newtonwhizz@gmail.

com

Disclaimer
Effort has been thoroughly made to make the
answers as impeccable as possible but this
doesn’t rule out any mistake or typographical
error.
The writer will not be responsible for any
misinformation. Also, the writer will not be
responsible to anybody or entity for any loss or
damage directly or indirectly caused or alleged to
be caused by the information in this book.
The writer doesn’t guarantee 100% correctness of
the answers. But effort was made to ensure the
answers were correct.
This is free and not to be sold for any price.
UI released these practice questions with options as answers
for free,
So this is to help UI aspirants.

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN POST-UTME PRACTICE

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

NOTE: Don’t use any

calculator to solve any of
these questions because you
will not be allowed to use any
calculator.

The answers are coloured red

PHYSICS
1. A ball is thrown up into the air. At the highest point of its trajectory the
ball: (A) Is accelerating downwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is
accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards

2. A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 m/s collides and sticks
with another ball of mass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity
4m/s. What is the common velocity of the balls after the collision?
(A) 5.6 ms-1 (B) 2.8 ms-1 (C) 11.2 ms-1 (D) 1.4 ms-1

3. A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball, if
the boy whirls the ball in a horizontal circle, keeping his hand still. If the
rubber cord breaks when the ball is at a point on the circle, in what direction
will the ball move? (A) towards the hand of the boy B. away from the hand of
the boy C. in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point of break D.
None of the above

4. A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just

sufficient to make a block of mass 4 kg set for motion. Find the acceleration
when the force is doubled. (A) 2 ms-2 (B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

5. A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north. His displacement is
(A) 1 km N15°E (B) 1 km N30°E (C) √2 km N45°E (D) 2 km N75°E

6. A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road

and covers a displacement of 50 m. Find the coefficient of dynamic friction
between the type and the ground (g = 10 ms-2)
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

7. A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically

downward with an initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone
hits the ground below, it is traveling at a speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics
student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from the cliff
instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the
velocity of the stone just before it hits the ground?
(A) 10.0 m/s (B) 20.0 m/s (C) 30.0 m/s (D) 40.0 m/s

8. A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in

momentum per unit length. Which of the following is its SI unit? (A) Nm (B)
kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1

9. A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on

a horizontal flat surface. What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert
on the surface?
(A) 816.6 Nm-2 (B) 816. 6 Nm-2 (C) 408.3 Nm-2 (D) 608.4 Nm-2

10. A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to

float upright in most common liquids. It is graduated to read the relative
density of a liquid directly. Which of the following is NOT correct?
(A) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own weight of the liquid
(B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C)When placed in a liquid, it
displaces exactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume
and density of liquid displaced is equal to its mass

11. A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 2.2 s. How
deep is the well? (Take g=10m/s-2) (A) 40.4 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 48.4 m (D) 24.2 m

12. A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 2.4 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw. At
what distance from the fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the
seesaw? (A) 2.8 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 3.2 m (D)3.8 m

13. An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface.

Which of the following is true about its mass and density as it rises?
(A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constant while its density
decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant. (D) Its mass is constant while
its density increases.

14. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an

application of (A) Pascal's principle. B. Archimedes’ principle. (C) Bernoulli's
principle. (D) irrotational flow.

15. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard meter is defined
in terms of (A) the distance from the earth’s equator to the north pole. (B)
the wavelength of light emitted from a krypton atom. (C) the wavelength of
light emitted from a sodium atom. (D) the speed of light.

16. Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20,000
cm/min (B) 180,000 cm/min (C) 120,000 cm/min (D) 150,000 cm/min

17. During a football match, player A kicks the ball 40 m, 30o E of S to player B
who instantly kicks it
30 m, 60o E of N. What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the
ball?
(A) 30 m (B) 40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m

18. How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2
m up a smooth plane that is inclined at 30o to the horizontal? (g = 9.8 ms-2)
(A) 9.8 J (B) 19.8 J (C) 16.2 J (D) 4.9 J

19. If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle

of radius r, what is its kinetic energy?
(A) mω r (B) m ω2r/2 (C) m ω r2/2 (D) m ω 2r2/2

20. In free fall, two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a
height. If the ball with the smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s, what is
the difference between the times the two balls reach the ground?
(A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s

21. In what distance can a 1,500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is

applied when the speed is 20 m/s and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.7
between the tyres and the ground?
(A) 98.10 m (B) 71.67 m (C) 29.15 m (D) 20.10 m

22. The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the
lowest point as it swings to and fro between the two extreme ends. At what
velocity does it swing past the lowest point (equilibrium point) where the
string is vertical? (take g = 10 m/s-2)
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s

23. Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The

vectors A and C point in opposite directions and their magnitudes are related
by the expression: A = 2C. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (B) B and
C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction. (C) B and C have
equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (D) A and B point in the
same direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.

24. Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force? (A)
Energy/distance (B) Energy x distance (C) Energy/time
(D) Momentum x distance

25. Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath
the surface of a liquid?
(A) Surface area of the liquid. (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point
below the surface (D) Strength of the gravitational field

26. Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity?
(A) Displacement: acceleration (B) Force: kinetic energy
(C) Momentum: velocity (D) Power : speed

27. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Uniform speed always implies uniform velocity (B) uniform speed always
implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply nonzero acceleration
(D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration

28. Which of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers?

(A) 2.0 cm (B) 2.00 cm (C) 2.000 cm (D) 2.0000 cm

29. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I.
Area II. Thrust III. Pressure IV. Mass.
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and II only

30. Which one of the following situations is not possible?

A. A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration.
B. A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration.
C. A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration.
D. A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity.

31.If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat
capacity, then (A) C= s/m (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = m/s
32. A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white
car because (A) it is hot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber
of heat (C) black cars have heaters installed in them (D) white cars have air
conditioning systems installed in them

33. A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do
not conduct sound easily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature
due to heating effect of current flowing through them. (C) to allow for the
effect of a rise in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere. (D) to allow
for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere.

34. A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC. If its
linear expansivity is 1.8 ×10-4/ k, its new length is (A) 166.6 cm (B) 101.6 cm
(C) 180.6 (D) 1.08 cm

35. A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 °C. What is the final
temperature of the gas if both the pressure and volume are doubled?
(A) 5 °C (B) 80 °C (C) 20 °C (D) 899 °C

36. A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid
ammonia (B) cold water (C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium

37. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 °C is

equal to a temperature decrease of (A) 30 F°. (B) 17 F°. (C) 30 K. (D) 86 F°.

38. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable

switches in electric appliances consist of metal strips that must have different
(A) mass. (B) volume. (C) length. (D) expansion coefficients.

39. Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat
to the other end which is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B)
Convection (C) Radiation (D) Evaporation

40. Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state
without a change in temperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C)
Latent heat (D) Boiling heat

41. How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas, initially at a

pressure of 1 atmosphere and temperature -20°C, be after it has been
compressed to ½ litre at 40°C? A. 2.47 atm. (B) 4.5 atm. (C) 8.0 atm. (D) 3.8
atm. (E) 16.8 atm.

42. On a cold day, a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor
conductor Y because (A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X
is lower than that of Y (C) X conducts heat from the body less rapidly than Y
(D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y

43. The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water
(B) the external pressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above

44. The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a
and 90a respectively. What will the thermometer read when the
temperature is 30 °C? (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a (D) 34a

45. The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120
respectively. Its reading at 60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88

46. The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container

(A) Decreases if the container is heated (B) Increases if the molecules of the
gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of the container is doubled (D)
Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases

47. The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B)

bimettalic strip (C) steel (D) conductor

48. Water has an anomalous behavior between 0°C and 4°C. Which of the
following is correct?
(A) Mass of water increases between 0°C and 4°C (B) Density of water
decreases between 0°C and 4°C (C) Volume of water increases between 0°C
and 4°C (D) Volume of water decreases between 0oC and 4oC

49. What is the Celsius equivalent of 50.0° F? (A) 10° C (B) 20° C (C) 30° C
(D) 40° C

50. When water is heated in a glass vessel, the level first falls and then rises
because (A) The apparent expansion of the water is initially small and later
increases. (B) There is anomalous expansion of water. (C)The glass vessel
does not expand. (D)Glass vessel expands first before water starts a more
rapid expansion.

51. Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest
change from its heat content at melting point? (A) 0.5 kg of water at 3°C (B)
0.2 kg of water at 8°C (C) 0.005 kg of water at 80°C (D) 0.1 kg of water at 12°C

52. Which would cause a more serious burn: 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid

water, both at 100 °C; and why is this so?
(A) Water, because it is denser than steam. (B) Steam, because of its specific
heat capacity. (C) Steam, because of its latent heat of vaporization. (D)Water,
because its specific heat is greater than that of steam.

53. A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years. How long will it
take the activity to become ¼ of its original?
(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years

54. A plane progressive wave is represented by = 2 (100 − 0.2 )

where all the symbols have their usual meanings. What is the velocity of the
wave?
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

55. A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium

is called (A) Node (B) Antinodes (C) Note (D) Amplitude

56. A uniform wave has a speed of 10m/s and a period of 0.5 s. The distance
between two nearest crests is (A) 0.2 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m

57. A vibrating string has a tension of 40N and produces a note of 200Hz
when plucked in the middle. When the length of string is unaltered and the
tension is increased to160N, the frequency becomes (A) 1600Hz (B) 800Hz
(C) 400Hz (D) 200Hz

58. An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long. Determine the frequency
of the fundamental note assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340m/s?
(A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D) 106Hz

59. As transverse wave moves through a medium, the particles of the

medium (A) vibrate in a path parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move
(C) vibrate in a path perpendicular to the path of the wave (D) vibrate at an
angle of 60o to the path of the wave

60. The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface
is known as (A) Echo (B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration

61. Which of the following properties is not common to all waves? (A)
Reflection (B) interference (C) Diffraction (D) Polarization

62. Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves?

(A) They are longitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same
frequency in vacuum (D) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum

63. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic

waves is false? (A) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves. (B)
Electromagnetic waves transfer energy
through space. (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by
Maxwell. (D) Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material
substance.

64. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? (A) A
wave can have both transverse and longitudinal components. (B) A wave
carries energy from one place to another.
(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium. (D)
A transverse wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction
of travel.

65. A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is
called (A) Yellow Spot (B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina

66. A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of

focal length 12cm and a real image is produced. Find the image distance if it
is equal to the object distance. (A) 6cm (B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm

67. An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm. The

image formed is (A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in
front of the mirror (C) virtual and 40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
68. How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed
such that its erect image is four times its natural size? (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C)
45 cm (D) 50 cm

69. How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two
plane mirrors that are inclined at angle 30o to each other?
(A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12

70. Professor Peters walks directly towards a plane mirror at a speed of 0.25
m/s. Determine the speed of the image relative to him.
*(A) 0.13 m/s (B) 0.50 m/s (C) 0.25 m/s (D) 0.75 m/s*

71. The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction
in the less dense medium is 90° is called a
(A) Critical angle (B) Reflected angle (C) Incident angle (D) Emergent angle

72. The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave
mirror (D) thick plane mirror

73. The following are types of a converging lens except

(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus

74. When the Sun, the earth and the moon are in line during their
movement, with the earth being the opaque object and casting its shadow on
the moon, we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Total eclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D)
Annular eclipse

75. Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of

elevation of the sun? (A) Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant

76. Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of
plane mirrors? (A) Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple
periscope

77. Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light
travels in straight lines?
(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light
producesinterferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of
light produces distinct shadows of opaque objects
78.Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission? It is: (A) the
splitting of a heavy nucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent
used to slow down neutrons in a controlled atomic chain reaction
(C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) the spontaneous
disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms

79. A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum
kinetic energy of 0.2eV are ejected. If the work function of the metal is 0.3eV,
what is the value of E? (A) 0.10eV (B) 0.06eV (C) 0.50eV (D) 1.50eV
hf= w+K.E
W=work function
h=Planck’s constant
f=frequency
K.E=kinetic energy

80. A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding
energy is not sufficient to hold nuclear particles together. (C) it is very light
with very low density (D) it has no significant mass.

