Full Syllabus Mock Test - 6

Questions

1. A slide projector gives a magnification of 10. If it projects a slide of dimensions 3cm × 2cm onto a screen, the
area of the image on the screen will be
(a) 6 cm2
(b) 60 cm2
(c) 600 cm2
(d) 6000 cm2

2. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is10−20 J . This value in eV is nearly :
(a) 0.06
(b) 0.006
(c) 6
(d) 0.6

3. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on:

(A) Type of semi conductor material
(B) Amount of doping
(C) Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (B) only
(d) (B) only

4. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be
adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20cm
and 73cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C
is:
(a) 350m/s
(b) 339m/s
(c) 330m/s
(d) 300m/s

5. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity. If two
objects of mass m are attached gently to opposite ends of a diameter of ring, ring will now rotate with an
angular velocity (ω') given by
2ωM
(a) (M−2m)
(M−2m)
(b) M
ωM
(c) (M+2m)
2ωM
(d) (M+2m)
6. A plane moves horizontally at some height with a speed of 200 m/s and bomb released from it strikes the
ground in 5 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground with the horizontal will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) tan−1 ( 15 )
(b) tan−1 ( 14 )
(c) tan−1 (1)
(d) tan−1 (4)

7. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected in series with an external resistance nr. Then the ratio of
the terminal potential difference to emf is
(a) ( 1n )
1
(b) (n+1)
n
(c) (n+1)
(n+1)
(d) n

8. The equation of the stationary wave is: y = 2A sin( 2πct ) cos( 2πx ) . Which of the following statements is
λ λ
wrong?
(a) The unit of ct is same as that of λ
(b) The unit of x is same as that of λ
2πct 2πx
(c) The unit of λ is same as that of λ
c x
(d) The unit of λ is same as that of λ

9. The velocity v (in cm/s) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the equation, v = at + b
The
t+c
dimensions of a, b and c are respectively
(a) [L2], [T], [LT2]
(b) [LT2], [LT], [L]
(c) [LT-2], [L], [T]
(d) [L], [LT], [T2]

10. A cube made of material having a density of 0.9 × 103 kg/m3 floats between water and a liquid of density
0.7 × 103 kg/m3 , which is immiscible with water. What fraction of volume of the cube is immersed in
water?
1
(a) 3
2
(b) 3
(c) 34
3
(d) 7

11. The force on a rocket whose fuel is ejected with a speed of 70 m/s relative to rocket is 280 N. Then the rate
of combustion of the fuel will be
(a) 0.7 kg/sec
(b) 2.1 kg/sec
(c) 1.4 kg/sec
(d) 4 kg/sec
12. When a monochromatic light falls on a photosensitive material, the number of photoelectrons emitted per
second is n and their maximum K.E. is (EK)max. If the intensity of the incident light is doubled, then:
(a) Both n and (EK)max are doubled
(b) Both n and (EK)max are halved
(c) n is doubled, but (EK)max remains the same
(d) (EK)max is doubled but n remains the same

13. The stopping potential, when a metal with work function 0.6 eV is illuminated with light of 2 eV will be
(a) 1.4V
(b) 2.8V
(c) 4.2V
(d) 0.7V

14. The current in the arm CD of the circuit will be

(a) i 1 + i2
(b) i 2 + i3
(c) i 1 + i3
(d) i 1 – i 2 + i3

15. Find the difference of air pressure between the inside and outside of a soap bubble 5 mm in diameter, if the
surface tension is 1.6 Nm-1
(a) 2560 Nm-2
(b) 3720 Nm-2
(c) 1208 Nm-2
(d) 10132 Nm-2

16. When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, the gravitational potential energy of mass M
decreases by Mgl. This energy appears
(a) As elastic potential energy completely
(b) As thermal energy completely
(c) Half as elastic potential energy and half as thermal energy
(d) As kinetic energy of the load completely
17. A car of mass m moves in a horizontal circular path of radius r meter. At an instant its speed is v m/s and is
increasing at a rate of 'a' m/s2. Then the acceleration of the car is
2
(a) vr
(b) a
−−−−−−−−−
(c) √a2 + ( v2 )
2
r
−−−−v−
(d) √u + r
2

18. The radius of the smallest electron orbit in hydrogen-like ion is ( 0.51×10−4 ) m then it is
4
(a) Hydrogen atom
(b) He+
(c) Li2+
(d) Be3+

19. The equivalent resistance between P and Q in given figure, will be

(a) 50Ω
(b) 40Ω
(c) 20Ω
(d) 10Ω

20. An inductor is connected to a battery through a switch. Induced emf is e1 when the switch is pressed and e2
when the switch is opened. Then
(a) e1 = e2
(b) e1 > e2
(c) e1 < e2
e
(d) e12
21. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a vertical uniform electric field E and then released. The
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y, will be
(a) q2 E y
(b) q E y
(c) q E2 y
(d) q E y2

22. ∘
The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and with green light of wavelengths 4360 A and
∘
5460 A respectively. If x is the distance of 4th maximum from the central one, then
(a) x(blue) = x(green)
(b) x (blue) > x(green)
(c) x (blue) < x(green)
x(blue)
(d) x(green) = 5460
4360

23. A copper wire and a steel wire of the same diameter and length are joined end to end and a force is applied
which stretches their combined length by 1 cm. Then the two wires will have
(a) The same stress and strain
(b) The same stress but different strains
(c) The same strain but different stresses
(d) Different stresses and strains

24. The work done by a particle moving with a velocity of 0.7 c (where c is the speed of light) in empty space
free of electromagnetic field and far away from all matter is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

25. A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1s it is moving at angle 45o with the
horizontal and after 2 s it is moving horizontally. What is the velocity of projection of the ball?
(a) 10√– 3 m s−1
(b) 20√– 3 m s−1
–
(c) 10√5 m s−1
–
(d) 20√2 m s−1

26. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero
displacement is 0.17s, The frequency of the wave is
(a) 1.47 Hz
(b) 0.36 Hz
(c) 0.73 Hz
(d) 2.94 Hz

27. Two parallel wires of length 9 m each are separated by a distance 0.15 m. If they carry equal current in the
same direction and exert a total force of 30 × 10−7 N on each other, then the value of current must be
(a) 2.5 amp
(b) 3.5 amp
(c) 1.5 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
28. Isobaric modulus of elasticity is equal to
(a) Isochoric modulus of elasticity
(b) Isothermal modulus of elasticity
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

29. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What will happen to the water level if the
stones are unloaded into water?
(a) Rise
(b) Fall
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Rise till half the number of stones are unloaded and then begin to fall

30. Equal volumes of monoatomic and diatomic gases at the same temperature are given equal quantities of heat.
Then
(a) The temperature of diatomic gas will be more
(b) The temperature of monoatomic gas will be more
(c) The temperature of both will be zero
(d) Nothing can be said

31. A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 ms-1. A vertically upward force 5 N acts on it
for 4 s. What will be the displacement of the block from the point where the force starts acting?
(a) 2 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 8 m
(d) 10 m

32. When a rod is heated but prevented from expanding, the stress developed is independent of
(a) Material of the rod
(b) Rise in temperature
(c) Length of rod
(d) None of the above

33. The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(a) Diffraction and photoelectric effect
(b) Photoelectric effect
(c) Refraction and interference
(d) Diffraction and reflection

34. ∘
The critical angle for light going from a medium in which wavelength is 4000 A to a medium in which its
∘
wavelength is 6000 A,is:
(a) 30∘
(b) 45∘
(c) 60∘
(d) sin−1 (2/3)
35. Given that T stands for time period and l stands for the length of a simple pendulum. If g is the acceleration
due to gravity, then which of the following statements about the relation T 2 = gl is correct?
(a) It is correct both dimensionally as well as numerically
(b) It is neither dimensionally correct nor numerically
(c) It is dimensionally correct but not numerically
(d) It is numerically correct but not dimensionally

36. Given a μg = 3 and a μw = 4 . There is an equiconvex lens with radius of each surface equal to 20 cm. There
2 3
is air in the object space and water in the image space. The focal length of lens is
(a) 80 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm

37. A body of mass 2 kg has an initial velocity of 3 m/s along OE and it is subjected to a force of 4 N in a
direction perpendicular to OE (x axis). The displacement of body from O after 4 sec.

(a) 12 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 8m
(d) 48 m

38. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is

(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
39. A heavy small-sized sphere is suspended by a string of length l. The sphere rotates uniformly in a horizontal
circle with the string making an angle θ with the vertical. Then, the time-period of this conical pendulum is
−−
(a) t = 2π√ gl
− −−−
(b) t = 2π√ g
l sin θ

−−−−
(c) t = 2π√ l cos g
θ

−−− −−
(d) t = 2π√ g cos l
θ

40. A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/s north to 40 km/s east in 20s. What is the magnitude
of average acceleration during this time?
(a) 2.5 km/s2
(b) 12.5 km/s2
(c) 22.5 km/s2
(d) 32.5 km/s2
41. In the case of forward biasing of PN-Junction diode, which one of the following figures correctly depicts the
direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
42. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10−3 W .
The number of photons emitted on the average, by the source per second is:
(a) 5 × 1016
(b) 5 × 1017
(c) 5 × 1014
(d) 5 × 1015

43.
If the earth is at one ninth of the present distance from the sun, the duration of the year will be

1
(a) 27
of the present year

(b) One -fourth the present year

(c) One eighth of the present year

(d) One sixth of the present year

44. A capacitor is connected to a cell of emf E and some internal resistance r. The potential difference across the
(a) Cell is E
(b) Cell is < E
(c) Capacitor is < E
(d) Capacitor is > E

45. A vertical straight conductor carries a current upward. A point P lies to the east of it at a small distance and
another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnitude of magnetic field at P is
(a) Greater than at Q
(b) Same as at Q
(c) Less than at Q
(d) Greater or less than at Q depending upon the strength of current

46. A mass placed on an inclined plane is just in equilibrium. If μ is coefficient of friction of the surface, then
maximum inclination of the plane with the horizontal (to keep the mass in equilibrium) is,
(a) tan−1 μ
(b) tan−1 (μ/2)
(c) sin−1 μ
(d) cos−1 μ

47. A body of mass 1 kg is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1m, What will be the difference in its kinetic
energy at the top and bottom of the circle? (take g = 10 ms-2)
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J
48. A 50 Hz alternating current of peak value 1A flows through the primary coil of a transformer. If the mutual
inductance between the primary and secondary be 1.5 H, then the mean value of the induced voltage is
(a) 75 V
(b) 150 V
(c) 225 V
(d) 300 V

49. A certain mass of hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction
is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per nucleon is
(given 1 u = 931 MeV)
(a) 2.67 MeV
(b) 26.7 MeV
(c) 6.675 MeV
(d) 13.35 MeV

50. If certain number of bulbs rated as (P1 watt, V volt), (P2 watt, V volt)..... are connected in series across a
potential difference of V volt, then power ‘P’ consumed by all bulbs is given as
(a) P = P1 + P2 + P3 . . . . . .
1 1 1 1
(b) P = P + P + P . . . . . . .
1 2 3
(c) P 2 = P12 + P22 + P32 . . . . . . .
(d) none of these

51.

