1
8 - SCIENCE
CONGRATS BY
B.LIBIN.,M.Sc.,M.Phil.,B.Ed.,
ST.JAMES.HR.SEC.SCHOOL,
PALAKURICHY - 621308
9443805408
B.LIBIN DIXDAR 9443805408
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UNIT – 1 – MEASUREMENT
I) Choose the best answer:
1. Which one the following system of units is the British System of unit?
a) CGS b) MKS c) FPS d) SI
2. Electric current belongs to ______ quantities
a) base b) supplementary c) derived d) professional
3. SI unit of temperature is
a) celsius b) fahrenheit c) kelvin d) ampere
4. Luminous intensity is the intensity of
a) Laser light b) UV light c) visible light d) IR light
5. Closeness of two or more measured values is called as
a) accuracy b) precision c) error d) approximation
6. Which of the following statements about approximation is wrong?
a) Approximation gives accurate value.
b) Approximation simplifies the calculation.
c) Approximation is very useful when little information is available.
d) Approximation gives the nearest value only.
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The solid angle is measured in steradian.(Sr)
2. The coldness or hotness of a substance is expressed by temperature.
3. Ammeter is used to measure electric current.
4. One mole of substance, contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms or molecules.
5. The uncertainty in measurement is called as errors.
6. Accuracy is the closeness of the measured value to the original value.
7. The intersection of two straight lines gives us plane angle
III. True or False.
1. Temperature is a measure of total kinetic energy of the particles in a system. - False
Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy of the particles in a system.
2. One coulomb of charge flowing per minute is called ‘ampere’. - False
One coulomb of charge flowing per second is called ‘ampere’
3. Amount of substance gives the number of particles present in the substance. - True
4. Intensity of light from a candle is approximately equal to one ‘candela’. - True
5. Quartz clocks are used in GPS Devices. - False
Atomic clocks are used in GPS Devices.
6. Angle formed at the top of a cone is an example of ‘Plane Angle’ . - False
Angle formed at the top of a cone is an example of ‘Solld Angle’.
7. The number 4.582 can be rounded off as 4.58. - True
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IV. Match the following: Answer
1. Temperature Closeness to the Actual Value Measure of hotness or coldness
Angle formed by the intersection
2. Plane Angle Measure of hotness or coldness
of two planes
Closeness to two or more Angle formed by the intersection
3. Solid Angle
measurements of three or more planes
Angle formed by the intersection Closeness to the Actual Value
4. Accuracy
of three or more planes
Angle formed by the intersection Closeness to two or more
5. Precision
of two planes measurements
V. Assertion & Reason.
1. Direction : Mark the correct choice as
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but reason is false. d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
1. Assertion : The SI system of units is the suitable system for measurements.
Reason : The SI unit of temperature is kelvin.
Ans : a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
2. Assertion : Electric current, amount of substance, Luminous Intensity are the fundamental
physical quantities.
Reason : They are independent of each other.
Ans : a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
3. Assertion : Radian is the unit of solid angle.
Reason : One radian is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc of length equal
to its radius.
Ans : Assertion is false, but reason is true.
VI Answer in a word or two (Very Short Answer):
1. How many base quantities are included in SI system?
7 (Seven)
2. Give the name of the instrument used for the measurement of temperature.
Thermometer
3. What is the SI unit of Luminous Intensity?
Candela
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4. What type of oscillations are used in atomic clocks?
Atomic oscillation
5. Mention the types of clocks based on their display.
Analog clocks
Digital clocks
6. How many times will the ‘minute hand’ rotate in one hour?
one time
7. How many hours are there in a minute?
60 minute = 1hour 1 minute = 1/60 hour
VII Answer the questions given below (Short Answer):
1. What is measurement?
Finding an unknown physical quantity by using a standard quantity.
2. Name the three scales of temperature.
1. Celsius,
2. Fahrenheit
3. Kelvin
3. Define – ampere.
One coulomb of charge moving in a conductor in one second
4. What is electric current?
Flow of electric charges, in a particular direction.
I=Q/t
5. What is luminous Intensity?
The measure of the power of the emitted light, in a particular direction, per unit solid
angle.
6. Define – mole.
The amount of substances which contains 6.023×1023 entities.
7. What are the differences between Plane angle and solid angle?
Plane Angle Solid Angle
1. Angle between the intersection of two lines Angle between the intersection of three or
or planes more planes at a common point
2. Two dimensional Three dimensional
3. SI unit is radian SI unit is steradian
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VIII Answer in detail:
1. List out the base quantities with their units.
Quantity Unit Symbol
Length metre m
Mass kilogram kg
Time second s
Temperature kelvin K
Electric Current ampere A
Amount of Substance mole mol
Luminous Intensity candela cd
2. Write a short note on different types of clocks.
Types of clocks based on display: Types of clocks based on display:
Analog clocks Analog clocks
Digital clocks Digital clocks
Analog clocks: Three hands are there Quartz clock:
Hours hand: It is a short and it shows Activated by ‘electronic oscillations’
‘hour’. which are controlled by a ‘quartz
Minutes hand: It is long and it shows crystals’
‘minute’ The frequency is very precise.
Second’s hand: it is long and it shows Accuracy of one second in every 109
‘second’. seconds.
Digital clocks Atomic clocks:
displays the time directly. Periods vibrations occurring within
It shows the time in numerals or other the atom.
symbols. Accuracy of one second in every
It may have a number 12 hours or 24 1013 seconds.
hours display. Used in GP ,GIONASS and
international time distribution
services.
IX. Higher Order Thinking Question.
1. Your friend was absent to school yesterday. You are enquiring about his absence. He
told that he had fever and it was measured to be 100°C. Is it possible to have 100°C
fever? If he is wrong, try to make him understand.
No, it is not possible to have 100°C
Normal temperature of human body is 98.4°F.
Celsius degree is used only in weather reports.
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Problem 1 : If 2 coulomb of charge Problem 2 :
flows through a circuit for 10 seconds, Convert 60° into radian.
π
calculate the current. We know that, 1° =
180
Charge (Q) = 2 C; Time (t) = 10 s π π
Q 2 60° = x 60 = radian
I= = = 0.2 A 180 3
t 10
Problem 3 : Problem 4 :
Convert π/4 into degrees. Round off the number 1.864 to two decimal
We know that, π radian = 180° places.
π 180
radian = = 45° We need to round off the number to two decimal
4 4
places. So, the last digit to be kept is 6. Since the
next digit is less than 5, we can retain 6 as it is. So
the answer is 1.86.
Problem 5 : Round off the number 1.868 to two decimal places.
We need to round off the number to two decimal places. So, the last digit to be kept is 6. Since
the next digit is more than 5, we should increase the second digit by one. So, the answer is
1.87.
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UNIT – 2 FORCE AND PRESSURE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. If we apply force against the direction of motion of the body, then the body will
a) stop moving b) move with an increased speed
c) move with a decreased speed d) move in a different direction
2. Pressure exerted by a liquid is increased by
a) the density of the liquid b) the height of the liquid column
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
3. Unit of pressure is
a) Pascal b) Nm-2 c) Poise d) Both a and b
4. The value of the atmospheric pressure at sea level is
a) 76 cm of mercury column b) 760 cm of mercury column
c) 176 cm of mercury column d) 7.6 cm of mercury column
5. Pascal’s law is used in
a) hydraulic lift b) brake system c) pressing heavy bundles d) All the above
6. Which of the following liquids has more viscosity?
a) Grease b) Water c) Coconut oil d) Ghee
7. The unit of viscosity is
a) Nm2 b) poise c) kgms–1 d) No unit
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The pressure of a liquid column increases with the depth of the column.
2. Hydraulic lift works under the principle of Pascal’s law.
3. The property of Surface tension of a liquid surface enables the water droplets to move
upward in plants.
4. A simple barometer was first constructed by Torricelli.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. Force acting on a given area is called pressure. – True
2. A moving body comes to rest due to friction alone. - False
A moving body comes to rest due to Force and friction.
3. A body will sink if the weight of the body is greater than the buoyant force. - True
4. One atmosphere is equivalent to 1,00,000 newton force acting on one square metre. - True
5. Rolling friction is slightly greater than the sliding friction. – False
Rolling friction is slightly less than the sliding friction.
6. Friction is the only reason for the loss of energy. - True
7. Liquid pressure decreases with the decrease of depth. – True
8. Viscosity depends on the pressure of a liquid. – False
Viscosity depends on the frictional force of a liquid.
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IV. Match the following.
a. Answer
Static friction Viscosity Objects are at rest
Kinetic friction Least friction Objects are in motion
Rolling friction Objects are in motion Least friction
Friction between Objects are sliding Viscosity
the liquid layers
Sliding friction Objects are at rest Objects are sliding
b. Answer
Barometer reduce friction Atmospheric pressure
Increasing area of contact Atmospheric pressure increases friction
Decreasing area of contact cause of friction decreases friction
Lubricants increases friction reduce friction
Irregular surface decreases friction cause of friction
V. Complete the analogy.
1. Knot in a thread : Static friction
Ball bearing : Rolling friction
2. Downward force : Weight
Upward force offered by liquid : Buoyancy
VI. Numerical Problem.
1. A stone weighs 500 N. Calculate the pressure exerted by it, if it makes contact with a surface
of area 25 cm2.
Weight of the stone = 500N
Area of contact = 25 cm2 = 25 x 104 m2
Force 500 500 x 100
Pressure = = −4
= = 20 x 104 Nm-2 or Pascal
Area 25x 10 25
VII. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but reason is false. d. Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion: Sharp knives are used to cut the vegetables. Reason: Sharp edges exert more
pressure.
Ans: a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion: Broad straps are used in bags. Reason: Broad straps last for long.
Ans: b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion: Water strider slides easily on the surface of water. Reason: Water strider
experiences less buoyant force. Ans: c. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
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VIII. Answer very briefly.
1. Give two examples to verify that a force changes the shape of a body.
Sitting on the seat of a bicycle
Stretching of a rubber band
2. Give two examples to verify that a force tends to change the static condition of a body.
By pulling a door
Oscillation of a simple pendulum
3. How do you feel when you touch a nail immediately after it is hammered into a wooden
plank? Why?
I can feel heat.
Due to friction between hammer and a nail
4. How does the friction arise between the surfaces of two bodies in relative motion?
The force of friction is arised by the interlocking of the irregularities of the two
surfaces.
5. Name two instruments which help to measure the pressure of a fluid.
1. Manometer
2. Pressure gauge
6. Define one atmosphere.
The pressure exerted by the mercury column of height 76 cm in the barometer.
It is equal to 1.01 × 105 Nm–2.
7. Why are heavy bags provided with broad straps?
Giving less pressure on the shoulders
Providing a larger area of contact with the shoulder.
8. How does surface tension help a plant?
Water molecules rise up due to surface tension.
Xylem tissues are very narrow vessels present in plants.
Water molecules are absorbed by the roots and these vessels help the water to rise
upward due to 'capillarity action', which is caused by the surface tension of water.
9. Which has greater viscosity, oil or honey? Why?
Honey has greater viscosity
Viscosity is greater in honey than oil
IX. Answer briefly.
1. Define friction. Give two examples of the utility of friction in day to day life.
Friction:
Friction opposes motion.
It causes wear and tear of the surfaces in contact.
It produces heat.
Example: 1. we walk on roads without falling 2. Writing easily with a pen on paper
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2. Mention any three ways of minimising friction.
Using lubricants
Using ball bearing
By increasing the area of the surfaces in contact
3. State Pascal’s law and mention its applications.
Pascal’s law:
The pressure applied at any point of a liquid at rest, in a closed system, will be
distributed equally through all directions of the liquid.
Application of Pascal’s law:
Automobile brake system works
In automobile service stations, the vehicles are lifted upward using the hydraulic lift
3. Why is a ball bearing used in a cycle hub?
The Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction
So, Sliding is replaced by rolling with the use of ball bearing
X. Answer in detail.
1. Friction is a necessary evil - Explain.
Though friction makes our life easy, it has some negative effects also. So, it is called as
'necessary evil'.
Friction wears out the surfaces rubbing with each other
An excess amount of effort has to be given to overcome the friction while operating a
machine. This leads to wastage of energy.
Friction produces heat, which causes physical damage to the machines.
2. Give the different types of friction and explain each with an example.
Types of friction: 1. static friction 2. kinetic friction.
Static friction:
The friction experienced by the bodies, which are at rest is called static friction.
Eg. All the objects are rigidly placed to be at rest on the earth.
Kinetic friction
Friction existing during the motion of bodies is called kinetic friction.
Kinetic friction can be further classified into sliding friction and rolling friction.
Sliding friction:
When a body slides over the surface of another body, the friction acting between the
surfaces in contact is called sliding friction.
Ex: Rubbing both hands
Rolling friction:
When a body rolls over another surface, the friction acting between the surfaces in
contact is called rolling friction. Ex: Wheels in vehicles
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3. Describe an experiment to prove that friction depends on the nature of a surface.
Procedure :
Take a small quantity of different kinds of liquid like coconut oil, honey, water and
ghee etc., in a cup.
Place one drop of each liquid on a separate glass plate.
Next, gently raise one end of the glass plate, one by one, so as to allow the liquid to
slide down the smooth surface of the plate.
Observe the speed of each liquid.
Observation:
Each liquid moves with a different speed. Water flows faster than other liquids.
Coconut oil flows with a moderate speed. Ghee flows very slowly.
4. Explain how friction can be minimised.
A substance which reduces the frictional force is called a lubricant.
Eg. Grease, coconut oil, graphite, castor oil, etc.
The lubricants fill up the gaps in the irregular surfaces between the bodies in contact.
This provides a smooth layer thus preventing a direct contact between their rough
surfaces.
5. Describe an experiment to prove that the pressure in a liquid increases with depth.
Take a plastic bottle.
Punch three holes on its side in the same
direction, but at different heights.
Now pour some water into it and let it flow
through the holes. Observe the flow of water.
Water from the lowest hole comes out with the
greatest force and the water from the topmost
hole comes out with the least force.
XI. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Why is it not advisable to use a fountain pen while travelling in an aeroplane?
Fountain pens are built in such a way that the pressure inside them balances the
atmospheric pressure at sea level.
Since atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in height above sea level, the
pressure inside the pen turns out to be much greater than the air pressure in an aeroplane
and the pen starts leaking.
2. Is there any possibility of making a special device to measure the magnitude of friction
directly?
Yes. Tribometer is a special device to measure the magnitude of friction directly.
3. Vidhya feels that mercury is costly. So, instead of mercury she wants to use water as a
barometric liquid. Explain the difficulty of constructing a water barometer.
Mercury is commonly used in barometers because of its high density means the height of
the column can be a reasonable size to measure atmospheric pressure.
A barometer using water, for instance, would need to be 13.6 times taller than a mercury
barometer to obtain the same pressure difference.
This is because mercury is 13.6 times more dense than water.
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UNIT – 3 – LIGHT
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following has curved reflecting surface?
a) plane mirrors b) spherical mirrors c) simple mirrors d) None of the above
2. The spherical mirror with a reflecting surface curved inward is called
a) convex mirror b) concave mirror c) curved mirror d) None of the above
3. The spherical mirror used as a rear view mirror in the vehicle is
a) concave mirror b) convex mirror c) plane mirror d) None of the above
4. The imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is
called
a) centre of curvature b) pole c) principal axis d) radius curvature
5. The distance from the pole to the focus is called
a) pole length b) focal length c) principal axis d) None of the above
6. If the image and object distance is same, then the object is placed at
a) infinity b) at F c) between f and P d) at C
7. If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 10 cm, what is the value of its radius of curvature?
a) 10 cm b) 5 cm c) 20 cm d) 15 cm
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The spherical mirror used in a beauty parlour as make-up mirror is concave mirror.
2. Geometric centre of the spherical mirror is pole.
3. Nature of the images formed by a convex mirror is virtual and erect.
4. The mirror used by the ophthalmologist to examine the eye is concave mirror.
5. If the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection is 45°.
6. If an object is placed between two mirrors which are parallel to each other, the number of
images formed is infinite.
III. Match the following
Convex mirror Radio – telescopes Rear – view mirror
Parabolic mirror Rear – view mirror Radio – telescopes
Snell’s law c/v = µ Sin i / sin r = µ
Dispersion of light Sin i / sin r = µ Rainbow
Refractive index Rainbow c/v = µ
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IV. Answer briefly.
1. Define focal length.
The distance between the pole and the principal focus is called focal length
2. Give any two applications of a concave and convex mirror.
Applications of Concave mirror:
Concave mirrors are used while applying make-up or shaving,
They are used in torches, search lights and head lights as they direct the light to a long
distance.
They are used as head mirrors by doctors to examine the eye, ear, nose and throat
They are also used in reflecting telescopes.
Applications of Convex mirror:
Convex mirrors are used in vehicles as rear view mirrors
They are found in the hallways of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools
They are also used on roads where there are sharp curves and turns.
3. State the laws of reflection.
The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the
same plane.
The angle of incidence (i) and the angle of reflection (r) are always equal.
4. Define the refractive index of a medium.
The ratio of the speed of light in the air to the speed of light in that particular medium
is called refractive index of a medium.
