1.

The average duration of the menstrual cycle is:

A. 22 days
B. 25 days
C.28 days +
D. 35 days
E. 38days

2. Ovulation time is determined by:

A. estrogen level peak
B. FSG level peak
C. LG level peak +
D. preovulatory increase in progesterone level

1. Which cells synthesize estrogens?

A. Neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus
B. theca interna cells
C. Gonadotropic cells of the adenohypophysis
D. Follicular cells +
2. Hormone that promotes pregnancy is:
A. XGH
B. Progesteron +
C. Estriol
F.Prolaqtin

3. Laboratory diagnosis of pregnancy is based on

the detection of the following hormone in the
blood or urine:
A. XGH +
B. Progesteron
C. Estriol
F.Prolaqtin

4. All of the symptoms and signs are observed at

12 weeks of pregnancy except:
A.Chadwick's symptom
B.perception of fetal movement by mother +
C.Ultrasound detected fetal heartbeat
D.Amenorrhea
E.Hegar's symptom
 5. In order to determine the estimated deliver day
the Nagele rule is based on the following ,
except:
A. Menstrual cycles are regular
B.The duration of pregnancy is 280 days
C.Ovulation occurs on the 14th day of the cycle
Before pregnancy,
D.the patient used oral contraceptives +
E.Conception occurred in the middle of the cycle

8.A woman with a history of 1 induced abortion in 1

trimester, 1 ectopic pregnancy and 1 delivery is:
A.Nullipara
B.Primapara +
C.Multipara

9. A woman with a history of 2 induced abortion in 1

trimester, spontaneus miscarrige at 22 weeks and 1
cesarean section with a live full-term fetus is:
A.Nullipara
B.Primapara +
C.Multipara

10. 400 mcg of folic acid is given to a woman before

conception and up to 13 weeks of pregnancy to prevent
further conditions:
A.preeclampsia
B.Fetal growth retardation
C.Down's syndrome
D. a neural tube defect ( anencephaly or spina bifida).+

11. The recommended folic acid doze is:

A. 600MKGR
B. 200mkgr
C. 400mkgr +

12. Folic acid is recommended to be given to the

patient:
A. 6 weeks before conception and up to 13 weeks of
pregnancy +
B.From 5 weeks to 13 weeks of pregnancy
C.throughout pregnancy

13. LEOPOLD’S MANOUEVRE Done by:

A. four obstetric grips +
B. Two obstetric grips
C. Tree obstetric grips

14. By first grip of LEOPOLD’S MANOUEVRE assess

A. fetal pole +
B. fetal lie
C. presenting part
D. engagement and attitude of fetal head.

15. By second grip of LEOPOLD’S MANOUEVRE assess

A. fetal pole
B. fetal lie +
C. presenting part
D. engagement and attitude of fetal head.
16. By third grip of LEOPOLD’S MANOUEVRE assess
A. fetal pole
B. fetal lie
C. presenting part +
D. engagement and attitude of fetal head.

17. By fourth grip of LEOPOLD’S MANOUEVRE assess

A. fetal pole
B. fetal lie
C. presenting part
D. engagement and attitude of fetal head. +

18. During childbirth, the fetus performs sequential

movements. Which movements are correct among the
listed below:
A. Internal rotation of the fetal head,
Crowning, Flexion and descent
B. Extension, External rotation of the fetal head , flexion
of the body
C. Restitution, Internal rotation of the shoulders, Lateral
flexion of the body
D. Flexion and descent, Internal rotation of the fetal head,
 Crowning, Extension, Restitution, Internal rotation of the
shoulders, External rotation of the fetal head, Lateral
flexion of the body+

19. An episiotomy is recommended to prevent the

following conditions:
A. Poor healing of the gap
B.Injury of the muscles of the perineum +
C.Development of cystocele and rectocele

20. A 40-year-old woman pregnant at 6 weeks

gestation presents to your office for prenatal care.
She is interested in prenatal testing for genetic
abnormalities. Which of the following is correct
information to tell your patient regarding ultrasound
measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency for
prenatal diagnosis?
A. It is a simple way to screen for Turner syndrome.
B. It can be performed by anyone trained in basic
fetal ultrasonography.
C. It should be offered only to pregnant women less
than 35 years.
D. It can be performed at any gestational age.
E. It is a screening test for Down syndrome
performed between 11 and 13 weeks of pregnancy+

21. A patient comes to your office with her last

menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She denies any
symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary
frequency, or breast tenderness. She has not had her
period yet. Which of the following actions is most
appropriate at this time?
A. No action is needed because the patient is
asymptomatic.
B. Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test. +
C. Listen for fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment.
D. Perform an abdominal ultrasound.
E. Perform a bimanual pelvic examination to assess
uterine size.

