LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

MOCK CLAT 40

TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

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Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader

rs . Maximum Marks : 120

10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for

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(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question

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To
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on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
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shall result tr-in6O1S
the 2P2U3Rtr-6C1G of his/her
8Q3Ocancellation Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
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tr-Programme
6O1S8Q3O2P is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
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 CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 9
Legal Reasoning 53-84 14
Logical Reasoning 85-108 27
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 34

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): “I have lost friends, some by death... others by sheer inability to cross the street,” wrote
Virginia Woolf in 1931, and if there is one book that embodies this quote, it is Hisham Matar’s My Friends,
longlisted for this year’s Booker. Friendships are most certainly an ‘education similar to literature’.
My Friends spans 30 years, from 1980 to the Libyan revolution of 2011, told within a two-hour-long walk across
London undertaken by the protagonist, Khaled. The story begins with the end — two friends part and the reader
does not know why. As one further wades through the waters, it is revealed that Khaled’s relationship with his
friend is not an ordinary one. In 1980, when Khaled was still in Libya, living with his parents, a story was
narrated on radio by a journalist as an apparent sign of protest against Libyan dictator Muammar Gaddafi.
Killings, assassinations and abduction were routine and exiled Libyans were not exempt from his surveillance.

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The said story was by a young Libyan writer called Hosam Zowa, who was then studying in Trinity College,

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Dublin. Titled ‘The Given and the Taken’, it was a bizarre tale of a man being eaten alive by his cat until he ‘was
nothing but his head and torso’. Deeply moved, Khaled could never shake off the feeling this allegory had cast

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on him. Three years later, he moves to the University of Edinburgh, London, to study English literature. And it
isn’t until years later in Paris that he actually meets Hosam and thus begins the chronicle of their profound
friendship.

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It’s rumoured that Picasso was busy having his coffee somewhere in France while World War I raged on in the
background. Hosam’s character juggles with the presupposed idea of a reactionary artist and on top of that, a

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courageous one in the face of tyranny. While being ordinary human beings living in the shadows of their own

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predicament, it is expected that an artist be an exemplary force in times of crises.

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Mustafa, another dear friend of Hosam’s who arrives in London at about the same time, is disappointed when
Hosam is unable to speak up against the dictator when given a platform. Ideologies are often always at
loggerheads in the novel. Khaled himself admits about his friendship with Mustafa and Hosam: “I was convinced

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that my two friends represented two separate and irreconcilable parts of my life that I had somehow to keep in

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balance, and that if it were not for me, they would never see each other.”
Upon reaching London, each of them, like “hopeful fishermen, cast their net wide”. London as a setting becomes
both an abstract ‘bottomless well’ and the material reality in which events unfold. It is also Khaled’s walking
companion and has sometimes a gory life of its own. The characters are continuously scrutinised for having too
much courage or shamed for relegating things to fate. The author manages to keep the reader in the proverbial
shoes of Khaled as he is consumed by the idea of his only two friends turning into men of action while he watches
from the sidelines, forever exiled.
Having penned down his lived experience in his Pulitzer-winning 2017 memoir The Return, Matar comes out as
an ‘exemplary sufferer’ with this
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book.
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Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “Facing up to tyranny | Review of ‘My Friends’ by
Hisham Matar” written by Ms. Pranavi Sharma and published in The Hindu.
1. What can be inferred about Khaled’s role among his friends based on the excerpt from Hisham Matar’s "My
Friends"?
(a) Khaled serves as a mediator who maintains peace and balance among his friends with conflicting ideologies.
8Q3O2P2U 3R
6O1SKhaled
tr-(b) is a passive observer in his friendships, seldom engaging directly in the ideological conflicts between
Hosam and Mustafa.
(c) Khaled’s friendships with Hosam and Mustafa primarily revolve around shared artistic pursuits rather than
political ideologies.
(d) Khaled actively encourages confrontations between Hosam and Mustafa to stimulate deeper ideological
discussions.

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2. Identify the sentence from the passage that employs the passive voice:
(a) "Khaled’s relationship with his friend is not an ordinary one."
(b) "A story was narrated on radio by a journalist as an apparent sign of protest against Libyan dictator Muammar
Gaddafi."
(c) "Khaled could never shake off the feeling this allegory had cast on him."
(d) "Hosam’s character juggles with the presupposed idea of a reactionary artist."
3. What is the intended symbolism behind depicting the characters as "hopeful fishermen" in London within the
narrative?
(a) It signifies their attempts to navigate through the complexities of urban life.
(b) It alludes to their ongoing search for personal and professional stability in a foreign land.
(c) It underscores their perseverance in overcoming the unpredictable challenges they face in a new city.
(d) It metaphorically illustrates their endeavor to find meaningful connections in a new environment.
4. Which of the following sentences can aptly describe Khaled's character?

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(a) Khaled is a dynamic figure, often taking the lead in confronting societal injustices he encounters.
(b) He is a contemplative soul, whose past experiences primarily shape his cautious approach to new
relationships.

rs .
(c) Khaled is primarily characterized by his resilience in the face of adversity, often using his wits to overcome
obstacles.

relationships amidst political turmoil.

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(d) He is a reflective individual, profoundly shaped by his literary pursuits and the complex web of his personal

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5. Which word from the passage best conveys the meaning "incapable of being brought into harmony"?

a
(a) Exemplary (b) Irreconcilable (c) Presupposed (d) Allegory
6.

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The author would agree with all of the following statements, EXCEPT:

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(a) Literature serves as a mirror, reflecting the tumultuous experiences of its characters through symbolic

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narratives.
(b) The bond of friendship is a transformative force that can deeply influence one's personal and ideological
development.

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(c) Exiled individuals often transport the cultural and political conflicts of their homelands, which subsequently
influence their new interactions.
(d) Artistic endeavors, particularly in literature and friendship, have little impact on personal growth and societal
perception.

Passage (Q.7-Q.12): The Industrial Revolution is an appropriate name for a period in history where major
innovation led to huge worldwide change. This era created changes in business, the work that people did, and
society. These shifts continue to affect the world today.
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Before the Industrial Revolution, most people in Europe worked either as farmers or artisans making hand-
crafted goods. The ways in which people lived had not changed significantly since the Middle Ages. Once
industrialization began, however, work and family life would be transformed forever.
Most historians say that the Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain around 1750. Before this time, people
rarely traveled beyond their small villages. Rural people worked as subsistence farmers, meaning they grew
crops to feed
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themselves and their families.
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Populations grew during the 18th century and farmers increased food production to feed the larger population.
Machines started to be used in farming, so fewer agricultural workers were required. Larger, more advanced
farms replaced subsistence farms.
The Industrial Revolution demonstrates the idea of economies of scale. According to this principle, increased
production of goods improves overall efficiency. For peasants, the large-scale production of goods such as crops
meant fewer opportunities. Conditions further worsened due to the enclosure movement. Previously, villages

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 had common lands that could be used by all villagers. Once large-scale agriculture became widespread, wealthy
people bought these lands and used them for private farms.
Due to these shifts, more rural people struggled to survive and many headed for towns and cities to find new
jobs. The growth of British cities was further accelerated by the development of factories. Industrial cities such
as Manchester and Leeds grew dramatically in just a few decades. In 1800, only one in five Britons lived in a
city. By the middle of the 19th century, that number had risen to half. Other Western European nations, including
France, the Netherlands, and Germany, also saw an increase in their urban populations.
Factory work in cities differed from farming. Before the Industrial Revolutions, most goods were made by
craftsmen, including jewelers and blacksmiths.
The dawn of industrialization came alongside inventions such as the coal-powered steam engine, and the pace
of work increased. In factories, coal mines and other workplaces, people worked long hours in miserable
conditions. As countries industrialized, factories became larger and produced more goods. Earlier forms of work
and ways of life began to disappear.

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Perhaps the most harmful consequences of industrialization were those affecting families. Throughout history,

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most people worked with their families. Married couples and their children often worked together on farms or

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in shops. In 18th- century Great Britain, women and men performed jobs like spinning wool into textiles and
weaving textiles into cloth. This system was called the "putting-out" or domestic system.

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Once factories were built, most men no longer worked at home. Some left their families behind in the country
for jobs in the city. Sometimes, an entire family moved to the city to remain together. Even when men stayed
with their families, factory jobs were so difficult that they had little time to relax and enjoy family life.

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Women also worked outside the home. Unmarried women worked as servants in other families' homes, and
many others worked in textile mills. During the first century of industrialization, children worked in factories.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “Industrialization, Labor and Life”, written by Mr.

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Tim Newman and published in National Geographic.
Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage discussing the Industrial Revolution?

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(a) Pessimistic (b) Analytical (c) Eulogistic (d) Skeptical
8. How does the author's tone manifest throughout the passage discussing the Industrial Revolution?
(a) Discerning and elucidative, subtly weaving critique amidst exposition.
(b) Pessimistic and disapproving, focusing primarily on the adverse consequences.
(c) Optimistic and promotional, emphasizing the progress and benefits introduced.
(d) Neutral and detached, presenting facts without any form of bias or judgment.
9. What does the author subtly suggest throughout the narrative regarding the Industrial Revolution?
(a) Technological advancements inherently lead to the displacement of traditional skills and livelihoods.
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(b) The evolution of societies 6C1G8I3Kthe
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(c) The transformation from rural to urban life was universally welcomed as a positive change.
(d) A foundational knowledge of historical economic practices is assumed to understand the shifts caused by
industrial advancements.
10. Which idiom best encapsulates the transition from agricultural to industrial labor as described in the passage?
(a) Cutting corners (b) Changing gears
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tr-(c) scratch (d) Up in the air
11. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the impact of industrialization on family life?
(a) Industrialization offered enhanced career opportunities for women, leading to an improved standard of living.
(b) Industrialization disrupted traditional family structures by separating families and altering their work dynamics.
(c) The economic prosperity brought by industrialization uniformly increased leisure time for working-class
families.
(d) Industrialization led to the immediate improvement of working conditions in factories compared to
agricultural work.
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12. From which type of source is the passage most likely extracted?
(a) A modern sociological analysis on the evolution of labor practices in the 21st century.
(b) A literary narrative describing the life experiences of a fictional family during the Industrial Revolution.
(c) An academic or educational text providing an overview of the Industrial Revolution's impacts.
(d) A governmental report on current labor laws and historical work conditions.
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Mother/parenting guilt seems to be something that I have to make peace with. I remind
myself and my daughter that I’m human and I will make mistakes whether I like it or not, and we both need to
work on it and guide each other to make things better. So essentially, communication is the key here,’ one woman
I spoke to told me. And if you are unfortunate enough to be a millennial mom, dumped into an age of mom
influencers all over the internet and social media, you have it so much harder.
As a Psychology Today article says, ‘In the world of Pinterest and Instagram, it’s never been harder to be a mom.
Perfectionism has reached new heights.’ A Washington Post article titled ‘Millennials are tired of trying to be

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perfect moms’, put it out there more mercilessly:

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For generations, mothers have shouldered the weight of an illusory ideal, the daunting societal standards that

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shape our perception of what motherhood should be. This pressure is particularly acute for millennial moms who

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arrived at parenthood in the age of social media, with a deluge of imagery and information constantly at their

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fingertips. There are parenting forums and TikTok stars and experts and influencers, discussing what the latest
study reveals about screen time, how you should respond when your child has an emotional outburst, and why

fellow parents, posting carefully curated snapshots of their family lives.

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the colours you choose to decorate your child’s bedroom might affect their mental health. There are friends and

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Being a borderline millennial mom, I have had to beat this too. The constant attack by supermoms on social

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media about the right way to bring up children is more exhausting than the tirade that our generation had to put

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up with from our families and friends. I wanted to be the mother who drew smiley faces on their child’s sandwich
with ketchup or cut them into cute teddy shapes. These reels and videos heap perfection pressure on mothers,
and double and triple their mother guilt.

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‘Mother’s guilt used to literally kill me,’ says one of my interviewees. ‘I would blame myself every time the

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baby cried. Every illness was my fault.’ ‘I try to breathe through it and talk to myself and rationalize a bit,’ says
another mother. ‘The burden of a mother’s guilt is something many women grapple with, and it’s rooted in the
profound societal shift from the traditional archetype of what a woman should be. This shift can evoke a sense
of grief and guilt because these expectations are omnipresent in our lives,’ Dr Yadav says.
As a working mother, Dr Yadav herself negotiates the challenge of balancing her role as a mother and a doctor.
‘And yes, I do feel guilt at times.’ To cope with this guilt, Dr Yadav has adopted a few strategies. ‘Firstly, I’ve
normalized it. I accept that as a working mother, experiencing guilt is a part of my journey. I don’t resist it,
suppress it, fight it or deny it. When it arises, I acknowledge it and sit with it. Secondly, I’ve set clear boundaries
around my work to ensure2UI3Rcan tr-6Callocate quality
1G8I3K2F2F3C time to my daughter and also to my professional commitments.
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These boundaries me strike a balance.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “Social media supermoms are adding to the mothers’
guilt. ‘Having it all’ is a con” written by Ms. Nilanjana Bhowmick and published in The Print.
13. In the excerpt provided, which of the following parts of speech is absent?
(a) Prepositions (b) Conjunctions (c) Interjections (d) Adverbs
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14. the contextof Dr. Yadav's discussion about managing guilt as a working mother, which statement best
captures the underlying reason for adopting specific coping strategies?
(a) She believes that setting strict professional boundaries will eliminate guilt entirely from her life.
(b) She feels that acknowledging guilt can only be effective when combined with external validation from peers.
(c) She assumes that professional achievements can compensate for any lapses in her parenting role.
(d) She recognizes that accepting and sitting with guilt when it arises allows her to better manage her dual
responsibilities.

