1.
Following apicectomy the prognosis of all teeth should be similar once a
satisfactory apical seal has been achieved. However, multiplicity and
complexity of root canals combined with the structure of the surrounding
bone of the posterior teeth make surgical endodontics more successful.
a. First statement is true, second is false.
b. First statement is false, second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
2. Which of the following is incorrect regarding naso-palatine duct cyst?
a. Also known as Klestadt cyst
b. An intraosseous developmental cyst of the anterior palate
c. Derived from epithelial remnants of the nasopalatine duct
d. Presents as a well circumscribed oval or heart-shaped radiolucency located between
the roots of upper central incisors
e. Surgical enucleation employing a palatal approach is the treatment of choice
3. The main advantage of enucleation is
a. Simple procedure to perform
b. Pathologic examination of the entire cyst can be undertaken
c. It is considered as definitive treatment of the cyst (no additional surgery needed)
d. Sparing of vital structure
e. None of the above
4. Your decision was to do a simple aspiration test for radiolucency in the
area of the jaws, however it was impossible to aspirate; this is a typical
finding in:
a. Solitary bone cyst
b. Maxillary sinus penetration
c. Intraosseous osteoma
d. Stafne bone cyst
e. Aneurysmal bone cyst
5. A typical epileptic attack consists of a defined sequence, which of the
following is the correct one:
a. Loss of consciousness, aura, tonic phase, clonic phase, status epilepticus
b. Aura, loss of consciousness, clonic phase, tonic phase, recovery
c. Tonic phase, aura, clonic phase, loss of consciousness, recovery
d. Aura, loss of consciousness, tonic phase, clonic phase, recovery
e. Tonic phase, loss of consciousness, clonic convulsions, recovery
6. Regarding impacted canines, which of the following is not correct?
a. In the mandible are rarely found lingual to the ridge or in a horizontal position
b. Rarely associated with pericoronitis
c. Should not be surgically removed if they can be moved orthodontically into normal
position
d. Maxillary ones that are surgically removed can be complicated by displacement of the
tooth into the maxillary sinus or pterygoid space
e. None of the above
1
?Regarding dry socket, which of the following is not correct .7
a) Generally accepted overall incidence is 2-4%
b) It is 10 times more common following surgical removal of impacted lower wisdom teeth
c) Locally increased fibrinolytic activity remains the most widely acceptable explanation of
dry socket pathogenesis
d) Treponema denticola can be isolated from dry sockets
e) Resorbable dressing materials include BIPP & Alvogyl®
8. In case of an inhaled tooth fragment, which of the following is not correct?
a. May cause a lung abscess
b. May cause bronchiectasis
c. Usually enters the left bronchus
d. Chest radiograph is almost invariably indicated
e. May need bronchoscopy for identification and removal
9. A root in the maxillary sinus
a. Should be radiographed using head shaking method
b. May be asymptomatic
c. May arrive there by misuse of an elevator
d. May be associated with an oro-antral fistula
e. All of the following statements are correct
10. If several odontogeic keratocysts (OKC) are found, these cysts may
constitute part of
a. Sturge-Weber syndrome
b. Classical cherubism
c. Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
d. Basal cell nevus syndrome
e. None of the above
11. Maximal daily dose of Ibuprofen is
a. 1200 mg
b. 1500 mg
c. 1800 mg
d. 2400 mg
e. 4000 mg
12. Differential diagnosis of dentigerous cyst includes all of the following
except:
a. Unicystic ameloblastoma
b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Hyperplastic follicle
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. None of the above
2
13. Regarding pregnancy risk categories, which of the following is not
correct?
a. Drugs categorized according to their potential risk to the pregnant woman
b. The safest drugs are category A, which have demonstrated no risk in animals and human
studies
c. Category C drugs have demonstrated risk in animal models, but there are no available
human data
d. Category D & X are contraindicated for use by dentist
e. None of the above
14. Side effects of systemic steroid therapy include all of the following except:
a. Increased susceptibility to infections
b. Hypertension
c. Mood change
d. Weight loss
e. Osteoporosis and pathological fractures
15. Regarding analgesics used in dentistry, which of the following statements
is correct?