(a) Ph – CH = CH – CH3
(b) Ph – CH2 – CH = CH2

(c)

(d)

52.

(A) is :

(a)

(b)

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of these
53. Which of the following is D-Glyceraldehyde?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

54.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

55.

Product (A) is:

(a)

(b) Ph – NH2
(c) Ph – NH – CH3
(d) Ph – CH2 – NH2
56. R
1° Alcohol −
→ Aldehyde
Which is preferably used as R?
(a) K2Cr2O7/H⊕
Θ
(b) KMnO / O H
4
(c) Cu/300ºC
(d) All of these

57. Which will give white ppt with AgNO3?

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d) Both (a) & (c)

58.

Product (B) is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

59. The total number of possible isomers (including stereo, structural and cyclic) for the molecular formula C4H8
is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 5
60. Which of the following molecules will has highest dipole moment ?
(a) BF3
(b) NH3
(c) NF3
(d) B2H6

61. The correct statement about orthoboric acid is

(a) it is a strong monobasic acid
(b) it is not a proton donor, but a weak Lewis acid
(c) it is a tribasic acid
(d) it is harmful for eyes

62. How many pi bonds between B and N are there in inorganic benzene ?
(a) 0
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 4

63. Which of the following shows nitrogen in its increasing order of oxidation number?
(a) N2 O < NO < N O2 < N O− 3 < N H4
+

(b) N H4+ < N2 O < NO < N O2 < N O− 3

(c) N H4+ < N2 O < N O2 < N O− 3 < NO
(d) N H4+ < NO < N2 O < N O2 < N O− 3

64. Which of the following is inter pseudo halogen compound?

(a) HSCN
(b) ICN
(c) BrF3
(d) C2N2

65. In the following two figures, (Ψ2) is plotted against (r) the distance from nucleus:

(a) Both (A) and (B) are for 1s

(b) Both (A) and (B) are for 2s
(c) (A) is for 1s and (B) is for 2s
(d) (A) is for 2s and (B) is for 1s

66. When electrons in N shell of excited hydrogen atom return to ground state, the number of possible lines
spectrum is:
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3
67. 100 mL of H2SO4 and 100 mL of H2O are mixed, the mass percent of H2SO4 in the resulting solution is
(dH2 SO4 = 0.9g mL−1 , dH2 O = 1.0g mL−1 )
(a) 90 %
(b) 47.36 %
(c) 50 %
(d) 60 %

68. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is:
(a) 6.6 × 10-33 m
(b) 6.6 × 10-35 m
(c) 6.6 × 10-36 m
(d) 6.6 × 10-37 m

69. Which one of the following ionic species will impart colour to an aqueous solution?
(a) Ti4+
(b) Cu+
(c) Zn2+
(d) Cr3+

70.

on reductive ozonolysis yields

(a) 6-oxoheptanal
(b) 6-oxoheptanoic acid
(c) 6-hydroxyheptanal
(d) 3-hydroxypentanal

71. Which of the following is a high spin complex ?

(a) [F e(CN)6 ]4−
(b) [Ni(CN)4 ] 2−
(c) [F eF6 ]3−
(d) [Co(N H3 )6 ]3+

72. When potash alum is dissolved in water, the total number of ions produced is
(a) four
(b) eight
(c) ten
(d) thirty-two

73. Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment?
(a) CH3F
(b) CH3Cl
(c) CH3Br
(d) CH3I
74.

Structure of product (A) is :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

75. Δ
The reaction product of Ph – O – CH3 + HI −→ is
(a) Ph – OH + CH3I
(b) C6H5I + CH3OH
(c) C6H3CH3 + HOI
(d) C6H6 + CH3OH

76. Which of the following shows maximum conductance?

(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(b) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

77. Which of the following central metal atom/ion configuration will form a diamagnetic octahedral?
(a) d4 (low spin)
(b) d8 (high spin)
(c) d6 (low spin)
(d) d5 (low spin)

78. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) An element which has high electronegativity always has higher electron gain enthalpy.
(b) Electron gain enthalpy is the property of an isolated atom
(c) Difference in electronegativity determines the nature of the bond between two atoms
Both electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy are usually directly related to nuclear charge and
(d)
inversely related to atomic size.
79. Which of the following acid has O-O bond?
(a) H2 S2 O7
(b) H2 S2 O8
(c) H4 P2 O5
(d) H4 P2 O6

80. Which has maximum conductance in solution ?

(a) P tC l4 ⋅ 6N H3
(b) P tC l4 ⋅ 5N H3
(c) P tC l4 ⋅ 4N H3
(d) All have equal

81. In the compound lithium tetrahydroaluminate, the ligand is

(a) H +
(b) H −
(c) H
(d) None of these

82. In a hydrogen atom, if the energy of an electron in the ground state is -13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd excited
state is
(a) -1.51 eV
(b) -3.4 eV
(c) -6.04 eV
(d) -13.6 eV

83. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine) ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

84. If uncertainity in position and velocity are same, then uncertainity in the momentum will be
−−
(a) m1
√ 4πh

−−
(b) m√ 4π h

−−−−
(c) √ 4πmh

−−
−
(d) √ hm4π

85. On strong heating boric acid yields

(a) B
(b) B2
(c) B2O3
(d) B2H6
86.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

87. Time required for 100% completion of a zero-order reaction on is

(a) 2K
a
a
(b) 2K
a
(c) K
(d) ak

88. EAN of the central atom in the complexes:

K2[Ni(CN)4], [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 and K2[PtCl6] are respectively. Atomic number of K = 19, Cu = 29, Pt = 78,
Ni=28
(a) 36, 35, 86
(b) 34, 35, 84
(c) 34, 36, 86
(d) 34, 35, 86

89. The osmotic pressure of a 5% solution of cane sugar 150oC is ?

(a) 4 atm
(b) 3.4 atm
(c) 3.55 atm
(d) 5 atm
90. S 1 & S 2 Product are same in (excluding stereoisomer)
N N

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

91. The vitamin which is water soluble and antioxidant is

(a) vitamin E
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin B1

92. Proteins are built up of

(a) Dicarboxylic acids
(b) Amino acids
(c) Alcohols
(d) Hydroxy acids

93. Calculate the hybridization of the I ⊝ compound.( central atom )

3
3
(a) sp d 2

(b) d2sp3
(c) sp
(d) sp3d

94. Nitrogen forms stable N2 molecule but phosphorus is converted to P4 from P2 because
(a) pπ − pπ bonding is strong in phosphorus
(b) pπ − pπ bonding is weak in phosphorus
(c) triple bond is present in phosphorus
(d) single P-P bond is weaker than N-N bond

95. The value of ΔH for the reaction

X2 (g) + 4Y2 (g) ⇌ 2XY4 (g)
is less than zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be favored at:
(a) High pressure and low temperature.
(b) High temperature and high pressure.
(c) Low pressure and low temperature.
(d) High temperature and low pressure.
96. Which of the following is most rapidly hydrolyzed by S 1 mechanism?
N
(a) C6H5Cl
(b) Cl–CH2–CH=CH2
(c) (C6H5)3CCl
(d) C6H5CH2–Cl

97. Assertion: Sucrose undergoes mutarotation.

Reason: Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

98. The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc. KMnO4 gives

(a) CH3COOH
(b) CH3CH2OH
(c) HCHO
(d) CH3CHO

99.

obtained by chlorination of n-butane, will be

(a) meso-form
(b) racemic mixture
(c) d-form
(d) ℓ-form

100. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively;
(a) B2O3 and H3BO3
(b) B2O3 and [BH4]–
(c) H3BO3 and B2O3
(d) HBO2 and H3BO3

101. Binomial nomenclature means

(a) One name given by two scientists
(b) One scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet
(c) Two names, one latinised, other of a person
(d) Two names of same plant
102. Dinoflagellates,
I. are mostly marine and photosynthetic
II. have a cell wall that has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface
III. have two flagella
IV. are responsible for red tide
The correct statements are
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, II, III, IV

103. Meristematic cells have

(a) Thick cell wall and large intercellular spaces
(b) Thick cell wall and no intercellular space
(c) Thin cell wall and large intercellular spaces
(d) Thin cell wall and no intercellular spaces

104. What is true of Krebs' cycle?

(a) ATP/GTP is formed
(b) Two decarboxylations
(c) Acetyl CoA combines with OAA
(d) All the above

105. Assertion: Cytokinins have specific effects on cytokinesis, and were discovered as kinetin from the
autoclaved herring sperm DNA.
Reason: Natural cytokinins are synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

106. In majority of angiosperms

(a) There are numerous antipodal cells
(b) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
(c) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(d) Egg has a filiform apparatus

107. How many egg cells will be formed from 40 MMCs(megaspore mother cells)
(a) 160
(b) 20
(c) 120
(d) 40

108. RR (red) flowered plant of Mirabilis is crossed with rr (white) flowered plant of Mirabilis. All the Rr
offsprings are pink. This is an indication that the R gene is
(a) Codominant
(b) Recessive
(c) Incompletely dominant
(d) Linked
109. Andalusian fowls have two pure forms – black and white. If black forms (BB) and white forms (WW) are
crossed, F1 individuals appear blue coloured (BW), due to incomplete dominance. Which of the following
would be an outcome of a cross between black form and blue form?
(a) 1 Black : 2 Blue : 1 White
(b) 2 Black : 1 Blue
(c) 1 Black : 2 Blue
(d) 1 Black : 1 Blue

110. The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct identification.

(a) C - ZZ males, ZW females

(b) A - XO Males, XX females
(c) B - XY females, XX males
(d) C - ZZ females, XX males

111. Mycorrhiza is:

(a) Symbiotic association between algae and fungi
(b) Symbiotic association between fungi and animal
(c) Symbiotic association between plant and animal
(d) Symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants

112. Decomposers are also called as

(a) Transducers
(b) Reducers
(c) Micro-consumers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

113. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: In diplontic life cycle, gametophyte is dominant.
Statement 2: In diplontic life cycle, there is no free living sporophyte.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
114. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Xylem vessel is a long cylindrical tube like-structure made up of many cells each with
lignified walls.
Statement 2: Presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of gymnosperms.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

115. Basidiocarp and Ascocarp are the fruiting bodies of fungi. They can be seen in:
(a) Alternaria and Agaricus, respectively
(b) Alternaria and Ustilago, respectively
(c) Claviceps and Agaricus, respectively
(d) Agaricus and Claviceps, respectively

116. The floral characters of Liliaceae are

(a) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary, axile placentation
(b) Tetramerous, actinomorphic, polyphyllous,unilocular ovary, axile placentation
(c) Bisexual, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior ovary, axile placentation
(d) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior ovary, marginal placentation

117. Select the option that correctly identifies the labelling A, B and C in the given figure showing a section of
root apical meristem.

