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(BraineryGroup) WRD AE 2017 QP AnswerKey

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Karnataka's biggest telegram group with highest results in Technical Exams (KPSC/KEA/KPTCL/Metro

Exams (Civil/Electrical/Mechanical)

1. The method of measurement of concrete 4. In the method of measurement of


work specifies cubic content shall be earthwork in filling in foundation trench,
worked out to the nearest the filling shall be measured and ______
of deduction will be made for settlement
(1) 0·1 m3
to arrive at the net quantities, in the case
(2) 0·01 m3 where quantity is measured in loose
stacks or in carts or lorries.
(3) 0·001 m3
Fill in the blank choosing the correct
(4) 1·0 m3 answer from the options given below :

(1) 10%

2. Excavation exceeding 1·5 m in width as (2) 5%


well as 10 m2 on plan but not exceeding
(3) 25%
30 cm in depth shall be described as
(4) 45%
(1) Surface excavation

(2) Surface dressing


5. Specification for corrugated galvanized
(3) Excavation in trenches iron roofing specifies that the roof slope
shall not be laid flatter than _______ if
(4) Cutting
not otherwise specially mentioned.

(1) 1 in 1
3. In Mass Haul diagram (Mass diagram),
(2) 1 in 2
the term haul represents the
(3) 1 in 3
(1) Sum of the product of each load by
its distance (4) 1 in 4

(2) Distance at any time from the


working face of an excavation to the 6. The multiplying factor for measurement
tip end of the embankment of painting on collapsible door is
(3) Distance from the centre of gravity (1) 1·2 (Each side)
of a cutting to that of tipped
material (2) 0·8 (All over)

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(4) Horizontal distance through which (3) 1·5 (All over)
the load is shifted (4) 1 (Each side)

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7. As per IS 1200, in the measurement of 10. Sensitivity analysis is a study of


brickwork, no deductions shall be made (1) Comparison of profit and loss
for
(2) Comparison of assets and liabilities
(1) Opening up to 0·1 sq. m in area
(3) Change in output due to change in
(2) Opening up to 0·01 sq. m in area input

(4) Economics of cost and benefits of


(3) Opening up to 0·001 sq. m in area the project
(4) Opening up to 1·0 sq. m in area

11. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of


activities and probability of their
8. If a bar is cranked at both ends at an occurrence follow
angle of 30, then the extra length
(1) Normal distribution curve
required when compared to a straight bar
is (D = centre to centre distance between (2) Poisson’s distribution curve
the top and bottom steel.) (3) Beta distribution curve

(1) 2  0·72 D (4) None of the above

(2) 2  0·27 D

(3) 2  0·42 D 12. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the


earliest start time and earliest finish
(4) 2  0·24 D
time, LS and LF are the latest start time
and latest finish time, then the following
relation(s) hold(s) good :

9. The number of cement bags required in A. EF = ES + D


making plane cement concrete flooring in B. LS = LF – D
an area of size 3 m  3 m and 100 mm
C. D = EF – ES
thick using cement concrete of mix
1 : 3 : 6 is Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) 4 Bags
(1) A and C only
(2) 44 Bags (2) A and B only

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(3) 2·6 Bags (3) C only

(4) 26 Bags (4) A, B and C

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13. The capacity of a “28 S type” concrete 16. At a certain station, the mean of the
mixer is 0·8 m3. For mixing one cubic average temperature is 30C and mean of
the maximum daily temperature is
metre of concrete, the quantity of cement
45C. What is the airport reference
required is 5·5 bags. In order to avoid
temperature ?
fractional usage of cement bags, the
(1) 25C
volume of concrete (m3) to be mixed per
batch will be (2) 35C

(1) 0·78 (3) 45C


(2) 0·49 (4) None of the above
(3) 0·73
(4) 0·44 17. Muller-Breslau Principle for influence
14. Degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid line is applicable for
jointed plane frame having 15 members,
3 reaction components and 14 joints is (1) continuous beams and frames

(1) 2 (2) portal frames


(2) 3
(3) fixed beam
(3) 6
(4) 8 (4) All of the above

18. The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of


15. The Influence Line Diagram (ILD) for a
a plane structure shown in the figure
force in a truss member is shown in the
neglecting axial strain, is
figure. If a Uniformly Distributed Load
(UDL) of intensity of 30 kN/m longer than
the span traverses, then the maximum
compression in the member is

