Dr.

Hussham’s Medical College Admission Test

Preparation Program
THE AGA KHAN University Mock Paper -3 2021

Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery

Science and Mathematics
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
 Candidate’s Name: _________________________________________________

Batch No: _______________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the following instructions carefully

1. Make sure that you write your name & batch no in the space above and on the
given answer sheet.
2. Mark ONLY ONE answer to each questions. No credit will be given for multiple
answers.
3. If you change an answer, be sure that you completely erase old answer before
marking your new answer.
4. There will be 100 questions in five subject sections:

Mathematics Reasoning (20 MCQs)

Biology (20 MCQs)
Chemistry (20 MCQs)
Physics (20 MCQs)
Science Reasoning (20 MCQs)

5. Attempt all questions.

6. Questions can be attempted in any order.
7. In Biology , Chemistry and Physics sub section every wrong answer loses 0.25
marks
Section I (Mathematics)
Note: 20 Mcqs

1. Find the number of degrees in angle B?

I. AC < BC
II. Angle BCD = 100°
III. Angle A + Angle B + Angle C = 180°
IV. AB = BC
V. ABC is an isosceles triangle

Which two statements are sufficient to answer the question?

A. I & IV
B. I & III
C. II & IV
D. IV & V

2. How many people are standing in the queue at the counter?

I. If four more people join the queue, the number in the queue will be more than
15
II. More than 10 people are standing in the queue
III. There are more men than women in the queue
IV. If three people give up and leave the queue, the number remaining will be
less than 10
V. Less than 20 people are standing in the queue

Which two statements are sufficient to answer the question?

A. I & III
B. II & III
C. II & V
D. I & IV

3. What is the value for x?

I. x is an integer
II. The average of v, w, x, y & z is 13
III. The average of v, w, y & z is 10
IV. v + w = 12
V. y + z = 28

Which two statements are sufficient to answer the question?

A. I & V
B. I & III
C. II & III
D. IV & V
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4. Of the companies surveyed about the skills they required in prospective
employees, 20 percent required both computer skills and writing skills. What
percent of the companies surveyed required neither computer skills nor writing
skills?

(1) Of those companies surveyed that required computer skills, half required
writing skills.
(2) 45 percent of the companies surveyed required writing skills but not
computer skills.
A. statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
B.statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
C. both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question,
but neither statement alone is sufficient
D. each statement alone is sufficient
E. statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient, and additional data
is needed to answer the question

5. By weight, liquid A makes up 8 percent of solution R and 18 percent of solution

S. If 3 grams of solution R are mixed with 7 grams of solution S, then liquid A
accounts for what percent of the weight of the resulting solution?
A. 10%
B. 13%
C. 15%
D. 19%

6. If u > t, r > q, s > t, and t > r, which of the following must be true?

I. u > s
II. s > q
III. u > r
A. I , II and III
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III

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7. What is the diameter of a circle whose area is 16π?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 8π

8. 7, 12, 22, 42, 82

Which of the following gives a rule for finding each term in the sequence after
the first?
A. Add 5 to the preceding number.
B. Add 5 to the sum of all of the preceding terms.
C. Double the preceding term and then subtract 2 from the result.
D. Add 14 to the preceding term and divide that result by 2.

9. Which of the following could be the x-intercept and y-intercept of a line that is
perpendicular to the line 3x + 6y = 0 ?
A. (-6, 0) and (0, 3)
B. (3, 0) and (0, -6)
C. (3, 0) and (0, 6)
D. (6, 0) and (0, 3)

10. If i2k = 1, and i2 = -1. Which of the following must be true about k ?
A. k is a multiple of 2.
B. k is a positive integer.
C. When 2k is divided by 4, the remainder is 1.
D. k/4 is an even integer.

11. If f(x) = -x + 7 and g(x) = 2x + 1, what is the value of g(f(2)) ?

A. -11
B. -5
C. 5
D. 11

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12. Anna spent $80 buying a used bicycle and $30 repairing it. Then she sold the
bicycle for 40 percent more than the total amount she spent buying and
repairing it.

Quantity A Quantity B
The price at which Anna $150
sold the bicycle
A. Quantity A is greater.
B. Quantity B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
13.

In the figure above, squares PQRV and VRST have sides of length 6 cm.