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15. Based on the excerpt, "Mother’s guilt used to literally kill me,' says one of my interviewees," which of the
following conclusions most accurately reflects the intensity of the emotional impact discussed?
(a) Mother's guilt profoundly affects the emotional well-being of women, often leading to severe distress.
(b) The expression is used for dramatic effect and does not indicate any real emotional turmoil.
(c) The guilt experienced is occasionally bothersome but largely ignorable in daily parenting.
(d) The feelings of guilt are a minor inconvenience and typically resolved without any significant emotional
struggle.
16. Based on the excerpt, "Mother’s guilt used to literally kill me," which figure of speech is being used?
(a) Metonymy (b) Synecdoche (c) Personification (d) Onomatopoeia

17. Which of the following categories best describes the passage discussing the challenges faced by millennial
mothers in the context of social media influence and parenting guilt?
(a) Historical analysis (b) Scientific report

18.
(c) Opinion editorial (d) Fictional narrative

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According to the passage discussing the impact of social media on modern parenting, what can be inferred about

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.
the speaker's personal experience with societal expectations?

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(a) The speaker finds that traditional parenting methods are more demanding than those influenced by social
media.
(b) The speaker believes that the influence of social media has made parenting easier by providing creative ideas.

guilt.

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(c) The speaker feels overwhelmed by social media portrayals of ideal parenting, which exacerbate feelings of

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(d) The speaker prefers to adopt parenting styles that are popularized by older generations rather than

a
contemporary trends.

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Passage (Q.19-Q.24): We are watching bats. Short-nosed fruit bats diving boldly in through the arc of faint
white lamps onto a bunch of ripening jahazi plantains. Louise, who had been barking her head off at them, is

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suddenly quiet, cowering with her cool nose at the back of my knee. All I can hear are leaves. It is hard to believe
that 100 feet downhill is a bustling thoroughfare with street lights and supermarkets.

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Across the road, houses stealthily twinkle up another hillside to a lonely wood perched on the crown. This is not
unusual in Guwahati. The city’s surging population overran accessible plain areas near the Brahmaputra before
spreading into the forested hills and wetlands. Non-forest areas have exploded by 1,176% from 1976 onwards,
at the expense of dense and moderate forests — resulting in habitat fragmentation, human-animal conflict,
increased temperatures, massive erosion and cyclical flooding.
What does Louise know that I don’t? She is eight and has one good eye, but hers is a world of scent. When her
family goes out, she knows when they are half a mile away. Dogs probably have a different concept of time to
ours. One where all three tenses can exist at the same time. Perhaps the leopard is downwind, and his odour has
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wafted up to her. Perhaps2Uhe3Rpadded
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by2Fan hour back, but his distinctive musk is lingering. Or perhaps there is a
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leopard right there in the shadows. A leopard is the one creature that loves dogs more than humans do.
How do I know it is a leopard? I can feel Louise’s fear. She is a Naga hill dog, proficient at hunting things smaller
than herself. A fishing cat would be out of place here. A stray sambar deer would probably excite her. Two
aggressive street dogs who had taken up residence in the neighbouring lane have disappeared. So too the mutts
that lazed around outside the supermarket. Two nights back, there was a soft thud near the sunshade, like a pillow
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tr-falling.

We call ourselves Homo sapiens, the wise human, making up for physical weakness with reasoning. And a lack
of common sense. I reason that the cat is after the dog and wary of me. It is too early for a leopard to be out and
about, so near habitation. And so, I step out for a walk leaving Louise safely at home. Fifty feet later, I am frozen
to the spot with the hair on the back of my neck bristling. Someone is watching me.
I cannot see much in the overgrown tangle beneath the shade of jahazi and ber. Just to be sure, I take a shot on
my mobile phone with night mode on. Nothing is obvious, so I pinch the screen. And there he is, a short leap

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 away. A grumpy spotted head buried in the grass. Nearly invisible. Nearly. Glowering at me — anything but
fear in those eyes.
Standing a few feet from a grumpy leopard in the dark, taking photos with a mobile phone isn’t the brightest
thing to do. My heart is nearly bouncing out of my chest in the time it takes for my feet to get home. Louise is
relieved to see me, gnawing my knee to make sure I am not a ghost.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “Leopard at my doorstep” written by Mr. Sunil
Rajagopal and published in The Hindu.

19. What is the fundamental conclusion of the author as evidenced from the last paragraph?
(a) Human intellect invariably triumphs over primal instincts in ensuring safety in unexpected wildlife
encounters.
(b) Urban expansion into natural habitats has rendered traditional animal behavior patterns obsolete.
(c) The complex interaction between human developments and natural ecosystems necessitates a reevaluation
of safety measures in suburban areas.

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(d) In instances of immediate danger, primal instincts may prove more efficacious than reasoned human
responses.

c
20.
the passage?
.
What can be inferred about the author’s view on the relationship between humans and their environment from

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(a) The author believes that humans can exist in harmony with nature without any significant adjustments to
their urban lifestyles.

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(b) The author implies that technological advancements alone can solve the problems of habitat fragmentation

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and environmental degradation.

a
(c) The author suggests that human encroachment into natural habitats has led to significant negative

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consequences, such as increased human-animal conflicts and ecological disruptions.
(d) The author views human expansion as beneficial to wildlife, proposing that it increases biodiversity by

21.
introducing new species to forested areas.

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Which of the following words used in the passage is the antonym of the word "grinning"?

22.
(a) Stealthily

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(b) Twinkle (c) Glowering (d) Buried
What does the author mean by this line, "One where all three tenses can exist at the same time."?
(a) It refers to the constant urban expansion that affects past, present, and future landscapes simultaneously.
(b) It implies a philosophical viewpoint on time where past, present, and future are indistinguishable.
(c) It describes the unique perception of time by dogs, where past, present, and future events might be sensed
concurrently.
(d) It suggests that human experiences are increasingly defined by rapid technological changes that blur
distinctions between past, present, and future.
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23. Which of the tr-
following 2U3Rtr-6Cdevices
literary
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(a) Irony (b) Onomatopoeia (c) Simile (d) Imagery
24. Which of the following assumptions is evident to have been made by the author in the passage?
(a) Humans can manage close encounters with wildlife through reasoning and careful observation.
(b) Human development has no significant impact on the natural behaviors of wildlife.
(c) All urban3Rwildlife encounters can be safely navigated without altering human behavior.
8Q3O2P2U
6O1SAnimals
tr-(d) do not experience stress or change their behaviors in response to urban encroachment.

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 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.31): High Level Committee on One Nation, One Election
The high-level committee headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind has recommended simultaneous
elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies as the first step and hold municipal and panchayat polls within
100 days of the general election in the next phase.
The committee on March 14 submitted its report, running into more than 18,000 pages, to President Droupadi
Murmu. However, the report that has been put in the public domain is a 321-page one. The 22nd Law
Commission, that is examining the simultaneous polls issue, is also expected to submit its report to the Law
Ministry anytime now and recommend simultaneous polls from the 2029 general election cycle. The Kovind
panel report too will not have any bearing on the coming Lok Sabha polls.

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To synchronise the elections, the Ram Nath Kovind Committee has suggested that the President, through a
notification issued on the first sitting of the Lok Sabha post general elections, set an ‘Appointed Date’. This date

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would mark the beginning of the new electoral cycle.

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State Assemblies, that are formed after the Appointed Date and before the completion of the Lok Sabha’s term,
would conclude before the subsequent general elections. After this, elections to the Lok Sabha and all State
Assemblies would be held simultaneously.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com

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25.
involve?

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As per the report, which of the following does the proposed amendment to Article 325 of the Constitution

(a) It allows the Election Commission of India (ECI) to prepare a separate electoral roll for each tier of
government.

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(b) It mandates the creation of a new Elector’s Photo Identity Card (EPIC) that is only valid for national elections.
(c) It enables the Election Commission of India (ECI) to prepare a single electoral roll and EPIC applicable to

26.
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all tiers of government in consultation with State Election Commissions.
(d) It requires that all electoral rolls exclude photo identity information to protect voter privacy.
Which proposed article in the Constitution aims to synchronise the election schedules of Municipalities and
Panchayats with General Elections?
(a) Article 320C (b) Article 324A (c) Article 326A (d) Article 327B
27. During which years were simultaneous elections practised in India immediately after independence?
(a) 1952, 1957, 1962 (b) 1947, 1951, 1956
(c) 1962, 1967, 1972 2U 3Rtr-6C 1G 8I3K2F2F3C (d) 1951, 1955, 1960
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
28. Who chaired the first Law Commission established by the Charter Act of 1833 during the British Raj era?
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Bentinck (c) Lord Macaulay (d) Lord Curzon
29. Which of the following is enforced by the Election Commission of India before every election to ensure that
candidates and parties maintain the decorum of the electoral process?
tr-(a) 8Q3O2P2U3R
6O1SElectoral Bonds System (b) Voter Identification Rules
(c) Model Code of Conduct (d) Electoral Verification Program
30. Which statement accurately describes the removal process for the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) in India?
(a) The CEC can be removed by the President without a parliamentary procedure.
(b) The CEC is removed through a process similar to the impeachment of the President.
(c) The CEC can be removed by a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge involving a special
parliamentary majority.
(d) The CEC can be removed without a special direction from the Prime Minister’s Office.
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31. Which motion in the Indian Parliament is specifically moved to discuss a definite matter of urgent public
importance and requires the Speaker's consent for it to be considered?
(a) Confidence Motion (b) Cut Motion
(c) Adjournment Motion (d) Motion of Thanks
Passage (Q.32-Q.37): Evolution of NATO and CSTO
The CSTO has been an essential element of Russia’s claim to and attempt to maintain some manner of hegemony
over the former Soviet space, especially in Central Asia, where the majority of CSTO members are found. Even
after it formally recognized the independence of post-Soviet states, Russia felt entitled to the region and regarded
the local states as primitive and in need of Russia’s tutelage. Moscow also wanted to have its own sphere of
exclusive influence. Russia sought to gain recognition of its privileged role as the “sheriff” of Eurasia, which
would have primacy in the security field (in comparison to China’s role as the region’s main investor). To that
end, Moscow wanted to establish its own military bloc that “mimicked” Western alliances like NATO.

o m
The CSTO traces its origins to the May 1992 Collective Security Treaty (CST), which was initially signed by
nine Soviet successor states – Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia, Uzbekistan,

c
.
Georgia, and Azerbaijan – only to be later reduced to six when the latter three opted out of Russia-led security

rs
arrangements. Notably, at the time, Ukraine, Moldova, and Turkmenistan did not seek to be parties to the CST
or other formal Russian-led military alliances. Later, Ukraine and Moldova would join Georgia, Azerbaijan, and,

e
at one point, briefly Uzbekistan, in forming a balancing politico-security organisation called GUAM (GUUAM
when Uzbekistan was a member) that sought to counter Russia’s self-imposed hegemony in the former Soviet
space.

n
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://thediplomat.com

a k
32.
(a) 1999 (b) 2000
r
In which year was the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) institutionalized?

p
(c) 2001 (d) 2002

o
33. Which of the following statements about the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) is true?
(a) The CSTO was created to address primarily economic issues in the post-Soviet space.

34.
T
(b) The CSTO's main focus has been on countering international crime and drug trafficking exclusively.
(c) The CSTO developed a joint military force to address security threats, including transnational terrorism.
(d) The CSTO was dissolved in the early 2000s due to a lack of security threats in the region.
Which of the following statements about NATO is true?
(a) NATO invoked Article 5 for the first time in response to the September 11 attacks against the U.S.
(b) The admission of West Germany to NATO in 1955 led to the creation of the European Union.
(c) NATO was created in 1948 to defend Western Europe against a possible Soviet invasion.
(d) NATO currently has 30 full members.
tr-6C1G8I3K2F
2F3C
2U3R
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
35. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about France's role in NATO post-1966?
(a) France withdrew from NATO's integrated military structure in 1966 under President Charles de Gaulle.
(b) The withdrawal led to the relocation of NATO's political headquarters from Paris to Brussels.
(c) France ceased all political involvement in NATO following its withdrawal from the integrated military
structure.
8Q3O2P2U 3R
tr-(d)
6O1SFrance prohibited the stationing of foreign nuclear weapons on its territory after the withdrawal.
36. Who was appointed as the next Secretary General of NATO, succeeding Jens Stoltenberg, in June 2024?
(a) Mark Rutte (b) Emmanuel Macron
(c) Angela Merkel (d) Ursula von der Leyen
37. Which treaty laid the foundation for the creation of NATO?
(a) The Treaty of Paris (b) The Brussels Treaty
(c) The Treaty of Rome (d) The Geneva Treaty
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 Passage (Q.38-Q.43): Maitri Setu 2024
“Passenger movement through Maitri Setu which connects India and Bangladesh in South Tripura district will
start by September this year,” a senior government official said. Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his
Bangladesh counterpart Sheikh Hasina virtually inaugurated the Maitri setu on March 9, 2021.
"The Maitri setu has already been inaugurated. The land port is almost ready... The movement of passengers
through the bridge will commence in September. It will take two or three months to introduce goods movement
after passenger movement gets underway," Tripura's Industries and Commerce Department Secretary Kiran Gitte
said at a press conference on June 7.
Mr. Gitte said Kamalasagar border haat in Tripura's Sepahijala district, which was closed down due to the
COVID-19 pandemic, will be reopening shortly. At present, Srinagar border haat, located in South Tripura
district is operational. Asserting that setting up of industrial estates along the National Highways is the top

m
priority of the government; Mr. Gitte said the National Highways have developed a lot during the past few years.

o
"If trade and business do not gain momentum, the objective of a facelift of national highways will be in vain.

c
Therefore, we are laying stress on setting up industrial estates along national highways to assist the existing
industrial estates," he said.