22. A patient presents for her first visit after having

a positive home pregnancy test. She reports her last
menstrual period was about 8 weeks ago. Her urine
pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is
the most accurate way to date this patient’s
pregnancy?
A. Determination of uterine size on pelvic
examination
B. Quantitative serum human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG) level
C. Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal
ultrasound +

23. A healthy 26-year-old G1P0 presents for her first

visit at 10 weeks’ gestation. She has no significant
personal or family medical history. When should
she have her screening test for gestational diabetes?
A. She should do this test at her first prenatal visit.
B. She is at low risk, and therefore does not need to
be screened for gestational diabetes.
C. She should be tested now, and again at 28 weeks.
D. The only screening test she needs is a HbA1c.
E. She should be screened between 24 and 28
weeks’ gestation. +

24. A healthy 31-year-old G3P2002 patient presents

at 34 weeks for a routine visit. She has had an
uneventful pregnancy to date. She has gained a total
of 12kg so far. During the visit, the patient
complains of swelling in both her feet and ankles .
Her urine dip indicates trace protein, and her blood
pressure is currently 115/75 mm Hg. She has no
other symptoms or complaints. On physical
examination, there is pitting edema of both her feet
and ankles extending to the lower one-half of her
legs. Which of the following is the most appropriate
response to the patient’s concern?
A. Prescribe furosemide to relieve the painful
swelling.
B. Send the patient to the radiology department to
have venous Doppler studies done to rule out deep
vein thromboses.
C. Admit the patient to labor and delivery to rule out
preeclampsia.
D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding
of pregnancy and no treatment is needed. +
25. A healthy 23-year-old G1P0 has had an
uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is
disappointed because she is 40 weeks by a first-
trimester ultrasound. The patient reports good fetal
movement and no contractions. She has been doing
kick counts for the past several days, and reports that
the baby moves at least ten times in 2 hours. On
physical examination, her cervix is firm, posterior,
50% effaced, and 1-cm dilated, and the vertex is at
a-1 station. Which of the following should you
recommend to the patient as the best next step in
management?
A. She should be admitted for an immediate
cesarean delivery.
B. She should be admitted for Pitocin induction.
C. She should continue to monitor kick counts and
to return to your office in 1 week to reassess her
situation. +
26. . A healthy 30-year-old P10G1 at 24 weeks’
gestation presents for a routine OB visit. She has no
medical problems, and her pregnancy has been
uncomplicated. She requests that you perform an
ultrasound at every visit to provide her reassurance
that the pregnancy is progressing normally. How
should you counsel her regarding the safety of
ultrasound during pregnancy?
A. Tell her that ultrasound is completely safe, and
agree to perform one at every visit in order to
provide her with reassurance.
B. Tell her that ultrasound is completely safe, but
you do not have time to perform one at every visit.
C. Tell her that having multiple ultrasounds has been
associated with adverse fetal effect. Counsel her
that prenatal ultrasound should only be used when
clinically indicated, for the shortest amount of time,
and with the lowest level of acoustic energy
compatible with an accurate diagnosis in order to
maximize safety. +
27. An 18-year-old G2P1 presents for her first visit
at 10 weeks. She reports that the first day of her last
menstrual period was May 7. What is this patient’s
estimated date of delivery?
A. February 10 of the next year
B. February 14 of the next year +
C. December 10 of the same year
D. December 14 of the same year
E. December 21 of the same year

28. A 29-year-old P0 at 41 weeks’ gestation presents

in labor. At the time of delivery, a shoulder dystocia
is encountered. An episiotomy is cut to assist with
dystocia maneuvers. Compared with a midline
episiotomy, which of the following is an advantage
of mediolateral episiotomy?
A. Ease of repair
B. Fewer breakdowns
C. Less blood loss
D. Lower incidence of dyspareunia
E. Less chance of extension of the incision+
29. A 23-year-old G1 at 39 weeks’ gestation presents
to triage with a chief complaint of uterine
contractions. They began 2 hours ago, are painful,
and occur every 4 to 8 minutes. She reports good
fetal movement, and no bleeding or leaking fluid.
The external tocometer shows contractions every 5
to 15 minutes. The fetal monitor shows a category 1
tracing. On examination, her cervix is 1-cm dilated,
60% effaced, and the fetal vertex is at -1 station.
What is the most appropriate next step in
management?
A. Send her home +
B. Admit her for an epidural for pain control
C. Perform an amniotomy
D. Administer terbutaline
E. Augment her labor with Pitocin

