ZOOM INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

(Senior Secondary : Affiliated to CBSE, Delhi)

QUESTION BANK (Term I)
(Session: – 2024-2025)
Class:–XI
Subject: – Chemistry (Code:–043)

M.C.Q. Questions (1 mark):-

1. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.022×1023)
(a) 6.026×1022 (b) 1.086×1023 (c) 3.600×1023 (d) 1.800×1022
Ans: b
2. Which of the following fertilizers has the highest nitrogen percentage
(a) Ammonium sulphate (b) Calcium cyanamide
(c) Urea (d) Ammonium nitrate
Ans: c
3. Molarity of liquid HCl, if density of solution is 1.17 g/cc is
(a) 36.5 (b) 18.25 (c) 32.05 (d) 42.10
Ans: c
4. In the reaction
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)→ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion
(a) all the oxygen will be consumed (b) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(c) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (d) all the ammonia will be consumed
Ans: a
5. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP (b) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(c) 0.5 g of H2 gas (d)10 g of O2 gas
Ans: a
6. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 14
Ans: d
7. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those of the distinguishing (last)
electron of Mo?
(a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2 (b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2 (d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2
Ans: c
8. A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level, 8 in the second energy level
and 8 in the third energy level. This information does not necessarily tell us:
(a) the atomic number of the element.
(b) anything about the element's chemical properties.
(c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
(d) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.
Ans: d
9. In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic (b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic (d) 0, diamagnetic
Ans: a
10. The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly
before they pair up in any orbital of the set.
Ans: c
1
11. The electronic configuration of chromium (Z=24) is:
(a) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 (b) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
(c) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2 (d) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p4
Ans: b
12. Which of the following is not permissible?
(a) n= 4, l = 3, m= 0 (b) n= 4, l = 2, m= 1
(c) n= 4, l = 4, m= 1 (d) n= 4, l = 0, m= 0
Ans: c
13. According to Aufbau principle a new electron enters the orbitals when:
(a) (n + l) is minimum (b) (n + l) is maximum
(c) (n + m) is minimum (d) (n + m) is maximum
Ans: a
14. Which of the following forms the basis of the modern periodic table?
(a) Atomic mass (b) Atomic number
(c) Number of nucleons (d) All of the above
Ans:b
15. Which of the following is the correct order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and
nitrogen?
(a) O < F < N (b) N < F < O (c) O < N < F (d) F < O < N
Ans: d
16. Which of the reactions will need the maximum amount of energy?
(a) Na → Na+ + e– (b) Ca+ → Ca++ + e– (c) K+ → K+ ++ e– (d) C2+ → C3+ + e–
Ans: c
17. Which one will have the highest 2nd ionisation energy?
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Ans: a
18. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is
(a) 5p (b) 3d (c) 4f (d) 6d
Ans: c
19. The bond angle around atom which uses sp2 hybridization is ———–
(a) 1200 (b) 1800 (c) 1070 (d) 1090. 28’
Ans: a
20. The ion which is iso-electronic with CO is —————
(a) CN– (b) O2– (c) N2+ (d) O2+
Ans: a
21. The correct bond order in the following species is —————.
(a) O2+ < O2– < O22+ (b) O2– < O2+ < O22+
2+ +
(c) O2 < O2 < O2 - (d) O22+ < O2– < O2+
Ans: b
22. During change of O2 to O22- ion, the electron adds on which of the following orbitals?
(a) σ* orbital (b) π orbital (c) σ orbital (d) π* orbital
Ans: (d)
23. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by
(a) LiCl ˂ NaCl ˂ BeCl2 (b) BeCl2< LiCl < NaCl
(c) NaCl <LiCl < BeCl2 (d) BeCl2< NaCl < LiCl
Ans: c
24. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are
a) octahedral, sp3d2 (b) trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
3
(c) planar triangle, sp d 3 (d) square planar, sp3d2
Ans: a
25. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3− and NH4+ are:
(a) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (b) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
2 3
(c) sp, sp and sp respectively (d) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively
Ans: c
26. Which one has a pyramidal shape?
(a) SO3 (b) PCl3 (c) CO32- (d) NO3–
Ans: b
2
27. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO 3

Ans: a
28. Which of the following is a polar molecule
(a) SiF4 (b) XeF4 (c) BF3 (d) SF4
Ans: d
29. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some ice cubes. This is an example of
(a) Closed system (b) Open system
(c) Isolated system (d) Non thermodynamics system
Ans: c
30. Considering entropy(S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is
(a) △S system + △S surroundings > 0 (b) △S system – △S surroundings < 0
(c) △S system > 0 (d) △S surroundings > 0
Ans: a
31. The enthalpy change in a reaction does not depend upon
(a) the state of reactions and products
(b) the nature of the reactants and products
(c) different intermediate steps in the reaction
(d) initial and final enthalpy of the reaction
Ans: c
32. For the reaction C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(a) △H >△U (b) △H <△U (c) △H = △U (d) None of these
Ans: c
33. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity
(a) used to determine heat changes
(b) whose value is independent of path
(c) used to determine pressure volume work
(d) whose value depends on temperature only
Ans: b
34. Thermodynamics is not related to
(a) energy changes involved in a chemical reaction
(b) the extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds
(c) the rate at which a reaction proceeds
(d) the feasibility of a chemical reaction
Ans: c
35. The oxidation number of Cr in Cr(CO)6 is —————–
(a) 0 (b) +2 (c) -2 (d) +6
Ans: a
36. In the reaction
3Br2 + 6CO32- + 3H2O → 5Br – + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
(a) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced.
(b) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised.
(c) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised.
(d) Bromine is both reduced and oxidised.
Ans: d
37. The values of x and y in the following reaction,
xCl2 + 6OH– (hot & conc.) → ClO3– + yCl– + 3H2O are
(a) x = 2, y = 4 (b) x = 5, y = 3 (c) x = 3, y = 5 (d) x = 4, y = 2
Ans: c
38. Which of the compounds can exist together?
(a) HgCl2, SnCl2 (b) FeCl3, KI (c) FeCl3, SnCl2 (d) FeCl2, SnCl2
Ans: d
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39. One mole of ferrous oxalate requires____ moles of MnO4– to get oxidised completely in an acidic
medium
(a) 0.6 moles (b) 0.4 moles (c) 0.2 moles (d) 7.5 moles
Ans: b
40. H2O2 changes Cr2O72- ion to CrO5 in an acidic medium, the oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(a) +6 (b) +5 (c) -10 (d) +3
Ans: a
The questions given below consist of Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Use the following key to select
correct answer.
A If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correctexplanation of the assertion.
B If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correctexplanation of the assertion.
C If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
D If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
41. Assertion : 1.231 has three significant figures.
Reason : All numbers right to the decimal point are significant.
Ans: D
42. Assertion : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.
Ans: A
43. Assertion : Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies.
Reason : The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower frequency to higher
frequency with an increase in temperature.
Ans: B

