ANIMAL SCIENCE REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Reflex centers are located throughout the central nervous system and are involved with the integration of more
complex reflexes. When the animal sneeze and cough, the reflex center involved in these reactions is the:
A. hypothalamus C. medulla oblongata
B. cerebellum D. cerebrum

2. The following statements described the similarities and differences of muscle cells of the body except:
A. both skeletal and visceral muscles are striated
B. all muscle cells are capable of contraction or shortening of cell
C. cardiac and visceral muscles are involuntary in action
D. all muscle cells are capable of undergoing hypertrophy
3. If an animal had an allergic response, what kind of white blood cells will increase in number in respond to the
allergens?
A. neutrophils C. eosinophils
B. lymphocytes D. basophils
4. What will happen to a red blood cell when its bathing fluid has lower osmotic pressure than the cell?
A. the cell will move C. the cell will burst
B. the cell will shrink D. the cell will grow
5. What part of the bone is responsible for the increase in the length of a growing bone?
A. the epiphysis C. the marrow cavity
B. the epiphyseal cartilage D. the diaphysis

6. The enarthrodial joint moves just like a ball and a socket, which of the following is the best example of this joint:
A. atlanto-axial joint C. hip joint
B. carpal joint D. fetlock joint
7. The respiratory system is a complementary system of the cardiovascular system which is involved in the following
functions except:
A. supply oxygen to the blood and remove carbon dioxide from the blood
B. temperature regulation
C. elimination of water
D. overcoming diseases
8. Rennin is an enzyme that coagulates milk and reduces its rate of passage through the gastrointestinal stomach. It is
secreted in the stomach of what animal?
A. pig C. horse
B. dog D. cow

9. This hormone is involved in the regulation of kidney function by increasing the reabsorption of sodium ions to decrease
urine volume.
A. ADH C. renin
B. aldosterone D. pitocin

10. Which statement is not true about animals whose testis/testes failed to descend into the scrotum?
A. a cryptorchid is likely to be sterile
B. a monorchid is fertile
C. both cryptorchid and monorchid produce testosterone
D. both cryptorchid and monorchid could be used as breeders

11. Spermatids are the cells resulting from the second meiotic division in the seminiferous tubules. What is the term for
series of functional and structural changes undergone by a spermatid to become a spermatozoa?
A. spermatogenesis C. acrosome reaction
B. spermiogenesis D. mitosis

12. The epididymis is a male structure with the following functions except:
A. serves as storage space for spermatozoa
B. reabsorbs seminiferous tubular fluid
C. site of maturation for spermatozoa
D. none of the above

13. Estrogen is the female hormone secreted by the ovarian follicle, it is involved in the following functions except:
A. initiation of sexual receptivity
B. regulation of secretion of luteinizing hormone
C. promotion of the lobuloalveolar growth in the mammary gland
D. stimulation of duct growth in the mammary gland
14. Ventilation is the process by which air is moved in and out of the lungs. The volume of air that moved during each
breath is known as
A. Residual Volume C. Tidal Volume
B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume D. Respiratory Volume

15. The influx of sodium ions inside the nerve cell results to ___________ of the resting membrane potential
A. polarization C. hyperpolarization
B. depolarization D. inverse polarization

16. The economic trait in pigs that can be associated to feed efficiency
A. Litter size C. Back fat thickness
B. Growth rate D. Birth weight

17. Cooked pork contains about 23% protein. To satisfy 50% of the 35g daily protein allowance a person should consume
how much cooked pork?
A. 55 g C. 76 g
B. 64 g D. 98 g

18. A sow bred 25 March can be expected to farrow on

A. 10 July C. 21 July
B. 17 July D. 28 July

19. Segregated early weaning of piglets allows the advantage of

A Increased reproductive rate of sows
B. Reduced risk of piglet infection and mortality
C. Lower feed cost
D. Faster growth rate

20. Mothering ability of a sow is measured by the number of

A. Piglets born alive per sow per year
B. Piglets weaned per sow per year
A. Piglets reared per sow per year
B. Fatteners sold per sow per year
21. Reproductive longevity starts from first mating to last weaning. Gilts expected to have good reproductive longevity
must possess
A. At least 14 functional teats
B. Long, wedge-shaped body
C. Strong legs and arched back
D. Well developed ham and shoulder
22. In the process of up grading heterosis is expected to be highest in
A. 1 50:50
B. F2 75:25
C. F3 87.5:12.5
D. All equal

