypothesis seems scarcely more plausible
an the magnetic theories.

235
 ]
39. The author's objection to the theory that birds 40. The author's objection to the "magnetic" theory of
navigate by means of forces arising from the earth's bird navigation is based on which of the following?
ion i i i n the f ‘ ; :
FOCATLON be, DAG et DeiEA Oe Ste es I. The environmental cue is not related reliably
(A) the environmental cue is weak relative to other to the direction of the goal.
forces that affect the bird in a similar manner Il. There is no known sensory mechanism by _
(B) the receptors through which the bird perceives which the environmental cue can be perceived.
mechanical acceleration are not sufficiently Ill. The weak effects of the earth's magnetic field
sensitive are masked by other forces acting on the bird.
(C) Soman pai feiss: to be affected by (A) Lonly
(B) II only
(D) the effects of the earth's rotation on a bird are (C) Ill only :
not related to direction of flight (D) Land II only
(E) birds are not intelligent enough to determine (E) ILand II onl
their direction relative to the earth's rotation y : |

S -De0rk /

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. |
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST. :

236
 SECILON A?
Time—30 minutes

35 QUESTIONS
| this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
2ct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
he following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 2zr Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180
If ZCDA isa right angle, then
Definitions of symbols:
= is equal to = is less than or equal to / _ AB xCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to (1) anes of SABC = 2
< is less than ll is parallel to rie 2 D
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to 4) BOs ADO +DC
ote: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
hey are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
cale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

SmUMtNersUmOL ti— f, t— 2) tf — S180, ‘then. t=

alee ee yim ts (ct). (Uy b Ck) 2

@~t @es @P MY Hs 6. In 1969 a seaport handled 120,000 tons of cargo,
If it handled 180,000 tons in 1973, the average
2. If N +6 =K, which of the following statements annual increase in tons handled was
must be true?
(A) 12,000
CAyaK = 65= N (B) 15,000
te (C) 18,000
(B) 6+K =N (D) 20,000
(Gjeox N = Kk (E) 45,000
(1D) (oi
(E) NXxK =6 7 zo AM Pp, Gg, r, s, and d t are diff
different numbers éand each:
is equal to one of the numbers 1, 2, 4, 8, and 16
d (:
1
== = = = Y h =
er bi = the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 6, a aE 24 Re Be ey Net A
3
what is its perimeter? (cA)
(By 2
(A)4 (B)8 (C)9 (D)12 (E) 18 (C) 4
(D) 8
(BE) 16

- E
Cc 105°

2 x
- B GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
4, Inthe figure above, if AB is parallel to DE,
then x =

(A) 105 (B) 90 (C) 80 (D)-75 (EB) 65

an7
 2
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Cif the two quantities are equal;
Dif the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered above
the two columns.
2. A symbol] that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x, n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES
Column A Column B Answers ColumnA Column B

pode shige e@doo® 13. Sum of any two negative Sum of any two positiv
numbers numbers

14 Pn 8 0

Column A Column B 15. The greatest integer The greatest integer

x such that. x* < 65 y such that y3 <65
8. e(f +e) (e+f)e

Three years ago, Gina was 2 centimeters taller

than Tina.

9: Tina's height today Gina's height today

259; OL x = 60

10. 50% of x 120

11. The average (arith- x fp : 2

metic mean) of x and y
x + 2y = 10
4 2x = 2y = 9
12. The number of odd The number of prime
integers greater than 2 integers greater than 2 17 x
and less than 10 and less than 10 , ¥

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

238
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

P Q R S
24, The square of 13 The square root of 15
19 1D,
PQ>RS

PR Qs

Is), SY C
e:

2x

A D
ABCD is a square. <a
4x2 9y2 The square with side 12 above is divided into
squares with areas 36 and 25 and two nonover-
lapping regions with areas R and S.
s#0

£ rs PAY
s

ZO; The greatest fraction The product of the least

shown
fraction shown and :
b

xX =Ve=10
39° 100°
a
Pas
|[—
< nile
a b

2x <4
3y <9

oe 7

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

Let n* be defined by the equation
n* =(n—- 1)(n)(n+1) where n
is an integer.

“6H

3e 2
Zag
 2
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then indicate the on
correct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.

28. If ‘ is an even number and . is an odd number,

then k could equal

(A) 24. (By) 20 ((C) 16 "SeD) OE yas

W
on loos
32. All of the squares above are equal in area; the to
area of the four squares in each figure is 36. T
total length of the line segments that form figure
S is how much greater than the total length of those
P that form figure I ?

29. A circular track 400 meters in diameter is shown (A) 0 (B)3 (C)6 (D) 933G2=ee
in the figure above. A runner starts at P, directly
south of the center of the track, and runs counter-
clockwise. At the end of exactly how many meters 1\2 1
of travel will the runner be at the point where he SoieLE (x+ 1) = 25, then a + x2 =
is traveling directly north? :
(A). 23
(A) 25r (B) 100” (C) 4007 (B) 24
(D) 8007 (E) 1,0007 (C) 25
(Dyer 7
(E) 624

30. If x ranges in value from 0.0001 to 0.01 and

34. What is the maximum number of points that can
y ranges in value from 0.001 to 0.1, what is be located within or on the sides of a square of
the maximum value of *? side 2 if the distance between any two of the point:
y is to be greater than or equal to V2 ?
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.1 (C) 1 (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five
CD mlm G1 O00 (Dycsixy (By) lseven

31. Jane owes Bill $20, Bill owes George $30, and 35. An agency rents automobiles at a rate of d dollar
George owes Jane $40.
paraeerieaae All of these debts may per day and x cents per kilometer. If a car was
rented for 24 days and the odometer showed an
addition of 1800 kilometers traveled, then the
(A) Bill and George each pay Jane $10 amount, in dollars, due the agency was
(B) Bill pays George $10 and George pays Jane
$10 (C) 24(d +4
(C) George pays Jane and Bill $10 each (A) 24( dTie (B) ee
(D) George pays Jane $20
(E) Jane pays George $20 (D) 6(3d+ 4x) (E) 6(4d + 3x)

Se bee OnE
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

240
 SECTION 4 4
Time— 30 minutes
45 QUESTIONS

or each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

ach question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
\llowed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
ord or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
) the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
ons require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
onsider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example:
Xample:
Although its publicity has been ----, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
®©®eoodo
(A) tasteless..respectable (8B) extensive. .moderate
(C) sophisticated. .amateur (D) risqué. . crude
POLS WRIBUDE: (A) unveil (B) repay (E) perfect. . spectacular @ oO @®®
(C) collect (D) burden (E) refute

2. GRATIFYING: (A) inexpensive (8B) unsatisfying 16. No longer is it enough to ---- our present resources;
(C) stultifying (D) unappetizing (E) pessimistic somehow we must find ways to replace what we have
lost.
SLIDE OUS = 3(4;) timid (B) genuine
(A) squander (B) conserve (©) poetitile
(C) fragile (D) obvious (E) lovely
(D) eliminate (E) utilize
4. FLOWER: (A) wither (B) envelop
17. Stability in a culture does not mean inertia; even the
(C) soften (D) simplify (E) challenge
most ---- culture is marked by constant ----.
5. BOISTEROUS: (A) courageous (8B) skillful (A) mobile. . inflexibility
(C) tolerant (D) serene (E£E) supernatural (B) materialistic. . uncertainty
(C) progressive. . failure
GeeeOouUGE: (A) holdup (8B) fill in (D) advanced. . variety
(C) eat slowly (D) disengage (E) mount (E) conservative. .change

7. HILARITY: (A) rivalry (B) obscurity 18. Williams rather likes the present tenure policy and
(C) cleverness (D) viciousness would be distressed if it were ----.
(E) downheartedness
(A) emulated (B) tolerated (C) nurtured
8. CORRUGATED: (A) distended (B) refined (D) extolled (E) superseded
(C) uninsulated (D) smooth (E) honest
19. Crawford is unnecessarily ---- in assessing the
9. CIRCUITOUS: (A) involuntary (BR) straightforward views of others; he often describes the conclusions .
(C) lily-livered (D) dog-eared (E) homely of respected scholars as "not worthy of being
refuted.”
0. COALESCE: (A) disrupt (B) disprove
(C) disperse (D) disown (E) dislike (A) contrite (B) verbose (C) disparaging
(D) diligent (E) hesitant
ieeieevily: (A) seriousness (B) indifference
(C) purity (D) uniformity (E) incoherence 20. You have only to study the intricate thoughts of the
great philosophers to see that it is possible to
.2. COGNIZANT: (A) practical (B) ignorant express with ---- the most ---- reflections.
(C) hostile (D) unattractive (E) silent
(A) incisiveness..clear-cut
3. DEARTH: (A) power (8B) liveliness (B) refinement. .pleasant
(C) serious attempt (D) adequate supply (C) unanimity. .disagreeable
(E) persuasive personality (D) emotion. - banal
(E) lucidity. .subtle
4. UNWITTING: (A) intelligent (B) conscious
(C) disappointing (D) overly curious
(E) in plain sight GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
5. ASSUAGE: (A) intensify (B) promote
(C) trust (D) mislead (E) isolate
241
 4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basi
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

(The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily represent
the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service.)

William H. Johnson's best paintings, which ex- PMs It can be inferred that Johnson's early impression.
press great warmth and humanity, represent a istic work was
significant contribution by a black American to
(A) artistically undistinguished
modern art. Johnson has been described, though
(B) stylistically innovative
(5) somewhat inadequately, as an American primitive
(C) emotionally sensitive
painter. Unlike the true primitive, Johnson delib-
(D) generally underrated
erately chose a naive approach; his relationship to
(E) belatedly popular
naive art is similar to the relationship of some
expressionists to African sculpture. He borrows
(10) the forms in order to express new ideas. Dore The author is mainly concerned with Johnson's
Johnson spent his early years in Scandinavia
painting impressionistic landscapes, which are (A) life story (B) artistic style
technically competent but of little artistic interest. (C) reasons for painting (D) religious beliefs
However, it is in his later religious art, using (E) technical training
(15) primitive techniques, that William H. Johnson finds
his true expression. His pictures from the life of 23s According to the passage, Johnson's treatment of
Christ embody the simplicity and sincerity of the feet expressed sorrow in which of the following
Negro spiritual and are extremely moving. The works?
secular pictures of this primitive period, however,
(20) usually fail to achieve any-emotional depth. His (A) "Funeral"
"Two Sisters,'' for example, is a decorative, at- (B) "Nativity"
tractive picture, but the artist does not transcend (C) "Let Little Children Come unto Me"
the primitive medium he has deliberately chosen. (D) "Entombment"
Again, in the "Funeral," the self-conscious prim- (E) Crueifixional™
(25) itivism is obvious and awkward. The facial ex-
pressions are empty; the large gestures are melo- 24. The author describes the gestures depicted in whic
dramatic and somewhat posterlike. of the following paintings as "'posterlike" (line 27)
In his series of works from the life of Christ,
Johnson develops a far greater sensitivity. How (A) "Two Sisters" (B) "Funeral" (C) "Nativi
(30) infinitely delicate is his drawing of the baby Christ (D) "Entombment" (E) "Crucifixion I"
in his "Nativity"; how movingly sincere and pious
the simple gestures of the parents. Here the naive 25 It can be inferred that the author finds the descrip
approach is used to good purpose. A more sophis- tion of Johnson as an American primitive to be son
ticated approach to perspective, anatomy, texture, what inadequate because Johnson has
(35) light and shade, etc., would have detracted from
the pure, simple emotion the artist wants to portray. (A) produced abstract paintings, whereas Americ.
Johnson 's treatment of hands is extremely ex- primitive art is generally representational
pressive. They are usually very large, and some- (B) built his reputation as an impressionistic
times, as in Christ's hands in "Let Little Children painter
(40) Come unto Me," their ecstatic gestures dominate (C) used primitive techniques only in his very
the entire composition. In the ''Entombment," his early works
treatment of feet is equally expressive. The feet (D) produced profane pictures, whereas Americar
here not only produce the gentle rhythm and move- primitive painting is entirely religious
ment of the picture but also express sorrow. John- (E) expressed new ideas by means of the prim-
(45) son uses his particular forms of distortion and itive artistic approach
simplification to express simplicity and sincerity,
and he also achieves a feeling of great intimacy.
Occasionally he produces works of unusual
intensity. His "Crucifixion I" is a picture of great
(50) power. In its heightened expression of pain, par-
ticularly in the contorted pain of Mary, the picture
is reminiscent of Grtinewald's famous Isenheim GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
altar.

