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Medical Basic Sciences Comprehensive Exam for Medical Students (After 2017) Sep. 2020

Physiology
1‫ـ‬ In a sensory neuron, a rise in which of the following factors contributes to the detection of
stimulus intensity?
a. Action potential amplitude
b. Action potential frequency
c. Action potential duration
d. Adaptation rate
2‫ـ‬ With regard to different phases of action potential, which of the following is correct?
a. In the phase of absolute refractory period, potassium channels are closed.
b. In the phase of absolute refractory period, the activation gate of sodium channel is open.
c. Repolarization is done by potassium and sodium pumps.
d. In the early phase of repolarization, both gates of sodium channels are closed.
3‫ـ‬ What is the mechanism of Neostigmine effect in treatment of the myasthenia-gravis disease?
a. Increasing acetylecholin release from the motor neuron
b. Mimicing acetylecholin effect without being destroyed by acetylecholin estrase
c. Opening the ryanodine calcium channel
d. Inhibiting the activity of acetylecholin estrase
4‫ـ‬ The action potential of which type of muscle cell is recorded in illustrated below?

a. Skeletal
b. Cardiac
c. Multi-unit smooth cell
d. Single-unit smooth cell
5‫ـ‬ Which of the following coagulating factors accelerates the production of prothrombin activator?
a. IV
b. VII
c. V
d. X
6‫ـ‬ How is the reabsorption of chloride and urea affected with an increase in sodium reabsorption?
a. Inactive reabsorption of chloride decreases and active reabsorption of urea increases.
b. Active reabsorption of both chloride and urea increase.
c. Inactive reabsorption of both chloride and urea increase.
d. Inactive reabsorption of both chloride and urea decrease.
7‫ـ‬ If the plasma urea concentration is 20 mg/dl, approximately how many milligrams of urea per
minute are filtrated under the physiological condition (GFR equals to 125 ml per minute)?
a. zero
b. 25
c. 250
d. 2500

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8‫ـ‬ In which of the following conditions, capability of increasing urine concentration is NOT
disrupted?
a. Hyperosmolarity of renal medular intestitium
b. An increase in the vasarecta blood flow
c. Disruption in counter current mechanism
d. Renal insipidus diabetes
9‫ـ‬ If the efferent arterioles are constricted, what changes will occur in the glomerular capillary
pressures?
a. Hydrostatic pressure increases and oncotic pressure remains unchanged.
b. Both hydrostatic and oncotic pressures increase.
c. Both hydrostatic and oncotic pressures decrease.
d. Hydrostatic pressure decreases and oncotic pressure remains unchanged.
10 ‫ ـ‬If end diastolic blood volume is 200 ml and end systolic blood volume is 50 ml, the approximate
of Ejection Fraction (EF) will be .......... percent .
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 150
11 ‫ ـ‬V-wave in atrial pressure curve is recorded simultaneously with which phase of the cardiac
cycle?
a. Early diastole
b. Late diastole
c. Early systole
d. Late systole
12 ‫ ـ‬In which part of the cardiac tissue, resting membrane potential is more positive?
a. Purkinje fibers
b. Hiss bundle
c. Atrio-ventricular node
d. Atrial muscle
13 ‫ـ‬ Which of the following paramerers increases in response to the pressure on the carotid artery
bifurcation?
a. Blood pressure
b. Pulmonary ventilation
c. Cardiac ejection fraction
d. Cardiac cycle duration
14 ‫ ـ‬Following hypertension due to extra volume of fluid, which of the circulatory parameters will
change gradually?
a. Increase in total peripheral resistance
b. Increase in renal afferent arteriole resistance
c. Decrease in Bainbridge reflex
d. Increase in plasma vasopressin and aldosteron
15 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is true about arterial pulse?
a. The pulse velocity is higher in low-capacity artery.
b. Arterioles have the strongest pulse due to low compliance.
c. Arterial pulse increases in aortic stenosis.
d. Arterial pulse is higher in aorta than in other main arteries.

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16 ‫ـ‬ Intermittent blood flow in capillaries is the result of .......... .

a. Changes of oxygen concentration in tissues
b. Intermittent systole, diastole cardiac activity
c. Fluctuation of sympathetic tone of vessels
d. Intermittent activity of the vasomotor center
17 ‫ ـ‬Which of the retinal cells has a role in creating the contrast (resolution) of a visual image?
a. Amacrine and horizontal
b. Bipolar and horizontal
c. Amacrine and bipolar
d. Ganglionic and bipolar
18 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following receptors is responsible for detecting the vibrating mechanical stimulus?
a. Meissner's corpuscle and Merkel's disk
b. Pachinian corpuscle and Ruffini's ending
c. Ruffini's ending and Merkel's disk
d. Meissner's corpuscle and Pachinian corpuscle
19 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following has a role in rapid olfactory adaptation?
a. Decrease in the number of olfactory receptors
b. Decrease in the activity of olfactory receptors
c. Increase in the activity of centrifugal nerve fibers
d. Increase in the activity of tufted cells
20 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following nuclei and fibers have an important role in the motor skills related to
cerebellar function?
a. Fastigial − climbing
b. Fastigial − mossy
c. Inferior olive − climbing
d. Inferior olive − mossy
21 ‫ ـ‬Which statement is INCORRECT about chemical synapses?
a. Impulse conduction is unilateral.
b. Alkalosis causes a reduction in synaptic transmission.
c. The receptor is located on post-synaptic neuron.
d. The blockade of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels blocks synaptic transmission.
22 ‫ ـ‬Examination of a patient revealed the loss of “light touch” sensention in part of his right hand
but thermal sensation was intact. Which part of the spinal cord is transected?
a. Right side of the spinal cord at C6
b. Right side of the spinal cord at L4
c. Left side of the spinal cord at C6
d. Left side of the spinal cord at L4
23 ‫ ـ‬Which impairment will occur in a patient suffering from Broca's aphasia?
a. Incapability of speech comprehension
b. Incapability of speech production
c. Incapability of speech production and comprehension
d. Incapability of fluent speech production
24 ‫ ـ‬What is the effect of Ib sensory fiber stimulation following the contraction of the skeletal
muscle?
a. Increase in the agonist muscle contraction
b. Relaxation of the antagonist muscle
c. Relaxation of the same muscle
d. Contraction of the synergic muscle

