GIT VIVA AND OSPE

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 HISTOLOGY

STATION NO : 1

1. Identify:
Ans: appendix
2. How did you identify it?
Ans: Due to lymphoid nodules.
3.What types of cells are in abundance?
Ans: Lymphoid nodules
4. Are villi present?
Ans: No
5. Function :
Ans: it is said a vestigial organ how ever it looks to work as a lymphoid tissue.

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STATION NO: 2

1. Identify?
Ans: Liver
2. Location of nucleus in hepatocyte?
Ans: Didn’t find it in laiq
3. Size and shape of nucleus?
Ans: single spherical nucleus
4. Amount of DNA in hepatocyte?
Ans: small sized nuclei are diploid, large nuclei are polyploidy or terteploid and some may have
64nof DNA
5. Ito cells and their location?
Ans: Ito cells also called hepatic stellate cells are located in the perisinusoidal space. They store
vitamin A as retinyl esters within the cytoplasm as lipid droplets.

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STATION NO : 3

1. identify in microscope ?
Ans: stomach
2. how do u identify it?
Ans: Gastric pits
3. what are the cells of fundic glands?
Ans: Mucous neck cells, Parietal cells, Chief cells, Enteroendocrine cells, Stem cells
4. what is Barrett esophagus?
Ans: intestinal metaplasia within esophageal squamous mucosa
5. is metaplasia a reversible change?
Ans: No

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STATION NO : 4

1. identify:
Ans: Gall bladder.
2. how do you identify it :
Ans: absence of submucosa, muscularis interna, Glands and goblet cells presence of fibro muscular
coat.
3. Function of gall bladder :
Ans: Its primary function is to store and concentrate bile, a yellow-brown digestive enzyme produced
by the liver.

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STATION NO : 5

1.identification:
Ans: ileum
2. Charachteristic features of the structure :
Ans: finger like villi lined by simple columnar epithillium
3. Which type of cells are present in villi :
Ans: Goblet cells and crypts of liberkunn.
4. Important structures mucosa ?
Ans: payer’s patches
5. Payer’s patches ?
Ans: Peyer's patches are small masses of lymphatic tissue found throughout the ileum region of
the small intestine.

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STATION NO : 6

1. Identification :
Ans: pancreas
2. What do you see in this diagram :
Ans: interlobar ducts, serous acini, islets of lengerhans.
3. Exocrine part of pancreas :
Ans: serous acini
4. Secretions :
Ans: Pancreatic juice, Gastrin, vip , Glucagon and insulin
5. How much part of the Gland is exocrine ?
Ans: 70 to 80%

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 ANATOMY

STATION NO : 7

1. identify the plane

Ans: Transpyloric plane
2. At which vertebrae level?
Ans: L1
3. Other structures that lie here
Ans: (9th costal cartilage, hilus of the kidney, gall bladder, duodenum, liver)
4. Relations of kidney to Transpyloric plane?
Ans: It passes through upper part of hilus of right kidney and through lower part of the hilus of left
kidney
5. Why right kidney is at lower level than left?
Ans: (due to liver)

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STATION NO : 8

1. Identify the structure?

Ans: (the mesentery of small intestine. Mesentry is a broad, fan-shaped fold of peritoneum
which suspends the coils of jejunum and ileum from the posterior abdominal wall)
2. What is lesser sac?
Ans: (lesser sac, also called omental bursa is a large recess of peritoneal cavity behind the stomach,
the 3. lesser omentum and caudate lobe of the live)
3. What are paracolic gutters? How they are formed?
Ans: The paracolic gutters (paracolic sulci, paracolic recesses) are peritoneal spaces between the
colon and the abdominal wall.

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STATION NO : 9

1. Identify the structure.

Ans: (Greater omentum is a large fold of peritoneum, which hangs from the greater curvature of
the stomach like an apron and covers the loop of intestine to a varying extent)
2. Derivates of lesser and greater Omentum?
Ans: (Don’t know the derivates. It might be Contensts..
Lesser Omentum: Hepatic artery, Portal vein, Bile duct, Lymph nodes, Hepatic plexus of
nerves) Greater omentum: Right and left gastroepiploic vessels. And fat)
3. Epiploic foramen and its boundaries.
Ans: It’s a vertical slit like opening through which lesser sac comminucates with
greater sac.
4. BOUNDARIES.
Ans: Anterior: portal vein, proper hepatic artery and common
bile duct.
Posterior: IVC, suprarenal gland and T12 vertebra
Superior: caudate process of liver
Inferior: First part of duodenum and horizontal part of hepatic artery
5. Parietal peritoneum and its nerve supply.
Ans: It lines the inner surface of the abdominal wall and pelvic walls and lower surface of diaphragm.
Its nerve supply is same as that of overlying body wall.

