Rankers Academy JEE

FIITJEE – (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
PET-3
QP Code: 100648 Paper- 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
BATCHES – Two Year CRP -224 (All)

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-06) – Contains seven (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(ii) Part-B (01-06) contains Six (06) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive) and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong
answer.

(iii) Part-B (07-12) contains Six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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 Rankers Academy JEE
IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

m
1. A ring of mass m and radius R is placed on a frictionless R
horizontal surface. A particle of mass m is projected from
point A with velocity v at an angle of 45° with AO as 45°
A O
shown(particle is projected along the surface). The
correct statements are

4R 2
(A) The particle reaches the same point A on the ring after time .
v
mv
(B) Magnitude of impulse transformed during first collision is .
2
mv
(C) Magnitude of impulse transformed during second collision is .
2
2R
(D) Particle reaches diametrically opposite point on the ring in time .
v

2. A solid sphere of radius R and mass m is released 5R

from point A on a vertical circular surface of radius A R D
5R which has sufficient friction in part AB. Part BCD 30°
is smooth. h is the maximum height attained by the E
centre of the sphere from point C in part CD. Total B h
energy and kinetic energy at this height is T and K
respectively (assume lowest point C of the circular C
path as reference point for potential energy). Then
31
(A) h = R
7
(B) T = 5mgR
4
(C) K = mgR
7
2 3mg
(D) Friction force on the sphere just before point B=
5
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3. A solid sphere of mass m is released on the plank of mass m

M which lies on an inclined plane of inclination  as shown
in figure. There is sufficient frictional force between sphere
and plane and the minimum value of co-efficient of friction M
between plank and surfaces is  to keep the plank at rest.
Then 
2
(A) frictional force between sphere and plank is mg sin  , when plank is at rest.
7
7 M + 2m
(B) the value of  is tan  .
7( M + m)
(C) If there is no friction between the plank and inclined plane, then acceleration of plank is
less than g sin .
(D) If there is no friction between plank and inclined plane, then friction force on the sphere
is zero.

4. Three particles each of mass m, can slide on fixed frictionless circular A v0

tracks in the same horizontal plane as shown. Particle A moves with B
velocity v0 and hits particle B elastically. Assuming that B and C are k
initially at rest and lie along a radial line and the spring is initially C
relaxed before impact, then 2R
R
(A) the velocity of B immediately after impact is v0
2v 0
(B) the velocity of C when the stretch in the spring is maximum is
5
4v 0
(C) the velocity of B when the stretch in the spring is maximum is
5
m
(D) the maximum stretch in the spring in the spring is v0
5k

5. A disc of radius R rolls on a horizontal surface with P

linear velocity V and angular velocity . There is a  
V
point P on circumference of disc at angle  with upward O
vertical diameter measured anticlockwise see figure,
which has a vertical velocity. Here  is equal to
V  V V V
(A)  + sin −1 (B) − sin −1 (C)  − cos −1 (D)  + cos −1
R 2 R R R
space for rough work

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6. A rod of mass ' M − m' carries an insect of mass ‘m’ at its bottom end and
its top end is connected with a string which passes over a smooth pulley
and the other end of the string is connected to a counter mass M. Initially
the insect is at rest. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, the acceleration of centre of
mass of the system (insect + rod + counter mass) becomes non-zero
M
(B) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, tension in the string remains M −m
constant and is equal to Mg.
(C) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, the tension in the string
becomes more than Mg. m
(D) Acceleration of centre of mass of the system (insect + rod +counter mass) is zero when
insect moves with constant velocity.

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.