30. A 38-year-old G3P2 at 40 weeks’ gestation

presents to labor and delivery with rupture of
membranes occurring 1 hour prior to arrival. The
patient is having contraction every 3 to 4 minutes on
the external tocometer, and each contraction lasts 60
seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per
minute with accelerations and no decelerations. On
cervical examination she is 5-cm dilated and
completely effaced, with the vertex at -1station. The
estimated fetal weight is 3300 g. What is your
diagnosis?
A. passive phase of first stage of labour
B. active phase of first stage of labour +
C. second stage of labour
D. premonitory signs of labour

31. A 28-year-old G1 at 38 weeks had a normal

progression of her labor. She has been pushing for 2
hours. On cervical examination she is fully
dilated ,the fetal head is direct occiput anterior at +3
station. The fetal heart rate tracing is 150 beats per
minute with no decelerations. What is your
diagnosis?
A. passive phase of first stage of labour
B. active phase of first stage of labour
C. second stage of labour +
D. premonitory signs of labour
32. A 20-year-old G1 at 41 weeks has been pushing
for 2½ hours. The fetal head is at the introitus and
beginning to crown. It is necessary to cut an
episiotomy. The tear extends through the sphincter
of the rectum, but the rectal mucosa is intact. How
should you classify this type of episiotomy?
A. First-degree
B. Second-degree
C. Third-degree +
D. Fourth-degree
E. Mediolateral episiotomy

33. The patient asks you about the pros and cons of
breastfeeding. Which of the following is an accurate
statement regarding breastfeeding?
A. Breastfeeding decreases the time to return of
normal menstrual cycles.
B. Breastfeeding is associated with a decreased
incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.+
C. Breastfeeding is a poor source of nutrients for
required infant growth.
D. Breastfeeding is associated with an increased
incidence of childhood obesity.
34. . A 40-year-old G4P3 at 39 weeks’ gestation has
progressed rapidly in labor with a reassuring fetal
heart rate pattern. She has had an uncomplicated
pregnancy. The patient begins the second stage of
labor, and after 15 minutes of pushing she gave
birth. Newborn baby lets out a strong spontaneous
cry . The infant is pink with slightly blue extremities
that are actively moving and kicking. The heart rate
is noted to be 110 beats per minute on auscultation.
What Apgar score should the pediatricians assign to
this baby at 1 minute of life?
A. 10
B. 9 +
C. 8
D. 7
E. 6

35. Which of the following statements are true of the

menstrual cycle?
A.Oestradiol causes the endometrial glands to secrete
glycogen
B.The endometrium is shed because the spiral arteriores
lose their elasticity and stert to bleed
C.The luteal phase lasts for a fixed duration of 12-14 days
+
36. A 35-year-old G2P2 presents for her routine
postpartum visit. Her pregnancy was complicated by
gestational diabetes, which was diagnosed in the second
trimester during routine screening. She has no other
medical problems, and she has no family history of
diabetes. She asks whether she is at an increased risk for
diabetes later in life. How should you counsel her?
A. She is not at an increased risk for development of
diabetes.
B. She has an increased risk of type 1 diabetes later in
life.
C. She has an increased risk of type 2 diabetes later in
life. +
D. If she loses all of the weight she gained during her
pregnancy, she will not be at an increased risk for
development of diabetes later in life.
E. She has an increased risk of diabetes only if she has a
family history of diabetes in a first degree relative.