.
rs
Extracted with edits and revisions https://www.thehindu.com
38. Which of the following river does the Maitri Setu bridge span?
(a) Ganges River
(c) Feni River
(b) Brahmaputra River
(d) Padma River

k e
39.

an
What strategic benefit does the Maitri Setu bridge provide to India?

r
(a) It connects India directly to Nepal, enhancing trade routes.

p
(b) It allows India to transport goods to Northeast India through Bangladesh.
(c) It establishes a new trade route between India and Bhutan.

40.

To
(d) It replaces the Suez Canal as a primary trade route for India.
Which organization supervised the construction of the Maitri Setu bridge?
(a) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
(b) Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
(c) National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd. (NHIDCL)
(d) Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
41. Which port in Bangladesh is connected to Sabroom in South Tripura, India, via the Maitri Setu bridge?
(a) Dhaka Port (b) Cox's Bazar Port
(c) Mongla Port 1G8I3K2F2F3C
(d) Chittagong Port
2U3Rtr-6C
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
42. Which significant event laid the foundation for India's relationship with Bangladesh?
(a) India's support for Bangladesh during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War.
(b) The signing of the Ganga water-sharing treaty in 1996.
(c) The establishment of trade agreements in the 1980s.
(d) The resolution of boundary disputes in the mid-1970s.
2U3R
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
43. Which of the following statements is true regarding joint military exercises between India and Bangladesh?
(a) They conduct joint Air Force exercises named Exercise Prakriti.
(b) They conduct joint Army exercises named Exercise Sampriti and Navy exercises named Exercise Bongo
Sagar.
(c) They conduct joint Army exercises named Exercise Yudh Abhyas and Navy exercises named Exercise
Varuna.
(d) They conduct joint Navy exercises named Exercise Malabar and Army exercises named Exercise Shakti.

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 Passage (Q.44-Q.48): 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit
Prime Minister of the Republic of India Shri Narendra Modi paid an official visit to the Russian Federation on
July 8-9, 2024 at the invitation of President of the Russian Federation H.E. Mr. Vladimir Putin for the 22nd India
– Russia Annual Summit.
The Leaders highly appreciated the special nature of this time-tested relationship which is based on trust, mutual
understanding and strategic convergence. Regular bilateral engagement at all levels, including during India’s
Chairship of SCO and G20 in 2023 and under Russia’s Chairship of BRICS in 2024, helped in further deepening
and expansion of the growing bilateral partnership.
The Leaders positively assessed the multi-faceted mutually beneficial India-Russia relations that span all
possible areas of cooperation including political and strategic, military and security, trade and investment,
energy, science and technology, nuclear, space, cultural, education and humanitarian cooperation. It was noted

m
with satisfaction that both Sides are actively exploring new avenues for cooperation while further strengthening

o
cooperation in the traditional areas.

c
The Sides underlined that India-Russia ties have remained resilient in the backdrop of the prevailing complex,

.
challenging and uncertain geopolitical situation. Both Sides have strived to forge a contemporary, balanced,

rs
mutually beneficial, sustainable and long-term partnership. Development of the India-Russia relations over the
entire spectrum of cooperation areas is a shared foreign policy priority. The Leaders agreed to make all efforts
to unlock the full potential of the strategic partnership.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://pib.gov.in

k e
44.
Russia Annual Summit?
(a) The Order of Merit for the Lenin

r n
Which highest civilian honor of Russia was conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the 22nd India-

a
(b) The Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle

45.
(c) The Order of Merit for the Fatherland

o p
(d) The Order of Saint Peter the Apostle
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding India-Russia trade relations in 2021-22?

T
(a) India's total bilateral trade with Russia stood at approximately USD 13 billion in 2021-22.
(b) Russia was India's seventh biggest trading partner, up from 25th position in 2021.
(c) Russia's share in India's total trade has consistently been above 2% since 1997.
(d) India had a negative trade balance of USD 16.24 billion with Russia in 2020-21.
46. Which of the following maritime corridors was discussed during the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit aims to
reduce India’s transportation time to Russia by 40%?
(a) Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor
(b) International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
2F3C
(c) Trans-Siberian Railway tr-6C1G8I3K2F
2U3RCorridor
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
(d) Arctic Sea Route
47. What was Russia's Gross National Income (GNI) per capita in 2023, which qualified it as a high-income country
according to the World Bank?
(a) USD 13,500 (b) USD 14,250
(c) USD 15,000
3O2P2U3R
(d) USD 16,000
tr-6O1S8Q
48. What is the name of the Tri-Services exercise conducted regularly between India and Russia?
(a) MALABAR (b) YUDH ABHYAS
(c) INDRA (d) GARUDA

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 Passage (Q.49-Q.52): Parliamentary Privileges and Related Cases
In a landmark judgement, the Supreme Court on Monday ruled that Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members
of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) cannot claim any immunity from prosecution for accepting bribes to cast a
vote or make a speech in the House in a particular fashion. Under Articles of the Indian Constitution confers on
MPs immunity from prosecution in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or on any
parliamentary committee. Like, Article 194(2) grants protection to MLAs.
A seven-judge Constitution Bench headed by Chief Justice of India (CJI) D.Y. Chandrachud unanimously
overruled its 1998 judgement in P.V Narasimha Rao v. State and opened the doors for law enforcement agencies
to initiate prosecution against legislators in bribery cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (Act).
Tracing the history of parliamentary privileges in India, the Court said that unlike the House of Commons in the
United Kingdom, India does not have ‘ancient and undoubted’ rights vested after a struggle between the

m
Parliament and the King. Instead, such rights in India have always flown from a statute, which after independence

o
transitioned to a constitutional privilege. Thus, whether a claim to privilege in a particular case conforms to the
parameters of the Constitution is amenable to judicial review.

49.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com

rs .c
The P V Narasimha Rao v State (CBI/Spe) Case, which addressed the issue of parliamentary privileges
concerning bribery, is famously known as which of the following?
(a) The Telecom Scam Case
(b) The Fodder Scam Case

k e
n
(c) The Jharkhand Mukti Morcha Bribery Case

a
(d) The Bofors Scandal Case
50.

r
Which of the following statements about the parliamentary privilege of MPs regarding arrest is correct?

p
(a) MPs cannot be arrested during a session of Parliament, 40 days before the beginning, and 40 days after the

o
end of a session, even in criminal cases.
(b) MPs cannot be arrested during a session of Parliament, 40 days before the beginning, and 40 days after the

T
end of a session, including in preventive detention cases.
(c) MPs cannot be arrested during a session of Parliament, 40 days before the beginning, and 40 days after the
end of a session, but this privilege applies only in civil cases.
(d) MPs cannot be arrested during a session of Parliament, 40 days before the beginning, and 40 days after the
end of a session, even in cases of national security concerns.
51. Which Constitutional Amendment Act in India amended the provisions related to parliamentary privileges,
stating that the privileges of each House of Parliament, its committees, and its members would remain as they
were at the time of the amendment's commencement
3K 2F2F3C until Parliament defined them otherwise?
2U3Rtr-6C1G8I
tr-6O1S8Q3O2PAmendment Act
(a) 42nd Constitutional (b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act (d) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
52. The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 was enacted to update the original PCA. What
international convention did this amendment aim to align with, which India ratified in 2011?
(a) United Nations Convention against Corruption
8Q3O2P2U 3R
tr-(b)
6O1SUnited Nations Convention on Transnational Organized Crime
(c) United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Citizens
(d) United Nations Framework Convention on Corruption

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 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Sedition can be summarized into the following points; (a) There must be words, written
or spoken, signs, visual representation, or any such act; (b) Such an act should bring or attempt to bring hatred
or contempt, or excite or attempt to excite disaffection; (c) Such hatred, contempt, or disaffection must be
towards any government established by law in India; and (d) It must have led to the incitement of violence or
public disorder. The law that was struck down in Lahore is almost identical to India’s Section 124A, which
seeks to criminalize words that bring “into hatred or contempt, or excite disaffection” towards the government
established by law. In India, too, a challenge is pending before the Supreme Court. The law is in abeyance,
although not formally struck down. Yet, the logic of the law of sedition, which demands reverence to established
ideas and to those who espouse them, survives. Pakistan has a thriving practice in the use of the law of
blasphemy, exercised usually on its poorest citizens. India, which is secular and does not criminalize

m
blasphemy, has a near approximation in the “hurting of sentiments.” The practice of prosecuting speech
offences borrows from an understanding that ‘offensive or disruptive speech’ emanates from those who are

.c o
either inferior in established social/political hierarchies, or outsiders to the reigning narrative of the time.
Consequently, offences are framed mostly against those who challenge political or social power and its

rs
attendant narratives. Theoretically, anybody may be prosecuted for defacement of public property, irrespective
of the contents of the graffiti. In the event, prosecution usually follows the logic of sedition, focusing mostly

e
on content. We have always had a problem of entrenched hierarchical relations, most prominently in the form
of caste. Our understanding of violence (and sexual violence) is mediated by this understanding. But for those

k
hierarchies to be now reflected in law, in a way that speech is made prosecutable, depending on whom it targets,

n
points to the entangled relationship of law and society. We often see prosecutors vociferously attacking certain

a
speech as grave and damaging to someone’s reputation while tolerating other violent speech as innocuous. Of

r
course, the courts do not always endorse the prosecutors’ views, and sometimes even call out the power play.
53.

o p
According to the passage, how does the entangled relationship of law and society in India impact the prosecution
of speech offenses and the targeting of individuals?
(a) The law of sedition in India disproportionately targets those who challenge political or social power due to

political hierarchies.
T
entrenched hierarchical relations.
(b) The practice of prosecuting speech offenses in India reflects an unbiased approach, irrespective of social or

(c) The law of sedition in India is selectively enforced against those who deface public property, regardless of
the contents of the graffiti.
(d) The entangled relationship between law and society in India does not significantly affect the prosecution of
speech offenses.
54. R was recently let off from his job at Vivanta Pvt Ltd after a complaint was made against him by a coworker
who also happened to be 2U the son of8Ia3Kfriend
tr-6C1G 2F2F3Cof the CEO. R was fired from his work without giving him a chance
8Q3O2P 3R
tr-6O1Safter
to defend himself the employee made false accusations against him. This happened on March 16th, and he
also didn't get paid in accordance with the number of days he worked in March. He was even more driven by
this to bring a lawsuit against the company. In addition to this, he also wrote an article condemning the company's
practice of discrimination, in which he revealed some of the firm's closely held secrets in which they had
committed grave legal errors. His article was read by the firm, which then sued him for sedition. Analyze the
likelihood that
2U3R their sedition suit will be successful.
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
(a) The company's lawsuit will be successful because the defendant made its proprietary information public.
(b) Since the corporation discriminated against R, the lawsuit will not be successful since such actions by the
company must be made public.
(c) The firm is ineligible to file a sedition lawsuit; hence the sedition lawsuit will fail.
(d) Since R attempted to incite animosity and discontent toward the business, it is likely that the sedition lawsuit
will be successful.