Quantity A Quantity B
The area of the shaded 36 cm2
region
A. Quantity A is greater.
B. Quantity B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

14. The cost of two dozen apples is $3.60. At this rate, what is the cost of 10
apples?
A. $1.75
B. $1.60
C. $1.55
D. $1.50

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15. A total of 300 tickets were sold for a performance of a school play. The ticket
prices were $5 for each adult and $3 for each child, and the total revenue from
tickets was $1,400. Solving which of the following systems of equations would
yield the number of adult tickets sold, a, and the number of children’s tickets
sold, c?
A. a + c = 1,400
5a + 3c = 300
B. a + c = 300
5a + 3c = 1,400
C. a + c = 300
3a + 5c = 1,400
D. a + c = 300
3a + 5c = 1,400 × 2

16. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to 2(x − 4)2 − 5x?

A. 2x2−21x+32
B. 2x2−21x−32
C. 2x2−13x+32
D. 2x2−16x−21

17. The centre of the circle concentric with the circle x2 + y2 - 2x + 4y – 1 = 0 is:
A. (2, –1)
B. (– 1, 2)
C. (1, – 2)
D. (– 1, – 2)

18. If n is an odd integer, which one of the following is an even integer?

A. n3
B. n/4
C. 2n+3
D. n(n+3)

19. Which of the following fractions is the largest in the group?

A. 7/9
B. 2/3
C. 5/6
D. 13/18
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20. If the unit digit of integer n is greater than 2, what is the unit digit of n ?
(1) The units digit of n is the same as the units digit of n2
(2) The units digit of n is the same as the units digit of n3
A. statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
B.statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
C. both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the
question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
D. each statement alone is sufficient
E. statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient, and additional
data is needed to answer the question

Section II (Biology)
Note: 20 Mcqs

21. When a molecule binds to an area of an enzyme that is not the active site, and
changes the shape of the enzyme so that it no longer can work, this is called
A. Denaturation
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Noncompetitive inhibition
D. Substrate delocation

22. Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative in

the structure labelled A:

A. An outer membrane
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Techoic acid
D. Lipopolysaccharides
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23. Fungi resemble animals because they are
A. Saprotophs
B. Autotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. Heterosporous

24. Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides sperms

A. Liquid medium
B. Protection
C. Nourishment
D. All of the above

25. The machine shown in the picture helps cleans the blood either by:

A. Passing it through an artificial kidney

B. Filtering it within abdomen
C. Removing the whole blood from body
D. By both A and B

26. Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of the
A. Chloride ion
B. Sodium ion
C. Potassium ion
D. Calcium ion

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27. In the figure, the phase labelled A, B and C represent which part of the cell
cycle respectively?

A. G1-phase,S-phase and G2-phase

B. G1-phase,G2-phase and G3-phase
C. S1-phase,S2-phase and S3-phase
D. S1-phase,G-phase and S2-phase

28.

The specific RNA in the picture has a sequence of three bases called
anticodon which is complementary to codon of
A. MRNA
B. RRna
C. SRNA
D. FRNA
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29. Which of the following is not true about the Parasympathetic system?
A. It maintains normal breathing rate
B. It constricts the pupil of eyes
C. It will delay food digestion.
D. It occurs during rest conditions.

30. Pacinian Corpuscles in the skin detect

A. Rapid and deep pressure changes
B. Changes in temperature
C. Light touch sensation
D. Pain sensation

31. Which of the following cell layers gives rise to the Notochord?

A B

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of the above

32. A man with blood group AB marries a women with blood group AB. Which
of the following blood group is not possible in offspring?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

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33. Which of the following occurs due to deficiency of potassium in plants?
A. Leaves become pale yellow
B. Leaves become red in colour
C. Leaves become bluish-green in colour
D. Leaves do not change colour.

34. How many molecules of ATP are required to convert one molecule of glucose
to two molecules of Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

35. Placental Mammals are included in which of the following sub-classes of

mammals?
A. Sub-class Prototheria
B. Sub-class Metatheria
C. Sub-class Eutheria
D. Sub-class Euphoria

36. The main processes involved for getting the material into and out of cells are
A. Diffusion and osmosis
B. Active and passive transport
C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. All of the above

37. Ferns belong to the group

A. Sphenopsida
B. Lycopsida
C. Psilopsida
D. Pteropsida

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38. The end products of haemoglobin breakdown and metabolites of various
hormones is
A. Glucagon
B. Bilirubin
C. Keratin
D. Serotonin

39. ABO system has four different phenotypes which are distinct from each other
on the basis of specific antigens on the surface of
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi bodies
C. RBC
D. Centrioles