(1) 92·8 kN (1) 4


(2) 23·186 kN (2) 5

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(3) 17·4 kN (3) 6
(4) 69·66 kN
(4) 7

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19. A water treatment plant of 22. The process of turning the telescope about
3
capacity, 1 m /s has filters of dimensions the vertical axis in horizontal plane is
6 m  10 m. Loading rate to the filters is known as
120 m3/day/m2. When two of the filters
are out of service for backwashing, the (1) transiting
loading rate (in m3/day/m2) is (2) reversing
(1) 144
(3) plunging
(2) 244
(4) swinging
(3) 154
(4) 164

20. The BOD5 of a wastewater sample is


23. If the Reduced Level (R.L.) and Bench
200 mg/litre at 20C. The value of the
Mark (B.M.) is 100·00 m, the backsight is
reaction constant is K = 0·2 day–1 with
base ‘e’. The ultimate BOD of the sample 1·215 m and the foresight is 1·870 m, the
is R.L. of the forward station is

(1) 126 mg/litre (1) 99·345 m

(2) 544 mg/litre (2) 100·345 m


(3) 146 mg/litre (3) 100·655 m
(4) 316 mg/litre
(4) 101·870 m

21. Septic tank is a

A. settling tank.

B. digestion tank. 24. Two straight lines intersect at an angle of


C. aeration tank. 60. The radius of a curve joining the two
straight lines is 600 m. The length of long
Which of the above is/are correct ?
chord and mid-ordinates, in metres,
Select the code for the correct answer respectively of the curve are
from the options given below :
(1) 80·4, 600·0
(1) A only
(2) A and B only (2) 600·0, 80·4

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(3) A and C only (3) 600·0, 39·89
(4) C only (4) 49·89, 300·0

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25. A venturimeter, having a diameter of 28. For the structure shown in the figure, the
7·5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the fixed end moment at support ‘A’ is
enlarged end, is installed in a horizontal
pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe
carries an incompressible fluid at a
steady rate of 30 litres per second. The
difference of pressure head measured in
terms of the moving fluid in between the
enlarged end and the throat of the
venturimeter is observed to be 2·45 m.
Taking the acceleration due to gravity as
9·81 m/s2, the coefficient of discharge of
the venturimeter (correct up to two places (1) 14·14 kN-m
of decimal) is
(2) 10 kN-m
(1) 0·90
(3) zero
(2) 0·95
(3) 0·85 (4) 3 kN-m

(4) 0·74
29. As per the stress block defined in
26. Two footings, one circular and the other IS 456-2000, the limiting depth of neutral
square, are founded on the surface of a axis in a flexural member having effective
purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of depth ‘d’ reinforced with Fe 550 grade
the circular footing is same as that of the
steel in tension side is
side of the square footing. The ratio of
their ultimate bearing capacities is (1) 0·48 d

(1) 3/4 (2) 0·53 d


(2) 4/3 (3) 0·42 d
(3) 1·0 (4) 0·44 d
(4) 1·3
30. The optimistic, most likely and
27. In a tree the cambium layer is situated pessimistic estimates for an activity are
4 days, 11 days and 12 days respectively.
between
The expected completion time of this
(1) the outer bark and inner bark activity is
(2) the inner bark and sap wood (1) 9 days
(3) the sap wood and heart wood (2) 10 days

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(3) 11 days
(4) the pith and heart wood
(4) 12 days

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31. A reinforced cement concrete beam 34. What is the theme of the World
section has a size of 300 mm width and Environment Day 2017 ?
400 mm effective depth, the grade of
(1) Connecting people to Nature – in
concrete used is M20 and grade of steel is the city and on the land from poles
Fe 415. If the ultimate bending moment to equator
of 150 kN-m acts at the section, the beam
has to be designed as (2) Seven Billion Dreams, one planet,
consume with care
(1) Singly reinforced beam
(3) Green Economy : Are you a part of
(2) Doubly reinforced beam it
(3) Beam cannot be designed
(4) Forests : Nature at your service
(4) Balanced beam

32. According to IS 456-2000, the minimum 35. According to IS 800-2007, the nominal
grade of concrete with maximum free shear capacity of M20 bolt of grade 4·6
water to cement ratio of 0·5 and minimum with one shear plane passing through bolt
cement content of 300 kg/m3 is shank and one shear plane passing
(1) M20 through threaded portion is