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55. W was a member of a minor community. The government committed to offer food subsidies to the said
community. However, when the time arrived, they failed to keep their word, and inflation had risen by 20%. As
a result, the minor community was unable to purchase food grains and was starving. As a result, they started
protests and began shouting derogatory chants at the government. After two hours of protest, there was violence
between them and the general community. W also argued that the government was filled by an upper caste
majority, and that they worked exclusively for the advantage of that community, and that such a government
should collapse and be dismissed. Comment for sedition.
(a) W cannot be charged with sedition since the government broke its pledge to the community.
(b) W cannot be held accountable for sedition since he can claim truth as a defence and the absence of malice.
(c) W must be charged with sedition since he made false and defamatory accusations about the government.
(d) W must be charged with sedition because his actions resulted in public violence and chaos.
56. T was a well-known journalist who used to write articles critical of the current administration. At one point, he
wrote an article about how the government works and how the bulk of power is concentrated in the hands of a

m
select few who make decisions to their advantage. He also spoke about how the ruling party includes members

o
of their families even though they are not eligible to run for office. Additionally, he created other graphics that

c
showed the government's corruption and deceit. However, because he was well-known for making such

Government brought a sedition lawsuit against him. Decide.

rs .
accusations, the article received no attention and was simply disregarded by the general public. However, the

(a) Sedition has occurred because T's action sparked widespread opposition to the government.

in sedition.

k e
(b) T sought to encourage violence against the government through words and visual depiction, which resulted

n
(c) Considering T has a duty to report the truth as a journalist, there hasn't been any seditious activity.
(d) Because there was no public reaction to T's article, there was no sedition.
57.

r a
K was a journalist in charge of the newspaper's politics section. He was working on an article about the

p
government's malpractices after receiving some confidential information from a government source. He
completed the article in two weeks. The editor of the newspaper, however, refused to publish such a story because

o
elections were scheduled the next month and such an article would cause a public commotion. Because the

T
newspaper's editor was prejudiced in favour of the ruling party, he notified them that K had written such an
article. As a result, the government sued him for sedition. Determine the validity of the government's claims.
(a) The Government's allegations are invalid, and K cannot be held accountable because his article was never
published in the first place.
(b) The Government's allegations are valid because they would dissuade K from committing such a conduct in
the future.
(c) The allegations of the government cannot be accepted because K, as a journalist, is required to broadcast
such news.
(d) The Government's charges are genuine since K committed sedition against the government through words
and visual expression. 2F2F3C
3Rtr-6C1G8I3K
1S8Q3O2P2U
tr-6O
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC) defines "summons” as a legal document issued
by a court to notify a defendant (the person against whom a lawsuit is filed) that a case has been filed against
them and to appear before the court on a specified date and time.
30-A. Service of summons.-- (1) Every summon issued under the Act shall be in writing, shall be authenticated
by the seal,2Uif
3R any, of the officer by whom it is issued and shall be signed by such officer or by any person
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
authorized by him in writing in that behalf. It shall require the person summoned to appear before the said officer
at stated time and place, and shall specify whether his attendance, is required for the purpose of giving evidence,
or to produce a document, or for both purposes, and any particular document, the production of which is required,
shall be described in the summons with reasonable accuracy.
(2) Any person may be summoned to produce a document, without being summoned to give evidence, and any
person, summoned merely to produce a document shall be deemed to have complied with the summons if he
causes such document to be produced, instead of attending personally to produce the same.
(3) The service of summons under the Act, on any person may be effected in any of the following ways:-
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 (a) by giving or tendering it to such person; or
(b) if such person is not found, by leaving it at his last known place of abode or business or by giving or
tendering it to some adult member of his family; or
(c) if the address of such person is known to the Registrar or other authorized person by sending it to him by
registered post; or
(d) if none of the means aforesaid is available by affixing it in some conspicuous part of his last known place
of abode or business.
(4) Where the serving officer delivers or tenders copy of the summons to the defendant personally or to an agent
or other person on his behalf, he shall require the signature of the person to whom the copy is so delivered
or tendered to an acknowledgement of the person to whom the copy is so delivered or tendered to an
acknowledgment of service endorsed on the original summons.
[Source:https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-
data?actid=AC_TS_86_743_00011_00011_1552732688550&sectionId=52512&sectionno=30-

58.
A&orderno=38#:~:text=%2D%2D%20(1)%20Every%20summon%20issued,in%20writing%20in%20that%20
behalf.]
Choose an option that provides for a correct statement in the light of the passage:

c o m
rs .
(a) The service of summons has to be compulsorily done by personal delivery to the person concerned.
(b) There must be Court certified signature and seal of the officer only in the service of summons.
(c) The time of appearance of the person before the officer need not be stated in the summons.

59.

k e
(d) The document for which summons is issued needs to be described with rational precision.
Which of the following is an accurate explanation of the service of summons as per S. 30-A (1) of the CPC?

specific purpose for attendance.

r n
(a) Summons may optionally be in writing, with seal, signature of officer, stating time and place as well as

a
(b) Summons may contain seal, signature of the officer’s assignee, time and place for person to appear and

p
specific purpose for attendance.
(c) Summons must compulsorily contain seal, signature of officer, in written form, stating time and place and

60.
To
specify purpose of attendance.
(d) Summons may contain seal, in written form, stating time and place and specify purpose of attendance.
A heated dispute arises between two neighbors, Mr. Johnson and Mrs. Thompson, over the boundary line
separating their properties. The argument escalates to the point where both parties decide to seek legal recourse
to resolve the matter. Confident in his claim, Mr. Johnson hires Attorney Roberts to represent him in court.
Attorney Roberts diligently prepares the necessary documents to initiate a civil lawsuit on behalf of Mr. Johnson.
As part of the procedure, Attorney Roberts must ensure that Mrs. Thompson is properly notified of the legal
action against her. Attorney Roberts begins by drafting a complaint, outlining Mr. Johnson's claims against Mrs.
Thompson and the relief he seeks from the court. Once the complaint is ready, Attorney Roberts obtains a
summons from the court clerk. The court
2F2F3C
sends a serving officer to Mrs. Thompson’s house, but she is on
2P 2U 3Rtr-6C1G8I3K
vacation for twenty
tr-6O 1S days.
8Q 3O The officer delivers the summons to her early teenage son, Mike, who signs it with his
sketch pen. The case commences, but Mrs. Thompson is absent, and the court penalizes her for it. She pleads
that she did not receive the summons. Can she challenge the summons?
(a) No, she cannot challenge the summons because it was properly served by the officer.
(b) Yes, she can challenge the summons because it was not properly served by the officer.
(c) No, she cannot challenge the summons because there was proper signature.
8Q3O2P 2U3R
tr-(d)
6O1SYes, she can challenge the summons because there was improper signature.
61. Choose a statement which the author is likely to disagree with in light of the passage:
(a) The summons can be served by affixing it in any conspicuous part of the home of the person concerned as
per sub section 3(d) of section 30.
(b) The summons is served to the defendant specifying the case and informing about attendance in the Court.
(c) The summons must contain the signature of the person receiving it which will act as acknowledgement.
(d) The summons asking a person to produce a document must personally produce it before the Court.

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62. In the city of Veridale, a small town nestled in the hills, a local farmer named John finds himself in a complex
legal dispute. John owns a farmhouse and a substantial piece of land that has been in his family for generations.
However, recently, a wealthy real estate developer, Mr. Smithson, has expressed interest in acquiring John's
property to build a luxury resort. Unwilling to part with his ancestral land, John decides to fight the developer's
plans in court. He hires a skilled attorney, Sarah, to represent him in the case. Sarah, armed with knowledge of
civil procedure, devises a strategic plan to navigate the legal system. Sarah begins the legal proceedings by
preparing a complaint, outlining John's grievances and asserting his rights to the property. With the complaint
ready, she files it with the local court, triggering the initiation of the lawsuit. To formally notify Mr. Smithson
of the lawsuit, Sarah obtains a summons from the court clerk. The serving officer visits his office and delivers
the summons to his office guard and leaves. Is the summons valid?
(a) The summons is valid because all the requirements are being met.
(b) The summons is not valid because all the requirements are not being met.
(c) The summons is valid because it has been served on the adult person.
(d) The summons is not valid because the guard is not considered part of the office.

o m
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): Extortion consists of delivery property from another person or entity through the wrongful

c
use of actual or threatened force, violence or fear. Such coercive extortion is synonymous with the

rs .
term blackmail, which is an older term used to indicate extortion. Common law jurisdictions also refer to a
second specialized type of offence, extortion "under colour of office" or "under colour of official right", which
is the wrongful taking by a public officer of money or property that is not due to him/her, whether or not the
taking was accomplished by force, threats, or use of fear.

k e
Besides some exceptions, such as in the case of extortion "under colour of office" or "under colour of official

n
right", the act required for extortion is the threat of future harm. Generally, extortion statutes require that a threat

a
must be made to the person or property of the victim. The nature of the threatened harm varies by jurisdiction,

r
and it can include bodily harm, damage to property, damage to reputation, criminal accusations, or abuse of a

p
public office. The extortionate threat required must be serious enough to place a reasonable person in fear.
The actual obtainment of money or property is not required to commit the offence.

o
In many jurisdictions, the intent to obtain money or property to which one is not lawfully entitled must exist at

T
the time of the threat in order to establish extortion. In other words, making the threat is sufficient and the actual
obtainment of money or property is not required to commit the offence.
Extortion is different from the crime of robbery: in robbery, the property is taken against the will and without
the consent of the victim, while in extortion the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or
property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to an immediate
physical harm to the victim. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats relating to
future harm also.
[Source: https://www.unodc.org/e4j/zh/organized-crime/module-4/key-issues/extortion.html]
1G
3Rtr-6CTeflon 8I3K2F2F3C
63. John Gotti, also tr-6Oknown as2U"The
1S8Q3O2P Don," was a prominent figure in the American Mafia and served as the
boss of the Gambino crime family in New York City during the 1980s and early 1990s. They would target local
businesses, particularly construction companies, demanding regular payments in exchange for protection and to
avoid violent repercussions. Gotti's crew would use threats, coercion, and intimidation to force business owners
into complying with their demands. Gotti's crew approached the owner, demanding a substantial monthly
payment to ensure the company's safety and uninterrupted operations. They made it clear that failure to comply
3R
3O2P2Uin
tr-could
6O1S8Qresult property damage, injuries, or even death. They made such a demand from Company ABC which
filed a case of extortion against them without giving anything to them. Will it succeed?
(a) No, it will not succeed because they were offering protection.
(b) Yes, it will succeed because they threatened with intent to obtain money through fear.
(c) No, it will not succeed because it can only be done to a person.
(d) Yes, it will succeed because there was property or money obtained through fear.

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64. In the bustling city of Metropolis, a group of tech-savvy criminals devises an elaborate scheme to wring wealthy
individuals. Operating from a secret hideout, they use advanced hacking techniques to gain unauthorized access
to the personal and financial information of their targets. The criminals, led by a mastermind known as "The
Phantom," carefully select their victims, focusing on affluent businessmen and high-profile individuals. They
leverage their stolen information to blackmail and obtain large sums of money from their targets. The Phantom
and his associates send anonymous messages to their victims, detailing the sensitive information they have
acquired. They threaten to release the information publicly, which could have devastating consequences for the
victims' personal and professional lives, unless a hefty ransom is paid within a specific timeframe. Have they
committed extortion? Decide with proper legal reasoning in light of the passage:
(a) No, they have not committed extortion because there is no threat to property.
(b) Yes, they have committed extortion because there is threat to cause harm to reputation.
(c) No, they have not committed extortion because it is truth which makes it valid.
(d) Yes, they have committed extortion because there is blackmail involved.
65.

o m
In the sprawling city of Horizonville, a powerful and influential police officer named Victor Grayson utilizes his
wealth and connections to engage in a sophisticated scheme. Grayson identifies vulnerable individuals and

c
.
businesses struggling to stay afloat, taking advantage of their desperate situations. Grayson's modus operandi

rs
involves manipulating financial records and documents, creating a façade of illegal activities by linking his
targets to fraudulent transactions. Armed with this fabricated evidence, he threatens to expose his victims unless

e
they comply with his demands for exorbitant sums of money. What specialized offence has been committed and
why?

harm to reputation of person.

a k
(a) The offence of extortion has been committed because money was obtained with intent to threaten or cause

n
(b) The offence of extortion under colour of office is committed because it was done by a public officer.

p r
(c) The offence of extortion has not been committed because it was done under lawful authority.
(d) The offence of extortion has been committed because there was threatening to cause harm to property with
intent to obtain money.
66.

o
In a renowned financial district, a mysterious figure known as "The Enforcer" emerges as a formidable criminal.

T
With an intricate network of informants and a reputation for ruthlessness, The Enforcer preys on influential
individuals and businesses, using their vulnerabilities against them. The Enforcer carefully selects targets based
on their affluence and influence within the city. They gather sensitive information through their network of
informants and clandestine surveillance, gaining access to personal secrets, financial records, and potentially
damaging evidence. Using this leverage, The Enforcer approaches their victims discreetly, delivering a cryptic
message demanding a substantial sum of money. They threaten to expose the victims' darkest secrets or unleash
devastating consequences upon their lives and careers unless the demands are met. What kind of threat will lead
to their conviction for extortion?
(a) The use of threat of such seriousness as
3Ca sensitive person will be induced under fear.
2U3Rtr-6C1G8I3K2F2F
(b) The use oftr-6O
threat of2Psuch
1S8Q3O seriousness that a lawful person will be induced under fear.
(c) The use of threat of that serious nature that a reasonable person will be induced under fear.
(d) The use of threat of such seriousness that a criminal person will be induced under fear.
67. A powerful criminal syndicate known as "The Black Hand" has established a reign of terror through their shady
operations. Led by a cunning and elusive mastermind named Victor "The Viper" Donovan, the syndicate targets
businesses 2U
and
3R influential individuals, exploiting their vulnerabilities for financial gain. The Black Hand operates
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
discreetly, using a network of informants to identify potential victims. They gather sensitive information about
their targets, including personal secrets, financial records, or hidden business dealings. Armed with this
knowledge, The Viper and his cohorts approach their victims with a carefully orchestrated plan. The syndicate
sends anonymous letters to their targets, outlining the evidence they possess and the consequences of its release.
They demand exorbitant values of houses, flats etc. in exchange for silence, promising to protect their victims'
reputations and interests. Is extortion being committed?
(a) No, because there is promise to protect reputation and interest.
(b) Yes, because there is use of threat against person to cause harm to reputation to obtain money.
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 (c) No, because it is just use of truthful information without malice.
(d) Yes, because there is use of threat against person to cause harm to reputation to obtain property.
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): The Gujarat Land Grabbing (Prohibition) Act, 2020 is a special law providing civil and
criminal remedies and liabilities under one roof with regard to the act of land grabbing by establishment of
special courts, it also shifts burden of proof on the accused while stating that the case shall be disposed off finally
by the Special Court, as far as possible, within six months from the date of institution of the case, which gives
no right to appeal.
S.2(d) defines "land grabber" as a person who commits land grabbing, any person who gives financial aid to
any person for taking illegal possession of lands or for construction of unauthorised structures, or who collects
or attempts to collect from any occupiers of such lands rent, compensation and other charges by criminal
intimidation. According to S.2(e), "land grabbing" is every activity of land grabber to occupy or attempt to
occupy with or without the use of force, threat, intimidation and deceit, any land over which he or they have no

m
ownership, title or physical possession and illegally taking possession of such land or creating illegal tenancies

o
or lease or license, agreements or transfer or sale or by constructing unauthorised structures thereon for sale or
hire or use or occupation of such unauthorised structures.