242
 4
The people of the United States have the undoubted Biko The author implies that those who believe that the
right to change their form of government and to renounce proposed program involves substantial changes in
=stablished customs or longstanding policies whenever in national policy include
heir wisdom they see fit todo so. Asa believer in
lemocratic government, I readily acknowledge the right (A) only the conservative legislators
»f the people to make in an orderly fashion such changes (B) only the opponents of the program
2S may be approved in their judgment at any time. I con- (C) only the advocates of the program
end, moreover, that when radical and important depar- (D) both the opponents and the advocates of the
ures from established national policies are proposed, program
he people ought to be consulted. (E) both the legislators and the populace
There has been proposed what to my mind is the most
‘radical departure from our policies that has ever been 28 . It can be inferred that the author's concem with
yroposed at any time since our government was estab- the proposed program is that of
ished. I think even the advocates of this program agree
vith me that it is a pronounced departure from all the (A) an irate citizen
olicies we have heretofore obtained. It may be wise, (B) an uninformed commentator
1S they contend; nevertheless, it involves a different (C) a wary opponent
sourse of conduct on the part of the government and of (D) an approving legislator
yur people for the future, and the people are entitled to (E) a bitter and critical historian
ass judgment on the advisability of such a course.
Certainly questions of this kind ought to be submitted 29, Which of the following best describes the author's
o a plebiscite, a vote of the people. We are merely attitude in the last sentence of the passage?
igents of the people, and it will not be contended that we
lave received any authority from the principal, the peo- (A) Enthusiastic optimism
le, to proceed along this line. It is a greater responsi- (B) Sympathetic encouragement
yility than an agent ought to assume without express au- (C) Momentary doubt
hority or approval from his principal. Preliminary to (D) Solemn apprehension
1 discussion of this question, therefore, I want to declare (E) Flippant sarcasm
ny belief that we should/arrange the machinery for taking
1 vote of the people of the United States upon this stupen- 30 . According to the author, the effort of taking a
lous program. Iam aware that the processes by which nation-wide vote on the proposed program would be
hat may be accomplished involve some difficulties; but
hey are not insurmountable, and they are by no means (A) meaningless and unsuccessful
o be compared in their difficulty with the importance of (B) necessary and uncomplicated
yeing right and in harmony with the judgment of the peo- (C) advisable but impossible
yle before we proceed to the final approval. We should (D) arduous but worthwhile
lave the specific endorsement of those whose agents we (E) unwieldy and futile
ire for the fearful responsibility we propose to assume.
f we can effectuate this change now proposed without di-
-ect authority from the people, I cannot think of a ques-
ion of sufficient moment to call for their endorsement.

46. The author's primary purpose is apparently to

(A) persuade citizens to make full use of their GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
voting privileges
(B) suggest needed changes in the manner of
voting for government officials
(C) deter legislators from making unnecessary
changes in national policies
(D) convince the public that a proposed program
is detrimental to the nation
(E) urge that the public be consulted before radical
changes in national policy are made

243
 4
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. This probing and startling analysis challenges us to relationship similar to that expressed in the original pai
---- our ---- attitudes and look at the world ina
totally new way - Example:
(A) defend. .immutable
(B) discard. .preconceived YAWN: BOREDOM :: (A) dream: sleep
(C) shelve. -novel (B) anger: madness (C) smile: amusement
(D) affirm. .conventional (D) face: expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(E) waive. -innovative ©®@Oe@eqoo

32. Many people believe that malnutrition and its ill

effects occur only in developing countries, but the 36. INTERMISSION : PERFORMANCE ::
fact is that our own population is far from ----. (A) break: work (B) backlog: shipping
(C) solo:melody (D) union: strike
(A) healthy (B) informed (C) nutritious (E) skirmish: fighting
(D) susceptible (E) impoverished
37. SNIP: SCISSORS :: (A) chop: ax
33. The admiral's tolerance of ---- among the officers (B) darm: socks (C) flow: river
was ---- by his desire for loyalty from all. (D) pedal: bicycle (E) puff: pipe
(A) flattery. .offset
(B) dissent. . tempered 38. TITTER:LAUGHTER ::. (A) patter Sstumping
(C) compliance. .undermined (B) paddle:canoeing (C) flipper: swimming
(D) defiance. . intensified (D) ladder: height (E) whisper: speech
(E) discipline. . corrupted
39. QUARREL : DEBATE :: (A) marathon: victory
34. Hinckle tried to explain the differences between (B) invasion:compromise (C) brawl :duel
those controversies that demand an absolutist, (D) riot:defeat (E) permit: license
moralistic approach and those that call for a
pragmatic, ---- solution. 40. POACHER:GAME:: (A) sentry : fort
(B) archer: quiver (C) fugitive: clue
(A) conciliatory (B) permanent (C) immoderate (D) swindler:truth (E) pickpocket: wallet
(D) categorical (E) inexpedient
41. UNIQUE: DUPLICATE :: (A) substantial : base
35. Generally ---- the opportunity to join the gentry and (B) resonant:tone (C) abstract: merit
live the aristocratic life, the British scientists of (D) etermal:end (E) poetic: rhythm
this period brought to their laboratories a devotion
to their calling akin in its intensity to ---- asceti- 42. LEAN: EMACIATED :: (A) weary : exhausted
-cism. (B) large:expanded (C) ill: cured
(A) pursuing. . medieval (D) swollen: shrunken (E) narrow: enclosed
(B) exploiting. . orthodox
(C) eschewing. . monastic 43. PREEMINENT : WORTH :: (A) eccentric : popularity
(D) coveting. . intellectual (B) insolvent:funds (C) complacent: efficiency
(E) flaunting. . hypocritical (D) optimistic: wealth (E) noble: character

44. TACITURN: CHATTER ::

(A) clever : think
(B) ascetic : indulge
(C) benevolent : donate
(D) authoritative : administer
(E) inquisitive : inquire

45. FLUSTERED:COMPOSURE ::
(A) lukewarm:enthusiasm (B) jealous: elegance
(C) sluggish: endurance (D) boring: patience
(E) aggressive : activity

Sa TOoLR
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

244
 SECTION 5
Time—30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS

this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
>ct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
he following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Circumference = 2ar Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc ina circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180
If ZCDA isa right angle, then
Definitions of symbols:
= is equal to < is less than or equal to SA DOCCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to 5 Gres ol eAROS 2
< is less than ll is parallel to Ngee 2
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to fea Akeni 2D Si:DG
ote: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
hey are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
cale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

l. If 11 +xy =12+11, thenthe pair x, y could be 3. A woman sailed 1 kilometer east and then 1 kilo-
any of the following EXCEPT meter south. In what direction would she have to
go to return directly to her starting point?
CA er2, I
LBy* 6, 6 (A) North (B) Northeast (C) Northwest
on 5; (D) Southeast (E) Southwest
Sey 2. 6
4. If the measure of one acute angle of a right triangle
is 35°, then the measure of the other acute angle is

a GCAysoyeee CB )s5o 9) (C05. CD) 90% “(E) 145,

a
= 8 5. The formula for the power P of an electric
. appliance is P=EI where E is the number of
Hi 6 volts and I the number of amperes of current,
E 4 What is I when P=1,620 and E = 120?
=a,
o£ (A) it:
pecs ehh MAM (3) pg gt
(C)
?-4
135
2, The graph above shows the monthly rainfall for a (D) 19,440
six-month period in a region of Ghana, What was (E) 194,400
the total rainfall in centimeters for this period?

(A) 28
(B) 29
(C) 38
(D) 39 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(E) 40

245
 x?

E D C B

i In the figure above, if AC =CD, then x =

If the octagon on the left above is turned over and (A) 105
placed in the position indicated by the angle meas- (B) 120
ures in the octagon on the right, what is the meas- (C) 135
ure of the marked angle? (D) 150
(E) 165
(A) p> (B)t (CO). f Divs? Hie

12, If abe =0, bed =1, and bce =O, which of the
The following are the dimensions of five boxes. All following must equal 0 ?
have equal volume EXCEPT the one that is
(A) a (B)b° (C)¢ (D) ater
(A) 8 by 3 by 5
(B) 2 by 12 by 5
(C) 2 by 3 by 20 13. Container R is full of water and has twice the
(D) 4 by 6 by 5 volume of container S, which is empty. If t
(E) 3 by 4 by 14
of the water in R is poured into S, what frac-

Which of the following conditions will make x -— y tion of the volume of S is occupied by water?
a positive number?
(A)1 (B)5 (c)- (DE
(A) O<y
(B) y<x (E) None of the above
(CG) x0
(D) x<y
(E) x =y

What is half of the perimeter of a square of

area 36 ?

(A)3 (B)6 (C)12 (D)18 (E) 24

10. If x(3y) =(5)(3), then xy -1 =

(A)4 (B)5 (C)14 (D)15 (E) 39 14, In the figure above, the sums of the numbers in
each row, column, and main diagonal are tne
same, What is the value of X ?

(Aye?
(B) 8
(Grr
(D) 14
(E) 16

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

246
 24
Questions 19-20 refer to the following definition.

a
a/;|e = - for all nonzero real numbers b

15. In the figure above, a rectangular piece of paper

with length 24 is cut into strips of equal width as
indicated by the dotted lines. If the area of two
of these strips is 25 per cent of the area of the
rectangle, how wide is each strip?
Aj Be (se DF 5
(niese(B) 6 (C) 4 (D3 (EZ

20. 8/16/ 8 is equal to which of the following?

16. If 3x+2y+xy+6=0 and x+2 =5, then 3+y=

ueetomerD) —3 (C)0O (D)3 (E) 15

(A) TEE (B) 2/16/ 2 (C) [2]
Lz: P, Q, R, S,-and T are five distinct lines in a plane.
fae RR, S LT, and Rll S, thenvall.of the
following are true EXCEPT
(D) 16/8/16 (E) [afi
(A) PIR (By PAS (Gy Palen
(D) SL Q (E) QLT
21 Three line segments have lengths 2x - 1, x +2,
18. What is the difference between the greatest and and 3x — 4, respectively. If the average length
least of all three-digit positive integers, each of of the line segments is 9, how much longer is the
whose digits is a different nonzero multiple of 3 ? longest segment than the shortest?

(A) 324 (B) 540 (C) 567 (D) 594 (E) 604 (A) 3
eS
(C) 5
ee
oye

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

247
 5
22 The lines with equations x =1, x =6, y= -1l, B
y =3 forma rectangle, What is the area of this aa
rectangle?

(A) 10
(B)alZ
(G)ets
(D) 18
(E) 20

25. In the square above, is the inte ti f -

23. A class of 35 students took a test that was scored Tene oe and he ee with cece medi. ae
from 0 to 100. Exactly 20 students received scores ratio of the lencth of OB tathel h f 9
greater than or equal to 70. If A is the class eth of Q6 to the lee
average score, which of the following is the (A) V2 -1
LOWEST possible value of A ? ie
B eS

(A) 20 (B) 40 (C)50 (D) 70 (E) 80 a

(C) v2
24, A store which formerly sold peppers at 3 pounds
for $1.00 changed the price to 2 pounds for $0.75. (D) V2+1
What is the per cent increase in the price per
pound? (E) 2V2

2
(A) 25% (B) 20% (C) 163%
1 2
(D) 125% (E) 63%

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

248
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 8B210

VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

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5 15)
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ile FUUDMBOAOPrFOMOVTVAAMmMroOBmMoarwo
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5 18]
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*|ndicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

249
 The Scoring Process on the worksheet on the opposite page. Then do the
same for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omit-
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: ted answers.) To determine subtotal A, use the for-
mula:
e Scanning. Your answer sheet is ‘‘read” by a scanning
number incorrect
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number correct — 4 = subtotalA
is recorded on acomputer tape.
Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
each question with the correct response. Each cor-
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- num irrec
number correct — Cine ne = subtotal B
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
wrong response; for questions with four answer ing any decimals.
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each
wrong response. For example, the SAT-verbal test Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
has 85 questions with five answer choices each, and the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
if a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
resulting raw score is determined as follows: Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
44 right — FeetOng = 44 — 8 = 36raw score points the conversion table on the back cover.

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num-
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
rounded upward to 37.
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
® Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 2 and
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account worksheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the for-
for minor differences in difficulty between different mula:
editions of the test. This process, known as equat-
number incorrect
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number correct — = subtotalA
!
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by
the abilities of the group with whom the student Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
takes the test. As a result of placing ATP scores on number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
the College Board scale, scores earned by students questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
at different times can be compared. For example, an in section 2 and record the numbers in the spaces
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- total B, use the formula:
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi-
number incorrect
tion of the test taken at another time. number correct — 4 = subtotal B

Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the

number of incorrect answers for section 5 and record
How to Score the Test
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the formula:
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotal C
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you
begin, check that the form code you marked in item 3
Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
on your answer sheet is the same as the one printed on
subtotal C, keeping any decimals.
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4
Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided tained in E in the conversion table on the back cover.