1. A thin uniform rod of mass ‘m’, length ‘’ rotates uniformly about a vertical axis , form a
conical pendulum, the upper end of the rod is hinged and  is angle between rod and
m 2 2
vertical. If the change of angular momentum of the rod about hinge is  sin 2 then
x
the value of ‘x’ will be

F
2. A uniform thin L shaped rod is placed on the rough
L 
horizontal surface and its corner is pulled by a string as
shown in the figure. If it moves only translationally then the L/2
value of cot  will be


3. A chain of length R and mass ‘m’ lies on the surface of a fixed and smooth sphere of
2
radius ‘R’ with one end tied with a string and held in such a way that the string is horizontal
xmg
and tied end of chain is at the top of the sphere. If the tension in the string is then the

value of ‘x’ will be
A
4. Three identical rods are joined and hinged at A as
shown. If the angle made by the rod AB with the D
vertical in equilibrium is  then the value of 10 sin B
will be
C
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IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 5

1m
m rod

5. As situation shown in figure the ball has been given a string

velocity u. Find the ratio of magnitude of the acceleration of 1m
left end of the rod to the magnitude of acceleration of the
ball.
m
u
ball

6. A solid cylinder of mass m is placed over a plank of same

mass as shown in figure. The plank is placed on smooth
horizontal surface. There is sufficient friction between F
cylinder and plank to prevent slipping. If a force is applied at
the centre of the cylinder then find the ratio of magnitude of Plank
acceleration of cylinder to magnitude of the acceleration of Smooth
the plank.
PART – B
(Numerical based)
This section contains 6 questions, numerical based questions, (answer of which maybe positive
or negative numbers or decimals).

7. A solid hemisphere of mass ‘m’ is released from rest from a

position shown in figure. If there is no slipping then the
magnitude of the friction on the sphere at just after the
released will be K mg , then K is

Horizontal surface

AB
8. A wire of length  and mass m is bent in the form of a rectangle ABCD with = 2 . If the
BC
moment of inertia of this wire frame about the side BC is , then find the value of
‘81X’.

9. A small particle travelling with a speed u towards right collides with a spherical body of
equal mass as shown in figure. The centre of this spherical body is located a distance
3
R away from the direction of motion of the particle. The coefficient of restitution
2
1
between them is . Then speed of the sphere after the collision will be ? (u = 1m/sec)
2
u
R 3/2

space for rough work

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10. Moment of inertia of thin regular pyramidal shell of mass   

m, length  about an axis passing through apex and centre
 
of open base as shown in figure will be , then find
the value of ‘X’.


11. A rod collides elastically with smooth horizontal surface after falling from a height.
For maximum angular speed of the rod just after impact, the rod should be released in
such a way that it makes an angle  with horizontal, the value of  will be , Then K
is

12. A rod of length R 3 is kept vertically inside a fixed smooth spherical shell of radius R
such that its both ends are contact with the shell. If the rod is released then the angular
speed of the rod, when it becomes horizontal will be “K , then K is

space for rough work

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IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 7

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. For the equilibrium, PCI5(g) PCI3 (g) + CI2 (g)

Which of the following sketch may represent above equilibrium. Assume equilibrium can
be achieved from either side and by taking any one or more components initially. (Given
Kc for the reaction < 2)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. Solid ammonium carbamate dissociate to give ammonia and carbon dioxide as follows
NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
Which of the following graph incorrectly represents the equilibrium?

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3. A closed jar having water vapours in equilibrium with liquid suddenly all the vapours of the
jar is transferred to another identical jar and is subjected to compression. Assume initial
temperature to be the same and negligible volume occupied by the liquid water. Select the
observation in the second jar
(A) liquid water will start forming in the jar
(B) vapour will undergo gradual compression without any condensation.
(C) temperature of the vapour will increases.
(D) final pressure will be the same as initial pressure.

4. If two gases AB2 and BC are mixed the following equilibria are readily established
AB2(g) + B2C(g) AB3(g) + BC (g)
BC(g) + B2C(g) B3C2 (g)
If the reaction is started only with AB2 with B2C, then which of the following is necessarily
true at equilibrium:
(A) [AB3]eq = [BC]eq (B) [AB2]eq = [B2C]eq
(C) [AB3]eq > [B3C2]eq (D) [AB3]eq > [BC]eq

5. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AXBy in water at 25°C is 1.4  10-4 M. The solubility
product is 1.1  10-11. The possibilities are:
(A) x = 1, y = 2 (B) x = 2, y = 1
(C) x = 1,y = 3 (D) x = 3, y = 1
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6 The variation of pH during the titration of 0.5 N Na2CO3 with 0.5 N HCI is shown in the
given graph. The following table indicates the colour and pH ranges of different indicators :