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25 ‫ ـ‬The secretion of the growth hormone is stimulated by an increase in which of the following
compounds in blood?
a. Arginine
b. Alanine
c. Glucose
d. Fatty acid
26 ‫ ـ‬Which of the hypothalamic nuclei has a role in the circadian rhythm?
a. Supra-optic
b. Supra-chiasmatic
c. Para-ventricular
d. Ventro-medial
27 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following events is NOT caused by cortisole?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Reduced lipolysis
c. Increased protein catabolism
d. Insulin resistance
28 ‫ـ‬ Sperms are stored much in which part of the male reproductive system?
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Vas deferens
c. Epidydimis
d. Seminal vesicles
29 ‫ـ‬ In case of the destruction of supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus, which of
the following changes will occur?
a. Free water negative clearance
b. Increase in the volume and concentration of urine
c. Increase in the isotonic urine volume
d. Increase in volume and decrease in osmolarity of urine
30 ‫ ـ‬What is the cause of muscular paralysis in increased secretion of Aldosterone?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Plasma sodium concentration reduction
d. Plasma magnesium concentration reduction
31 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following digesting enzymes is activated by entrokinase enzyme?
a. Gastric gastrin
b. Pancreatic lipase
c. Intestinal dipeptidase
d. Intestinal tripsinogen
32 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following, does NOT have any role in increasing the daily secretion of biliary salts?
a. Plasma gastrin
b. Parasympathetic nerve activity
c. Enterohepatic bile salts circulation
d. Cholecystokinin hormone
33 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following hormones reduces acid secretion and increases gastric pepsin secretion?
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Gastrin
c. Motilin
d. Secretin

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34 ‫ ـ‬If the pneumotaxic function in the respiratory center of brain stem is suppressed, which of the
following will occur?
a. The respiratory rate will increase.
b. The inspiration duration shortens and the pulmonary volume reduces.
c. Apnostic center is inhibited.
d. The respiratory ramp signal is prolonged.
35 ‫ ـ‬At which part of the respiratory cycle, taking an inspiration sample is possible?
a. Middle of the expiration
b. Beginning of the expiration
c. End of the normal expiration
d. End of the deep expiration
36 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following does NOT increase during metabolic acidosis?
a. Pulmonary ventilation
b. Bicarbonate reabsorption
c. Phosphate reabsorption
d. Ammonium excretion

Clinical biochemistry
37 ‫ ـ‬Copper is a cofactor for all the following enzymes, EXCEPT ........ .
a. Ceruloplasmin
b. Superoxide dismutase
c. Cytochrome aa3
d. DNA polymerase
38 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the key enzyme for fatty acid synthesis?
a. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
b. Acetyl transferase
c. Malonyl transferase
d. β-ketoacyl Reductase
39 ‫ ـ‬High level of ......... is an indicator of liver injury.
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Alanine transaminase
c. Creatin kinase
d. Amylase
40 ‫ ـ‬If the ratio of conjugated lactate to lactic acid is 100/1 in cells of a severly working muscle, then
the pH will be ........... .(pKa=3.86)
a. 1.03
b. 1.86
c. 4.86
d. 5.86
41 ‫ ـ‬Lysine transforms into alanine due to hemoglobin mutation. Normally, lysine has a role in 2, 3-
bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) attachment. In this case, the affinity of the mutated hemoglobin to
attach BPG will ............., and its affinity to attach oxygen will ................ .
a. Increase - decrease
b. Increase - increase
c. Decrease - increase
d. Decrease - decrease

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42 ‫ ـ‬In a patient admitted to the emergency room due to poisoning by an inhibitory compound, the
administration of ample enzyme substrate improves his condition. The inhibitor is ............... .
a. reversible and competitive
b. reversible and noncompetitive
c. irreversible
d. reversible and uncompetitive
43 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following pathways is very active in the liver of a patient with uncontrolled
diabetes?
a. Ketogenesis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Fatty acid synthesis
d. Glycolysis
44 ‫ ـ‬Which one is the key enzyme in regulating pentose phosphate pathway?
a. Transaldolase
b. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
c. Ribose 5-phosphate ketoisomerase
d. Transketolase
45 ‫ ـ‬Which enzyme is responsible for binding Okazaki fragments to each other?
a. RNA polymerase
b. RNA primase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase
46 ‫ ـ‬Which pair of amino acids is more frequent in histones?
a. Arginine - lysine
b. Aspartate - glutamic acid
c. Phenyalanine - tyrosine
d. Serine - glycine
47 ‫ ـ‬Aromatase is responsible for the conversion of ......... .
a. testosterone to estradiol
b. estradiol to estriol
c. testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
d. dehydroepiandrosterone to estradiol
48 ‫ ـ‬Which respiratory complex in electron transport chain is inhibited by cyanide?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
49 ‫ ـ‬What is the role of ACAT (Acyl CoA Cholesterol Acyltransferase)?
a. Esterification of cholesterol inside cells
b. Esterification of cholesterol in blood stream
c. Separation of fatty acid from cholesterol
d. Cholesterol transfer between lipoproteins
50 ‫ ـ‬All of the following compounds are phospholipids EXCEPT ............ .
a. sphingomyelin
b. plasmalogen
c. galactosyl ceramide
d. lecithin