40. Cortisol brings about an increase in blood glucose level mainly by its
production from . protein and by releasing:
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Oestrogen
D. Progesterone

Section III (Chemistry)

Note: 20 Mcqs

41. What is the net charge on ferrous ion

A. +2
B. +3
C. +4
D. +5

42. Standard temperature and pressure of gas refers to

A. 273K,76mmHg
B. 273C,760mmHg
C. 273K,760mmHg
D. 273C,76mmHg

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43. Which contains maximum number of atoms
A. 6moles of S8
B. 20 moles of S8
C. 5 moles of SO2
D. 44.dm3 of CO2 at stp

44. Maximum number of electrons accomodated by p-orbital is

A. 2
B. 6
C. 10
D. 14

45. Which shows high % of ionic character

A. H2O
B. HF
C. HCl
D. HBr

46. In exothermic reaction, the reactants

A. have more energy than products
B. have less energy than products
C. Same energy as products
D. Are at higher temperature than products

47. For equilibrium reaction 2NO2 > N2O4 +14.6kcal, increase in temperature
A. favors formation of N2O4
B. favours decomposition of N2O4
C. Not alters equilibrium
D. Stops the reaction

48. Rate of reaction that does not involve gases, does not depend on
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Concentration
D. Catalyst

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49. Solutions which tends to maintain their pH when small quantity of acid or
base is added,is termed as
A. Molar Solution
B. Ideal solution
C. Buffer Solution
D. Saturated solution

50. Which is not a group III A element

A. Aluminum
B. Gallium
C. Polonium
D. Thallium

51. Choose members of elements from the same period

A. Cl,Br
B. Ca,Cl
C. Na,Cl
D. Na,Ca

52. A pi-bond is the result of

A. overlap of two s-orbitals
B. overlap of s and p orbital
C. overlap of two p-orbitals along their axes
D. sideway overlap of two p-orbitals

53. The process whereby orbitals of different energies and shapes mix up with
each other to give equivalent orbitals is called
A. Hybridisation
B. Polymerisation
C. Isomerisation
D. Carbonisation

54. Which of the following is liquid at rtp

A. butane
B. hexane
C. ethene
D. ethane

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55. Benzene molecule contains
A. 3 double bonds
B. 2 double bonds
C. 1 double bond
D. decolorised element

56. Primary alcohols are oxidised completely to give

A. aldehydes
B. ketones
C. carboxylic acids
D. none

57. Which of the following will have the highest boiling

A. propanol
B. methanol
C. 2-hexanone
D. ethanol

58. Which of the following is not a nucleophile

A. H2O
B. H2S
C. BF3
D. NH3

59. Enzymes,in the living system

A. Provides energy
B. Provides immunity
C. Transports oxygen
D. catalyse biochemical processes

60. The pH range for acid rain is

A. 7-6.5
B. 6.5-6
C. 6-5.6
D. Less than 5.6

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 Section IV (Physics)
Note: 20 Mcqs

61. Pfund series lies is

A. UV region
B. Visible region
C. IR region
D. None

62. If a lens is cut horizontally then which of the following will change:
A. Focal length
B. Center of curvature
C. Intensity of image
D. None

63. Angular momentum has the same unit as of :

A. Gravitational constant
B. Eddies constant
C. Plank’s Contant
D. Stress

64. A hollow brass sphere is positively charged the electric potential inside the
sphere is:
A. Zero
B. Less than the potential on surface
C. Greater than the potential on surface
D. None

65. A fire works takes place at 0.75Km produces a sound wave that travels with
340m//s the time difference will be:
A. 4sec
B. 3sec
C. 2.2sec
D. none

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66. Mass is a fixed quantity but according to the theory it is variable:
A. Theory of relativity
B. String theory
C. Both
D. None

67. A charge of 0.1C accelerated through P.D of 1000V, acquires KE:

A. 189J
B. 100J
C. 289J
D. 300J

68. If the tension in the string is made 4 times then the speed of sound in a string
will be:
A. V
B. 2V
C. 4V
D. None

69. Penetrating power of X-ray can be increased by increasing its:

A. Frequency
B. Velocity of electron
C. Intensity
D. None

70. Antiparticle of neutron is:

A. Proton
B. Positron
C. Neutrino
D. None

71. In which of the following Total internal reflection takes place:

A. Lens
B. Telescope
C. Optical Fiber
D. Sonometer

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72. The colour of black body is dependent on:
A. Term points
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. None of these