rs .c
Upon conviction he/she will be liable for imprisonment not less than 10 years but may extend to 14 years and
with fine which may extend to Jantri value (of such property under S.5 of the Act. Jantri value is calculated based
on location, property type, market value, and infrastructure development.

k e
Any person who is in a settled possession but having no document of ownership will have to voluntarily surrender
his possession of the land to the lawful owner immediately. Failing of which can be prosecuted & punished, as

n
per S.4(2) of the Act.

a
The Act not only applies to any government or municipal land grabbed by any person but it also applies to a

r
private land grabbed by any other person.
68.

o p
Ahmed Patel lives in Ahmedabad with his family. He is a septuagenarian (a person who is between 70 and 79
years old) and is unfit to move out on his own. He had filed a petition seeking the quashing of FIR and subsequent
proceedings against him under section 5 of the Gujarat Land Grabbing (Prohibition) Act. Earlier, Ahmed was

T
taken into police custody in the said case, after the complainant, Pranav Seth, had accused him of offences under
the Act for a plot of land, which Ahmed was in legal possession of since the past 33 years. After investigation it
was found that the plot of land was sold out to Mr. Seth by the son of Ahmed Patel for Rupees 57 Lakh with the
copy of the original document of the land and promised to deliver the documents within 2 weeks. Even after 2
months Ahmed’s son did not provided the documents and therefore Mr. Seth had to move to the court of law.
Mr. Seth alleged that the documents were provided by his son in name of Ahmed Patel and had been told that
Ahmed Patel is bed ridden and therefore he was there on behalf of Ahmed Patel. Mr. Seth alleged that he is the
legal owner of the land as he has paid 57 Lakh, and that Ahmed Patel is illegally holding the land. Is Ahmed
Patel liable for the offence under The Gujarat Land Grabbing Act?
3Rtr-6C 1G8I3K2F2F3C
(a) Yes, Ahmed tr-6O Patel
1S 8Q 3Ois
2P liable
2U for holding the land as Mr. Seth has paid the amount of the land and is the new
legal owner.
(b) No, Ahmed Patel cannot be held liable as Mr. Seth has not paid the amount to him.
(c) No, Ahmed Patel cannot be held liable because his son falsely dealt with Mr. Seth, while Ahmed Patel is the
legal owner.
(d) No, Ahmed Patel cannot be held liable as he owns the land since 33 years and has the legal documents of the
8Q3O2P2U3R
tr-6O1Sland.

69. John and Smith are two neighbors residing in the Madhuban Society of Vadodara. John is a businessman,
whereas Smith owns a car showroom in Vadodara. One day, while they were both sitting outside their houses,
Smith shared with John that his ancestors had been in possession of a plot of land on the outskirts of Vadodara
since 1918, which he discovered a few months ago when his father passed away. His father also mentioned that
the documents for the land need to be prepared. Coincidentally, John had also purchased a plot near that area a
few years back. The next day, they both went to visit the plot together, where John realized that the plot he
purchased a few years ago was the same land that Smith’s ancestors had possessed. This led to a quarrel between
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 them, with both claiming that the plot of land belonged to them. Smith then decided to go to court and filed a
complaint against John under the Gujarat Land Grabbing (Prohibition) Act. As the Judge, you must decide
whether the complaint filed by Smith is valid or not?
(a) Smith’s complaint is valid as his ancestors were in possession of the property since a decade.
(b) Smith’s complaint is invalid as John is the owner of the land and holds the document of the property.
(c) Smith’s complaint may be invalid because he does not have the documents of the land.
(d) Smith’s complaint is valid because though, his father did not mention anything about selling off the property
to John.
70. Raj & Raghu are resident of Bhavnagar and are also business partners. Raj & Raghu owns a Real-estate
brokerage company. Both of them shared a good bond but Raghu owed Raj an amount of Rs 25 Lakh, which he
borrowed from him a year ago for his marriage purpose. Many a times, Raj asked him to return the money, but
Raghu replied that he does not have that much amount with him and will return him soon. One day, Raj came to
know that recently Raghu has purchased a land worth Rs 30 Lakh, but the documents are yet to be prepared.

m
After getting the knowledge of the same Raj suggested another friend Simon of him, who is a “Gunda” to grab

o
that land in his own name. Simon than asked Raj to provide him a help of Rs 2 Lakh for acquiring Raghu’s land.

c
Simon then threatened Raghu and acquired the land. Later, Raghu came to know that Raj asked Simon to do so.

rs .
Therefore, Raghu filed a complaint against Raj under Gujarat Land Grabbing Act. Raj stated in his defense that
he cannot be held liable under the act as he was not the land grabber, and the case against him should be
dismissed. Can the defense by Raj be held valid?

Simon.

k e
(a) Yes, Raj cannot be held liable for land grabbing as he did not threatened Raghu for grabbing the land, it was

(b) No, the defense of Raj cannot be held valid because he provided money to Simon for grabbing Raghu’s land.

to acquire the land.

r n
(c) No, the defense by Raj cannot be held valid because he just suggested Simon to do so and did not hire him

a
(d) Yes, Raj is correct, he cannot be held liable for the land grabbing because he was not a part of the land

71.
grabbing event.

o p
Mr. Kumar is a well-known real estate broker in Ahmedabad. Mr. Kumar has been living in a beautiful bungalow

T
built by him on a land where his grandfather & his father earlier since 1975 used to do farming. But on 26 th
December 2020, Rajesh came forward presenting land documents to Mr. Kumar stating that the land on which
Mr. Kumar has built his bungalow belonged to his grandfather and also stated that the land was given to Mr.
Kumar’s grandfather on lease to do farming and now he is the rightful owner of the land as the legal heir. Mr.
Kumar argued with Rajesh that his claim was baseless and that the land has been in possession of his father since
years and now he is the legal owner of the land. Rajesh then filed a suit against Mr. Kumar under the Gujarat
Land Grabbing Act. Mr. Kumar pleaded that he has been living in the house since years and has a settled
possession over the property. Mr. Kumar also stated that his father had been doing farming ever since until he
built a house over the land and hence cannot be prosecuted for the same as he had been in possession of the
property long back before2Uthe
3Rtr-amendment
6C1G8I3K2F2F of the Act. The court in its investigation found out that Mr. Kumar’s
3C
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
grandfather borrowed the land from Rajesh’s grandfather on lease for farming. Also, before Rajesh’s grandfather
died he verbally gave Mr. Kumar’s grandfather his land, but did not prepare a legal document for converting the
land to Mr. Kumar’s grandfather. You being the Judge of the case decide provide a decision over the case.
(a) Mr. Kumar is the rightful owner of the land because Rajesh’ grandfather gave Mr. Kumar’s grandfather the
piece of land before he died on which Mr. Kumar has built his bungalow.
(b) Mr. Kumar
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
2U3R is the rightful owner of the land. Though he does not possess the legal document but has been in
the possession of the land ever since his grandfather acquired the land.
(c) Rajesh is the rightful owner of the land because Rajesh has the legal documents of the land in his
grandfather’s name of which he is now the legal heir.
(d) Rajesh is the rightful owner of the land because he is the legal heir of his grandfather and has the right over
the property.

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72. Mr. Ambani is Tata employee who has to relocate himself every 2-3 years as required by the transfer of his job.
Mr. Ambani is a resident of Vadodara, but currently lives in the city of Jaipur. Mr. Ambani had an ancestral
bungalow in Vadodara. He had appointed Mukesh as the care taker, who is a real-estate broker. Earlier, Mr.
Ambani used to visit Vadodara almost once in every month. But due to his promotion and overburdening of
work he hardly got time to visit his bungalow in Vadodara. After Mr. Ambani reduced his visits to Vadodara,
Mukesh rented the bungalow to bachelors for a rent of Rs 25,000.Mukesh also told them that the bungalow does
not belong to him and he is merely the care taker of the bungalow. Can this act of Mukesh be considered as land
grabbing? Justify your answer.
(a) Yes, it can be considered in the purview of land grabbing, because Mukesh was just a care taker of the house
and did not possess the rights of the property.
(b) No, it cannot be considered as a land grabbing because Mukesh did not threatened or illegally acquired the
property, he had the right as the care taker.
(c) Yes, it can be considered as land grabbing, because Mukesh had illegally rented the property without Mr.
Ambani’s permission.

o m
(d) No, it cannot be considered as land grabbing because Mukesh had clarified that the property didn’t belong
to him.

c
rs .
Passage (Q.73-Q.78): In the last week, two Supreme Court judges — Justice Indira Banerjee and Justice
Aniruddha Bose — have recused themselves from hearing cases relating to West Bengal. On June 21, Delhi

e
High Court judge Anup Bhambhani recused himself from hearing a plea by digital media houses challenging the
validity of the IT rules regulating intermediaries.

k
When there is a conflict of interest, a judge can withdraw from hearing a case to prevent creating a perception

n
that she carried a bias while deciding the case. The conflict of interest can be in many ways — from holding

a
shares in a company that is a litigant to having a prior or personal association with a party involved in the case.

p r
Another instance for recusal is when an appeal is filed in the Supreme Court against a judgement of a High Court
that may have been delivered by the SC judge when she was in the HC.

o
The decision to recuse generally comes from the judge herself as it rests on the conscience and discretion of the

T
judge to disclose any potential conflict of interest. In some circumstances, lawyers or parties in the case bring it
up before the judge. If a judge recuses, the case is listed before the Chief Justice for allotment to a fresh Bench.
There are no formal rules governing recusals, although several Supreme Court judgments have dealt with the
issue.
In Ranjit Thakur v Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the tests of the likelihood of bias is the
reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the party. Once a request is made for recusal, the decision to
recuse or not rests with the judge.
In 2019, Justice Arun Mishra had controversially refused to recuse himself from a Constitution Bench set up to
re-examine a judgement 2U he had 1Gdelivered previously, despite several requests from the parties. Justice Mishra
8I3K2F2F3C
6O1S8Q 3O2P 3Rtr-6C
had reasonedtr-that the request for recusal was really an excuse for “forum shopping” and agreeing could
compromise the independence of the judiciary.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Explained: How judges recuse from cases, and why?” by Apurva
Vishwanath, The Indian Express].
73. During the trial, Harshad, who was serving as the defense counsel, extended his cross-examination into areas
2U3R
tr-that
6O1Swere
8Q3O2Pnot relevant to the matter at hand. Observing this, the trial judge intervened, interrupting Harshad to
ensure that he stayed focused on the pertinent issues. The judge took the opportunity to clarify to Harshad which
topics were appropriate for discussion during his opening statement. Following the trial, the defendant raised
concerns, alleging that the judge's actions demonstrated a bias against the defense counsel. Decide whether the
judge’s actions demonstrated a bias against the defense counsel or not.
(a) Yes, the judge’s actions demonstrated a bias against the defense counsel because he had a personal
association with a party involved in the case.
(b) No, the judge’s actions do not demonstrate a bias against the defense counsel because the judge was fulfilling
their duty to keep the trial on track and focused on the matters that are legally significant.
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 (c) Yes, the judge’s actions demonstrated a bias against the defense counsel because there is a there is a conflict
of interest.
(d) No, the judge’s actions do not demonstrate a bias against the defense counsel because there is no conflict of
interest.
74. In a high-profile case at the Bombay High Court, Justice Ravi Sharma presided over a lawsuit between Arya
Industries and Shakti Enterprises. Known for his sharp legal acumen and no-nonsense approach, Justice Sharma
had a reputation for delivering swift and decisive judgments. The case was complex, involving intricate details
of intellectual property law and business ethics and the judgment favored Arya Industries. After the trial, Shakti
Enterprises discovered that Justice Sharma held substantial shares in Arya Industries, which he had not disclosed
earlier. Decide whether the Justice Sharma’s actions demonstrated a bias against the Shakti Enterprises or not.
(a) Yes, Justice Sharma’s actions demonstrated a bias against the Shakti Enterprises because he had personal
association with Shakti Enterprises involved in the case.
(b) No, Justice Sharma’s actions did not demonstrate a bias against the Shakti Enterprises because Justice
Sharma was known for his sharp legal acumen and no-nonsense approach.

o m
(c) Yes, Justice Sharma’s actions demonstrated a bias against the Shakti Enterprises because Justice Sharma
held substantial shares in Arya Industries.

c
conflict of interest.

rs .
(d) No, Justice Sharma’s actions did not demonstrate a bias against the Shakti Enterprises because there was no

e
75. In a fictional scenario, Justice Meera Desai, now a Supreme Court judge, was involved in a significant land
dispute case while serving as a judge in the Delhi High Court. She had delivered a judgment favoring a prominent

k
real estate developer over a group of farmers claiming ancestral rights to the land. Years later, the farmers filed

n
an appeal against that High Court judgment in the Supreme Court, seeking to overturn the decision. When the

a
case was assigned to a bench that included Justice Desai, she immediately recognized her prior involvement in

p r
the matter. Decide whether there is a possibility of conflict of interest on part of Justice Meera Desai or not.
(a) Yes, there is a possibility of conflict of interest on part of Justice Meera Desai because an appeal against the
High Court judgment, which was delivered by her, is filed in the Supreme Court.