(a) A – Cortex, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap

(b) A – Protoderm, B – Cortex, C – Root cap
(c) A – Hypodermis, B – Epidermis, C – Cortex
(d) A – Tunica, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap

118. The number of ATP molecules that can be formed by complete oxidation of a single pyruvic acid molecule
is_____.
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 15
(d) 30
119. Microspores before dissociating and developing into pollen grains are present as
(a) dyad
(b) 3-celled stage
(c) tetrad
(d) 2-celled stage

120. Initially a biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently …b… more have been added to the list,
bringing the total number of biodiversity hotspots in the World to c .
(a) a-22, b-11, c-33
(b) a-24, b-10, c-33
(c) a-23, b-11, c-34
(d) a-25, b-9, c-34

121. In fern, spores are formed in

(a) Sporangium
(b) Oogonium
(c) Archegonium
(d) Stomium

122. The term prothallus is used for the

(a) Reduced gametophyte of bryophytes
(b) Reduced gametophyte of pteridophytes
(c) Reduced sporophyte of peridophytes
(d) Reduced sporophyte of bryophytes

123. Which of the following plant groups has underground stems?

(a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, Zaminkand
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Zaminkand, Colocasia
(c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, Zaminkand, Colocasia
(d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, Zaminkand, Colocasia

124. Select the correct statement regarding the Blackman’s law

The rate of a chemical process affected by several factors is determined by the factor which is farthest
(a)
from its minimal value
The rate of a chemical process affected by several factors is determined by the factor which is nearest to
(b)
its minimal value
The rate of a chemical process affected by several factors is determined by the factor which is nearest to
(c)
its maximum value
The rate of a chemical process affected by several factors is determined by the factor which is nearest to
(d)
its optimum value

125. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side, to bend towards the source of light as it
grows?
(a) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic
(b) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster
(c) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there
(d) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis
126. Flocs formed in aeration tanks mainly consist of _____.
(a) usefull aerobic microbes
(b) fungal filaments
(c) both a and b
(d) anaerobic bacteria

127. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

(a) Tertiary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Primary treatment
(d) Sludge treatment

128. Secondary productivity is rate of __X___ of new organic matter by____Y___.Select the option with
appropriate words for X and Y.
(a) X-Production Y-producers
(b) X-degradation Y-detritus
(c) X-formation Y-consumers
(d) X-formation Y-producers

129. Main cause of extinction of species from tropical areas is

(a) Afforestation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion

130. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant
type offspring. This indicates
(a) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
(b) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
(c) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
(d) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
131. Study the given figures and identify the kind of phyllotaxy.

(a) i-Opposite, ii- Alternate, iii- Whorled

(b) i-Alternate, ii-Opposite, iii- Whorled
(c) i-Whorled, ii-Opposite, iii- Alternate
(d) i-Opposite, ii-Whorled, iii- Alternate

132. Out of a population of 800 individuals in F2 generation of a cross between yellow

round and green wrinkled Pea plants, what would be a number of yellow and wrinkled seeds
(a) 800
(b) 400
(c) 200
(d) 150

133. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form

(a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB
(b) All AaBB
(c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB
(d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB

134. A plant having 24 cm long internodes is crossed with a plant having 12 cm long
internodes.
The hybrids have 18 cm long internodes due to
(a) Multiple allelism
(b) Complete dominance
(c) Recessive dominance
(d) Incomplete dominance
135. Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching.

(a) a-Grana, b-Stromal lamella, e-Ribosomes, c-Starch granule, d-Lipid droplet

(b) a-Grana, b-Stromal lamella, c-Ribosomes, d-Starch granule, e-Lipid droplet
(c) a-Grana, b-Stromal lamella, d-Ribosomes, e-Starch granule, c-Lipid droplet
(d) b-Grana, a-Stromal lamella, d-Ribosomes, c-Starch granule, e-Lipid droplet

136. Which is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA in plasmid?
(a) Cloning sites
(b) Ori
(c) Restriction endonuclease
(d) Insertional inactivation

137. Assertion: Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for isolation of DNA from yeast cells but not in case of
Spirogyra.
Reason: Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

138. Select the correct statements regarding the characteristics of acquired immunity.
(i) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for acquired immunity
(ii) It produces a primary response of low intensity.
(iii) Active and passive immunity are types of acquired immunity
(iv) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and natural killer cells are involved in acquired immunity
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
139. Match the columns | and I, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
a. Opioids 1. Snorting and injection
b. Cannabinoids 2. Inhalation and oral ingestion
c. Coka alkaloids 3. Snorting

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3

(b) a-3, b-2, c-1
(c) a-2, b-1, c-3
(d) a-1, b-3, c-2

140. Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in the non-radioactive medium
for two generations. The percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA is
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 12.5%

141. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This
is referred to as :
(a) Genetic load
(b) Genetic flow
(c) Genetic drift
(d) Random mating

142. Assertion: During the follicular phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature
Graafian follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.
Reason: The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and
stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

143. Match List | with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below in the lists.

List I List II
1. Ligase Joins short segments of DNA together
2. DNA polymerase Cuts DNA at specific DNA sequence
3. Helicase Breaks the hydrogen bonds betweencomplementary pairs during DNA replication

(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct but 3 is false
(c) 1 is correct but 2 and 3 are false
(d) 1and 3 are correct but 2 is false
144. In the lac operon, the genes a, i, y, and z code respectively for:
(a) Repressor protein, permease, β-galactosidase, transacetylase
(b) Transacetylase, permease, β-galactosidase, the repressor protein
(c) Permease, transacetylase, repressor protein, β -galactosidase
(d) Transacetylase, repressor protein, permease, β -galactosidase

145. A reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis may be observed at
(a) Light having wavelength more than 680 nm
(b) Light having wavelength less than 680 nm
(c) Light having wavelength 560 nm
(d) Light having wavelength less than 360 nm

146. Assertion: The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one
or more chromosomes.
Reason: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a
chromosome(s), called polyploidy.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

147. Assertion: Law of segregation is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that both
the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation.
Reason: Though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles
of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

148. Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell?

(a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans.
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm.
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA.
(d) Membrane bound organelles are present

149. Assertion: The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
Reason: This ability to move within the membrane is called fluidity and is important for cell
growth.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
150. Consider the following statements with respect to the C4 pathway and select the correct ones.
(i) Mesophyll cells possess both RuBisCO and PEPcasc enzymes.
(ii) Initial CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cells.
(iii) Final CO2 fixation occurs in bundle sheath cells.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

151. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the occurrence of notochord?
(a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frogs
(c) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus

152. Identify figures A, B, and C and select the correct option.

(a) A-Sycon, B-Euspongia, C-Spongilla

(b) A-Euspongia, B-Spongilla, C-Sycon
(c) A-Spongilla, B-Sycon, C- Euspongia
(d) A-Euspongia, B-Sycon, C-Spongilla

153. Striations in the striated muscles are due to:

(a) Projections of myosin
(b) Absence of myofilaments
(c) Presence of myofilaments
(d) Specialized arrangement of myofilaments

154. During inflammation which of the following is secreted by connective tissue?

(a) Heparin
(b) Histamine
(c) Serotonin
(d) Glucagon

155. Read the given statements regarding a cell organelle.

(i) It contains water, sap, excretory products and other unwanted materials.
(ii) It is bounded by a single membrane called tonoplast.
(iii) In plant cells, it can occupy up to 90% of cellular volume.
(iv) Its contents form cell sap.
(v) It maintains turgor pressure.
The above features are attributed to
(a) Lysosome
(b) Vacuole
(c) Peroxisome
(d) Mitochondrion
156. Complete the following sentence by selecting the correct option.
Receptors associated with the aortic arch and carotid artery can recognize changes in (i) and (ii)
concentration and send necessary signals to (iii) for remedial actions.
(a) (i) → O2; (ii) → CO2; (iii) → pneumotaxic centre
(b) (i) → CO2; (ii) → H+; (iii) → rhythm centre
(c) (i) → CO2; (ii) → H+; (iii) → apneustic centre
(d) (i) → O2; (ii) → H+; (iii) → pneumotaxic centre

157. How do contraceptive pills work?

(i) Inhibit ovulation
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms
(iii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from being released from the male urethra
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

158. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cells?
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) hnRNA
(d) rRNA

159.
Reduction in genetic variation that results when a small subset of a large population is used to establish a
new colony is known as

(a) Natural selection

(b) Founder effect
(c) Branching descent
(d) Saltation

160. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) Autoimmune response
(b) Cell-mediated immune response
(c) Hormonal immune response
(d) Physiological immune response

161. In some chordates, the notochord is modified as the vertebral column. Such animals are called vertebrates.
Which one of the following statements makes sense?
(a) All chordates are vertebrates but all vertebrates are not chordates.
(b) All vertebrates are chordates and all chordates are vertebrates.
(c) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
(d) Chordates are not vertebrates and vertebrates are not chordates.
162. Match the following and select the correct option from the codes given below

(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

163.
Refer to the given reactions.
(i) Adenine + X → Adenosine
(ii) Adenosine + Y → Adenylic acid
What does X and Y represent here?