44. Assertion : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.
Reason : The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the
atom.
Ans: A
45. Assertion : Lone pair-lone pair repulsive interactions are greater than lone pair-bond pair and bond
pair-bond pair interactions.
Reason : The space occupied by lone pair electrons is more as compared to bond pair electrons.
Ans: A
46. Assertion : Bonding molecular orbital has greater stability than corresponding antibonding
molecular orbital.
Reason : The electron density in a bonding molecular orbital is located away from the space
between the nuclei while in antibonding molecular orbital it is located between the nuclei of the
bonded atoms.
Ans: C
47. Assertion : Smaller the size of an atom greater is the electronegativity.
Reason : Electronegativity refers to the tendency of atom so share electrons with other atom.
Ans: C
48. Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy can be exothermic or endothermic.
Reason : Electron gain enthalpy provides a measure of the ease with which an atom adds an
electron to form anion.
Ans: B
49. Assertion : Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be reversed by some external
agency.
Reason : Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.
Ans: B
50. Assertion : The heat absorbed during the isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vaccum is
zero.
Reason : The volume occupied by the molecules of an ideal gas is zero.
Ans: B
51. Assertion: HClO4 is a stronger acid than HClO3.
Reason: Oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is +7 and in HClO3 +5
Ans: B
4
52. Assertion: Pb4+ ion can easily reduced to Pb2+ ion
Reason: Pb2+ ion is paramagnetic in nature
Ans: C
53. Assertion: The number of O atoms in 16 g of oxygen and 16 g of ozone is same.
Reason: Each of the species represent 1 g-atom of oxygen.
Ans: A
54. Assertion: 1 mole of H2SO4 is neutralised by 2 moles of NaOH but 1 equivalent of H2SO4 is
neuralised by 1 equivalent of NaOH.
Reason: Equivalent wt. of H2SO4 is half of its moleculer wt. while equivalent wt. of NaOH is 40.
Ans: B
55. Assertion : The position of an electron can be determined exactly with the help of an electron
microscope.
Reason : The product of uncertainty in the measurement of its momentum and the uncertainty in
the measurement of the position cannot be less than a finite limit.
Ans: D
56. Assertion : The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529Å.
Reason : Radius of each circular orbit (rn) – 0.529Å (n2/Z), where n = 1, 2, 3 and Z = atomic
number.
Ans: A
57. Assertion : In a triad, the three elements present have same gaps of atomic masses.
Reason : Elements in a triad have similar properties.
Ans: D
58. Assertion : Second ionization enthalpy will be higher the first ionization enthalpy.
Reason : Ionization enthalpy is a quantitative measure of the tendency of an element to lose
electron.
Ans: B
59. Assertion : The lesser the lattice enthalpy more stable is the ionic compound.
Reason : The lattice enthalpy is greater, for ions of highest charge and smaller radii.
Ans: D
60. Assertion : The bond order of helium is always zero.
Reason : The number of electrons in bondin molecular orbital and antibonding molecular orbital is
equal.
Ans : A

Very Short Answer Questions 2-Marks-

1. Calculate the number of sulphate ions in 100 ml of 0.001 M H2SO4.
Ans: No. of moles = molarity × Volume in litres=0.001×0.1=0.0001
Now, 1 molecules of H2SO4 Contains 1 SO42-Ion.
∴ 1 mole of H2SO4 Contains 1 mole of SO42- ion
∴0.0001 Mole of H2SO4 Contains 0.0001 mole of SO42-
∴ Number of sulphate ions = moles of ions × NA = 0.0001×6.022×1023=6.022×1019
2. Calculate the volume of O2 at STP liberated by heating 12.25g of KClO3.
Ans: KClO3 Decomposes to give KCl and O2
2KClO3 → 2KCl +3O2
Molecular weight of KClO3 is 39 +35.5+48 = 122.5 grams
Here 2 moles of KClO3 has taken, Hence molecular weight = 2X122.5 = 245 grams
According to the equation 245g of KClO3 Produces 3 moles of Oxygen i.e 3X22.4 L = 67.2 L of
oxygen is produced
At STP 1 mole O2 occupies 22.4 litres
245g of KClO3 → 67.2 L of oxygen
12.25 g of KClO3 → 12.25 X 67.2/245 litres of oxygen
= 3.36 L
Volume of Oxygen released = 3.36 L
3. Nickel atom can lose two electrons to form Ni²+ ion. The atomic number of nickel is 28. From
which orbital will nickel lose two electrons?
Ans: Nickel will lose two electrons from 4s orbital because 4s orbital is further away from nucleus.
Ni (28) – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8
5
4. Table-tennis ball has a mass of 10 g and a speed of 90 m/s. If speed can be measured with an
accuracy of 4% what will be the uncertainty in speed and position?
Ans: Given: speed = 90 m/s, mass = 10 g = 10 × 10-3 kg.
Uncertainty in speed (Δv) = 4% of 90 m/sec
4
= 100 × 90 = 3.6𝑚𝑠 −1
Δ𝑥.Δ𝑣=ℎ/4π𝑚
From Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Δx=(ℎ/4π𝑚)×Δ𝑣
Δx=(6.626×10−34𝐽𝑠/4×3.14×10×10−3𝑘𝑔)×3.6𝑚𝑠−1
Δx = 1.46 × 10-33 m.
5. Using molecular orbital theory, compare the bond energy and magnetic character of O 2+ and
O2– species.
Ans: According to molecular orbital theory electronic configurations of O 2+ and O2– species are as
follows : Higher bond order of O2+ shows that it is more stable than O2– .Both the species have
unpaired electrons. So both are paramagnetic in nature.