250
 SAT-Verbal Worksheet

A. Section1: oe
ee,nth (Ol aelaaieerieee
as
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 4: eae
eee Me Aw ee re eee a
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+ B) C

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. Reported SAT-verbal score ; eee |

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Verbal

SAT-Mathematical Worksheet

A. Section 2:
Questions 8 through 27
(4-choice) n/a ee ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 2:
Questions 1 through 7 and Mees
te 3) RC ae: et 2 Ee ae
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5: a el ts Se PEG Ge
ae an at
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(TotalA+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) E

F. Reported SAT-mathematical score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Math

If you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the phone
number below.
lf, after following the above scoring directions and checking your work carefully,
your results disagree with the verbal or mathematical score reported on your ATP
Student Report, you may request a hand scoring of your answer sheet by writing or
calling:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 883-8500
Please indicate whether it is your verbal or mathematical score, or both, that you
want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of the scoring work-
sheet in this booklet on which you did your calculations.

od
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 8B210
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score | sat-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score | sat-Verbal | SAT-Math

9
8
7
6
5
4

3
2
1
0
ae
ieg
ag
4
-5
-6
7)
-8
or below

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1. 5. YOUR NAME _
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FORM CODE 8G071
SECTION 1

Time—30 minutes

40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, 7. DISPASSIONATE: (A) isolated
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the (B) prejudiced (C) unfortunate
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning (D) irreconcilable (E) disgraceful
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- :
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, 8. SUPERCILIOUS: (A) fatal (B) acute
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. (C) extreme (D) servile (E) precocious
Example: 9. DESECRATE: (A) refurbish (B) construct
(C) moisten (D) rejoice (E) hallow
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red
(D) hot ~ (E) ugly BOO ® 10. TANTAMOUNT:
(A) unclear in meaning
1. SOOTHE: (A) praise (B) impractical in design
(B) promise (C) provoke (C) undesirable in effect
(D) join together (E) conceal quickly (D) immeasurable in size
(E) unlike in significance
2. DECELERATION: (A) increased speed
(B) regular occurrence (C) additional cost
(D) different approach (E) greater productivity

3. LINGER: (A) inflate

(B) detest (C) attempt to win
(D) thrust in deeper (E) hasten to depart

4. INCONSPICUOUS: (A) blameworthy

(B) glaring
(D) beneficial
(C) possible
(E) desperate
G0 ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
5. FRACTURE: (A) knit (B) disencumber
(C) entangle (D) render inactive (E) pull taut

6. ACCESSORY:
(A) logical argument
(B) persistent questioner
(C) inconclusive evidence
(D) primary component
(E) distinguished predecessor

257,
Copyright © 1979 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
- Princeton, N.J, 08541
l Each question below consists of a related pair of words
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
Choose the word or set of words that best fits the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example:
Example: YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
Although its publicity has been ---, the film itself (B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced, (D) face : expression (E) impatience :rebellion
and altogether ----. COMO MOR)

(A) tasteless. .respectable (B) extensive. .moderate

16. PADDLE:CANOE:: (A) runner: sled
(C) sophisticated. amateur (D) risqué. .crude
(B) pedal:bicycle (C) hangar: airplane
(E) perfect. spectacular @Do®ao® (D) track:train (E) dock: boat

11. Lee knows the jungle and loves it, having the 17. TELESCOPE: ASATRONOMER::
explorer’s ---- to ---- discomfort for the sake of (A) binoculars: oculist
knowledge gained through the senses. (B) stethoscope: chemist
(C) periscope: aviator
(A) zeal. lessen (D) horoscope: astrologer
(B) resolve. .display
(E) microscope: biologist
(C) willingness. .endure
(D) disinclination. .discover 18. SHOPLIFTER:MERCHANT::
(E) fervor. overestimate (A) burglar:homeowner (B) pickpocket: thief
(C) defendant:juror (D) colleague:employer
12. Some scientists argue against ---- any microbe,
(E) browser: customer
suggesting that even the smallpox virus, which is
now nearly ----, might be preserved in a kind of 19. MIST:DAMPNESS:: (A) ice:slipperiness
microbial museum. (B) hail:heat (C) snow: winter
(A) conserving. .isolated (D) climate:humidity (E) wind: thaw
(B) exterminating. .extinct
20. BRAGGART:BOAST::
(C) eradicating. immunized
(D) fertilizing. virulent (A) censor: obscenity (B) heckler: compliment
(E) infecting. .controlled (C) liar:falsehood (D) flatterer: grievance
(E) conspirator: confession
13. People who insist that some particular injustice is
21. ANESTHETIC:PAIN:: (A) sandpaper: friction
not their responsibility sooner or later become un-
(B) alloy:durability (C) fan: ventilation
able to ---- any injustice.
(D) preservative:decay (E) spark:electricity
(A) condone (B) excuse (C) permit
(D) ignore (E) resent 22. SUSPICIOUS: DOUBT:: (A) happy: laughter
(B) apprehensive: fear (C) guilty: conscience
14. The Modernists were people of the strongest ---- (D) angry:violence (E) imaginative: fiction
propensities: they gloried in their refusal to ----
bourgeois sentiments and relationships. 23. REVERIE: DAYDREAMER:: (A) plot: conspirator
(B) audience:actor (C) sleep: insomniac
(A) altruistic. .wink at
(B) radical. .cast off (D) crime:detective (E) perfection: bungler
(C) puritanical. .preside over 24. MAVERICK:HERD:: (A) boss: workers
(D) antisocial. .traffic in (B) dissenter:group (C) duck: flock
(E) conservative. .abide by (D) hero:army (E) expert: mass
15. The establishment of a center here has been held 25. EPICURE:FASTIDIOUS::
up by insistent fears that local ---- would be under- (A) ascetic:abstemious (B) stoic: volatile
mined by state control. (C) spartan:extravagant (D) gourmet: greedy
(A) autonomy (B) officials (C) buildings (E) truant: insubordinate
(D) recreation (E) funds

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

258
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

There was a young girl of nineteen in a small town pak It can be inferred that Lord Rayleigh arranged for
of north Germany who had a strong bent for research; the publication of Agnes Pockels’ work primarily
but when her brother went to the University of Géttingen, because he wanted to
she, according to the customs of her country, remained (A) reveal the crudity of her equipment
at home. Agnes Pockels had observed the streaming of (B) challenge the accuracy of her results
currents when salts were put into solution and, by at- (C) show others the major influences on his own
taching a float to a balance, had found that salts in- work
creased the pull of the surface of the fluid. In other (D) assume responsibility for having inspired her
words, she had discovered surface tension. This was in first efforts
1881. She did not know whether anyone else had ever (E) inform other scientists of the significance of
observed this phenomenon. Through her brother, she : her discoveries
brought her work to the attention of the professor of
physics at Géttingen. He failed to grasp its significance. 28. It can be inferred that a scientist today would
For ten years she went on studying the properties of most probably describe the device Agnes Pockels
solutions. Then, when the renowned English physicist, used to measure surface tension as
Lord Rayleigh, began to publish on this subject, Agnes (A) overly complex
wrote to him about her work. Lord Rayleigh sent a (B) clever but inaccurate
translation of her letter to the English journal Nature (C) still very effective
asking that it be published. He wrote that the first part (D) of historical value only.
of her letter covered nearly the same ground as his own (E) difficult to reconstruct
recent work and that with very “homely appliances” she
had arrived at valuable results respecting the behavior
of contaminated water surfaces. (Interestingly, this
same “homely device” is still used to measure surface
tension.) For a few years Lord Rayleigh arranged for
the publication of all Agnes Pockels’ work in English
until, in 1898, her discoveries were accepted for publica-
tion in her own language.

26. Which of the following best describes the content

of the passage?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) An explanation of the means by which surface
tension may be observed and measured
(B) An analysis of the events which led to the
discovery of surface tension
(C) An evaluation of the significance of Agnes
Pockels’ discovery of surface tension
(D) An account of Agnes Pockels’ discovery of
surface tension and how her work became
known to the world
(E) An account of Agnes Pockels’ efforts to attend
a university and of her reaction to the fame
her discovery brought

in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. The ideas con-
The reading passages
the
“tained in them do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service. To make
the original.
text suitable for testing purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of

wae
 Environments spoiled by smogs, pesticides, or strip 30. The author’s attitude toward humanity’s continued
mining are not destroyed thereby but rather become dif- willingness to disturb ecosystems appears to be
ferent by evolving in new ecological directions deter- one of
mined by these stresses. We may not like the aesthetic (A) alarm (B) resignation (C) bewilderment
and economic consequences of these alterations, but we (D) encouragement (E) disappointment
can be sure that the disturbed environments will eventu-
ally achieve some new kind of biological equilibrium, as Sie The author implies that the only scientifically de-
has repeatedly occurred in the past after great ecological fensible objection to causing environmental changes
disasters. Stable communities are in fact exceptional in is that such changes
nature, and they are all but impossible wherever there is
(A) can deprive man of important natural resources
human activity. Every form of agriculture, even the
(B) will increase the variety of biological species
most primitive, involves the creation of new ecosystems.
(C) can encourage man to take greater ecological
Since most of the temperate world has been transformed
risks
by agriculture, it now constitutes a man-made ecosystem.
(D) run counter to man’s instinct for stability
The conservationist’s attitude toward changes in
(E) can have unpredictable consequences
nature finds its scientific justification in the fact that it
is difficult, if not impossible, to predict the long-range
oz: ' The primary point of the passage is that
consequences of human interventions into natural eco-
systems. Experience has shown indeed that the conse- (A) most of the ecosystems in the world have
quences can be disastrous. Furthermore, the progressive been transformed by agriculture
destruction of wilderness tends to decrease biological (B) there are many differences between “natural”
diversity, and this in turn renders ecological systems less and “man-made” ecosystems
stable and less likely to remain suitable for a variety of (C) man’s nature makes most arguments to leave
species, including man. But these scientific reasons are natural environments alone futile
not likely to have much weight for many human beings. (D) human beings are able to survive even great
Man is adventurous and he has been endlessly taking ecological disasters
ecological risks. His motto may well be “catastrophe (E) science has advanced man’s love of adventure
rather than boredom” and, irrespective of dangers, he and his willingness to take risks
is likely to continue upsetting his ecosystems.

29. The most important point that the author wishes

to make regarding smogs, pesticides, or strip mining
is that they GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) produce new ecosystems
(B) spoil our natural environment
(C) threaten the stability of nature
(D) have an adverse effect upon agriculture
(E) are aesthetically offensive and economically
harmful

260
 i
Dylan Thomas’ outward life as a poet was not, 34. It can be assumed from the passage that the nar-
at first, in spite of his (very few) champions, rator’s review of Dylan Thomas’ second book was
easy. Following the publication of his second (A) favorable (B) explosive (C) charming
Line book, a furious attack on him developed in letters (D) funny (E) angry
(5) addressed to one of the two principal London
newspapers. It was my privilege and pride to give 35. According to the passage, Dylan Thomas scorned
the attackers more than as good as they gave. The those who lacked
air still seems to reverberate with the wooden
(A) courage (B) humility (C) compassion
sound of numskulls being soundly hit.
(D) artistic sensitivity (E) a sense of humor
(10) Although the occasion was supremely important
to me, I cannot remember the exact date of our
first meeting—knowing only that it was before the
attack. I had reviewed his second book and had
written to him; so when I arrived in London, he
(15) came to see me. It seems now, though I am so
much his senior, that he and his great poetry were
always a part of my life.
I have never known anyone more capable of
endearing himself to others. And this was not only
(20) the result of his great charm, warmth, and touch-
ing funniness. I have never known anyone with a
more holy and childlike innocence of mind. He
loved humanity, and had contempt only for the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
cruel, the unkind (these are not always identical),
(25) and the mean. He was most generous in his enthu-
siasms and most loyal in his friendships. Alas,
that some of the people who crowded round him
were unworthy of that noble nature. But these I
will leave to their shame. For he is dead. And
there is nothing to be done.

33. “The wooden sound of numskulls being soundly

hit” (lines 8-9) refers to the
(A) narrator’s attack on those who criticized
Dylan Thomas’ work
(B) critics’ reviews of Dylan Thomas’ second book
(C) important occasion of the narrator’s first
meeting with Dylan Thomas
(D) holy and childlike innocence of Dylan Thomas
(E) unworthiness of some of the people who sur-
rounded Dylan Thomas

261
 Like the redwood which thinks the marigold 36. According to the author, a major flaw in the
may dry up its roots, Americans in the 1920's national origins theory was that
sealed their borders to most foreigners. It is (A) it halted the flow of immigration
ironic that the exception was the English, against (B) it threatened property rights
whose laws we once rebelled. We were proud of (C) it created a homogeneous society
our vast country, but prouder still of ourselves. (D) certain groups were not included
The oppressed became oppressors. (E) talented people were forced to emigrate
It is a commentary on our institutions that it
took 144 years to impose racial restrictions on a au. The passage is primarily concerned with
(10) broad scale. Only in the last 44 years have at- (A) explaining the background of a new law
tempts been made to remove them. Now that (B) deploring a historical phenomenon
we are mending the ‘“‘melting pot,” we can admit (C) formulating a theory about popular prejudice
that the pot had a serious crack which drained (D) expressing doubts about the strength of
America of talent and dissipated a source of liberal attitudes
(15) energy. The defect in the melting pot has been (E) suggesting a revision of immigration laws
the restrictive immigration laws. These had their
origins in sparks of xenophobia set in the 1850’s 38. The author states that advocates of the quota
and rekindled by xenophobic lobbies of the system defended it on the grounds that it
twenties. The laws were based on the national
(A) protected the fundamental principles on which
(20) origins theory: each country was assigned a quota
the United States was founded
based on a ratio between that country’s immigrants
(B) fostered friendly ties with Western Europe
already here and the total population of the United
(C) prevented overpopulation and unemployment
States. Supporters of the system justified it by
(D) deterred the immigration of persons who were
noting that it mirrored our society: to each coun-
likely to become public charges
(25) try an allowance according to its prior contribution
(E) reflected the existing ethnic composition of
of people. But the mirror was flawed: Asians and
American society
Afro-Americans were not reflected at all.
During the presidential campaign of 1856, Lin- 39; According to the passage, the administration of
coln said, “If the Know-Nothings obtain control, immigrant charities was turned over to private
(30) the Constitution will read: ‘All men are created agencies because
equal except Negroes, foreigners, and Catholics.’
I shall prefer emigrating to some country where (A) the burden of administration was too great for
one state agency
they make no pretense of loving liberty.”
Not only was there an unrealistic quota system,
(B) xenophobic lobbies wished to curtail assistance
to immigrants
(35) but also problems concerning aid to needy immi-
grants. After the Civil War, certain states began (C) public charities were considered suspect by
to aid them on a small scale. To this end, the
the populace
New York Board of Emigration collected a $1.50- (D) the flow of immigration had been checked by
per-passenger fee from shipowners transporting the quota system
(40) aliens. In lieu of that fee, the owner of the vessel (E) the state administered levy was judged uncon-
could pay a bond on only those immigrants deemed stitutional
“likely to become public charges.” But any such 40. The tone of Lincoln’s remarks in lines 29-31 is
fee did, in fact, threaten the shipowners’ property best described as
rights. Thus, the Supreme Court ruled that since
(45) Congress had exclusive power to regulate foreign (A) ironic (B) patronizing (C) tentative
commerce, the states must desist. The adminis- (D) defensive (E) sentimental
tration of immigrant charities fell, therefore, into
private hands with predictable results.

ey AP P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

262
 SECTION 2

Time—30 minutes

35 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
rect answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr’; Circumference = 2mr Triangle: The sum of the measures
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. C in degrees of the angles of
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. a triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: g If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to = is less than or equal to 2 AByALCD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to i metcanct ABC pe 5
<_ is less than ll is parallel to D5 (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the prob-
lems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. If 2x + 9 =-12, then x= 4. If water flowed into a 70-liter tank and filled half
3 71 the tank in 10 minutes, what was the rate of flow
(A) -21 (B) = (C) “a (D) 3 (E) : in liters per minute?