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51 ‫ ـ‬Introns are present in the ......... .

a. tRNA
b. mRNA
c. hnRNA
d. snRNA
52 ‫ ـ‬Membrane fluidity is related to the amount of .......... .
a. unsaturated fatty acids and free cholesterol
b. protein and esterified cholesterol
c. peripheral protein and triglyceride
d. free cholesterol and triacylglycerol
53 ‫ ـ‬Which enzyme is activated by the increase of blood glucagon?
a. Phospholipase C
b. Protein kinase C
c. Adenylate cyclase
d. Guanylate cyclase
54 ‫ ـ‬In a diabetic patient which type of transport of glucose into muscle cells is impaired?
a. Sodium-dependent active transport
b. Facilitated diffusion by GLUT4
c. ATP-dependent active transport
d. Antiport with bicarbonate anion
55 ‫ ـ‬Genetic defect in ornithin transcarbamoylase (OTC) activity in urea cycle leads to the deficiency
of which of the following amino acids?
a. Arginine
b. Lysine
c. Histidine
d. Proline
56 ‫ ـ‬All of the following compounds can be converted to tryptophan EXCEPT .............. .
a. Serotonin
b. Melanin
c. Melatonin
d. Niacin

Bacteriology
57 ‫ ـ‬To control human brucellosis, all of the following phrases are correct EXCEPT ............ .
a. vaccination of general population
b. pasteurization of dairy products
c. detecting and slaughtering infected domestic animals
d. protection of abattoirs workers by wearing protective clothes
58 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the correct characteristic of syphilis chancre?
a. Superficial sore with inflammation and pain without bleeding
b. Deep sore with inflammation and pain with bleeding
c. Deep sore with inflammation and pus without bleeding
d. Superficial sore without pain and with hard base
59 ‫ ـ‬Which bacteria can be used in normal fecal transplantation for treatment of recurrent infection?
a. Bacteroides fragilis
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Shigella dysentriae

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60 ‫ ـ‬Which structures is seen just in gram negative bacteria?

a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipid A
c. Capsule
d. Pili
61 ‫ ـ‬All of the following statements for Chlamydia are correct EXCEPT ............ .
a. They include both DNA and RNA
b. Their cell wall is similar to that of gram negative
c. They have the ability to produce ATP
d. They grow only in living cells
62 ‫ ـ‬Bacterial isolation of Bordetella pertusis in culture media will increase at ….......... .
a. incubation period
b. cattarrhal period
c. paroxysmal period
d. convalescence period
63 ‫ ـ‬Which type of diarrhea causing Escherichia coli uses “Intimin” as adherence factor to attach the
gut cells?
a. EAEC (Enteroaggegative E.coil)
b. EPEC (Enteropathogenic E.coil)
c. EIEC (Enteroinvasive E. coil)
d. DAEC (Enterotoxigenic E.coil)
64 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following Campylocbacteria is the etiologic agent of systemic infection?
a. jejuni
b. coli
c. fetus
d. upsaliensis
65 ‫ ـ‬What is the mechanism of antibacterial effect of rifampin?
a. Binding to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting RNA synthesis
b. Inhibition of the helicase activity
c. Inhibition of DNA topoisomerase type II
d. Inhibition of synthesis of Okazaki fragments
66 ‫ ـ‬Daptomycin affects ................ .
a. plasma membrane
b. cell wall
c. protein synthesis
d. nucleic acid synthesis
67 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following microorganisms is the most probable agent of bacterial meningitis in
infants in their first month of life?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Enterococcus faecalis
68 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following tests has the highest sensitivity and specificity in diagnosis of
tuberculosis?
a. Intradermal tuberculin test
b. Gamma interferon releasing assay
c. T cell activation assay
d. Serum antibody assay

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69 ‫ ـ‬The Shwartzman reaction occurs following the release of a large amount of ........... into the blood
circulation.
a. peptidoglycan
b. lipopolysaccharide
c. lysozyme
d. lipoteichoic acid
70 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the important virulence factor for Haemophilus influenzae type b?
a. Exotoxin
b. Capsular protein
c. Polyribitol phosphate capsule
d. Lipopolysaccharide of cell wall
71 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following antibiotics belongs to the second line anti-Tuberculosis therapy?
a. Isoniazid
b. Ethambutol
c. Rifampin
d. Kanamycin
72 ‫ ـ‬At what stage of syphilis, the granulomatous lesions (Gumma) observed?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Early latency