23. In the three-way cross where P1 AxB, P2 CxAB, what is the expected genetic constitution of the tri-hybrid progeny
relative to breeds A-B-C?
A. 1:1:1 C. 1:2:3
B. 1:1:2 D. none

24. The minimum required sperm count per inseminate is 3 billion. A 300 ml ejaculate with a concentration of 200 million
sperm cells per ml can produce how many inseminates?
A. 15 doses
B. 18 doses
C. 20 doses
D. 23 doses

25. A sow on its first parity gave birth to only 6 piglets. The best decision to undertake is
A. Cull the sow for having poor reproductive performance
B. Retain the sow up to 3rd parity
C. Review performance of the AI technician
 D. Try new method of mating the sow

26. A newly castrated piglet was found dead with extended stiff limbs, erect ears and the tail was also stiff. The piglet is
suffering from what disease?
A. Blackleg C. Tetanus
B. Parturient Paresis D. Pseudorabies

27. Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms and could be classified as contagious or non-contagious. Which of
the following diseases is considered as non-contagious infectious disease?
A. Hog Cholera C. Pseudorabies
B. Tetanus D. Tuberculosis

28. Toxoid is the recommended preventive measure for Tetanus in pigs, ruminants and horses. Giving of toxoid will
confer what type of immunity?
A. natural passive immunity C. artificial passive immunity
B. natural active immunity D. artificial active immunity
29. Outstanding lesions observed in this contagious viral disease in chicken include a swollen and edematous cloacal
bursa and hemorrhagic pectoral, thigh and leg muscles. This disease is
A. Fowl plague C. Gumboro Disease
B. Diptheria D. Avian Pest

30. Fowl pox is a common disease of chicken which is characterized by proliferative lesions in the skin that progress to
thick scabs and by lesions in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory tract. Which of the following is not vaccinated
against Fowl Pox?
A. layers C. breeders
B. broilers D. none of the above
31. This is an acute respiratory disease of chicken characterized by nasal discharge, sneezing and swelling of the face
under the eyes
A. Infectious Coryza C. Newcastle Disease
B. Chronic Respiratory Disease D. Fowlpox
32. The infective stage of Fasciola gigantica in ruminants is the
A. miracidium C. metacercaria
B. rediae D. cercaria
33. Haemonchus contortus is a common roundworm that causes severe anemia in ruminants. This endoparasite is found in
the
A. rumen C. abomasum
B. small intestine D. cecum
34. Surra is a protozoan disease of horse and ruminants which is commonly transmitted by biting flies. It causes
intermitted fever and anemia, the causative agent for this disease is
A. Trypanosoma evansi C. Trypanosoma equiperdum
B. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Trypanosoma brucei

35. Which of the following is not a reason for vaccination failure?

A. presence of maternal antibodies C. immunosuppression
B. presence of disease D. none of the above

36. In a cow-calf operation, the standard weaning weight of Brahman and its crosses
A. 125 kg C. 175 kg
B. 150 kg D. 200 kg

37. The recommended rebreeding time before a cow must be culled

A. 2 times C. 4 times
B. 3 times D. 5 times

38. In continuous breeding program to beef cattle production, bull culling should be done
A. yearly C. every 4 years
B. every 2 years D. every 5 years

39. In beef cattle breeding, what is the recommended bull to cow ratio under normal situation
A. 1:20 C. 1:40
B. 1:30 D. 1:50

40. The distinguishing features of Philippine Carabao are the two diagonal stripes on its brisket or known as
A. chevon C. stripes
B. chevron D. liners
41. An abnormal condition affecting reproduction wherein female twin in mixed sexed twins occur
A. pre-martin C. mixed twins
B. free-martin D. martins

42. The total number of animals carried per unit of pasture and it is measured in terms of animal unit
A. stocking rate C. stocking density
B. grazing pressure D. general herd

43. The recommended post partum breeding in beef cattle

A. 45-60 days C. 21 days
B. 30 days D. 3 months

44. In establishing beef cattle or buffalo enterprise, what is the most important consideration?
A. breed C. labor
B. housing D. feed

