BMS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT

Avalahalli, Doddaballapur Main Road, Bengaluru – 560064 A Series

Department of Humanities and Social Science
FIRST INTERNAL ASSESSMENT TEST, February 2023
Course Name Indian Constitution Course Code 22ICO17
Branch & Semester ECE, ISE, ETE, CV / I Date & Time 15-2-2023, 11.30 am to 12.30pm
Name of the Course Coordinator Mrs. Tejaswini B J Max. Marks 40
All questions are compulsory, each question carries 1 mark.
Appropriate answers shall be marked with a black or blue pen in the OMR sheet

1. Which of the following word has not been written in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A. Sovereign B. Adult Franchise C. Socialist D. Secular
2. Which of these is not a fundamental right?
A. Right to freedom B. Rights against exploitation C. Right to religion D. Right to property
3. Which of the following statement is not true?
A. Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th January 1950 B. Indian Constitution was brought into force on 26th January 1950
C. Indian constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949
D. The Preamble was amended through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976
4. The Fundamental Rights of people are contained in ________ of the Indian Constitution
A. Part I B. Part II C. Part IV D. Part III
5. By issuing a writ of Mandamus, the court
A. refrains a lower court from trying a case B Quashes the orders issued by a lower court
C. questions the authority of a public officer D Orders a Public Officer to perform his public duties
6. The Constitution of India was adopted by
A. Parliament of India B. Constituent Assembly C. British parliament D. President of India
7. How many freedoms are guaranteed under Article 19?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
8. Which of the following rights are described by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution?
A. Right to Equality B. Right to Constitutional Remedies C. Right to freedom of religion D. Right to property
9. Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was _____________ and _________________was the chairman of the drafting committee.
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar B. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar and Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar D.Sardar Vallabhai Patel and Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
10. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is
A. The Government of India B. The People of India C. The President D. The Parliament
11. Fraternity means
A. Spirit of brotherhood B. Fatherly treatment C. Unity and Integrity D. Elimination of social injustice
12. The three types of Justice referred in our Preamble are
A. Social, Economic, Political B. Economic, International, Political
C. Economic, Religious, Social D. Religious, Social and Political
13. In case of illegal detention of a person, the High Court or Supreme Court can issue _________ writ
A. Mandamus B. Quo-warranto C. Habeas Corpus D. Certiorari
14. The term “Secular” means
A. Peoples Government B. No King or Queen C. Equal opportunity to all D. Treating all religions equally
15. _____________ is the landmark case with respect to reservation for backward classes
A. Mandal Commission Case B. Keshavananda Bharathi case C. National Anthem Case D. Maneka Gandhi case
nd
16. Which of the following word was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by 42 Amendment Act 1976?
A. Socialist B. Sovereign C. Federal D. Republic
17. Which important human right is protected under Article 21
A. Right to Equality B. Right to life and liberty C. Right to freedom of speech D. Right to religion
18. ____________ means No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once
A. Post-facto-law B. Double Jeopardy C. Self-incrimination D. Ex-post-facto-law
19. Right against exploitation seeks to protect the weaker sections of the society by prohibiting
A. Human Trafficking B. Beggar C. Child labor D. All of the above
20. An American citizen staying in India cannot claim right to
A. Freedom of trade and business B. Equality before the law
C. Protection of life and personal liberty D. Freedom of religion
21 Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
A. A written constitution B. A rigid constitution C. An independent judiciary
D. Distribution of power between center and the states
22. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
A. 7 B. 12 C. 5 D. 6
23. Which of the following laws exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?
A. British Constitution B. US Constitution C. Irish Constitution D. The Government of India Act, 1935
24. The preamble is the modified version of which of the following:
A. Bill of Rights in USA B. Objective Resolution C. British Magna Carta D. Ideals of Communism
25. A state in which there is absence of monarchism is called a ____________ state
A. Sovereign B. Socialist C. Democratic D. Republic.
26. Which of these proposed for partition of then India into two?
A. Cripps Proposal B. Cabinet Mission Plan C. Lord Mountbatten Plan D. Minto Morley Reforms
27. Fundamental rights are borrowed from the Constitution of
A. UK B. USA C. Germany D. Ireland
28. Sovereign means
A. Absolutism B. Independent Supreme Authority C. Dependent Authority D. Dictatorship
29. The Indian Constitution came into force on
A.26th Nov 1949 B. 26th Nov 1945 C. 26th Jan 1950 D. 15th Aug 1957
30. The minds of makers of the Indian Constitution is reflected in which of the following
A. The Preamble B. The fundamental Rights C. Fundamental duties D. directive Principles of State Policy
31.The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India to its citizens can be protected by
A. Parliament B. President C. Supreme Court D. Prime Minister
32. What is the basis or test for classification of people under Article 14?
A. Caste B. Intelligible Quotient C. Intelligible Differentia D. None of the above
33. The Practice of Untouchability is prohibited under
A. Article 14 B. Article 17 C. Article 18 D. Article 15
34. The Right to freedom of press is included in the freedom of
A. Speech & Expression B. Assembly C. Association D. Trade
35. Under Fundamental Rights, minority may be considered on the basis of
A. Regional or National B. Religious or Linguistic C. Racial or Regional D. Caste or Racial
36. Which writ can be issued to quash the decision of lower courts?
A. Certiorari B. Quo-Warranto C. Habeas Corpus D. Mandamus
37. The rights of citizens to carry out processions or meeting is conferred by
A. Right to form an Association B. Right to move anywhere in India C. Right to Assembly D. Right to carry on trade
38. The right to freedom of religion is not subject to
A. public order B. public interest C. public health D. public morals
39. The Constitution empowered State Government to make special laws under Article 15 for the protection of
A. Unemployed Youth B. Farmers C. Women and Children D. Youth
40. In Re -Berubari Case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is
A. Part of the Constitution B. Not Part of the Constitution
C. An introduction and part of the constitution D. none of the above