6. Explain why PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal whereas IF5 is square pyramidal.

Ans: P is sp3d hybridized and surrounded by 5 bond pairs and no lone pairs in PCl5, whereas iodine
atom is sp3d2 hybridized and surrounded by 5 bond pairs and one lone pair in IF5, so the shape
of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and IF5 is square pyramidal
7. Structures of molecules of two compounds are given below:

(a) Which of the two compounds will have intermolecular hydrogen bonding and which compound
is expected to show intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Ans: In compound (I) oxygen atom of −NO2 group and hydrogen atom of −OH group is close
enough to form intramolecular hydrogen bonding while in compound (II) these two groups
are far away from each other. So, compound (II) forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(b) The melting point of a compound depends on, among other things, the extent of hydrogen
bonding. On this basis explain which of the above two compounds will show high melting point.
Ans: Compound (II) will have a higher melting point becasue it forms intermolecular hydrogen
bonding so intermolecular forces are stronger.
8. In both water and dimethyl ether (CH3–O–CH3), oxygen atom is central atom, and has the
same hybridization, yet they have different bond angles. Which one has a greater bond
angle? Give reason.
Ans: The bond angle of dimethyl ether will be greater. More repulsion will exist between bond pairs of
CH3 groups attached in ether than between bond pairs of hydrogen atoms attached to oxygen in
the water.The carbon of CH3 in ether is attached to three hydrogen atoms via bonds, and the
electron pair of these bonds contribute to the electronic charge density on the carbon atom. As a
result, the repulsion between two CH3 groups will be greater than that between two hydrogen
atoms.
9. The reactivity of halogens decreases down the group but of alkali metal increases down the group
–why?
Ans: The reactivities of the halogens (17th group) decrease down the group ( At < I < Br < Cl < F). This
6
 is due to the fact that atomic radius increases in size with an increase of electronic energy levels.
This lessers the attraction for valence electrons of other atoms, decreasing reactivity.
10. Predict the position of the element in the periodic table satisfying the electronic configuration
(n-1) d1 ns2 for ( n=4).
Ans: period- 4 group-3
11. Why Li and Mg show similarity in chemical behaviour?
Ans: These two elements have similar properties (diagonal relationship) because of their similar atomic
and ionic radii and similar charge to radius ratio.
12. All transition elements are d-block elements, but all d-block elements are not transition elements.
Explain.
Ans: All transition metals are d-block elements, but not all d-block elements are transition elements
because all d-block elements that have completely filled d- orbitals are not counted as transition
elements, making such elements exceptional. Zn, Cd, and Hg are a few examples.
13. Among the elements B, Al, C and Si
(a) Which has the highest first ionization enthalpy?
Ans: The element that has the highest first ionisation enthalpy is C.
(b) Which has the most metallic character?
Ans: The element that has the most metallic character is Al.
14. Although geometries of NH3 and H2O molecules are distorted tetrahedral, bond angle in water is
less than that of ammonia. Discuss.
Ans- The molecular geometry of NH3 and H2O can be shown as:

The central atom (N) in NH3 has one lone pair and there are three bond pairs. In H 2O, there are
two lone pairs and two bond pairs.
The two lone pairs present in the oxygen atom of H2O molecule repel the two bond pairs. This
repulsion is stronger than the repulsion between the lone pair and the three bond pairs on the
nitrogen atom.
Since the repulsions on the lone pairs in H2O molecule are greater than that in NH3, the bond
angle in water is less than that of ammonia.
15. Although both CO2 and H2O are triatomic molecules, the shape of H2O molecule is bent while that
of CO2 is linear. Explain this on the basis of dipole moment.
Ans: According to experimental results, the dipole moment of carbon dioxide is zero. This is possible
only if the molecule is linear so that the dipole moments of C– O bonds are equal and opposite to
nullify each other.

Resultant μ = 0 D
H2O, on the other hand, has a dipole moment value of 1.84 D (though it is a triatomic molecule as
CO2). The value of the dipole moment suggests that the structure of H 2O molecule is bent where
the dipole moment of O–H bonds are unequal.

16. Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment and why?
Ans- In both molecules i.e., NH3 and NF3, the central atom (N) is sp3 hybridized and has a lone pair
of electron and there are three bond pairs. Hence, both molecules have a pyramidal shape. Since
fluorine is more electronegative than hydrogen, it is expected that the net dipole moment of NF 3 is
greater than NH3. However, the net dipole moment of NH3 (1.46 D) is greater than that of NF3
(0.24 D).
7
 This can be explained on the basis of the directions of the dipole moments of each individual bond
in NF3 and NH3. These directions can be shown as:

17. Predict the change in internal energy for an isolated system at constant volume.
Ans: There is no energy transfer as heat or work in an isolated system,
so w=0 and q=0.
According to the first law of thermodynamics-
ΔU=q+w=0+0=0
ΔU = 0
18. The molar enthalpy of vaporization of acetone is less than that of water. Why?
Ans: Acetone lacks a hydrogen bond, so intermolecular forces are weaker, causing it to boil/evaporate
quickly, lowering the molar enthalpy of vaporisation. Furthermore, because acetone lacks a polar
O-H bond, it has a low enthalpy. Water has both a non-polar region and a strong hydrogen bond.
19. 18.0 g of water completely vapourises at 100°C and 1 bar pressure and the enthalpy change in the
process is 40.79 kJ mol–1. What will be the enthalpy change for vapourising two moles of water
under the same conditions? What is the standard enthalpy of vapourisation for water?
Ans: Given that, the amount of water is 18.0 g, and the pressure is 1 bar.
As we all know, 18.0 g H2O = 1 mole H2O.
Enthalpy change for vaporising 1 mole of H2O = 40.79 kJ mol–1
∴ Enthalpy change for vaporising 2 moles of H2O = 2 × 40.79 kJ = 81.358kJ
Standard enthalpy of vaporisation at 100℃ and 1 bar pressure,
Δvap H2O = + 40.79 k J mol–1.
20. Which one has a higher energy, a photon of violet light with wavelength 4000 Å or a photon of red
light with wavelength 7000 Å?
Ans:

21. Calculate the number of Photons emitted in 10 hours by a 60 W sodium lamp emitting radiations of
wavelength 6000 Å
Ans: Energy emitted by sodium lamp in one sec. = Watt x sec = 60 x 1 J
Energy of photons emitted = hc/λ
= {6.626 x 1034 x 3 x 108}/{6000 x 10-10} J
= 3.37 x 10-19 J
No. of Photons emitted per sec. = {60}/{3.37 x 10-19} = 17.8 x 1019
∴ Number of photons emitted in 10 hours = 17.8 x 1019 x 10 x 60 x 60
= 6.41 x 1024
22. MnO42- undergoes a disproportionation reaction in an acidic medium but MnO 4– does not. Give a
reason.
Ans: Disproportionation is a redox reaction in which one intermediate oxidation state component
transforms into two higher and lower oxidation state compounds.Oxidation states of manganese
8
 ranges from +2 to +7 in its various compounds. MnO4– has the maximum oxidation state of +7
hence disproportionation is impossible, but MnO42- has a +6 oxidation state, which can be oxidised
as well as reduced.
23. Calculate the oxidation number of phosphorus in the following species.
(a) HPO32- and (b) PO43-
(a) Let the oxidation number of phosphorus in HPO32- be x.
H + P + 3O2-
⇒ +1 + x + (-2)×3 = -2
⇒ +1 + x – 6 = -2
⇒ x – 5 = -2
⇒x=–2+5
⇒ x = +3
Thus, the oxidation number of phosphorus is +3.
(b) Let the oxidation number of phosphorus in PO 43- be x.
PO43-
⇒ x + 4 ×(-2) = -3
⇒ x = -3 + 8 = +5
⇒ x = +5
Thus, the oxidation number of phosphorus is +5.
24. What are the oxidation number of the underlined elements in each of the following and how do you
rationalise your results ?
(a) CrO5 (b) H2S4O6
Ans: (a)

(b)

25. What is the molality of a 3.75 M H2SO4 solution with a density of 1.230 g/mL?
Answer.
Mass of 1.00 L of solution:
(1000 mL) × (1.230 g/mL) = 1230 g
Mass of 3.75 mol of H2SO4 :
(3.75 mol) × (98.0768 g/mol) = 367.788 g
Mass of solvent:
1230 − 367.788 = 862.212 g
Molality:
3.75 mol / 0.862212 kg = 4.35 m
26. What is the molality of a solution consisting of 1.34 mL of carbon tetrachloride (CCl 4, density= 1.59
g/mL) in 65.0 mL of methylene chloride (CH2Cl2, density = 1.33 g/mL)?
Answer.
Moles of CCl4:
(1.34 mL) × (1.59 g/mL) = 2.1306 g
2.1306 g / 153.823 g/mol = 0.013851 mol
Mass of the methylene chloride:
(65.0 mL) × (1.33 g/mL) = 86.45 g = 0.08645 kg

9
 Molality:
0.013851 mol / 0.08645 kg = 0.160 m.
27. Find the density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 (Molar mass =
98 g mol–1) by mass .
Answer :
The relation between Molarity, M and mass percent (%) is given by:
M = (% x 10 x d) / MW
Where:
MW = molecular weight of solute
d = density of solution
Therefore:
d = M x MW / (% x 10) = 3.60 x 98 / 29 x 10 = 1.216 g mL-1

Short Answer Questions 3-Marks-

1. (a) Why CO32– ion cannot be represented by a single Lewis structure. How can it
be represented?
(b) He2 does not exist- give reason.
Ans: (a) It cannot be represented by a single Lewis structure since it exhibits resonance. The
electrons are shifted from one atom to the other to distribute the charge evenly on all atoms
as that is more stable than two atoms have 1 negative charge each. Hence it can be
represented by the three resonance structures.

(b) Helium molecule contains 4 electrons. Out of this 4 electrons, 2 are present in the bonding
molecular orbital and the remaining 2 are present in the anti-bonding molecular orbital. Bond
order = ½ (Nb - Na) = ½ (2-2) = 0 Hence, He cannot exist.
2. Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment and why?
Ans:The dipole moment of NH3 is higher in comparison to NF3. Due to
The F i.e. fluorine is more electronegative than N and pulls the
electrons . As the number NF bonds is 3 the 3 F atoms pull the
electrons. The resulting electronegative forces decrease the
dipole moment. The NH3 molecule having 3 Hydrogen molecules
that form bond with N do not have electronegativity to over come
the pull of N molecule unlike the NF3 which results in higher
dipole moment .