37.The uterus is the hollow muscle walled organ in direct

communication with the
A. perineum
B. labia minora
C.Fallopian tubes and tha vagina+
D. bowel
38.I nferior to the uterine artery lies the
A. external iliac artery
B.Ureter +
C. internal iliac artery
D.arteria femoralis

39.The ligaments that support the uterus include the

A. Ligamentum latum
B. Ligamentum ovarii propria
C. Transverse cervical and uterosacral ligaments+

40 Which of the following statements are true of the

menstrual cycle?
A.The granulosa cells secrete androstendion
B.The granulosa cells become luteal cells following the
release of the oocyte+
C.The ovary contains around 50 000 oocytes at
menarche
D.Luteal cells secrete progesterone alone

41.In pregnancy the maternal cardiac output increases

principally because of greater
A.red cell volume
B. Plasma volume
C.stroce volume +

42.Haemoglobin concentracions decreases because of an

increased
A.red cell volume
B. plasma volume +
C.stroke volume

43. Haemoglobin concentracions decreases because of an

increased plasma volume despite an increased
A. plasma volume
B. stroke volume
C. Red cell mass +

44.The uterus grows by

A. hypertrophy with a blood flow at term +
B.mitoses
C.hypertrophy
D.Hyperplasy
45. Which of the following statements are true
A. Fetal haemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissotiation curve
to the right of that for haemoglobis A
B.In fetal life oxygenated blood from the umbilical
arteries flows directly to the left side of the heart
C.During fetal life the lungs are filled with amniotic
fluid+

46.The functions of the placenta include which of the

following
A.Transfer of oxygen from the mother to the fetus
B.Transfer of urea from the mother to the fetus
C.transfer of nutrients from the fetus to the mother

47. The smallest diameters of the fetal scull include which

of the following?
A.mentovertrical
B.suboccipito bregmatic +
C.occiptofrontal
48. The bigest diameters of the fetal scull include which
of the following?
A.mentovertrical+
B.submentibregmatic
C.biparietal
D.occiptofrontal

49. Which of the following investigations are performed

at the first antenatal visit
A.Toxoplasmosis
B.Hepatitis A
C.CytomegalovirusSyphili
D.Siphilis+

50.Which of the following are used as indicators of fetal

well-being beyond 24 weeks of pregnancy?
A.liquor volume+
B.fetal lie
C.fetal presentation
D.uterine artery dopplers

51.Awoman presents at 12 weeks of pregnancy.She has

had two livebirths at term, delivered a live baby at 21
weeks who died within a few minutes of birth, one
pregnancy loss at 8 weeks and an intrauterine death at 25
weeks. Wich one of the following correctly expresses her
gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 6 Para 4
B. Gravida 6 Para 3 +
C. Gravida 6 Para 5
D. Gravida 6 Para 1
E. Gravida 6 Para 2

52.Polihydramnios is associated with which of the

following?
A. gestational diabetes
B. fetal renal agenesis
C.preeclampsia
D.obstetric cholestasis

53.Gestational diabetes is associated with an increased

risk for the fetus of:
A. unexplained stillbirth beyond 40 weeks of pregnancy+
B.hyperglycaemia following birth
C.placental abruption
D.congenital abnormality
54.Common causes of anemia in pregnancy include
A.vitamin B6 deficiency
B. vitamin K deficiency
C. Iron deficiency +
D. vitamin B12 deficiency

55.Put the following sentences into the correct order to

describe the passage of the fetus through the birth canal.
A.The fetal head engages in a pelvic inlet
B. The fetal head extends round the symphysis pubis +
C. The fetal head flrxes round the symphysis pubis
D. The fetal head restistudes at the pelvic inlet

56.In normal labour which of the following statements are

true?
A.Uterine contractions are generated in the lower segment
of the uterus
B.The rate of cervical dilation should 1 cm/hour +
C.The fetal heart should be checed every one hour in the
first stage of labour
D.the second stage of labour should not exceed 1 hours in
duration in a woman with an epidural.
57.In normal labour which of the following statements are
true?
A.Uterine contractions are generated in the fundus of the
uterus and pass down +
B.The rate of cervical dilation should 3 cm/hour
C.The fetal heart should be checed every one hour in the
first stage of labour
D.the second stage of labour should not exceed 1 hours in
duration in a woman with an epidural.

58.In normal labour which of the following statements are

true?
A. Uterine contractions are generated in the lower
segment of the uterus
B.The rate of cervical dilation should be 3 cm/hour
C.The fetal heart should be checed every 30 min in the
first stage of labour+
D.the second stage of labour should not exceed 1 hours in
duration in a woman with an epidural.