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STATION NO : 10

1. identify?
Ans: (Inguinal canal is an oblique passage in the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall,
situated just above the medial half of the inguinal ligament)
2. what is falx inguinalis?
Ans: (It is formed by the fusion of the lowest aponeurotic fibers of the internal oblique and the
transverses muscle.
and is attached to the pubic crest and and medial part of pectin pubis. Also called Conjoint
tendon)
3. what are the boundaries of hesselbach triangle?
Ans: (Inferior epigastric artery, lateral border of rectus abdominis and inguinal ligament)
4. what are the types of hernias?
Ans: (Umblical, Femoral, Inguinal, Epigastric, Divarication of recti, Incisional, Lumbar.

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STATION NO : 11

1. identify structure
Ans: (abdominal aorta)
2. Length of structure?
Ans: 13cm
3. Arteries that supply digestive tract?
Ans: Ventral branches: Coelic trunk, superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
4. Arteries that supply endocrine and urogenital Organs?
Ans: Suprarenal, testicular and ovarian
5. At what level aorta crosses the diaphargm?
Ans: T12

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STATION NO : 12

1. identify :
Ans: Inguinal canal
2. Boundaries?
Ans: (Anterior: skin, superficial fascia, external oblique aponeurosis.
Posterior: Fascia transversalis, Extraperitoneal tissue, Parietal Peritoneum. (in whole
extent) Conjoint tendon and inguinal ligament (medial two-thirds)
interfoveolar ligament (lateral one third)
Roof: internal oblique and transverses
abdominis)
Floor: Inguinal and lacunar ligament
3. Direct and indirect hernia?
Ans:
4. boundaries of hesselbach triangle?
Ans: (Inferior epigastric artery, lateral border of rectus abdominis and inguinal ligament)

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STATION NO : 13

1. identify :
Ans: EPIPLOIC FORAMEN.
2. What are the boundries?
Ans: BOUNDARIES.
Anterior : portal vein, proper hepatic artery and common bile duct Posterior: IVC, suprarenal
gland and T12 vertebra .
Superior: caudate process of liver.
Inferior: First part of duodenum and horizontal part of hepatic artery.
3. It is the connection between?
Ans: Lesser and greater sac.
4. Structures found in the stomach bed?
Ans: diaphragm, Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, pancreas, transverse mesocolon, splenic
flexure, splenic artery.

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STATION NO :14

1. Identification of labeled structure A and B.

Ans: one was proper hepatic artery and the other was left colic artery.
2. What are the branches of abdominal aorta that supplies the digestive visceras?
Ans: celiac trunk, the superior mesenteric artery, and the inferior mesenteric artery
3. Which arteries supply the urogenital and endocrine organs?
Ans:
4. At what level it starts and ends?
Ans:

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 PHYSIOLOGY
STATION NO : 15

Bile and Gall Bladder (Observed)

1. What is bile?
Ans: Bile or gall is a dark green to yellowish brown fluid, produced by the liver, that aids the
digestion of lipids in the small intestine.
2. Bile composition?
Ans: Water, bile salts, bilirubin, cholesterol, lecithins, Na, HCO3.
3. Name of ducts?
Ans: Bile canaliculli, terminal bile ducts, hepatic duct, common bile duct.
4. Function of bile salts?
Ans: emulsification and absorption of fat.
5. Cck and bile relation?
Ans: CCK stimulates the gall bladder contraction to release bile.
6. Why gall bladder is called bladder?
Ans: because it is a sac like structure.

STATION NO : 16

Swallowing and Deglutition (observed)

1.Its stages?
Ans: Oral, pharyngeal, esophageal
2. Mouth men kis ki digestion start hoti ha?
Ans: Carbohydrates
3. why cant we breathe during swallowing?
Ans: Because at the time pharynx is serving as a passage of food
4. Types of salivary reflexes :
Ans: conditioned and un conditioned
5. difference between conditioned and un conditioned :
Ans: unconditioned : inherited or inborn example : secretion of saliva when food is kept in mouth.
conditioned : Aquired example : secretion of SALIVA WITHOUT even a thought.