73. A ball is thrown vertically upward at certain velocity, as it approaches to its

highest point, its velocity will be:
A. Highest
B. Smallest
C. Zero
D. None

74. Momentum can be given as:

A. Nm
B. Ns
C. N/s2
D. m/N

75. Two bodies are moving towards each other from opposite directions with
speed v. What is the magnitude of their relative velocity?
A. V
B. 2V
C. V/2
D. 4V

76. The power of a car is 10W. What is the energy consumed by the car in 5
minutes?
A. 350J
B. 1440J
C. 3000J
D. 3600J

77. Crest and trough are produce in:

A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse Wave
C. EM wave
D. Both b and c

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78. The cross product of a vector with its self is:
A. 1
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. None

79. Speed of sound in vaccum is:

A. 1.1  10-3m/s
B. 340m/s
C. 9.0m/s
D. Zero

80. At a height equals to the radius of earth, value of ‘g’ at it will be:
A. g
B. g/2
C. g/4
D. zero

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 Section V (Science Reasoning)
Note: 20 Mcqs

81. An _______ involves introducing a change to the treatment group, whereas in

an ________, the treatment group is based on current behavior.
A. experiment; observational study
B. observational study; experiment
C. observational study; observational study
D. experiment; experiment

82. A urologist is a doctor who specializes in disorders of the urinary system.

Which of the following patients is most likely to be treated by a urologist?
A. a patient with low levels of iron in her blood
B. a patient with a painful kidney stone
C. a patient with swollen veins in the anus, called hemorrhoids
D. a patient with chronic indigestion

Genetically modified crops and livestock offer the possibility of greater yield
and food quality, reductions in pesticide use, and higher profits for agricultural
businesses. They are viewed by some as a way to help reduce world hunger by
increasing food production and reducing losses to pests and varying
environmental conditions. Each year, industrial agriculture relies more heavily
on genetically modified crops. There are some concerns about our increasing
use of genetically modified crops and livestock, including their safety for
human consumption and their effects on the environment.

83. Based on the passage above, if genetically modified crops were to be banned,
what could be the largest negative impact to humans?
A. Introduction of new allergens into the food supply
B. Loss of genetic diversity in food crops
C. Decreases in food production worldwide
D. Increase in the amount of beneficial insects

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 Battery companies make impressive claims about how long their batteries will
last. A student decided to test the running time of different batteries to
determine which battery lasts the longest. The student tested 6 different
batteries, 4 brand name and 2 generic, using flashlights. The results show that
the battery referred to as Name Brand A lasted the longest, with 101 hours of
runtime:

84. It could be argued that this experiment was not set up using proper
experimental protocol. What would need to change in the experiment for the
results to be valid?

A. The batteries should have all been either name brand or generic
B. Only two groups should have been tested at a time
C. The same battery should have been used in each flashlight
D. The same flashlight should have been used to test each battery

85. One of the parents has brown eyes and carries the recessive gene for
green eyes (a). What is the probability that a biological child of these parents
will have brown eyes?

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

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86. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is correct?
A. When 6 molecules of carbon dioxide are used, 1 molecule of
oxygen is produced
B. When 1 molecule of water is used, 1 molecule of glucose is
produced
C. When 6 molecules of water are used, 1 molecule of glucose is
produced
D. When 1 molecule of glucose is produced, 12 molecules of
oxygen are used

Wavelengths are measured in nanometers (nm). Each color on the visible

spectrum has a different wavelength. The human eye is only able to
distinguish wavelengths between 400-750 nm. The approximate wavelengths
of the visible spectrum are shown below:

87. If you were reading a scientific report, and it referred to a wavelength of 455
nm, which color would it be referring to?
A. Violet
B. Ultraviolet
C. Blue
D. Green

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88. What is the median of number of hurricanes per decade?
A. 15.29
B. 15.5
C. 15
D. 17
89. What is the mode of this data set?
A. 15
B. 11
C. 16
D. 17
90.What is the range of this data set?
A. 15
B. 11
C. 20
D. 9

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 In an ecosystem, producers convert the sun’s energy into a usable
source for other organisms. Primary consumers eat the producers, secondary
consumers eat primary consumers, and tertiary consumers eat secondary
consumers. Some organisms eat more than one type of organism in the food
web. Look at the food web below. Notice that the lion is both a scavenger
and a secondary consumer. Thus, they may fill more than one role in the
ecosystem.