59.A woman in a her first pregnancy is admitted in

spontaneous labour at 39 weeks.On examination the
presentation is cephalic 2/5 palpable. The cervix is 1 cm
long and firm, 1 cm dilated posterior to the head and the
head is 2 cm above the spines .Which of the following
statements are true?
A.She is on the active phase of the first stage of labour
B.Her bishop’s score is <4 +
C.She is in the active phase of the second stage of labour
D. Her bishop’s score is >4

60. A woman in a her first pregnancy is admitted in

spontaneous labour at 39 weeks.On examination the
presentation is cephalic 2/5 palpable. The cervix is 1 cm
long and firm, icm dilated posterior to the head and the
head is 2 cm above the spines .Which of the following
statements are true?
A.She is on the active phase of the first stage of labour
B.Her bishop’s score is 8
C.She is in the latent phase of the first stage of labour +
D. Her bishop’s score is >4
61. A woman in a her first pregnancy is admitted in
spontaneous labour at 39 weeks.On examination the
presentation is cephalic 2/5 palpable. The cervix is 1 cm
long and firm, icm dilated posterior to the head and the
head is 2 cm above the spines .Which of the following
statements are true?
A.She is on the active phase of the second stage of labour
B.Her bishop’s score is 8
C.She is in the latent phase of the second stage of labour
D. Her bishop’s score is >4
E. She should be encouraged to mobilize re-examined in 4
hours time +

62.Which of the following presenting positions can be

delivered spontaneously vaginally?
A.Brow presentation
B. Occipitotransverse
C. Occipitipoanterior+
63.hCG produced by:
1. syncytiotrophoblast+
2.PLACENTA
3.AMNIOTic fluid
4.FETUS

64 Gravida is the:
1.total number of pregnancies+
2.TOTAL NUMBER OF CHILDREN
3.number of live births at any gestation
4. number of live births at any gestation or
stillbirths after 24 weeks

65. Parity is the:

1. total number of pregnancies
2.TOTAL NUMBER OF CHILDREN
3.number of live births at any gestation
4. number of live births at any gestation or
stillbirths after 24 weeks+
 66. External Female Structures are following
1. Mons Pubis , Labia Majora, Labia Minora ,
Clitoris , Vestibule , fallopian tubes
2. Mons Pubis , Labia Majora, Labia Minora ,
Clitoris , Vestibule , Perineum +
3. Mons Pubis , Labia Majora, Labia Minora ,
vagina , Vestibule , Perineum
4. anus , Labia Majora, cervix , hymen ,
Vestibule , Perineum

67. Internal Female Structures:

1.Uterus, Fallopian tubes, Clitoris, vagina
2. Vagina, Uterus, Fallopian tubes, Ovaries+
3.Vagina, anus, corpus uterus, ovaries
4. Uterus, perineum, Fallopian tubes, anus,
Ovaries

68. Elements of the Apgar score are

A. Heart rate, respiratory affort, muscle tone, reflex
irritability, colour+
B. Heart rate, respiratory affort, reflex irritability, colour
C. Heart rate, respiratory affort, muscle tone, colour
D. Heart rate, respiratory affort, muscle tone, reflex
irritability

69.A baby is born in the following condition at 1 minute:

she is pink with a heart rate of 120 bpm , she is not
moving or crying and has taken a few irregular gasps, her
limbs are flaccid but she is moving her fascial muscles.
What is her apgar score?
A.9
B.8
C.7
D.6+
E.5

70.The advantages of breastfeeding are:

A.Designed for babies, contains right balance of
nutrients,contains immunoglobulins, reduces infections in
the baby, cheap and always available on demand, no
bottles to make up or heat up, no sterilizing kit needed+
B. Designed for babies, contains right balance of
nutrients, does not contain immunoglobulins, reduces
infections in the baby, cheap and always available on
demand, no bottles to make up or heat up, no sterilizing
kit needed
C. Designed for babies, contains right balance of
nutrients,contains immunoglobulins, increases infections
in the baby, cheap and always available on demand, no
bottles to make up or heat up, no sterilizing kit needed

71. Arteria Uterina is a branch of:

1.Aorta
2.Atreria iliaca externa
3.Arteria illiaca interna +
4. Renal Artery

72. Arteria ovarica is a branch of:

1.Aorta +
2.Arteria illiaca interna
3.Atreria iliaca externa
4. Arteria femoralis

73. Parts of uterus are following:

1. Ampula, infundibulum, corpus
2. Fimbrie, istmus, cervix
3. Body, Isthmus, Cervix, hymen
4. istmus, corpus, cervix +
74. The granulosa cells of the preantral follicle
synthesizes:
1. Cortizol, prolactin, estrogens
2. Progestins, plasminogen, plasmin
3. Estrogens, androgens, progestins +
4. Cortizol, prolactin, estrogens,
Progestins, plasminogen