3. Describe hybridization in the case of PCl5 and SF6. The axial bonds are longer as compared to
equatorial bonds in PCl5 whereas in SF6, both axial bonds and equatorial bonds have the same
bond length. Explain.
Ans: The ground state electronic configuration of P (15)- 1s2 2s2 3s2 3p3 3d0
The excited state outer electronic configuration- 1s2 2s2 3s1 3p3 3d1
Three P – Cl bonds are equatorial bonds because they are in the same plane and
form a 120° angle with each other. The remaining two P – Cl bonds, one above
and one below the equatorial plane, form a 90° angle with the plane. These are
known as axial bonds. Because axial bond pairs experience more repulsive
interaction than equatorial bond pairs, axial bonds have been found to be slightly
longer and thus slightly weaker than equatorial bonds, making PCl 5 molecules
more reactive.

10
 Since SF6 has (sp3d2) hybridization and an octahedral shape with bonds at 90° angles, all of the
bonds in SF6 have the same bond length. As a result, the repulsion between all of the bonds is
equal.
4. (a) Why electron gain enthalpy is always negative (-)ve ?
(b) Chlorine (Cl) has more negative electron gain enthalpy than Fluorine(F)-explain.
Ans: (a) Energy is released when an electron is added to the atom. Therefore, the electron gain
enthalpy is negative. The electron gain enthalpy for halogens is highly negative because they can
acquire the nearest stable noble gas configuration by accepting an extra electron.
(b) It is because of the small size of fluorine. All the electrons in the atom repels the incoming
electron significantly, this nullify the effect of higher electronegativity of fluorine over chlorine.
5. Calculate the mass percent of calcium, phosphorus and oxygen in calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2.
Ans: We know that atomic mass of calcium = 40, phosphorus = 31 and that of oxygen = 16.
Therefore, putting the values we get, molar mass of Ca3(PO4)2= 120+62+128 = 310.
Therefore, the mass percentage of calcium in calcium phosphate = (120/310)×100=38.71
Similarly, the mass percentage of phosphorus in calcium phosphate = (62/310)×100=20
And the mass percentage of oxygen in calcium phosphate = (128/310)×100=41.29
6. What volume of 10 M HCl and 3 M HCl should be mixed to get 1L of 6 M HCl solution?
Ans. Suppose volume of 10 M HCl required to prepare 1 L of 6 M HCl = x litre
Volume of 3 M HCl required = (1-x) litre
Applying molarity equation:
M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3
10x + 3(1-x) = 6 X 1
10x + 3 – 3x = 6
3
7 x = 3 or x = 7
Or, x = 0.428 L
Therefore Vol. of 10 M HCl required = 0.428 L = 428 mL.
Vol. of 3 M HCl required = 1-0.428 = 0.572 L = 572 mL
7. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to the following
chemical equation:(i) N2 (g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3 (g)
(ii) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?
Ans:

8. On the basis of Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, show that electrons cannot exist within the
atomic nucleus. ( Nuclear radius= 10-13 m, h= 6.626× 10-34 Js)
Ans:

11
9. Two particles A and B have wavelength λA = 5 × 10–10 m and λB = 10 × 10-10 m. Find their
frequency, wave number and energies. Which has more penetrating power and why?
Ans:

12
10. A bulb emits light of wave length 4500Å. The bulb is rated as 150 watt and 8% of the energy is
emitted as light. How many photons are emitted by the bulb per second ?
Ans: Electrical energy in joules = Power in watts × Time in seconds
Thus 150 watt = 150 joules of energy emitted per second

11. (a) Write the maximum number of electron in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4.
(b) Write the maximum number of electron that can be associated with the following set of
quantum numbers ? n = 3, l = 1 and ml = – 1
(c) Write the maximum number of electron that can be accomodated in an atom in which the
highest principal quantum number value is 4
Ans: (a) n = 4, l = 3 ∴
∴ Sub shell is 4f for l = 3, ml , −3, −2, −1, 0, +1, +2, +3
Each orbital has maximum two electrons. So, maximum number of electron in 4f sub shell is 14.
(b) n = 3, l = 1 and ml = −1 According to this set of quantum numbers, the outermost subshell is
3px
∴ Thus, maximum number of electrons is 2 because each orbital can contain maximum 2
electrons.
(c) n = 4 Maximum number of electrons = 2n2 = 2(4)2 = 32.
12. Using molecular orbital theory, compare the bond energy and magnetic character of O 2+ and
O2– species.
Ans: According to molecular orbital theory electronic configurations of O 2+ and O2– species are as
follows : Higher bond order of O2+ shows that it is more stable than O2– .Both the species have
13
 unpaired electrons. So both are paramagnetic in nature.

13. Predict the shape of the following molecules using the VSEPR model :ClF3 ,PCl5,SF4,XeF4,IF7.
Ans: InClF3 molecule:

Total number of electron pairs surrounding the central Cl atom=

(7+3)/2=5.No.ofbondpair(s)=3andlonepair(s)=2.
There fore, its VSEPR predicted shape is T-shape.
In PCl5 molecule:
Total number of electron pairs surrounding the central P atom= (5+5)/2=5.

