Prayas JEE (2024)

JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 02 Advanced
Paper-02
DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATED: 23/07/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : Unit and Dimension, Vector, One D motion, 2 D motion, Relative motion, NLM friction, Circular, Work
power and energy, Centre of mass
Chemistry : Complete Chemical Bonding, Mole Concept, Solution, Atomic structure, Redox, Gaseous State,
Electrochemistry.
Mathematics : Basic Mathematics (Full syllabus), Quadratic Equations (Full syllabus), Sequence and Series (Full
syllabus), Trigonometry (Full syllabus except SOT, Heights and distances), Permutation and
Combination (Full syllabus), Binomial Theorem (Full syllabus)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) –
For Section A:
Integer Type Questions (Single Digit Integer) (Question No. 1-8)
For each Question, enter the correct single digit integer value.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section B
One or More than one correct (Question No. 9-14)
For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answers.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
For Section C
Single Correct (Question No. 15-18)
For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the correct Answer.
Each Question has Four options (1), (2), (3), (4). Only ONE of these options is the correct answer.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (1-8)
1. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes
t2
displacement in it given by S = metres where t
4
is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is
(in Joule)

2. A body of mass 1 kg, initially at rest, explodes and 8. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 5 kg are having
breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio given speed as shown in the figure. System is lying
1:1:3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off on a frictionless surface and the blocks are
perpendicular to each other with a speed of 30 connected by a massless spring of spring constant
m/sec each. If the velocity of the heavier fragment 35 N/m. The maximum compression in the spring
is 10 p m/s. Find p. is √𝑥 𝑚. Find 𝑥 here.

3. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward.

Another ball of mass 2m is thrown at an angle 
with the vertical. Both the balls stay in air for the SECTION - B
same period of time. The ratio of the heights One or More than One Correct Type (9 – 14)
attained by the two balls respectively is 1/x. The 9. Potential energy U(r) varies with position r as
value of x is shown in figure.
4. A car moves from P to Q; (first half distance with
speed v1 then next half with speed v2) then returns
from Q to P (in first half time he moves with speed
v1 and second half time with speed v2). The ratio of
average speed from P to Q and Q to P journey is
𝑛𝑣1 𝑣2
(𝑣 +𝑣 )2
.Find 𝑛 here. Which of the following conclusions are correct?
1 2
(1) Force is positive at Q and R
5. A particle moves clockwise in a circle of radius (2) Force is negative at O, X and Y
1m with centre at (x, y) = (1m, 0). It starts at rest at (3) Force is maximum (magnitude) at O, R and X
the origin at time t = 0. Its speed increases at the (4) Equilibrium is indicated at P, S and Z

constant rate of   m/s2 . If the net acceleration 10. If a large number of particles are distributed on YZ
2 plane and their centre of mass is at origin of
 coordinates, then
at t = 2 sec is (1 + N 2 ) then what is the value
2 (1) Sum of moments of masses of all particles
of N? about the origin is zero.
(2) Sum of momenta of all particles w.r.t. the
6. A solid body rotates with deceleration about a origin is zero.
stationary axis with an angular deceleration (3) Sum of moments of masses of all particles
about Y axis is zero
   where  is its angular velocity. If at the
(4) Sum of moments of masses of all particles
initial moment of time its angular velocity was about Z axis is zero.
equal to 0 then the mean angular velocity of the
body averaged over the whole time of rotation till 11. A fan is switched on and it accelerates at a
 constant angular acceleration of 2 rad/s2 till it
it comes to rest is 0 where n is:
n attains an angular velocity of 18 rad/s. At this
instant power is switched off. Assuming there is no
7. The whole set up shown in the figure is rotating dissipative force, the angular displacement made
with constant angular velocity  on a horizontal by it in 20 seconds is
T (1) 64 radians
frictionless table. The ratio of tensions 1 is
T2 (2) 44.4 revolutions
m1 + xm2  l2 2  (3) 279 radians
 Given, =  . Find x here (4) 400 revolutions
2m2  l1 1 
12. Select the correct alternative. When there is no 16. In the figure shown, two blocks of masses 2 kg and
external force acting on a system of particles 4 kg are connected by a massless string which is
(1) The centre of mass does not move just taut (i.e., tension is zero at this moment). Now
(2) The centre of mass does not accelerate two forces 4N and 15N are applied on blocks. The
(3) The momentum of the system remains same tension in the string is (coefficient of static and
(4) The kinetic energy of the system does not kinetic friction are same). [g = 10 m/s2]
change