Indicator Range of colour Colour in acid Colour in base

change
Thymol blue 1.2 to 2.8 Red Yellow
Bromocresol red 4.2 to 6.3 Red Yellow
Bromothymol 6.0 to 7.6 Yellow Blue
blue
Cresolphethalein 8.2 to 9.8 Colouriess Red
Based on the graph and the table, which of the following statements are true?
(A) The first equivalence point can be detected by cresolphthalein.
(B) The complete neutralisation can be detected by bromothymol blue
(C) The second equivalence point can be detected by bromocresol red.
(D) The volume of HCI required for the first equivalence point is half the volume of HCI
required for the second equivalence point.

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.

1. A litre of buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of each of NH3 and NH4Cl. On addition of 0.02
mole of HCl by dissolving gaseous HCl, the pH of the solution is found to be _________
(Nearest integer)
[Given pKb(NH3) = 4.745, log2 = 0.301, log3 = 0.477, T = 298 K]
space for rough work

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2. For H2SO4, K a1 = infinite and K a2 = 1.2  10-2. The molarity of H2SO4 solution of pH 2.0 is
‘xM’. The value of ‘(1.6  102)x’ is[Round off to nearest integer]

3 When equal volumes of 0.2 M AgNO3 and 1 M KCN solutions were mixed then at
equilibrium, concentration of Ag+ was found to be 10-6M. While when equal volumes of 0.2 M
Zn(NO3)2 solution and of 1 M KCN solution were mixed then at equilibrium, concentration of Zn2+ ion
was found to be 10-12M. If the value of equilibrium constant of following equilibrium reaction is
ABC, then calculate X = A + B + C
2[Ag(CN)2]– (aq.) + Zn2+ (aq.) [Zn(CN)4]2– (aq.) + 2Ag+ (aq.).

4. The equilibrium constants for amino acids are given in terms of succesive ionization
constants of the protonated form for example, equilibrium constants for Glycine
(NH2CH2COOH) are Ka1 = 5  10-3 M and Ka2 = 2  10-10 M. If the pH at the Isoelectric point
for this amino acid is X and pH of 0.02 M protonated Glycine in pure water is Y respectively,
then calculate X + Y. (Nearest integer) [Take log 2 = 0.30, log 5 = 0.70]

5. The acid ionization of hydrated aluminium ion is

3+ 2+
 Al (H2O )  ( aq) + H2O (l )  Al (H2O ) OH (aq) + H3O+ (aq ) , Ka = 1.0  10–5
 6  5 
If millimoles of AlCl3 is x then how many x/10 of AlCl3 should be dissolved in sufficient
water to get 400 mL of solution of pH 3.0?

6. Equimolar mixture of two gases A2 and B2 is taken in a rigid vessel at constant

temperature 300 K. The gases achieve equilibrium as:
A 2 ( g) 2A ( g) ,KP = x atm

B2 ( g ) 2B ( g) ,KP = y atm

A 2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) 2AB ( g) ,KP = 2
If the initial pressure in the container was 2 atm and the final pressure at equilibrium is
2.75 atm in which the partial pressure of AB(g) is 0.5 atm, the value of y/x is
[Assuming degree of dissociation of B2 is greater than A2]

PART – B
(Numerical based)
This section contains 6 questions, numerical based questions, (answer of which maybe positive
or negative numbers or decimals).

7. 200 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 is diluted to 900 ml by adding water. Solution is then reacted with
100 mL, 0.6 M NaOH solution. The resulting sample is further reacted with 100 mL of 0.2 M
Ca(OH)2 solution and then 100 mL H20 was vaporised. Calculate final pH.
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8. For the reaction: A ( g) + B ( g) C ( g) , the equilibrium partial pressures, pA = 0.15 atm,

pB = 0.1 atm and pC = 0.3 atm. When the volume of the reaction vessel was reduced to
such an extent, so that on re-establishing the equilibrium, partial pressure of A and B were
found to be doubled. The new partial pressure of C would be x atm. What will be the value
of 2x?