Course Outcome: Students will be able to

1. Understand the basic structure of our Indian Constitution.
2. Analyse the Concept of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties
 BMS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Avalahalli, Doddaballapur Main Road, Bengaluru – 560064 A Series
Department of Humanities and Social Science
SECOND INTERNAL ASSESSMENT TEST, March 2023
Course Name Indian Constitution Course Code 22ICO17
Branch & Semester ECE, ISE, ETE, CV / I Date & Time 15-3-2023, 12.00 to 1.00 pm
Name of the Course
Mrs. Tejaswini B J Max. Marks 40
Coordinator
All questions are compulsory, each question carries 1 mark.
Appropriate answers shall be marked with a black or blue pen in the OMR sheet

1. The recent Fundamental duty added by 86th amendment in 2002 is

A.Duty to safeguard public property B. Duty of a parent or guardian to provide education to his child
C.Duty to protect and improve the natural environment D. Duty to abide by the constitution
2. Fundamental duties of Indian citizens were
A. Enshrined in the original constitution B. Added to the constitution by 42nd Amendment
th
C. Added to the constitution by 44 Amendment
D. Added to the constitution in the wake of supreme court judgement in Keshavananda Bharathi Case
3. The aim of the Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish
A. Capitalistic State B. Communistic State C. Welfare State D. Democratic State
4. Which among the following Directive Principles of State Policy has not been implemented so far?
A. Separation of Executive from Judiciary B. Organization of Panchayats
C. Uniform Civil Code D. Promotion of International Peace and Security
5. Directive Principles of State policy is borrowed from the constitution of
A. USA B. Ireland C. Britain D. Germany
6. Fundamental duties are provided under
A. Part III B. Part IV C. Part II D. Part IVA
7.________________ is the guardian of public finances
A. Attorney General B. Comptroller and Auditor General C. Finance Minister D. Advocate General
8. The size of Council of Ministers in the center shall not exceed
A. 15% of the strength of Lok Sabha B. 15% of the strength of Rajya Sabha
C. 25% of the strength of Lok Sabha D. 10% of the strength of Lok Sabha
9. Which Fundamental Right is automatically suspended on declaration of National Emergency in the country?
A. Article 21 B. Article 19 C. Article 22 D. All of the above
10. Who can issue Ordinances?
A. President B. Governor C. Prime Minister D. Both the President and Governor.
11.The President can be removed by impeachment motion on the ground of violating the constitution by
A. The Supreme Court B. The Lok Sabha only C. Both houses of Parliament D. The High Court
12. Which one of the following can the President of India declare?
A. Emergency due to threat of war, external aggression or armed rebellion
B. Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state
C. Financial emergency on account of threat to the financial credit of India D. All of the above.
13. The members of the Legislative Assembly are
A. Directly elected by the people B. Nominated by Governor C. Nominated by President D. None of the above
14. The Governor of State is
A. Directly elected by the people B. Elected by the State legislature
C. Appointed by the President D. Nominated by the Parliament
15. Reprieve means
A. Death due to drowning B. Awarding lesser punishment C. Temporary suspension of death sentence D. Painless death
16. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office before the expiry of term by the
A. Chief Justice of India B. Prime Minister C. President on the recommendation of Parliament through impeachment
D. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India
17. The quorum required to hold the meetings of either house of Parliament is
A. One-tenth B. One-fifth C. One-third D. one-fifth
18. The members of Rajya Sabha except the nominated ones are elected by
A. The people B. members of local Self-Governing bodies
C. members of Legislative Assemblies of the states D. Both (B) & (C)
19. The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of
A. The Rajya Sabha B. The National Development Council C. The Planning Commission D. None of the above
20. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but