o
(b) No, there is no possibility of conflict of interest on part of Justice Meera Desai because she could hear the

T
appeal without any prior prejudice to the case.
(c) Yes, there is no possibility of conflict of interest on part of Justice Meera Desai because she had delivered a
judgment favoring a prominent real estate developer over a group of farmers.
(d) No, there is no possibility of conflict of interest on part of Justice Meera Desai because she immediately
recognized her prior involvement in the matter.
76. Suppose, in the above instance, she acknowledged that her previous judgment in the case could influence her
perspective. Despite her prior involvement, Justice Desai chose not to recuse herself, deciding to hear the appeal.
During the proceedings, the farmers' counsel expressed concerns about potential bias, arguing that Justice Desai's
previous ruling might affect her impartiality. 3C However, Justice Desai maintained that she could fairly adjudicate
2P 2U3Rtr-6C1G8I3K2F2F
the appeal without
tr-6O 1Sprejudice,
8Q 3O as her earlier decision had been based on the evidence and law at that time. Decide
whether Justice Desai is liable to recuse her from the judgment pursued by Supreme Court or not.
(a) Justice Desai is liable to recuse her from the judgment pursued by Supreme Court because when there is a
conflict of interest, a judge must withdraw from hearing a case.
(b) Justice Desai is not liable to recuse her from the judgment pursued by Supreme Court because it is her
discretion to recuse or not.
8Q3O2P2U 3R
tr-(c)
6O1SJustice Desai is liable to recuse her from the judgment pursued by Supreme Court because she is creating a
perception that she carried a bias while deciding the case.
(d) Justice Desai is not liable to recuse her from the judgment pursued by Supreme Court because she could
fairly adjudicate the appeal without prejudice.

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77. Suppose, in the above instance, she acknowledged that her previous judgment in the case could influence her
perspective. Understanding the importance of impartiality and to avoid any appearance of bias, Justice Desai
voluntarily recused herself from hearing the appeal. Decide where the case will be listed for hearing the appeal
in the Apex Court.
(a) If Justice Meera Desai recuses, the appeal would be reassigned to another bench of the Supreme Court of
India automatically.
(b) If Justice Meera Desai recuses, CJI would typically handle the reallocation of the case to ensure that it is
listed before a new bench that does not include Justice Desai.
(c) If Justice Meera Desai recuses, CJI might consider constituting a larger bench to hear the appeal filed in the
Supreme Court.
(d) If Justice Meera Desai recuses, the CJI could order an expedited hearing instructed to prioritize the case,
ensuring that justice is not delayed.

m
78. Justice Doyal, who had previously delivered a judgment in a significant case where Zenith Pharma and Arcadia
Biotech were locked in a legal dispute over patent rights for a new drug, was appointed to a Constitution Bench

o
tasked with re-examining the same judgment. The parties involved in the case, concerned about potential bias

c
due to Justice Doyal's prior involvement, requested his recusal from the bench. Despite multiple requests for his

.
recusal, Justice Mishra chose not to step down. He believed that stepping aside would set a wrong precedent

rs
where parties could manipulate the judicial process according to their own whims, thereby threatening the
impartiality of the courts. Decide whether Justice Doyal can refuse to recuse himself from this case or not.

k e
(a) Justice Doyal can refuse to recuse himself from this case because stepping aside would set a wrong precedent
where parties could manipulate the judicial process according to their own whims.

n
(b) Justice Doyal cannot refuse to recuse himself from this case because he previously delivered a judgment in

a
a significant case where Zenith Pharma and Arcadia Biotech were locked in a legal dispute over patent rights

r
for a new drug.
(c) Justice Doyal can refuse to recuse himself from this case because it was really an excuse for “forum

o p
shopping” and agreeing could compromise the independence of the judiciary.
(d) Justice Doyal cannot refuse to recuse himself from this case because it would indeed create a negative image
of the judge and the judiciary.

T
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): A patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an invention, which may be a product or
process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem. It gives its
owner the legal right to exclude others from making, using, or selling an invention for a limited period of time.
Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970. Under the act, patents are granted if the invention
fulfils the following criteria:
1. It should be novel
2. It should have inventive step/s or it must be non-obvious
3. It should be capable of Industrial 3Kapplication
2F2F3C
8Q3O2P 2U3Rtr-6C1G8I
4. It should nottr-6O1S
attract the provisions of sections 3 and 4 of the Patents Act 1970
Section 3 deals with what does not qualify as an invention under the Act, and Section 3(d) in particular excludes
“The discovery of a new form, property, or use of a known substance, or the mere use of a known process,
machine, or apparatus that does not enhance the known efficacy or result in a new product or employ a new
reactant” from being eligible for protection under patent law.
Section 3(d)
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
prevents what is known as “evergreening” of patents. It means that patents give you a monopoly
2U3R
over a chemical molecule for 20 years. So to continue protection under the patent regime, a pharmaceutical
company may make certain minute modifications and reapply for a patent, allowing them to extend the life of
patents about to expire. But, Section 3(d) allows for “generic competition by patenting only novel and genuine
inventions.”
Some flexibility in the act include the right to grant compulsory licenses and the grounds for such licenses, the
right to determine what “constitutes a national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency, including
public health crises” and the right to establish its own regime for the exhaustion of intellectual property rights.

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 Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process
without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patent-protected invention itself. Compulsory licenses
can be invoked by a state in public interest, allowing companies apart from the patent owner to produce a patented
product without consent.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “The Indian patent regime and its clash with the U.S. norms” by Sruthi
Darbhamulla, The Hindu].
79. Early one morning, Dr. Siya Patel, a renowned zoologist and her team heard an unusual, melodious chirping that
led them to a secluded valley. There, they found a small, brilliantly colored creature with emerald green and
sapphire blue plumage, large expressive eyes, and delicate translucent wings. This animal, which Siya named
the "Aurorabird," displayed a novel and unique behavior, sipping nectar from flowers and playing a crucial role
in pollination. This brought international attention to Siya’s work and she decided to patent Aurorabird under
the India Patents Act 1970, decide whether she can patent Aurorabird or not.
(a) Siya can patent Aurorabird under the India Patents Act 1970 because the animal displayed a novel and unique
behavior, sipping nectar from flowers and playing a crucial role in pollination.

o m
(b) Siya cannot patent Aurorabird under the India Patents Act 1970 because it is not a product or process that
provides a new way of doing something or capable of industrial application.

c
a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem.

rs .
(c) Siya can patent Aurorabird under the India Patents Act 1970 because it is a product or process that provides

(d) Siya cannot patent Aurorabird under the India Patents Act 1970 because the animal did not display any novel

80.
and unique behavior, capable of Industrial application.

k e
Rajiv Malhotra, a young entrepreneur, developed a product called "Eco-Charge," a solar-powered phone charger

n
designed to provide a sustainable solution to the frequent power outages in rural India. The device was robust,

a
efficient, and affordable, featuring an integrated solar panel and a high-capacity battery to ensure uninterrupted

r
charging even during cloudy days. Excited about his invention, Rajiv decided to apply for a patent. He was

p
confident that Eco-Charge was a game-changer for rural communities. However, upon consulting with a friend,
he was informed that solar-powered chargers were already well-documented and widely available in the market.

o
Persistent to get his invention Patented under the India Patents Act 1970, he has approached a Patent Attorney,

T
decide whether he will be able to get Eco-Charge patented under the Act or not.
(a) Rajiv Malhotra can get Eco-Charge patented under the India Patents Act 1970 because it is a product or
process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem.
(b) Rajiv Malhotra can get Eco-Charge patented under the India Patents Act 1970 because the device was robust,
efficient, and affordable, featuring an integrated solar panel and a high-capacity battery to ensure
uninterrupted charging even during cloudy days.
(c) Rajiv Malhotra cannot get Eco-Charge patented under the India Patents Act 1970 because the core concept
of Eco-Charge lacked novelty and did not meet the criteria for a patent.
(d) Rajiv Malhotra cannot get Eco-Charge patented under the India Patents Act 1970 because instead of patent,
he should aim to make it6Cwidely 2F3C
1G8I3K2Faccessible, collaborating with government programs to distribute the
2U3Rtr-
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
chargers.
81. Shraddha Ojha, a passionate environmentalist and hobbyist gardener, developed a novel method for growing
rare and delicate orchids. Even though it lacked an industrial application, her process involved a unique
combination of specific soil mixtures, precise humidity control, and the use of natural, non-toxic fertilizers,
resulting in vibrant blooms that thrived in urban environments. Excited by her success and eager to share her
2P2U3R
6O1S8Q3Owith
tr-method the world, Shraddha decided to apply for a patent. Confident that her novel process would be
recognized, she consulted a patent attorney, decide whether the patent attorney will grant Shraddha the patent
under the India Patents Act 1970 or not.
(a) Shraddha will be granted a Patent for her method for growing rare and delicate orchids under the Patents
Act, 1970 because it is a product or process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new
technical solution to a problem.

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 (b) Shraddha will not be granted a Patent for her method for growing rare and delicate orchids under the Patents
Act, 1970 because the Act does not protect the methods of preparation but only the end result if it is novel
and of use to people.
(c) Shraddha will be granted a Patent for her method for growing rare and delicate orchids under the Patents
Act, 1970 because it is a novel method for growing rare and delicate orchids and her process involved a
unique combination of specific soil mixtures, etc. resulting in vibrant blooms that thrived in urban
environments.
(d) Shraddha will not be granted a Patent for her method for growing rare and delicate orchids under the Patents
Act, 1970 because even though she developed a novel method for growing rare and delicate orchids, it lacks
an industrial application.
82. Pharmatech Inc. had developed a highly successful drug called "CardioPro," used to treat heart disease. The
original patent for CardioPro was set to expire soon, which meant generic manufacturers could start producing
cheaper versions, leading to significant revenue losses for Pharmatech. To prevent this, Pharmatech made a slight

m
modification to the drug's formula to create an extended-release version called "CardioPro XR." Although the

o
active ingredient remained the same, the new version allowed patients to take the medication once a day instead

c
of twice, providing added convenience. Decide whether it would qualify as an invention under Sec 3 of the
Patents Act, 1970 or not.

rs .
(a) CardioPro XR would qualify as an invention under Sec 3 of the Patents Act, 1970 because the new version
allowed patients to take the medication once a day instead of twice, providing added convenience.

k
enhance the known efficacy or result in a new product or employ a new reactant.
e
(b) CardioPro XR would not qualify as an invention under Sec 3 of the Patents Act, 1970 because it does not

n
(c) CardioPro XR would qualify as an invention under Sec 3 of the Patents Act, 1970 because it enhances the
known efficacy or result in a new product or employ a new reactant.

83. a
(d) CardioPro XR would not qualify as an invention under Sec 3 of the Patents Act, 1970 because once the

r
original patent expires, continued protection under the patent regime is not allowed.

p
Which of the following cannot be considered as an example of evergreening of patents?

o
(a) BeautiCare Inc., a leading cosmetics company, had a best-selling anti-aging cream called "YouthGlow." As

T
the patent expiration date approached, BeautiCare introduced a new version named "YouthGlow Plus,"
which included a slightly different fragrance and added vitamin C. Although the core formula and active
ingredients remained unchanged, BeautiCare applied for and received a new patent for YouthGlow Plus.
(b) TechWave Solutions developed a popular office productivity software suite called "OfficeMaster." With the
patent on their key software algorithms nearing expiration, TechWave released an updated version called
"OfficeMaster Pro" featuring minor user interface tweaks and an additional cloud storage integration.
Despite the core functionality remaining largely the same, TechWave patented these incremental updates.
(c) AgriGenetics Corp., a leading agricultural biotech firm, had patented a genetically modified corn variety
resistant to certain pests. As the patent was set to expire, AgriGenetics developed a new version of the corn
with an added resistance to1Ga8I3K 2F2F3C herbicide, branding it "SuperCorn." While the primary genetic
specific
2U3Rtr-6C
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
modifications for pest resistance were unchanged and to keep their profits high, the addition of herbicide
resistance made them secure a new patent.
(d) In the automotive industry, EcoDrive Motors faced a challenge when the patent for their innovative battery
technology, "EcoBatt," expired after its initial 20-year term. However, it made a new version, "EcoBatt 2.0,"
incorporated advanced materials, resulting in double the range and halved charging times compared to the
original2UEcoBatt.
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
3R EcoDrive promptly filed for a new patent for EcoBatt 2.0, emphasizing the substantial
advancements and EcoDrive successfully secured a new patent.

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84. During the COVID-19 pandemic, a pharmaceutical company, GlobalPharma Inc., held patents for a crucial
antiviral medication effective against respiratory infections, including COVID-19. Hospitals and healthcare
workers faced unprecedented challenges in managing the surge of COVID-19 patients, leading to shortages of
these antiviral medications. A local pharmaceutical company, MedRx Pharmaceuticals had the technical
capabilities to manufacture the drug but lacked the legal permission. In response to the public health crisis, the
Indian government issued a compulsory license to MedRx Pharmaceuticals, allowing them to produce the
antiviral medication. Getting to know about this, GlobalPharma Inc. filed a case for damages against MedRx for
infringing their exclusive rights protected under the Patents Act, 1970. Decide whether GlobalPharma Inc. is
likely to succeed or not.
(a) GlobalPharma Inc. is likely to succeed because Patent gives its owner the legal right to exclude others from
making, using, or selling an invention for a limited period of time.
(b) GlobalPharma Inc. is likely to succeed because it has a monopoly over the market as it held patents for a
crucial antiviral medication effective against respiratory infections, including COVID-19.