9. A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a
certain temperature and 0.1 atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to give NH3 and H2S and
at equilibrium total pressure in flask is 1.1 atm. If the equilibrium constant Kp for the
reaction, NH4HS ( s) NH3 ( g) + H2S ( g) is represented as z, then find the value of z.

10. A sample of AgCl was treated with 5.00 ml of 1.5 M Na2CO3 solution to give Ag2CO3.
The remaining solution contained 0.0026 g of Cl− per litre. Calculate the solubility product
of AgCl (in 10−10 ) (Ksp of Ag2CO3 = 8.2  10−12 M3).

11. In a container of constant volume at a particular temperature N2 and H2 are mixed in the molar
ratio of 9:13.The following two equilibria are found to be coexisting in the container
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
N2 (g) + 2H2 (g) N2H4(g)
The total equilibrium pressure is found to be 3.5 atm while partial pressure of NH3(g) and H2(g)
are 0.5 atm and 1 atm respectively. Calculate the sum of equilibrium constants of the two
reactions given above.
12. A solution contains 0.1 M H2S and 0.3 M HCl. Calculate the concentration of S2– ions in
solution. The concentration of sulphide ion is x  10–20. What is the value of x?
(Given K a1and K a2 for H2S are 10–7 and 1.3  10–13 respectively)

space for rough work

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IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 12

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. For the hyperbola 2x2 + 12xy − 7y2 − 16x + 2y − 3 = 0 , which of the following is/are true?
(A) Equation of its conjugate hyperbola is 2x2 + 12xy − 7y 2 − 16x + 2y + 17 = 0
(B) Its asymptotes are given by 2x2 + 12xy − 7y2 − 16x + 2y + 7 = 0
(C) Its asymptotes are given by 2x2 − 2y 2 − x + 7y − 3xy − 3 = 0
(D) Orthocentre of triangle formed by any three points on the hyperbola lies on the
hyperbola itself

2.  
Let A = xy = c c  R − 0 . Let Ec = 0 represent locus of point Pc such that sum of
slopes of normals drawn from it to xy = c is equal to sum of ordinates of feet of normals.
Let F be the set of points of intersection of Ec = 0 with xy = c (for parameter ‘c’), then
(A) (1, 1) is an element of F
(B) (2, 1) is not an element of F
(C) (0, 0) is an element of Ec  F c  R − 0
(D) F is a set of hyperbolas

3. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to angle bisectors of pair of lines
3x2 − 4y2 − xy − 12x + 16y = 0
(A) Angle bisector containing point (2, 1) is the obtuse angle bisector
) ( (
(B) Equation of acute angle bisector is 3 2 + 5 x − 4 2 − 5 y − 20 = 0 )
(C) Equation of obtuse angle bisector is ( 3 2 + 5 ) x − ( 4 )
2 − 5 y − 20 = 0
(D) Angle bisectors are perpendicular with respect to each other

4. For the curves 2x 2 + y 2 = 2 and y2 − x2 = −2 which of the following is/are true?

(A) Equation of a pair of common tangents is 4x2 + y2 − 4xy − 6 = 0
(B) Equation of a pair of common tangents is 4x2 + y2 + 4xy − 6 = 0
5
(C) Length of common tangent is
3
10
(D) Length of common tangent is
3
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5. Let E1 :
x2 y2
+ = 1 and E2 :
( x − 4 ) + y2 = 1. If E rolls on E , without slipping, then
2

2 1
4 3 4 3
which of the following is/are true?
(A) Locus of centre of E2 is a polynomial equation of fourth degree
(B) Locus of one of the focus of E2 is polynomial of third degree
(C) Locus of centre of E2 is a closed curve
(D) Locus of one of the focus of E2 is a closed curve

6. A square is formed such that its opposite sides are tangential to the hyperbola x2 − y2 = 1 .
Determine which of the following is/are true?
(A) Side length of largest possible square is 2
(B) Side length of largest possible square is 2 2
3
(C) Side length of smallest possible square is 24
5
(D) Side length of smallest possible square is 24

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.