Parasitology
73 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following parasites can casue anemia in human?
a. E. granulosus
b. N. americanus
c. A. lumbricoides
d. E. vermicularis
74 ‫“ ـ‬Dromedary fever, with two peaks in a day”, is the specific clinical sign of which of the following
parasitic diseases?
a. Extra-intestinal amoebiasis
b. Acquired toxoplasmosis
c. African trypanosomiasis
d. Visceral leishmaniasis
75 ‫ ـ‬Which species of Plasmodium causes the highest percentage of RBC parasitemia?
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale
76 ‫ ـ‬Which parasitic protozoon can cause internal autoinfection?
a. Isospora belli
b. Cyclospora cayetanensis
c. Cryptosporidium parvum
d. Toxoplasma gondii

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77 ‫ ـ‬Percutaneous-Aspiration-Injection-Reaspiration (PAIR) can be effective in the treatment of

which parasitic disease?
a. Fasciolosis
b. Hydatidosis
c. Trichinellosis
d. Dicrocoelosis
78 ‫ ـ‬Which parasite is usually observed in appendicitis?
a. Ancylostoma deudenale
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Trichenella spiralis
d. Entrobius vermicularis
79 ‫ ـ‬What is the medication for tapeworm (Cestodes)?
a. Niclosamide
b. Triclabendazole
c. Levamizole
d. Metronidazole
80 ‫ ـ‬What is the most prevelant human trematodes in Iran?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Dicrocoelium dendriticum
d. Clonorchis sinensis
81 ‫ ـ‬A patient with dysentry, acidic stool, and charcot-Leyden crystals is probably afflicted with
................. .
a. cyclosporiasis
b. balantidiasis
c. giardiasis
d. intestinal amoebiasis
82 ‫ ـ‬The infection resulting from which of the following parasites is aggravated if the immune system
is weakened?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Acantamoeba
c. Entamoeba
d. Trichomonas

Medical Entomology
83 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following are the main agent and vector of Dengue fever?
a. Virus - Anopheles
b. Rickettsia - Aedes
c. Virus - Aedes
d. Virus - Culex
84 ‫ ـ‬Which insect has a role in transmission of Dipylidium caninum?
a. Human louse
b. Flea
c. Bed bug
d. Triatomid bug

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Mycology
85 ‫ ـ‬A neutropenic patient with persistent fever and respiratory signs was hospitalised in the ICU.
His galactomannan test is positive with rising titer during one week follow-up. Which of the
following fungal diseases is the patient suspected of?
a. Mucormycosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Aspergillosis
d. Cryptococcosis
86 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following dermatophytes is considered to be the most common agent of tinea
cruris?
a. Microsporum canis
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Trichophyton schoeinlieni
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
87 ‫ ـ‬In which of the following fungal diseases, the purulent and ulcerative cutaneous lesions are
seen in lymphatic channels?
a. Sporotrichosis
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Dermatophytosis
d. Pityriasis versicolor
88 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following fungi can not cause lesions on mucosal membranes?
a. Geotrichum
b. Malassezia
c. Candida
d. Histoplasma
89 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following fungi is the most common agent of tinea unguium?
a. Candida albicans
b. Epidermophyton floccosum
c. Microsporum canis
d. Trichophyton rubrum

Virology
90 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following influenza virus proteins is inhibited by the drug Zanamivir?
a. M2 (Ionic channel Protein)
b. NA (Neuraminidase)
c. NS1 (Non-structural protein)
d. M1( Matrix protein)
91 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following options is true about Corona viruses?
a. They have a circular RNA genome.
b. Their genome has an ambisense polarity.
c. They cause disease only in human.
d. They are enveloped viruses.
92 ‫ ـ‬Which herpes virus becomes latent in B lymphocytes?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. VZV
d. HSV-1

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93 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following diseases is caused by athropods?

a. MERS
b. Yellow fever
c. SSPE
d. Lassa fever
94 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following diseases has a vaccine?
a. Hepatitis C
b. AIDS
c. Hepatitis E
d. Mumps

Anatomy
95 ‫ ـ‬Middle meningeal artery is a branch of which following arteries?
a. Occipital
b. Thyrocervical
c. Maxillary
d. External carotid
96 ‫ ـ‬All of the following structures are superficial to hypoglossus muscle EXCEPT ........... .
a. hypoglossal nerve
b. superficial part of submandibular gland
c. lingual nerve
d. submandibular duct
97 ‫ ـ‬All of the following muscles are innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT ................. .
a. cricothyroid
b. aryepiglottic
c. lateral cricoarythenoid
d. thyroepiglottic
98 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following symptoms is produced by long ciliary nerve damage?
a. Pupilary constriction
b. Pupilary dilatation
c. Abduction of eye ball
d. Adduction of eye ball
99 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following structures is present in oropharynx?
a. Torus tubarius
b. Torus levatorius
c. Palatine tonsil
d. Piriform recess
100 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following structures is present in posterior surface of the body of maxilla?
a. Incisive fossa
b. Maxillary tuberosity
c. Canine eminence
d. Maxillary hiatus
101 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the main artery of the internal ear?
a. Labyrinyhin
b. Anterior tympanic
c. Stylomastoid
d. Deep auricular