Pharmaceuticals, allowing them to produce the antiviral medication.

c m
(c) GlobalPharma Inc. is not likely to succeed because Indian government issued a compulsory license to MedRx

o
(d) GlobalPharma Inc. is not likely to succeed because the Indian Government can violate any laws in response
to the public health crisis.

rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
3K2F2F3C
2U3Rtr-6C1G8I
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P

2U3R
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P

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 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Political manifestos are not novel during an election season. But what is novel — and
heartening — is the release of a ‘people’s manifesto’ by the Jan Swasthya Abhiyan, a nationwide network of
doctors and patients’ rights advocates, that has called for increased public spending on health and easing the
burden of medical expenses on the citizen’s pocket, among other demands. The JSA charter has urged all political
parties to incorporate these demands into their election pledges since successive elected regimes have remained
indifferent to the prohibitive costs of healthcare in the country. It would be useful for citizens to examine the
JSA’s charter to understand the gap between word and deed of the powers that be. For instance, the Narendra
Modi government has often tooted its horn about achieving universal health coverage through the Pradhan Mantri
Jan Arogya Yojana along with the creation of health and wellness centres providing diagnostic treatment. But
this is not enough for a country that has only around 1.3 hospital beds per 1,000 people, far fewer than the
recommended 3 beds per 1,000 people. India’s per capita government spending on health, the JSA said, is only

m
$21; the corresponding figures are $76 for Sri Lanka, $207 in Thailand and $302 in China. Even the National

o
Health Policy 2017’s goal of raising government health spending to 2.5% of the GDP has remained unmet:

c
combined Central and state spending on health is less than 1.5% of India’s GDP, according to the JSA. This

rs .
miserly spending on healthcare by the State leads to a spike in out-of-pocket expenses, especially since the
Clinical Establishment (Registration and Regulation) Act, which seeks to regulate expenses in private
establishments, remains unimplemented. Health insurance coverage is also uneven: a NITI Aayog report

k e
highlighted that only 15% of India’s workforce receives insurance support from employers.
The Covid-19 pandemic had led to skeletons tumbling out of India’s health closet. Worryingly, public health

n
crises continue to evolve: India is expected to lose around $3.5 trillion worth of economic output owing to non-

a
communicable diseases by 2030. The lack of preparation for these challenges looming in the near future is

r
suggestive of policy apathy towards the challenges in public health management. This is unacceptable, given the

p
likely drain on individual finances, national exchequer and human capital. As India goes into the general election,
the people should cast their votes wisely — preferably for a party that has public health on its mind.
85.

To
What role does the comparison of India’s healthcare spending with that of other countries (Sri Lanka, Thailand,
China) serve in the overall argument presented by the Jan Swasthya Abhiyan in the passage?
(a) It highlights the disparities in healthcare spending as a critique of figures for other countries.
(b) It illustrates potential for the other countries to improve health outcomes through increased spending.
(c) It highlights the disparities in healthcare spending as a critique of India’s fiscal priorities.
(d) It provides a benchmark to measure the effectiveness of healthcare spending in improving access.
86. Based on the Jan Swasthya Abhiyan's advocacy for increased public health spending, what can be inferred about
their view on the current state of India's healthcare system?
(a) They believe that the healthcare system adequately meets the needs of India's population.
(b) They consider the3Ohealthcare 8I3K2F2F3C
system's
2U3Rtr-6C1G infrastructure to be sufficiently modern and accessible.
tr-6O1S8Q 2P
(c) They perceive a significant lack of investment in healthcare, affecting service quality and access.
(d) They view the current healthcare policies as effective in reducing the citizens' financial burden.
87. The author is likely to not agree with which of the following?
(a) Clinical Establishment (Registration and Regulation) Act, as a direct outcome of miserly spending on
healthcare by the state, remains unimplemented.
8Q3O2P2U 3R
tr-(b)
6O1SIndia's current healthcare infrastructure and spending are insufficient, especially in light of ongoing public
health challenges
(c) Inadequate government expenditure on health results into a heavy financial burden on citizens.
(d) The universal health coverage provided by the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is not as effective as it
should be.

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88. What is the primary argument made by the author regarding the release of a ‘people’s manifesto’ by the Jan
Swasthya Abhiyan?
(a) It is a strategic move to ensure political parties prioritize their policy promises in their agenda.
(b) It aims to directly influence the government's healthcare policies through highlighting bad governance
(c) It is primarily a critique of the current government’s health policies without suggesting any specific actions
for political parties.
(d) It sends a message to political parties and highlights the critical need for increased public spending on
healthcare.
89. Each of the following weakens the Jan Swasthya Abhiyan's argument for increased healthcare spending except
that
(a) Cultural beliefs and misinformation about healthcare prevent individuals from seeking timely medical
attention.

m
(b) The rapid population growth in the last decade growing demand often leads to overcrowding and a strain on

o
existing resources.
(c) Evidence that increased healthcare spending in similar economies did not improve health outcomes.

90.
impact of healthcare spending.

rs .c
(d) The healthcare sector's inefficiencies and corruption have led to misuse of allocated funds, reducing the

What information, if true, would most strengthen the case for implementing the Clinical Establishment
(Registration and Regulation) Act to control healthcare costs?

k e
(a) A study showing a direct correlation between existence of regulatory frameworks and lower healthcare costs.
(b) Surveys indicating that a majority of citizens demand more regulation of healthcare facilities.

n
(c) Examples of countries where similar legislation led to a significant reduction in medical errors.

a
(d) Due to major push by private investment in healthcare industry, healthcare costs have not risen as anticipated
by experts.

r
o p
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Swift and significant changes in the talent market have marked global trends in the last
two decades or so. Accordingly, Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) are expected to cope with the demands of

T
various sectors. The predominant discourse on the demands of the talent market and the employability of
graduates in India tends to revolve around one how do we recalibrate or improve the education system in our
colleges and universities?
HEIs are required to constantly upgrade themselves to meet the demands of both students and industries against
the backdrop of rapid technological development. The next generation of learners traverse physical and virtual
spaces, so learning has to be active, agile, adaptive, innovative, cooperative and collaborative. At the same time,
students need to be trained in social and communicative skills and entrepreneurship. Their creativity should be
triggered to innovate while keeping environmental and social concerns in mind. Above all, they need to be
mentored to become socially productive 2F citizens with honesty, integrity and humanity. This is possible if they are
8I3K2F 3C
empowered totr-learn
6O1S8Qaccording to1Gtheir abilities, interests, and specific needs through personalised learning.
3O2P2U3Rtr-6C

The term ‘personalised learning’ has been in vogue for a long time. Earlier, it referred to a one-to-one tutoring
system, mostly for the privileged. Today, it refers to learning that prioritises an individual student’s requirements
and uses flexible instructional practices in terms of content, pace and materials. Learning need not be linear as
sometimes, learners may have to take a step back if not equipped with the necessary schemata to understand the
content. The entire learning process becomes student-centric and the students are encouraged to design their own
2U3R
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
learning pathways.
Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Data Analytics play a major role in online and hybrid learning platforms. Globally
HEIs are introducing programmes where AI provides the platform to launch personalised learning. Technology
provides a variety of materials in various formats to suit different students and monitor and assess their progress.
However, it does not undermine the teacher’s role. There are areas such as communication and collaborative
skills, and emotional intelligence, which require human intervention. Therefore, the role of teachers in
personalised learning remains as important as it is in traditional learning. AI can never replace educators; it can

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 only enhance and support personalised learning by providing automated tasks, assessment platforms and
feedback.
Many paths of study emerge and all ultimately merge with the curriculum’s common learning outcome. Thus,
the pattern of education becomes student-centric. This systemic change gives a new dimension to the teaching-
learning process where teaching becomes counselling and the teacher becomes a mentor. The students are
motivated to take control of their learning and become autonomous.
Another way to reorient university education is to incorporate T-shaped learning, which aligns with and
complements multidisciplinary learning, emotional and cultural intelligence. This in turn boosts innovation,
entrepreneurial ability, employability of an individual, and organisational success. The vertical line of ‘T’
represents expertise in subject specific knowledge and skills, while the horizontal stands for a wide range of
communication, interpersonal and interdisciplinary skills, communication, and collaborative skills. Thus, the re-
oriented structure of HEIs will prepare the youth to be innovative and creative in their chosen fields, and train

m
them to be flexible, and collaborative, in addition to be critical thinkers and good communicators.
91.

demands of the talent market?

.c o
What assumption is necessary for the argument that HEIs must adapt to a model of education that includes both
AI-driven personalized learning and traditional human teaching methods to effectively meet the changing

rs
(a) Students possess sufficient technological skills to utilize AI-driven platforms effectively.
(b) AI-driven personalized learning platforms can adapt to various learning styles and needs.

k e
(c) The integration of AI in education will not replace the need for human interaction.
(d) Traditional teaching methods are universally less effective than AI-driven methods.

n
92. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

a
(a) In response to rapid changes in the global talent market and technological advancements, HEIs need to

r
reorient their educational models to be more student-centric, focusing on personalized learning that tailors
education to individual students' needs, interests, and abilities

o p
(b) HEIs must completely overhaul their traditional educational structures by removing the role of teachers, as
AI and Data Analytics can now provide all necessary learning tools and assessments for students in a more

T
efficient manner.
(c) To adapt to the demands of a dynamic global market, HEIs should prioritize the integration of technology
across all disciplines, ensuring that every student becomes an expert in AI and Data Analytics, regardless of
their field of study.
(d) HEIs should shift their focus entirely to vocational training, emphasizing immediate employability skills
over theoretical knowledge and critical thinking, to better align with the demands of the global talent market.
93. Based on the passage, which of the following can be most reasonably inferred about the role of educators in the
context of personalized learning?
(a) AI will primarily be used to teach communication3C
and emotional intelligence skills to students.
6C1G8I3K2F2F
3Rtr-shift
(b) The role of
tr- educators
6O 1S 8Q 3O 2P will
2U from traditional teaching to mentorship and counseling.
(c) Educators will only focus on administrative tasks while AI handles all instructional duties.
(d) The primary responsibility of educators will be to monitor AI systems that deliver educational content.
94. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument that T-shaped learning significantly enhances
the innovation and employability of students?
(a) Most employers
2U3R
report a preference for specialized knowledge over broad skill sets.
tr-6O1S8Q3O2P
(b) Students in T-shaped learning programs report higher satisfaction with their education.
(c) Innovation indices have risen in industries that primarily recruit T-shaped learners.
(d) T-shaped learning has been shown to increase collaboration but not individual innovation.
95. With which of the following options is the author of the passage most likely to agree?
(a) AI-driven learning platforms are sufficient for developing all necessary student skills.
(b) The role of human educators is irreplaceable in developing emotional intelligence in students.
(c) Technological advancements should eventually eliminate traditional teaching methods.
(d) Personalized learning is beneficial but should not be prioritized in education.
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96. The argument that "learners need to be mentored to become socially productive citizens with honesty, integrity,
and humanity. This is possible if they are empowered to learn according to their abilities, interests, and specific
needs through personalized learning" depends on which of the following assumptions?
(a) Personalized learning doesn’t effectively promotes the development of honesty, integrity, and humanity in
learners, making them socially productive citizens.
(b) tailoring education to individual learners' needs may naturally lead to the development of honesty, integrity,
and humanity in learners
(c) Personalized learning is more effective than traditional education methods in improving academic
performance.
(d) Social productivity, honesty, integrity, and humanity can be taught through structured curricula rather than
personalized learning.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Next year will mark the 30th anniversary of the Beijing declaration, a landmark blueprint
for advancing women’s rights. It marked the mainstreaming of feminist concerns, with 189 states signing up to

are human rights”.

c o m
the text at a conference in China, where Hillary Clinton, then first lady of the US, declared that “women’s rights

.
Yet when the United Nations celebrates that achievement, its commission for promoting and evaluating progress

rs
on gender equality will be steered by Saudi Arabia. A country known for its abysmal record on women’s rights
was chosen unopposed this week to chair the Commission on the Status of Women (CSW). Even the personal

e
status law it brandishes as a sign of progress in fact enshrines discrimination including male guardianship over
women, and gives immunity to perpetrators of “honour crimes”. Women’s rights advocates have been jailed and
there are multiple allegations of their torture.

n k
This moment reflects a broader global regression in gender equality. China has rolled back women’s rights, told

a
women to “uphold family values” and cracked down on feminist campaigners. In the US, which championed

women’s constitutional right to an abortion.

p r
decisive action at the Beijing meeting, the overturning of Roe v Wade after almost half a century removed

o
In Afghanistan, the Taliban has just announced that it will resume publicly stoning women to death. It had already

T
restricted the access of women and girls to education, employment and public spaces. Politicians in the Gambia
are seeking to overturn a ban on female genital mutilation. South Korea’s “anti-feminist” president has pledged
to abolish its gender equality ministry after winning a 2022 election fuelled by a backlash to the MeToo
movement.
Women and girls have been harder hit by the global hunger crisis, which has also increased sexual violence,
exploitation and child marriage. They are disproportionately affected by the climate crisis. According to UN
Women, at the current rate of progress it will take almost three centuries just to close the gaps in legal protections
and remove discriminatory laws – never mind achieving equality in practice. Not all female leaders promote
women’s rights. But poor representation at the UN and domestically is not a discrete issue; it also contributes to
3K2F2F3C
3O 2P 2U3Rtr-6C1G8I
other inequities.
tr-6O 1S 8Q

The rise of misogynistic, authoritarian leaders has set women back. But UN Women is clear that the broader
issue of a “lacklustre” commitment to equality lies behind the slow pace of change. Too many governments seem
to have forgotten the message from the Beijing conference: that women’s needs are not a nice optional extra, but
a fundamental component of human rights. Reproductive and sexual rights and freedom of movement are
frequently a matter
1S8Q3O2P2U
3R of life and death.
tr-6O
The dissonance of letting Saudi Arabia take the CSW’s chair is obvious. But if other member states such as
Japan, Spain and the Netherlands truly prioritise women’s rights they should not have stood by. Reportedly,
western nations were concerned about creating a precedent for challenging candidates. That is not good enough.
Women and men around the world continue to battle for the girls and women of today and the future, often at
personal risk. It may be hard to channel the hope felt in 1995, but these campaigners must be supported.