13. The angular displacement () of a particle w.r.t.

time (t) is given by (t) = t2 – 2t + 7 ( is in radians) (1) 2N
If the particle is moving in a radius of 20 cm then (2) Zero
at time t = 2 s (3) 6N
(1) Tangential acceleration of particle is 0.4 m/s2 (4) 1N
(2) Centripetal acceleration of particle is 0.8 m/s2
(3) Total acceleration of particle is 0.4 5 m/s2 17. A body of mass M is moving on a smooth surface
(4) Total acceleration of particle is 0.4 2 m/s2 with speed V0. Another body of same mass M
attached to a spring is kept on the same surface as
14. Following figures show two different systems in shown. The moving mass makes an impact with
equilibrium. The spring balance reads the tension the spring of spring constant k and starts
in the string. There is no friction anywhere and compressing it. What is the maximum compression
pulleys are light. Select the correct alternative. in the spring?
(S1, S2, S3 and S4 are the readings of the balances)

M
(1) V0
k
V0 M
(2)
k
M
(3) V0
2k
(1) S3 = S4
2M
(2) S1 = S2 = 2S3 (4) V0
k
1
(3) S1 = S3 = S2
2
18. KE acquired by a mass m in travelling a certain
(4) S4 = S1
distance d, starting from rest, under the action of a
SECTION - C constant force F is
Single Correct Type Questions (15-18) (1) Directly proportional to m
15. The system below is in equilibrium. Find the
(2) Directly proportional to m
acceleration of block m1, immediately after spring
k2 is cut 1
(3) Directly proportional to
m
(4) None of these

(1) zero (2) g

m1 g m2 g
(3) (4)
m2 m1

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 PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION–A 28. Select the correct statement:
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (19 – 26) (1) The value of compressibility factor ‘Z’ for
19. Find total no. of polar molecules. H2 gas is greater than one at room
(a) PF3Cl2 (b) SF4 temperature and pressure.
(c) PCl5 (d) PCl3F2 (2) The real gas behaves as an ideal gas at
(e) SF6 (f) XeF2 Boyle's temperature.
(3) For a real gas following Vander Waal's
(g) NO+2 (h) BF2Cl equation of state, the expression of critical
(i) BF3  8a 
temperature is  
 27Rb 
20. The cost of electricity required to deposit 1 g Mg (4) At low pressure, the compressibility factor
is Rs. 5.00. The cost of 30 g of Al to be deposited  Pb 
x ‘Z’ = 1 +  for a real gas.
is Rs. x. Find the value of ?  RT 
40
29. At constant temperature, the osmotic pressure of
21. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in a solution is:
N2O3 is : (1) directly proportional to the concentration.
(2) inversely proportional to the molecular
22. The atomic masses of He and Ne are 4 and 20 weight of the solute.
a.m.u., respectively. The value of the de Broglie (3) directly proportional to the square of the
wavelength of He gas at –73°C is “M” times that concentration.
of the de Broglie wavelength of Ne at 727°C. M (4) directly proportional to the square root of the
is: concentration.

23. The mass of a non-volatile solute (Molar mass 30. According to Molecular Orbital Theory:
40) which should be dissolved in 114 g octane to
reduce its vapour pressure to 80% is 2x g. Find (1) C22− is expected to be diamagnetic
the value of x. (2) O22+ expected to have a longer bond length
than O2
24. How many of the following species have bond
order less than two? (3) N+2 and N−2 have the same bond order
(a) NO3− (b) CO32− (4) He+2 has the same energy as two isolate He
(c) F2 (d) Cl2 atoms
(e) Br2 (f) O22−
31. The compound(s) with TWO lone pairs of
(g) O−2 (h) N−2
electrons on the central atom is (are):
(i) O22+ (j) Li +2 (1) BrF5
(2) ClF3
(k) He+2
(3) XeF4
(4) SF4
25. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90
degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is 32. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from
Raoult's law at 35°C is (are):
26. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. Wt. (1) Carbon tetrachloride + methanol
(2) Carbon disulphide + acetone
60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density
(3) Benzene + toluene
1.12 g mL–1. The molarity of the solution is: (4) Phenol + aniline
SECTION–B
SECTION–C
One or More than One Correct Type (27 – 32) Single Correct Type Questions (33 – 36)
27. Which of the following contain(s) unpaired 33. The oxidation state of chromium in the final
electrons? product formed by the reaction between KI and
(1) Oxygen atom acidified potassium dichromate solution is:
(2) Dioxygen molecule (1) +4 (2) +6
(3) Nitric oxide (3) +2 (4) +3
(4) Dinitrogen molecule
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34. Which of the following aqueous solutions will 36. For the redox reaction:
have the lowest freezing point? Zn(s) + Cu2+ (0.1M) → Zn2+(1M) + Cu(s)
(1) 0.10 M KCl
(2) 0.10 M Al2(SO4)3 taking place in a cell, Eocell is 1.10 volt. Ecell for
(3) 0.10 M C6H12O6 the cell will be: (2.303 RT/F = 0.0591)
(4) 0.10 M C12H22O11 (1) 2.14 V (2) 1.80 V
(3) 1.07 V (4) 0.82 V
35. Using MO theory, predict which of the following
species has the shortest bond length?
(1) O−2 (2) O22−
(3) O22+ (4) O+2