Speed of light in air (c)
μ=
Speed of light in the medium (v)
5. State Snell’s law of refraction
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence (i) to the sine of the angle of refraction
(r) is equal to the refractive index of the medium, which is a constant.
sin i
sin r
=μ
V. Answer in detail.
1. Explain the images formed by a concave mirror.
Position of the Position of the Image Size Nature of the Image
Object Image
At Infinity At F Highly diminished Real and inverted
Beyond C Between C and F Diminished Real and inverted
At C At C Same as the Object Real and inverted
Between C and F Beyond C Magnified Real and inverted
At F At Infinity Highly magnified Real and inverted
Between F and P Behind the mirror Magnified Virtual and erect
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2. What is reflection? Write a short note on regular and irregular reflection.
Reflection : The bouncing back of the light rays as they fall on the smooth, shiny and
polished surface is called reflection.
Types of reflection: 1. Regular reflection 2. Irregular reflection
Regular reflection:
When a beam of light falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected.
After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other.
Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.
Example: Reflection of light by a plane mirror.
Irregular reflection:
When a beam of light falls on rough or irregular surface, is inclined at different angles.
The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.
Example: Reflection of light from a wall.
3. Explain the working of a periscope.
It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light.
It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end,
inclined at an angle of 45°.
Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and
gets reflected vertically downward.
This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel
horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher
resolution.
4. What is dispersion? Explain in detail.
Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours (wavelength), on passing through
a transparent medium is known as dispersion of light.
It is because, light of different colours present in white light have different wavelength and
they travel at different speeds in a medium.
Refraction of a light ray in a medium depends on its speed.
As each coloured light has a different speed, the constituent coloured lights are refracted
at different extents, inside the prism.
Moreover, refraction of a light ray is inversely proportional to its wavelength.
Thus, the red coloured light, which has a large wavelength, is deviated less while the violet
coloured light, which has a short wavelength.
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VI. Numerical problems.
1. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 25 cm. Find its focal length.
Given R = 25 cm
R
Focal Length F =
2
25
= = 12.5 cm
2
Focal Length F = 12.5 cm
2. If two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle of 45°, find the number of
images formed.
Angle of incidence = 45°
360°
Number of images formed = –1
Ɵ
360
= -1 = 8-1 = 7
45
Number of images formed = 7
3. Speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms–1 and the refractive index of a medium is 1.5. Find the
speed of light in the medium.
Speed of light in air C = 3 × 108 ms–1
Refractive Index µ = 1.5
Speed Of Light in Air (C)
Refractive Index µ =
Speed of light in the medium (v)
Speed Of Light in Air (C)
Speed of light in the medium (v) =
Refractive Index (µ )
3 × 108
Speed of light in the medium (v) = = 2 × 108 ms–1
1.5
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UNIT – 4 – HEAT
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Heat is a form of ________.
a) electrical energy b) gravitational energy c) thermal energy d) None of these
2. If you apply some heat energy to a substance, which of the following can take place in it?
a) Expansion b) Increase in temperature c) Change of state d) All the above.
3. Which of the following substances will absorb more heat energy?
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) All the above
4. If you apply equal amount of heat to a solid, liquid and gas individually, which of the
following will have more expansion?
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) All of them
5. The process of converting a liquid into a solid is called_________.
a) sublimation b) condensation c) freezing d) deposition
6. Conduction is the way of heat transfer which takes place in a____________.
a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) All of them
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat energy gain or lost
2. Specific heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of
1kg of a substance by 1°C.
3. A thermostat is a device which maintains constant temperature
4. The process of converting a substance from gaseous state to solid state is called deposition
5. If you apply heat energy, the temperature of a system will increase
6. If the temperature of a liquid in a container is decreased, then the interatomic distance will
decrease
III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement.
1. The applied heat energy can be realised as an increase in the average kinetic energy of the
molecules. - True
2. The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is decreased.
– False
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is increased.
3. The process of converting a substance from solid state to gaseous state is called condensation.
– False
The process of converting a substance from solid state to gaseous state is called sublimation.
4. Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in solids. – False
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in liquids and gases.
5. The amount of heat gained by a substance is equal to the product of its mass and latent heat.
– True
6. In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect and radiate the heat outside. – False
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect and radiate the heat inside.
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IV. Match the following. Answer
Conduction Liquid Solid
Convection Gas to liquid Liquid
Radiation Solid to gas Vaccum
Sublimation Vaccum Solid to gas
Condensation Solid Gas to liquid
V. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but the reason is false. d. Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Radiation is a form of heat transfer which takes place only in vacuum.
Reason: The thermal energy is transferred from one part of a substance to another part without
the actual movement of the atoms or molecules.
Ans: b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion: A system can be converted from one state to another state.
Reason: It takes place when the temperature of the system is constant.
Ans: a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
VI. Answer briefly.
1. What are the applications of conduction in our daily life?
When we iron dresses, heat is transferred from the iron to the cloth.
Handles of cooking utensils are made up of plastic or wood because they are poor conductors
of heat.
2. What are the effects of heat?
Expansion
Increase in temperature
Change in state
3. Name three types of heat transfer.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
4. What is conduction?
The process of heat transfer in solids from the region of higher temperature to the
region of lower temperature without the actual movement of atoms or molecules.
5. Write a note on convection.
The form of heat transfer from places of high temperature to places of low
temperature by the actual movement of molecules is called convection.
Convection takes place in liquids and gases.
6. Define specific heat capacity.
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to
raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C or 1 K.
It is denoted by the symbol C.
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7. Define one calorie.
One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water
through 1°C.
VII. Answer in detail.
1. With the help of a neat diagram, explain the working of a calorimeter.
A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat
gained or lost by a substance.
It consists of a vessel made up of metals like copper or aluminium
which are good conductors of heat and electricity.
The metallic vessel is kept in an insulating jacket to prevent heat
loss to the environment
Through one hole a thermometer is inserted to measure the
temperature of the contents.
A stirrer is inserted through another hole for stirring the content in
the vessel.
The vessel is filled with liquid which is heated by passing current
through the heating element.
Using this device we can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.
2. Write a note on thermostat.
A thermostat is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.
The word thermostat is derived from two Greek words, ‘thermo’ meaning heat and ‘static’
meaning staying the same.
Thermostats are used in any device or system that gets heated or cools down to a pre-set
temperature.
It turns an appliance or a circuit on or off when a particular temperature is reached.
Devices which use thermostat include building heater, central heater in a room, air
conditioner, water heater, as well as kitchen equipments including oven and refrigerators.
Sometimes, a thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal
system.
3. Explain the working of thermos flask.
Working of Thermos flask:
A thermos flask has double walls, which are evacuated.
It is silvered on the inside.
The vacuum between the two walls prevents heat being
transferred from the inside to the outside by conduction and
convection.
With very little air between the walls, there is almost no
transfer of heat from the inner wall to the outer wall or vice
versa.
Conduction can only occur at the points where the two walls
meet, at the top of the bottle and through an insulated
support at the bottom.
The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.
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VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Why does the bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter though the surface is all frozen?
Due to its contact with the cold atmosphere
It acts like a insulator and keeps the bottom of a lake to the worm
2. Which one of the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? Give reason.
a) Steel > Wood > Water b) Steel > Water > Wood
c) Water > Steel > Wood d) Water > Wood > Steel
Reason:
Steel is a good conductor than water and wood.
So Steel conducts more heat than water.
Wood is insulator
IX. Numerical Problems.
1. An iron ball requires 1000 J of heat to raise its temperature by 20°C. Calculate the heat
capacity of the ball.
Q = 1000J
ΔT = 20° - 0° = 20 K
𝑄 1000
Heat capacity C = = = 50 JK-1
ΔT 20
2. The heat capacity of the vessel of mass 100 kg is 8000 J/°K. Find its specific heat capacity.
m = 100 kg
Q = 8000J
𝑄 8000
C= = = 80 JK-1/°C
m x ΔT 100 x 1
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UNIT – 5 – ELECTRICITY
I. Choose the best answer.
1. When an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, the charge acquired by the fur is
a) negative b) positive c) partly positive and partly negative d) None of these
2. The electrification of two different bodies on rubbing is because of the transfer of
a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons d) protons and neutrons
3. Which of the following a simple circuit must have?
a) Energy source, Battery, Load b) Energy source, Wire, Load
c) Energy source, Wire, Switch d) Battery, Wire, Switch
4. An electroscope has been charged by induction with the help of charged glassrod. The charge
on the electroscope is
a) negative b) positive c) both positive and negative d) None of the above
5. Fuse is
a) a switch b) a wire with low resistance
c) a wire with high resistance d) a protective device for breaking an electric circuit
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Transfer of charge takes place by rubbing objects together.
2. The body which has lost electrons becomes Positive
3. Lightning arrester is a device that protects building from lightning strike.
4. Fuse has a thin metallic filament that melts and breaks the connection when the circuit is
overheated.
5. Three bulbs are connected end to end from the battery. This connection is called Series
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. The charge acquired by an ebonite rod rubbed with a piece of flannel is negative. – False
The charge acquired by an ebonite rod rubbed with a piece of flannel is positive.
2. A charged body induces an opposite charge on an uncharged body when they are brought near.
– True
3. Electroscope is a device used to charge a body by induction. – False
Electroscope is a device used to detect the charge a body by induction.
4. Water can conduct electricity. - True
5. In parallel circuit, current remains the same in all components. – False
In parallel circuit, voltage remains the same in all components.
IV. Match the following. Answer
Two similar charges acquires a positive charge repel each other
Two dissimilar prevents a circuit from attract each other
charges overheating
When glass rod is repel each other acquires a positive charge
rubbed with silk
When ebonite rod is attract each other acquires a negative charge
rubbed with fur
Fuse acquires a negative charge prevents a circuit from
overheating
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V. Give reason for the following.
1. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk cloth both get charged.
When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth the free electrons in the glass rod are
transferred to silk cloth.
Since the glass rod loses electrons, hence acquires positive charge.
The silk cloth has excess of electrons. So, it becomes negatively charged.
2. When a comb is rubbed with dry hair it attracts small bits of paper.
Comb rubbed with hair gains electrons from the hair and becomes negatively charged.
These electrons are accumulated on the surface of the comb.
Negative charges in the comb attract positive charges in the bits.
3. When you touch the metal disc of an electroscope with a charged glass rod the metal leaves
get diverged.
When the metal disc is touched with a charged glass rod, electrons are transferred to the
metal leaves.
So the metal leaves get diverged.
4. In an electroscope the connecting rod and the leaves are all metals.
In an electroscope the connecting rod and the leaves are all metals because metals only
conduct electric charges.
5. One should not use an umbrella while crossing an open field during thunderstorm.
Umbrella contains metal rods which are good conductor of electricity.
Lightning is electrically charged, so the lightning get attract to the metal rod.
So, it is not safe to use umbrella while crossing an open field during thunderstorm.
VI. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
1. Assertion: People struck by lightning receive a severe electrical shock.
Reason: Lightning carries very high voltage.
Ans : a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion: It is safer to stand under a tall tree during lightning.
Reason: It will make you the target for lightning.
Ans: d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
VII. Answer briefly.
1. How charges are produced by friction?
When two materials are rubbed together, some electrons may be transferred from one
material to the other.
2. What is earthing?
The process of transferring the discharge of electrical energy directly to the Earth with
the help of low resistance wire.
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3. What is electric circuit?
The path through which electrons flow from one terminal to another terminal of the
source, is called electric circuit.
4. What is electroplating?
The process of depositing a layer of one metal over the surface of another metal by
passing electric current in called electroplating.
5. Give some uses of electroplating.
We use iron in bridges and automobiles to provide strength.
A coating of zinc is deposited on iron to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.
Chromium has a shiny appearance. It does not corrode. It resists scratches
VIII. Answer in detail.
1. Explain three ways of charge transfer.
Transfer by Friction:
Comb rubbed with hair gains electrons from the hair and becomes negatively charged.
These electrons are accumulated on the surface of the comb.
Negative charges in the comb attract positive charges in the bits.
Transfer by Conduction:
When the ebonite rod is rubbed with woollen cloth, electrons from the woollen cloth
are transferred to the ebonite rod. Now ebonite rod will be negatively charged.
Charges can be transferred to an object by bringing it in contact with a charged body.
Transfer by Induction:
It is also possible to obtain charges in a body without any contact with other charged
body.
The process of charging an uncharged body by bringing a charged body near to it but
without touching it is called induction.
2. What is electroscope? Explain how it works.
An electroscope is a scientific instrument used to
detect the presence of electric charge on a body.
In the year 1600, British physician William Gilbert
invented the first electroscope.
There are two types of electroscope: pith-ball
electroscope and gold-leaf electroscope.
An electroscope is made out of conducting materials,
generally metal.
It works on the principle that like charges repel each other.
In a simple electroscope two metal sheets are hung in contact with each other.
They are connected to a metal rod that extends upwards, and ends in a knob at the end.
If you bring a charged object near the knob, electrons will either move out of it or into
it.
This will result in charges accumulating on the metal leaves inside the electroscope.
If a negatively charged object is brought near the top knob of the electroscope, it
causes free electrons in the electroscope to move down into the leaves, leaving the top
positive.
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Since both the leaves have negative charge, they repel each other and move apart. If a
positive object is brought near the top knob of the electroscope, the free electrons in the
electroscope start to move up towards the knob.
This means that the bottom has a net positive charge. The leaves will spread apart
again now.
3. Explain series and parallel circuit.
Series Circuit
In series circuit same current travels through every resistance
and the voltage will be different across each resistance.
Let us consider three bulbs connected in series.
Let I be the current through the circuit and V1, V2, V3 be the
voltage across each bulb.
The supply voltage V is the total of the individual voltage drops across the resistances
(bulbs). V = V1 + V 2 + V 3
Parallel Circuit:
Let us consider three bulbs connected in series.
Let V be the voltage across the bulbs and I1, I2, I3 be the current
across each bulb.
The current I from the battery is the total of the individual
current flowing through the resistances (bulbs).
I = I1 + I 2 + I 3
4. How lightning takes place?
Lightning is produced by discharge of electricity from cloud to cloud or from cloud to
ground.
During thunderstorm air is moving upward rapidly.
This air which moves rapidly, carries small ice crystals upward.
At the same time, small water drops move downward.
When they collide, ice crystals become positively charged and move upward and the
water drops become negatively charged and move downward.
So the upper part of the cloud is positively charged and the lower part of the cloud is
negatively charged.
When they come into contact, electrons in the water drops are attracted by the positive
charges in the ice crystals.
Thus, electricity is generated and lightning is seen.
5. What is electroplating? Explain how it is done.
Electroplating is one of the most common applications of
chemical effects of electric current.
The process of depositing a layer of one metal over the
surface of another metal by passing electric current in
called electroplating.
Take a glass jar and fill it with copper sulphate solution.
Take a copper metal plate and connect it to the positive
terminal of battery.
Connect an iron spoon to the negative terminal of the
battery.
Now, dip them in the copper sulphate solution. When electric current is passed through
the copper sulphate solution, you will find that a thin layer of copper metal is deposited
on the iron spoon and an equivalent a mount of copper is lost by the copper plate.
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UNIT – 6 – SOUND
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Sound waves travel very fast in
a) air b) metals c) vacuum d) liquids
2. Which of the following are the characteristics of vibrations?
i. Frequency ii. Time period iii. Pitch iv. Loudness
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) i and iv
3. The amplitude of the sound wave decides its
a) speed b) pitch c) loudness d) frequency
4. What kind of musical instrument is a sitar?
a) String instrument b) Percussion instrument
c) Wind instrument d) None of these
5. Find the odd one out. Reason: Violin is a stringed instrument. Other is wind or reed instruments.
a) Harmonium b) Flute c) Nadaswaram d) Violin
6. Noise is produced by
a) vibrations with high frequency. b) regular vibrations.
c) regular and periodic vibrations. d) irregular and non-periodic vibrations.
7. The range of audible frequency for the human ear is
a) 2 Hz to 2000 Hz b) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz c) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz d) 200 Hz to 20000 Hz
8. If the amplitude and frequency of a sound wave are increased, which of the following is true?
a) Loudness increases and pitch is higher. b) Loudness increases and pitch is unchanged.
c) Loudness increases and pitch is lower. d) Loudness decreases and pitch is lower.
10. Which of the following may be caused by noise?
a) Irratition b) Stress c) Nervousness d) All the above
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Sound is produced by vibration.
2. The vibrations of a simple pendulum are also known as oscillations.
3. Sound travels in the form of Mechanical waves.
4. High frequency sounds that cannot be heard by you are called Ultrasonic sound.
5. Pitch of a sound depends on the amplitude vibration.
6. If the thickness of a vibrating string is increased, its pitch low.
III. Match the following. Answer
Ultrasonic Frequency below 20Hz Frequency more than
20000Hz
Speed of sound in air Needs material medium 330ms-1
Infrasonics 330ms-1 Frequency below 20Hz
Sound propagation Frequency more than 20000Hz Needs material medium
IV. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false. D. Assertion is false but reason is true.
E. Both Assertion and reason are false.
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1. Assertion: When lightning strikes, the sound is heard a little after the flash is seen.
Reason: The velocity of light is greater than that of the sound.
Ans: A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion: Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason: There is no atmosphere on moon.
Ans: A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
V. Answer briefly.
1. What is vibration?
Vibration means a kind of rapid to and fro motion of a particle.
This to and fro motion of the particle causes the substances around it to vibrate.
2. Give an example to show that light travels faster than sound?
Lightning before thunder
Light coming from the lighthouse before hear the foghorn.
3. To increase loudness of sound by four times, how much should the amplitude of
vibration be changed?
The loudness of a sound depends on its amplitude.
Higher the amplitude louder will be the sound and vice-versa.
Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
If the loudness increases by a factor of 4, the amplitude becomes twice
4. What is an ultrasonic sound?
A sound with a frequency greater than 20000 Hz is called as ultrasonic sound.