No. of bond pair(s)= 5 and lone pair(s)= 0.Therefore,its VSEPR predicted shape is Trigonal
bipyramidal.
In SF4 molecule:

Total number of electron pairs surrounding the central S atom=

(6+4)/2=5.No.of bond pair(s)= 4 and lone pair(s)=1.
Therefore, its VSEPR predicted shape is See-saw.
In XeF4 molecule:
Total number of electron pairs surrounding the central Xe atom= (8+4)/2=6.No.of
bondpair(s)=4andlonepair(s)=2.
Therefore, its VSEPR predicted shape is Square planarInIF7molecule:

Total number of electron pairs surrounding the central Iatom=

(7+7)/2=7.No.ofbondpair(s)=7andlonepair(s)=0.
Therefore, its VSEPR predicted shape is Pentagonal bipyramidal.
14. (a) What is Lanthanoid contraction?
(b) Zr and Hf have almost similar atomic radius –explain.
Ans: (a) Lanthanide contraction is the steady decrease in atomic and ionic size of lanthanoids as their
atomic number increases.
(b) Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties due to lanthanide contraction. Electrons present in f-
subshell doesn't have good shielding effect due to which with increase in atomic number effective
nuclear charge increases, size reduces and thus size of Hf and Zr becomes almost equal and
hence both have similar properties.
15. (a) Explain why cation are smaller and anions larger in radii than their parent atoms?
(b) What are the various factors due to which the ionization enthalpy of the main group elements
tends to decrease down the group?
14
Answer: (a) A cation is smaller than the parent atom because it has fewer electrons while its nuclear
charge remains the same. The size of anion will be larger than that of parent atom
because the addition of one or more electrons would result in increased repulsion among the
electrons and a decrease in effective nuclear charge.
(b) Atomic size : With the increase in atomic size, the number of electron shells increase.
Therefore, the force that binds the electrons with the nucleus decreases. The ionization enthalpy
thus decreases with the increase in atomic size.
Screening or shielding effect of inner shell electron : With the addition of new shells, the number of
inner electron shells which shield the valence electrons increases. As a result, the force of
attraction of the nucleus for the valence electrons further decreases and hence the ionization
enthalpy decreases.
16. Calculate the maximum work obtained when 0.75 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and
reversibly at 27°C from a volume of 15L to 25L.
Ans:

17. Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are –110, –393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol-1
respectively. Find the value of ∆r H for the reaction;
N2O4(g) + 3 CO (g) → N2O (g) + 3CO2 (g)
Ans: Reaction is , N2O4(g) + 3 CO (g) → N2O (g) + 3CO2 (g)
we know,
heat of reaction ( ∆rH°) = ( sum of heat of formation of products ) - ( sum of heat of formation of
reactants )
e.g., ∆rH° = [∆fH°(N2O) + 3∆fH°(CO2) ] - [∆fH°(N2O4) + 3∆fH°(CO) ]
Given, enthalpies of formation of CO, CO2 , N2O, and N2O4 are -110, -393 , 81 and 9.7 KJ/mol
respectively .
now, ∆rH° = [81 + 3(-393)] - [9.7 + 3(-110)]
= -777.7 KJ
18. For oxidation of iron, 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) →2Fe2O3(s) entropy change is –549.4 J K–1 mol–1 at 298 K.
In spite of negative entropy change of this reaction, why is the reaction spontaneous? (∆ r Hθ for
this reaction is –1648 kJ mol–1).
Ans: One decides the spontaneity of a reaction by considering ,
∆Stotal = ∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr
For calculating ∆Ssurr, we have to consider the heat absorbed by the surroundings which is equal
to −∆rHΘ.

15
19. Give reasons:
(i) Evaporation of water is an endothermic process but it is spontaneous.
(ii) A real crystal has more entropy than an ideal crystal.
(iii) Entropy of universe is increasing.
Ans: (i) It is because entropy increases -during this process because water vapour have more entropy
than liquid water. ΔG become -ve because TΔS > ΔH.
(ii) A real crystal has some disorder due to the presence of defects in their structural arrangement,
and Ideal crystal does not have any disorder.
(iii) If you want to think of it mathematically, consider the total energy q that is transferred from a
hot region at temperature T1 to a cold region at temperature T2 .
The entropy S1 of the hot region is defined as S1 = q/T1
The entropy S2 of the cold region is S2 = q/T2

Therefore, during the energy transfer, the change in entropy is The total entropy of the system
increases. Since energy never flows spontaneously in the other direction, the total entropy of the
universe is always increasing.
20. (a) Why standard entropy of an elementary substance is not zero whereas standard enthalpy of
formation is taken as zero?
(b) Under what conditions will the reaction occur, if
(i) both ∆H and ∆S are positive
(ii) both ∆H and ∆S are negative
Ans: (a) A substance has perfectly ordered arrangement of its constituent particles only at absolute
zero. When the element formed from itself, this means no heat change.
Thus,∆f H = 0
(b) (i) If both ∆H and ∆S are positive ∆G can be – ve only if T∆S > ∆H in magnitude. Thus, the
temperature should be high.
(ii) If both ∆H and ∆S are negative ∆G can be negative only if T∆S < ∆H in magnitude. Thus, the
value of T should be low.
Case-Based Questions 4-Marks-
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In the periodic table electronegativity increases from left to right in a period and decreases from
top to bottom in a group. The non-metallic character of an element is directly related to the
electronegativity while the metallic character is inversely related to it.
(i) The element with maximum electronegativity belongs to
(a) Period-1, Group-18 (b) Period-2, Group-17
(c) Period-3, Group-17 (d) Period-2, Group-1.
Ans: (b)
(ii) Which of the following groups contains metals, non-metals as well as metalloids?
(a) Group-1 (b) Group-17 (c) Group-14 (d) Group-2.
Ans: (c)
(iii) The least, metallic element of group-13 is
(a) Aluminium (b) Boron (c) Gallium (d) Indium.
Ans: (b)
(iv) The electronegativity increases with
(a) decrease in nuclear charge (b) increase in atomic mass
(c) decrease in atomic size (d) increase in atomic number.
Ans: (c)
2. The attractive force which holds the two atoms together is called a chemical bond. A covalent
bond is formed by an equal sharing of electrons. A coordinate bond is formed by unequal sharing
16
 of electrons. An ionic bond is formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. Octet
rule, although very useful but is not universally applicable. According to valence bond theory, a
covalent bond is formed by overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals resulting in a lowering of
energy and more stability. Bond order is the number of bonds between atoms in a molecule. The
higher the bond
order more will be stability and bond dissociation enthalpy but the smaller the bond length. The
polarity of a covalent bond depends upon the difference in electronegativity. The covalent
character of a bond depends upon polarising power, smaller cation and bigger anions have higher
polarizing power. VSEPR theory helps to predict the shapes of molecules.
(i) What is the correct order of repulsion bp – bp, lp – lp, and lp – bp?
Ans lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp (bp is bond pair, lp is lone pair).
(ii) Write the electron dot structure of N2O.
Ans (a). N≡N+—O–
(iii) Draw the structure of XeOF4 on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Ans:

3. This theory provides a simple procedure to predict the shapes of covalent molecules. Based on
the repulsive interactions of the electron pairs in the valence shell of the atoms. The shape of a
molecule depends upon the number of valence shell electron pairs (bonded or non–bonded)
around the central atom. Pairs of electrons in the valence shell repel one another since their
electron clouds are negatively charged. These pairs of electrons tend to occupy such positions in
space that minimize repulsion and thus maximize distance between them. The valence shell is
taken as a sphere
with the electron pairs localising on the spherical surface at maximum distance from one another.
A multiple bond is treated as if it is a single electron pair and the two or three electron pairs of a
multiple bond are treated as a single super pair. Where two or more resonance structures can
represent a molecule, the VSEPR model is applicable to any such structure. The repulsive
interaction of electron pairs decrease in the order:
lp – lp>lp –bp>bp – bp lone pairs are localised on the central atom and each bonded pair is
shared between two atoms. As a result, the lone pair electrons in a molecule occupy more space
as compared to the bonding pairs of electrons. These results in greater repulsion between lone
pairs of electrons as compared to the lone pair – bond pair and bond pair – bond pair repulsions.
(i) Percentage of s–character in sp2 hybrid orbital is
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 33 (d) 75
Ans: (c) 33
(ii) Shape of XeF4 molecule is
(a) Linear (b) Pyramidal (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar
Ans: (d) Square planar
(iii) Shape of methane molecule is
(a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral (c) Octahedral (d) Square planer
Ans: (b) Tetrahedral
(iv) Hybridisation involves
(a) Mixing up of atomic orbitals (b) Addition of an electron pair
(c) Removal of an electron pair (d) Separation of orbitals
Ansr: (a) Mixing up of atomic orbitals
4. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass. the molar mass in grams
is numerically equal to atomic molecular/formula mass in u. An empirical formula represents the
simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present in a compound, whereas, the molecular
formula shows the exact number of different types of atoms present in a molecule of a compound.
If the mass per cent of various elements present in a compound is known, its empirical formula
can be determined. Molecular formula can further be obtained if the molar mass is known. Many a
17
 time, reactions are carried out with the Amounts of reactants that are different than The amounts
as required by a balanced chemical reaction. In such situations, one Reactant is in more amount
than the amount required by balanced chemical reaction. The reactant which is present in the
least amount Many a time, reactions are carried out with the amounts of reactants that are
different than the amounts as required by a balanced chemical reaction. In such situations, one
reactant is in more amount than the amount required by balanced chemical reaction. The reactant
which is present in the least amount gets consumed after sometime and after that further reaction
13 does not take place whatever be the amount of the other reactant. Hence, the reactant, which
gets consumed first, limits the amount of product formed and is, therefore, called the limiting
reagent.
1) One atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as a mass exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one
…atom.
(a) Hydrogen – 1 (b) carbon – 12 (c) Oxygen -12 (d) Chlorine – 35
Ans: b) carbon – 12
2) The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its..
(a) Atomic mass (b) Molecular Weight (c) Molecular mass (d) molar mass.
Ans: d) molar mass
3) … is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule.
(a) Atomic mass (b) Molecular Weight (c) Molecular mass (d) molar mass.
Ans: c) Molecular mass
4) One mole contains exactly …elementary entities.
(a) 6.02214076 × 1021 (b) 6. 02214076 × 1022 (c) 6. 02214076 × 1023 (d) 6.02214076 × 1024
Ans: c) 6.02214076 × 1023
5. We can measure energy changes associated with chemical or physical processes by an
experimental technique called calorimetry. In calorimetry, the process is carried out in a vessel
called calorimeter, which is immersed in a known volume of a liquid. Knowing the heat capacity of
the liquid in which calorimeter is immersed and the heat capacity of calorimeter, it is possible to
determine the heat evolved in the process by measuring temperature changes. Measurements are
made under two different conditions i) at constant volume, qv ii) at constant pressure, qp
1. The quantity of of heat required to raise the temperature of one-unit mass of a substance by one
degree Celsius is called
a) Heat capacity b) Specific heat capacity
c) Molar heat capacity d) Heat content
Ans: b) Specific heat capacity
2. For adiabatic change
a) q=0, w ad =0 b) q=0, w ad =ΔU c) q=0, w ad =ΔH d) q=-w=ΔU
Ans : a)q=0 w ad =0 72
3. In bomb calorimeter which quantity is kept constant to calculate ΔU?
a) volume b) pressure c) temperature d) all of these
Ans: a) volume
4. What is the relation between heat capacity and temperature a)q=CΔT b) q=mcΔT c)q=C/n ΔT (d)
q=mc/ΔT
Ans: a) q=CΔT
6. Read the following passage given below and answer the following questions:
The concept of hybridization was introduced by Pauling to explain the geometrical shapes of
polyatomic molecules. According to him unlike pure orbitals hybrid orbitals are involved in bond
formation. Mixing of atomic orbitals belonging to the same atom having slightly different energies
to produce a set of hybrid orbitals having equivalent energies is called hybridization. The type of
hybridization depends on the number and nature of orbitals involved in hybridization. The following
questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i) The hybridization of carbon in ethene is:
(a) sp³ (b) sp2 (c) sp3d (d) sp