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102 ‫ ـ‬All of the following defects are produced by facial nerve injury EXCEPT .................. .
a. no secretion of parotid gland
b. defect of taste sensation
c. defect of lacrimal gland secretion
d. no secretion of nasal mucosal secretion
103 ‫ ـ‬Where is the location of dorsal artery of penis?
a. Thickness of superficial fascia
b. Tunica albuginea
c. Thickness of deep fascia
d. Pectineal septum
104 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following structures is NOT supplied by the internal iliac artery?
a. Ovary
b. Uterus
c. Rectum
d. Urinary bladder
105 ‫ ـ‬Which anatomical structure forms the posterior boundary of the epiploic (Winslow) foramen?
a. Caudal lobe of liver
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Portal vein
d. 1st part of duodenum
106 ‫ ـ‬In posterior mediastinum, which of the following structurs is located in a more anterior site than
others?
a. Azygos vein
b. Thoracic aorta
c. Thoracic duct
d. Thoracic Esophagus
107 ‫ ـ‬Which artery is adjacent to the deep inguinal ring?
a. Internal pudendal
b. Obturator
c. Umblical
d. Inferior epigastric
108 ‫ ـ‬Parasympathetic innervation of which part of the digestive tract is supplied by the pelvic
splanchnic nerve?
a. Duodenojejunal junction
b. Ileocecal valve
c. Splenic flexure
d. Hepatic flexure
109 ‫ ـ‬All of the following muscles attach to the perineal body EXCEPT .................. .
a. Ischiocavernosus
b. External anal sphincter
c. Levator ani
d. Superficial transverse perineii
110 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following arteries supply the greater omentum?
a. Right and left gastroepiploic
b. Right and left lower intercostal
c. Right and left gastric
d. Superior and inferior mesenteric

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111 ‫ ـ‬All of the following structures are innervated by the phrenic nerve EXCEPT .................... .
a. central part of diaphragm
b. diaphragmatic pleura
c. medistineal pleura
d. visceral layer of serous pericardium
112 ‫ ـ‬Where is the clinical position for auscultation of pulmonary valve?
a. Sternal end of the second left intercostal space
b. Behind sternum at the level of the fifth intercostal space
c. Sternal end of the second right intercostal space
d. Sternal end of the fifth left intercostal space
113 ‫ ـ‬Climbing fibers of cerebellum are related to the which neural tract?
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar
b. Olivocerebellar
c. Ventral spinocerebellar
d. rubrocerebellar
114 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following tracts is in the anterior funiculus of the spinal cord?
a. Ventral spinocerebellar
b. Vestibulospinal
c. Rubrospinal
d. Gracilis
115 ‫ ـ‬Which group of the thalamic nuclei contributes to the formation of Papez circle?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Intralaminar
116 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following nuclei is in the most lateral area of the open part of medulla?
a. Hypogloss
b. Ambigus
c. Vestibular
d. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
117 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following nuclei has a different function from the others?
a. Ambigus
b. Hypogloss
c. Trochlear
d. Solitary
118 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following functions is impaired after superior olivary nucleus injury?
a. Audition
b. Swallow
c. Speech
d. Vision
119 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following arteries supplies paracentral lobule?
a. Anterior cerebral
b. Posterior cerebral
c. Middle cerebral
d. Anterior choroidal

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120 ‫ ـ‬Which muscle is most effective in maintaining pelvic balance while standing on one leg?
a. Iliopsoas
b. Obturator internus
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus medius
121 ‫ ـ‬All of the following muscles are innervated by ulnar nerve EXCEPT .............. .
a. first lumberical
b. apponens digiti minimi
c. palmaris brevis
d. adductor pollicis
122 ‫ ـ‬In the case of rupture of round ligament of femoral head, branches of which following artery will
be damaged?
a. Deep external pudendal
b. Lateral circumflex femoral
c. Obturator
d. Superior Gluteal
123 ‫ ـ‬Which anatomical structure separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches?
a. Posterior superior iliac spine
b. Posterior inferior iliac spine
c. Ischial spine
d. Ischial tuberosity
124 ‫ ـ‬Which one of the following muscles is innervated by branches from the lateral cord of brachial
plexus?
a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Deltoid
125 ‫ ـ‬Damage to which of the following nerves leads to winging of scapula?
a. Long thoracic
b. Suprascapular
c. Dorsal scapular
d. Axillary
126 ‫ ـ‬Which nerve supplies the cutaneous sense of lateral half of the forearm?
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Radial
c. Axillary
d. Median
127 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following fibers connect the periosteum to bone?
a. Collagen
b. Oxytalan
c. Reticulum
d. Elaonin
128 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the specific character of the duodenum?
a. Nerve plexus
b. Lieberkuhn`s glands
c. Brunner`s glands
d. Peyer`s Patches

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129 ‫ ـ‬Helicotrema is located between ................. .

a. middle and inner ear
b. scala vestibuli and tympani
c. spiral limbus and Scala vestibuli
d. scala media and tympani
130 ‫ ـ‬Which cell secrets testosterone in the ovary?
a. Theca externa
b. Theca interna
c. Granulosa
d. Cumulus oophorus
131 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following neuroglia of the nervous tissue has a mesenchymal origin?
a. Oligidendrocyte
b. Astrocyte
c. Ependyme
d. Microglia
132 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following liver cells stores fat-soluble vitamins?
a. Hepatocyte
b. Kupffer
c. Ito
d. Endothelial
133 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following vessels has internal elastic lamina?
a. Capillary
b. Metarteriol
c. Artery
d. Venule
134 ‫ ـ‬Which type of cartilages forms the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral discs?
a. Elastic
b. Fibrous
c. Articular
d. Hyaline
135 ‫ ـ‬Which cytoplasmic organelle does NOT have membrane?
a. Proteasome
b. Endosome
c. Proxysome
d. Lysosome
136 ‫ ـ‬Thermogenin protein is found in ............... .
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Inner membrane of mitochondrial
d. Primary lysosome
137 ‫ ـ‬Which epidermal cell does NOT have any junctions with its adjacent structures?
a. Merkel
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Langerhans