A. One-third of its members retire every two years B. One-half of its members retire very three years
C. One-fifth of its members retire every year D. One half of its members retire every two years.
21. The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the ____________
A. President. B. Chief Minister. C. Prime Minister. D. Governor.
22. The Legislative Council does not include members elected from
A. Teachers constituency. B. Reserved Constituency. C. Local bodies. D. graduates constituency.
23. The tenure of members of Legislative Council is?
A. 2 years. B. 3 years. C. 5 years. D. 6 years.
24. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
A. Disputes between the Centre and the state B. Disputes between the states
C. Protection of Fundamental rights D. Disputes on inter-state rivers
25. Council of Ministers is headed by the ____________ and are appointed by President on the advice of _____________
A. Prime Minister and Prime Minister B. President and Prime Minister
C. Prime Minister and President D. President and Chief Justice of India
26. Rajya Sabha is also Known as
A. Council of States B. Council of the Lok Sabha C. Council of Cabinet D. Council of Union Administration
27. The life of Lok Sabha shall not exceed 6 months after the end of
A. War B. President’s rule C. States term D. National Emergency
28. It refers to the end of session of the Parliament. Pending bills do not lapse by the act of
A. Adjournment B. Session C. Prorogation D. Parliament
29. The Governor shall hold office for a period of 5 years, subject to the pleasure of the _________
A. President of India B. Prime Minister of India C. Chief Minister D. Central Ministers
30. The Supreme Court has the power to
A. Create High Courts B. Create the whole judicial system C. Abolish the High Court D. None of these
31. When a State Emergency is declared, who can assume all the functions of State Government?
A. Prime Minister B. President of India C. Governor of a state D. Union Cabinet
32. Under Article 360 when the President is satisfied that there is a threat due to financial instability, he can declare
A. President’s Rule B. National Emergency C. State Emergency D. Financial Emergency
33. Which is the lengthiest amendment to constitution?
A. 24th B. 42nd C. 43rd D. 44th
34. Right to Education (RTE) was introduced in ____________ Amendment
A. 46th B. 61st C. 76th D. 86th
35. Who is the presiding officer of the Joint-session to discuss on the controversial bill of the Parliament?
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha B. Speaker of Lok Sabha C. President D. Prime Minister
36. Who has the power to pardon the death sentence?
A. Law Minister B. Attorney General C. Governor D. President
37. This is not a function of the Election Commission
A. Selection of candidate B Preparing Electoral Rolls C. issue code of conduct D. Allotment of symbols
38. The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India is
A. 6 years or 65 years of age B. 5 years or 65 years of age
C. 6 years or 62 years of age D. 5 years or 60 years of age
39. Election disputes can be heard by
A. High Court B. Election Commission C. President D. Civil Court
40. Which of the ground replaced the ground of internal disturbance to declare National Emergency by an amendment
in the year 1978?
A. War B. External aggression C. Armed rebellion D. Terrorist activities
Course Outcome: Students will be able to
Analyse the Concept of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties
Have knowledge on administrative mechanism at the Union and State government.
Understand the system of elections, emergency provisions, amendments and Special constitutional provisions.
 BMS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Avalahalli, Doddaballapur Main Road, Bengaluru – 560064 A Series
Department of Humanities and Social Sciences
THIRD INTERNAL ASSESSMENT TEST, March 2023

Course
Course Name Indian Constitution 22ICO17
Code
Branch &
ISE/ECE/ETE/CV- I Date 24-3-2023, 12.00 to 1.00pm
Semester
Name of the
Max.
Course Mrs. Tejaswini B J 40
Marks
Coordinator (s)
All questions are compulsory, each question carries 1 mark.
Appropriate answers shall be marked with a black or blue pen in the OMR sheet