(A) soe) (B79 (CC) 35: *(D). 705 6(B)e210

Padi.
a ie 5. If the perimeter of square A is double that of
square B, then the area of A is how many times
470 | 3 the area of B?
eon ;
(Ajea2 AB) aloe (C) 2 (D) 3" (hE) 4
(B) — + 70 + a
1 1 1

473 , 473 , 473 6. What is the average of a and - ?

lees.) * 5 7
473 , 473 1

eS (B) 4
6
: (©) 35

Dc 12
a v4 > 35

7
m Os
36
7. How many numbers between | and 99 are divisible
3. In the figure above, & || m. Which of the following by both 2 and 7 ?
pairs of angles must be equal? a pe
(A)7 (B) 8 (€C) 14 (D) 20 (E) 49
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
foye3 and 5
(D) 4 and 6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(E) 5 and 7
263
2
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
Cif the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x, n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES
Column A Column B Answers Column A Column B
FED ol Dh ie AS, @e@Ddoo®
a#0

3 : a + (-a) aie
mee

k #0

2
13 = (+)
Column A Column B k

63,000,000 14. ab? a2b4

8. 3,000 20,000

¥ Q
S)

Y b Z a Z
nye EXfinspacer Bestit D Perimeter
erimeter of of APQR =
= Perimeter
Peri of APSR

equal measure in AXYZ LS: PQ + QR PS + SR

10. 2 4.5 X is a positive number.

16. x plus an increase of 0.5x

50% of x

Three lines intersect in a point. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

sortiz Vatez,

264
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;

B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

17. Area of a circle with Area of a square with 22. The number of men The number of women
radius 1 side 1 in an all-man division in an all-woman division
if there are 15 patrols if there are 12 patrols
oe in the division, 14 in the division, 10
1 skedallion - 4.6 skippers squads in each patrol, squads in each patrol,
2 phantoms = 9.3 skippers and 4 men in each and 7 women in each
d
18. Value of one skedallion Value of one phantom ete Ae

x? + & +15=0
23.
& x
2 y? +
yi 2y(y
+ x) (x
+ y)
yy

19. ane Ox 15 aD —1

24. zl x
x

x and y are integers with 8 <x $12 and

Qi yi 10!
25. Maximum possible 9
value of x - y

A B E D E
} - = +——__—+

A point Q to be placed on the grid above has Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
x-coordinate of 6.

20. Distance OP Distance OQ AN NG)

26. AD BE

On a certain test, the average score for the juniors

f b was 87 and the average score for the sophomores
was 81.
Cc

d 27. The average score for 84

the total group
e

In the figure above, all segments intersect at right

angles and the segments have lengths a, b, c, d, e,
and f as shown.

21. atbtctd et+f GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

265
2 Then indicate the one
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork.
correct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.

28. In a certain language, a “word” is defined as any

5-letter combination in which the position of at
least one letter in the “word” is in the same
position in which it is found in the English alpha-
bet. For example ‘“‘dbaec” is a word, because of
the placement of the letter b, but “bdaac’”’ is not.
Which of the following is a word in this language?

(A) cddcd (B) cddde (C) ccdec 32. In the figure above, the circle at 1 with diameter
(D) dcdce (E) dddcd PR is rolled one revolution along a plane
‘ P
until it reaches II as shown. The ratio “x =
e

A
A+ ®F ©2 3 ®1
a
D
; 33. The operation * is defined on ordered
pairs of numbers in the following way:
(a, b) * (c, d) = (ac + bd, ad + bc). If
m1 B (a, b) * (x, y) = (a, b), then (x, y) =
29. In the three squares above, what is the ratio (A) (0, 0)
length of segment CD , (B) (0, 1)
length of segment AB ~ (C) (1,0)
(D) (1, 1)
wi o22 of (E) (1, -1)

OeBare |
34 For all x and y where x # 2y,
aye Xirsd yn Ly Cae
ANY 5% x- 2y _

30; A machine began knitting a row of 100 stitches by (A) 2(x- 2y)
making 3 knit stitches and 2 purl stitches and (B) 2y -x
repeated the same pattern thereafter. What is (Cy
the order in which it knitted the 77th, 78th, 79th, (D) 0
and 80th stitches in the row? (E) -2
(A) 2 knit, ¥ purl 35.
If a person were to cut seven circles, each
(B) 1 knit, 2 purl, 1 knit 4 centimeters in diameter, from a rectangular
(C) 3 knit, 1 purl
piece of cardboard 16 centimeters long, at
(D) 2 purl, 2 knit
least how many centimeters wide would the
(E) 1 purl, 2 knit, 1 purl piece of cardboard have to be?
AGie If a car travels x kilometers in t hours and (A) 2+ 23
20 minutes, what is its average speed in
kilometers per hour?
(B) 4+ V3
(C) 4+ 273
(D) 6
A 320 Op © x(t+ 3) (E) 8
1
tt =
o—- oo
Cie

Ss T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

266
 SECTION 4 4
Time—30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Examoie:
Example: Although its publicity has been —--, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly DeODO _and altogether ----.
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. COUPLE: (A) contain (B) separate
(C) cover (D) increase (E) win (E) perfect. spectacular @®DoOoOoO

2. OBSOLETE: (A) indefinite (B) fertile 16. More Americans might remain unmarried if society
(C) updated (D) prestigious (E) lenient afforded other means of obtaining regular ----, or
3. FLOURISH: (A) ingrain (B) wither se ae
a ere nienly
ighly.
(C) impede (D) turn pale (E) make peace (A) meals. malnutrition
(B) companionship. .solitude
4. GRISLY: (A) rugged (B) nervous (C) lodging. .poverty
(C) modern (D) attractive (E) haughty (D) conversation. .nonsense
; (E) advice. .irresponsibility
5. DEPENDENT: (A) self-reliant (B) intangible
(C) conclusive (D) resilient (E) offensive 17. The very young child has no concept of death: it
is too ---- an idea, too ---- his or her experience.
6. MELLOW: (A) angular (B) dry (A) abstract..removed from
(C) clean (D) harsh (E) ragged (B) frightening. .thrilling for
7. RESERVE: (A) confusion (B) admiration Ma Nacens irrelevant for
(C) gratitude (D) immaturity (E) boldness (E) familiar..new to
8. IMPEL: (A) scatter (B). cease 18. Before burdening us with more of his ---- conclu-
(C) taper off (D) turn away (E) hold back sions, he would do well to read a few scholarly
9. PREMATURE: (A) explicit (B) perfidious books on the subject and brush up on the funda-
- (C) belated (D) punctual (E) induced mentals of logic.
F : (A) valid (B) shrewd (C) edifying
y: (4) refraction; (B) cohesion (D) superficial (E) impervious
Reege
(C) vacillation (D) constriction (E) enervation i : '
19. An organism’s energies are not called forth in some
11. CONTRITE: (A) inarticulate (B) disoriented ---- fashion; rather, there are certain situations to
(C) unrepentant (D) infinite (E) impatient which it invariably reacts.

12. MALADROIT: (A) healthful (B) zestful (A) reasonable (B) hypothetical
(C) adept (D) invigorating (E) discreet (C) indiscriminate (D) interacting
(E) orderly
13. IRASCIBLE: (A) imperturbable
20. The book contains too much ---- material, such as
(B) curious (C) unconventional
extensive data about people ---- to events and
(D) unorganized (E) ordinary
unintegrated anecdotes about minor characters.
14. BANE: (A) unanswerable question (A) erroneous. .momentous
(B) benign influence (C) useless information (B) extraneous. tangential
(D) compilation (E) singularity (C) vital. contemporary
D) irrelevant. .critical
15. ERUDITION: (A) tolerance (B) crudeness = incontrovertible. unattached
(C) loyalty (D) cowardice (E) ignorance
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

267
basi

Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

The debilitating effects of poverty are not only the pi, According to the passage, the primary role of the
result of lack of money but are also the result of power- major community in assisting neighborhoods of
lessness, of being subject to one’s social situation instead poverty should be to
of being able to affect it through action, that is, through (A) lend experienced advice to help in the forma-
behavior that flows from an individual’s decisions and tion of democratic self-help organizations
plans. In other words, when social scientists have re- (B) solicit public support for the business ventures
ported on the psychological consequences of poverty, of the poor
it seems reasonable to believe that they have described (C) provide assistance to help the poor advance
the psychological consequences of powerlessness. The socially
solution to poverty most frequently suggested is to help (D) suggest legislation to further the interests of
the poor secure more money without otherwise changing the poor ‘
present power relationships. This appears to implement (E) implement projects that improve conditions
the idea of equality while avoiding any necessary threat in the neighborhood
to established centers of power. But, since the conse-
quences of poverty are related to powerlessness, not to Zee The author’s main purpose is apparently to
the absolute supply of money available to the poor, and
(A) criticize present methods of helping the poor
since the amount of power purchasable with a given (B) discuss various types of power and how they
supvly of money decreases as a society acquires a larger
can be used by the poor
supply of goods and services, the solution of raising the
(C) describe the various causes of poverty
incomes of the poor is likely, unless accompanied by
(D) propose a way in which the poor can be more
other measures, to be ineffective in an affluent society.
effectively helped
In order to reduce poverty-related psychological and
(E) describe the psychological and social effects
social problems in the United States, the major com-
of power
munity will have to change its relationship to neighbor-
hoods of poverty in such fashion that families in the PEE The author implies that what might appear to be a
neighborhoods have a greater stake in the broader society lack of ambition in the poor can be ascribed to
and can more successfully participate in the decision- their feeling that
making process of the surrounding community. Social
action to help the poor should have the following char- (A) other people succeed without working
acteristics: the poor should see themselves as the source (B) they have no friends who will support them
of the action; the action should affect in major ways the (C) they are unable to buy the things they want
preconceptions of institutions and persons defining the (D) there is no one they can trust
poor; the action should demand much in effort or skill; (E) they lack control over the circumstances of
the action should be successful; and the successful self- their lives
originated important action should increase the feeling 24. Which of the following statements best illustrates
of potential worth and individual power of individuals the author’s ideas about money?
who are poor.
The only initial resource which a community should (A) Self-reliance is a blessing money cannot buy.
provide to neighborhoods of poverty should be on a (B) Love of money is the root of all evil.
temporary basis and should consist of organizers who (C) A penny saved is a penny earned.
will enable the neighborhoods quickly to create power- (D) No chains enslave so well as money.
ful, independent, democratic organizations of the poor. (E) Wine maketh merry but money answereth all
Through such organizations, the poor will then negotiate things.
with outsiders for resources and opportunities without
25, When speaking of power in this passage, the author
having to submit to concurrent control from outside.
is referring primarily to power as
(A) force of will
(B) authority in one’s own affairs
(C) control over others
(D) energy necessary to succeed
(E) strength to resist pressure

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

268
 Sal
The quality of science that, above all else, 26. The author is primarily concerned with
enriches the spirits of those who pursue science (A) evaluating various schemes for classifying
is the manner in which it enables us to glimpse stars
Line the orderliness of nature. One of the most thrilling
(B) pointing out the worldwide nature of interest
(5) experiences for the students of chemistry is their
in astronomy
exposure to the periodic table of elements and its
(C) explaining a basic distinction between chemis-
revelation of the systematic structure of all matter.
try and astronomy
A comparable disclosure in astronomy grew,
(D) describing a number of projects carried on
in large measure, out of an ambitious, laborious,
at Harvard
(10) and seemingly pedantic project at Harvard. Since
(E) presenting an instance of the orderly nature
the stars are too remote to be seen except as dif-
of the universe
fuse points of light, our knowledge of them de-
pends heavily on their spectra. The Italian 203 The author compares stars with trees (lines 13-21)
astronomer Father Angelo Secchi had already primarily in order to suggest that
(15) found that he could sort stars into certain spectral
categories, somewhat as the first walker in a forest (A) discoveries in one field may lead to new
might pick out oaks, maples, birches, and pines. findings in another
Even though the stellar types shade more into one (B) there are more classes of stars than of trees
another than tree species, Father Secchi found (C) stars fall into categories that can be identified
that they clearly fit into a succession of pigeon- (D) Father Secchi was primarily interested in the
(20) study of botany
holes. In 1890, Harvard published a preliminary
(E) stars, like trees, can be classified only by
catalog of 10,351 stars, classified according to
experts
their spectra, and by 1949 the entries in the catalog
had grown to 359,082. 28. According to the passage, which of the following
(25) Astronomers at Harvard soon guessed that star statements about a star classed as O is FALSE?
types reflected temperature differences, but it re- (A) It is likely to be brighter than a star classed
mained for the Indian, Meghnad Saha, to decipher
as B.
the specific messages contained in the spectra of (B) It is likely to be larger than a star classed
each group. The stars classed by the letter O dis-
as B.
(30) played the spectral lines of highly ionized helium,
(C) It is likely to be found on the main sequence.
silicon, and nitrogen, and thus were the hottest. (D) Its spectrum is likely to include lines of
The types were listed in order of decreasing ionized helium, silicon, and nitrogen.
temperature, as follows: (E) It is likely to have a longer life cycle than a
star classed as B.
O, B, A, F,G, K,M
Then, Russell at Princeton and Hertzsprung 29; Which of the following titles best summarizes the
(35)
in Europe came upon another striking pat- content of the passage?
tern in star classification. If the inherent (A) Measuring the Temperature of the Stars
brightness, or luminosity, of the stars is plotted on (B) How to Determine the Luminosity of Stars
a graph against their types, arranged in order of (C) The Evolution of Stars from Birth to Death
(40) temperature, some ninety per cent of all stars lie (D) The Genesis of the Hertzsprung-Russell
along a narrow band that has come to be called the Diagram
main sequence. The hotter a star is, if it lies on (E) A New Interpretation of the Hertzsprung-
the main sequence, the brighter it is, the larger it Russell Diagram
is, and the shorter is its lifetime. The graph that
30, The author’s tone suggests that his attitude toward
(45) displays this relationship between luminosity and
the orderliness of nature is one of
star type is known as the Hertzsprung-Russell
diagram. When it was formulated on the eve of the (A) enthusiastic appreciation
First World War, Russell viewed the main sequence (B) casual interest
as a highway along which stars travel in their long (C) aloof disinterest
(50) journey from birth to death. A different interpre- (D) anxious concern
tation is now placed on the main sequence, but the (E) skeptical suspicion
Hertzsprung-Russell diagram has come to be for
astronomers a testimony of order in the universe.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