45. In cattle housing, what is the recommended height of the ceiling?

A. 3-3.5 m C. 8 m
B. 5 m D. 5-10 m

46. A substance being produced during stressful conditions and helps in glycogen breakdown in the muscle
A. lactic acid C. myoglobin
B. epinephrine D. acetic acid

47. Which is not a use of the bone structure?

A. use in estimating age of live animals
B. use as guide for cutting carcasses
C. gives clue to the tenderness of the cut
D. use in identifying and naming of the cut of meat

48. Which is not an advantage of fasting animal prior to slaughtering?

A. ease of evisceration C. gives low shrinkage
B. results to a pale carcass D. lengthens shelf-life of meat

49. These are proteins that are extracted during processing of sausages
A. myofibrillar proteins C. stromal proteins
B. sarcoplasmic proteins D. connective tissue proteins

50. Which sensory characteristics is not affected by moisture content?

A. texture C. tenderness
B. flavor D. color

51. This procedure could lead to the smoothening of the external fat of beef carcass and prevent shrinkage and oxidation
A. chilling C. shrouding
B. singeing D. blanching

52. Which is not true about the presence of glycogen in the muscle?
A. half of it is only present in the muscle
B. it undergoes glycolysis after slaughtering
C. its amount is high in postmortem meat
D. none of the above

53. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals before slaughtering?

A. saving of feeds C. gives high shrinkage of meat
B. ease of evisceration D. lengthens shelf-life of carcass

54. Meat grading offers the following advantages except

A. provides products of varying quality C. increases competition
B. facilitates sale based on inspection D. improves pricing efficienc

55. This edible by-product of slaughtering pig is also referred to as chitterlings

A. small intestines C. testicles
B. thymus gland D. stomach

56. Recommended male to female ratio for egg-type chicken breeders

A. 1:10-12
B. 1:8
 C. 1:5
D. 1:12-15

57. The most common roof designs adopted by commercial chicken producer
A. Shed
B. Gable
C. Semimonitor/Monitor
D. None of the above

58. A practice done at any stage of production for the purpose of reducing boarders and increasing efficiency of
production
A. Flock replacement
B. Culling
C. Selection
D. breeding

59. The act of egg laying is called

A. oviposition
B. ovulation
C. gastrulation
D. molting

60. 100 laying chickens consume about

A. 110 kg feed
B. 150 kg feed
C. 200 kg feed
D. 90 kg feed

61. The daily water requirement of 100 broiler chicks can be provided using a drinking fountain with a capacity of
A. 1 gallon
B. 3.78 liters
C. 3780 cc
D. all of the above

62. A variety of chicken which is popularly used as male line for breeding meat-type chicken
A. Cornish
B. Leghorn
C. Hampshire
D. Plymouth Rock

63. For optimal egg production, hens are provided daily photoperiod of 16-18 hours for sufficient secretion of
gonadotrophins
A. FSH
B. LH
C. FSH & LH
D. Estrogen

64. The total egg production of 340 eggs in one production period is possible with modern strains of chickens such as
A. Dekalb
B. Starbro
C. Cobb 500
D. Hybro G

65. The total feed consumption of a broiler chicken with a feed conversion ratio of 1.80 and body weight of 1.7 kg at 32
days of age is
A. 3.06 kg
B. 3.60 kg
C. 3.00 kgg
D. 4.00 kg

66. The science that deals with the study of relationship of food and genes is
A. Nutrition
B. Nutrigenomics
C. Nutrology
D. Anthropology

67. Nutrients are used for

 A. Structural material for building and maintaining the body structure
B. Source of energy for heat production, work and or fat deposition
C. Regulating body processes or in the formation of body produced regulators.
D. All of the above

68. Which of the following is not correct?

A. Roughage is needed to promote bulk in ruminants’ diet
B. in most cases, roughage constitutes 70 percent of ruminant’s diet
C. Readily available source of energy is needed for efficient degradation of roughage in the rumen
D. All of the above
69. A. 100 kg ration is deficient in metabolizable energy of 100 kcal. How much coco oil (8,600 kcal/kg) is needed to
supplement the deficiency?
A. 0.012 kg
B. 12.0 kg
C. 0.12 kg Phosphorus
D. 1.2 kg
70. Animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low in isoleucine. It is commonly used as bypass protein in ruminants
A. Blood meal
B. Fish meal
C. Feather meal
D. Squid meal
71. The ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorus in the diet for monogastric animals
A. 1:1 – 2:1
B.2:1 – 3:1
C. 1:2 – 2:3
D. None of the above