(a) X-Phosphate group, Y-Sugar molecule

(b) X-Sugar molecule, Y-Phosphate group

(c) X-Sugar molecule, Y-Nitrogenous base

(d) X-Nitrogenous base, Y-Sugar molecule

164. A protein is imagined as a line, the left end is represented by the first amino acid and the right end is
represented by the last amino acid. The first and last acids are called as
(a) N-terminal amino acid and C-terminal amino acid respectively
(b) C-terminal amino acid and N-terminal amino acid respectively
(c) O-terminal amino acid and C-terminal amino acid respectively
(d) NH2-terminal amino acid and COOH-terminal amino acid respectively

165. Saturated fatty acids possess ______ bonds between carbon atoms and are _____ at room temperature.
(a) Single, solids
(b) Double, solids
(c) Single, liquids
(d) Double, liquids

166. The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate in

(a) Prophase I
(b) Anaphase I
(c) Metaphase I
(d) Telophase I

167. Assertion: Prophase of the first meiotic division is the longest phase and more complex when compared to
prophase of mitosis.
Reason: Prophase comprises five phases based on chromosomal behaviour, i.e., Leptotene, Zygotene,
Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

168. The respiratory membranes facilitate the exchange of respiratory gases through diffusion. Oxygen enters the
deoxygenated blood through diffusion because -
(a) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 40 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg respectively
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg respectively
(c) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 46 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg respectively
(d) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and capillaries is 40 mm Hg and 46 mm Hg respectively

169. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the outside and the
inside of the axon membrane are reversed because:
(a) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(b) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(c) all potassium ions leave the axon
(d) all sodium ions enter the axon

170. Vasopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone because

(a) It decreases urine output
(b) It prevents urine formation
(c) It causes hypertension
(d) It increases urine flow
171.
In a mammalian sperm, mitochondria occur in:

(a) Middle piece

(b) Head

(c) The end piece of tail

(d) The proximal part of the tail

172. Assertion: RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates the process of transcription. Reason: The RNA
polymerase is only capable of catalysing the process of elongation.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

173. The eyes of Octopus and eyes of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function.
This is an example of
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

174. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Endomembrane system comprises of Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosome and
mitochondria.
Statement 2: Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

175. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Secondary structure is necessary for many biological activities of proteins, like forming an
active site in enzymes.
Statement 2: The difference in average energy content of product from that of its transition state is called
activation energy.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
176. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: 4C content of DNA differentiates G2 from G1.
Statement 2: Meiosis has evolutionary significance because it results in recombinations.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

177. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Aldosterone hormone has membrane bound receptors.
Statement 2: PTH is a hyperglycemic hormone.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

178. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Insertional inactivation of the lac Z gene forms colourless recombinant colonies.
Statement 2: Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between A and T at GAATTC.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

179. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

d–plasma membrane, b–radial spoke, a–central sheath, c–interdoubletbridge, f–peripheral microtubule,

(a)
e–central microtubule
d–plasma membrane, c–radial spoke, a–central sheath, b–interdoubletbridge, e–peripheral microtubule,
(b)
f–central microtubule
a–plasma membrane, b–radial spoke, d–central sheath, c–interdoubletbridge, e–peripheral microtubule,
(c)
f–central microtubule
a–plasma membrane, c–radial spoke, d–central sheath, b–interdoubletbridge, e–peripheral microtubule,
(d)
f–central microtubule
180. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?
(a) It is a storage polysaccharide
(b) It is a homopolysaccharide
(c) It is a constituent of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell wall
(d) It is the second most abundant carbohydrate on earth

181. At what stage of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres?
(a) Prophase I
(b) Metaphase I
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Telophase I

182. Bicuspid and tricuspid valve opens when

(a) Blood from the pulmonary artery and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles, respectively
(b) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right ventricles, respectively
(c) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right atrium, respectively
(d) Oxygen from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right atrium, respectively

183. Protonephridia or flame cells or solenocytes are the excretory structures in

(a) Platyhelminthes/flatworms
(b) Rotifers and some annelids
(c) Cephalochordate (Branchiostoma)
(d) All of the above

184. Which of the following group do not include endocrine gland?

(a) Pituitary, pineal, thyroid
(b) Adrenal, parathyroid, thymus
(c) Pancreas, testis, ovary
(d) Liver, kidney, heart and gastrointestinal tract
185. Refer the figure given below depicting a cell with various cell organnels in it.

Identify the cell organelle that performs the functions of packaging materials synthesised in cell.

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A

186. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Colin MacLeod - Gave unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material
(b) Taylor – Proved the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication in prokaryotes
Meselson and Stahl – Proved that eukaryotic chromosomal DNA follow semi-conservative mode of
(c)
replication
(d) Frederick Griffith – Discovered the phenomenon of transformation

187. Assertion: A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is allowed to hybridise to
its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
Reason: The clone having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the
probe will not have complementarity with the mutated gene.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

188. Assertion: The oogonia are continuously formed and added after birth.
Reason: These cells start division and enter into prophase of the mitotic division and get temporarily
arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
189. Cu-T is an intrauterine contraceptive device. From the following mentioned statements select the option that
correctly defines the role of Cu.
(a) Cu ions make uterus unstable for implantation
(b) Cu ions suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of the sperms
(c) Cu ions make cervix hostile to sperms
(d) All of these

190. The transforming principle of Pneumococcus as found by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was
(a) DNA
(b) Protein
(c) m-RNA
(d) Polysaccharide

191. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(i) The universe is almost 20 million years old.
(ii) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe.
(iii) Considering the size of earth, universe is indeed a speck.
(iv) Big bang theory attempts to explain the origin of universe
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) only (i)

192. Widal test is carried out to test

(a) Malaria
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) HIV/AIDS
(d) Typhoid fever

193. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
(a) T-lymphocytes
(b) B-lymphocytes
(c) Thrombocytes
(d) Erythrocytes

194. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by joining of segments of DNA from different sources
(b) Purine – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil
(c) ATP – The principal energy carrying compound in the cell
(d) r-RNA – RNA molecules found in ribosomes

195. The strategy used to prevent nematode infection of tobacco roots is

(a) Use of agrochemicals
(b) Bt toxin gene
(c) Gene mutation
(d) RNA interference
196.
Human insulin has 3 polypeptide chains, A, B and C. C-chain is

(a) An important component of functional human insulin.

(b) The key for the formation of disulphide bridges between the polypeptide chains.

(c) Not present in the functional insulin.

(d) The main component which controls the activity of the functional insulin.

197. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given mitotic stages?

(a) D→C→B→A
(b) C→B→D→A
(c) B→A→C→D
(d) C→B→A→D

198. Synaptonemal complex is formed during stage of meiosis I

(a) Leptotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Zygotene

199. Mesorchium in a frog is the fold of membrane extending between ____ and ____.
(a) Liver and kidneys
(b) Stomach and intestines
(c) Liver and stomach
(d) Kidneys and testes

200. X is the right granted by a government to an inventor to prevent others from commercial use of his
invention. When ‘X’ is granted for biological entities and for products derived from them, these are called
Y.
Read the above paragraph and identify X and Y.
(a) X - patent, Y - biopatent
(b) X - piracy, Y - biopiracy
(c) X - patent,Y - biopiracy
(d) X - piracy, Y - biopatent
 Answer Key

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B
7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. D
19. C 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B
37. B 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. D
43. A 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D
49. C 50. B 51. A 52. C 53. C 54. B
55. B 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. B
61. B 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. C 66. A
67. B 68. C 69. D 70. A 71. C 72. B
73. B 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. C 78. A
79. B 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. A 84. D
85. C 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. D 90. B
91. C 92. B 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. C
97. D 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. D
103. D 104. D 105. B 106. B 107. D 108. C
109. D 110. A 111. D 112. D 113. D 114. B
115. D 116. C 117. A 118. C 119. C 120. D
121. A 122. B 123. B 124. B 125. C 126. C
127. C 128. C 129. B 130. B 131. B 132. D
133. A 134. D 135. A 136. B 137. A 138. A
139. A 140. B 141. C 142. A 143. D 144. D
145. A 146. C 147. A 148. A 149. B 150. B
151. C 152. A 153. D 154. B 155. B 156. B
157. B 158. D 159. B 160. B 161. C 162. C
163. B 164. A 165. A 166. C 167. A 168. B
169. B 170. A 171. A 172. B 173. C 174. C
175. D 176. A 177. D 178. B 179. D 180. A
181. C 182. C 183. D 184. D 185. B 186. D
187. B 188. D 189. B 190. A 191. C 192. D
193. A 194. B 195. D 196. C 197. D 198. D
199. D 200. A
 Solutions

1. (C)
Area of the image
= (3 × 10) × (2 × 10)
= 600 cm2

2. (A)
1.6×10−19 J=1 eV
1
1 J= −19
1.6×10
10 −20 1
∴ 10−20 J= = 1.6×10 =0.0625 eV
1.6×10 −19

3. (B)
The barrier potential is depending on the doping level of impurities,
It depends on the temperature at which it is operated &which semiconductor material for example Germanium
has loosely bound valance electron as compared to the Silicon

4. (B)
First resonance is produced at, ℓ1 = 73cm
Second resonance is produced at, ℓ2 = 20cm
Then, ℓ1 − ℓ2 = 73 − 20 = 53cm = λ2
⇒ λ = 106cm
ν = λf = ( 106
100
) 320 = 339ms−1

5. (C)
From the law of conservation of angular momentum
I1ω1 = I2ω2
Mr2ω = (M + 2m) r2ω′
Thus ω′ = M+2m
ωM

6. (B)
Horizontal velocity of bomb at ground, VH = 200 m/s

Let vertical velocity of bomb at ground, VV and angle of strike with horizontal is θ

Since bomb is released from a horizontal moving plane, initial vertical velocity of the plane will be zero.