269
fae
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. The scientist, motivated by an abhorrence of relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
excessively ---- explanations, usually makes a ----
Example:
attempt to reduce all phenomena to only a few
known principles. YAWN:BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(A) convoluted. determined (B) anger:madness (C) smile :amusement
(B) simple. .futile (D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
COMO Ome)
(C) succinct. detailed
(D) popularized. .casual
36. SIPPING:GULPING:: (A) whispering: shouting
(E) axiomatic. .redundant
(B) inhaling:exhaling (C) dieting: eating
32. The statesmen and politicians who found his genius (D) inspecting:examining (E) smiling: sighing
---- to their designs ---- courted his favor through 37. OVERDUE:DEADLINE::
four stormy decades of history. (A) incorrect:error (B) surrounded: boundary
(A) vital. inadvertently (C) accurate:measurement (D) excessive: limit
(B) detrimental. .languidly (E) luxurious: extravagance
(C) superfluous. .incessantly
(D) inadequate. .resolutely 38. GILL:SALMON:: (A) egg:chicken
(E) indispensable. .sedulously (B) plume: parrot (C) lung: sparrow
(D) feather: ostrich (E) talon: eagle
33. This ---- law will make little difference to the ----
drug companies whose standards are already high. 39. PROPOSAL:MARRIAGE:: (A) employment: work
(B) rule:law (C) candidate: nomination
(A) economical. .prosperous (D) truce:war (E) bid: contract
(B) stringent. scrupulous
(C) invariable. mediocre 40. BIBLIOGRAPHY :PUBLICATIONS ::
(D) protective. fraudulent (A) textbook:subject (B) museum: paintings
(E) mitigating. conscientious (C) store:goods (D) directory: names
(E) legislature : legislation
34. Only when one approaches ---- of availability of
personnel, funds, or facilities does one have to 41. UNETHICAL:MORALITY::
consider seriously ---- among research programs. (A) remedial:education (B) absurd: reason
(A) an understanding. .disharmony (C) exorbitant: price (D) incorrigible: freedom
(B) an overabundance. .inadequacies (E) abstract:art
(C) a discovery. .developments 42. MIRED:MUD:: (A) soaked:skin
(D) a disparity. .rivalries (B) snared:trap (C) nourished: food
(E) a ceiling. .priorities (D) rescued:danger (E) extinguished:
fire
35. Modern writers, ---- to drape reality with pretty 43. TACITURN:SILENCE:: (A) implicated: concern
phrases, show us everything, putrid and pure, with (B) suave:humility (C) compassionate: blame
a grim ----, (D) pompous:courtesy (E) querulous: complaint
(A) aspiring. .austerity
(B) hesitating. .discretion 44. MEANING:NUANCE:: (A) subtlety: nicety
(C) disdaining. objectivity (B) difference: distinction (C) form:style
(D) purporting. .omniscience (D) color:shade (E) brilliance:
hue
(E) endeavoring. .naturalism 45. DOTARD:SAGE:: (A) proxy: voter
(B) dolt:prodigy (C) student: tutor
(D) sorcerer:genius (E) mentor: counselor

See Oe
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

270
 SECTION 5

Time—30 minutes

25 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one cor-
rect answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr?; Ciccumference = 2ar Triangle: The sum of the measures
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. in degrees of the angles of
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. a triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to = is less than or equal to _ AB X CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to (1) area of AABC = 2
<_ is less than Il is parallel to DB @) Ac? = "ap? Dc?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the prob-
lems. They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not
drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. Inacertain dart game, Don scored 25 per cent ay

Bee inte than’ Craigealf Craig scored 100 5. If the freshman class has 28 students of whom 5
points, how many points did Don score? are women and the sophomore class has 24 students
(A) 225 (B) 125 (C) 100 (D) 80 (E) 75 of whom $ are women, which of the following
gives the total number of women in both classes?
2. For which of the following blocks could the top

@ (5) +(3) (7°)

face viewed from the top look like the front face
viewed from the front?

1 2

|
(A) <“ (B) —“¢ On (B) 2(5 + = )(24 + 28)

(D)$028)
+5(24)
(B)$(28)
+$024)
3. A polygon is NOT a triangle if it has exactly

(A) three sides A roll of plastic 250 meters long costs $26. If it
(B) three angles
takes. a length of 2 meters of this plastic to
(C) one angle which measures 135°
(D) two perpendicular sides cover a certain machine, how much will it cost
(E) two parallel sides
to buy the exact length of plastic needed to
1 Me te \ cover 600 such machines?
Mees
*2's -3)-
(A) $62
a aif it 3 (B) $65
AI @®2 ©2, O2% © 5 (C) $156
(D) $1,550
(E) $1.560
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

476 |
 Be If x = 2a and y= a5 , what is y in
terms of x ?

(A)

th The clock above is accurate, but the minute, hour,

(B)
and second hands are drawn the same length. If
the time shown is between 2:45 and 3:00, which (C)
of the three lettered hands could be the second
hand?
(D)
(A) A only
(B) B only
(C) C only (E)
(D) Either A or C
(E) Either B or C
A certain bleach is to be diluted with water so

that the ratio of bleach to water will be 7 If 3

If the two middle digits of 4,579 are interchanged
the resulting number is bottles of bleach, each containing 0.5 liters, are

(A) 18 less than 4,579 to be used, how many liters of water should be
(B) 180 less than 4,579
used to obtain this same ratio?
(C) equal to 4,579
(D) 18 more than 4,579 (A) 4
(E) 180 more than 4,579 (B) 6
(C)/12
(D) 18
(E) 24

Ol|—

If the area of the rectangle above is 1, then x =

m2 @2 ©F m2 OS
If three lines intersect in a point to form the
angles shown above, then x + y =
14. If a and b are integers and a- b is a multiple
a a Sa
(A) 5 180 (B) 180 5) (C) 180 7 of 5, which of the following must also be a
multiple of 5 ?
(D),180— a. (BE) a-7180
(Aya, (B) +08) (Cy ea 420 (D) b- a (E) ab

10. If x? = 1, then x? is equal to

(A= (B) = leontveee (Cyelionks
(Dy aE) tient GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

whe,
ly If x > O, which of the following is greatest?

(a) +x
(B) Vx
(C) x
(D) x?

(E) It cannot be determined from the information

given.

Given the table above, x is equal to which of the

following?

(A) r
(B) s
(C) w
(D) y
(E) z

16. In the figure above, if an edge of each small cube

has length 2, what is the volume of the entire 20. If a and b are positive integers such that . 1;
rectangular solid? which of the following is (are) true? :
(A) 192 (B) 144 (C) 72 (D) 52 (E) 48 Is) <a <b

M7. If 5 per cent of 5O per cent of x is 75, then x = nm <t

(A) 250 (B) 300 (C) 750
(D) 2,500 (E) 3,000 hee b
lear
(A) None (B) I only (C) III only
18. In a class of 39 students, the number b of boys
(D) Iand II only (E) I, Il, and III
is twice the number g of girls. Which of the
following accurately describes this situation?
PaNe A teacher gave a test to 30 students and the
. average score was x. Scores on the test ranged
b - g = 39 from 0 to 90, inclusive. If the average score for
the first 10 papers graded was 60, what is the
b- 2g= es difference between the greatest and least possible
btg= values of x ?
2b-g=0 (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50 (E) 60
se 39

b + g = 39
oe 0

b + 2g = 39
() ie 2g =0 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

PR
od
x? + xy? + 2y? =k
y? + yx? + 2x3 =m

ie. In the equations above, x is an odd integer and y

is an even integer. Which of the following expres-
sions must be even? 24. If arc AB is 5 of the circumference of a certain

I. m? + mk? + 2k? circle and if the length of chord AB is x, what is

Il. 3k? + 3m? + 3k? the diameter of the circle?
Ill. k? + km? + 2m3
(A) I only (a) 2x
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only (B) 4x
(E) I and III only
(C) V2x
23: A triangle with one side 5 and another side 10 has
perimeter P. What are the least and greatest (D) 5x
possible integer values of P ?

(A) 21 and 29 (E) 22x

(B) 21 and 24
(C) 16 and 39
(D) 16 and 24 pay On a 300-kilometer trip, a motorcyclist drove
(E) 6 and 29 the first 100 kilometers at 40 kilometers per
hour, the second 100 kilometers at 50 kilometers
per hour, and the third 100 kilometers at
60 kilometers per hour. For what fraction of
the time spent driving the 300 kilometers did
the cyclist drive at 40 kilometers per hour?

At @®; ©F OF OL

oO ae
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

274
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 8G071

VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

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Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice_)
 The Scoring Process on the worksheet on the opposite page. Then do the
same for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omit-
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: ted answers.) To determine subtotal A, use the for-
mula:
¢ Scanning. Your answer sheet is “‘read” by ascanning
number incorrect
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number correct — A = subtotalA
is recorded on acomputer tape.
Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
each question with the correct response. Each cor-
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotal B
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
wrong response; for questions with four answer
ing any decimals.
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each
wrong response. For example, the SAT-verbal test Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
has 85 questions with five answer choices each, and the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
if a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
resulting raw score is determined as follows:
Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
44 right — sewrong = 44 — 8 = 36 raw score points
the conversion table on the back cover.

Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-

ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num-
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
rounded upward to 37.
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
e Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 2 and
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account worksheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the for-
for minor differences in difficulty between different mula:
editions of the test. This process, known as equat-
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score number incorrect
number correct — eS = subtotalA
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by
the abilities of the group with whom the student Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
takes the test. As a result of placing ATP scores on number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
the College Board scale, scores earned by students questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
at different times can be compared. For example, an in section 2 and record the numbers in the spaces
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- total B, use the formula:
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi-
mber incorrec
tion of the test taken at another time. number correct — maceer fot = subtotal B

Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the

number of incorrect answers for section 5 and record
How to Score the Test
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the formula:
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect _ subtotal
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you
number correct — C
begin, check that the form code you marked in item 3
Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
on your answer sheet is the same as the one printed on
subtotal C, keeping any decimals.
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers, round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4
Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided tained in Ein the conversion table on the back cover.

276
 SAT-Verbal Worksheet FORM CODE 8G071
A. Section 1: Ee re tame eye OP me. Ae
A A Se
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 4: ba
ote LEP Telest wa one oa BP a
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) G

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. Reported SAT-verbal score seen |

(See the conversion table on the back cover.) --
SAT-Verbal

SAT-Mathematical Worksheet

‘A. Section 2:
Questions 8 through 27
(4-choice) omen
tue ng ag Ee lhe mint llr lle ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A

B. Section 2:
Questions 1 through 7 and Pee tra gee
ee)
te Aden YS se PTS
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5: ee / Age ee eet rere

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) =

F. Reported SAT-mathematical score auras

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Math

If you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the phone
number below.
lf, after following the above scoring directions and checking your work carefully,
your results disagree with the verbal or mathematical score reported on your ATP
Student Report, you may request a hand scoring of your answer sheet by writing or
calling:

College Board ATP

Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 883-8500
. Please indicate whether it is your verbal or mathematical score, or both, that you
want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of this scoring work-
sheet on which you did your calculations.