a. The maximum daily dose of acetoaminophen is 5 gm
b. Oxycodone is less therapeutically potent than hydrocodone
c. Diflunisal is an example of OTC NSAIDs
d. Neither refecoxib nor celecoxib interfere with platelets function
e. Codeine derivatives could be compounded with aspirin but not with paracetamol
16. All of the following are branches of the posterior division of mandibular
division of trigeminal nerve except:
a. Lingual nerve
b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. Long buccal nerve
d. Auriculotemporal nerve
e. Nerve to mylohyoid
17. All of the following are Odontogenic cysts except:
a. Radicular cyst
b. Paradental cyst
c. Keratocyst
d. Gingival cyst
e. Median palatine cyst
18. Which of the following has a high potential to change into ameloblastoma
if untreated or recurred after incomplete removal?
a. Periapical cyst
b. Lateral periodontal cyst
c. Nasopalatine cyst
d. Dentigerous cyst
e. Keratocyst
3
19. All of the following are true about keratocyst except:
a. Derived from remnants of dental lamina
b. It has a high recurrence rate (20% – 60%)
c. Soluble protein content > 4 gm / 100 ml
d. On radiograph, well defined solitary or multilocular radiolucency, exhibiting a thin
corticated margins
e. Usually it has stellate or daughter cells
20. Which of the following statements is / are not correct?
a. In patients on haemodialysis, dental treatment is best carried out on the day of dialysis.
b. For diabetic patients, dental treatment is best carried out just after breakfast & routine
antidiabetic medication to allow patient to have lunch.
c. Von Willebrand`s disease is characterized by a prolonged bleeding time, a prolonged
APTT, and low factor VIII levels.
d. For patients with cardiac conditions that warrant antibiotic prophylaxis for infective
endocarditis, inferior dental nerve block anaesthesia is one of the dental procedures in
which prophylaxis is not recommended
e. All of the above
:All of the following are characteristic of acute pericoronitis except .21
a) Severe intermittent throbbing pain
b) Trismus
c) Dysphagia
d) Paradental cyst formation
e) Lymphadenopathy
A sudden decrease of blood pressure and facial flushing may follow .22
a) Oral administration of Cefuroxime
b) Rapid IV administration of Vancomycin
c) Intra-muscular administration of Metrondizole
d) Rapid IV administration of Augmentin in patient not allergic to penicillin
e) All of the above
23. For medically fit adult patient, what is the maximum number of
anesthetic cartridges (1.8 ml of lidocain with 1/80000 adrenaline) that can be
safely given to him before & during a minor surgical procedure or extraction.
a. 4 cartridges
b. 6 cartridges
c. 8 cartridges
d. 10 cartridges
e. 12 cartridges
24. Blood supply of the tongue is usually derived from:
a. Lingual artery
b. Ascending pharyngeal artery
c. Tonsillar artery
d. a&b
e. a&c
f. All of the above
4
25. In regard to morphine, which of the following is not correct?
a. Is a derivative of opium
b. Constricts the pupils and is therefore contraindicated in head injuries
c. Can be safely given to asthmatics
d. Indicated in the emergency treatment of myocardial infarction
e. None of the above
26. All of the following are true about Ludwig’s angina except:
a. Presents with bilateral submandibular and sublingual swelling
b. Presents as a fluctuant swelling
c. Produce elevation of the tongue
d. Could result in airway embarrassment
e. Usually related to lower tooth abscess
27. Dry socket:
a. More likely following traumatic extraction
b. More likely following extractions under general anesthesia
c. More likely if the patient rinses over-enthusiastically on day of extraction
d. Caused by failure of clot formation
e. All of the above statements are true
28. In relation to infra-temporal space, which of the following is not correct?
a. Contains maxillary artery and pterygoid venous plexus
b. Communicates directly with sub-masseteric, sub-mandibular, and pterygo-mandibular
spaces
c. May lead to cavernous sinus thrombosis if not treated early
d. Potential space for displacement of maxillary third molar during extraction
e. Its involvement usually results in severe trismus associated with fever and malaise
:NSAIDs include all of the following, except .29
a) Ibuprofen
b) Mefenamic acid
c) Diflunisal
d) Diclofenac sodium
e) Nefopam
30. Which of the following will appear as a radiopacity on radiographic
examination?
a. Apical cyst.
b. Apical scar.
c. Apical abscess.
d. Condensing osteitis.
e. Chronic apical periodontitis.
5
31. Exotoses, enostoses, and tori are comprised of which of the following
tissues?
a. Bone.
b. Glandular epithelium.
c. Peripheral nerve sheath.
d. Fibrous connective tissue.
e. Adipose connective tissue.