1. Let e be the eccentricity of a hyperbola and f ( e ) be the eccentricity of its conjugate

3
hyperbola then f f f .....f ( e ) de is equal to ___________________(where n is even)

1 n times

2. The maximum value of the product of the length of chords intercepted by the Auxiliary
Circle on two perpendicular tangent of the hyperbola x2 − 2y 2 = 2 is

3. If length of smallest path that can be traced from (0, 0) to − 2, − 1 without Traversing ( )
a
Inside the curve x2 + y2 + 2 2x + 1 = 0 is of the form − b where a,b  I . Then value
16
of a + b is
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4. If there are only two points on the curve 2x2 − 2y2 − 4x + 21 = 0 such that tangent’s
x2 y2
Drawn to + = 1( a,b  N) are perpendicular. Then a + b equal is to
a2 b2

5. If the equation of the curve on reflection of the ellipse

( x − 4 )2 + ( y − 3 )2 = 1 about the
16 9

line x − y − 2 = 0 is 16x + 9y + k1x − 36y + k 2 = 0 , Then value of

2 2 (k1 + k 2 ) is
66

x2 y2
6. On an ellipse + = 1, tangents drawn at P1,P2,P3......Pn intersects the major axis at
64 9

T1,T2,T3........Tn respectively, If the value of 

( ii ) ( i i ) = 18, Then
n Area PTS .Area PTS'

i=1 (PTi i)
2

value of n is (where S and S’ are foci of ellipse)

PART – B
(Numerical based)
This section contains 6 questions, numerical based questions, (answer of which maybe positive
or negative numbers or decimals).

The curve ( x − 1)( y − 2 ) = 5 and ( x − 1) + ( y + 2) = r 2 intersect at 4 points A, B, C and

2 2
7.
D. If centroid of ABC lies on y = 3x − 4, and locus of D is x = y, then  is
____________

x2 y2
8. If 3x + 2y = 4 touches the ellipse + = 1 , then eccentric angle of point of contact
4 2
k
is , then k is equal to ___________
3

9. If P and Q are the feet of the perpendicular from the foci S1 and S2 of an ellipse
x2 y2 k
+ = 1 on the tangent at any point P on the ellipse, then ( S1P )( S2Q ) is k, then is
5 3 2
equal to _________
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IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 15

10. If a chord of rectangular hyperbola parallel to its conjugate axis subtends angles 1 and
2 at its vertices, then ( 1 + 2 ) is ____________

11. The area of the set of points (x, y) in the plane that satisfy the two Inequalities x2 + y2  2
and x 4 + x3 y3  xy + y 4 is

x2 y2
12. Let points s1 and s2 (lying on positive x – axis) be the foci of the curves + = 1 and
a2 b2
x2 y2 1
− = . If point of the intersection of the two curve is equidistant from s1 and s2
a2 c 2 4
and a : b = 7 : 6 Then if value of a : c is  :  then  +  is
space for rough work

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IT−2024-PET-3-Paper-2-(PCM) 16

PERFORMANCE ENHANCEMENT TEST

QP Code: 100648
ANSWERS

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. ABC 2. ABC 3. ABD 4. ABCD
5. CD 6. ACD
PART – B
1. 6 2. 4 3. 2 4. 6
5. 5 6. 3
PART – B
7. 0.26 (range: 0.26 to 0.27) 8. 3.5
9. 0.37 10. 0.08 (range: 0.06 to 0.09)
11. 1.73 (range: 1.730 to 1.735) 12. 1.41 (range: 1.41 to 1.42)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
1. BD 2. ABD 3. AD 4. CD
5. AB 6. ACD
PART – B
1. 9 2. 1 3. 9 4. 8
5. 4 6. 8
PART – B
7. 12.3 8. 2.4
9. 0.3 10. 1.71 (range 1.60-1.80)
11. 0.8 12. 1.44 (Range 1.40 to1.50)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. AB 2. ABC 3. ACD 4. ABD
5. ACD 6. AC
PART – B
1. 4 2. 6 3. 3 4. 4
5. 2 6. 8
PART – B
7. 0.33 8. 0.50 9. 1.50 10. 3.14
11. 3.14 12. 25.00

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