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97. Which of the following best represents the summary of the passage mentioned above?
(a) The appointment of Saudi Arabia as the chair of the UN Commission on the Status of Women signifies a
strategic shift in global gender policies, reflecting a broader movement towards conservative values and
traditional gender roles.
(b) Despite the 30th anniversary of the Beijing Declaration marking progress in women's rights, recent global
events and policies illustrate a persistent disregard for gender equality, underscoring the need for a
reassessment of international human rights priorities.
(c) The troubling regression in gender equality, exemplified by the appointment of Saudi Arabia as the chair of
the UN-CSW, calls for renewed and stronger support for women's rights worldwide.
(d) The recent global challenges in women’s rights, including setbacks in various countries and crises
exacerbating gender inequalities, underline the importance of re-evaluating past agreements on women's
rights to better address current issues.

m
98. Considering Saudi Arabia's record on women's rights, what information in the passage most undermines the

o
decision to allow it to chair the Commission on the Status of Women?
(a) Iran and Afghanistan, countries with poor records on gender equality, have also recently been considered for
leadership roles in international bodies focused on human rights and gender issues.

.c
(b) In the past, countries with strong records on women’s rights, such as Sweden and Norway, have frequently

rs
chaired the CSW, leading to significant advancements in global gender equality initiatives.

e
(c) Saudi Arabia has taken steps to promote women's rights, including reduced enforcement of male guardianship laws.
(d) Saudi Arabia's promotion of personal status law as progress actually enshrines discrimination, including

99.
male guardianship over women.

n k
The situation described in the passage is that Saudi Arabia, a country known for its poor record on women's

a
rights, was chosen to chair the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women (CSW), an organization

p r
dedicated to promoting gender equality. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a similar paradox?
(a) A government known for its strict environmental regulations appoints a renowned climate change activist as

o
the head of its environmental protection agency.
(b) A nation with a long history of racial discrimination appoints a well-known human rights advocate to lead

T
its civil rights commission.
(c) A fast-food company that has consistently promoted unhealthy eating habits launches a campaign advocating
for strict dietary guidelines and appoints a renowned nutritionist to lead the effort.
(d) A country that has achieved significant success in reducing poverty appoints an economist known for
advocating austerity measures to head its social welfare department.
100. How does the author structure the argument to highlight the contrast between past commitments to women’s
rights and current global practices?
(a) By comparing the progress made in women’s rights since the Beijing Declaration with recent global
examples of regression, such 3K2F2F3C
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(b) By focusing exclusively on the historical achievements of the Beijing Declaration, without addressing any
contemporary issues that contradict those advancements.
(c) By emphasizing the success stories of countries that have maintained strong commitments to women’s rights
while ignoring countries that have regressed.
(d) By outlining the specific goals of the Beijing Declaration and providing detailed statistics on how these goals
have been3Rachieved over the past three decades.
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101. Given the details provided, what might be the implications for future gender equality initiatives if the current
trend of regressive policies continues?
(a) Potential stagnation or reversal of progress in achieving gender equality worldwide.
(b) Increased international collaboration on women's rights due to differing national policies.
(c) Increased difficulty in achieving legal reforms for gender equality in many countries, making any future
progress on women's rights impossible.
(d) Countries with strong records on gender equality will likely withdraw from international forums, creating a
fragmented global landscape
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102. Which of the following best compares the situation in Saudi Arabia with other countries mentioned in the passage
regarding women’s rights?
(a) Saudi Arabia’s appointment reflects a unique global commitment to gender equality, unlike other countries
mentioned.
(b) Saudi Arabia's poor record on women's rights contrasts sharply with the progress made by countries like
China and Afghanistan.
(c) Saudi Arabia’s record on women’s rights is similar to the setbacks seen in countries like Afghanistan and
the Gambia.
(d) Saudi Arabia's progress on women's rights is consistent with the global trend of increasing gender equality.
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The Delhi High Court’s recent order allowing the Directorate General of Civil Aviation
to process the applications filed by several lessors for deregistration of 54 planes is a body blow to the resolution
process of Go First. The airline had 59 aircraft when it stopped operations in early May last year. With virtually

m
all but five aircraft gone, there would be very little assets left with the airline. The court verdict, therefore, makes

o
it difficult for any prospective resolution applicant to see any value in bidding for the ailing airline. After the

c
verdict, a successful resolution may elude Go First, leading to the most likely result—the liquidation of the
company.

rs .
Go First has been going through the insolvency resolution process since May 10 last year. The airline’s process

k e
is being overseen by resolution professional Shailendra Ajmera, who had so far successfully managed to avoid
deregistration of the leased aircraft. The National Company Law Tribunal had, in the past, rejected the lessors’

n
plea of deregistering the planes citing Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which gives a

a
company undergoing the insolvency process protection against legal proceedings.

p r
However, this protection was taken away after a change in rule effected by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs last
October. It said the provisions under Section 14 of the IBC would not apply to agreements governed by the Cape

To
Town Convention and Cape Town Protocol, which guide international interests in ‘mobile equipment’ including
aircraft. The Delhi High Court was also mindful of the fact that because of the prolonged failure to make remedies
and long tussle, as visible in this case, the global aviation leasing watchdog has taken down India’s compliance
index from 3.5 to 2 points out of 5.
The grounding of Go First is a blow to the aviation sector, which is now becoming a duopoly between IndiGo
and the Tata Group, with the two together accounting for almost 85 percent of the market in terms of passengers
carried. The future of Jet Airways, which has been acquired by Jalan-Kalrock consortium under the IBC, is still
uncertain. The resolution process of Go First had seen two buyers showing interest in the airlines, but the latest
court decision puts the resolution process at risk.
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The Delhi High court order allowing deregistration of 54 planes may help "save India's face" in the global
aviation leasing industry.
103. The main idea of the passage is most accurately represented by which of the following options?
(a) The Delhi High Court's decision to permit the deregistration of Go First’s aircraft primarily impacts the
company’s immediate financial standing and operational capabilities, leading to increased costs and
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(b) The Delhi High Court’s ruling allowing the deregistration of Go First’s aircraft helps improve the efficiency
of the insolvency resolution process for the airline and sets a precedent for similar cases in the future.
(c) The Delhi High Court order allowing the deregistration of Go First aircraft dampens the company's resolution
process, risks its liquidation, while also having broader implications for the Indian aviation sector.

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 (d) The Delhi High Court’s decision to allow deregistration of Go First’s aircraft addresses concerns over the
airline's ability to comply with international aviation regulations and aligns the company with global leasing
practices.
104. The information in the passage suggests which of the following about Section 14 of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code?
(a) Section 14 provides absolute protection against legal actions for all companies under insolvency.
(b) Section 14’s protections are inapplicable to aircraft under certain international leasing agreements.
(c) Section 14 effectively shields companies from all types of asset deregistration.
(d) Modifications to Section 14 have reinforced the insolvency protections for distressed companies.

105. Which of the following has not been cited as a reason for the blow to the resolution prospects of the company
(Go First)?

m
(a) The deregistration of a majority of the airline's leased aircraft.

o
(b) Significant reduction in assets post the deregistration of aircrafts.
(c) A change in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs’ rule regarding Section 14.
(d) The emergence of new market competitors in the aviation sector.

rs .c
106. The information in the passage suggests that the liquidation of a company becomes more likely when:

e
(a) A significant portion of its operational assets is subject to legal disputes.
(b) There is a governmental change in regulations that affects overall financial stability.
(c) Its market share is substantially reduced due to competitive pressures.

n
(d) It faces decreasing protection from creditors during insolvency proceedings.

a k
r
107. Based solely on the passage, which of the following is true about duopoly?

p
(a) It restricts market competition, possibly impacting consumer choice negatively.
(b) It ensures stability in the aviation market by reducing operational complexities.

o
(c) It leads to a decrease in ticket prices due to improved efficiencies.

T
(d) It enhances service quality through focused regulatory compliance.
108. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The legal changes affecting Go First’s leasing agreements were unrelated to international aviation standards.
(b) International lessors leased planes to Go First under agreements governed by the Cape Town Convention
and Cape Town Protocol.
(c) Before the latest change in clause 14 of the IBC, Go First's leasing agreements allowed the airline to
indefinitely retain possession of the aircraft.
(d) Go First's leased planes were exempt from international regulations due to special provisions in Indian law.
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 SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ratio of the speed of boat X to that of boat Y in still water is 7:13. Boat Z covers 84 km downstream in 3 hours
in river G. Boat Y covers 60 km downstream in river H in 2 hours. Boat Z covers 100 km in 4 hours in still
water. Ratio of the speed of the stream of river G to that of H is 3:4. Boat X covers 36 km upstream in 6 hours
in river K.
109. If the speed of the stream in river 𝐾 were doubled, what would be the new ratio of the speed of the streams in
rivers G, H, and K?
(a) 3: 4: 6 (b) 2: 5: 6 (c) 3: 4: 8 (d) 3: 4: 16
110. What is the difference between the speed of Boat 𝑌 in still water and the speed of Boat 𝑋 in still water?
(a) 12 km/h (b) 16 km/h (c) 14 km/h (d) 10 km/h

o m
111. In how much time will Boat Y cover a distance equivalent to twice the distance covered by Boat X upstream in
river K, assuming the same conditions?

c
(a) 3 hours (b) 4 hours (c) 5 hours (d) 6 hours

rs .
112. What is the ratio of the upstream speed of Boat 𝑋 in river 𝐾 to the upstream speed of Boat 𝑍 in river G?

e
(a) 2: 3 (b) 5: 6 (c) 3: 11 (d) 6: 11

Boat 𝑋 take to cover 330 km compared to Boat 𝑌?

(a) 3 hours (b) 2 hours

n
(c) 2.5 hours

a
(d) 4 hours
k
113. If Boat 𝑋 travels downstream in river 𝐾 and Boat 𝑌 travels downstream in river 𝐻, how much more time will

r
114. If the efficiency of a boat is defined as the ratio of its speed in still water to the speed of the stream it operates

p
in, which of the following boat-stream combination is the least efficient?
(a) Boat 𝑋 in river 𝐾 (b) Boat 𝑌 in river 𝐻
(c) Boat 𝑍 in river 𝐺

To (d) All are equally efficient

Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
There are two hospitals in a city, namely X and Y. The number of cleaners in hospital X is 40% more than that
of hospital Y. The number of doctors in hospital X is 20% less than the number of nurses in hospital X. The ratio
of the number of doctors to the number of nurses in hospital Y is 5:4, respectively, whereas the ratio of the
number of cleaners to the number of nurses in hospital X is 7:6. The total number of workers (doctors + nurses
+ cleaners) in both hospitals together is 408. The total number of doctors in both hospitals together is 148.

115. The total number of Nurses in hospital X2Fis

3Cwhat percent of the total number of Nurses in hospital Y?
2P 2U3Rtr-6C1G8I3K2F
(a) 80% tr-6O 1S 8Q 3O (b) 60% (c) 75% (d) 70%
116. What is the ratio of the total number of nurses in both hospitals to the total number of cleaners in both hospitals?
(a) 7:6 (b) 6:5 (c) 3:2 (d) 5:4
117. What is the total number of workers, including doctors, nurses, and cleaners, in hospital X?
(a) 240 (b) 182 (c) 230 (d) 178
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118. tr-What are the combined doctors-to-nurses ratio across both hospitals?
(a) 37:35 (b) 35:37 (c) 33:37 (d) 37:30
119. If the number of doctors in hospital X were increased by 25%, what would be the new total number of doctors
in hospital X?
(a) 54 (b) 60 (c) 72 (d) 48
120. If the total number of cleaners in both hospitals increases by 10%, how many additional cleaners are there in total?
(a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) None of the given options
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 Notes:

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Mock Objection Form (MOF)

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 SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

c o m
English Language Logical Reasoning

rs . Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

k e
Quantitative Techniques

3. I:

r an
◻
◻
◻
was too distracted during the Mock today

o
think I used the wrong sequence
p
T
wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
 spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
 spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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