(2) M30 (1) 45·27 kN


(3) M25
(2) 117·52 kN
(4) M35
(3) 56·21 kN
33. A heavy elastic ball drops from the ceiling
of a room, and after rebounding once (4) 129·14 kN
from the floor, reaches a height equal to
three-fourth that of ceiling. The
coefficient of restitution is 36. According to IS 800-2007, the
slenderness ratio of lacing bars in a
3
(1) built up steel compression member shall
2
not exceed
2
(2) (1) 180
3
1 (2) 250
(3)
3

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(3) 330
(4) None of the above
(4) 145

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37. The splice plate for the steel column is 40. A rectangular beam section of 300 mm
generally designed as width and 500 mm effective depth has
tensile reinforcement of 1346 mm2. The
(1) Short column
beam M is constructed using M20 grade
(2) Long column concrete and Fe 415 steel. Calculate the
(3) Intermediate column neutral axis.

(4) Based on slenderness ratio (1) 225 mm

(2) 2·22 mm

(3) 135 mm

(4) 240 mm
38. In the conjugate beam method, the fixed
support in actual beam is considered as
_________ support in the conjugate beam.

(1) Free 41. The suitable system for pretensioned


beams is
(2) Hinge
(1) Hoyer
(3) Fixed
(2) Freyssinet
(4) Roller
(3) Roebling

(4) BBRV system

39. A right-angled triangle with base 50 mm


and height 75 mm is placed with its base
42. The polar moment of inertia of a circular
horizontal, subjected to shear force of F. If lamina of diameter d is, Ip =
moment of inertia is ‘I’ about the axis
passing through centroid parallel to the d 4
(1)
32
base, then the shear stress at the axis
passing through the centroid is d 4
(2)
(1) 416·67 F/I 64

(2) 449·67 F/I d 4


(3)
128
(3) 316·67 F/I

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(4) 492·2 F/I (4)
d 4
254

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43. The gross commanded area for a 46. Which one of the following bearings are
forgiving in that they can tolerate loads
distributary is 6000 hectares, 80% of
and movements exceeding the design
which is culturable irrigable. The values ?
intensity of irrigation for Kharif season is
(1) Rocker
25%. The area to be irrigated in Kharif
(2) Slide plate
season is _______ hectares.
(3) Steel roller
(1) 600 (4) Elastomeric
(2) 1200
47. Which of the systems are particularly
(3) 2400 suited for construction of pre-stressed
concrete superstructure of long span
(4) 4800 bridges without the use of staging from
below ?
(1) Segmental
(2) Linear
44. Removal of soluble organic chemicals is (3) Stage
possible by the addition of ________ to the (4) Sidewall
biological mixed liquor of an activated
48. The measured pH values of incoming and
sludge process.
outgoing water at a water treatment
(1) activated carbon plant are 7·3 and 8·5 respectively. What is
the average pH of water, assuming linear
(2) alum variation of pH with time ?
(3) chlorine (1) 6·55
(2) 7·57
(4) strong colour
(3) 8·12
(4) 9·23

49. A city has a population of 100000 with an


45. Courbon’s method of design of bridge is average rate of demand of 160 litres per
head per day. What is the actual number
applicable when the ratio of span width is
of filters required if the size of each filter
between ____ and ____ . is 9 m  5 m ? Assume the average
filtration rate as 4500 litres per hour per
(1) 1, 4
m2 .
(2) 2, 4 (1) 1
(3) 3, 4 (2) 2

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(3) 4
(4) 5, 4
(4) 5

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50. If initial Dissolved Oxygen (DO) and final 54. For mixed traffic conditions, rate of
DO after 5 days incubation at 20C in superelevation for horizontal highway
1·0% dilution sample are 5·0 mg/L and curve of radius 500 m and a speed of
4·0 mg/L respectively, what is 5-day BOD 100 kmph is
of the same sample in mg/L ? (1) 0·220
(1) 50 (2) 0·089
(2) 100
(3) 0·057
(3) 150
(4) 0·0108
(4) 200
55. The ratio of the horizontal effective
51. If the reduced bearing of a line is N 45 E, stress, h to the vertical effective stress,
then its whole circle bearing is _______ . v is termed as
(1) 135
(1) Safe Bearing Capacity
(2) 45
(2) Coefficient of lateral earth pressure
(3) 315
(3) Friction
(4) 225
(4) Optimum ratio