5. Give two differences between music and noise.
Music Noise
Is the Art Unwanted Sound
Pleasing to the ears Unpleasant sound
Ex: Guitar, piano Ex: Crackers, vehicles
6. What are the hazards of noise pollution?
Cause irritation, stress, nervousness and headache.
Change the sleeping pattern of a person.
Sustained exposure to noise may affect hearing ability. Sometimes, it leads to loss of
hearing.
Sudden exposure to louder noise may cause heart attack and unconsciousness.
7. Mention few measures to be taken to reduce the effect of noise pollution.
To plant trees
Use absorbing materials (curtains and cushions).
People working in noisy factories should wear ear plugs.
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8. Define the following terms. a. Amplitude b. Loudness
a. Amplitude:
Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a vibrating particle from its mean position.
Its unit is metre (m)
b. Loudness:
The characteristic of a sound that enables us to distinguish a weak or feeble sound from
a loud sound.
Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
Its unit is decibel (dB)
9. How does planting trees help in reducing noise pollution?
Plants have the power of absorbing sound and not letting it escape.
Also by reflecting the sound among the trees it lessens the speed of the sound so the
impact is generally low.
VI. Answer in detail.
1. Describe an experiment to show that sound cannot travel through vaccum.
Take a bell jar and a mobile phone.
Switch on the music in the mobile phone and place it in the
jar.
Now, pump out the air from the bell jar using a vacuum
pump.
As more and more air is removed from the jar, the sound
from the mobile phone becomes feebler and finally, very
faint.
2. What are the properties of sound?
Loudness
It is defined as the characteristic of a sound that enables us to distinguish a weak or
feeble sound from a loud sound.
The loudness of a sound depends on its amplitude. Higher the amplitude louder will be
the sound and vice-versa.
When a drum is softly beaten, a weak sound is produced. However, when it is beaten
strongly, a loud sound is produced
Pitch
The pitch is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish between a flat
sound and a shrill sound.
Higher the frequency of sound, higher will be the pitch.
High pitch adds shrillness to a sound.
The sound produced by a whistle, a bell, a flute and a violin are high pitch sounds.
Quality or Timbre
The quality or timbre is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish
between two sounds that have the same pitch and amplitude.
For example in an orchestra, the sounds produced by some musical instruments may
have the same pitch and loudness.
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3. What steps should be taken to reduce the effect of noise pollution?
Strict guidelines should be set for the use of loudspeakers.
All automobiles should have effective silencers.
People should be encouraged to refrain from excessive honking while driving.
Industrial machines and home appliances should be properly maintained.
All communication systems must be operated in low volumes.
Residential areas should be free from heavy vehicles.
People working in noisy factories should wear ear plugs.
People should be encouraged to plant trees.
Use absorbing materials like curtains and cushions in their home.
4. Describe the structure and function of the human ear?
The structure of the human ear
We are able to hear sound through our ears.
Human ear picks up and interprets high frequency
vibrations of air.
Ears of aquatic animals are designed to pick up high
frequency vibrations in water.
The outer and visible part of the human ear is called
pinna
It is specially designed to gather sound from the
environment, which then reaches the ear drum through the ear canal.
Function of the human ear
When the sound wave strikes the drum, the ossicles move inward and outward to create
the vibrations.
These vibrations are then picked up by special types of cells in the inner ear.
From the inner ear the vibrations are sent to the brain in the form of signals.
The brain perceives these signals as sounds.
VII. Problems.
1. Ruthvik and Ruha hear a gunshot 2 Worked Problem 1 :A sound has a
second after it is fired. How far away frequency of 50 Hz and a wavelength of 10
from the gun they are standing? (Speed m. What is the speed of the sound?
of sound in air is equal to 330ms-1) Given, n = 50 Hz, λ = 10m
Speed =
distance v = nλ
time v = 50 × 10
distance
330 = v = 500 ms-1
2
Distance = 330 x 2 = 660 m
2. A sound wave travels 2000 m in 8 s. Worked Problem 2 : A sound has a
What is the velocity of the sound? frequency of 5 Hz and a speed of 25 ms-1.
d = 2000m : t = 8s What is the wavelength of the sound?
d Given, n = 5 Hz, v = 25 ms-1
V=
t
2000 v = nλ
V= = 250m/s V = 250m/s λ = v/n = 25/5 = 5 m
8
3. A wave with a frequency of 500 Hz is traveling at a speed of 200 ms-1. What is the
wavelength?
𝑣 200 2
n = 500Hz v = 200m/s v = nλ λ = = = = 0.4mλ = 0.4m
𝑛 500 5
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UNIT – 7 – MAGNETISM
I. Choose the best answer.
1. A magnet attracts __________.
a) wooden materials b) any metal c) copper d) iron and steel
2. One of the following is an example for a permanent magnet.
a) Electromagnet b) Mumetal c) Soft iron d) Neodymium
3. The south pole of a bar magnet and the north pole of a U-shaped magnet will __________.
a) attract each other b) repel each other
c) neither attract nor repel each other d) None of the above
4. The shape of the Earth’s magnetic field resembles that of an imaginary __________.
a) U-shaped magnet b) straight conductor carrying current
c) solenoid coil d) bar magnet
5. MRI stands for __________.
a) Magnetic Resonance Imaging b) Magnetic Running Image
c) Magnetic Radio Imaging d) Magnetic Radar Imaging
6. A compass is used for __________
a) plotting magnetic lines b) detection of magnetic field c) navigation d) All of these
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The magnetic strength is more at the poles.
2. A magnet has two magnetic poles.
3. Magnets are used in dynamos for generating electricity.
4. Electromagnets are used to lift heavy iron pieces.
5. A freely suspended bar magnet is always pointing along the geographic north-south
direction.
III. Match the following. Answer
Magnetite Magnetic lines Natural magnet
A tiny pivoted magnet Natural magnet Compass box
Cobalt Compass box Ferromagnetic material
Closed curves Ferromagnetic material Magnetic lines
Bismuth Diamagnetic material Diamagnetic material
IV. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
1. Assertion: Iron filings are concentrated more at the magnetic poles.
Reason: The magnets are so sharp.
Ans: c. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
2. Assertion: The Earth’s magnetic field is due to iron present in its core.
Reason: At a high temperature a magnet loses its magnetic property or magnetism.
Ans: b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but reason is false. d. Assertion is false, but reason is true.
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V. Answer briefly.
1. Define magnetic field.
Magnetic field is defined as the space around a magnet in which its magnetic effect or
influence is observed.
It is measured by the unit tesla or gauss (1 tesla =10,000 gauss)
2. What is artificial magnet? Give examples.
Magnets that are made by people in the laboratory or factory are called artificial
magnets.
These are also known as man-made magnets.
Bar magnets, U-shaped magnets, horseshoe magnets, cylindrical magnets, disc
magnets, ring magnets and electromagnets are some examples of artificial magnets.
3. Distinguish between natural and artificial magnets?
Natural Magnets Artificial Magnets
These are found in nature. These are man-made magnets.
They have irregular shapes and They can be made in different shapes and
dimensions. dimensions.
The strength is well determined and Can be made with required and specific
difficult to change. strength.
These are long lasting magnets. Their properties are time bound.
They have a less usage. They have a vast usage in day to day life.
4. Earth acts as a huge bar magnet. Why? Give reasons.
The Earth behaves like a magnet.
It is an Electromagnet.
Deep in the Earth, molten metal flows due to heat which causes convection.
5. How can you identify non-magnetic materials? Give an example of a non magnetic
material.
Which are not attracted by magnets are called non – magnetic materials.
Example: Plastic, glass, wood.
VI. Answer in detail.
1. List out the uses of magnets.
Nowadays, magnets are used to generate electricity in dynamos.
Electromagnets are used in electric bells and electric motors.
They are used in loudspeakers and microphones.
An extremely powerful electromagnet is used in the fast moving train.
In industries, magnetic conveyor belts are used to sort out magnetic substances from
scraps mixed with non-magnetic substances.
Magnets are used in computer in its storing devices such as hard disks.
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2. How will you convert a ‘nail’ into a temporary magnet?
Spread some steel pins on a wooden board and bring an iron nail near them.
Now, make one of the magnetic poles of the bar magnet
touch one end of the iron nail.
Slide it along its length in one direction slowly till the
other end is reached.
Repeat the process 20 to 30 times as shown in the
diagram.
The magnet has to be moved in one direction only.
Avoid the swiping of the magnet back and forth.
Now, bring the iron nail near the steel pins.
The steel pins stick to the iron nail because nail has become a temporary magnet.
3. Write a note on Earth’s magnetism.
The south pole of the imaginary magnet inside the Earth is located near the geographic
north pole
The north pole of the earth’s magnet is located near the geographic south pole.
The line joining these magnetic poles is called the magnetic axis.
The magnetic axis intersects the geographic North Pole at a point called the north
geomagnetic pole
It intersects the geographic south pole at a point called the south geomagnetic pole
The most powerful magnet in the universe is actually a neutron star called magnetar
located in the Milky Way Galaxy.
The diameter of the magnetar is 20 kilometer and its mass is 2 to 3 times that of the
Sun.
However, some important factors, which may be the cause of the Earth’s magnetism,
are as follows. 1. Masses of magnetic substances in the Earth 2. Radiations from the
Sun 3.Action of the Moon
However, it is believed that the Earth’s magnetic field is due to the molten charged
metallic fluid inside the Earth’s surface with a core of radius of about 3500 km
compared to the Earth’s radius of 6400 km.
VII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Though Earth is acting as a huge bar magnet it is not attracting other ferromagnetic
materials. Why? Give reasons.
The value of Earth magnetic field is 2 x 10-5 T
It is less one.
So that Earth cannot attact any objects.
2. Why it is not advisable to slide a magnet on an iron bar back and forth during
magnetising it?
Only Rubbing process is enough.
3. Thamizh Dharaga and Sangamithirai were playing with a bar magnet. They put the
magnet down and it broke into four pieces. How many poles will be there?
Eight poles.
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UNIT – 8 – UNIVERSE AND SPACE SCIENCE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following is a celestial body?
a) Sun b) Moon c) Stars d) All the above
2. Mangalyaan was sent to ________
a) Moon b) Mars c) Venus d) Mercury
3. Chandrayaan - 1 was launched on
a) 22nd October 2008 b) 8th November 2008
c) 22nd July 2019 d) 22nd October 2019
4. ________ is called as Red planet.
a) Mercury b) Venus c) Earth d) Mars
5. Which of the following is the working principle of Rockets?
a) Newton’s first law b) Newton’s second law
c) Newton’s third law d) All the above
6. Cryogenic fuels are stored at
a) room temperature b) low temperature c) very low temperature d) very high temperature
7. ________ was the first manned mission of NASA to go to the moon.
a) Apollo-5 b) Apollo-8 c) Apollo-10 d) Apollo-11
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The study about stars and planets are known as Astronomy.
2. Our sun belongs to milky way Galaxy.
3. Mars revolves around the Sun once in 687 days.
4. Mars orbiter mission is India’s first interplanetary mission.
5. Neil armstrong was the first man to walk on the surface of the Moon.
III. Say true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. The Sun and the celestial bodies form Solar system. – True
2. Chandrayaan-1 was launched from Sriharikota. - True
3. Mars is the smallest planet in the Solar system. - False
Mars is the second smallest planet in the Solar system.
4. PSLV and GSLV are India’s popular satellites. - True
5. The propellant of a rocket is only in the form of solids. - False
The propellant of a rocket is only in the form of solids or liquid
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IV. Match the following. Answer
Chandrayaan Fuel Moon
Mangalyaan Moon Mars
Cryogenic First manned mission to the moon Fuel
Apollo - 8 First man landing mission to the moon First manned mission to the moon
Apollo - 11 Mars First man landing mission to the
moon
V. Answer briefly.
1. What are celestial objects?
The stars, the planets, the Moon and many other objects like asteroids and comets in the
sky are called celestial objects.
2. Define galaxy.
A collection of billions of stars, held together by mutual attraction, is called ‘Galaxy’.
3. What are the objectives of Chandrayaan -1?
To find the possibility of water on the Moon.
To find the elements of matter on the Moon.
To search for the existence of Helium-3.
To make a 3-dimensional atlas of the Moon.
To study about the evolution of the solar system.
4. List out the objectives of Mangalyaan.
To develop the technology required for interplanetary mission.
To explore the surface of Mars.
To study the constituents of the atmosphere of Mars.
To provide information about the future possibility of life and past existence of life on the
planet.
5. What are Cryogenic Fuels?
In this type of fuel, the fuel or oxidizer or both are liquefied gases and they are stored at a
very low temperature.
These fuels do not need any ignition system.
They react on mixing and start their own flame.
6. Name the Indians worked at NASA.
Kalpana Chawla
Sunitha Williams
VI. Answer in detail.
1. What are the achievements of Chandrayaan - 1?
Achievements of Chandrayaan-1:
The discovery of presence of water molecules in the lunar soil.
Chandrayaan-1 confirmed that the Moon was completely molten once.
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Chandrayaan-1 has recorded images of the landing site of the US space-craft Apollo-15
and Apollo-11.
It has provided high-resolution spectral data on the mineralogy of the Moon.
The existence of aluminium, magnesium and silicon were picked up by the X-ray camera.
More than 40,000 images have been transmitted by the Chandrayaan-1 camera in 75 days.
The acquired images of peaks and craters show that the Moon mostly consists of craters.
Chandrayaan-1 beamed back its first images of the Earth in its entirety.
Chandrayaan-1 has discovered large caves on the lunar surface that can act as human
shelter on the Moon.
2. Explain the parts of a rocket.
Structural system (Frame)
The structural system is the frame that covers the rocket.
It is made up of very strong but light weight materials like titanium or aluminum.
Fins are attached to some rockets at the bottom of the frame to provide stability during the
flight.
Payload system
Payload is the object that the satellite is carrying into the orbit.
Payload depends on the rocket’s mission.
The rockets are modified to launch satellites with a wide range of missions like
communications, weather monitoring, spying, planetary exploration, and as observatories.
Special rockets are also developed to launch people into the Earth’s orbit and onto the
surface of the Moon.
Guidance system
Guidance system guides the rocket in its path.
It may include sensors, on-board computers, radars, and communication equipments.
Propulsion system
It takes up most of the space in a rocket.
It consists of fuel (propellant) tanks, pumps and a combustion chamber.
There are two main types of propulsion systems. They are: liquid propulsion system and
solid propulsion system.
3. Write a note on Apollo missions.
Apollo Missions are the most popular missions of NASA.
These missions made American Astronauts to land on the Moon.
It consists of totally 17 missions.
Among them Apollo -8 and Apollo-11 are more remarkable.
Apollo-8 was the first manned mission to go to the Moon.
It orbited around the Moon and came back to the Earth.
Apollo-11 was the first ‘Man Landing Mission’ to the moon.
It landed on the Moon on 20th July 1969.
Neil Armstrong was the first man to walk on the surface of the Moon.
VII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. We always see one side of the Moon. Why?
Only one side of the moon is visible from the Earth because the moon orbits the Earth a
situation known as synchronous locking
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UNIT – 9 – MATTER AROUND US
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The liquid metal used in thermometers is
a) copper b) mercury c) silver d) gold
2. The pictorial symbol for water given by the alchemists was
Ans:
3. Which one of the following element name is not derived from planet?
a) Plutonium b) Neptunium c) Uranium d) Mercury
4. Symbol of mercury is
a) Ag b) Hg c) Au d) Pb
5. A form of non-metal which has high ductility is
a) nitrogen b) oxygen c) chlorine d) carbon
6. The property which allows the metals to be hammered into their sheets is ___________
a) ductility b) malleability c) conductivity d) shining strength
7. The non-metal which conducts electric current is
a) carbon b) oxygen c) aluminium d) sulphur
8. Pencil lead contains
a) graphite b) diamond c) aluminium d) sulphur
9. Identify the state of matter based on the arrangement of the molecules.
a) A - Gas, B - Solid, C - Liquid b) A - Liquid, B - Solid, C - Gas
c) A - Gas, B - S olid, C - Liquid d) A - Liquid, B - Gas, C – Solid
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The element which possesses the character of both metals and non metals are called metalloids.
2. The symbol of tungsten is W
3. Melting point of most metal is higher than non-metal.
4. Water contains hydrogen and oxygen element.
5. Silicon is used as semiconductor.
III. Match the following.
a. Answer
Iron For making wires Sewing needle
Copper Sewing needle For making wires
Tungsten As a fuel for ignition in rocket Making the filament of a bulb
Boron Making the filament of a bulb As a fuel for ignition in rocket
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b. Answer
Atom Building block of matter Building block of matter
Element Atoms of different kinds Atoms of different kinds
Compound More than one atom More than one atom
Molecule Smallest unit of a substance Smallest unit of a substance
IV. Answer very briefly.
1. What is ductility?
Metals can be drawn into thin wires. This property of metals is called ductility.
Example: Copper wires.
2. Write the constituent elements and their symbols for the following compounds.
a) Carbon monoxide b) Washing soda
Compound Constituent elements Symbol
a) Carbon monoxide Carbon and Oxygen CO
b) Washing soda Sodium, Carbon and Oxygen Na2CO3
3. Write the symbols for the following elements.
a) Oxygen b) Gold c) Calcium d) Cadmium e) Iron
Element Symbol
a) Oxygen O
b) Gold Au
c) Calcium Ca
d) Cadmium Cd
e) Iron Fe
4. Which non-metal is essential for our life and all living beings?
Oxygen
5. Why are bells made of metals?
On being hit, metals produce a typical sound. Hence, they are said to be sonorous.