277
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 8G071
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math R aw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

or below

278
 COLLEGE BOARD— SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST | Use a No. 2 pencil only for completing
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 COLLEGE BOARD — SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST |Use 2 No. 2 pencil only for completing thisanswersheet. Be
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FOR ETS
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FORM CODE 0B023
SECTION 1

Time—30 minutes

40 QUESTIONS

For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best.
Example: Although its publicity has been —-, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether ----.
O@eoQOo®D
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated. .amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. EXPEL: (A) await (B) adapt (C) loiter
(E) perfect. spectacular ator
(D) disturb (E) admit

2. LENIENCY: (A) disdain (B) hostility 11. Although most people have one explanation or
(C) severity (D) persistence (E) stinginess another for what happened, the event remains ----.
3. COMBUSTIBLE: (A) unlikely to break (A) old-fashioned (B) unpopular
(B) unable to burn (C) reluctant to play (C) frightening (D) accidental
(D) expected to fail (E) forced to open (E) mysterious

4. DISAPPROVAL: (A) concern (B) security 12. The basic purpose of advertising is the announce-
(C) cooperation (D) endorsement ment of products, prices, new equipment, and
(E) tastelessness special sales and is, therefore, entirely ---- since
such announcements ---- needed useful information.
5. SQUANDER: (A) agree (B) cleanse
(C) conserve (D) treat fairly (A) useless. duplicate
(E) speak eloquently (B) benevolent. .confirm
(C) suspect. insinuate
6. MULTIFARIOUS: (A) absorbent (B) clumsy (D) defensible. eliminate
(C) limited in variety (D) causing dissension (E) reasonable. .provide
(E) unintentionally harmful
13. Good health is ---- with a high degree of resistance
7. PHILISTINE: (A) cultured (B) courageous to bacterial attack; any influence that lowers one’s
(C) arrogant (D) generous (E) witty general health also ---- one’s resistance to such an
attack,
8. BALEFUL: (A) vain (B) solid
(C) benign (D) common (E) incessant (A) associated. activates
(B) balanced. .secures
9. DISINTERMENT: (A) penetration (C) allied. increases
(B) burial (C) denunciation (D) synonymous. .reduces
(D) perseverance (E) construction (E) confused. .diminishes

10. GLUT: (A) dearth (B) change

(C) disparity (D) refinement (E) correction

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of

excerpts from published material. To make the text suitable for testing
purposes, we may in some cases have altered the style, contents, or
point of view of the original.

283
Copyright © 1980 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.
Princeton, N.J. 08541
 14. MacDougall theorizes that in human history order 19; YARDSTICK: LENGTH:: (A) meter: capacity
has tended to arise from chaos and, similarly, that (B) plateau:elevation (C) meridian: longitude
social forces will do almost anything to ---- (D) hourglass:time (E) humidifier: moisture
anarchy.
20. SMILE: HAPPINESS :: (A) pallor: health
(A) prolong (B) avert (C) instill (B) laughter:pun (C) grimace: condolence
(D) imitate (E) instigate (D) frown:puzzlement (E) shout: contentment
15. Few politicians are so ---- asinine as to adopt PAW, LOW:CATTLE:: (A) wool: sheep
a stance that is morally ---- and then boast of it. (B) fodder: horses (C) cluck: chickens
(A) furtively. .precarious (D) nest:robins (E) litter: puppies
(B) scrupulously. laudable
(C) egregiously. untenable 22: ABEYANCE: ACTIVITY :: (A) petition: request
(D) surreptitiously. .tolerable (B) intermission:concert (C) exploit: adventure
(E) transparently. indisputable (D) rebuttal: denial (E) rehearsal: drama-

232 - SANCTUARY : PROTECTION ::

Each question below consists of a related pair of words
(A) quagmire: difficulty
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
(B) labyrinth: circularity
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
(C) treadmill: variety
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
(D) apotheosis: ennui
Example: (E) conundrum: lucidity
YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep 24. PALEONTOLOGY : FOSSILS ::
(B) anger: madness (C) smile :amusement (A) philology: words (B) philosophy: adages
(D) face : expression (E) impatience : rebellion (C) oceanography:ships (D) meteorology: stars
®O®O@eOQo (E) ontology: plants

16. OLDTIMER:NEWCOMER:: (A) host: party 23; LIMPID: MUDDINESS:: (A) eerie: fear
(B) imitator:copy (C) veteran: inductee (B) ambiguous: doubt (C) iridescent: color
(D) fable:legend (E) ancestor: relative (D) chaotic: confusion (E) harmonious: discord
Ve MARGIN:PAGE:: (A) envelope: letter
(B) crust:bread (C) grass: field
(D) tide:ocean (E) country:nation

18. DISMISS: EMPLOYEE:: (A) evict:tenant ~

(B) harass:enemy (C) dislike: food
(D) load: baggage (E) betray: friend
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

284
 l
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.
(The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily
represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service.)

Compared with modern cities, cities of the Italian 27% According to the passage, exile from an Italian
Renaissance were not large. In traveling from one side Renaissance city was an especially painful experi-
of the city to another, citizens could not avoid the main ence for members of the ruling class because they
thoroughfares. They became accustomed to the same
(A) were poorly informed about customs in ter-
faces. In one way or another, citizens were always on
ritories beyond their own city
show.
(B) derived their identity from interaction with
Citizens measured one another accordingly. There
others in their community
was no separation between the private and public lives
(C) would have difficulty adjusting to an alien
of the citizens. The world of the individual was
intellectual atmosphere
permeated with the values of the society. Parish and
(D) had been taught to regard other princes as
guild, family and neighborhood were the vessels from
enemies
which the citizen drew identity and security.
(E) would find it difficult to survive financially
We know too little about the values of the very in a new place
poor. The record, such as it is, indicates that the poor
constantly drifted in a quest for lower rents and higher 28. It can be inferred that the history of the poor in
wages. But, for the members of the tenacious and the cities of the Italian Renaissance
prosperous middle and upper classes, attachment to
neighborhood and family was profound. (A) has been carefully suppressed
Hence, we can begin to understand why exile from (B) is a record of discontent and rebellion
one’s native city was an agonizing experience. The
(C) deals mostly with their economic impact
effects of such estrangement were most acutely felt by (D) is chiefly an account of their migrations
members of the ruling class. They were the best known (E) has been inadequately recorded
citizens in the city. They were born and bred to politics 9. The passage is probably intended to
until the triumph of one-man rule transformed such
grooming into a preparation for service to a prince. (A) argue an unpopular point of view
Not surprisingly, the Aristotelian stress on people as (B) present a nostalgic view of the period
political animals found an approving audience in the (C) provide information about the cities
intelligentsia. Humanity seemed to have no reality out- (D) suggest the weaknesses of the small city
side a civil context. (E) refute legends about the golden age of the
Italian Renaissance
26. Which of the following best summarizes the
author’s main point?
(A) Individual and social identity were one during
the Italian Renaissance.
(B) Social class distinctions were at their height
during the Italian Renaissance.
(C) Politicians of the Italian Renaissance were
bred for their roles in the public sphere. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) The notion of man as a political animal was
an Aristotelian ideal.
(E) Life in the cities of the Italian Renaissance
was crowded and hectic.

285
] 30. According to the passage, which of the following
One great group of seed-producing plants, the
angiosperms (commonly known as flowering plants), is can be inferred about squash?
both the largest group in number of genera, species, (A) The edible parts of squash are called
and individuals, and the most recent to develop on inflorescences.
earth. The angiosperms differ from gymnospermous (B) The edible parts of squash are derived
seed plants in that their ovules and seeds are enclosed from the reproductive organs of the plant.
within the pistil, or megasporophyll, which later becomes (C) Like sweet potatoes, the edible parts of
a seed-bearing fruit. The structure of the pistil in squash are roots.
certain primitive angiosperms suggests that the enclo- (D) Squash is considered a woody angiosperm.
sure of the seeds may have come about by the (E) Squash is often inaccurately classified as
evolutionary folding of a leaflike, ovule-bearing a fruit.
megasporophyll.
The angiosperms exceed all other vascular plants 31. It can be inferred that which of the following was
in range of diversity of plant body and habitat, and in discussed in the paragraphs immediately preceding
their utility to mankind. Both woody and herbaceous the passage? ‘
angiosperms exist, and among the latter especially
(A) Plants that do not produce seeds
there is considerable diversity of vegetative structure,
(B) The differences between woody and herbaceous
exemplified by bulbous hyacinths, onions, lilies,
angiosperms
rhizomatous Jris, and many grasses. Diversity of
(C) Blights that attack angiosperms
habitat is demonstrated by such aquatics as water
(D) Types of flowers produced by angiosperms
lilies, Elodea, and duckweed, or Lemna; such xero-
(E) Gymnospermous seed plants
phytic genera as cacti; and such epiphytes as “Spanish
moss,” orchids, and bromeliads. In mature cacti, the 32. The author mentions Elodea, cacti, and orchids
leaves are either much reduced or absent. primarily in order to emphasize the
Woody angiosperms are used extensively as lumber
and fuel and as the source of commercial cork, while
(A) differences between woody and herbaceous
herbaceous types are important sources of food, angiosperms
beverages, textiles, drugs, and vegetable oils. Both
(B) uses to which mankind has put angiosperms
the vegetative and reproductive portions of angiosperms (C) diversity of structure among angiosperms
(D) diversity of habitat among angiosperms
are used as foods. Sweet potatoes, carrots, turnips,
(E) similarity between xerophytic genera and
beets, and parsnips are examples of fleshy roots that
epiphytes
are important foods; white or “Irish” potatoes and
asparagus are stems. Various greens, such as spinach, 33. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to
turnip greens, chard, and lettuce are leaves. One eats
the immense terminal buds of cabbages and head (A) give practical advice about growing
lettuce, whereas it is the fleshy petioles of rhubarb angiosperms
and celery that are eaten. Examples of the reproduc- (B) detail new discoveries in horticulture
tive organs of angiosperms—flowers, fruits, and seeds— (C) discuss the diversity of a particular group
used as food are even more abundant. In both of plants
cauliflower and broccoli, we eat groups of flowers, (D) question existing theories in botanical
called inflorescences. National cultures and economies evolution
are based on the use for food of such fruits as the grains (E) trace evolutionary developments of gymno-
of corn, rice, wheat, and rye. Indeed, fruits used as sperms
food are too numerous to list completely, but among
them we may cite citrus fruits, squashes and melons,
tomatoes, grapes, bananas, apples, pears, and various
berries. The preceding list contains examples, such
as tomatoes and squash, of fruits that laymen frequently
classify as “vegetables.”

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

286
 People, once they have provided for their immediate Both conventional and continuous steelmaking
needs, seem always to turn toward some form of begin with the melting of pig iron and scrap steel,
creative expression. Yet strong feelings of guilt can together with fluxing, alloying, and purifying agents,
often be found lurking somewhere in the background, in a furnace. It is in the shaping and solidifying of the
based on many cultures’ glorification of “practical” molten metal that continuous casting offers its great
work. We need to know, I think, that our need to economies in plant investment and in operation and
create is as valid as our need to maintain ourselves. energy costs. In the conventional procedure, the full
If poetry (or any art form) has a function in society, ladle is moved to a casting pit where, supported by an
it may be to serve as visible, audible evidence that overhead crane, it is tapped into a series of individual
creativity is a universal and timeless characteristic. ingot molds standing upright on rail cars. When the
surface of the ingots has solidified so that they can
34. We can infer that the author would consider stand alone, the molds are stripped off. The ingots
sculpture evidence of are then transferred to another furnace, the soaking
(A) humanity’s practical need for useful objects pit, where they are heated to uniform temperature
(B) a means of escape from universal guilt feelings for the rolling to follow.
(C) humanity’s need to create The hot ingots are first sent through the primary,
(D) realistic documentation of the differences in or breakdown, mill: a series of massive rollers that
various cultures squeeze the ingots down to the cross section appropriate
(E) an entertaining diversion for those who must to the type of product that is being made in that
work at difficult tasks particular plant. The products of the primary mill
are classified according to size and shape as slabs,
3D. According to the passage, people often feel guilty blooms, and billets. Slabs have an oblong cross section;
when they if they are destined to be rolled into plate or sheet,
this cross section is usually larger than three by twelve
(A) create works of art
inches. Blooms have a square cross section greater than
(B) toil without enjoying it
five inches; billets are blooms that have been reduced
(C) criticize those who are creative
(D) fail to help others meet their needs to a smaller cross section.
(E) overemphasize the importance of practical Continuous-casting methods are not all the same,
tasks but they are enough alike to fit a generalized de-
scription. The ladle of molten steel is transported
by a vehicle or crane to a platform above the casting
machine, where it is teemed, or discharged, into a
rectangular trough called a tundish. From the vessel
the steel flows into a casting “strand,” the heart of
which is a bottomless vertical mold that receives and
confines the molten metal, partially shaping it into the
desired cross section as it passes through. Just below
the upper surface of the metal a thin skin forms on the
surfaces adjacent to the inner walls of the mold; this
skin thickens as the metal is pulled through the mold.
The steel continues to solidify as the billet is
withdrawn, and to hasten cooling it is usually passed
through a secondary cooling chamber where it is
sprayed with water from an array of nozzles. The
solid billet, still at red heat, is pulled by rollers that
are synchronized with the level of liquid metal in the
mold in order to ensure that the billet is formed in a
steady manner. Beyond the withdrawal mechanism the
continuous billet is cut into convenient lengths for
subsequent reduction. In short, continuous casting
eliminates the pouring, molding, transporting, and
reheating of ingots.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

287
l
36, The style of the passage can best be described as 39% According to the passage, in what way are the
soaking pit and the secondary cooling chamber
(A) argumentative alike?
(B) explanatory
(C) contemplative (A) In both, water is sprayed on the steel.
(D) rhetorical (B) In both, the steel is cooled and solidified.
(E) scholarly (C) In both, steel is heated before passing through
a series of rollers.
SFi It can be inferred that steel is shaped into the (D) Both receive steel in a partially solidified form.
final product at which stage of the casting (E) Both are stages in the conventional method of
process? casting steel.
(A) When it has cooled in the molds in the
The passage is concerned primarily with
casting pits
(B) When it has been formed into slabs, blooms, (A) presenting a complete picture of the ways in
and billets which steel is produced and molded into
(C) When the billets have been cut and cooled usable forms
completely (B) proving that there is little difference between
(D) Before it leaves the secondary cooling the conventional and the continuous methods
chamber of steel production
(E) After the stages described in the passage (C) comparing the various methods of continuous
casting of steel in order to present a
38. The author provides information that answers generalized description
which of the following questions? (D) tracing the development of the continuous-
I. In what ways does the continuous method casting method of steel production as an
differ from the conventional method of outgrowth and modification of the conven-
casting steel? tional process
IJ. In what ways do the various methods of (E) demonstrating the advantages of continuous
continuous casting differ from each other? casting of steel by contrasting this process
III. In what ways does the continuous-casting with the conventional method of steelmaking
method provide economic benefit to the
steel manufacturer?
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, Il, and III

whedid
ky MOE ie
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

288
 SECTION 2
Time—30 minutes
35 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one correct
answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr*; Circumference = 2mr Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. a degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to = is less than or equal to AB X CD
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to 4° Dae (1) area of AABC = saan
<< is less than \| is parallel to (2) AC? = AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. If 2 out of every 5 students in a class of 35 intend OQ R

to go to summer school, how many intend to go to
summer school?