75. Phisiological changes in maternal blood

circulation are following:
1. Haemodilution, normal hemoglobin,
hypercoagulation
2. Haemoconcentration, anemia,
hypercoagulation
3. Haemoconcentration, normal hemoglobin,
hypocoagulation
4. Haemodilution, anemia,
hypercoagulation +
76. Puerperium is a:
A. period before labour
B. period following completion of the third stage of
labour, lasts 6 weeks
C. period following completion of the third stage of
labour, lasts 10 weeks
D. period following completion of the sekond stage
of labour

77. Which of the following statements are true?

A. Lochia is the blood-stained uterine discharge
comprised of blood and necrotic decidua. All layer
of decidua becomes necrotic.
B. Lochia is the blood-stained uterine discharge
comprised of blood and necrotic decidua. Only the
superficial layer is involved in the regeneration of
new endometrium.
C. Lochia is the blood-stained uterine discharge
comprised of blood and necrotic decidua. Only the
superficial layer of decidua becomes necrotic.The
basal layer is involved in the regeneration of new
endometrium . +

78. Which of the following statements are true?

A. During the first few days after delivery, the lochia
is pink; this changes to red , and then becomes
serous by the second week.
B. During the first few days after delivery, the lochia
is red; this changes to pink , and then becomes
serous . +
C. During the first few days after delivery, the lochia
is serous; this changes to pink , and then becomes
red.

79. In order to minimize the risk of overdistension

of the bladder in women undergoing a Caesarean
section under regional anaesthesia, a urinary
catheter may be left in the bladder for the :
A.First 48 hours
B. first 12–24 hours.+
C. first 3 days

80. Possibly causes of constipation during

puerprerum are following:
A. an interruption in the normal diet , dehydration
during labour, due to pain from a sutured
perineum or anal fissures.+
B. because of high concentracion of progesteron
C. because of high concentracion of prolactin

81. Normal hemoglobin level in first trimester is:

A.105 mmHg
B.110 mmHg +
C.120 mmHg
D.100mmHg

82. Laboratory diagnosis of pregnancy is founded

on presence in plasma and urine :
 A.of LG
B.of TSH
C.of hCG +
D.of FSH

83. Last menstrual period 10 september. Estimated

day delivery:
A.3 June
B.17 June+
C.17 July
D.3 July

84. Positive signs of pregnancy:

A.nausea +/- vomiting, disturbances in

urination, fatigue
 B. cessation of menses, changes in the breast ,
changes in the cervical mucus, discoloration of the
vaginal mucosa, increased skin pigmentation and
development of abdominal striae, changes in the
cervical mucus.
C.Identification of fetal heart activity separately

and distinctly (from mother), Perception of fetal

movements by the examiner, Recognition of the

embryo / the fetus throughout imagistic methods

(ultrasound)+

85 A woman at 14 weeks in this pregnancy, had 2

birth at term, 2 stilibirt at 26 and 23 weeks is:
A. gravida 5 parity 1
B. gravida 3 parity 2
C.gravida 4 parity 2
D.gravida 5 parity 3+
86. Colostrum is :
A. a yellowish fluid secreted by the breast +
B. the blood-stained uterine discharge comprised
of blood and necrotic decidua
C.secret of the uretine wound

87. Prolactin is produced from the

A. anterior pituitary gland+
B.posterior pituitary gland
C.ovary
D.thyroid

88. oxytocin is produced from the

A. anterior pituitary gland
 B.posterior pituitary gland+
C.ovary
D.thyroid

89. Which of the following statements are true?

A. early suckling appears to be beneficial.
Babies should be fed on demand and left on
the breast until feeding finishes spontaneously.+
B. Supplementary feeds of formula, glucose or
water appears to be beneficial
C. Test-weighing infants before and after a feed to
establish the ideal quantity of milk intake is a good
practice
D. newborn babyes must by feeded every 3 hour

90. The steps of the essential newborn

care that Should be routinely performed
first are:
A. Immediate drying, skin-to-skin contact
 Clamping of the cord after one to three
minutes or until pulsations have stopped
Non-separation of the newborn from the
mother
Breastfeeding initiation.+
B. Immediate drying, skin-to-skin contact
Clamping of the cord immediate after birth
Non-separation of the newborn from the
mother
Breastfeeding initiation.