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STATION NO : 17

Pancreatic secretions (observed)

1. what are the constituents of pancreatic secretions?
Ans: enzymes and sodium bicarbonate
2. which enzymes are present in pancreatic secretions?
Ans: Protein digesting: Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase
fat digesting: Pancreatic lipase, cholesterol esterase, phospholipase
3. how much pancreatic secretions are produced per day?
Ans: 1000 ml
4. factors which stimulate CCK release?
Ans: fatty food

STATION NO : 18

salivary gland
1. Mucus In which salivary glands?
Ans: sublingual and submandibular
2. Ptyalin function?
Ans: breakdown starch into simple sugar
3. duct system?
Ans: ducts modify the secretion by secreting potassium and bicarbonate
4. bacteria Killing enzymes?
Ans: lysozyme
5. antibody in saliva?
Ans: IgA
6. mechanism of saliva production and the mechanism of more saliva produced in morning
than sleep:
It is under the sympathetic and parasympathetic control. Both increase the saliva production but
parasympathetic activity is more important.

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STATION NO : 19

1. The 3rd Contraction shows?

Ans: Irregularly spaced segmentation
2. Where does it occur?
Ans: These are the type of segmentation contractions which occur in small intestine
3. What are haustrations?
Ans: the combined contractions of longitudinal and circular movements of large intestine causes it
to bludge outward to baglike sacs called haustrations
4. What is the name of 1st and 2nd contraction?
Ans: Regularly spaced and isolated
5. Purpose of Segmental Contraction?
Ans: They chop the chyme and promotes mixing of food with the secretions
6. Function of Ileocecal Valve :
Ans: to prevent backflow of fecal contents from colon to small intestine

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 BIOCHEMISTRY
STATION NO : 20

A 45 years old patient came to us with polydipsia polyphagia polyurea and Frequent UTI has
blurred vision and generalized weakness answer the following questions.
1. What has happened to patient?
Ans: Diabetes mellitus
2. What happens in diabetes?
Ans: Diabetes mellitus (DM), commonly referred to as diabetes, is a group of metabolic diseases
in which there are high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period
3. What is insulin?
Ans: Hormone released by pancrease to lower the blood glucose leveL
4. What happens in insulin resistance?
Ans: the cells in the body are resistant to the insulin and are unable to use it as effectively, leading
to high blood sugar.
5. which cells in endocrine pancreas release insulin
Ans: beta cells.

STATION NO : 21

Hypoglycemia (Observed)

1. what is hypoglycemia?
Ans: deficiency of glucose in the bloodstream
2. normal sugar levels?
Ans: 70-115mg/dl
3. hormones released?
Ans: glucagon, epinephrine.

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STATION NO :22

1. What is colorimeter?
Ans: an instrument for measuring the intensity of colour.
2. What is transmission?
Ans:
3. What is optical density?
Ans: a measure of the extent to which a substance transmits light or other electromagnetic
radiation.
4. What is the transmission when colour is dark?
Ans: Low

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STATION NO : 23

TAG and Lipid Profile

1. Normal cholesterol concentration

Ans: (135-200mg/dl)
2. Hyper and Hypolipidemia and its reasons
Ans: Hyper: Increased intake of cholesterol, fructose and sucrose intake. Lack of exercise, poorly
controlled diabetes, hypothyroidism
Hypo: Malnutrition, Anaemia, hyperthyroidism, acute infection
3. things that should be avoided in hyperlipidemia
Ans: (can mention the reasons)

STATION NO : 24

Glucose KIT Method

1. purpose of using standard solution?

Ans: Standard solutions are used to determine the concentrations of other substances. Standard
solutions are also commonly used to determine the concentration of an analyte species. By
comparing the absorbance of the sample solution at a specific wavelength to a series of standard
solutions at differing known concentrations of the analyte species, the concentration of the sample
solution can be found
2. color of quinoneimine dye?
Ans: red
3. what is normal glucose level?
Ans: 75-115mg/dl OR 4.2-6.4mmol/l (fasting)
4. what is hyperglycemia?
Ans: increased blood glucose level.

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STATION NO : 25

Plasma proteins test (observed)

1. test for albumin is carried out in acidic or basic medium?

Ans: Don’t know
2. what is albumin/globulin ratio?
Ans: 2:1
3. conditions in which it is increased or decreased?
Ans: Hyperproteinemia: acute& chronic inflammatory conditions and
malignancies
Hypoproteinemia: Dietary deficiency, malabsorption, liver or reaal disease,
burns.