32. Which of the following micro-organisms is unlikely to be involved in
osteomyelitis of jaws?
a. Facultative streptococc.
b. Bacteroides spp.
c. Staph. Aureus
d. Peptostreptococcus.
e. Peptococcus.
33. Which of the following is not an indication for apicectomy?
a. Presence of 0.5 cm apical granuloma.
b. Presence of radicular cyst.
c. Root canal pouring puss.
d. Broken instrument.
e. Very curved root canal.
Co-amoxicalv contains amoxicillin with fixed combination ratio clavulanic .34
acid. Clavulanic acid competitively and irreversibly binds bacterial B-
.lactemase enzyme and inhibits it
a) Both statements are true
b) The first statement is true, the second is false
c) The first statement is false, the second is true
d) Both statements are false
35. All of the following are among the criteria of referring the infection
patients to a specialist except
a. Mouth opening less than 1 cm
b. Temperature more than 39 C
c. Compromised host defence
d. Subacute Pericoronitis
e. WBC count less than 2000
6
Read the following case and answer questions (36 – 38).
A 20 year old otherwise healthy female patient presented to you with large, brawny
swelling in the right area of the lower jaw which makes the lower border of the
mandible impalpable. The patient has severe trismus and pyrexia, and radiographs
show a grossly carious lower right first molar; the patient has some dysphagia but the
tongue is not elevated.
36. The immediate treatment includes:
a. Starting empirical antibiotic therapy before culture & sensitivity, wait three days then
extract the tooth
b. Extraction of the tooth with incision and drainage of the swelling extra-orally under local
anesthesia
c. Referring the patient to an oral & maxillofacial surgeon immediately
d. Pulp extirpation of the involved tooth plus antibiotic prescription
e. None of the above
37. The swelling here is most probably involving the:
a. Sublingual space
b. Buccal space
c. Submandibular space
d. Submental space
e. Pterygo-mandibular space
38. The best empirical antibiotic therapy that should be prescribed to this
patient includes:
a. Amoxicillin 500 mg capsules 1 X 3
b. Metrondizole 500 mg tablets 1 X 3
c. Azithromycine 500 mg tablets 1 X 4
d. a&b
e. a&c
f. all of the above
39. Indicate which of the following statements is not correct?
a. All hepatitis viruses are RNA viruses except B & D which are DNA viruses
b. Hepatitis C, E, and G viruses are also known as Non-A Non-B viruses
c. The incubation period for Hep B virus is 2 to 6 months
d. The presence of HBeAg and DNA polymerase in the serum usually indicate viral
replication and high infectivity
e. Fulminant hepatitis is most commonly noticed following infections caused by
hepatitis D viruses
7
Osteoradionecrosis is devitalisation of bone by cancercidal dose of .40
radiation. Bone becomes more vulnerable to trauma and infection due to
.endarteritis obliterans & hypocellularity
a) Both statements are true
b) The first statement is true, the second is false
c) The first statement is false, the second is true
d) Both statements are false
41. Ideal characteristics of the antibiotics that should be prescribed for the
treatment of Odontogenic infections include all of the following except:
a. Should be broad-spectrum
b. Should have minimal side effects and toxicity
c. Should be bactericidal
d. Should be supplied by the proper rout and dose according to the case
e. None of the above
42. Ameloblastoma is usually on the top of keratocyst differential diagnosis
list, this is because they are similar in:
a. Age of onset
b. Site preference
c. Radiographic findings
d. Recurrence and expansion
e. All of the above
43. The most troublesome symptom of left sided heart failure is:
a. Dyspnoea
b. Coughing
c. Haemoptysis
d. Ascites
e. Cyanosis
Regarding cavernous sinus thrombosis, which of the following is not .44
?correct
a) May follow infection of the lips, nose or face that spreads via the anterior facial or
ophthalmic veins to the cavernous sinus
b) May follow spread of infection from the pterygoid venous plexus
c) Characterized by Exophthalmos, orbital & conjunctival edema and cranial nerve palsies
d) Typically remains unilateral
e) Treatment include heparinization
8
45. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an example of Acyanotic congenital
heart disease that doesn’t need anti biotic prophylaxis before apical surgery.
Teratology of Fallot, on the other hand, is an example of cyanotic congenital
heart disease that needs anti biotic prophylaxis before initial orthodontic
band placement.
a. The first statement is correct, the second is false.
b. The first statement is false, the second is true.