C. Immediate drying, skin-to-skin contact

Clamping of the cord after one to three
minutes or until pulsations have stopped
separation of the newborn from the mother
weighing

91. The steps of the essential newborn

care that should only be done after the
first full
breastfeed.
A. Immunizations, Eye care, Vitamin K
administration and weighing, Washing .+

B. skin-to-skin contact
Clamping of the cord
separation of the newborn from the mother

C. weighing, Washing skin-to-skin

contact

92. What is normal labour ?

A.Ons et of r egul ar pai nl es s cont r act i ons
wi t h pr ogr es s i ve cer vi cal ef f acement and
di l at at i on of t he cer vi x wi t hout
des cendi ng of t he pr es ent i ng par t .
B. Ons et of r egul ar pai nf ul cont r act i ons
wi t h pr ogr es s i ve cer vi cal ef f acement and
di l at at i on of t he cer vi x accompani ed by
des cent of t he pr es ent i ng par t .+
C. Ons et of i r r egul ar pai nf ul cont r act i ons
wi t hout pr ogr es s i ve cer vi cal ef f acement
and des cendi ng of t he pr es ent i ng par t .
 93. Cr i t er i a of nor mal l abour ar e
f ol l owi ng:
A.Spontaneous expulsion of a single mature fetus
presented by vertex,through the birth canal within
a reasonable time without complications to the
mother or the fetus+
B. Spontaneous expulsion of a single premature
fetus presented by vertex,through the birth canal
within a reasonable time without complications to
the mother or the fetus
C. Spontaneous expulsion of a single premature
fetus presented by breech,through the birth canal
within a reasonable time without complications to
the mother or the fetus

94. Which of the following statements are true

A. The sagittal suture lies between the parietal bones. It runs in
an anteroposterior direction between the anterior and posterior
fontanelles+
B. The sagittal suture uniting the parietal bones to the frontal
bones. It’s extend transversely from the anterior fontanels and
lies between the parietal and frontal bone.
C. The sagittal suture lies between the parietal and occiptal
bones.
D. The sagittal suture lies between the two frontal bones. It is an
anterior continuation of the sagittal suture.

95. Which of the following statements are true

A. Coronal suture lies between the parietal bones. It runs in an
anteroposterior direction between the anterior and posterior
fontanelles
B. Coronal suture uniting the parietal bones to the frontal bones.
It’s extend transversely from the anterior fontanels and lies
between the parietal and frontal bone.+
C. The Coronal suture lies between the parietal and occiptal
bones.
D. The Coronal suture lies between the two frontal bones. It is
an anterior continuation of the sagittal suture.

96. Which of the following statements are true

A. Frontal suture lies between the parietal bones. It runs in an
anteroposterior direction between the anterior and posterior
fontanelles
B. Frontal suture uniting the parietal bones to the frontal bones.
It’s extend transversely from the anterior fontanels and lies
between the parietal and frontal bone.
C. Frontal suture lies between the parietal and occiptal bones.
D. Frontal suture lies between the two frontal bones. It is an
anterior continuation of the sagittal suture+

97. Which of the following statements are true

A. Lambdoidal suture lies between the parietal bones. It runs
in an anteroposterior direction between the anterior and posterior
fontanelles
B. Lambdoidal suture uniting the parietal bones to the frontal
bones. It’s extend transversely from the anterior fontanels and
lies between the parietal and frontal bone.
C. Lambdoidal suture lies between the parietal and occiptal
bones.+
D. Lambdoidal suture lies between the two frontal bones. It is
an anterior continuation of the sagittal suture

98. What is the moulding?

A. The moulding refers to the sequencing of
events related to posturing and positioning that
allows the baby to find the “easiest way out.
B. is the ability of the fetal head to change its
shape and so to adapt itself to the unyielding
maternal pelvis during the progress of labour.+
C. defined as having occurred once the widest
transverse diameter of the fetal head has passed
through the pelvic inlet into the true pelvis.

99.What happen during the first stage of

labour
A.mother’s desire to bear down,
distension of perineum, dilatation of the
anus
B.separation and expulsion of the
placenta
C.contractions of uterine muscles,
cervical dilatation and effacement,
engagement of the presenting part+

100.What happen during the second

stage of labour
A.mother’s desire to bear down,
distension of perineum, dilatation of the
anus+
B.separation and expulsion of the
placenta
C.contractions of uterine muscles,
cervical dilatation and effacement,
engagement of the presenting part