STATION NO : 26

cholesterol (OBS)
1, Cholesterol k normal levels?
Ans: (135-200mg/dl)
2. cholesterol found in? dietary sources?
Ans: Egg, fat of animal origin, egg yolk, meat, liver, brain and dietary fats
3. cholesterol inc. and Decreased in which pathological conditions?
Ans: Increased levels due to : Increased intake of cholesterol, fructose and sucrose intake. Lack
of exercise, poorly controlled diabetes, hypothyroidism
Decreased levels due to : Malnutrition, Anaemia, hyperthyroidism, acute infection
4. Formula
Ans: C=200 x A(sample)/ A(standard) = mg/dl

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STATION NO : 27

Scenerio. Definition of Biochemistry written

1. What are bioenergetic process in our body?

Ans: which give energy by breakdown of macromolecules
2. From where we get energy?
Ans: glycolysis and kreb cycle etc
3. Highest source of energy?
Ans: Beta oxidation of fatty acid
4. What are the biomolecules produced?
Ans: (ATP)
5. Their deficiency in kids/Adults can cause?
Ans:

STATION NO : 28

Ammonia (UNOBS)
1. organ In which ammonia Produced?
Ans: by all body tissues
2. most important reaction?
Ans: generate ammonia from glutamine by glutaminase
3. enzyme involved?
Ans: glutamate dehydrogenase, glutaminase, aminotransferase
4. Sources of Ammonia?
Ans: glutamine, amine, purine and pyrimidine.

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 PATHOLOGY

STATION NO : 29

1. what is the figure

showing?
Ans: Intussuception
2. Why it happens in
children?
Ans: there is usually no underlying anatomic defect but in some cases it may be due to rota virus
3. Why it happens in adult?
Ans: an intraluminal mass generally serves as the point of traction that causes
4. intussusception What are the complications?
Ans: Intussusception can cut off the blood supply to the affected portion of the intestine. If left
untreated, lack of blood causes tissue of the intestinal wall to die. Tissue death can lead to a tear
(perforation) in the intestinal wall, which can cause an infection of the lining of the abdominal
cavity (peritonitis).

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 STATION NO : 30

1. Identify the structure?

Ans: Gastric adenocarcinoma
2. Its causes :
Ans: H-pylori, chronic gastritis, barrets esophagus, gastric adenoma.
3.

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STATION N0 : 31

1. identify the pic?

Ans: Grass pathology pic of liver cirrhosis.
2. what is cirrhosis?
Ans: End stage of chronic liver disease.
3. diagnostic tests for cirrhosis?
Ans: LFT, biopsy, MRI, CT scan.
4. what is hepatic steatosis?
Ans: accumulation of fat in the liver.

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STATION N0 : 32

1. H-pylori effects stomach ?

Ans: (increased acid production and disruption of normal gastric and duodenal protective
mechanism)
2. Complication of gastritis?
Ans: (Peptic Ulcer Disease and Adenocarcinoma)
Gastric carcinoma k 3 causes?
(H-Pylori, Chronic Gastritis, Gastric adenoma, Barrett esophagus)
3. Cirrhosis ki definition?
Ans: (End stage liver disease characterized by irreversible diffuse fibrosis with formation of
regenerative nodules)
4. Hepatitis k types?
Ans: (Viral: Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E. Autoimmune)
5. Hormones released in stomach and duodenum?
Ans: stomach: gastrin
duodenum: secretin,cck
5. Name some gastritis and there causes?
Ans: (Acute, Chronic and Autoimmune)
6. PUD and chronic gastritis can be treated by proton pump inhibitors name two of them?
Ans: Omeparazole , esomeparazole.

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STATION N0 : 33

1. identify :
Ans: pseudomembranous colitis.