52. Keeping the instrument height as 1·5 m,


56. Which one of the following is a point in
length of staff 4 m, the slope of the
time when certain conditions have been
ground as 1 in 10, the sight on the
fulfilled, such as the start or completion
down-slope, must be less than _______ m.
of one or more activities ?
(1) 15
(1) Activity
(2) 20
(2) Network
(3) 25
(3) Event
(4) 30
(4) Node

53. Most total station instruments measure


angles by means of ______ of extremely 57. Which one of the following does have
precise digital bar-codes etched on some limitations when applied to detailed
rotating glass cylinders or discs within engineering design work during early
the instrument. stages of a project ?

(1) Refraction (1) CPM

(2) Electro-optical scanning (2) PERT

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(3) Radiation (3) Dummy activity
(4) Digitization (4) Estimate

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58. A portion of an embankment having a 61. Ratio of unconfined compressive strength


of an undisturbed sample of soil to that of
uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular
a remoulded sample at the same water
with radius 1000 m of the centre line. It content is known as
subtends 180 at the centre. If the height
of the bank is 1 m at the lower end, and (1) Plasticity index
side slopes 2 : 1, the earth work involved
(2) Thixotropy
is ______  1000 m3.
(1) 24·5 (3) Sensitivity
(2) 25·5
(4) Activity
(3) 26·5
(4) 27·5

62. 50 gm of oven dried soil of five sizes


59. Following results are obtained from shown in the table is taken for
particle size analysis : hydrometer analysis and 1000 cc of
suspension is prepared and filled in a jar
Uniformity coefficient = 8
up to 30 cm height.
Coefficient of curvature = 2·8
Particle size Weight
Percentage of soil passing through 75 IS
sieve = 10% (mm) (gm)
0·06 6
Percentage of soil passing through
4·75 mm IS sieve = 70% 0·05 20
If liquid limit and plastic limit for the soil 0·03 15
are 38% and 34.2% respectively, the soil 0·015 5
can be classified as per IS soil 0·004 4
classification system as
(1) SP-SM If specific gravity of soil solids is 2·7 and
viscosity of soil water suspension is
(2) SW-SM
1  106 kN sec/m2, the time required for
(3) SP-SC
all the particles to settle to the bottom of
(4) SW-SC
the jar is

60. Bentonite clay is an example for (1) 2 hr 16 min


(1) Kaolinite
(2) 5 hr 37 min
(2) Montmorillonite

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(3) 11 hr 55 min
(3) Vermiculite
(4) Illite (4) 23 hr 50 min

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63. Why are bricks soaked in water before 66. ISO 14012 provides guidance on
using in brick masonry ? (1) Qualification criteria for
(1) for removing dust environmental auditor
(2) for reducing air voids (2) Management of Environmental
Audit Programs
(3) for preventing depletion of moisture
from water (3) EA – General Principles of
Environmental Auditing
(4) for reducing efflorescence
(4) EA – Auditing of Environmental
Management Systems

67. Euler’s crippling load formula gives


buckling load of long columns that is the
64. One of the following industries is not ultimate load a column can take.
necessary to prepare Environmental Mathematically Euler’s formula can be
expressed as
Impact Assessment (EIA) report to get
 2 EI
clearance from the Ministry of (1) P=
L2
Environment and Forest :
 2 EI
(1) Thermal projects (2) P=
4L2
(2) Nuclear projects 2 2 EI
(3) P=
(3) Hydro projects L2

(4) Industry involving investment less 4 2 EI


(4) P=
than < 5 crores L2
Where
P = Buckling load
65. Power transmitted by a shaft in watts is E = Modulus of Elasticity of material
given by the expression
I = Moment of Inertia of column section
60 L = Equivalent/Effective length of column
(1) P=
2NT
2NT 68. For a discharge Q, the specific speed of
(2) P=
60 the pump is Ns. For half discharge with
the same head, the specific speed will be
4NT
(3) P=
60 (1) Ns
60
(4) P= (2) Ns 2
4 NT
Where :
2 / Ns

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(3)
N = speed in rpm and T is torque
(4) 2Ns