18
 (ii) sp3d hybridization of the central element corresponds to ……….. geometry.
(a) octahedral (b) tetrahedral
(c) triangular bipyramidal (d) linear
(iii) In SF4 the hybridization of S is
(a) sp³ (b) sp2 (c) sp3d (d) sp
(iv) Which of the following hybridization possess maximum %s-character?
(a) sp³ (b) sp2 (c) sp3d (d) sp
Ans: (i) b , (ii) c, (iii) c (iv) d
Long Answer Questions 5-Marks-
1. What is the difference between empirical and molecular formula? A compound contains 4.07%
hydrogen, 24.27 % carbon and 71.65 % chlorine. Its molar mass is 98.96 g. What are its empirical
and molecular formulas?
Ans: An empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ration of various atoms present in a
compound whereas the molecular formula shows the exact number of different types of atoms
present in a molecule of a compound

The empirical formula of the above compound is CH2Cl. empirical formula

mass is 12 + (1x2) + 35.5 = 49.5
n= molecular mass/ empirical formula mass =98.96/49.5 = 2
Hence molecular formula is C2H4Cl2
2. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to the following
chemical equation: N2(g) + H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(i) Calculate the mass of ammonia produced if 2.00 × 103 g dinitrogen reacts with 1.00 × 103 g of
dihydrogen.
(ii) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?
Ans:

3. A crystalline salt when heated becomes anhydrous and loses 51.2 % of its weight. The anhydrous
salt on analysis gave the following percentage composition
Mg = 20.0% , S = 26.6 % , O = 53.33 %
Calculate the molecular formula of the anhydrous salt and the crystalline salt. Molecular weight of
the anhydrous salt is 120.
Ans:

19
4. The electronic energy in hydrogen atom is given by En (-2.18 × 10-18 s) / n2J. Calculate the energy
required to remove an electron completely from the n = 2 orbit. What is the longest wavelength of
light in cm that can be used to cause this transition?
Ans:

5. The work function for cesium atom is 1.9 eV. Calculate (a) the threshold wavelength and (b) the
threshold frequency of the radiation. If the cesium element is irradiated with a wavelength 500 nm,
calculate the kinetic energy and the velocity of the ejected photoelectron.
Ans:

20
6. Which hybrid orbitals are used by carbon atoms in the following molecules?
(a) CH3-CH3 (b) CH3-CH = CH2
(c) CH3-CH2-OH (d) CH3-CHO
(e) CH3COOH.
Ans:

7. (a) Define standard molar enthalpy of formation.

(b) Calculate the enthalpy change for the process CCl4(g) → C(g) + 4 Cl(g) and calculate bond
enthalpy of C – Cl in CCl4(g).
∆vapH0(CCl4) = 30.5 kJ/ mol . ∆fH0(CCl4) = –135.5 kJ/ mol . ∆aH0(C) = 715.0 kJ /mol , where ∆aH 0
is enthalpy of atomisation ∆aH0(Cl2) = 242 kJ/ mol
Ans: (a) The standard enthalpy change for the formation of one mole of a compound from its elements
in their most stable states of aggregation (also known as reference states)is called Standard Molar
Enthalpy of Formation.

21
8. (a) Balance the equation MnO4 – + I-→ Mn2+ +I2 + H2O by ion electron method in acidic medium.
(b) Justify that the reaction: 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) → 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) is a redox reaction. Identify
the species oxidised/ reduced, oxidant and /reductant.
Ans: (a)

(b) Cu2O helps sulphur in Cu2S to increase its oxidation number, therefore, Cu(I) is an oxidant; and
sulphur of Cu2S helps copper both in Cu2S itself and Cu2O to decrease its oxidation number;
therefore, sulphur of Cu2S is reductant.
9. What is the cause of the periodicity in the properties of the elements? How do the following
properties vary in (a) a group and
(b) in a period (i) electronegativity (ii) ionisation enthalpy (iii) Atomic size
Ans: It is due to the similarity in the outer electronic configurations which gives rise to the periodic
properties of the elements.
(a) In a group: (i) Electronegativity- It decreases down the group. (ii) Ionisation enthalpy- It
decreases down the group. (iii) Atomic size- It increases down the group.
(b) In a period: (i) Electronegativity- Increases (ii) Ionisation enthalpy- Increases (iii) Atomic size-
Decreases.
10. a) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to carbon dioxide is – 393.5 J mol-1 .Calculate the heat
released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas.
b) Although heat is a path function but heat absorbed by the system under certain specific
conditions is independent of path. What are those conditions? Explain.
Ans: a)The combustion equation is:
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2(g); ΔcH = – 393.5 KJ mol-1
Heat released in the formation of 44g of CO2 = 393.5 kj
Heat released in the formation of 35.2 g of CO2=(393.5 KJ) x (35.2g)/(44g) = 314.8 kj
b) (i) At constant volume-
By first law of thermodynamics: q = ΔU + (–w)
(–w) = pΔV
∴ q = ΔU + pΔV

22
ΔV = 0, since volume is constant.
∴ qV = ΔU + 0 ⇒qV = ΔU = change in internal energy
(ii) At constant pressure
qp = ΔU + pΔV
But, ΔU + pΔV = ΔH
∴ qp = ΔH = change in enthalpy.
So, at a constant volume and at constant pressure heat change is a state function because it is
equal to change in internal energy and change in enthalpy respectively which are state functions.

******

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