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STATION N0 : 34

1. Identify :
Ans: FAP ( basis Picture )
2. First hit hypothesis :
Ans: Patient no rn with on mutant allele of APC
3. Significance of FAP :
Ans: Colorectal adenocarcinoma develops in 100% of untreated FAP patients si Prophylactically
COLECTOMY IS STANDARD THERAPY.
4. Adenocarcinoma séquence :
Ans:
STEP 1 :Knudons two hit hypothesis.
Early adenoma APC gene earliest gene.
STEP 2 : Itermediate adenoma K R A S gene.
STEP3: Late adenoma SMAD4 gene
STEP 4 : Carcinoma P53 tumor supressor gene
5. Associated syndromes :
Ans: Gardners syndrome: FAP+ Ostiomas
+fibromatosis. Turcot syndrome: FAP + CNS
tumor

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STATION N0 : 35

1. Identification :
Ans: Menetriers disease ( have a look on pic from basis )
2. Define Gross and microscopic findings :
Ans: Hypoprotenemia , edema , weightloss , diarrhea , enlarged rugae , infiltrates of lymphocytes ,
glandular atrophy
3. Another hypertrophic gastropathy :
Ans: ZES
4. Etiology of ZES menetrier :
Ans: exact cause is unknown
5. ZES is associated with:
Ans: MEN-1 syndrome.

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STATION NO : 36

1. Identify :
Ans: A large greasy yellow liver
2. Stain used :
Ans: Masoon trichome stain
3. Causes :
Ans: Idiopathic unknown cause , cryptogenic
4. Risk factors :
Ans: Metabolic syndrome ( increase lipid , increase insulin , decreased sensitivity ) ,
obesity , dyslipidemia , hyperinsulinemia , type 2 DM
5. Types of fat in fatty liver disease :
Ans: Mainly TGs
6. Diabetic fatty liver mechanism :
Ans: TWO HIT MODEL :
7. Hepatic fat accumulation :
Oxidative stress: This stress act upon accumulated hepatic lipid peroxidation and release
of lipid peroxidase which produce ROS ( Réaction species)
Macroscopic and microscopic features :
Microscopic : Steatosis , neutrophils , malory bodies , hepatocyte death , sinosoidal death
Macroscopic : Large yellow greasy liver measuring 4-6 kg.

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STATION NO : 37

1. Identify :
Ans: Gall stones ( cholestérol stones )
2. Risk factors :
Ans: Aging , obesity , Rapid weight loss , bile stain , oral contraceptives ,
pregnancy , high fiber diet
3. MC complication :
Ans: Cholecystitis , obstruction , acute pancreatitis , gall bladder cancer , post prandial RUQ
pain , dyspepsia , vomiting
4. Mechanism of bile supersaturation :
Ans: Long time storage: supersaturation of cholestérol and lipid excess crystal
neucleazation , concentration.

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 COMMUNITY MEDICINE
STATION NO : 38

1. What is this organism?

Ans: Entamoeba
2. What is the disease associated with it?
Ans: amoebic dysentery
3. Transmission via?
Ans: ingestion of contaminated food
4. Invasive forms :
Ans: Invasive forms of the disease lead to amoebic dysentery in which the trophozoites invade the
intestinal wall, leading to the formation of amoebic ulcers
5. Host :
Ans: Human.

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STATION NO : 39

1. Identify
Ans: Mosquito.
2. Mention its two species .
Ans : Plasmodium Ovale, Falciparum, vivax, Malariae.
3. Two diseases caused by it :
Ans : Benign and malignant tertiary malaria.
4. Its prevention :
Ans : Use of nets and insecticide spray.
5. Where do this grow ?
Ans : on stagnant water

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 STATION NO : 40

1. identify the disease?

Ans: chronic bacterial disease that is contracted chiefly by infection during sexual intercourse,
but also congenitally by infection of a developing fetus.
2. this disease is caused by?
Ans: Treponema pallidum.
3. mode of transmission?
Ans: spread primarily by sexual activity.
4. prevention methods
Ans: avoid sexual intercourse with such person.

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STATION NO : 41

Nutrition

1. Define Nutrient
Ans: A nutrient is anything that nourishes a living being
2. Name carbon containing nutrients "inorganic compounds" :
Ans: THIOCINATES.
3. Vitamin Interactions?
Ans:
4. What are the sources through which we can obtain nutrients?
Ans: vegetables, meat, fruits etc.
5. balance diet ?
Ans : base meals on starchy foods like potatoes, bread, rice or pasta. have some dairy or dairy
alternatives (such as soya drinks) eat some beans, pulses, fish, eggs, meat and other protein.

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 STATION NO : 42

1. Identify:
Ans: giardia lambia ?
2. How Will you identify ?( give 2 hints )
Ans: Trophozoite ingested RBCs, liver abscess
3. Mode of transmission?
Ans: Fecal-oral route
4. It causes what other specific problems other than diarrhea?
Ans:
5. What does it invades ?
Ans: It attaches to epithelium by ventral disc , only Small
bowel.
6. How would a patient présent ?
Ans: Watery foul smell diarrhea , cramps , weight miss , nausea.