Using v = u + at ⇒ VV = 10 × 5 = 50 m/s
VV 50 1
⇒ tan θ = VH
= 200
= 4

⇒ θ = tan−1 ( 14 )
7. (C)
E
I= r+nr

E
= r(n+1)

V = E − Ir
E nE
=E− r(n+1)
r = n+1

∴ V
E
= n
n+1

8. (D)

Here, 2πct
λ
as well as ( 2πx
λ
) are dimensionless.

So, unit of ct as well as unit of x is same as that of λ .

Since, ( 2πct
λ
) = ( 2πx
λ
) = [M ∘ L∘ T ∘ ]

∴ unit of 2πct
λ
= unit of 2πx
λ
x c
In the option (d), λ
is unitless. It is not the case with λ

9. (C)
v = at + b
t+c

[at] = [v]

∣∣LT −1 ∣∣
∴ [a] = [T]
= [LT −2 ]

Dimensions of c = [t] = [T ] (we can add quantities of same dimensions only).

[ t+c
b
] = [v] = [LT −1 ]

[b] = [LT −1 ] [T ] = [L]

10. (B)

Let l = side of the cube

x = side of cube immersed in water

l − x = side of cube immersed in liquid

According to law of flotation,

l3 × 0.9 × 103 × g = (l2 × x) × 1 × 103 g + l2 (l − x) × 0.7 × 103 g

l × 0.9 = x + (l − x) × 0.7

Or 0.3x = 0.2 l
x 2
Or l
= 3

volume immersed in water xl2 2

= = 3
volume of the cube l3

11. (D)
Velocity of rocket u = 70 m/s
Force F = 280N
The relation of force is given by
F = u ( dm
dt
)
dm F 280
or dt
= u
= 70
= 4kg/ sec

12. (C)
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron does not depends on the intensity of the incident light it depends
on the energy of one photon.

But number of photoelectrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity,

no. of emitted photoelectrons ∝ Intensity

13. (A)
The relations between potential and work function is given by
eVs = E − ϕ = 2 − 0.6 = 1.4eV
−19
Hence, Vs = 1.4×1.6×10 −19
1.6×10
= 1.4V

14. (B)

According to Kirchhoff's current law,

iCD = i2 + i3
15. (A)
4T 4×1.6
P = =
R 2.5×10 −3

= 2560 Nm−2

16. (C)

When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, decrease in potential energy of load = Mgl

(where l = elongation in metal wire)

Elastic potential energy stored in stretched wire

1
= 2
× Mgl
1
Difference of Mgl and 2
Mgl appears as heat energy in the stretched wire.

∴ energy appearing as heat = Mgl − 12 Mgl = 1

2
Mgl

17. (C)
v2
Radial acceleration ar = r

Tangential acceleration at = a

∴ Resultant acceleration
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
a′ = √a2r + a2t + 2ar at cos θ

But here θ = 90∘

∴ cos θ = cos 90∘ = 0

v2
And ar = r
−−−−−−−−−
So, a′ = √a2 + ( vr )
2 2
18. (D)
For hydrogen like atom, the radius of nth orbit
n2
rZn = Z
a0

Here, a0 = 0.51 × 10−10 m

0.51×10 −10
∴ rZn = 4
m

In the ground state n = 1

0.51×10 −10 12
∴ 4
= Z
× 0.51 × 10−10

∴Z=4

So, the atom is triply ionized beryllium (Be3+ ) .

19. (C)
Given case is balanced wheatstone bridge. So the middle Resistance has no effect on the circuit therefore the
upper and lower arm resistances are in series combination.
Hence the equivalent resistance in upper arm is given by
RU = 20 + 20 = 40Ω
Similarly equivalent resistance in lower arm is
RL = 20 + 20 = 40Ω
Now equivalent resistance RL and RU will be in parallel combination hence, the resultant resistance is given by

(R P ×R L ) (40×40)
R PQ = (R P +R L )
= (40+40)
Ω = 20Ω

20. (C)
When the switched is closed, the current grows in the circuit but due to self inductance of the inductor the growth
is slow. On opening the switch the current suddenly decreases to zero on account of the infinite resistance of the
circuit. Thus, rate of growth of the current is lower as compared to the rate of decay.

21. (B)
Force of charged particle in a uniform electric field is
F = ma = qE
Eq
Or a = m
From the equation of motion, we have
Eq 2Eqy
v2 = u2 + 2ay = 0 + 2 × m × y = m
Now kinetic energy of the particle
2Eqy
K = 12 mv2 = m2 × m = Eqy
22. (C)
Position of fourth maxima
4Dλ
x= d

Or x ∝ λ

∴ x (blue) < x (green)

23. (B)
As same force is applied to each wire having equal area of cross-section, so stress is same but extensions will be
different for wires of different materials. So, same stress but different strains are there.

24. (C)
Acceleration of the particle
dv d
a= dt
= dt
(0.7c) = 0 (∵ c = constant)

Force on the particle

F = ma = 0

Thus, work done by a particle will be zero.

25. (C)
vy u sin θ−gt
tan θ = vx
= u cos θ

Given α = 45∘ when t = 1 and

α = 0 when t = 2

u cos θ = u sin θ − g . . . . . (1)

2g = u sin θ . . . . . (2)

From (1) and (2)

u sin θ = 2g and u cos θ = g

– –
u = √5g = 10√5m/s
26. (A)

Time for maximum displacement t = 0.17 s

Time period T for one vibration = 4t = 4 × 0.17 = 0.68 s

1 1
Frequency = time period(T)
= 0.68

= 1.47 Hz

27. (D)
The force between wires carrying equal current in same direction is given by
μo 2i 2 . ℓ
F = ×
4π r
2 × i2 × 9
30 × 10−7 = 10−7 ×
0.15
30 × 10−7 = 120 × 10−7 × i2

30×10 −7
i2 = = 0.250A
120×10 −7

i = 0.5A

28. (C)
B = − ΔPΔV
V
For isobaric process ΔP = 0
So, B = 0

29. (B)
When stones are unloaded into water, then water displaced by the stones separately and unloaded boat will be less
than the water displaced by the boat containing stones. Thus, water level will fall.

30. (B)
The temperature of monoatomic gas will be more because their heat capacity will be low as they depend on
degree of freedom.
31. (D)
5
Upward acceleration = 5
= 1m/s2

Upward displacement covered in 4s

1
y= 2
at 2

= 1
2
× 1 × (4)2 = 8m

Horizontal displacement covered in 4s

x = vt = 1.5 × 4 = 6m
−−−−−− −−−−−−
∴ s = √x2 + y 2 = √62 + 82

= √−−−
36 −−
+ − = 10 m
64

32. (C)

Lt = L0 (1 + α Δθ)

ΔL = Lt − L0 = L0 α Δθ. . . (i)

If the same rod of length L0 is subjected to stress along its length, then extension in length can be calculated by
Hooke's law.
stress stress
Y = strain
= ΔL
L0

L0 ×stress
= ΔL

L0 ×stress
∴ ΔL = Y
. . . (ii)

If the rod is prevented from expanding, we have

L0 ×stress
L0 α Δθ = Y

∴ stress = Y α Δθ → (independent of L0 )

33. (A)
Diffraction exhibits wave nature of light and photoelectric effect exhibits quantum nature of light. Hence,
diffraction and photoelectric effect is exhibited by dual nature of light.

34. (D)
1
= 4000 2
λ1
sin C = μ
=
λ2 6000
= 3
−1 2
∴ C= sin ( 3 )
35. (C)
1

The correct relation for time period of simple pendulum is T = 2π( gl ) .

2

So, the given relation is numerically incorrect as the factor of 2π is missing.

But it is correct dimensionally.

36. (B)

a μw (a μg −1) (a μ g − a μ w )
f
= R1
− R2

( 2 −1) (2−3)
3 3 4

= 20
− −20

1 1 1
= 40
+ 120
= 30

4
∴f= 3
× 30 = 40 cm

37. (B)

The acceleration of the body Perpendicular to OE is

4
a= F
m
= 2
= 2 m/s2

Displacement along OE,

s1 = vt = 3 × 4 = 12m

Displacement Perpendicular to OE
1
s2 = 2
at 2

= 1
2
× 2 × (4)2 = 16 m

The resultant displacement

−−−−−−−
s = √s1 2 + s2 2

= √−−−−+
144 −− −−
256
−−−
= √400

s = 20 m
38. (D)

Below truth table shows output for all possible inputs

A B C Y
0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0
1 1 0 0
0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1
0 1 1 1
1 1 1 1

For Y = 1, Truth table is below:

A B C Y
1 0 1 1
0 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
39. (C)

Radius of circular path in the horizontal plane

r = l sin θ

Resolving T along the vertical and horizontal directions, we get

T cos θ = Mg. . . (i)

T sin θ = Mrω2 = M (l sin θ) ω2

Or T = Mlω2 . . . (ii)

Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get

1 lω2 g
cos θ
= g
or ω2 = l cos θ

∴ Time period
−−−−
t= 2π
ω
= 2π√ l cos
g
θ
40. (A)
−−−−2−−−−−−−
Change in velocity = √(40) + (30)
2

= 50 km/s

Change in velocity
Average acceleration = Time
= 50
20
= 2.5 km/s2

41. (D)
In p-region, direction of conventional current is same as the flow of holes and in n-region direction of
conventional current is opposite to the direction of electron’s flow. Hence, option (d) is correct.

42. (D)
Power of monochromatic light beam is P = Nhν , where N is the number of photons emitted per second.
Power P = 2 × 10−3 W
Energy of one photon E = hν
= 6.63 × 10−34 × 6 × 1014 J
Number of photons emitted per second, N=P/E
2×10 −3
= −34 14
6.63×10 ×6×10
17
= 0.05 × 10 = 5 × 1015

43. (A)
Since T 2 = kr3
2 3
( TT ) = ( rr )
′ ′

2
( TT ) = ( 19 )
′ 3

⇒ T′ = T
27

44. (A)
When a capacitor is fully charged then no current us drawn by it. When no current flows in the circuit, potential
difference across the cell = emf of cell = potential difference across the capacitor.
45. (B)

If distance is same, field will be same

(∵ B = . )
μ0 2i
4π r

Magnetic field will be of same magnitude but direction will be opposite as shown in the diagram.