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
?In relation to diabetes mellitus, which of the following is correct .46
a. It has a prevalence of about 2% including undiagnosed cases
b. Diabetic patients are most likely to collapse in the dental surgery due to
hyperglycaemic coma
c. Patients should not eat lunch if they have been given an out-patient general
anaesthesia that morning
d. Patients usually carry a blue warning card
e. Both types (IDDM & NIDDM) may cause accelerated periodontal diseases
47. All of the following are true about Addison’s disease except:
a. It is an autoimmune disease in the majority of cases
b. Causes hyperpigmentation, low blood sodium level, and high blood pressure
c. Is confirmed biochemically by a low plasma cortisol level and impaired cortisol
response to a synacthen test
d. Patients may develop adrenal crisis during dental treatment unless this is prevented
by a suitable steroid cover
e. Patients should carry steroid warning cards
48. Parotid gland forms the ……………….of the pterygo-mandibular fossa.
a. Medial wall
b. Lateral wall
c. The roof
d. The floor
e. Posterior wall
f. Anterior wall
Paul-Bunnell test is .49
i. Considered one of the haematological investigations
ii. Considered one of the immunological investigations
iii. Performed to confirm diagnosis of kissing disease
iv. Performed to confirm diagnosis of erythema multiformi
a. I & III
b. I, III & IV
c. II & IV
d. II alone
e. I, II, III & IV
9
50. Which of the following is not a premalignant lesion?
a. Chronic hyperplasic candidosis.
b. Submucous fibrosis.
c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
d. Necrotizing sialometaplasia.
e. Sublingual keratosis
51. Which of the following features represent the most likely reason for the
poor long-term prognosis of patients with adenoid cystic carcinoma?
a. Lesion spreads early and wide.
b. Lesion usually large when discovered.
c. Malignant epithelial cells invade nerves.
d. Malignant epithelial cells are poorly differentiated.
e. Lesion appears clinically benign delaying diagnosis.
52. The two characteristic features of bacterial enocarditis are:
a. Clubbing peripheral oedema.
b. Anemia and weight loss.
c. Jaundice and hepatosplenomegaly.
d. Petichia rash and neck pain.
e. Fever and heart murmer.
53. Regarding differential white blood cell count, which of the following is not
correct?
a. Neutrophils 50 – 70%
b. Lymphocytes 30 – 40%
c. Basophils 8 – 10%
d. Monocytes 3 – 7%
e. Eosinophils 0 – 5%
54. Which of the following antibiotics is pregnancy risk category C ?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
e. Clarithromycin
55. One of the following is not correct regarding timing of surgery in CL/P
patients
a. Closure of the lip at 3 – 6 months (close to birth)
b. Closure of the hard palate at 6 – 12 months (prior to 18 months)
c. Alveolar bone graft at 9 – 11 yrs (after eruption of canines)
d. Orthognathic surgery at 16 -18 yrs followed by nose revision
e. None of the above
10
56. The most common neoplasm of salivary glands is
a. Warthin`s tumor
b. Muco-epidermid carcinoma
c. Oncocytoma
d. Acinic cell adenoma
e. Mixed tumor
57. Regarding orthognathic surgery, which of the following is not correct?
a. Advances, pushes back, or changes the vertical positions of the mandible and / or maxilla
b. Using bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) restricted to the treatment of mandibular
retrognathia
c. May significantly improve the psychological well-being of the patient
d. Employing autologous bone grafts prolongs the hospitalization of the patient
e. Could be complicated by deep venous thrombosis (DVT)
58. The foundation of distraction osteogenesis and its role in orthopedic
surgery was established by:
a. Codivilla in 1905
b. Abbot in 1927
c. Allan in 1948
d. Ilizarov in 1953
e. Synder in 1973
59. In relation to hyperventilation, which of the following is not correct?
a. It is a hysterical manifestation of fear that may produce altered consciousness
b. Characterized by tachypnea and tingling in fingers and lips
c. Best prevented by employing the general anxiety reduction protocol
d. Usually causes alkelosis and tetany
e. Simply treated by giving supplemental oxygen to the panting patient
:Specimen (surgical biopsy) should be fixed in .60
a. Ringer's solution
b. Normal saline solution
c. 50% ether-ethyl solution
d. 10% formal saline solution
e. None of the above
61. Acute mandibular dislocation typically
a. results from condylar head being displaced backwards out of the glenoid fossa
b. manifests with pain, a gagged occlusion, anterior open bite, and inability to close
the mouth
c. causes the jaw to deviate to the affected side
d. can not be reduced manually under local anesthesia
e. the best and immediate treatment is Dautrey surgical procedure
11
62. Advantages of black silk suture material include all of the following
except:
a. Easy to see
b. Well tolerated by soft tissue and tongue
c. Easy to tie
d. Doesn't come untied easily
e. Doesn't require removal by the surgeon
63. Healing of bone by primary intention occurs when:
I. Comminuted bone fracture
II. Greenstick bone fracture
III. Open reduction & internal rigid fixation
IV. Closed reduction & external non-rigid fixation
V. Presence of longstanding non-ossifying callus
a. I, III, V
b. I, IV, V
c. I, III, IV
d. II, IV
e. II, III
64. To maximize the likelihood of Osseointegration, the following is / are
required:
a. Biocompatible implant material
b. Precise adaptation of the implant to the prepared bony site
c. Atraumatic surgery
d. Immobility of the implant during the healing phase
e. All of the above
65. The average incidence of lingual nerve disturbance (injury) following
third molar surgery is approximately
a. 10%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 25%
e. Less than 1%
66. Which of the following is not correct regarding tumour staging?
a. Stage 1 and stage 2 have almost equal 5 years survival rate.
b. The highest incidence of disease presentation is stage 1.
c. T1, N1, M0 = stage 3.
d. T1, N2, M0 = stage 4.
e. T1, N3, M0 = stage 4.
12
67. In order to fully diagnose a simple fractured mandible, the following x-
rays should be done
a. OPG and PA mandible.
b. CT mandible.
c. OPG and occipitomental views.
d. PA mandible.
e. Lateral oblique views of mandible
68. Which of the following is sign of isolated zygomatic arch fracture?
a. Parasthesia of the infra-orbital nerve.
b. Diplopia.
c. Trismus.
d. Retrobulbar hemorrhage.
e. Nasal bleeding
69. Regarding diabetes mellitus, which of the following is not correct?
a. Sweaty warm skin and dilated pupils are associated with adrenaline release
secondary to hypoglycaemia
b. Vomiting and hyperventilation are associated with alkelosis secondary to
hyperglycaemia
c. Dry skin and hypotension are associated with osmotic diuresis secondary to
hyperglycaemia
d. Focal neurological signs (fits) are usually associated with a longstanding cerebral
hypoglycaemia
e. None of the above
70. History of joint clicking, reduction in the mouth opening, deviation and
sometimes pain, all are typical findings in:
a. Anterior disk displacement with reduction
b. Anterior disk displacement without reduction
c. Degenerative joint disease
d. Infective arthritis
e. Idiopathic Condylar resorption
Tramline calcification of the cerebral vessels and port wine stain are .71
:typically present in
a. African form of Kaposi sarcoma
b. Cowden's syndrome
c. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
d. Sturge Weber syndrome
e. Peutz-Jeher`s syndrome
f.
13
72. Which one of these viruses is not matching as the cause of oral mucosal
disease?
a) Herpetic stomatitis………………………………….Herpes simplex virus.
b) Chickenpox…………………………………………Varicilla zoster virus.
c) Herpangina………………………………………….Coxsacie A virus
d) Infectious mononucleosis…………………………,,,Cytomigalovirus
e) Hairy leukoplakia……………………………………Eptien-Barr virus
73. All of these are true about medical treatment of trigeminal neuralgia
except:
a) The medical treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is primarily with the use of
anticonvulsants
b) Carbamazepine is currently the drug of choice
c) The initial dose of carbamazepine is 100 mg, twice daily; this is gradually, by 100
mg each day, until the pain is controlled.
d) A maximium daily dose could be 2 gram.
e) None of above
74. A 65- old lady with ill-fitting dentures and very poor oral hygiene under
treatment for addison’s disease has generalized inflamed mucosa with some
white patches. The blood tests are normal. It is suggestive of:
a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Candidiasis
d) Siderpenic dyspagia
e) Oral submucous fibrosis
75. All of these are true about minor recurrent aphtous stomatitis except:
a) Affect keratinized mucosa
b) Size of ulcers less than 1 cm.
c) Ulcers last for 7-14 days
d) Heals without scarring
e) None of above
14