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 PHARMACOLOGY
STATION NO : 43
ANTACIDS

1. What are antacids?

Ans: they are weak bases that react with gastric acid to form water and salt to diminish gastric
acidity
2. Market names of 3 antacids
Ans: Alka Seltzer, Eno and Gaviscon
3. Should they be taken before meal or after meal?
Ans: After
4. Give reason for your answer
Ans: because food delays gastric emptying thus allowing more time for antacid to react
5. name two Important antacids?
Ans: Aluminium and Magnesium hydroxide
6. Can antacids be used in duodenal Ulcers nd why?
Ans: yes due to their acid neutralizing capability
7. Three Adverse effects of ALOH3?
Ans: constipation, hypophosohatemia,systemic alkalosis
8. disorder due to aluminium hydroxide?
Ans: systemic alkalosis

STATION NO : 44
PROTON PUMP INHABITOR

1. what is the drug of choice for given case?

Ans: Omeprazole.
2. name some PPIs?
Ans: Omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantpoprazole, lansoprazole, dexlansoprazole.
3. write some conditions in which they are used?
Ans: stress ulcers, erosive esophagitis, duodenal ulcers, Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome.
4. side effects?
Ans: Fractures, headache, GI disturbance.
5. drug drug interactions?
Ans: Inhibit the metabolism of Warfarin, Phenytoin, diazepam and cyclosporine.

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STATION NO : 45

Laxatives
1. Name of Stool softerner?
Ans: Docusate sodium,Docusate calcium, docusate potassium.
2. Laxative which doesn't cause irritation?
Ans: Senna.
3. Ideal antacid should have the following Characteristics?
Ans: The antacid should not be absorbable or cause systemic alkalosis.
The antacid should not be a laxative or causes constipation.
The antacid should exert its effect rapidly and over a long period of time.
The antacid should buffer in the pH 4-6 range.
4. Where does Omeprazole act?
Ans: H+/K+ - ATPase enzyme system.
5. Drug food interaction for antacids ?
Ans : Don’t take food with antacids.

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STATION NO. 46: (Anatomy-Observed)

Q 1: Identify the histological slide?

Ans: Ileum
Q 2: Identify the structure marked by the arrow?
Ans: Peyer’s patches (collection of lymphatic nodule)
Q 3: what is the epithelium of this tissue?
Ans: Simple columnar epithelium
Q 4: Which macroscopic and microscopic structure are responsible to increase the surface
area of this tissue?
Ans: Following macroscopic and microscopic structures increase the surface area of the tissue
1. Microvilli
2. Plica circularis
3. villi

Q 5: What is the clinical significance of the marked structure in the pathogenesis of typhoid
fever?
Ans: In the 2nd week of typhoid fever the peyer’s patches are infiltered with neutrophils and
monocytes and enlarged to cause the narrowing of leumens.

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STATION NO. 47 ( Biochem-unobserved)

Scenario: Mr. Gandhi used to starve himself for a long time.

Q 1: What are the biochemical changes in prolonged starvation?

Ans: Prolongedstarvation causes hypoglycemia and depletion of glycogen stores fatty acids
change into ketone bodies to supply energy hypoglycemic ketoacidosis
Q 2: What is glycolysis?
Ans: It is the oxidation of glucose to yield energy
Q 3: Define glycogen, glycogenesis and glycogenolysis?
Ans: Glycogen: is a highly branced and stored form of glucose especially in liver and skeletal
muscles
Glycogenesis: is formation of glycogen from glucose primarily in liver an skeletal muscles
Glycogenolysis: is a breakdown of glycogen into glucose
Q 4: How many ATPs are produced by the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule?
Ans: 38 ATPs
Q 5: What is gluconeogenesis?
Ans: It is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and fatty acids

STATION NO. 48 (Biochem-unobserved)

Scenario: A patient presented with yellow colored sclera, having complaint of abdominal pain, with
dark colored urineand palor clay white colored stool. His liver function test reveals: Normal
unconjugated bilirubin, raised serum conjugated bilirubin, urinary urobilinogen abscent, and
inceased alkaline phosphatase
Q 1: what is your probable diagnosis?
Ans: obstructive jaundice
Q 2: How is bilirubin conjugated?
Ans: In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid by the enzyme glucuronyltransfease,
making it water soluble
Q 3: What is the reason for dark colored urine?
Ans: presence of conjugated bilirubin
Q 4: What is normal level of bilirubin?
Ans: 0.2-0.8 mg/dl
Q 5: What are the causes of obstructive jaundice?
Ans:
 Intra-luminal causes: choledocholithiasis, ascariasis, schitosomiasis
 Mural causes: malignantstricture cholangiocarcinoma, benign stricture sclerosing
cholangitis
 Extrinsic Causes: Ca head of pancreas, peri-ampulary carcinoma