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69. Temporary hardness in water is caused 72. Consider the following statements :
by
A. The intersection of the first and the
(1) Carbonates and bicarbonates of last ray in funicular diagram is on
the line of action of the resultant.
calcium and magnesium
B. Intersection of first and last ray in
(2) Bicarbonates of sodium and polar diagram gives the magnitude of
the resultant.
potassium
Which of the above statements is/are
(3) Carbonates of calcium and correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer
potassium
from the options given below :
(4) Dissolved carbon dioxide (1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
70. If  is the angle of deflection of a simple (4) Neither A nor B
curve of radius R, then the length of the 73. If V is the design speed in km/hr and R is
curve is the radius (metre) of curve of a hill road,
R the superelevation (e) is given by which of
(1)
90  the following ratios ?
V
R (1)
(2) 127 R
180 
V2
(2)
R 127 R
(3)
270  V2
(3)
225R
R
(4) V
360  (4)
225R

74. Volumetric strain is defined as which of


71. ________ Standard provides tool for the following ?

program to quantify, monitor and verify V


(1)
green house gas emission. V
V
(2)
(1) ISO 14024 V
m
(2) ISO 14015 (3)
V
V

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(3) ISO 14064 (4)
m
(4) ISO 14060

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75. Maximum deflection for a cantilever of 78. The most commonly used admixture to
length L, carrying a load of W at its free accelerate the setting time of concrete is
end is which of the following ?

(1) Gypsum
WL3
(1)
2EI (2) Calcium chloride

WL3 (3) Calcium sulphate


(2)
4EI (4) Silica fumes

WL3
(3)
3EI
79. The type of bond in which every other
WL3
(4) course contains both headers and
5EI
shoulders is called
(1) English Bond
(2) Flemish Bond
76. Which of the following conditions require
Geometric Surveying ? (3) Russian Bond

(1) Reconnaissance Survey (4) Mixed Bond

(2) Survey of the Country


80. In soil consolidation, what is the correct
(3) Horizontal Curve Ranging
sequence of processes which take place
(4) Vertical Curve Ranging after loading ?
A. Decrease in excess pore pressure
B. Increase in total stress
77. Which of the following is not a C. Development of excess pore pressure
workability enhancing agent ?
D. Increase in effective stress

(1) Plasticizer Select the code for the correct answer


from the options given below :
(2) Air entraining agents (1) C, B, A, D

(3) Super plasticizer (2) B, C, D, A

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(3) B, C, A, D
(4) Silica fumes
(4) C, B, D, A

269 (27 – A )
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81. The base width of an elementary profile of 85. Which one of the following is a component
a gravity dam of height H is b. The of shield for tunnelling ?
specific gravity of the material of the dam (1) Trench Jack
is G and uplift pressure coefficient is K.
The correct relationship for no tension at (2) Linear Plate
the heel is given by (3) Cutting edge
b 1 (4) Stiffener
(1) 
H G–K
b 86. Consider the following statements :
(2)  G–K
H
A. Hydrofluorocarbons are organic
b 1 compounds containing hydrogen,
(3) 
H G–K carbon and fluorine.
b 1 B. They are commonly used as
(4) 
H K G–K substitutes for ozone depleting
substances like chlorofluorocarbons
82. A first class brick when immersed in cold
(CFCs) and are used in refrigerators
water for 24 hours should not absorb
water more than and air-conditioners.

(1) 20% C. They also don’t cause global


(2) 15% warming.

(3) 10% Which of the above statements are


(4) 25% correct ?

83. Municipal taxes are assessed on Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
percentage of net income from property
and it varies from (1) A and B only
(1) 2% to 5% (2) B and C only
(2) 6% to 9% (3) A and C only
(3) 10% to 12% (4) A, B and C

(4) 18% to 25%


87. During which of the following operating
84. What is the value of resultant retardation
conditions of an automobile is carbon
in m/s2 when a longitudinal friction monoxide content in the exhaust gas the
coefficient of 0·36 is allowed for stopping minimum ?
the vehicle on road ?
(1) Idle running
(1) 1·24
(2) 1·82 (2) Acceleration