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138 ‫ ـ‬The vasa recta originates from ................... in the kidney.

a. afferent arteriole
b. subcapsular plexus
c. efferent arteriole
d. arcuate artery
139 ‫ ـ‬Which part of the sperm does NOT enter into the cytoplasm of oocyte during fertilization?
a. Plasmalemma
b. Middle piece
c. Sperm tail
d. Centriole
140 ‫ ـ‬What is the origin of exocoelomic cyst?
a. Secondary yolk sac
b. Primary yolk sac
c. Chorionic cavity
d. Extraembryonic coelome
141 ‫ ـ‬Up to which developmental week, do the primary ossification centers for long and cranial bones
appear?
a. 6th
b. 9th
c. 12th
d. 14th
142 ‫ ـ‬Cells migrating from the middle one-third of primitive streak contribute to the formation
of which part of mesoderm?
a. Paraxial
b. Intermediate
c. Extraembryonic
d. Lateral plate
143 ‫ ـ‬Which cells cover the outer surface of chorionic villus?
a. Endometrial epithelium
b. Cytotrophoblast
c. Decidua
d. Syncytiotrophoblast
144 ‫ ـ‬The primordial germ cells are NOT observable in the .............. .
a. epiblast
b. wall of the yolk sac
c. mesentery of hindgut
d. wall of midgut
145 ‫ ـ‬In which of the central nervous system defects, the brain ventricles are affected?
a. Meningohydroencephalocele
b. Cranial Meningocele
c. Meningoencephalocele
d. Spina bifida occulta
146 ‫ ـ‬What is the origin of follicular cells of thyroid?
a. Neural crest
b. Surface ectoderm
c. Pharyngeal endoderm
d. Splanchnic mesoderm

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147 ‫ ـ‬What is the embryonic origin of dentin?

a. Neural ectoderm
b. Neural crest
c. Surface ectoderm
d. Somatic mesoderm
148 ‫ ـ‬Which structures are common in the twins that formed via separation of inner cell mass?
a. Placenta and chorionic cavity
b. Placenta and amniotic cavity
c. Amniotic cavity and yolk sac
d. Chorionic cavity and yolk sac

Principles of Health Services

149 ‫ ـ‬Considering the ecological and educational evaluation phase of Prisid model, which of the
following options refers to the concept of the underlying factors?
a. Factors causing hopefulness and hopelessness in one's behavior.
b. Beliefs, values and perceptions that enhance motivation in one's behavior.
c. Encouragement and feedback received from others following the new behavior.
d. Sources, skills and factors that facilitate the behavior.
150 ‫ ـ‬If after the assessment of the health condition of a person complaining of having disease
symptoms; no particular indication is detected, which of the following terms is applicaple to this
person?
a. Disease
b. Illness
c. Ill health
d. Discomfort
151 ‫ ـ‬Considering the primary care services framework in dealing with health-related problems in
reducing the prevalence and controlling the progress of iron-deficiency anemia, which of the
following measures involves a fight against parasitic diseases?
a. Promotive interventions
b. Rehabilitative interventions
c. Therapeutic interventions
d. Preventive interventions
152 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following statements is a proper index to assess children's suitable nutrition status?
a. Birth rate of at least 90% of neonates with a weight of over 2500 grams
b. Birth rate of at least 50% of neonates with a weight of over 3000 grams
c. A decline in mortality rate to 50 per thousand in children under one year old
d. Having an appropriate ratio of height and weight in all stages of their lives
153 ‫ ـ‬A persistent disease with high prevalence, similarly affecting all ages is called ............ .
a. endemic
b. epidemic
c. pandemic
d. semi-endemic
154 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following definitions is more in line with “health education”?
a. The transfer of health knowledge to people with limited knowledge about disease prevention.
b. A series of activities planned to improve health condition of the society.
c. The change process is a behavior that establishes a link between health knowledge and its
implementations.
d. A type of education that provides the necessary information about healthy lifestyle to individuals.

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155 ‫ ـ‬All of the following belong to primary health care elements EXCEPT ........... .
a. improving nutrition status
b. expanding immunization programs
c. achieving justice
d. providing essential drugs
156 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following options denotes the most important concept of “health promotion”?
a. Enabling people to decide on their own health
b. Enhancing people's health information to change their behavior
c. Changing people's health culture for social and economic development
d. Establishing intra-sectorial coordination for social health development
157 ‫ ـ‬All of the following statements are true about nosocomial infection EXCEPT .......... .
a. the patient is without infection on admission.
b. the infection signs and symptoms of the disease may appear after discharge.
c. the infection originates from hospital equipment and services.
d. the patient has been in the incubation period of infection on admission.
158 ‫ ـ‬The clinical examination of the breast and fastening the seat belt in a vehicle are considered as
............. prevention, respectively.
a. secondary, primary
b. secondary, secondary
c. primary, secondary
d. primary, primary
159 ‫ ـ‬The virulence of a pathogenic agent to enter, survive and proliferate in the host is known as
............ .
a. infectiousness
b. infectivity
c. infection
d. contamination

Principles of Epidemiology
160 ‫ ـ‬We have studied the mean fat intake in relation to the incidence of breast cancer in a number of
provinces. Which of the following is the study design?
a. Ecologic
b. Cross-sectional
c. Historical cohort
d. Case-control
161 ‫ ـ‬What kind of bias is more common in randomized clinical trials?
a. Selection
b. Response
c. Recall
d. Publication
162 ‫ ـ‬All of the following statements are true about a confounding factor EXCEPT ............... .
a. it is a variable with no association with the outcome.
b. it can cause the outcome.
c. it can prevent the outcome.
d. if not addressed in the study, it may cause spurious findings.