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STATION NO.49 (Anatomy-unobserved)
Q 1: Identify the structure marked by arrow and name its branches?
Ans: abdominal aorta and its branches are: inferior phrenic, gonadal, common iliac, adrenal , renal
arteries, celiac trunk (left gastric artery, splenic artery, common hepatic artery), superior
mesenteric artery, , inferior mesenteric
Q 2: Name the paired parietal branches of abdominal aorta?
Ans: inferior phrenic artery, 4 pairs of lumbar arteries, median sacral arteries
Q 3: At what level does the abdominal aorta begin with?
Ans: At the level of T12
Q 4: Which investigation is useful for the confirmation of aortic aneurysm?
Ans: Abdominal ultrsound
Q 5: Name the paired visceral branches of abdominal aorta?
Ans: Supra renal artries, renal artries , gonadal (Testicular and ovarian artries)

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STATION NO.50 (Anatomy-unobserved)
Q 1: Identify the structure marked by the arrow?
Ans: abdominal aorta
Q 2: What is the length of the structure?
Ans: abdominal aorta is approx. 13 cm in length
Q 3: Give the course of this structure from where it starts and where it ends?
Ans: it begins at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm at the level of T12 vertebra and ends at the level
of L4 vertebra by dividing into right and left common iliac artries
Q 4: Name the branches of aorta supplying the digestive tract?
Ans: celiac artery, surperior mesenteric artry, inferior mesenteric artery
Q 5: Name the branches of abdominal aorta supplying the urogenital and endocrine organs?
Ans: para renal artery, Renal artery, gonadal (Testicular or ovarian) artery

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STATION NO. 51 (Pathology-observed)
Q 1: Identify the pathology in the given liver tissue?
Ans: cirrhosis of liver/nodules formation
Q 2: Name the three enzymes found in the serum and used for diagnosis of liver injury?
Ans:
I. serum aspartate aminotransferase
II. serum alanine aminotransferase
III. serum lactate dehydrogenase

Q 3: What are the post hepatic causes of portal hypertension?

Ans:
I. severe right sided heart failure
II. constrictive pericarditis
III. hepatic vein outflow obstruction

Q 4: (a)Which cells are involved in scar formation in liver tissue? (b) What are the leading
causes of cirrhosis?
Ans: (a) stellate cells
(b) (i) chronic hepatitis B
(ii) chronic hepatitis C
(iii) Non-alcohlic fatty liver
(iv) Alcohlic liver disease
Q 5: (a) What are the porto-systemic shunts? (b) Give two specific sites?
Ans:
(a) With the rise of portal system pressure, the flow is reversedfrom portal to systemic
circulation by dilation of collateral vessels and development of new vessels. Venous bypass
develop where ever the portal and systemic circulations share the common capillary beds
(b) i. veins around and within the rectum (hemorrhoids)
ii. Esophago-gastric junction (varices)
iii. Retroperitonium
iv. The falciform ligament of liver (involving periumblical and abdominal wall collaterals)

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STATION NO.52 ( Biochem-observed)
Scenario: A 58-year old banker experienced sudden, severe crushing pain in his chest, radiating to
the left arm. He was immediately rushed to the emergency room
Q 1: what is the most probable diagnosis?
Ans: Ischemic heart disease (acute myocardial infarction)
Q 2: why are the HDL and LDL called good and bad cholesterol respectively?
Ans: HDL is called good cholesterol because it transports cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the
liver, so does not accumulate in the vessels. LDL is bad cholesterol because it transports cholesterol
from liver to peripheral tissues and causes atheroscelerosis.
Q 3: What is normal range of HDL and LDL cholesterol?
Ans: HDL > 40mg/dl
LDL < 100mg/dl
Q 4 : What is the normal range of cholesterol ?
Ans: 150-200mg/dl
Q 5: What is atherosclerosis?
Ans: Disease characterized by deposition of lipids in the intima of blood vessels

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STATION NO. 53 (Physiology-observed)
Q 1: What does the picture show?
Ans: small intestinal motility
Q 2: Gives the basic types of small intestinal movements?
Ans:
1. Propulsive movements/peristalsis
2. Mixing movements/segmentations

Q 3: What are the basic functions of small intestinal movements?