Therefore bells are made of metals.
6. What does a chemical symbol represent?
The name of the element
7. Give two examples for metalloids.
Silicon
Boron
8. Mention any three compounds that exist in liquid state.
a. Water
b. Sulphuric acid
c. Vineger
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9. Write three properties of metalloids.
Metalloids are solids at room temperature.
They can form alloys with other metals.
Some metalloids are called semiconductors.
It is a much poorer conductor of heat and electricity than the metals.
The physical properties of metalloids tend to be metallic,
The chemical properties tend to be non-metallic.
V. Answer briefly.
1. Can you store pickle in an aluminium utensil? Give reason.
Pickle cannot be stored in aluminium utensil.
Pickle contains acid.
Acid react with aluminium liberated hydrogen gas
This will spoil the pickle.
2. Tabulate the differences between metals and non-metals.
Metal Non - metal
Solid under normal temperature Solid , liquid and gases at normal
temperature
Most metals are hard Not hard except diamond
High density Low density
High Melting point Low melting point
High boiling point Low boiling point
Good conductor of heat and electricity Poor conductor of heat and electricity
Produce Sound Does not produce sound
3. Why are utensils made up of aluminium and brass?
Good conductors of heat
4. Define Alchemy.
The process of changing less valuable metal into gold is called alchemy
5. Name the elements with the following symbols.
a) Na - Sodium b) W - Tungsten
c) Ba - Barium d) Al - Aluminium e) U - Uranium
6. Name six common non-metals and write their symbols.
Common non-metals Symbol
Hydrogen H
Oxygen O
Carbon C
Chlorine Cl
Sulphur S
Nitrogen N
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7. Mention any four compounds and their uses.
Comounds Uses
Water Drinking
Sugar Prepare sweets and fruit juices
Baking soda (Sodium bicarbonate) Fire extinguisher, preparation of cakes and
bread
Bleaching powder ( Calcium oxy chloride) Bleaching agent, sterilisation of drinking water
Quick lime (Calcium oxide) Manufacture of cement and glass
8. Name the metals that are used in jewellery.
Gold (Au)
Silver ( Ag)
Platinum ( Pt)
Copper (Cu)
9. Mention the uses of the following compounds.
a) Baking soda b) Bleaching powder c) Quick lime
Comounds Uses
Baking soda (Sodium bicarbonate) Fire extinguisher, preparation of cakes and
bread
Bleaching powder ( Calcium oxy chloride) Bleaching agent, sterilisation of drinking water
Quick lime (Calcium oxide) Manufacture of cement and glass
VI. Given reason.
1. Give reasons for the following.
(a) Aluminum foils are used to wrap food items.
It does not react with food items
(b) Immersion rods for heating liquids are made up of metallic substances.
Metals are good conductor of heat
(c) Sodium and potassium are stored in kerosene.
They react with air
(d) Mercury is used in thermometers.
High density and uniform expansion at different temperature
2. Why wires cannot be drawn from materials such as stone or wood?
Stone or wood does not possess the property ductility
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UNIT – 10 – CHANGES AROUND US
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Burning of paper is a __________ change.
a) physical b) chemical c) physical and chemical d) neutral
2. Burning of matchstick is an example for chemical reaction caused by __________
a) contact in physical states b) electricity c) light d) catalyst
3. __________ undergoes rusting.
a) Tin b) Sodium c) Copper d) Iron
4. The pigment responsible for browning of apples is __________.
a) hydrated iron (II) oxide b) melanin c) starch d) ozone
5. Brine is a concentrated solution of __________.
a) sodium sulphate b) sodium chloride c) calcium chloride d) sodium bromide
6. Limestone contains __________ mainly.
a) calcium chloride b) calcium carbonate c) calcium nitrate d) calcium sulphate
7. Which of the following factor induces electrtolysis?
a) Heat b) Light c) Electricity d) Catalysis
8. In Haber’s process of producing ammonia __________ is used as a catalyst.
a) nitrogen b) hydrogen c) iron d) nickel
9. Dissolved gases like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in rain water causes __________
a) acid rain b) base rain c) heavy rain d) neutral rain
10. __________ is/are responsible for global warming.
a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Photosynthesis is a chemical reaction that takes place in the presence of light.
2. Iron objects undergo rusting when exposed to water and oxygen.
3. Ammonia is the basic material to manufacture urea.
4. Electrolysis of brine solution gives Chlorine and hydrogen gases.
5. Catalyst is a chemical substance which alters the speed of a chemical reaction.
6. Polyphenol oxidase is the enzyme responsible for browning of vegetables and fruits.
III. Say true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. A chemical reaction is a temporary reaction. - False
A chemical reaction is a permanent reaction.
2. Decomposition of lead nitrate is an example for a chemical reaction caused by light. - False
Decomposition of lead nitrate is an example for a chemical reaction caused by heat.
3. Formation of slaked lime from quicklime is an endothermic reaction. – False
Formation of slaked lime from quicklime is an exothermic reaction.
4. CFC is a pollutant. - True
5. Light energy may come out due to chemical reactions. - True
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IV. Match the following. Answer
a. Rusting Photosynthesis Iron
Electrolysis Haber’s process Brine
Thermolysis Iron Decomposition of limestone
Food Brine Photosynthesis
Catalysis Decomposition of limestone Haber’s process
Answer
b. Spoilage Decomposition Food
Ozone Biocatalyst Oxygen
Tarnishing Oxygen Chemical reaction
Yeast Chemical reaction Biocatalyst
Calcium oxide Food Decomposition
V. Answer briefly.
1. Define a chemical reaction.
A chemical change is a permanent and irreversible change which produces a new substance.
2. Mention the various conditions required for a chemical reaction to occur.
a. Contact in physical states b. Solution of reactants
c. Electricity d. Heat
e. Light f. Catalyst
3. Define catalysis.
Chemical substances are used to speed up chemical reactions is called catalysis
4. What happens when an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution?
Blue colour of copper sulphate slowly changes into green.
5. What is pollution?
Unwanted changes in physical, chemical and biological properties of the environment is
called pollution.
6. What is tarnishing? Give an example.
The loss of shinning appearance of metals on exposure to atmospheric air is called
tarnishing.
Ex: Silver articles becomes block
7. What happens to the brine during electrolysis?
It gives hydrogen, chlorine gasses and sodium hydroxide
8. On heating, calcium carbonate gives calcium oxide and oxygen. Is it an exothermic reaction
or an endothermic reaction?
It is an endothermic reaction.
9. What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
Speed of the chemical reaction.
10. Why photosynthesis is a chemical reaction?
Reactants react in presence of catalyst to give new substances. So it is chemical reaction.
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VI. Answer in detail.
1. Explain the environmental effects of chemical reactions?
a. Pollution
Our environment provides air to breathe, water to drink and the land to produce food.
Due to industrial processes and increasing number of automobiles, our environment is
badly affected now-a-days.
So, there is an unwanted change in the physical, chemical and biological properties of the
environment.
This is termed as pollution. The substances which cause these changes are called
pollutants.
Generally there are three types of pollutions air, water and land pollution.
b. Rusting
The steel benches and tables during rainy season turn into reddish brown.
This is because when the iron metal come into contact with water and oxygen, it undergoes
a chemical reaction called rusting.
c. Tarnishing of metal articles
Shiny metal surfaces and other articles lose their shining appearance due to chemical
reactions on the surface.
For example, silver articles become black when exposed to atmospheric air.
Similarly, brass vessels which contain copper as one of the constituents develop a greenish
layer when exposed to air for a long time.
This is due to a chemical reaction between copper and moist air to form basic copper
carbonate and copper hydroxide.
2. Explain how food items are spoiled by chemical reactions?
Spoilage of food and vegetables
Food spoilage may be defined as any change that causes food unfit for human consumption.
The chemical reactions catalysed by the enzymes result in the degradation of food quality
in the form of development of bad tastes and odour, deterioration and loss of nutrients.
Examples
Rotten eggs develop a bad smell due to formation of hydrogen sulphide gas.
Decaying of vegetables and fruits due to microbes.
3. Explain any three conditions that is required for a chemical reaction to take place. Give
example.
Electricity
Electricity is essential for our living.
We use electricity for cooking, lighting, grinding, watching television etc.
Many chemical reactions which take place with the help of electricity are industrially very
important.
Similarly, a concentrated solution of sodium chloride called brine is electrolysed to produce
chlorine and hydrogen gases along with sodium hydroxide.
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Heat
Food is important for our survival and also for the survival of many other living beings.
boils rice, cooks vegetables, and prepares gravy by heating them over stove.
When enough heat is given some chemical reactions take place to convert the raw food
(uncooked) items into cooked ones.
Catalyst
Chemical substances are used to speed up chemical reactions. These substances are called
catalysts.
For example, metallic iron is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia using
Haber’s process.
This ammonia is the basic material for the production of urea, an important fertilizer in
agriculture.
VII. Higher order thinking questions.
1. Explain the role of yeast in making cakes and buns in a bakery?
Yeast converts larger starch molecule into smaller molecules.
2. Burning of fossil fuels is responsible for global warming. Justify the statement.
Burning of fossil fuels produce carbon di oxide.
Carbon di oxide is responsible for global warming.
3. Discuss how acid rain occurs due to emission of smoke from vehicles and industries?
Vehicles and industries use fossil fuels.
4. Is rusting good for iron materials? Explain.
No, Rust is hydrated iron oxide.
Rust is soft and weak.
5. Do all the fruits and vegetables undergo browning? Explain.
No, All fruits and vegetables do not undergo browning.
Only apple and some fruits undergo browning.
6. Classify the following day to day activities based on chemical reactions by physical contact,
solutions of reactants, heat, light, electricity and catalyst.
a ) Burning of crackers during festivals - Heat
b) Fading of coloured clothes on drying under sunlight. – Heat and light
c) Cooking of eggs. - Heat
d) Charging of batteries. - Electricity
VIII. Value Based Questions.
1. Kumar is going to build a house. To purchase the iron rods required for construction, he visited
an iron and steel shop nearby. The seller showed him some iron rods which are fresh and good.
He also showed him little older iron rods which are brownish in appearance. The price of fresh
rods is more than the older ones. The seller also gave some offer to older ones. Kumar’s friend
Ramesh advised him not to buy the cheaper rods.
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a) Is Ramesh right in his suggestion? Yes
b) Could you explain the reason for his suggestion?
Older iron rod which is brownish because of rusting
c) What are the values shown by Ramesh?
Ramesh knows about rusting
2. Palanikumar is a Lawyer. He lives in a luxurious flat. Due to high rent, he wants to shift his
residence to a place where he has a chemical industry nearby. There the rent is very cheap and the
area is less populated also. His son Rajasekar, studying VIII, does not like this and likes to go to
some other place.
a) Is Rajasekar right in his attitude? Yes
b) Why did he refuse to go there? So many chemical industry is there
c) What are the values shown by Rajasekar?
Rajasekar is aware of pollution and also his health condition.
UNIT – 11 – AIR
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following is true about oxygen?
a) Completely burning gas b) Partially burning gas
c) Doesn’t support burning d) Supports burning
2. Aerated water contains
a) air b) oxygen c) carbon dioxide d) nitrogen
3. Solvay process is a method to manufacture
a) lime water b) aerated water c) distilled water d) sodium carbonate
4. Carbon dioxide with water changes
a) blue litmus to red b) red litmus to blue
c) blue litmus to yellow d) doesn’t react with litmus
5. Which of the following is known as azote?
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Sulpher d) Carbon dioxide
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Oxygen is called as vital life.
2. Nitrogen is Slightly lighter than air.
3. Urea is used as a fertilizer.
4. Dry ice is used as a collant.
5. The process of conversion of iron into hydrated form of oxides is called rusting.
III. Match the following.
Nitrogen Respiration in living animals Fertilizer
Oxygen Fertilizer Respiration in living animals
Carbon dioxide Coolant Fire extinguisher
Dry ice Fire extinguisher Coolant
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IV. Answer briefly.
1. Mention the physical properties of oxygen.
Oxygen is a colourless, odourless and tasteless gas.
It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity
Oxygen dissolves readily in cold water.
It is denser than air.
It can be made into liquid at high pressure and low temperature.
It supports combustion
2. List out the uses of nitrogen.
Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
It is used to prepare ammonia
It is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres.
Many explosives such as TNT (Trinitrotoluene), nitroglycerin, and gun powder contain
nitrogen.
It is used for the preservation of foods.
It is used for the manufacturing of stainless steel
3. Write about the reaction of nitrogen with non-metals.
Reaction with non metals
Nitrogen reacts with non-metals like hydrogen, oxygen etc., at high temperature to form
their corresponding nitrogen compounds.
Non-metal + Nitrogen Nitrogen compound
Example:
4. What is global warming?
The greenhouse gases are CO2, N2O, CH4, CFC etc.
The increase in the levels of these gases results in the gradual increase of temperature of
the earth’s surface.
This greenhouse effect is caused due to increase in the air pollutants and it results in the
average increase of temperature of the atmosphere. This is called as Global warming.
5. What is dry ice? What are its uses?
Solid carbon dioxide is called as dry ice
It is used as a coolant.
Creating a dense fog which is used in stage shows and movie effects.
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V. Answer in detail.
1. What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Write the equation for
this reaction.
Reaction with Lime water (Calcium hydroxide)
When a limited amount of CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the
formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
2. Name the compounds produced when the following substances burn in oxygen.
a) Carbon b) Sulphur c) Phosphorous d) Magnesium
e) Iron f) Sodium
a) Carbon Carbon di oxide (CO2)
b) Sulphur Sulphur di oxide (SO2)
c) Phosphorous Phosphorus pent oxide (P2O5)
d) Magnesium Magnesium Oxide (MgO)
e) Iron Iron Oxide (FeO)
f) Sodium Sodium Oxide (Na2O)
3. How does carbon dioxide react with the following?
a) Potassium b) Lime water c) Sodium hydroxide
Reactants Products Chemical Equation
Potassium, Potassium carbonate and
carbondioxide Carbon
Lime water, Calcium carbonate and
carbondioxide water
Sodium hydroxide, Sodium carbonate and
carbondioxide water
4. What are the effects of acid rain? How can we prevent them?
Effects of Acid rain
It irritates eyes and skin of human beings.
It inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
It causes corrosion of many buildings, bridges etc.
Preventive measures:
Minimizing the usage of fossil fuel such as petrol, diesel etc.,
Using CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).
Using non-conventional source of energy.
Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.
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VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Soda bottle bursts sometimes when it is opened during summer. Why?
During summer the temperature is high
At high temperature carbon-di-oxide dissolved in soda water escapes from the solution
This creates high pressure inside the closed bottle.
Hence the soda bottle bursts sometimes when it is opened during summer.
2. It is said that sleeping beneath the tree during night is not good for health. What is the
reason?
At night tree give out carbon di oxide.
So, we sleep under the tree during night we will not get enough oxygen to breath
3. Why does the fish die when it is taken out of water?
The supply of oxygen is cut as the fishes, hence they die.
4. How do astronauts breathe when they go beyond earth’s atmosphere?
Beyond Earth’s atmosphere there is no air.
Hence astronauts breath from oxygen tank taken by them
UNIT – 12 – ATOMIC STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The same proportion of carbon and oxygen in the carbon dioxide obtained from different
sources proves the law of __________
a) reciprocal proportion b) definite proportion
c) multiple proportion d) conservation of mass
2. Cathode rays are made up of
a) neutral particles b) positively charged particles
c) negatively charged particles d) None of the above
3. In water, hydrogen and oxygen are combined in the ratio of _______by mass.
a) 1:8 b) 8:1 c) 2:3 d) 1:3
4. Which of the following statements made by Dalton has not undergone any change?
a) Atoms cannot be broken.
b) Atoms combine in small, whole numbers to form compounds.
c) Elements are made up of atoms.
d) All atoms of an elements are alike
5. In all atoms of an element
a) the atomic and the mass number are same.
b) the mass number is same and the atomic number is different.
c) the atomic number is same and the mass number is different
d) both atomic and mass numbers may vary.
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II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Atom is the smallest particle of an element.
2. An element is composed of similar atoms.
3. An atom is made up of proton, electrons and neutrons.
4. A negatively charged ion is called anion, while positively charged ion is called cation.
5. Electron is a negatively charged particle (Electron/Proton).
6. Proton is deflected towards the negatively charged plate (positively, negatively).
III. Match the following. Answer
Law of conservation of mass Sir William Crookes Lavoisier
Law of constant proportion James Chadwick Joseph Proust
Cathode rays Joseph Proust Sir William Crookes
Anode rays Lavoisier Goldstein
Neutrons Goldstein James Chadwick
IV. Answer briefly.
1. State the law of conservation of mass.
During any chemical change, the total mass of the products is equal to the total mass of
the reactants.
Total mass of the product = Total mass of the reactants
2. State the law of constant proportions.
In a pure chemical compound the elements are always present in definite proportions by
mass.
3. Write the properties of anode rays.
Anode rays travel in straight lines.
Anode rays are made up of material particles.
Anode rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
The properties of anode rays depend upon the nature of the gas taken inside in the
discharge tube.
The mass of the particle is the same as the atomic mass of the gas taken inside the
discharge tube.
4. Define valency of an element with respect to hydrogen.
Valency of an element can be defined as the number of hydrogen atoms which combine
with one atom of it.