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(3)
(4)
2·24
3·53
(3)
(4)
Cruising
Deceleration
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88. Fine aggregates are those which pass and 92. Duration along the critical path defines
retain on which of the following sizes of which of the following ?
IS sieves respectively ?
A. Shortest duration needed
(1) 6 mm and 75 
B. Shortest duration permissible
(2) 4·75 mm and 75 
(3) 75  and 4·75 mm C. Longest duration needed
(4) 10 mm and 4·75 mm D. Longest duration permissible
Select the code for the correct answer
89. According to Nagpur Plan, Indian roads from the options given below :
have been classified into how many
categories ? (1) A and B only

(1) 4 (2) A and D only


(2) 5 (3) B and C only
(3) 6
(4) C and D only
(4) 7

93. What is Probable Maximum Precipitation


90. If the temperature of a rod of length L is (PMP) ?
increased by TC, whose coefficient of
linear expansion is  and Young’s (1) Projected precipitation for a
modulus is E, then free expansion of the 100 years return period
rod due to increase in temperature is
(2) Upper limit of rainfall that is
given by which of the following
expressions ? justified climatologically
(1) TE 2L (3) Effective precipitable water
(2) T/L (4) Maximum precipitation for all
(3) T/E recorded storms
(4) None of the above
94. Taylor’s stability number curves are used
for the analysis of stability of slopes. The
91. In the critical path of construction
planning, free float can be angle of shearing resistance used in the
chart is the
(1) Greater than the total float
(1) effective angle
(2) Equal to the total float (2) apparent angle
(3) mobilised angle

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(3) Greater than the independent float
(4) weighed angle
(4) Less than the independent float

269 (31 – A )
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95. Consider the following statements : 98. In an irrigation project, in a certain year,
A. Pitot tube is used for measuring 60% and 46% of the cultivable command
velocity of flow in the pipe. area in Kharif and Rabi respectively,
B. Mamometer is used for measuring remained without water and rest of the
fluid pressure in a pipe. area got irrigation water. The intensity of
C. Venturimeter is used for measuring irrigation in that year for the project was
discharge in a pipe. (1) 126%
Which of the above statements are (2) 80%
correct ? (3) 124%
(4) 94%
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :

(1) A and B only 99. A 1 m thick layer of saturated clay,

(2) B and C only drained at both faces, settles by 10 cm in


one year. If a thin layer of pervious soil
(3) A and C only
is introduced in the middle of this
(4) A, B and C layer, then what will be the period during
which the settlement of 10 cm will be
compacted ?
96. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular (1) 2 years
channel of bed width 5 m, the hydraulic
(2) 0·75 years
radius is equal to
(3) 0·25 years
(1) 1·25 m
(4) 3 years
(2) 2m
(3) 2·25 m
100. Which one of the following states of field
(4) 1·75 m
compaction of sand deposit truly
represents the corrected standard
97. If the channel index at an irrigation penetration test value :
outlet is 5/3, ‘setting’ of an orifice type N (corrected) = 12 ?
outlet in order to have proportionality is
(1) Loose
(1) 0·16
(2) Medium dense
(2) 0·30

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(3) 0·48 (3) Dense
(4) 0·62 (4) Very dense

269 (33 – A )
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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269 (35 – A )
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Electrical/Mechanical)

SPECIFIC PAPER - II
Assistant Engineer (Civil) - 2017
Examination held on 10-09-2017 Subject Code: 269 Total marks: 200
(2:00PM TO 4:00PM) Two marks for each question
KEY CHART
Question Booklet Series - 'A'

Question Key Question Key Question Key Question Key


Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer
1 2 26 1 51 2 76 2
2 1 27 2 52 3 77 4
3 1 28 1 53 2 78 2
4 3 29 4 54 2 79 2
5 4 30 2 55 2 80 3
6 3 31 2 56 3 81 1
7 1 32 3 57 1 82 1
8 2 33 1 58 4 83 3
9 1 34 1 59 2 84 4
10 3 35 4 60 2 85 3
11 3 36 4 61 3 86 1
12 4 37 3 62 2 87 1
13 3 38 1 63 3 88 2
14 3 39 1 64 4 89 2
15 2 40 1 65 2 90 2
16 2 41 1 66 1 91 3
17 4 42 1 67 4 92 2
18 4 43 2 68 2 93 2
19 1 44 1 69 2 94 3
20 4 45 2 70 2 95 4
21 3 46 4 71 3 96 1
22 4 47 1 72 1 97 2
23 1 48 2 73 3 98 4
24 2 49 4 74 1 99 3
25 2 50 2 75 3 100 2

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