72. Vitamin K functions in the blood coagulation system

A. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factor
B. Vitamin K is essential for the degradation of prothrombin and other clotting factors
C. Vitamin K prevents synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors
D. Vitamin K inhibits synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors

73. Feed additive are important component of animal rations because

A. They provide extra nutrient for the animal
B. Their use guarantee production performance
C. some helps minimizing pollution of the environment from animal wastes
D. None of the above
74. A feed was analyzed to contain 3% nitrogen. How much crude protein does the feed contains?
A. 18.75%
B. 19.50%
C. 20.0%
D. None of the above
75. A diet deficient in protein. How much fish meal (65% CP) is needed to correct the 2.0% crude protein deficiency?
A. 3.08%
B. 30.8%
C. 0.30%
D. 0.03%
76. The acronym AFTA, which is one of the major cause of the dumping of products by other countries in the Philippines
stands for
A. ASEAN Free Trade Association
B. ASEAN Free Trade Agreement
C. Asian Free Trade Administration
D. Asian Free Trade Agreement

77. The top cattle producing region in the country in terms of population
A. MIMAROPA
B. BICOL REGION
C. SOCCKSARGEN
D. ILOCOS REGION

78. Festivities for the good harvest and promotion of local products are popular among the country’s provinces. One of
these festivals is Lechon festival, which is being celebrated at
 A. San Pedro, Laguna
B. Los Baños, Laguna
C. Lipa City, Batangas
D. Balayan, Batangas

79. Cheese from goat’s milk is popularly known as

A. Chevre
B. Mozzarella
C. Roquefort
D. Brie

80. Milk protein component of the lactose synthetase enzyme

A. Whey
B. Casein
C. Lactalbumin
D. Zein
81. The butter contains the following vitamins
A. A, D, E and K C. water soluble vitamins
B. B-complex D. all of the above
82. Cheese is rich with the following protein
A. amino acid C. casein
B. whey D. none of the above

83. The process of standardizing reconstituted milk with butter oil:

A. reconstitution C. homogenization
B. recombination D. standardization

84. Also known as non-fat milk

A. whole milk C. low fat milk
B. skimmilk D. none of the above

85. The absence of milk in the udder following parturition

A. mastitis C. agalactia
B. mammilities D. none of the above

86. The term used indicating nervous reflex on the udder produced by various stimuli resulting in milk ejection from the
alveoli
A. milk ejection reflex C. neurohormonal reflex of milk ejection
B. milk-let down D. all of the above

87. A type of milk proteins which is a by-product in cheese making

A. buttermilk C. whey
B. cheese crumbs D. casein

88. The end product in the fermentation of lactose

A. galactic acid C. acetic acid
B. lactic acid D. none of the above

89. A contractive tissue covering the surface of the alveoli that forces the milk from the gland during the milk-let down
process
A. myoepithelial cells C. sphincter muscles
B. epithelial cells D. gland cistern

90. The hormone responsible in the secretion of milk initiated at parturition or before and becomes a continuous process
during lactation
A. oxytocin C. lactogen
B. prolactin D. soma
 ANSWER KEY

1.C 26.C 51.C 76.B

2.A 27.B 52.D 77.D
3.C 28.D 53.C 78.D
4.C 29.C 54.B 79.A
5.B 30. B 55.A 80.C
6.C 31.A 56.A 81.A
7.D 32.C 57.C 82.C
8.D 33.C 58.B 83.B
9.B 34.A 59.A 84.B
10.D 35.D 60.A 85.C
11.B 36.B 61.D 86.D
12.D 37.B 62.A 87.C
13.C 38.B 63.C 88.B
14.C 39.A 64.A 89.A
15.B 40.B 65.A 90.B
16.C 41.B 66.B 91.
17.C 42.A 67.D 92.
18.B 43.A 68.A 93.
19.B 44.A 69.A 94.
20.B 45.A 70.A 95.
21.C 46.B 71.A 96.
22.A 47.A 72.A 97.
23.B 48.B 73.C 98.
24.C 49.A 74.A 99.
25.B 50.C 75.A 100.