5. Define the term ions or radicals.
The atoms which carry positive or negative charges are called ions.
An atom or a group of atoms when they either lose or gain electrons, get converted into
ions or radicals.
6. What is a chemical equation?
A chemical equation is a short hand representation of a chemical reaction with the help of
chemical symbols and formulae.
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7. Write the names of the following compounds.
a) CO b) N2O c) NO2 d) PCl5
a) CO – Carbon monoxide
b) N2O – Nitrous Oxide
c) NO2 – Nitrogen di oxide
d) PCl5 – Phosphorous penta chloride
V. Answer the following.
1. Find the valency of the element which is underlined in the following formula.
a) NaCl b) CO2 c) Al (PO4) d) Ba (NO3)2 e) CaCl2
Formula Valancy
a) NaCl 1
b) CO2 4
c) Al (PO4) 3
d) Ba (NO3)2 2
e) CaCl2 2
2. Write the chemical formula for the following compounds
a) Aluminium sulphate b) Silver nitrate c) Magnesium oxide d) Barium chloride
Compound Chemical formula
a) Aluminium sulphate Al2(SO4)3
b) Silver nitrate AgNO3
c) Magnesium oxide MgO
d) Barium chloride BaCl2
3. Write the skeleton equation for the following word equation and then balance them.
a) Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide
b) Phosphorus + Chlorine → Phosphorus pentachloride.
c) Sulphur + Oxygen → Sulphur dioxide
d) Magnesium + hydrogen chloride → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
Step 1 : Write the word equation.
Step 2 : Write the skeleton equation
Step 3 : Select the element which is to be balanced first based on the number of times
an element occurs on both sides of the skeleton equation.
a) Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide b) Phosphorus + Chlorine → Phosphorus
C + O → CO2 pentachloride. P + Cl2 → PCl5
2 P + 5Cl2 → PCl5
c) Sulphur + Oxygen → Sulphur dioxide d) Magnesium + hydrogen chloride →
S + O2 → SO2 Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
Mg + HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
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4. Balance the following chemical equation.
a) Na + O2 → Na2O
b) Ca + N2 → Ca3N2
c) N2 + H2 →NH3
d) CaCO3 +HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 +H2O
e) Pb(NO3)2 → PbO + NO2 + O2
a) Na + O2 → Na2O Na + O2 → 2Na2O
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
b) Ca + N2 → Ca3N2 3Ca + N2 → Ca3N2
c) N2 + H2 →NH3 N2 + H2 → 2NH3
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
d) CaCO3 +HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 +H2O CaCO3 +2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 +H2O
e) Pb(NO3)2 → PbO + NO2 + O2 Pb(NO3)2 → PbO + 2NO2 + O2
2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Why does a light paddle wheel placed in the path of cathode rays begin to rotate, when
cathode rays fall on it?
Cathode rays are made up of material particles which have mass and kinetic energy.
Hence a light paddle wheel placed in the path of cathode rays begins to rotate when
cathode rays fall on it.
2. How can we prove that the electrons carry negative charge?
Cathode rays are allowed to pass through an electric field.
Cathode rays are deflected towards the positively charged plate.
Hence they consists of negatively charged particles called electrons.
3. Ruthresh, Hari, Kanishka and Thahera collected different samples of water from a well, a
pond, a river and underground water. All these samples were sent to a testing laboratory.
The test result showed the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen as 1:8.
a) What conclusion would you draw from the above experiment?
Water is a compound which has the same element hydrogen and oxygen in the same
proportion 1:8 irrespective of where it come from.
b) Which law of chemical combination does it obey?
It obeys the laws of constant proportions.
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UNIT – 13 – WATER
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Water changes to ice at
a) 0°C b) 100°C c) 102°C d) 98°C
2. Solubility of carbon dioxide in water is high when the
a) pressure is low b) pressure is high c) temperature is high d) None of the above
3. The gas collected at the cathode on electrolysis of water is
a) oxygen b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) carbon dioxide
4. Which of the following is a water pollutant?
a) Lead b) Alum c) Oxygen d) Chlorine
5. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of __________
a) sulphates and chlorides b) dust particles
c) carbonates and bicarbonates d) other soluble particles
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Water is colourless, odourless and tasteless.
2. The boiling point of water is 100°C
3. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by boiling of water.
4. The density of water is maximum at 4°C
5. Loading speeds up the process of sedimentation.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. Sewage should be treated well before being discharged it into water bodies. - True
2. Sea water is suitable for irrigation as it contains dissolved salts. – False
Sea water is not suitable for irrigation as it contains dissolved salts.
3. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers depletes the soil and causes water pollution. – True
4. The density of water will not change at all temperature? - False
The density of water will change at all temperature?
5. Soap lathers well in hard water. - False
Soap lathers well in soft water.
IV. Match the following. Answer
Universal solvent Water pollutant Water
Hard water Kills germs Stomach ailments
Boiling Ozonisation Kills germs
Sterilization Water Ozonisation
Sewage Stomach ailments Water pollutant
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V. Give reasons for the following.
1. Alum is added to water in sedimentation tanks.
To speed up sedimentation
2. Water is a universal solvent.
Water dissolve more substances than any other liquids.
3. Ice floats on water.
The density of ice is lower than that of water
4. Aquatic animals can breathe in water.
Only through the dissolved oxygen present in water.
5. Sea water is unfit for drinking.
Sea water contains salt (Sodium chloride)
6. Hard water is not good for washing utensils.
Hard water contains minerals and salts which form precipitate with cleaning agents.
VI. Define the following.
1. Freezing point:
Temperature at which a liquid freezes into its solid form.
2. Boiling point :
Temperature at which a liquid boils to form its vapour.
3. Specific heat capacity:
The amount of heat that is needed to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance
by 1°C is called specific heat capacity of that substance.
4. Latent heat of fusion:
The amount of heat energy required by ice to change into water is called latent heat of
fusion
5. Potable water:
Water suitable for drinking is called potable water.
VII. Answer in brief.
1. Name the gas evolved at cathode and anode when water is electrolysed. State their ratio by
volume.
Gas evolved at cathode : Hydrogen
Gas evolved at anode : Oxygen
The ratio : 2: 1
2. State the importance of dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide in water.
Air dissolved in water is important for the living organisms to survive.
Fish can survive in water only through the dissolved oxygen present in water. •
Aquatic plants make use of dissolved carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
Carbon dioxide dissolved in water reacts with limestone to form calcium bicarbonate.
Marine organisms such as snails, oysters, etc., extract calcium carbonate from calcium
bicarbonate to build their shells.
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3. What are the causes of temporary hardness and permanent hardness of water?
Temporary hardness is due to the presence of carbonate and bicarbonate salts of calcium
and magnesium.
Permanent hardness results due to the presence of chloride and sulphate salts of calcium
and magnesium.
4. Explain specific latent heat of vaporization of water.
The temperature of water does not rise above 100°C.
It is because the supplied heat energy only changes the state of the boiling water.
Heat energy is stored in steam and is commonly called latent heat of vaporization of
steam.
5. What are the methods of removing hardness of water?
Boiling
Adding washing soda
Ion – exchange
Distillation
VIII. Answer in detail.
1. How is water purified at a water purification plant?
Sedimentation
Water from lakes or rivers is collected in large sedimentation tanks.
There, it is allowed to stand undisturbed so that suspended impurities settle down at
the bottom of the tank.
Sometimes, a chemical substance such as potash alum is added to water, to speed up
the process of sedimentation. This process is called loading.
The particles of potash alum combine with the suspended impurities and make them
settle down at a faster rate.
Filtration
Water from the sedimentation tanks is then, pumped to the filtration tanks.
Filtration tanks contain filter beds made up of gravel, sand, pebbles, activated charcoal
and concrete.
Water passes through these layers and becomes free from any remaining dissolved or
suspended impurities completely.
Sterilisation
The filtered water is treated chemically to remove the remaining germs or
bacteria.This process is called sterilisation.
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The chemicals that are used in this process are chlorine and ozone.
The water from filtration tanks is pumped into chlorination tanks, where chlorine is
added to remove harmful bacteria and other germs.
The process of adding chlorine, in adequate amounts, to water is called chlorination.
Ozonisation is a process in which water is treated with ozone gas to kill the germs
present in it.
The sterilisation of water can also be done by exposing it to air and sunlight. Oxygen
from the air and sunlight destroy the germs present in water.
Aeration is the process in which air under pressure is blown into filtered water. This
also helps to kill the germs.
2. What is permanent hardness of water? How can it be removed?
Permanent hardness results due to the presence of chloride and sulphate salts of
calcium and magnesium.
Adding washing soda
Adding washing soda converts chlorides and sulphates into insoluble carbonates.
These insoluble carbonates are removed by filtration.
Distillation
The water obtained after distillation is called distilled water. It is the purest form of
water.
3. What is Electrolysis? Explain the electrolysis of water.
The process of breaking down of water molecules
by the passage of electric current is known as
electrolysis of water.
A glass beaker fixed with two carbon electrodes is
filled with water upto one third of its volume.
The positive carbon electrode acts as anode and the
negative carbon electrode acts as cathode. Two test
tubes are placed on the electrodes.
The electrodes are connected to a battery and current is passed until the test tubes are
filled with a particular gas.
If the gas collected is tested using a burning splint we can notice that the gas in cathode
side burns with a popping sound when the extinguish splint is brought near the mouth of
the test tube.
This property is usually shown by hydrogen gas and so it is confirmed that the gas inside
the test tube is hydrogen.
The burning splint placed near the anode side burns more brightly confirming that it is
oxygen gas. This experiment shows that water is made up of hydrogen and oxygen.
The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen is 2:1.
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4. Explain the different ways by which water gets polluted.
Household detergents
Household and cleaning detergents are a major cause of water pollution.
Domestic Sewage
Wastewater that is disposed of from households is known as domestic sewage.
Domestic waste and plastics
Solid waste including plastics are disposed of or end up in water bodies such as lakes,
rivers and the ocean.
Agricultural activities
Fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides used in agriculture can dissolve in rainwater and
flow into water bodies such as rivers and lakes.
Oil spills
There are large crude oil and natural gas reserves below the sea bed.
Industrial waste
Many industries release toxic wastes such as lead, mercury, cyanides, cadmium, etc.
Thermal pollution
Large amount of water is used for cooling purposes in thermal and nuclear power plants
and many industries.
UNIT – 14 – ACIDS AND BASES
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Acids are ________ in taste.
a) sour b) sweet c) bitter d) salty
2. Aqueous solutions of _________ conduct electricity.
a) acid b) base c) salt d) All of these
3. In acidic solutions blue litmus changes into ______ colour.
a) blue b) green c) red d) white
4. Base is a substance that gives _____ on dissolving in water.
a) OH- b) H+ c) OH d) H
5. Sodium hydroxide is a ____________
a) acid b) base c) oxide d) alkali
6. Red ant sting contains __________
a) acetic acid b) sulphuric acid c) oxalic acid d) formic acid
7. Magnesium hydroxides are used for treating_______
a) acidity b) head pain c) teeth decay d) None of these
8. Acid mixed with base forms ________
a) salt and water b) salt c) water d) No reaction
9. We brush our teeth with tooth paste because it is __________ in nature.
a) basic b) acidic c) Both a and b d) None of these
10. In basic solution turmeric indicator paper changes from yellow to __________
a) blue b) green c) yellow d) red
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II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Benzoic acids are used for preserving food material.
2. The word sour refers to acidus in Latin.
3. Bases are bitter in taste.
4. Chemical formula of calcium oxide is CaO.
5. Wasp sting contains alkaline substance.
6. Turmeric is used as a natural indicator.
7. In acidic solution the colour of the hibiscus indicator paper will change to deep pink
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. Most of the acids are not soluble in water. - False
Most of the acids are soluble in water.
2. Acids are bitter in taste. – False
Acids are sour in taste.
3. Bases are soapy to touch when they are dry. - False
Bases are soapy to touch only in aqueous media.
4. Acids are corrosive in nature. - True
5. All bases are alkalis. - False
Water soluble bases are alkalis.
6. Hibiscus flower is an example for natural indicator. - True
IV. Answer briefly.
1. Acid - Define.
The chemical compounds which have sour taste are generally called as acids.
2. Write any four physical properties of acids.
Acids are sour in taste.
They are corrosive in nature.
Acids are colourless.
They are soluble in water.
Generally acids exist in liquid state
3. What are the similarities between acids and bases?
They are corrosive in nature.
They undergo ionization in aqueous solution.
They conduct electricity in aqueous solution.
They undergo neutralization reaction.
4. State the difference between acids and bases.
Acids Bases
Sour taste Bitter taste
Generally acids exist in liquid state Generally acids exist in solid state
Change blue litmus to red litmus Change red litmus to blue litmus
Turn methyl orange in to pink colour Turn methyl orange in to yellow colour
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5. What is an indicator?
An indicator is a chemical substance which indicates the end of a chemical reaction by a
suitable colour change.
6. What is a neutralization reaction?
Neutralization is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react with each other to
form salt and water.
7. Write any four physical properties of base.
Bases are bitter in taste.
Bases are corrosive in nature.
Bases are generally colourless.
Bases also change the colour of the indicators. Red litmus paper turns blue
Bases also conduct electricity in aqueous solution.
V. Answer in detail
1. What are the uses of acids?
Hydrochloric acid - digestion of food materials.
Vinegar (acetic acid) - preserve food materials.
Benzoic acid - preserve food materials like pickles.
Sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids - make washing and bathing soaps.
Sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals.
Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid and sulphuric acid - laboratory reagents.
2. What are the uses of bases?
Potassium hydroxide - to make bathing soaps.
Sodium hydroxide - to make washing soaps.
Sodium hydroxide - in paper industries, textile industries and the preparation of medicines.
Calcium hydroxide - for white washing.
Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxides - in antacids to cure acidity problems.
Ammonium hydroxide - to manufacture fertilizers, nylon, plastics and rubber.
3. Explain the neutralization reactions in our daily life.
Bee bite
Whenever bees or red ants bite us they inject an acid called formic acid into our body.
This acid cause burning sensation and pain.
To suppress the pain a suitable base in the form of calcium hydroxide is applied so as to
neutralise the formic acid.
Wasp bite
When we are bitten by wasp, we feel the burning sensation and pain.
To neutralise the alkalinity we use vinegar which is an acid.
Tooth decay
When we brush with tooth powder or tooth paste containing weak bases, the acid gets
neutralized.
So our teeth will be strong and healthy.
Acidity
In order to neutralize, antacids which are nothing but weak bases like aluminum and
magnesium hydroxides are used. As a result the acidity is removed.
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Agriculture
Acidic soil is not suitable for plant growth. So farmers add lime fertilisers such as powdered
lime (CaO), limestone (CaCO3) or ashes of burnt wood to the soil to neutralise the acidity
Industries
Burning fossil fuels will liberate sulphur dioxide gas as an acidic pollutant in the air. Hence,
power stations treat this acidic
4. How will you prepare natural indicator from turmeric powder.
By adding small amount of water to turmeric powder a paste is prepared.
This is applied on a blotting paper
These strips are used as a indicators.
Acid Colour remains yellow
Base Colour changes from yellow to red
VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Vinu and Priyan take their lunch at school. Vinu eats lemon rice and Priyan eats curd rice.
Both lemon rice and curd rice are sour in taste. What is the reason?
Lemon contains citric acid
Curd contains lactic acids
Acids have sour in taste
2. Heshna and Keerthi are friends. Keerthi’s teeth are white without caries, but Heshna has
teeth with caries. Why? How is it formed?
Heshna has not brushed her teeth properly.
Hence food particles struck in the gaps were decomposed by bacteria
This leads tooth decay and caries.
UNIT – 15 – CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The chemical mixed with LPG that helps in the detection of its leakage is __________
a. methanol b. ethanol c. camphor d. mercapton
2. Which is known as syn gas?
a. Marsh gas b. Water gas c. Producer gas d. Coal gas
3. The unit of calorific value of fuel is __________
a. KJmol-1 b. KJg-1 c. KJkg-1 d. Jkg-1
4. _____________ is the coal of superior quality.
a. Peat b. Lignite c. Bituminous d. Anthracite
5. The main component of natural gas is __________
a. methane b. ethane c. propane d. butane
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II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen.
2. Methane is known as marsh gas.
3. The term petroleum means rock oil
4. Heating coal in the absence of air is called destructive distillation
5. An example for fossil fuel is coal
III. Match the following. Answer
Octane rating Diesel Petrol
Cetane rating Methane Diesel
Simplest hydrocarbon Petrol Methane
Peat Bown in colour First stage coal
Lignite First stage coal Bown in colour
IV. Answer briefly.
1. What do you mean by catenation?
The property of carbon atom to form bonds with itself resulting in a single large structure
or chain is called catenation.
2. Mention the advantages of natural gas.
It produces lot of heat as it can be easily burnt.
It does not leave any residue.
It burns without smoke and so causes no pollution.
This can be easily supplied through pipes.
It can be directly used as fuel in homes and industries.
3. Expand CNG. List out its uses.
CNG Compressed Natural Gas.
Nowadays it is used as fuel in automobiles.
4. Identify the gas known as syngas. Why is it called so?
It is water gas
It is a gaseous mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is made by passing steam
over incandescent coke at a temperature of 1000°C.
5. Anthracite is known as the highest grade coal. Give reason.
Anthracite is the highest grade coal.
It has a very light weight and the highest heat content.
Anthracite coal is very hard, deep black and shiny.
It contains 86-97% carbon and has a heating value slightly higher than bituminous coal.
It burns longer with more heat and less dust.