46. (A)
Maximum inclination of the plane with horizontal = angle of repose = tan−1 (μ)

47. (B)
Velocity at the top is √−− and that at the bottom is √−
gr
−−
5 gr .

Hence, required difference in kinetic energy

1
= 2
m [5gr − gr] = 2gmr

= 2 × 10 × 1 × 1 = 20J

48. (D)

Time period on AC
1 1
T = n
= 50
s

Time interval Δt for current to decrease from 1A to zero = T

4

∴ Δt = T
4
= 1
50
× 1
4
= 1
200
s

Change in current, ΔI = 0 − 1 = −1 A

Mean induced emf, e = −M ( ΔI

Δt
)

−1
= −1.5 × 1 = 300 V
200
49. (C)
Given that
Mass defect =Δm=0.02866u
Total energy= E= Δmc2
=0.02866×931MeV
=26.68 MeV
Energy liberated per nucleon = E/A
= 26.68
4
=6.678 MeV

50. (B)
Power consumed in one bulb rated as P1 W , V volt having resistance of R 1 Ω is

V2
P1 = R1
. . . . . (1)

For certain number of bulbs we can write,

V2
P2 = R2
. . . . . (2)

V2
P3 = R3
and soon . . . . . (3)

We know in series combination resistances get added, hence

R eq = R 1 + R 2 + R 3 +. . . .

dividing both sides by V 2 , we get

Req R1 R2 R3
2 = 2 + 2 + +. . . .
V V V V2

Referring equations (1), (2) and (3)

1 1 1 1
Peq
= P1
+ P2
+ P3
+. . .

51. (A)

Extended conjugation favour the product

52. (C)
(a)

(b)

53. (C)

Glyceraldehyde (glyceral) is a triose monosaccharide with chemical formula C3H6O3. It is the simplest of all
common aldoses. It is a sweet, colorless, crystalline solid that is an intermediate compound is carbohydrate
metabolism. The word comes from combining glycerol and aldehyde, as glyceraldehyde is glycerol with one
alcohol group oxidized to an aldehyde.

A Fischer projection is used to differentiate between L- and D- carbohydrates. On a Fischer projection of a monosaccharide, the
penultimate ("next-to-last") carbon (alternatively, the last stereogenic carbon) of D sugars are depicted with hydrogen on the left
and hydroxyl on the right. L sugars will be shown with the hydrogen on the right and the hydroxyl on the left.

54. (B)

55. (B)

This is Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.

56. (C)

57. (D)
As both (a) and (c) provide carbocation, due to formation of stable carbocation (allylic and benzylic), they both
give white ppt. of AgCl with silver nitrate.

58. (B)

This is Kolbe's reaction.

The phenoxide ion generated is more reactive than phenol towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.
Hence, it undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction with carbon dioxide,which is a weak electrophile. Ortho-
hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid) is formed as the primary product.
59. (A)

60. (B)
NH3 > NF3
Due to the more electronegative ‘F’ atom in NF3 the net dipole due to 3 ’F’ atoms and that due to the lone pair are
in opposite directions. Hence the net dipole moment is less than NH3, where both dipole moments are in the same
direction.

BF3 and B2H6 have zero dipole moment.

61. (B)
Orthoboric acid is weak monobasic acid with Ka = 1.0 x 10-9. It does not act as protonic acid (i.e. proton donor)
but behaves as Lewis acid by accepting a pair of electrons from OH– ion.
B(OH)3 + 2H–O–H → [B(OH)4]– + H3O+

It is used in eye drops.

62. (C)
The structure of borazine is

It has three pi bonds between boron and nitrogen.

63. (B)
N2 O = +1, NO = +2, N O2 = +4, N O− +
3 = +5, N H 4 = −3
Increasing order of oxidation state will be
N H4+ < N2 O < NO < N O2 < N O− 3

64. (B)
F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 = Halogens
ICl3, ICl = Inter halogen
CN–, SCN– = Pseudo halogen
ICN = Inter pseudo halogen

65. (C)

1s have no radial node so its graph will not touch x axis

while 2s will have 1 radial nodes so its graph will touch x-axis once in between r = 0 and r = ∞

66. (A)
N shell means n = 4
n(n−1)
No. of spectral line = 2
4(4 − 1)
=
2
=6
67. (B)
Mass of H2SO4 = d × V = 0.9 × 100 = 90 g
Mass of H2O = 100 g
Mass of A
Mass percentage of A = Mass of A+Mass of B
× 100
90 90
Mass percentage of H2SO4 = 90+100 × 100 = 190 × 100
= 47.36 %

68. (C)

69. (D)
Only Cr3+ [Ar]3d3 contains unpaired electrons hence will give coloured solution

70. (A)

is formed by reductive ozonolysis

71. (C)
F– is a weak field ligand, hence it will form high spin complex
CN–, NH3 are strong field ligands.

72. (B)
Potash alum K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O gives 2K+, 2Al3+ and 4 SO42– ions.
Total ions = 8

73. (B)
CH3Cl has higher dipole moment than CH3F due to much longer C–Cl bond length than the C–F bond. The much
longer bond length of the C–Cl bond outweighs the effect produced by lower electronegativity of Cl than that of
F.
74. (B)

Cl– will abstract, because it will form stable carbocation.

75. (A)
Ph–O–CH3 + HI → Ph–OH + CH3I
Because Ph–O bond is in resonance cannot cleave.

76. (A)
C l3 → [Co(N H3 )6 ]3+ + 3C l−
[Co(N H3 )3 C l3 ] → No dissociation
[Co(N H3 )4 C l2 ]Cl → [Co(N H3 )4 C l2 ]+ + C l−
[Co(N H3 )5 Cl]C l2 → [Co(N H3 )5 Cl]2+ + 2C l−
(All reaction done in aq. solution)
More ion dissociated in aq. solution more will be conductance.

77. (C)

In (c) no unpair electron in valence shell so it is diamagnetic substance.

78. (A)
Example of F and Cl shows that F has high electronegativity but low electron gain enthalpy compare to Cl
79. (B)
a) H2 S2 O 7

b) H2 S2 O8

O-O linkage is present.

c) H4 P2 O5

d) H4 P2 O6

80. (A)
P tC l4 6N H3 can be written as [P t(N H3 )6 ] C l4 . It will dissociate into five ion in aq. solution .

P tC l4 ⋅ 5N H3 can be written as [P t(N H3 )5 Cl] C l3 . It will dissociate into four ion in aq. solution .

P tC l4 ⋅ 4N H3 can be written as [P t(N H3 )4 C l2 ] C l2 . It will dissociate into three ion in aq. solution .

More the ion more will be conductance in aq. solution

81. (B)
Lithium tetrahydroaluminate is Li[Al(H )4 ] .

Here ligand is H- ion.

82. (A)
2nd excited state will be the 3rd energy level.
2
En = −13.6 z 2 eV
n
1
= −13.6 × 9
= -1.51 eV
83. (A)

84. (D)
Given that Δx = Δv
h
Δx × m Δv = 4π
−−−−
m Δv 2 = Δv = √ 4πm
h
4π
; h

−−−− −−
−
Δp = mΔv = m√ 4πm
h
= √ hm
4π

85. (C)
Δ
2B(OH)3 −→ B2O3 + 3H2O

86. (B)

87. (C)

[A] = [A]o – kt

[A]o = a

[A] = a – a = 0 (remaining concentration)

So, putting values of [A]o and [A]

a
t= k

88. (D)
EAN of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2– = 28 – 2 (O.N.) + 4 × 2 = 34
EAN of Cu in [Cu(NH3)4]2- = 29 – 2 (O.N.) + 4 × 2 = 35
EAN of Pt in [PtCl6]2– = 78 – 4 (O.N.) + 6 × 2 = 86
89. (D)
Osmotic pressure (π) = CRT
where C is the concentration of the solution
5/342
∴ π = 0.1 × 0.0821 × (150 + 273)
5/342
= 0.1 × 0.0821 × 423
⇒ π = 5 atm.

90. (B)

91. (C)
Vitamin C is water soluble and antioxidant.

92. (B)
Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

93. (D)
Hybridization = sp3d

94. (B)
pπ − pπ bonding in nitrogen is strong hence it can form triple bond with another N. Single N- N bond is weaker
than P- P bond due to high interionic repulsion of non-bonding electrons. Hence, N ≡ N is stable and P2 is not.

95. (A)
According to Le-chatelier's principle-
A decrease in temperature will favour the reaction in the forward direction as the reaction is exothermic. For the
given reaction Δng > 0, therefore, on increasing the pressure, the reaction will move in a direction where n
increases, that is forward direction. Therefore, the formation of XY4 will be favoured at high pressure and low
temperature.

96. (C)
(C6H5)3 CCl form most stable carbocation among all. So it goes SN1, reaction most rapidly.

97. (D)
Sucrose does not undergo mutarotation. Glucose and fructose shows mutarotation because they have two forms α
andβ . It is fact that sucrose is a disaccharide. Therefore, assertion is false but reason is true.
98. (A)
The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc. KMnO4 gives acetic acid as KMnO4 is acting as a oxidising agent and
therefore adding oxygen atom to acetaldehyde and make it acetic acid.
Conc.KMnO4 → Oxidising agent thus gives CH3COOH.

99. (B)
Chlorination of alkanes is a free-radical reaction. Since the intermediate free radical is planar (sp2 hybridised) it
can be attacked on either side of the face forming racemic mixture

100. (A)
B2H6 + 3O2 → B2O3 + 3H2O
B2H6 + 6H2O → 2H3BO3 + 6H2

101. (B)
Binomial Nomenclature means the scientific name of any organism consisting of a generic epithet and a specific
epithet.

102. (D)
-Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic,
-They have a cell wall that has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
-They have two flagella.
-They are responsible for red tides. eg. Gonyaulax.
All these statements regarding dinoflagellates are correct.

103. (D)

• Meristematic tissues are cells or group of cells that have the ability to divide. These tissues in a plant consist of
small, densely packed cells.

• The cells of meristematic tissues have a thin cell wall with a large nucleus. The cells are filled with cytoplasm
and it lacks intercellular spaces.

104. (D)
It is a series of many reactions which is present in the mitochondrial matrix. This cycle is used by aerobic
organisms. This reaction includes the formation of ATP/GTP. Two times of decarboxylation present and also it
combines Acetyl CoA with OAA.