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163 ‫ ـ‬As a health policy-maker, you are going to use a vaccine in a community based on its efficacy.
What is the best kind of evidence to look for?
a. Systematic review
b. Field trial
c. Community-based case-control study
d. Hospital-based case-control study
164 ‫ ـ‬What kind of prevention is “Doing a Pap smear to find cervical cancer”?
a. Secondary prevention
b. Primary prevention
c. Primordial prevention
d. Tertiary prevention
165 ‫ ـ‬Among guests participating in a party, the incidence of poisoning among individuals who ate a
specific food was ten times higher than those who did not. “TEN” indicates which of the
following?
a. Relative risk
b. Incidence rate
c. Attributable risk
d. Occurrence rate
166 ‫ ـ‬In which type of study, it is least possible to detect the time order of cause and effect?
a. Prospective cohort
b. Historical cohort
c. Clinical trial
d. Cross-sectional
167 ‫ ـ‬What is the most important advantage of using multiple control groups in a case-control study?
a. Reducing selection bias
b. Reducing information bias
c. Controlling confounders
d. Better estimate of relative risk
168 ‫ ـ‬The lung cancer mortality among heavy smokers is 30 times higher than that of non-smokers.
Which item is more relevant to this statement?
a. Strength of association
b. Specificity
c. Consistency
d. Dose-response relationship

English Language for Medical Purposes

Vocabulary
Read the following questions and choose the best answer:
169 ‫ ـ‬Some doctors' handwriting is so bad that their patients have difficulty reading their .............. .
a. jurisdictions
b. prescriptions
c. commitments
d. achievements

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170 ‫ ـ‬The patient was about to pass away as the doctor made a/an ............... mistake by taking a wrong
decision.
a. lethal
b. immortal
c. moral
d. eternal
171 ‫ ـ‬The potential …………… of angioplasty may include coronary artery dissection and rupture,
cardiac tamponade and myocardial infarction.
a. convulsions
b. complications
c. conceptions
d. complements
172 ‫ ـ‬There are many physical and emotional disorders which heal and do NOT really require any
medical ………….
a. integration
b. admission
c. segmentation
d. intervention
173 ‫ ـ‬In the age of nanotechnology, physical examination still remains of ………… importance in
diagnosis of aortic stenosis.
a. trivial
b. vicious
c. pivotal
d. transient
174 ‫ ـ‬A condition in which the patient is characterized by a defect or loss of power of expression by
speech is termed as ………
a. aphagia
b. dyspepsia
c. aphasia
d. ataxia
175 ‫ ـ‬The drooping and downward displacement of the eyelid due to inaccurate Botox injection is
diagnosed as ............. .
a. blepharodynia
b. blepharoptosis
c. blepharitis
d. blepharorrhaphy
176 ‫ ـ‬The surgeon said the patient had to undergo ............ operation to remove the very small tumor in
his skull.
a. craniocentesis
b. septocentesis
c. pleurectomy
d. pneumectomy
177 ‫ ـ‬Surgical attachment of the urinary bladder to the abdominal wall or to other supporting
structures is referred to as …....... .
a. tracheotomy
b. pachydactyly
c. arthrodesis
d. cystopexy

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178 ‫ ـ‬Congenital .......... can result from a failure of the lungs to expand completely.
a. atelencephalia
b. pulmolith
c. tracheotomy
d. atelectasis

Reading Comprehension
Read the following passages and choose the best answer.

Passage 1:
Bone is in constant turnover. It atrophies when not used, and hypertrophies when stressed. Overall bone mass
is increased until sometime between 30 and 35 years of age, after which there is an overall decrease of bone
as a consequence of more resorption than production. Articular cartilage is a special material because it has
properties that people have not been able to reproduce. It is a wonderful shock absorber, yet when sliding
with another surface of articular cartilage bathed in normal synovial fluid, the constant friction is a fraction of
that found with ice-on-ice. Unfortunately, upon reaching adulthood, the ability to generate new articular
cartilage ceases and as it wears out or is injured, it is not replaced. Skeletal muscle accounts for 50% of the
body’s weight making it the single largest tissue mass in the human body. There is one basic structural unit in
muscle fiber; however, the arrangement of these fibers varies depending on a particular muscle’s function.
179 ‫ ـ‬Based on the passage, which of the following items is true about bone?
a. Atrophy of bone happens in a constant manner.
b. Hypertrophy is observed when bone cells are new.
c. Stress leads to bone excessive growth.
d. Stress causes bone cell atrophy.
180 ‫ ـ‬What can be implied from the paragraph about bone mass?
a. Bone mass growth is due to resorption.
b. Production of bone mass causes its overall diminish.
c. The overall increase of bone mass is age-dependent.
d. Resorption and production decrease after the age of 35.
181 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is true about the characteristics of articular cartilage?
a. Generating new articular cartilage is a constant process.
b. Humans have failed to reproduce articular cartilage so far.
c. In the presence of synovial fluid, the friction is doubled.
d. Constant friction causes shock absorbing in the cartilage.
182 ‫ ـ‬According to the paragraph, adulthood leads to …............. .
a. termination of articular cartilage production
b. regeneration of articular cartilage
c. further production of bone mass
d. easier replacement of articular cartilage
183 ‫ ـ‬Each muscle’s function determines the ………… .
a. tissue mass in the human body
b. type of structural units in muscle fiber
c. arrangements of muscle fibers
d. ability to generate new articular cartilage