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6. Distinguish between octane number and cetane number.
Octane Number Cetane Number
Octane rating is used for petrol Cetane rating is used for diesel
It measures the amount of octane It measures the ignition delay of the fuel in
present in petrol diesel engine
Octane number of petrol can be Cetane number of diesel can be increased by
increased by adding benzene or adding acetone
toluene
The fuel with high octane number The fuel with high cetane number has low
has low cetane number octane number.
7. Name the places in Tamilnadu harnessing wind energy from wind mills.
Kayathar
Aralvaimozhi
Palladam
Kudimangalam
8. Solar energy is a non-depleting energy. Justify.
Sun is the first and foremost energy source that makes life possible on the earth.
Solar energy is the only viable fuel source of non-depleting nature for sun provides a free
and renewable source of energy.
V. Answer in detail.
1. Explain the different types of coal.
Lignite
Lignite is a brown colored coal of lowest grade.
It has the lowest carbon content.
The carbon content of lignite is 25 – 35%.
Lignite contains a high amount of water and makes up almost half of our total coal
reserves.
It is used for electricity generation.
Sub-bituminous
When lignite becomes darker and harder over time sub-bituminous coal is formed.
Sub bituminous coal is a black and dull coal.
It has higher heating value than lignite and contains 35-44% carbon.
It is used primarily as fuel for electricity power generation.
Bituminous
With more chemical and physical changes, sub-bituminous coal is developed into
bituminous coal.
Bituminous coal is dark and hard.
It contains 45-86% carbon.
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Anthracite
Anthracite is the highest grade coal.
It has a very light weight and the highest heat content.
Anthracite coal is very hard, deep black and shiny.
It contains 86-97% carbon and has a heating value slightly higher than bituminous coal.
2. What is known as destructive distillation? Write about the products obtained from
fractional distillation of petroleum.
Destructive distillation
The process of heating coal in the absence of air.
3. Explain the different types of fuel gases.
Solid fuels
Fuels like wood and coal are in solid state and they are called solid fuels.
This type of fuel was the first one to be used by man.
These fuels are easy to store and transport.
The production cost is also very low.
Liquid fuels
Most of the liquid fuels are derived from the fossil remains of dead plants and animals.
Petroleum oil, coal tar and alcohol are some of the liquid fuels.
These fuels give more energy on burning and burn without ash.
Gaseous fuel
Coal gas, oil gas, producer gas and hydrogen are some of the gaseous fuels.
These fuels can be easily transported through pipes and they do not produce pollution.
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UNIT – 16 – MICROORGANISMS
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Microorganisms are measured in _______.
a ) cm b) mm c) micron d) meter.
2. _______ shows both living and nonliving characteristics.
a) Protozoa b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungi
3. ______ is a prokaryotic microorganisms.
a) Virus b) Algae c) Fungi d) Bacteria
4. Based on shape, the bacteria are classified into _______ types.
a) two b) three c) four d) five
5. Common cold in human is caused by ______.
a) plasmodium b) influenza c) vibrio cholera d) aphthovirus
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Penicillin is prepared from a mould called penicillium.
2. Prion are the infectious protein particles.
3. The infecting virus particle found outside the host cell is virion.
4. Microorganism can be seen with the help of a microscope.
5. Bacteria, which has a flagellum at one end is classified as monotrichous.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. Disease causing microorganisms are called pathogens. - True
2. Female anopheles mosquito is a carrier of dengue virus. – False
Female anopheles mosquito is a carrier of plasmodium.
3. Chicken pox is a communicable disease. - True
4. Citrus canker is transmitted by insects. - False
Citrus canker is transmitted by air and water.
5. Yeast is used in the large scale production of alcohol. - True
IV. Match the following. Answer
Nitrogen fixing bacteria Vaccine Rhizobium
Tuberculosis Prion Bacteria
Kuru Lactobacillus acidophilus Prion
Probiotics Bacteria Lactobacillus acidophilus
Edward Jenner Rhizobium Vaccine
V. Answer the following questions.
Mark the correct one as:
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is true but reason is false. d. If both assertion and reason are false.
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1. Assertion: Malaria is caused by Protozoa. Reason: The disease is transmitted by mosquito.
Ans: a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion: Algae are heterotrophic. Reason: They do not have chlorophyll.
Ans: d. If both assertion and reason are false.
VI. Answer very briefly.
1. Write the name of any nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Rhizobium
Cyanobacteria
Nostac
2. Name the bacteria used in the production of vinegar.
Acetobacteria
3. Write the names of any three protozoans.
Paramecium
Euglena
Amoeba
4. Who discovered penicillin?
Alexander Fleming
5. Which diseases can be prevented by vaccination?
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Tuberculosis
VII. Answer briefly.
1. Write the four types of bacteria, based on their shape.
Bacilli
Spirilla
Cocci
Vibrio
2. What are antibiotics?
Antibiotic is a chemical that kills the growth of microorganism.
3. What are pathogens?
An organism that causes diseases. Ex: Plasmodium causes malaria
4. How disease causing microorganisms enter into human beings?
Cuts and wounds, in the skin, mouth or nose and cause disease
5. Why microorganisms are essential for agriculture?
Natural fertilizer - Nitrates and other inorganic nutrients are released into the soil
Nitrogen fixation - Nostoc can also fix nitrogen biologically.
Bio-control agents - Microbes are used to protect the crops from pests
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VIII. Answer in detail.
1. Write a short note on bacteria and its structure.
Bacteria are single-celled prokaryotes.
They are considered to be the first living organisms on earth.
Bacteria are grouped under the kingdom Monera.
The size of bacteria ranges from 1μm to 5μm
Cell structure of Bacteria
A bacterium has an outer covering
known as the cell wall.
Nuclear material is represented by
a nucleoid without nuclear
membrane.
An extra chromosomal DNA called
plasmid is present in the cytoplasm.
Protein synthesis is carried out by 70S ribosomes.
Other cell organelles (mitochondria, golgi body, endoplasmic reticulum etc.,) are
absent.
Flagella aids in locomotion.
2. How microorganisms are useful in the field of medicine?
Antibiotics:
Sir Alexander Fleming was the first person to discover the antibiotic penicillin.
It is used to treat diseases such as tetanus and diphtheria.
The antibiotic, streptomycin is obtained from Streptomyces bacteria to cure various
bacterial infections.
Eg. Plague.
Vaccines
Vaccines are prepared from dead or weakened microbes.
Edward Jenner was the first person to discover small pox vaccine.
When the vaccine is injected to the body of a patient, the body produces antibodies to
fight against the germs.
These antibodies remain inside the body and protect from future invasion of the
germs. Therefore, vaccination is otherwise called as immunization.
Eg: MMR vaccine is given for preventing Measles, Mumps and Rubella. BCG
(Bacille Calmette Guerin) vaccine is given for preventing Tuberculosis.
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2. Write a short note on common human diseases caused by microorganisms.
4. How can we improve the beneficial bacterial count in human beings?
Eat plant food
Eat more fibre
Avoid highly processed food
Choose Extra virgin olive oil over other fats
5. Write a short note on probiotics.
Probiotics are live food supplements used in yoghurt and other fermented milk products.
Eg. Lactobacillus acidophilus and Bifidobacterium bifidum.
These bacteria improve the microbial spectrum in the gut and thus contribute to the following
effects.
1. Decrease the risk of colon cancer
2. Decrease cholesterol absorption
3. Prevent diarrheal diseases by increasing immunity.
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UNIT – 17 – PLANT KINGDOM
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Solanum trilobatum is the binomial name of Thoothuvalai. The word ‘Solanum’ refers to
a) Species b) Genus c) Class d) Orders
2. Floridian starch is a reserve food material of
a) Chloroplyceae b) Phaeophyceae c) Rhodophyceae d) Cyanophyceae
3. An example for colonial form of algae is
a) Oscillatoria b) Nostac c) Volvox d) Chlorella
4. One of the following is an edible mushroom
a) Polyporus b) Agaricus c) Pennicillium d) Aspergillus
5. Plants that prevent soil erosion are
a) algae b) fungi c) bryophytes d) pteridophytes
6. The first land plants are
a) bryophytes b) pteridophytes c) gymnosperm d) angiosperm
7. The well-developed sporophytic plant body is seen in
a. bryophytes b) pteridophytes c) gymnosperms d) angiosperms
8. Binominal Nomenclature was first introduced in the year
a) 1970 b)1975 c) 1978 d) 1623
9. Penicillin is an antibiotic which is extracted from
a) algae b) fungi c) bryophytes d) pteridophytes
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The word ‘Taxonomy’ is derived from two greek words ctaxis and Nomon
2. Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin
3. The book 'Genera Plantarum' was published by Bentham and Hooker
4. Monocotyledon seed bears only one cotyledon.
5. Brown algae belongs to phaeophyceae class.
6. Agar Agar is obtained from red algae.
7. The reserve food material of fungi are glycogen and oil
8. The first true land plant is pteridophytes
9. Xylem and phloem are absent in bryophytes plants.
10. Reticulate venation is present in dicotyledonae plants.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. In polypetalae, the petals are free. - True
2. Binomial name should contain more than two words. – False
3. Artificial system of classification is based on a few characters of the plant. - True
4. Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin. - True
5. Pinus is a closed seeded plant. – False
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6. All bryophytes are hydrophytes. – False
7. Dicotyledons have well developed characters than the gymnosperms. – True
8. Mosses are the well developed plant in bryophytes. – True
9. The dominant phase of the bryophytes is sporophyte. – False
10. The dominant phase of the pteridophyte is gametophytic phase. – True
IV. Match the following. Answer
Cyanophyceae Green algae Blue green algae
Chlorophyceae Blue green algae Green algae
Phaeophyceae Red algae Brown algae
Rhodophyceae Brown algae Red algae
V. Answer very briefly.
1. Define - Thallus.
Algae belongs to thallophyta and the plant body of algae is called thallus.
i.e. the plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf.
2. What is meant by binomial nomenclature? Give example.
The naming of an organisms with two words is known as Binomial Nomenclature.
For example, the binomial name of mango is Mangifera indica.
3. Write any two characters of dicotyledons.
Seed has two cotyledone.
Plant have tap root system, leaves with reticulate venation.
4. Seeds of gymnosperm plants are naked. Why?
Gymnosperm are naked seed plant.
i.e. the ovule is not enclosed by ovary
5. Write any two economic importance of fungi.
Antibiotic
Penicillin and Cephalosporin which cure different diseases are obtained from
fungi.
Food
Mushroom contains rich protein and minerals. The most common edible
mushroom is Agaricus .
VI. Answer briefly.
1. Write a short note on natural system of classification.
Natural system of classification
In this system, plants are classified on the basis of several characters.
Bentham and Hooker’s classification is an example of natural system of classification.
This system of classification is based on morphological and reproductive characters of the
seeded plants.
Bentham and Hooker published their natural system of classification in their book
named General Plantarum in three volumes.
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2. Write any three economic importance of algae.
Agriculture
Some of the blue green algae are essential for the fixing of atmospheric nitrogen into
the soil, which increases the fertility of the soil.
E.g. Nostoc, Anabaena.
Agar Agar
Agar agar is extracted from some red algae, namely Gelidium and Gracillaria.
It is used to prepare growth medium in laboratories.
Iodine
Iodine is obtained from brown algae like Laminaria.
3. Write the differences between algae and fungi.
Algae Fungi
Autotrophs Heterotrophs
They have pigments They have no pigments
Reserve food material is starch Reserve food materials are glycogen and
oil
Prokaryotic in nature Eukaryotic in nature
Ex: Cyanobacteria Ex: Agaricus
4. How many classes are there in bryophytes? What are they?
Bryophytes are classified into three classes. They are:
1. Hepaticopsida (Liverworts)
2. Anthocerotopsida (Hornworts)
3. Bryopsida (Mosses)
5. Write any four characters of pteridophytes.
Pteridophytes are the first true land plants with xylem and phloem.
Hence, they are called vascular cryptogams.
The main plant body is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
Pteridophytes also exhibit alternation of generation.
The diploid sporophytic phase alternates with the haploid gametophytic phase.
Sporophyte is the dominant phase. Sporophytes reproduce by means of spores.
VII. Answer in detail.
1. Draw the outline of Bentham and Hooker's system of classification.
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2. Write any five differences between monocot and dicot plants.
MONOCOT PLANT DICOT PLANT
Seed has One cotyledon Seed has Two cotyledon
Leaves have parallel venation Leaves have reticulate venation
Fibrous root system Tap root system
Flowers are trimerous Flowers are tetramerous
3. Write the differences between gymnosperm and angiosperm.
Gymnosperm Angiosperm
No vessels in Xylem Xylem has vessels
No companion cells in phloem Phloem contain companion cells.
Seeds are naked. Not enclosed in ovary Seeds are enclosed in ovary
No Fruits After fertilisation ovary develops in to
fruit
4. Write the economic importance of gymnosperms.
Woods of many conifers are used in the paper industries. E.g. Pinus, Agathis
Conifers are the sources of soft wood for construction, packing and plywood industry.
E.g. Cedrus, Agathis
Turpentine, an essential oil, extracted from the resin of Pinus is used for paint
preparation.
Seeds of Pinus gerardiana are edible.
Ephedrine is an alkaloid extracted from Ephedra. It cures asthma and respiratory
problems.
Araucaria bidwillii is an ornamental plant.
5. Write the names of medicinal plants and explain their uses.
Acalypha indica (Kuppaimeni):
The paste obtained from the leaves of this plant is used to cure the burns on the skin.
The juice of this plant leaves is
Aegle marmelos (Vilvam)
The unripe fruit of this tree is used to treat indigestion.
It is used to cure chronic diarrhoea and dysentery.
Solanum trilobatum (Thoodhuvalai)
The leaves and fruits of this plant cure cough and cold.
It is widely used in the treatment of tuberculosis and bronchial asthma.
Aloe vera (Sothu Katrazhai)
Leaves of this plant is used to cure piles and inflammations on the skin.
It cures peptic ulcer.
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UNIT – 18 – ORGANISATION OF LIFE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. _____________ is tough and thick white sheath that protects the inner parts of the eye.
a) Sclera b) Conjunctiva c) Cornea d) Iris
2. ______________ cells are specialised cells that can be transformed into any kind of cells.
a) Nerve b) Stem c) Heart d) Bone
3. Maintenance of constant internal environment of the body is known as _________.
a) homeostasis b) homeophytes c) homeokinesis d) homeophilics
4. In the absence of oxygen, glucose is broken down in to ______________.
a) lactic acid b) citric acid c) acetic acid d) nitric acid
5. The process of air passing in and out the lungs is called ______________.
a) inhalation b) exhalation c) breathing d) None of these
6. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from ______________.
a) higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
b) lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.
c) Both of these d) None of these
7. The erythrocyte is placed in ______________ solution which has lesser concentration of solutes
and greater concentration of water than in the cytoplasm.
a) hypotonic b) hypertonic c) neutral d) acidic
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Cell is the structural and functional unit of living organisms.
2. The largest cell is egg of an Ostrich.
3. Yeast is a good example for anaerobic respiration.
4. Optic nerve is located at the end of the eyes behind the retina.
5. The size of the cells are measured in units of micron
III. Match the following. Answer
Carbohydrates CO2, Water and Heat Glucose
Glucose Amino acid CO2, Water and Heat
Protein Glucose Amino acid
Amino acids Cholesterol and other steroid Enzymes, hormone, protein
Fatty acids Enzymes, hormone, protein Cholesterol and other steroid
IV. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. In hypotonic condition, concentration of the external and the internal solution of the organism
are same . – False
In hypotonic condition, concentration of the external is less compared to the internal solution
of the organism are same.
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2. Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of lower concentration to higher
concentration. – False
Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to higher
concentration.
3. Human beings are warm blooded in nature. – True
4. The larynx has fold of tissue which vibrate with the passage of air to produce sound. – True
5. Aqueous humour plays an important role in maintaining the shape of the eye. - False
Vitreous humour plays an important role in maintaining the shape of the eye
V. Answer very briefly.
1. What is cell differentiation?
The process by which cell types or cell population attaining distinct and different form
and function is called
2. State different types of tissues
Epithelial tissue
Muscular tissue
Connective tissue
Nervous tissue
3. Mention the function of ‘Alveoli’.
Alveoli helps in the exchange of oxygen and carbon di oxide.
4. Name the processes by which air enters and comes out of our lungs.
Inspiration and Expiration
5. Differentiate osmoconformers and osmoregulators.
Osmoconformers Osmoregulator.
These organisms try to maintain the These organisms maintain their internal
osmolality of their body matching with osmolality, which can be extremely
their surroundings. different from that of the surrounding
environment, through physiological
processes
Ex: invertebrates, marine organisms Ex: freshwater fish
6. Define - Metabolism.
The sum of all chemical reactions by which living organisms sustain their life is called
metabolism.
VI. Answer briefly.
1. Define - Prokaryotic cell.
Prokaryotic cells are the cells that do not have a true nucleus and membrane-bound
organelles.
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2. Tabulate the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
It takes place in the presence of oxygen It takes place in the absence of oxygen
End product: Carbon di oxide and water End product: Carbon di oxide and ethanol
Common in all higher plants and animals. Common in certain micro organisms and
human muscle cell.
3. Why the human eye is compared with camera?
The human eye can be compared to a camera as both functions by gathering, focusing,
and transmitting the light through the lens for creating an image of an object.
4. Which organ and organ system help to maintain homeostasis?
The liver, kidney, and brain (hypothalamus), autonomic nervous system and the
endocrine system help to maintain homeostasis.