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION–A 1 1 9
46. If sum of infinite G.P. p,1, , 2 , is , then
Integer Type (Single Digit Integer) (37 – 44) p p 2
37. In a polygon the number of diagonals is 54. If the value of p is
n
number of sides of the polygon is 𝑛, then is 3
3 (1) 2 (2)
2
9
sin (  −  ) sin (  +  ) (3) 3 (4)
38. If + = 0 , then 2
sin (  +  ) sin (  −  )
cot  tan  cot  tan  is equal to 47. If the equation x2 + px + q = 0 , the coefficient of
x was incorrectly written as 17 instead of 13,
39. The number of value(s) of x, which satisfy the
then roots were found to be –2 and –15. The
equation log10(2x + 1 + x – 37) = x(1 – log105) is
correct roots are
(1) –1 (2) –3
40. Let a be a factor of 168, then the number of
(3) –5 (4) –10
positive integral solutions of x1x2x3 = a is 40n.
The value of n is
If 2( 2 ) + x log 2 x = 32 , then
2
log x
48.
41. For x  ( 0,  ) , the number of solutions of the (1) Equation has two rational solutions
equation cos x + 2cos2 x − cos3x = 2 , are (2) Equation has one rational and one irrational
solution
42. Given (1 + 3x – 7x2 + 2x3) (1 + x)2n = 1 + a1x + (3) Product of all solutions is 1
a2x2 + …. + (8n + 4) terms, a12 − 27 = 2a2 , then (4) Product of all solutions is 2 2
the value of n is
49. Number of ordered pairs of integers which
43. The value of p for which the equation 4 3
satisfy the equation − = 1 are k , k is greater
( p2 + p − 2) x2 + ( 2 p2 − p − 1) x + p2 − 1 = 0 has x y
more than two roots is than
(1) 11 (2) 12
44. If the roots of equation x2 + qx + p = 0 are each 1 (3) 13 (4) 14
less than the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0,
13
then |p + q| is equal to  − log x 
50. 
In the expansion of x + 5  3
2 3 
SECTION–B  
One or More than One Correct Type (45 – 50)  
45. If cos3 = cos3 , then the value of sin can be (1) there appears a term with x 3
given by
(2) there does not appear term with x 3
 
(1) sin (2) sin     (3) there appears a term with x−4
 3 
 2    2   (4) the ratio of the coefficient of x−4 to that of
(3) sin  +  (4) sin  − 
 3   3  x 5 is 125/4.

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 SECTION–C 53. The number of irrational terms in the expansion
Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 54)
( )
99
of 31/5 + 51/ 3 is
51. The sum  
0 j 20 0i  j
( 20
C j )( j Ci ) is equal to
(1) 75 (2) 87
(3) 93 (4) 97
(1) 220 − 1 (2) 320 − 1
(3) 320 (4) 220 54. If , ,  and  are four solutions of the equation
 
52. If xR , the numbers tan   +  = 3tan3 , no two of which have
 4
( 62+3x + 62−3x ) , k2 , (36x + 36− x ) form an AP equal tangents, then the value of
tan + tan + tan + tan is equal to
then k must lie in the interval
(1) Zero (2) 1
(1)  6,36 (2) 74, ) (3) –1 (4) 2
(3) 1, 6 (4) 36, )

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