Ans:
1. Propulsive movements, which causes food to move forwardalong the tract at an
appropiraterat eto accommodatedigestionand absorption.
2. Mixing movements, which keep the intestinal contents thoroughly mixed all the times.

Q 4: What are the main stimuli for generation of small intestinal motility?
Ans:
1. Distention of the Gut.
2. Chemical or physical irritation of the epithelial linning of small intestine.
3. Parasympathetic stimulation*

Q 5: Name the hormones that affect the gastrointestinal motility?

Ans: Gastrin, motilin, secretin, cholecystokinin

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STATION NO.54 (Biochem-unobserved)
Scenario: A 45 year old patient came to the opd with a known history of hypertension. Lab
investigations shows cholesterol level =300mg/dl
Q 1: What is the normal value of triglycerides?
Ans: <150 mg/dl
Q 2: What does lipid profile includes?
Ans: It measures level of total cholesterol, HDL, TAG, and calculated LDL
Q 3: Why is the hemolyzed serum not used for the result?
Ans: hemolyzed serums can give false results ; alteration in lab values so it is not appropriate to use
hemolyzed serums for test results (do confirm this question)
Q 4: Why does hypercholesterolemia increases the risk of atherosclerosis?
Ans: hypercholesterolemia leads to increase in VLDL and LDL and decrease in HDL leads to
accumulation of cholesterol in the intima of artries (clogged artries) or hardening of the arteries
Q 5: What are the sources of triglycerides in plasma?
Ans: chylomicron (90%), VLDL (60%), LDL (8%), HDL (5%)

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STATION NO.55 (Biochem-unobserved)
Q 1: What is the normal range of cholesterol?
Ans: 135-200mg/dl
Q 2: Which sample is required for estimation of cholesterol?
Ans: Serum/EDTA plasma
Q 3: Name any three conditions in which cholesterol level is decreased?
Ans: Malnutrition, anemia, hyperthyroidism, acute infection
Q 4: What is the function of HDL cholesterol?
Ans: HDL transports cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver, so does not accumulate in the
vessels.
Q 5: What are the dietary sources of cholesterol?
Ans: egg, fat of animal origin, egg yolk, meat, liver, brain and dietry fats

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STATION NO. 56 (Anatomy observed)
Q 1: Identify the tissue?
Ans: Large intestine
Q 2: What is the linning epithelium of this tissue?
Ans: Simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells predominent
Q 3: What is the differentiating feature of this part of the large intestine from the others?
Ans: Absence of teniae coli in the outermost layer of the muscularis externa
Q 4: What is appendices epiploicae?
Ans: The serosa of the colon is characterized by by the presence of muscularis externa
Q 5: If a histological slide contains the lymphoid masses in the mucosa and sub mucosa with
absence of intestinal villi, which structure will this be?
Ans: Appendix

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STATION NO. 57 (Physiology-observed)
Q 1: Identify A, B and C?
Ans:
A- Parotid gland
B- Submandibular gland
C- Sublingual gland

Q 2: What is the average daily amount of saliva produced each day?

Ans: 800-1500 ml each day
Q 3: Name the digestive enzymes present in saliva?
Ans: Lingual lipase and Alpha amylase (PTYALIN)
Q 4: Which type of secretion is secreted by parotid gland?
Ans: Parotid gland secretes serous secretion
Q 5: Name the types of antibody present in saliva?
Ans: IgA

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STATION NO. 58 (Anatomy-unobserved)
Q 1: Identify the organ in laminated sheet?
Ans: Liver
Q 2: What is its blood supply and venous drainage?
Ans: It is supplied by hepatic artery and portal vein.
Venous drainage is through hepatic veins, which open directly in inferior vena cava
Q 3: Describe its various segments ?
Ans: This organ is divided into eight(8) segments which are arranged clockwise around porta
hepatis. Each segment is an independent functional unit.
Q 4: Name the structures related to its right lobe?
Ans: ______& inferior: hepatic flexure of colon, duodenum, gall bladder, inferior vena cava ,
oesophagus and stomach
Q 5: What is porta hepatis?
Ans: present on the inferior surface of liver where structures ent

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