VII. Answer in detail.
1. Draw the struture of human eye and label its parts.
2. Explain osmosis with an example.
Osmosis
Osmosis is the movement of solvent particles across a semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a concentrated solution.
The solvent moves to dilute the concentrated solution and equalize the concentration on
both sides of the membrane.
The movement of liquids in and out of cells is dependent on the concentration of the
solution surrounding it.
There are three types of situations in which this could vary.
Isotonic
Here the concentration of external and internal solution of the organism are the same.
Hypotonic
Here the external solution concentration is less compared to the concentration of the inner
solution of an organism. In this case water will rush into the organism.
Hypertonic
Here the external solution concentration is greater than the concentration of the inner
solution of an organism. In this case the water will rush out of the organism.
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3. Differentiate between inhalation and exhalation.
Inspiration (Inhalation) Expiration (Exhalation)
The process of taking air into the lungs The process of expelling air from the lungs
The diaphragm goes downward The diaphragm goes upward
The volume of the thoracic cavity increases The volume of the thoracic cavity
decreases
Air enters the lungs through the nose. Air goes out of the lungs through the nose.
The ribs move upwards an outwards. The ribs move downwards.
4. List out the different types of metabolism with an example.
a. Anabolism
Anabolism or constructive metabolism, is all about building and storing.
It supports the growth of new cells, the maintenance of body tissues, and the storage of
energy for use in the future.
During anabolism,
Glucose → Glycogen and other sugars Amino acids → Enzymes, hormones, proteins
Fatty acids → Cholesterol and other steroids
b. Catabolism
Catabolism or destructive metabolism, is the process that produces the energy required
for all activity in the cells.
In this process, cells break down large molecules to release energy.
This energy release provides fuel for anabolism, heats the body, and enables the muscles
to contract and the body to move.
Carbohydrates → Glucose Glucose → CO2, Water and Heat
Protein → Amino acid
5. Explain the mechanism of breathing.
Inspiration (Inhalation)
The process of taking air into the lungs is called inspiration or inhalation.
During inspiration, the sternum is pushed up and outward and the diaphragm is pulled
down.
This increases the volume of the thoracic cavity and thus the pressure decreases.
The air outside the body flows into the lungs.
Here exchange of gases takes place between the air and the blood.
Expiration (Exhalation)
The process of expelling air from the lungs is called expiration or exhalation.
Upon exhalation, the lungs recoil to force the air out of the lungs.
The inter costal muscles relax, returning the chest wall to its original position.
During exhalation, the diaphragm also relaxes, moving higher into the thoracic cavity.
This increases the pressure within the thoracic cavity relative to the environment.
Air rushes out of the lungs due to the pressure gradient. This movement of air out of the
lungs is a passive event.
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VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Why do we need instant energy? Does glucose give that energy? Explain.
Glucose is a simplest form of sugar which is easily absorbed by the blood whereas other
carbohydrates are first broken down into glucose and then absorbed. Hence, glucose gives
instant energy.
2. How are we preparing pickles? What are the steps involved in that?
Raw mangoes are cut into small pieces.
Salt, spices and oil are added to raw mangoes.
The mixture is stirred to mix the ingredients uniformly.
The mixture is stored in a dry glass jar for later use.
IX. Value based questions.
1. Dr. Usha is a pulmonologist (Doctor for respiratory diseases). One day, a school student
named Arjun, met her with respiratory problems. After diagnosis, the doctor advised him
to go to playground daily and play football or basketball. She also advised him to do
pranayamam in the morning.
a) Why did the doctor advise him to go to the playground?
Playing is a good physical activity which helps to improve breathing and blood circulation
in the body.
b) What is the use of pranayamam?
Pranayama is the ancient practice of controlling your breath. You control the timing,
duration, and frequency of every breath and hold. The goal of pranayama is to connect your
body and mind. It also supplies your body with oxygen while removing toxins.
2. Explain why you are not able to breathe normally when you are in closed and crowded
places?
In a closed room, we feel suffocated due to the accumulation of carbon dioxide gas. The
amount of air present in a closed room is limited; there is no supply of fresh air from
outside. As we breathe we inhale the oxygen and give out carbon dioxide.
3. Shylesh is a school going kid studying standard VIII. He is crazy about playing video
games in mobile phones. After couple of months, his eyes turned red and he felt severe
pain in his eyes. His science teacher enquired about this and advised his parents to take
him to an eye doctor.
i) How does excessive usage of mobile phone affect our eyes?
Staring at your smartphone for prolonged hours can lead to various issues such as tired,
itchy, and dry eyes, or even blurred vision and headaches. Since eye damage caused by
cellphone use is often long term, it is best to tackle this issue by preventing it rather than
looking for a cure later on.
ii) What are the values shown by the teacher?
Empathy,Responsibility,Personal care.
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UNIT – 19 – MOVEMENTS IN ANIMALS
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following parts of our body help us in movement?
(i) Bones (ii) Skin (iii) Muscles (iv) Organs
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (ii)
2. Which one of the following organisms lack muscles and skeleton for movement?
(a) Dog (b) Snail (c) Earthworm (d) Human being
3. __________ joints are immovable.
(a) Shoulder and arm (b) Knee and joint
(c) Upper jaw and skull (d) Lower jaw and upper jaw
4. Why do underwater divers wear fin-like flippers on their feet ?
(a) To swim easily in water. (b) To look like a fish.
(c) To walk on water surface. (d) To walk over the bottom of the sea (sea bed).
5. External ear (pinna )is supported by
(a) bone (b) cartilage (c) tendon (d) capsule
6. Cockroach moves with the help of its
(a) leg (b) bone (c) muscular foot (d) whole body
7. Which one of the following categories of vertebrae are correctly numbered?
(a) Cervical-7 (b) Thoracic-10 (c) Lumbar - 4 (d) Sacral – 4
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Movement of organisms from place to place is called locomotion.
2. Movement refers to change in position of the part of an organism’s body.
3. A structure which provides rigid frame work to the body is called bones
4. Axial skeleton in human consists of skull, sternum, ribs and vertebral column.
5. Appendicular skeleton in human consists of shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle
6. The place where two bones meet is termed as joint.
7. Smooth muscle is attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, iris, bronchi and the skin
8. Radial muscle makes pupil of eyes wider.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. Skull in humans consists of 22 bones. - True
2. There are 12 pairs of ribs in human body. - True
3. Pelvic girdle is a part of axial skeleton. – False
Pelvic girdle is a part of appendicular skeleton.
4. Hinge joint is slightly movable joint. – False
Hinge joint are freely movable joint.
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5. Cardiac muscle is a voluntary muscle. - False
Cardiac muscle is an involuntary muscle.
6. The flexor and extensor muscle of the arm are antagonistic muscles. – True
IV. Answer very briefly.
1. What is skeleton?
The skeleton system provides the hard structure or framework to the human body which
supports and protects the body.
2. What is cranium?
Skull is a hard structure made up of small bones.
It is formed by 22 bones out of which 8 bones are fixed together to form the cranium
3. Why our backbone is slightly moveable?
Movement is restricted to one plane.
This joint allows bending and straightening only
4. Differentiate axial and appendicular skeleton.
Axial skeleton Appendicular skeleton
It consists of the bones along the axis, or It contains the bones in the appendages
central line of the human bod of the body
The axial skeleton consists of the skull, The appendicular skeleton comprises the
facial bones, sternum, ribs, and vertebral shoulder girdle; the arm, wrist, and hand
column. bones; the pelvic girdle; and the leg,
ankle, and foot bones.
5. What is ligament?
Ligaments are short bands of tough fibrous connective tissues that function to connect one
bone to another, forming the joint
6. Define muscle.
The muscles in the body provide the means of all movements.
They cover the skeletal framework and also give shape to the body.
7. Differentiate tendons and ligament.
Tendons Ligament
Tendons are made of elastic tissues Ligaments are short bands of tough
fibrous connective tissues
They also play a key role in the functioning Function to connect one bone to another,
of joints. forming the joint.
V. Answer briefly.
1. Differentiate between the following.
a) Movement and Locomotion.
Movement Locomotion
Act of changing the place of the body Movement of an organism from one
place to another
It is voluntary or involuntary It is voluntary
It takes place at the biological level It takes place at the organism level
It requires energy It does not requires energy
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b) Endoskeleton and Exoskleton
Endoskeleton Exoskleton
Found inside the Human body Found on the exterior layer of the body
It originates from the embryonic mesoderm It originates from the embryonic
mesoderm or ectderm
c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle
Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle
It seen in upper limb It seen in lower limb
It consist two dissimilar bones scapula and It consist two similar bones innominate
clavicle
d) Ball and socket Joint and hinge Joint
Ball and socket Joint hinge Joint
A ball shaped head of one bone articulates A cylindrical protrusion of one bone
with a cup like socket of an adjacent bone. articulates with a trough-shaped
depression of an adjacent bone.
Ex: Shoulder and hip Ex: Elbow, knee and ankle
e) Voluntary and Involuntary muscle
Voluntary muscle Involuntary muscle
Attached to bones. Attached to soft parts of the body like
Found in arms, legs, neck. blood vessels, iris, bronchi and the skin.
Multinucleate, Unbranched, Voluntary Single, central nucleus
Involuntary
2. What are antagonistic muscles? Give one example.
Antagonistic muscles are those muscles which produce movements in an antagonistic pair
of muscles by opposing the movement of the agonistic muscle
Example- biceps and triceps, quadriceps and hamstrings.
3. How is the skeleton of a bird well-suited for flying?
Its bones are light and strong.
They are hollow and have air spaces between them.
4. What are the functions of skeleton in human body?
1. It provides structure and shape to the body.
2. It supports and surrounds the internal organs of the body.
3. Calcium and phosphorus, are stored inside the bones.
4. Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.
5. The bones of the skeletal system act as levers for muscular action.
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VI Answer in detail.
1. Name the different types of joints? Give one example for each type.
Fixed or Immovable joints : Ex: the skull box
Slightly movable joints : Ex: The joint between a rib and the breast bone
Freely movable joints:
1. Ball and Socket : Ex: Shoulder and hip
2. Hinge : Ex: Elbow, Knee and Ankle
3. Pivot : Ex: Spine (Atlas / joint at the top)
4. Condyloid : Ex: Wrist
5. Gliding : Ex: Spine (between bony processes the vertebrae)
6. Saddle : Ex: Thumb, shoulder and inner ear.
2. Write about the human axial skeleton, giving suitable labelled diagram.
I. Axial skeleton
The axial skeleton consists of the bones along the axis, or central line of the human body.
The axial skeleton consists of the skull, facial bones, sternum, ribs, and vertebral column.
a. Skull
Skull is a hard structure made up of small bones.
It is formed by 22 bones out of which 8 bones are fixed together to form the
cranium and 14 bones fuse to form the face.
The only bone which has movable joint is the lower jaw. This movable joint is
supported by muscles and ligaments.
b. Vertebral column
Vertebral column running at the back of the
body is also called as spine or the backbone.
It is in the trunk region to offer support to the
upper part of the body.
Vertebral column is made up of individual
bones called as vertebrae.
Total vertebral column consists of 7 cervical
vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar
vertebrae, 5 fused sacral and 3 fused coccygeal
vertebrae.
Vertebral column runs from the base of the
skull to the hip bone forming a tube.
Spinal cord passes through this hollow tube.
c. Sternum or Rib cage
Rib cage occupies the chest region.
It is a cone-shaped structure made up of Twelve pairs of ribs.
Ribs are attached to vertebrae at the back which curve around to form a cage.
Ten pairs of ribs are attached to the breast bone at the front.
Two pairs of lower ribs are free at front. These are called as free-floating ribs.
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3. Discuss various types of movements seen in living organisms.
Earthworm
The body of earthworm is made up of many rings joined end to end.
It has muscles which help to extend and shorten the body.
Under its body it has large number of bristles called setae which are connected with
muscles.
These bristles help to get grip on the ground.
During movement, the earthworm first extends the front part of the body, keeping
Cockroach
A cockroach has three pairs of jointed legs, which help it to walk, run and climb.
It also has two pairs of wings for flying.
Large and strong muscles help in the movement of legs.
The body is covered by chitin, a light protective material.
Birds
Birds can walk on the ground and fly as well.
Some birds can also swim in the water.
A bird has streamlined body.
Its bones are light and strong. They are hollow and have air spaces between them.
Snake
The body of snake consists of a large number of vertebrae.
The adjoining vertebrae, ribs and skin are inter-connected with slender body muscles.
When the snake moves, it makes many loops on its sides.
e forward push of the loops against the surface makes the snake move forward.
Movement of snake is called slithering movement.
Fish
Fish swims with the help of fins.
They have two paired fins and an unpaired fin.
The body of a fish is streamlined to reduce friction while moving in water.
They have strong muscles, which help in swimming.
When a fish swims its front part curves to one side and the tail part stays in the opposite
direction.
In the next move, the front part curves to the opposite side and the tail part also changes
its position to another side.
The caudal or tail fin helps in changing direction.
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4. What is a streamlined body? How does it help in the movement of animals that fly or swim
in water?
Fish swims with the help of fins.
They have two paired fins and an unpaired fin.
The body of a fish is streamlined to reduce friction while moving in water.
They have strong muscles, which help in swimming.
When a fish swims its front part curves to one side and the tail part stays in the opposite
direction.
In the next move, the front part curves to the opposite side and the tail part also changes
its position to another side.
The caudal or tail fin helps in changing direction.
5. Write a short note on different types of muscles.
Types of muscles:
1. Striated / Skeletal / Voluntary muscle:
Location:
Attached to bones.
Found in arms, legs, neck.
Characteristics:
Multinucleate, Unbranched, Voluntary.
2. Non striated / Smooth / Involuntary muscle:
Location:
Attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, iris, bronchi and the skin.
Characteristics:
Single, central nucleus Involuntary
3. Cardiac muscle:
Location:
Heart
Characteristics:
Branched, 1 -3 central nuclei Involuntary.
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UNIT – 20 – REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Adolescence is the period of life between _____________ years of age.
a) 10 to 16 b) 11 to 17 c) 11 to 19 d) 11 to 20
2. The period at which an organism attains sexual maturity is called _____________
a) puberty b) adolescence c) growth d) maturity
3. During puberty, the region below the waist become wider in _____________
a) boys b) girls c) Both a and b d) None of these
4. Adam’s apple is the growth of the ________
a) pharynx b) thyroid c) larynx d) parathyroid
5. Many adolescent boys and girls get pimples on face, due to the secretions of _________ gland.
a) sweat b) sebaceous c) sweat and sebaceous d) None of these
6. The sperm is produced by ____________
a) penis b) ovary c) uterus d) testes
7. ___________ are the chemical substances, secreted by endocrine glands.
a) Hormones b) Enzymes c) Proteins d) Fatty acids
8. Androgen production is regulated by ___________
a) GH hormone b) LH hormone c) TSH hormone d) ACTH hormone
9. During menstruation, the progesterone level is ___________
a) decreased b) increased c) ceased d) normal
10. ___________ intake needs to be increased to prevent osteoporosis in later life.
a) Potassium b) Phosphorus c) Iron d) Calcium
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Estrogen is secreted by the ovaries of female.
2. The hormones secreted by the gonads are controlled by anterior pituitary.
3. Milk secretion during lactation is controlled by prolactin hormone.
4. The male and the female gamete fuse together and form zygote.
5. The first menstrual flow begins at puberty and it is termed as menarche.
6. Menstruation usually occurs 14 days after ovulation.
7. Balanced diat includes protein, carbohydrates, fats and vitamins in requisite proportion.
8. Iodine helps to prevent thyroid gland related diseases.
9. Iron deficiency leads to anemia
10. In women fertilization takes place at fallopian tube.
III. State true or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. There is a sudden increase in the height of both boys and girls during puberty. - True
2. The release of ovum from the uterus is called ovulation. – False
The release of ovum from the graafian follicle is called ovulation.
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3. During pregnancy, the corpus luteum continues to grow and produces large amount of estrogen
and progesterone. - False
During pregnancy, the corpus luteum continues to grow and produces large amount of
progesterone.
4. Making use of disposable napkins or tampons may increase the chances of infections. - False
Making use of disposable napkins or tampons may decrease the chances of infections.
5. Using clean toilets for defecation is a good practice. – True
IV. Match the following. Answer
Puberty Testosterone Sexual maturity
Adam’s apple Muscle development Change in voice
Androgen at 45 to 50 years of age Muscle development
ICSH Sexual maturity Testosterone
Menopause Change in voice at 45 to 50 years of age
V. Answer briefly.
1. What is adolescence?
The term adolescence is derived from the Latin word ‘adolescere’ meaning ‘to grow’ or
‘grow to maturity’
2. List out the changes which occur during puberty.
Changes in body size
Changes in body proportion
Development of primary sex characteristics
Development of secondary sex characteristics
3. What do you mean by secondary sex characteristics?
Secondary sex characteristics are the physical features which distinguish male from female.
4. What is fertilization?
The fusion of a haploid male gamete and a haploid female gamete to form a diploid cell,
the zygote, is called fertilization.
5. Explain Menarche.
The first menstrual flow begins at puberty and is termed menarche.
The ova begin to mature with the onset of puberty.
It is the beginning of adolescence, during which mental and emotional maturation occurs
and physical growth becomes pronounced.
6. Explain the process of pregnancy.
After ovulation the ovum reaches the fallopian tube and fertilization takes place.
The fertilized egg undergoes development and it is implanted in the uterus.