105. (B)
Cytokinins can stimulate cell division (cytokinesis). Kinetin, the first cytokinin discovered, is a modified form of
adenine, a purine obtained from old herring sperm DNA. It has not been found in plants so far. So, Both Assertion
and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

106. (B)
Megaspore mother cell of megasporangium undergoes meiosis and forms megaspore tetrad, out of which, one
megaspore is functional. The central cell of the embryo sac is the large cell consisting of two polar nuclei.
Synergids, the flanking cells of the egg cell, have finger-like projections of the wall in their cytoplasm, the
filiform apparatus. An embryo sac has three antipodal cells which provide nutrition to the developing embryo.
Therefore, the correct answer is option b.
107. (D)
One megaspore mother cell after meiosis forms four megaspores. One of them becomes a functional megaspore
and forms an embryo sac, whereas remaining three degenerates. The embryo sac has one egg cell. Since one
megaspore mother cell forms one egg cell, 40 MMCs will form 40 egg cells.

108. (C)
The offspring Rr are pink due to partial expression of both alleles, i.e. incomplete dominance.

109. (D)
The cross between blue (BW) and black (BB) forms can be shown as:

Thus black and blue individuals are produced in the ratio of 1 : 1.

110. (A)

In birds, sex is determined by chromosomes known as Z and W. In the ZW-ZZ type of sex determination, the
male has two homomorphic sex chromosomes(ZZ) and is homogametic, and the female has two heteromorphic
sex chromosomes (ZW) and is heterogametic. In humans, sex is determined by chromosomes known as X and Y.
In the XY-XX type of sex determination, the male has two heteromorphic sex chromosomes(XY) and is
heterogametic, and the female has two homomorphic sex chromosomes (XX) and is homogametic. In
Drosophila the male has two heteromorphic sex chromosomes (XY) and females are homomorphic (XX).

111. (D)

Mycorrhizae are symbiotic associations between fungi and the roots of higher plants. The fungi help the plant in
the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding
carbohydrates.

112. (D)
Decomposers are also known as reducers and the micro consumer. They are known as reducers because they can
decompose the large organic matter to a simple and usable form so plants can use these nutrients for further
use.They are known as micro consumers due to their small size.

113. (D)
Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
114. (B)
Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect

115. (D)
Ascocarp is the fruiting body of Ascomycete that produces ascospores while the basidiocarp is the fruiting body
of Basidiomycete that produces basidiospores. Agaricus is an edible mushroom. It also belongs to the division
Basidiomycetes of kingdom Fungi. Claviceps belong to Ascomycetes. Its members are commonly known as sac
fungi. The defining feature of this fungal group is the ascus, a microscopic sexual structure in which non-motile
spores, called ascospores, are formed.

116. (C)
In Liliaceae, flower is complete, bisexual, bracteate, trimerous, actinomorphic, hypogynous. Perianth is with 6
tepals, in two whorls 3 + 3, (polyphyllus or gamophyllous), often united into tube, valvate aestivation, odd tepal is
anterior. Androecium is with 6 stamens, arranged in two whorls 3 + 3, polyandrous, epiphyllous, anther is
dithecous, basifixed or versatile. Gynoecium with tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary, axile placentation,
trilocular.

117. (A)

• The tip of the root is covered by a root cap, also called calyptra which can regenerate.

• Inner to it, is a layer of protoderm which helps in giving rise to new cells.

• Cortex is a layer present after the layer of protoderm. Cortex is made up of parenchymatous cells which usually
performs the function of Storage.

118. (C)
On oxidation of 1 molecule of pyruvate molecule, it produces 4 molecules of NADH, 1 molecule of FADH2 and 1
GTP. 1 molecule of NADH gives 3 molecules of ATP, 1 molecule of FADH2 give 2 molecules of ATP and 1 GTP
gives 1 ATP on oxidation. These all release 15 net molecules of ATP.

119. (C)
Microspores before dissociating and developing into pollen grains are present as tetrad.
120. (D)
Initially there were 25 biodiversity hotspots. Nine more have been subsequently added to the list, bringing the
total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 34. Biodiversity hotspots are the places where species
richness and level of endemism is high.

121. (A)
In fern,which is a pteridophyte, spores are formed in sporangium by meiosis in spore mother cells.

122. (B)
Prothallus is a multicellular, thalloid structure found in pteridophytes which is free living in nature. Prothallus
gives rise to gametes and therefore is called gametophyte. It bears antheridia (male sex organ) and archegonia
(female sex organ). It needs a cool, damp and shady place to grow and hence the distribution of pteridophytes is
limited to certain areas.

123. (B)
Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric, Zaminkand, Colocasia are modified to store food in them. They
also act as organs of perennation to tide over conditions unfavourable for growth.

124. (B)
Blackman proposed the law of limiting factors in 1905. According to it, if a chemical process is affected by more
than one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value. It is the factor
that directly affects the process if its quantity is changed.

125. (C)
Accumulation of auxin at the apex of the plant, which is responsible for the phototropism movement so that plant
cells are elongated.

126. (C)
Treatment of wastewater is done by the heterotrophic microbes. After primary treatment, the primary effluent is
taken into the aeration tank where a large number of aerobic heterotrophic microbes grow and form flocs. Flocs
are masses of bacteria combined together with fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures where microbes
digest a lot of organic matter, converting it into microbial biomass and releasing a lot of minerals.

127. (C)
During sewage treatment, suspended solids are removed in the initial step that is the primary treatment. Primary
treatment involves filtration and sedimentation through which waste is removed. Filtration removes the floating
debris and sedimentation removes grit present in sludge.

128. (C)
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

129. (B)
Deforestation is the main cause of the extinction of species from tropical areas. Deforestation leads to the
destruction of the habitat of species which leads to their mass extinction. Each and every species have their
specific habitat and food type, loss of which may lead to their starvation and ultimately death.

130. (B)
When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene
combinations are much higher than the non-parental or recombinant type as linked genes are inherited together in
offspring.
131. (B)
In the alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as in china rose, mustard,
and sunflower plants. In opposite type, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in
Calotropis and guava plants. If more than two leaves arise at a node and form a whorl, it is called whorled, as in
Alstonia.

132. (D)
150

133. (A)
1 AaBB : 1aaBB

134. (D)
Incomplete dominance

135. (A)
a-Grana, b-Stromal lamella, e-Ribosomes, c-Starch granule, d-Lipid droplet

136. (B)
Ori is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA in the plasmid. Origin of replication may be
a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of foreign deoxyribonucleic acid joined to the present
sequence may start the replication within the host cells. The Ori is the place wherever deoxyribonucleic acid
replication starts, enabling a plasmid to produce itself as it must to survive within cells.

137. (A)
Release of DNA from a cell is achieved by treating the cells or tissues with enzymes such as lysozyme (bacteria),
cellulose (plant cells), chitinase (fungus), etc. These enzymes degrade cell wall; plasma membrane degrading
enzymes like lipase, etc., are also needed.

138. (A)
(i), (ii) and (iii)

139. (A)
a-1, b-2, c-3

140. (B)
Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-radioactive medium for two
generations. The percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA is 50%. In a semi-conservative model, radioactive
DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-radioactive medium. In each generation, one strand remains the same
while another strand new strand will be non-radioactive.

141. (C)
Genetic drift is the change in alleles in the gene pool of a population which results due to variation in gene
frequencies within the population. It is a chance process and is non-directional in nature. It can cause elimination
or selection of certain alleles in the population.

142. (A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

143. (D)
1and 3 are correct but 2 is false
144. (D)
In the lac operon the structural genes that are lac A, lac Y, and lac Z codes respectively for the transacetylase,
repressor protein, permease, and the B galactosidase. It is an intracellular enzyme and its function is to cleave the
disaccharide lactose into glucose and galactose.

145. (A)
The photolysis of water takes place in PSII (where wavelengths of light up to 680 nm is used). Light having
wavelength more than 680 nm will not be effective in splitting water to produce oxygen, so a reduction in the
quantity of oxygen evolution may be observed.

146. (C)
Assertion is true, but Reason is false

147. (A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

148. (A)
Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

149. (B)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

150. (B)
(ii) and (iii)

151. (C)
Humans belong to the phylum Chordata. Animals belonging to the phylum Chordata possess a notochord either
during early embryonic life or throughout the embryonic life stages. In some, it is replaced by a vertebral column.
In humans, notochord is present only in the embryonic stage, it is replaced by a vertebral column in the adult
form.

152. (A)
These are examples of the phylum Porifera. A corresponds to Sycon, B corresponds to Euspongia and C
corresponds to Spongilla.

153. (D)
Striations present in the striated muscles are due to the specialized arrangement of myofilaments (actin and
myosin). Actin filaments make lighter bands and myosin filaments make darker bands. They are arranged in a
specific pattern which gives the appearance of striations on the muscle fibre.
154. (B)
Inflammation is part of the complex biological response of body tissues to harmful stimuli, such as pathogens,
damaged cells, or irritants, and is a protective response involving immune cells, blood vessels, and molecular
mediators.During inflammation histamine is secreted by connective tissue. It acts as a vasodilator. Heparin is
secreted by basophil cells. Serotonin is secreted by mast cells. Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells of pancreas.

155. (B)
Sap vacuoles are fluid filled vacuoles or vesicles which are separated from the cytoplasm by a selectively
permeable membrane called tonoplast. A number of small sap vacuoles occur in animals cells and young plant
cells. In mature plant cells, small vacuoles fuse to form a single large central vacuole. The fluid present in the sap
vacuoles is often called cell sap or vacuolar sap. It contains minerals, sugars, oxygen, carbon dioxide, soluble
pigments and organic acids. The pigments include anthocyanins (red, purple, blue) and anthoxanthins (ivory to
deep yellow).

156. (B)
A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre (in the medulla) which is highly sensitive to CO2
and hydrogen ions. An increase in these substances can activate this centre, which in turn can signal the rhythm
centre to make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process by which these substances can be eliminated.
Receptors associated with the aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognise changes in CO2 and H+
concentration and send necessary signals to the rhythm centre for remedial actions. The role of oxygen in the
regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

157. (B)
Small doses of either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations are used in the form of tablets by
females called oral pills. Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent or retard entry of sperms inside female genital tract.