1. The seat of Supreme Court is in

A. Bengaluru B. Delhi C. Mumbai D. Chennai
2. Which of the following cannot be removed by Impeachment?
A. President B. Judges of Supreme Court C. Prime Minister D. Judges of the High Court.
3. Which fund is utilized to meet the unforeseen expenditure?
A. Contingency Fund B. Consolidated Fund C. Public Revenue Fund D. Political rally fund
4. Attorney General of India is appointed by
A. Prime Minister B. Law Minister C. Chief Justice of India D. President
5. Who can certify the money bill when it is introduced in Lok Sabha?
A. Deputy Speaker B. Speaker C. Prime Minister D. Finance Minister
6. Who can appoint Prime Minister of India?
A. President of India B. People of India C. Ruling Legislative Party D. Election Commissioner
7. What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha?
A. 238 B. 552 C. 545 D. 250
8. Vice-President of India is elected by
A. People of India B. Members of Parliament C. Members of Rajya Sabha D. Members of State legislature
9. What is the minimum age to become judges of Supreme Court of India?
A. 25 years B. 30 years C. 35 years D. None of these
10. Chief Minister of state is appointed by
A. Governor B. President C. High command of a political party D. Chief Justice of High Court
11. The Governor of State is
A. Directly elected by the people B. Elected by the State legislature C. Appointed by the President D. Nominated by t
Parliament
12. Reprieve means
A. Death due to drowning B. Awarding lesser punishment C. Temporary suspension of death sentence D. Painles
death
13. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
A. Right to Property B. Right to strike C. Right to die D. All the above
14. The Directive Principles of State Policy are
A. Not Enforceable by court B. Enforceable by court C. Absolute Principles D. None of these
15. The Practice of awarding titles is prohibited under
A. Article 14 B. Article 17 C. Article 18 D. Article 15
16. “Equal pay for Equal Work” for the men and women is included under
A. Preamble B. Directive Principles of State Policy C. Fundamental Rights D. Fundamental Duties
17. The Right to freedom of silence is included in Freedom of
A. Speech & Expression B. Assembly C. Association D. Trade
18. The protection “No person shall be forced to be a witness against himself” is
A. Ex-Post-Facto Law B. Double Jeopardy C. Testimonial Compulsion D. Self- Incrimination
19. Which Article recognizes the International Law under the Constitution?
A. Article 15 B. Article 21 C. Article 32 D. Article 51
20. A Writ of Habeas Corpus means
A. Command to perform B. Produce the person before the Court C. Quash the decision D. What’s your authority?
21. Any law made by Parliament in contravention to Fundamental rights is declared as
A. Valid B. Illegal C. Void D. incorrect
22. Who are not entitled to form a Union or Association?
A. Police B. Students C. Teachers D. Workmen of Industry
23. Under Fundamental Rights, minority may be considered on the basis of
A. Regional or National B. Religious or Linguistic C. Racial or Regional D. Caste or Racial
24. The Right against exploitation prohibits
A. Labourers B. Mining Employees C. Traffic in human beings D. None of these
25. Which writ can be issued to quash the decision of lower courts?
A. Certiorari B. Quo-Warranto C. Habeas Corpus D. Mandamus
26. The rights of citizens to carry out processions or meeting is conferred by
A. Right to form an Association B. Right to move anywhere in India
C. Right to Assembly D. Right to carry on trade
27. Under which Article, the State has been directed to secure the citizens a ‘Uniform Civil Code’ in India
A. Article 40 B. Article 45 C. Article 50 D. Article 44
28. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
A. Respect the National Flag and National Anthem B. Parents or wards duty not to send their child to school
C. Not to destroy public property D. Protection of environment and forest
29. The Constitution empowered State Government to make special law for the protection of
A. Unemployed Youth B. Farmers C. Women and Children D. Youth
30. Which is the landmark judgement passed by the Supreme Court with respect to Freedom of Seilence?
A. Keshavananda Bharathi Case B. Maneka Gandhi Case C. Mohini Jain Case D. National Anthem Case
31. The aim of the Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish
A. Capitalistic State B. Communistic State C. Welfare State D. Democratic State
32. How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President of India?
A. 12 B. 2 C. 1/6th D. 20
33. High Court Judges retire at the age of
A. 65 Years B. 60 Years C. 62 years D. 58 years
34. Who can appoint the Chief justice of Supreme Court of India?
A. Prime Minister B. Law Minister C. Attorney General D. President
35. Money Bill will be introduced only in
A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha C. Cabinet D. any one of these
36. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. President B. Prime Minister C. Vice-President D. Speaker
37. Who is the presiding officer of the Joint-session to discuss on the controversial bill of the Parliament?
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha B. Speaker of Lok Sabha C. President D. Prime Minister
38. Who has the power to pardon the death sentence?
A. Law Minister B. attorney General C. Governor D. President
39. Who can disqualify the MLAs if they act against anti-defection law?
A. Speaker of Legislative Assembly B. Chairman of Legislative Council
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
40. What is the term of members of Rajya Sabha?
A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 6 years D. 4 years