Passage 2:
Constitutional laws of some countries require employers to provide adequate safety precautions and
regulations. Workers in medical laboratories are exposed to many dangers, not only from infected material
but also from the dangerous compounds and apparatus which they use as a daily routine. These precautions

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must be observed by all members of the staff, not only for the good of themselves as individuals, but for the
safety of all concerned. While the application of safety precautions is only a matter of using a little common
sense, unnecessary accidents frequently occur in most laboratories. All accidents which occur in the
laboratory must be reported immediately to the person in charge. Protective clothing must be worn when in
the laboratory, but should always be removed before leaving the premises. Personal clothing should be suited
to the nature of the work. Examine carefully for any defects on flasks and beakers containing alkalis or acids.
Do not clutter up the sink with dirty glassware; in the event of an accident you may wish to use the sink
quickly.
184 ‫ ـ‬It can be inferred from the passage that ............... .
a. workers in medical laboratories are only exposed to hazards from instruments in use
b. safety precautions are beneficial for both the laboratory staff and others involved
c. protective clothing can be removed by the personnel while working in the laboratories
d. the workers in a laboratory usually clutter up the sink when using dirty glassware
185 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned as a safety precaution?
a. Limited use of apparatus by the workers in the laboratory
b. Using protective clothing while working in the laboratory
c. The manager of the laboratory must be informed of any accident occurring there.
d. The staff must take off their working clothing before leaving the laboratory.
186 ‫ ـ‬The passage implies that ............ .
a. safety regulations and laws will sometimes lead to frequent accidents in the laboratory
b. observing safety precautions and preventative measures need no specific knowledge
c. the frequency of unnecessary accidents in the laboratory is due to the ignorance of the person in
charge
d. some accidents can be prevented if the staff use their common sense
187 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following is the best reference for the underlined word “premise”?
a. Laboratory
b. Protective clothing
c. Precautions
d. Dirty sink
188 ‫ ـ‬The author argues against a messy sink in the laboratory because ........... .
a. it is the best place to locate the dirty glassware
b. it is not in accordance with sanitary principles
c. we may need it in an urgent case of accident
d. the staff need all glassware for their daily use

Islamic Revolution of Iran and Islamic Insights

189 ‫ ـ‬How is God's existence inferred from reasoning based on possiblities and necesities? Infrerfing
the ............
a. Creator by evidence
b. causes by possiblities
c. effects by evidence
d. possible existence by evidence
190 ‫ ـ‬How can the eternal existane of some sinful in the Hell be justified by divine justice?
a. God has already warned the sinful.
b. The sinful should be punished severly.
c. After-death punishment is the natural consequence of one's deed.
d. God has full control over its people.

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191 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following indicates the proper positioning of people and objects?
a. Wisdom
b. Justice
c. Mercy
d. Power
192 ‫ ـ‬Which of the folowing is a proper response to mankind's visious deed?
a. Limited knowledge
b. Acquired knowledge
c. Expressive knowledge
d. Subjective knowledge
193 ‫ ـ‬The first public resistance of Iranian people against colonialism and autocratic rule was reflected
in ................. movement.
a. Constitutional monarchy
b. Goharshad
c. Tobacco
d. Khordad 15th
194 ‫ ـ‬What was the consequence of unilateral cancelation of Darsy Oil Contract by Reza Shah?
a. Signing a friendship contract between Iran and Russia
b. Excluding England from Iran oil resources
c. Exerting full dominance of England over Iran oil resources
d. Highlighting agricultural economy in Iran
195 ‫ ـ‬What is the main reason behind collaboration between intellectual movement and Islamic
celergymen in contemprory political movement?
a. Religious and idiological principles
b. Commitment to national unity
c. Lack of popularity and public support
d. Exploiting religion in favore of national goals
196 ‫ ـ‬The Quranic verse “Then He balanced it and blew in it from His Soul” refers to ...........
dimension.
a. spiritual
b. corporeal
c. material and immaterial
d. both good and evil
197 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following arguments is more appropriate in debating with those who deny God and
Hereafter?
a. Reason
b. Nature
c. Rationality
d. Justice
198 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the relationship between faith and
insight?
a. Faith is based on knowledge and insight.
b. Faith is the requirement of knowledge and insight.
c. Religious faith is not confirmed with absolute knowledge.
d. Religious faith is not in contradiction with reason.

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199 ‫ ـ‬Which of the following statements responds to the critisim? “ The evil acts of some people who
cause agony and irritation to others originate from the freedom and choice granted to them by
God”.
a. Creation of free-willed human is better than the creation of human with no free will.
b. God will compensate for the suffering and hardships of the oppressed in the Hererafter.
c. God will punish the oppressors in the Hereafter.
d. Free will is a prerequisite of creation and there is no escape from that.
200 ‫ ـ‬What does the following statement prove? “If closely considered, the existance of “me” is an
indivisable and integrated being, while the most important charactristic of things is divisability”.
a. Superiority of soul over body
b. Divine nature of soul
c. Eternality of soul
d. Immateriality of soul

Good luck

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