158. (D)

Ribosomal RNA also called rRNA provides the site for protein synthesis. It forms 80% of the total RNA
content of a cell and hence is the most abundant RNA. The rRNA is single stranded and shows the presence
of intra-chain hydrogen bonds.
mRNA is also called messenger RNA. mRNA is 5% of the total RNA present in the cell. Transcription of
DNA forms a heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) which later matures to form mRNA through RNA
processing.
tRNA also called transfer RNA. tRNA is the smallest RNA among all three types. It has around 75-95
nucleotides. It is the most essential component of translation which helps to transfer the amino acids during
protein synthesis.

159. (B)
The founder effect is the reduction in genetic variation that results when a small subset of a large population is
used to establish a new colony. The new population may be very different from the original population, both in
terms of its genotypes and phenotypes.

160. (B)
Transplantation of tissue/organs may fail when that tissue is rejected by the recipient's immune system leading to
its destruction. Tissue rejection is a function of cell-mediated immune response that involves T-cells. These cells
have the ability to distinguish between self and non-self and release cytokines in response to foreign objects.
161. (C)
Chordates are those animals that have rod-like notochord. Notochord is also present in vertebrates but in most
adult vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by vertebral column, which is the peculiar feature of vertebrates.
Thus, we can say that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

162. (C)
Common name of Physalia is Portuguese man-of-war. Meandrina is known as brain coral. Gorgonia is known as
sea fan.Adamsia is known as sea anemone.

163. (B)

164. (A)
A protein is imagined as a line, the left end is represented by first amino acid and the right end is represented by
the last amino acid. The first and last acids are called as N-terminal amino acids and C- terminal amino acids
respectively.

165. (A)
Saturated fatty acids possess single bonds between carbon atoms and are solids at room temperature. Saturated
fatty acids are without double bonds in their carbon chains. They need higher melting points and are solids at
room temperature.
166. (C)
Metaphase I: The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate. The microtubules from the opposite poles
of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.

167. (A)
Prophase I is the most important and longest phase as it leads to variations. In this phase, chromosomes become
visible, crossing-over occurs, the nucleolus disappears, the meiotic spindle forms, and the nuclear envelope
disappears. It has been further subdivided into the following five phases based on chromosomal behaviour, i.e.,
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

168. (B)
Alveoli are the primary sites of the exchange of gases. Exchange of gases also occur between blood and tissues.
O2 and CO2 are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration
gradient. Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is
represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and
capillaries is 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg respectively.

169. (B)
When a nerve fiber is stimulated, its membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions; hence, more sodium
ions enter the axon than potassium ions leaving it. As a result, the positive and negative charges on the outside
and inside of the membrane are reversed. The membrane with reversed polarity is called depolarized.
170. (A)
Vasopressin is also called as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) because it decreases urine output. It is a peptide
hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus. It plays an essential role in controlling the osmotic balance of the
body, regulates blood pressure, homeostasis of sodium and reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis).

171. (A)
The sperm head contains an elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of which is covered by a cap-like
structure, acrosome. The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help the fertilization of the ovum. The middle piece
possesses numerous mitochondria, which produce energy for the movement of the tail that facilitates sperm
motility essential for fertilization.

172. (B)
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as
substrate and polymerises in a template-dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity. The RNA
polymerase is only capable of catalysing the process of elongation. It associates transiently with initiation-factor
(σ) and termination-factor (ρ) to initiate and terminate the transcription, respectively. Association with these
factors alter the specificity of the RNA polymerase to either initiate or terminate. So, Both Assertion and Reason
are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

173. (C)
-Analogous organs evolve due to convergent evolution.
-Convergent evolution tells us that analogous organs will differ in structure, but these will have the same or
similar function.
-Hence, the eyes of Octopus and cat which are different in structure have a similar function of vision, and thats
why are examples of analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.

174. (C)
Endomembrane system comprises of ER, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuoles (not mitochondria).

175. (D)
Tertiary structure is necessary for many biological activities. The difference in average energy content of substrate
from that of its transition state is called Activation energy.

176. (A)
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

177. (D)
Aldosterone has intracellular receptor as it is a steroid, and thus can enter the cell membrane. PTH is a hyper
calcemic hormone (Not hyperglycemic).

178. (B)
Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between G and A at GAATTC.
179. (D)
So, as per the given diagram cilia, a is the plasma membrane, b is the interdoublet bridge which connects the
peripheral microtubules. c is the radial spoke, d is the central sheath that is seen sidewise to the central
microtubule (partially covering it), e is the peripheral microtubule which is seen as doublet and part which is
labelled as f is the central microtubule.

180. (A)
Chitin is a structural polysaccharide, and not a storage polysaccharide. It is a homopolymer found in the
exoskeleton of arthropods and in fungal cell walls. Chitin is also the second most abundant carbohydrate after
cellulose.

181. (C)

During the anaphase I stage of meiosis, the number of chromosomes becomes half. In animals, two types of
division take place that is mitosis (equational division) and meiosis (reduction division). Meiosis is divided into
two different phases i.e meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis, I reduction division takes place while in meiosis II
equational division takes place. Meiosis I has 4 stages- prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, and telophase I.

182. (C)
During ventricular diastole and the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which
prevents the backflow of blood into the ventricles. As the ventricular pressure declines further, the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves are pushed open by the pressure in the atria exerted by the blood which was being emptied into
them by the veins.

183. (D)
The flame cells are specialized excretory cells found in some freshwater invertebrates, including
cephalochordates, platyhelminthes, rotifers, and some annelids. Flame cells function in the same way as the
kidneys, like removing waste material. Bundles of flame cells are called protonephridia. They are meant for
excretion and osmoregulation.
184. (D)

Endocrine glands are the ductless glands that secrete their products into the bloodstream from where they are
carried to the target organs. Hormones are also secreted by some tissues which are not endocrine glands. The
atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important peptide hormone called atrial natriuretic factor (ANF), which
decreases blood pressure. The juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney produce a peptide hormone called
erythropoietin which stimulates erythropoiesis (formation of RBC). Endocrine cells present in different parts of
the gastro-intestinal tract secrete four major peptide hormones, namely gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK),
and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). The liver is not an endocrine gland instead, it is a digestive organ that
secretes bile juice which is necessary for the emulsification of fats.

185. (B)

The Golgi apparatus (C) principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the
intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the cell. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER
fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus and more towards the maturing face.

186. (D)
Frederick Griffith was a British bacteriologist who reported what is now known as Griffith's experiment, the first
widely accepted demonstrations of bacterial transformation, whereby a bacterium distinctly changes its form and
function. Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty proved that the transforming material shown by Griffith was DNA. But the
unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was given by Hershey and Chase.

Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative mode of replication in E. coli, whereas Taylor et al. proved the
same in chromosomal DNA in eukaryotes, using Vicia faba (fava bean).

187. (B)
A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is called a probe. Probe is allowed to
hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone
having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not have
complementarity with the mutated gene. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.

188. (D)
No more oogonia are formed and added after birth. These cells start division and enter into prophase I of the
meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes.

189. (B)
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the
fertilizing capacity of sperms.

190. (A)
The transforming principle of Pneumococcus as found by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was DNA. They
repeated the experiment in vitro to identify the transforming substance. They proved that this substance is in fact
DNA.
191. (C)
The universe is very old – almost 20 billion years old.
Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe. Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust.
Because of the absolutely colossal size of the universe, the scale of the earth doesn't really matter. Be it the size of
a speck of dust or the size of the sun, the Earth is absolutely inconsequential in comparison to the size of the
universe.
The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of the universe. It talks of a singular huge explosion
unimaginable in physical terms.

192. (D)
Widal test is one of the most reliable diagnostic tests for typhoid fever in developing countries since its
introduction (over 100 years ago). This test demonstrates the presence of somatic (O) and flagellar (H) agglutinins
to Salmonella typhi in the patients blood serum using suspensions of O and H antigens. Antigens of S. paratyphi A
and S. paratyphi B are included in most commercial kits.

193. (A)
T-lymphocyte receptors can recognise only antigen that bound to cell membrane proteins. These lymphocytes
mediate CMI (Cell Mediated Immunity). B-lymphocytes are the major effector molecules of humoral immunity.
Erythrocytes are red blood cells. Thrombocytes or platelets secrete factors that are involved in vascular repair.

194. (B)
Purines are double ring nitrogenous bases. Both the Adenine and Guanine are purines. Uracil is a single ring
structure nitrogenous base found only in RNAs and is an example of pyrimidines.

195. (D)
The strategy used to prevent infection of tobacco roots is RNA interference. This method takes place in all
eukaryotic organisms. By this method, the parasitic nematode would not survive in the host or transgenic
organism that expresses RNAi. Hence, the transgenic plant gets protected from the parasite.

196. (C)

Insulin is synthesized in large quantities in beta cells in the pancreas in the form of a precursor, proinsulin, which
consists of three components; a carboxy-terminal A chain, an amino-terminal B chain and a connecting peptide in
the middle known as the C peptide. Within the ER (endoplasmic reticulum), proinsulin is exposed to multiple
endopeptidases which excise the C peptide, producing the mature and fully functional form of insulin. Insulin and
free C peptide are then packaged in the Golgi apparatus into the secretory granules which, in turn, accumulate in
the cytoplasm. When the beta cells are stimulated, functional insulin is secreted from the cell by the process of
exocytosis and diffuses into the capillary blood. Along with the functional insulin, C peptide is also secreted into
blood, but has no known biological activity.

197. (D)
Mitosis is known to be a part of the cell cycle in which the chromosomes are separated into two new nuclei. The
given sequence of mitotic divisions is Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
Telophase. The major purpose of mitosis is for the growth and replacement of cells.

198. (D)
Synaptonemal complex is formed during the stage of meiosis of zygotene. Zygotene is the second stage of
prophase. In this stage, the homologous chromosomes pair or come together in the synapse. This pairing or
coming together of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis. It is facilitated by the synaptonemal complex
which is a ladder-like series of parallel threads adjacent to and coaxial with the pairing of chromosomes in
meiosis.
199. (D)
Kidneys and testes

200. (A)
The patent is the right granted by a government to an inventor to prevent others from the commercial use of his
invention. When patents are granted for biological entities and for products derived from them, these are called
biopatents.