(A)5 (B)7 (C)10 (@) 14 (©) 21

2. If 2x =5 and 3y= 6,then 6xy= P S

((C), 11 (p) 2 (E) 2 5. In the rectangle above, PQ =x and QR =2x.

Cajsome(B)e15~ What per cent of the perimeter of the rectangle
is the sum PQ +QR+RS?
3. If x +y =6 and y +z =9, what is the
value of z? (A) 50% (B) 665% (C) 75%
(A) 2 ;
(B) 3 (D) 80% (E) 835 %o
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) It cannot be determined from the information 6. If 45 cards can be copied in 30 minutes, how
given. many hours will it take to copy 540 such cards
at the same rate?
2
5 (A) 3
a a ,
(B) 6
(C) 12
2 (D) 18
Figure I (E) 24

5 7. Ms. Smith is S years old and is 3 years older than

= 3 : Ms. Lopez. In terms of S, how many years old
id Y was Ms. Lopez 2 years ago?

Figure I ‘ (AVES 295 RIB) 5-3 (C)

iSae
(D) S-1 @ Sti
4. Figure I is an example of a “factor diagram” of
100. What is the value of N if Figure II is a
“factor diagram” of N ?

(A) 70 (B) 120 (C) 150 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

(D) 240 (E) 300 289
 Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B_ if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x,n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES Column A Column B

Column A Column B Answers :
1X 6 ey: eames 11. 3,560 rounded to the 3,546 rounded to the
nearest hundred nearest hundred

CS
= 15

aS
12 3 15

XS EO

132 x xy

8. “ a
w,x,y, and z are integers.
x>5=y+3 and w+5=z+2
=x
z=w?-1 14. x w

OB y when x =3 z when w=-3

[29
A B Ciel,

AC =AB+9

BC = _ BD5
15 AB CD

- The total area of the rectangle is equal to the total

area of the triangle. O is the center of the circle. The positive whole number divisors of 6 are 1, 2, 3,
and 6.
10. The area of the shaded The area of the shaded
region in the rectangle region in the triangle 16. The number of positive 5
whole number divisors
of 20

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

290
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS

Answer: Aif the quantity in Column A is greater;

B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

Cohyra’

17. 2 rege xt+y+z 22. Total surface area of 10x?

the rectangular solid
shown
2x +3 =y

18. 20x +20 10y 23. The area of a right The area of an isosceles
triangle with sides of triangle with two sides
lengths 3, 4, and 5 of length 5

B
ie Veer tl

A 24. The average (arithmetic The average (arithmetic

mean) of 7,9, and x mean) of 2, 13, and y

ai hasoqesall
C is the center of the circle. x #0
x # 60 1
PB = x
AB
19; BC 1

n is an odd integer greater than 125.

20. is y2k
26. The remainder when 1
85n is divided by 2
Speed
(Kilometers Distance
per hour) | (Minutes) | (Kilometers) x<y<z
1 kilometer :
1 kilometer 27. xy yz
1 kilometer

Each of the experimental cars X, Y, and Z

maintains the constant speed indicated in the
table above for the distance and time indicated.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
21. x Z

291
Zz
Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then indicate the one
correct answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
28. A right angle is bisected and each of the two 70,
resulting angles is trisected. Which of the follow-
ing could NOT be the degree measure of an angle
formed by any two of these lines?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 75
29. If the product of 4 consecutive integers is zero,
what is the least possible sum of these integers?

(A)-10 (B)-6 (€)-2 @)-1 ©oO 32. In the figure above, any two intersecting segments
meet at right angles and any two adjacent parallel
Questions 30-31 refer to the following table. segments are a distance of 1 centimeter apart.
What is the length of the solid-lined path from
A to Z through B?
POPULATION PROJECTIONS BY REGION
1975-1985 (A) 40 (B) 41 (C) 42 (D) 43 () 44

(Thousands)

Projected Population 33. Ina certain factory, 2 of the workers are married
Change Between and 2 of these married workers have children.
1975 Population 1975 and 1985 4
What fraction of the workers in the factory are
married without children?

At BOE3 OF1 OF;

» lee
OF
34. if x hye and =<, then when eo,
x? -y? =

30. What is the difference between the projected 1985 (A) ab (B)k (CR (W)2 1
populations for regions T and U ? k
(A) 497,000 (B) 574,000 (C) 765,000
(D) 842,000 (E) 923,000

31. Which of the six regions show(s) a projected popu-

lation change for the period 1975-1985 of less
than 10 per cent of the 1975 population?

(A) Q only
(B) P and §S only
(C) Q and R only
(D) P, Q, and T only
(E) S, T, and U only 35. In the figure above, what is the sum of the degree
measures of the angles marked with arrows?

(A) 540 - 2x - 2y
(B)S00 c= 2 xen
(C) 360
(D) 450
(E) 540

292 IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 SECTION 4

Time—30 minutes

45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example: Although its publicity has been —--, the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot and altogether ----.
(E) ugly DeOOO
(A) tasteless. respectable (B) extensive. moderate
(C) sophisticated..amateur (D) risqué. .crude
1. RUMPLED: (A) smooth (B) plentiful (E) perfect. spectacular
@®DoOOoO
(C) recurrent (D) diverse (E) commonplace

2. CALAMITY: (A) pleasure (B) virtue 16. Even though mistletoe berries are ----, they do
(C) good fortune (D) suspicion (E) firm belief contain medicinal properties and have been
“ (A) (B) refined into a useful drug.
3. OUTSPOKEN: (A) perceptive B) reserved
(C) ineligible (D) unnecessary (E) triumphant USD SE wlEe PR a Qe a0
(D) poisonous (E) beneficial
4. REPRESS:. (A) distract (B) annoy
(C) borrow (D) release (E) miscalculate 17. Ina sense, technology always ---- traditional social
forms and creates a crisis for contemporary culture.
5. CELESTIAL: (A) sectional (B) rational (A) underlies (B) disrupts (C) presupposes
(C) earthly (D) realistic (E) feeble (D) delineates (E) facilitates

6. TAPER: (A) make wider (B) make difficult 18. Maria’s quick mind and ingenious imagination were
(C) contradict (D) strengthen (E) remove evident in her --- performances.

7. HUMID: (A) autumnal (B) polar (A) reticent (B) marginal (C) banal
(C) overcast (D) insipid (E) arid (D) impromptu (E) stultifying

8. DISBURSE: (A) oversee (B) proceed 19. He was the scapegoat, by whose oo punishment
(C) collect (D) praise highly (E) gain weight all the other transgressors in the group were, it
is supposed, sufficiently ---.
9. PRESTIGE: (A) lack of skill eee
(B) lack of money (C) lack of influence a Tee hs
ee d
(D) lack of ambition (E) lack of pride (deer ct mpticcied
10. ASCETIC: (A) paragtic (B) erratic (D) sacrificial. disillusioned
(C) sensual (D) deleterious (E) merciless (E) public. chastised
11. RECANT: (A) avow (B) curse 20. People of intemperate minds can never be free,
(C) restrain (D) deflate (E) compensate for their passions ---- their fetters.
(A) forge (B) sever (C) shackle
12. TENUOUS: (A) endless or boring (D) tarnish (E) dissolve
(B) extreme or excessive (C) firm or substantial
(D) noisy (E) controlled

13. BILK: (A) banish fear (B) show respect for

(C) portray faithfully (D) enforce strictly
(E) deal honestly with GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
14. LACHRYMOSE: (A) dry-eyed
(B) warmhearted (C) high-minded
(D) sharp-sighted (E) wide-awake

15. COMMENSURATE: (A) unequal (8B) stringent 293

(C) improvident (D) inadvertent (E) immutable
4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.
(The passages for this test have been adapted from published material. The ideas contained in them do not necessarily
represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing Service.)

Sometimes as I sit communing in my study I eZk Which of the following statements is most
feel that death is not far off. Death neither alarms compatible with the author’s principles as
nor frightens one who has had a long career of presented in the passage?
fruitful toil. The knowledge that my work has
Line (A) Too many leaders have rallied to wrong
(5) been helpful to many fills me with joy and great
causes and destructive movements.
satisfaction. Sometimes I ask myself if I have any (B) Justice will prevail only in a world of
legacy to leave. Truly, my worldly possessions cooperation and brotherhood.
are few. Yet, my experiences have been rich. (C) Stubborn perseverance sometimes hampers
From them, I have distilled principles and policies
negotiations for liberation.
(10) in which I believe firmly, for they represent the (D) Each individual must work for an abundant,
meaning of my life’s work. Perhaps in them there secure personal life.
is something of value. So, as my life draws to a (E) Great leaders of the past could not have
close, I will pass them on to blacks everywhere. succeeded without formal education.
I leave you the challenge of developing confi-
(15) dence in one another. Black banks, insurance 23. The author is primarily concerned with
companies. and other businesses are examples of
(A) emphasizing the need for idealistic leaders
successful economic enterprises. These institutions
(B) exploring the possibilities of human nature
were made possible by vision and mutual aid.
(C) portraying the present position of blacks in
Economic separatism cannot be tolerated in this
the United States
(20) enlightened age, and it is not practicable.
(D) presenting her life convictions to provide
I leave you a respect for the uses of power.
inspiration
We live in a world which respects power above all
(E) stating her views on the role of blacks in
things. Power, intelligently directed, can lead to
American history
more freedom. We must select leaders who are
(25) wise, courageous, and of great moral stature and 24. It can be inferred from the passage that Mary
ability. We have great leaders among us today. Terrell (lines 28-29) was which of the following?
We have had great men and women in the past:
Frederick Douglass, Harriet Tubman, and Mary
I. An intelligent and able leader
II. A pioneer in the use of economic power
Terrell. These are people who worked not for
III. An example because of her personal
(30) themselves, but for others.
economic success
I leave you faith. The measure of our progress
as a race is in precise relation to the depth of the (A) Ionly (B) Iand II only (C) I and III only
faith ir our people held by our leaders. Frederick (D) I] and III only (E) I, I, and III
Douglass was spurred by a deep conviction that 25 With which of the following statements regarding
(35) his people would heed his counsel and follow him black leaders would the author be most likely to
to freedom. Our forefathers struggled for liberty agree?
in conditions far more onerous than those we now
face, but they never lost the faith. We must never (A) Attempting to emulate past leaders is difficult
forget their sufferings and sacrifices, for they were because the times have changed greatly.
the foundations of the progress of our people. (B) Only leaders who have avoided personal fame
(40)
I leave you racial dignity. We must recognize should be held up as models.
that we are the custodians as well as the heirs of a (C) Past leaders oceie more inspiration than
great civilization. We have given something to the present leaders.
world as a race and for this we are proud and fully (D) Only leaders who have achieved a measure of
(45) conscious of our place in the total picture of economic success should be imitated.
mankind’s development. (E) If today’s leaders lose faith in their race, our
If I have a legacy to leave my people, it is my progress will be difficult or impossible.
philosophy of living and serving, my vision of a
world of Peace, Progress, Brotherhood, and Love.