The corpus luteum continues to grow and produces large amount of progesterone.
This results in pregnancy. Normally, it lasts for 280 days, at the end of which parturition takes
place.
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7. Explain the importance of cleanliness during the time of menstrual cycle in girls.
Girls should take special care of cleanliness during the time of menstrual cycle.
Making use of disposable napkins or tampons may reduce chances of infections.
Girls are advised to use sanitary napkins or tampons rather than cloth.
It should be changed frequently depending upon the menstrual flow.
If a cloth is being used repeatedly, it should be cleaned with soap and hot water and dried
in sunlight for reuse.
8. How is adolescence differ from childhood?
Adolescence Childhood
The age of 11 to 19 The birth to the age of around 11 years
Development of sexual organs Milk teeth break and permanent teeth
grouth
VI. Answer in detail.
1. What are the physical changes that occur in boys and girls during adolescence?
Changes in body size:
The first major change at the time of puberty is growth which is the increase in body
height and weight.
It usually begins at the age of 10 to 12 in girls and 12 to 13 in boys.
It is almost complete at around the age of 17 to 19 in girls and 19 to 20 in boys.
During adolescence both boys and girls add around 23 cm to 26 cm in the height.
Changes in body proportion
Certain body areas which are small proportionately grow big.
During childhood, legs grow proportionately more than the trunk.
But at the time of puberty trunk also lengthens.
Also, trunk broadens at the hip and shoulder thus giving the adult proportion to the body.
Primary sex characteristics
Reproductive organs of boys and girls become fully functional at the time of puberty.
In boys, testes grow larger followed by that length and size of the reproductive organ
increase.
In female, the size of the uterus and the weight of the ovaries increase during this time.
2. Explain the role of hormones in reproduction.
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
FSH in the female influences the development of the Graafian follicle and secretion of
estrogens.
In the male it is necessary for the development of seminiferous tubules, and for
spermatogenesis.
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Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
In the female, it is the hormone necessary for ovulation, and the secretion of the luteal
hormone progesterone, and for the final maturation of the Graafian follicle.
In the male it stimulates the interstitial (Leydig) cells of testes and the secretion of
testosterone, and is referred to as the Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH).
Prolactin (PRL) or Lactogenic Hormone
The main function of this hormone is milk secretion during lactation.
Oxytocin Hormone
Oxytocin causes expulsion of milk from the breast and it is also involved in the contraction
of smooth muscles of uterus during child birth.
3. Briefly describe the menstrual cycle.
When a girl reaches puberty at the age of about 10.
Usually one mature ovum is released from one of the ovaries into the oviduct once in every
28 days.
Before ovulation, the inner wall of uterus becomes thick and spongy. It prepares itself to
receive the fertilized ovum.
If the ovum does not get fertilized, uterus along with the blood vessels and the dead ovum
comes out of the vagina in the form of a bleeding called menstruation.
Menstruation usually occurs 14 days after ovulation and usually lasts for about 3 to 5 days.
After menstruation is over, the inner lining of the uterus starts building up again so that it
may become ready to receive the next ovum.
If the ovum does not get fertilized even now, then menstruation takes place again.
This cycle of menstruation is repeated again and again in women after every 28 days.
4. Explain the nutritional needs of adolescence in brief.
Balanced diet is very much important during adolescence.
Balanced diet includes proteins, carbohydrates, fats and vitamins in requisite proportions.
Minerals
Since there is an increase in skeletal mass and blood volume during adolescence, the body
needs calcium, phosphorus and iron.
1. Calcium
Calcium intake needs to be increased to prevent osteoporosis in later life.
It is present in milk and milk products or other equivalents.
2. Iodine
It helps to prevent thyroid gland related diseases.
3. Iron
Iron builds blood, and iron-rich foods such as green leafy vegetables, jaggery,
meat, dates, fish, chicken, citrus, Indian gooseberry (Nelli) and whole pulses are
good for adolescents.
Lack of iron in the diet results in anemia.
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VII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. What can you suggest to your classmates to keep himself / herself clean and healthy?
1. Have bath once or twice a day, paying special attention to underarms, groins and genitals.
2. Change the underwear daily. It should be made of cotton and washed and cleaned everyday.
3. For teenagers, the increased activity of sweat glands sometimes enhances body odour. If
cleanliness is not maintained there are chances of having fungal, bacterial and other
infections.
2. Adolescence is the energistic stage. What health and good habits you want to develop?
Healthy and good habits that we should develop during adolescence are: Eat a balanced diet
and avoid junk food to prevent obesity.
Regular physical exercise helps to build our body.
Keep ourselves clean by bathing twice a day, cutting hair, trimming nails, wearing clean
clothes.
UNIT – 21 – CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT
I. Choose the best answer
1. The process of placing seeds in the soil is called as
a. ploughing b. sowing c. crop production d. crop rotation
2. The method in which water flows over the soil surface and allow it to infiltrate is
a. irrigation b. surface irrigation c. springler irrigation d. drip irrigation
3. Organism that control insects and pests of plant crops is
a. bio-pesticides b. bio-fertilizers c. earthworms d. neem leaves
4. Effective microorganism preparation is not used in
a. seed treatment b. foliar spray c. soil treatment d. bio-predators
5. Which of the following is not present in Panchagavya?
a. Cow dung b. Cow’s urine c. Curd d. Sugar
II. Fill in the blanks
1. The process of actively growing seedling from one place and planting in the main field for further
growth is called transplantging .
2. Weed is a plant growing in a place where it is not wanted.
3. The chemicals used for killing the weeds or inhibiting their growth are called as weedicides.
4. Heirloom seeds transfer their unique characteristics to the descents.
5. Krish vigyan Ken-dra centers serve as the ultimate link between ICAR and farmers.
6. Several popular high yielding varieties of major crops have been developed by IARI
III. Match the following. Answer
Bio-pesticide Neem Leaves Bacillus thuringiensis
Bio-predators Bacillus thuringiensis Control white flies
Bio-fertilizer Control white flies Improve soil fertility
Bio-indicators Improve soil fertility Quality of environment
Bio-repellants Quality of Neem Leaves
environment
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IV. Answer briefly.
1. Define ploughing.
Ploughing or tilling is the process of loosening and turning the soil up and down to facilitate
the availability of nutrients in the root zone of the cultivating crop.
2. Name the methods of sowing.
Sowing by hand,
seed drill and
dibbling
3. What is foliar spray?
Foliar feeding is a technique of feeding plants by applying liquid fertilizer directly to their
leaves.
4. Give a brief account on Krishi Vigyan Kendra.
Krishi Vigyan Kendra is a farm science centre.
These centres serve as the ultimate link between ICAR (Indian council of Agricultural
research) and farmers.
Their aim is to apply agricultural research findings in practical localized settings
5. What is bio-indicator? How does it help human beings?
bio-indicator or biological indicator is any species or group of species whose function or
status reveals the qualitative status of the environment.
It gives information about changes in climate, air quality and biological process.
6. What do you mean by weeding?
In an agriculture field, many other undesirable plants may grow naturally along with the main
crop.
These undesirable plants are called weeds
The removal of weeds is called weeding.
7. What is crop rotation?
Crop rotation is planting a series of different crops in the same field following a defined order.
8. What is green manure?
A practice of ploughing or turning into the soil, undercomposed fresh green plant tissue for
the purpose of improving fertility status, physical and biological condition of the soil.
V. Answer in detail.
1. Explain the agricultural practices.
Kharif Crops (from June to September)
The crops which are sown in the rainy season are called kharif crops. Paddy, maize,
soya bean, groundnut and cotton are kharif crops.
Rabi Crops (from October to March)
The crops grown in winter season are called rabi crops. Examples of rabi crops are
wheat, gram, pea, mustard, linseed.
Zaid Crops (Summer Crops)
The crops which are grown in summer season are called zaid crops. Muskmelon,
watermelon and cucumber are examples for zaid crops.
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2. Give a detailed account on irrigation.
Irrigation can be carried out by two different methods.
a. Traditional Methods
b. Modern Methods
a. Traditional Methods
In these methods, irrigation is done manually.
Here, a farmer pulls out water from wells or canals by himself or using cattle and
carries to farming fields.
Pumps are also commonly used for lifting water from various sources.
b. Modern Methods
The modern methods involve two systems. They are:
1. Sprinkler system
2. Drip system
1. Sprinkler System
A sprinkler system sprinkles water over the crop and helps in an even distribution
of water.
This method is much advisable in areas facing water scarcity.
Here a pump which generates pressure is connected to pipes, and water is
sprinkled through the fine nozzles of pipes.
2. Drip System
In drip system, water is released drop by drop exactly at the root zone using a hose
or pipe.
This method is considered as the effective one in regions where the availability of
water is less.
3. What is weed? Explain the different methods of weed control.
Weed:
In an agriculture field, many other undesirable plants may grow naturally along with the
main crop. These undesirable plants are called weeds.
1. Mechanical methods
This is the most common method in which weeds are destroyed physically.
Hand pulling or weeding with the help of weeding hoe is the oldest and most
efficient method for controlling weeds.
2. Tillage methods
It is one of the practical methods of destroying weeds of all categories.
Weeds are buried in the soil and also exposed to sun heat by deep ploughing.
3. Crop rotation
In this method, proper rotation of crops is followed for controlling crop associated
and parasitic weeds.
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4. Summer tillage
Deep ploughing after harvest of rabi crop and exposing underground parts of weeds
to strong sunlight during summer months is useful for destroying many annual and
perennial weeds.
5. Biological weed control
In this method, bio agents like insects and pathogens are used to control weeds. The
objectives of biological control are not eradication, but reduction and regulation of
the weed population.
6. Chemical methods
Chemical methods are very effective in certain cases and have great scope in weed
control.
The chemicals used for killing the weeds or inhibiting their growth are called
herbicides.
These chemicals are mixed with water and sprayed over the crops.
UNIT – 22 – CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The plants found in a particular area are known as ________
a) fauna b) flora c) endemic d) rare
2. Deforestation means ______
a) cleaning of forest b) to grow plants c) to look after plants d) None of these.
3. The Red Data Book gives a list of _________
a) endemic species b) extinct species c) natural species d) None of these
4. Insitu conservation is________
a) off site conservation b) on site conservation c) Both a and b d) None of these
5. Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in ________
a) 1986 b) 1972 c) 1973 d) 1971
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. WWF stands for World Wide Fund.
2. The animal found in a particular area is known as endemic species.
3. Red Data Book is maintained by IUCN.
4. Mudhumalai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Nilgiri district.
5. March 3rd is observed as ‘World Wildlife Day’
III. Match the following. Answer
Gir National Park Madhya Pradesh Gujarat
Sundarabans National Park Uttara khand West Bengal
Indira Gandhi National Park West Bengal Tamil Nadu
Corbett National Park Gujarat Uttara khand
Kanha National Park Tamil Nadu Madhya Pradesh
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IV. Answer very briefly.
1. What is global warming?
The solar energy falling on the earth’s surface is reflected into the atmosphere.
A part of this energy is reflected by the green house gases back to the earth to keep it warm
and a part goes into the space.
But gases such as methane and carbon dioxide accumulating in the atmosphere trap the heat
energy inside the atmosphere leading to increase in temperature. This is called global warming.
2. What is known as extint species?
Extinct species are those species that are no longer in existence.
3. Give few example for extinct species.
Royal Bengal Tiger , Asiatic Cheetah.
4. Name two endangered animals.
Snow leopard
Nilgiri Tahr
Asiatic Lion
5. What is IUCN?
International Union for Conservation of Nature
V. Answer briefly.
1. What is biosphere reserve?
Biosphere is a protected area where human population also forms the part of the system.
The area of these places will be around 5000 square kilometers.
They conserve the eco system, species and genetic resources.
These areas are set up mainly for economic development.
2. What is tissue culture?
It is a technique of growing plant cells, tissues, organs, seeds or other plant parts in a sterile
environment on a nutrient medium.
3. What is endangered species? Give two examples.
An endangered species is an animal or a plant that is considered to be at the risk of extinction.
It means that there are only few of them left on the earth and soon they might extinct.
Snow leopard, Bengal tiger, Asiatic lion, Purple frog and Indian giant squirrel are some of the
endangered animals in India.
4. Write the advantages of the Red Data Book.
Advantages of the Red Data Book
It helps to evaluate the population of a particular species.
The data given in this book can be used to evaluate the species at the global level.
The risk of a species becoming globally extinct can be estimated with the help of this book.
It provides guidelines for implementing measures for protecting endangered species.
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5. Mention four main reasons for the conservation of forests.
To restores ecological balance
It brings timely rainfall
Maintain biological diversity
Main source Oxygen is get from air
6. What do you understand by the term bio magnification?
Biomagnification is the increase in contaminated substances due to the intoxicating
environment.
The contaminants might be heavy metals such as mercury, arsenic, and pesticides such as
polychlorinated biphenyls and DDT
7. What is PBR?
People’s Bio-diversity Register is a document which contains comprehensive information on
locally available bio-resources including landscape and demography of a particular area or
village.
VI. Answer in detail.
1. What is deforestation? Explain the causes and effects of deforestation.
Destruction of forests in order to make the land available for different uses is known as
deforestation.
Causes of Deforestation
Deforestation may be caused by nature or it may be due to human activities.
Fires and floods are the natural causes for deforestation.
Human activities which are responsible for deforestation include agricultural expansion,
cattle breeding, illegal logging, mining, oil extraction, dam construction and
infrastructure development.
2. Discuss the advantages of in-situ and ex-situ conservation.
Advantages of In-situ conservation
Species can be adapted to their habitat.
Species can interact with each other.
Natural habitat is maintained.
It is less expensive and easy to manage.
Needs of indigenous people are protected.
Advantages of Ex-situ conservation
It prevents the decline of species.
Endangered animals can be breeded in these ways.
Threatened species are breeded and released in natural environment.
It is useful for conducting research and scientific work.
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3. Write about the types of conservation.
Conservation is of two types.
They are:
1. In-situ conservation (within habitat)
2. Ex-situ conservation (outside the habitat)
1. In-situ conservation
It is nothing but conservation of living resources within the natural ecosystem in
which they occur.
This is achieved by protection of natural habitat and maintenance of endangered
species in certain protected areas such as national parks, wildlife or bird sanctuaries
and biosphere reserves.
In India, there are about 73 national parks, 416 sanctuaries and 12 biosphere
reserves.
2. Ex-situ Conservation
It is the conservation of wildlife outside their habitat.
Establishing zoos and botanical gardens, conservation of genes, seedling and tissue
culture are some of the strategies followed in this method.
a. Botanical gardens b. Zoological parks c. Tissue Culture
d. Seed bank e. Cryo Bank
4. Write a note on Blue Cross.
Blue Cross is a registered animal welfare charity in the United Kingdom, founded in 1897 as
‘Our Dumb Friends League’.
The vision of this charity is that every pet will enjoy a healthy life in a happy home.
Now, Blue Cross of India is country’s largest animal welfare organizations and it runs several
animal welfare events like pet adaptation and animal right awareness.
Blue Cross of India has received several international and national awards.
This organization is entirely looked after by volunteers.
The main office is located at Guindy, Chennai, with all amenities like hospitals, shelters,
ambulance services and animal birth controls, etc.
Activities of the organization include, providing shelters, re-homing, adoption, animal birth
control, maintaining hospitals and mobile dispensary and providing ambulance services.
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VII. Higher Order Thinking Questions.
1. Is it possible to find dinosaurs today? Why?
Dinosaurs are not possible in this century.
But archaeologists have found some fossils.
It shows some of the species are still alive.
Most of them are birds like an eagle, crow, etc.
They got evolved and live in the form of different species.
So, it is not possible to find an actual live dinosaur today.
2. Animals are affected by deforestation. How?
Animals lose their habitat
Animals lose their food
3. Why did the numbers of tiger and black buck decrease?
Excessive hunting,
deforestation
habitat degradation.
UNIT – 23 – LIBRA OFFICE CALC
1. All functions begins with an ______ sign
a) = b) - c) > d) }
2. ______ function is used to calculate the total of a given set of values.
a) Average b) Sum c) Min d) Max
3. The _____ character is used in text formula.
a) Ampersand b) Comma c) Exclamation d) Hyperlink
4. Which of the following is a relational operator?
a) + b) > c) - d) NOT
5. The ________ function returns the smallest value in a set of values.
a) Average b) Sum c) Min d) Max
II. Answer in detail.
1. Explain count function with an example.
COUNT ()
Count the number of values
Ex. = COUNT (A2:A6)
Result is 5
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2. What is the purpose of charts?
The purpose of chart is to visualize the data for easy understanding.
To draw a chart, follow the procedure given below:
Select the data which you want to chart.
Click on Insert → Chart or click on the Insert Chart icon.
3. What is the use of Sorting?
Sorting within LibreOffice Calc orders the cells in a worksheet using the sort criteria that
you specify.
You can apply several criteria, and a sort applies each criterion consecutively.
Sorting is helpful when you add new information to a spreadsheet.
4. What is the use of MAX () and MIN () functions?
MAX() : Calculates the maximum value from a given set of values
MIN () : Calculates the minimum value from a given set of values
5. What is cell address?
The cell address is a combination of column letter and row number.
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,e;j cyfj;jpy; gpwe;j
midtUf;Fk; tuyhw;wpd;
gf;fq;fspy; xU gf;fk;
xJf;fg;gl;Ls;sJ.
Mdhy; me;j gf;fj;ij ,e;j
cyifNa gbf;f itg;gJ
cq;fs; ifapy; jhd; cs;sJ
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