91. Which of the following organisms fill more than one role in this ecosystem?
A. Giraffe
B. Hyena
C. Cheetah
D. Dung-rolling beetle

92. If additional cheetahs were introduced into this ecosystem, shortly thereafter
we would expect a decrease in the:
A. lion population
B. hyena population
C. dung-rolling beetle population
D. Hare population

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As part of a chemistry experiment, 1025 milliliters of water is mixed into a
beaker that contains 175 milliliters of motor oil.

93. After adding the water, how many liters of liquid are in the beaker?
A. 1200
B. 1,200,000
C. 1.2
D. 12

94. When a cell reproduces through cell division, scientists call the reproducing
cell the parent cell, and the two cells that result from the division are called
daughter cells. The daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent
cells. Before a parent cell starts to divide, the DNA in its nucleus replicates,
or makes a complete copy of itself.
Why is this process necessary?
A. so that the parent cell will have an extra copy of DNA
B. so that each daughter cell receives a complete set of DNA
C. so that each daughter cell will not need to synthesize proteins
D. so that each daughter cell will receive half its DNA from each parent cell

95.Which of the following is implied by the fact that seafloor spreading at the
Mid-Atlantic Ridge is causing the Atlantic Ocean to widen by about 5
centimeters a year?
A. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is thousands of miles long.
B. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is the largest underwater structure in the Atlantic
Ocean.
C. The continents of North America and Europe are moving apart.
D. The continents of North America and Europe are growing larger at the
Mid-Atlantic Ridge.

96. Pluto has a diameter of just 1,438 miles. It is made mostly of ice and
frozen rock. It is very small and has an irregular orbit. It was originally
classified as the ninth planet from the Sun, but it has been recategorized as a
dwarf planet within the Kuiper belt.
Which of the following is not a factual detail about Pluto?
A. Pluto has a diameter of 1,438 miles.
B. Pluto is made mostly of ice and frozen rock.
C. Pluto has an irregular orbit.
D. Pluto should be classified as a dwarf planet.

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97. Objects are attracted to one another by the force of gravity. Gravity is
proportional to the mass—the amount of matter—objects have; gravity
decreases as the distance between the objects increases. An object’s weight
is a measurement of the Earth’s gravitational pull on the object.
What happens to the mass and weight of a rocket as it travels beyond Earth’s
orbit?
A. Its mass remains the same, and its weight increases.
B. Its mass remains the same, and its weight decreases.
C. Its mass decreases, and its weight decreases.
D. Its mass increases, and its weight remains the same.

98.If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that

code?

A. DEQJQM
B. DCQHQK
C. EDRIRL
D. ESJFME
E. Not possible to determine

99. You run an experiment to test which brand of food your dog prefers. You
offer her three different brands of food at each meal, presenting them all at
the same time (so that she does not just prefer the one that comes first!).
Three weeks of data collection indicate that she ate Brand C more often than
Brand A or Brand B. What can you conclude from these results?
A. Your dog preferred Brand C but you do not know why
B. Brand B was her second favorite food
C. Brand C is the healthiest food
D. Brand B and Brand A taste bad
E. Brand C is the cheapest food

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100. “The World Health Organisation has recorded 184 human cases of the
H5N1 strain of bird flu, all of them caused by contact with infected birds.
That 103 of these have resulted in death indicates how dangerous this
virus is, and no vaccine has yet been developed. For there to be a
worldwide epidemic of H5N1 amongst humans, it would have to be
possible for the virus to be passed easily from one person to another.
Unlike normal influenza, H5N1 can only bind to receptors deep in the
lungs. As a result, it cannot multiply in the upper respiratory system and
thereby be transmitted by sneezing and coughing. So it cannot be
transmitted easily between people. Influenza viruses can mutate, and thus
possibly change the way in which they infect victims.” Which of the
following can be drawn as a conclusion from the passage above?
A. Unless a vaccine is developed, many more people will catch the H5N1
strain of bird flu.
B. If H5N1 mutates, there is likely to be a worldwide epidemic amongst
humans of this strain of bird flu.
C. Unless H5N1 mutates, a worldwide epidemic amongst humans of this
strain of bird flu is unlikely.
D. If a person has no contact with birds they are unlikely ever to catch the
H5N1 strain of bird flu.
E. None of the above.

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Please Use This Page for Rough Work

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