71. The best title for the passage would be

(A) Thoughts of My Approaching Death
(B) A Legacy of Guiding Principles GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) The Contributions of Black Leaders
(D) The Uses of Collective Power
(E) A Vision of Worldwide Peace
294
 4
A characteristic of modern science is that it 26. The passage primarily concerns the
prefers to tackle well-defined, finite problems that (A) diversity of issues for which modern scientists
appear to be soluble with the methods and evidence are seeking explanations
Line
available. This often means eschewing the more (B) means by which modern scientists have dis-
(5) fundamental, the more “metaphysical’”’ issues, in credited nineteenth-century theories
the belief that the cumulative result of solving (C) trend of modern scientists and scholars to
many smaller and more manageable problems will focus on limited and manageable problems
ultimately throw more light on the larger issues (D) application of scientific methods to problems
than would a frontal attack. One of the paradoxes in political science and business
(10) of modern science has been that the greater its (E) challenges faced by modern scientists who are
success in a pragmatic sense, the more modest attempting to explain reality
its aims have tended to become in an intellectual
sense. The goals and claims of modern quantum pnp The author’s use of the phrase “‘a frontal attack”
theory are far more modest than those of Laplace, (line 9) could best be interpreted to mean which
(15) who believed that he could predict the entire of the following?
course of the universe, in principle, given its (A) Finding practical applications for theories
initial conditions. (B) Questioning the validity of the available
The aim of science has changed from the evidence
“explanation” of reality to the “description” of (C) Criticizing widely accepted theories
(20) reality—description with the greatest logical and (D) Devising global theories of explanation
aesthetic economy. The claims to universality of (E) Applying scientific methods to other fields of
nineteenth-century physics have been replaced by scholarship
a greater awareness of what still remains to be
discovered about the world, even “in principle.” 28. According to the passage, modern scientists are
The day of global theories of the social structure more willing than their predecessors to
(25)
or of individual psychology seems to have passed. (A) recognize the limits of their knowledge
Experience has taught us that real insight has (B) find explanations for fundamental issues
often been achieved only after we were prepared to (C) dismiss unresolved complexities and mis-
renounce our claim that our theories were universal. understandings
(30) The whole trend of modern scholarship has been (D) apply scientific methods to problems in
towards greater conservatism in deciding what other disciplines
can be legitimately inferred from given evidence; (E) predict the future on the basis of the pattern
we are more hesitant to extrapolate beyond the of past events
immediate circumstances to which the evidence
29; The author sees a similarity between the concerns
(35) applies. Even in art criticism, we are quicker
of modern science and which of the following
to recognize a greater diversity in the influences
trends in politics?
playing on an artist, a greater ambiguity in his or
her motives or artistic intentions. (A) A preoccupation among politicians with
The emphasis on finite aims in scientific and scholarly issues
(40) scholarly inquiry has been paralleled by the ex- (B) The reluctance of politicians to focus on
tension of scientific and scholarly attitudes to practical issues
practical affairs. The preoccupation of science (C) Governmental resistance to the influence of
with manageable problems has a close analogy in industry
the decline of ideology and the growth of pro- (D) The decreasing importance of political
(45) fessional expertise in politics and business. One of ideology
the most striking developments of the postwar (E) The unpopularity of bureaucratic decision-
world has been the increasing irrelevance of political making
ideology to political decision-making. One sees the
influence of the new mood in the increasing 30. The author apparently believes that the aim of
(50) bureaucratization of government and industry and science has changed from that of
in the growth of “scientific” approaches to (A) solving problems to that of devising questions
Management and administration. The day of the (B) analyzing causes to that of describing effects
intuitive entrepreneur or the charismatic statesman (C) studying specific issues to that of inferring
seems to be waning. general solutions
(D) accepting experience to that of disregarding
experience
(E) observing reality to that of interfering with
reality

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

4
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. PR or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. Virginia Woolf wrote fiction in which sensitive, relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
---- reactions to experience were objectified and Example:
patterned in a manner both intellectually exciting
and aesthetically ----. YAWN :BOREDOM:: (A) dream:sleep
(B) anger:madness (C) smile: amusement
(A) impartial. .complete
(D) face:expression (E) impatience: rebellion
(B) precise. tranquil ORO BO)
(C) observant. .conclusive
(D) indefinite. theoretical
(E) personal. .satisfying 36. CAPTAIN: TEAM:: (A) manager: responsibility
(B) shortstop: basketball (C) teacher: book
32. Having lived in the public eye for years, the ex- (D) administrator:
staff (E) catcher: winner
mayor cannot believe that from now on he will :
live in ----. 37. INVITATION: SUMMONS ::
(A) adulation (B) controversy (C) anonymity
(A) procrastination : urgency
(D) agitation (E) veneration (B) action: thought
(C) request :demand
33. Unlike Professor Stark, who is openly ---- about (D) suggestion
:reminder
the value of the cell research, Dr. Gorman favors (E) telegram: cable
---- the already sizeable funds allottedto th
eae mL ert GE TL cae ET 38. UNMASK: IDENTITY :: (A) concoct :plot
; 8 (B) decode:message (C) escape: prison
(A) dubious. trimming (D) submerge:emotion (E) exaggerate: truth
(B) ecstatic. donating
(C) enthusiastic. .endorsing 39. TADPOLE: AMPHIBIAN :: (A) lizard: insect
(D) skeptical. augmenting (B) minnow:dolphin (C) lamb:mammal
(E) curious. scrutinizing (D) branch:tree (E) rooster: chicken

34. People were tired of what human ---- could 40. GLOAT:SATISFACTION:: (A) gape: wonder
provide; the invisible, the ---- were the need (B) solve:mystery (C) glimpse: dismay
of the time. (D) inspect:damage (E) disappear: surprise

(A) intellect. irrational 41. DOMINEER:TYRANT:: (A) overrule: delegate

(B) belief. .mysterious (B) admire:champion (C) sympathize: victim
(C) strength. constructive (D) purchase:salesman (E) protect: guardian
(D) beauty. unheard
(E) beings. .traditional 42. CRIME:FELONY:: (A) worth: respect
(B) wealth:gem (C) impiety: blasphemy
35. Where one advances, hundreds ---- ; and the (D) accident:injury (E) inferiority
:rejection
balance is always in favor of nearly universal ----
43. STRIDENT:EAR:: (A) supple:skin
(A) retreat. .peace ‘ :
(B) battle. weakness (B) acrid : tongue (C) honeyed :lip
(C) retrogress. .deterioration (D) hypnotic:eye (E) saccharine:
nose
fy pages : 44. GENRE:LITERARY:: (A) planet: astronomical
er eet Roker lda At (B) fallacy: philosophical (C) painting: artistic
(D) phylum: zoological (E) plant: botanical

45. CULPABLE:CENSURE:: (A) moral: penance

(B) meritorious:reward (C) laughable: abuse
(D) admirable:judgment (E) affable: praise

Sele) PR
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

296
 SECTION 5
Time—30 minutes

25 QUESTIONS

In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then indicate the one correct
answer in the appropriate space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = mr”; Circumference = 27r Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. A degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to S is less than or equal to Xx
# is unequal to 2 is greater than or equal to Dis (1) area of AABC = ab
<_ is less than || is parallel to (2) AC**=AD? + DC?
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to
Note : Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

4. What is the result when 6 +2x is subtracted

from the sum of 2-x and 3x? +3x+4?
(A) -3x?

a
(B) -3x? - 2x +4
(C)” 3x2
(D) 3x? +2x +6
(E) 3x2, + 6x.-48
1. In the figure above, x- y =
If x? - 4 =14°18, then x could be
(A)O (B) 10 (C) 15 (D)45 (©) 60
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
2{3{sje]
| YA | (D)
(E)
18
20
2. The boxes above show part of a sequence of num-
bers in which each number after 3 is the sum of
the two numbers immediately to the left of it. If
one number goes in each box, what number goes
in the shaded box?

faves. (B) 21 “(C) 31 (D) 34 (E) 65

3. What is 99 per cent of 2 ?

4 3
(A) 0.0198 6. A 7-hour clock is shown above. If at 12 noon
(B) 0.198 today the pointer is at zero, where will the pointer
(C) 1.80 be at 12 noon tomorrow?
(D) 1.98
(E) 1.99 (AVO (@)2 ©3 OM 5 & 6

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

297
 Of the following, which is greatest?

Gl 4 (Oe 3
(CDi
1 2
e1
If the average of the first 6 integers on a list is
equal to the average of the first 5 integers on the
list, then the sixth integer must be equal to

(A) the average of the first 5 integers

(B) an odd number
(C) a negative number
(D) the product of 5 and an integer 13. In the figure above, what is the length of PQ ?
(E) the product of 6 and an integer
(A)'13" (B) 7 (6, DM) 5 ee
If 16 = x, then 64 =

(A) 4x (B) 2x (Cx +2

{/ \N
(D) 2vx (E) vx ah Of the following values of N, (-3) will be
10. A worker is paid D dollars per hour per week for greatest for N =
the first 40 hours worked and 2D dollars for each
hour over 40. If a worker earns $360 for one (A) 2
week’s work, what is the value of D ? (B) 3
(A) $3 (B) $5 ©(C) $6» (&).59
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) It cannot be’ determined from the information (E) 6
given.

L —>|
15. In the figure above, the area of the unshaded
region of the rectangle is
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
(A) Rw - 4x?
BE In APOR above, x = (B) (Q- 2x\w - 2x)
(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 90 (D) 100 (E) 130 (C) &- xXw - x)
(D) &x + wx
(E) (2- 4x)(w - 4x)
12; Which of the following can be expressed as the
product of 3 different positive integers, each
unequal to 1 ?

Ic, 24
Il. 42
TI. 45 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(A) Ionly (B) Iand II only (C) I and III only
(D) I and Il only (E) I, Il, and III

298
16. What is the diameter of a circle with circum- 20. If 0 <N <1, which of the following must
5
ference 1 ? be true?
(A)7 Love. Ne
1
LenS NV
(B)1
i
o>
(A) Ionly (B) Ilonly (C) III only
(D)= (D) Iand I (E) I and Il
(Ey 3+" 2k. A game board is made up of X rows of X squares.
The squares of the board alternate in color from
see
X=1-7, black to white and the corner squares are all white.
If there are W white squares and B black squares,
Y =1-0.99 what is the value of W- B?

ers) (A) -1
(B) 0
Bee If X, Y, and Z have the values indicated above, (C) 1
in which of the following are X, Y, and Z in (D) 4
order from least to greatest? (E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

22. A child built a tower with a set of cubic blocks.

If the first block had an edge of 25 inches and
each block added had an edge which was “ inch

18. A two-digit number has a tens’ digit x and a less than the preceding block, what is the ratio of
units’ digit y. What is the product of this the volume of the fifth block to the volume of the
number and the number 5, in terms of x
and y ? first block?

(A) 5x +y (A)
(B) Sx + Sy
(C) 5x +50y =
Oo)
(D) 50x + 50y (B) nN
(E) 50x + Sy
(C)
19. A 20-centimeter wire is cut into exactly three
pieces. If the first piece is 3 centimeters shorter
than the second piece and the third piece is (D) AO
STIRS
GS)
4 centimeters shorter than the second piece,
N
what is the length in centimeters of the shortest €)
piece? 4|5
Ree

(V5 (BR)6 ©) 7 @W)8 &?

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

299
 24. If for all numbers n,

# n =n(n(nerd) n wed) , th then —

a =

(A) #1 (B) #2 (CC) #3 (D) #4 (©) #6

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
25. Ina certain bookcase 50 per cent of the books
23. If the two straight lines in the figure above inter- are math textbooks, 80 per cent of the books are
sect at P, what is the value of w ? over twenty years old, and 40 per cent of the
; books over twenty years old are history books.
(A) 10 What is the maximum per cent of books in the
bookcase that could be math textbooks over
ly twenty years old?
(B) 12,
: (A) 28%
Cyl (B) 32%
Os (C) 40%
(D) 48%
(D) 20 (E) 50%
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

300
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 0B023

VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

A
Cc
B
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Cc
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ere
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=)1B)
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MOOUOMBDPFOODOCOMDOMOBIFrFmMPrPPMDOVVFMDOAOWDOMMFSBDODP,POAdO0
ace
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SelB)
iB
“Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions are five-choice.)

301
 The Scoring Process on the worksheet on the opposite page. Then do the
same for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omit-
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: ted answers.) To determine subtotal A, use the for-
mula:
e Scanning. Your answer sheet is ‘‘read”’ by a scanning
ri rr
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number correct — number incorrect = subtotalA
is recorded on acomputer tape.
Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
¢ Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
each question with the correct response. Each cor-
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer,
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- Minbercomecte number mmeorrect
= subtotal B
dom guessing. For questions with five answer
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each
Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
wrong response; for questions with four answer
ing any decimals.
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each
wrong response. For example, the SAT-verbal test Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
has 85 questions with five answer choices each, and the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
if a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
resulting raw score is determined as follows:
Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
32 wrong the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in
44 right — as = 44 — 8 = 36 raw score points
the conversion table on the back cover.
Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round-
ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num-
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
rounded upward to 37.
number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
e Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 2 and
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account worksheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the for-
for minor differences in difficulty between different mula:
editions of the test. This process, Known as equat-
Fumnberconecte number meorrect
ing, is performed so that a student’s reported score = subtotalA
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by
the abilities of the group with whom the student Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
takes the test. As a result of placing ATP scores on number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
the College Board scale, scores earned by students questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
at different times can be compared. For example, an in section 2 and record the numbers in the spaces
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- total B, use the formula:
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi-
Purtbarooreciwe number incorrect
tion of the test taken at another time. = subtotal B

Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the

number of incorrect answers for section 5 and record
How to Score the Test
the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the formula:
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
to you recently by using the information in this booklet number incorrect
number correct — 4 = subtotal C
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you
begin, check that the form code you marked in item 3
Step D: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
on your answer sheet is the same as the one printed on
subtotal C, keeping any decimals.
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
correct answers. round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.)
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4
Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- look up the total raw mathematical score you ob-
tion 1 and record the number in the space provided tained in Ein the conversion table on the back cover.

302
 SAT-Verbal Worksheet

A. Section att eeee ee oe VY, (eee eel) =

no. correct no. incorrect subtotalA

B. Section 4: os WE Se Saher meena in igCommerce: Sle Re E

no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+ B) Cc

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. Reported SAT-verbal score rea

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Verbal

SAT-Mathematical Worksheet

A. Section 2:
Questions 8 through 27
(4-choice) ote ay ee ee ee al ee ee
no. correct no. incorrect subtotalA

B. Section 2:
Questions 1 through 7 and eee ( ee Se be
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Section 5: ee a es ek
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal C

D. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A+B+C) D

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) =

F. Reported SAT-mathematical score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-Math

lf you have any questions on these scoring instructions, you may call the phone
number below.
\f, after following the above scoring directions and checking your work carefully,
your results disagree with the verbal or mathematical score reported on your ATP
Student Report, you may request a hand scoring of your answer sheet by writing or
calling:
College Board ATP
Box 592
Princeton, NJ 08541
Attention: Rescore Request
Telephone: (609) 883-8500
Please indicate whether it is your verbal or mathematical score, or both, that you
want to be rescored. When you write, please include a copy of the scoring work-
sheet in this booklet on which you did your calculations.

303
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Code 0B023
College Board Reported Score College Board Reported Score

Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math

aad
teh)
ae
=
—5
-—6
-7
-8
-9
or below

304
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