81. A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years. If its activity today is 200
dps, its activity in 8 years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10
dps

82. A substance has a half-life of 3min. After 6min, the count rate was
observed to be 400.Whatn was its count rate at zero time? (A) 2400 (B) 200
(C) 1200 (D) 1600

83. An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B)
neutrons (C) protons (D) irons

84. Complete the following sentence: When electrons from a heated filament
accelerate through vacuum toward a positive plate, (A) only an electric field
will be produced. (B) only a magnetic field will be produced. (C)
electromagnetic waves will be produced. (D) longitudinal waves will be
produced.

85. Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble
elements (C) rare earth elements (D) elements that spontaneously emit
radiation
86. The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays
(B) -rays (C) X- rays (D) neutrons

87. Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon
depend? (A) mass (B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency

88. Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray? (A) It moves in a
straight line (B) It causes fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It
can produce -particles

89. Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus? (A) J. J Thomson (B)
Albert Einstein (C) Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie

90. X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the
body (B) to detect finger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to
detect alterations to works of art

91. 1 farad is equivalent to: (A) 1 coulomb/volt (B) 1 volt/coulomb (C) 1

joules/coulomb (D) 1 ampere/sec. (E) volts per unit charge

92. A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be

converted to a 0-10A ammeter by using (A) 0.03ohm series resistor (B)
9.99ohm shunt resistor (C) 0.03ohm shunt resistor (D) 9.99ohm series resistor

93. A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V. The terminal
voltage when a load of 20 Ω is connected across it is:
(A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V

94. A conducting sphere has a net charge of – . × -17C. What is the

approximate number of excess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental
natural charge is -1.6 x 10-19C? (A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 200 (D) 400

95. A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C)

chemical treatment (D) the use of solenoid through which an alternating
current is flowing
96. An a.c voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω,
inductance 3 mH and a capacitance of 0.05 μF. Calculate the resonance
frequency. (A) 11.0 kHz (B) 12.0 kHz (C) 13.0 kHz (D) 14.0 kHz

97. An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2
second with 100% efficiency. The power produced is
(A) 0.5 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W

98. Complete the following statement: The electromotive force is (A) the
maximum potential difference between the terminals of a battery. (B) the
force that accelerates electrons through a wire when a battery is connected
to it. (C) The force that accelerates protons through a wire when a battery is
connected to it. (D) The maximum capacitance between the terminals of a
battery.

99. If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane, what is the

general direction of the resulting magnetic field? (A) In the plane of the circle.
(B) At an angle 45o to the plane of motion. (C) Along the perpendicular axis
through the center of the circle. (D) Along the tangent to the circle.

100. If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled,

then the ratio of the old current to the new current is (A) 1:3 (B) 3:1 (C) 6:1
(D) 1:6

101. The angle between the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal is called
angle of (A) declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination

102. The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is
(A) The size of the magnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the
galvanometer (C) The soft iron armature in the galvanometer (D) The couple
formed on the parallel sides of the rectangular coil in the galvanometer.

103. The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or

charge producing it. This is a statement of
(A) Faraday’s Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Ampere’s law

104. The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in

magnitude. If Ohm’s law is obeyed, one of the following statements
concerning the resistance of the wire is true?
(A) The resistance is one half of its original value. (B) The resistance is twice
its original value. (C) The resistance is not changed. (D) The resistance
increases by a factor of four.

105. The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its

conductivity is called (A) Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening

106. Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of

materials (A) volume and density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and
resistivity (D) density and resistivity.

107. Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer: (A) Emf
of a secondary cell (B) Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a
conductor (D) Resistance of a wire

108. Which of the following devices is odd in the list ? (A) thermocouple (B)
potentiometer (C) d.c. generator (D) solar cell

109. Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires

used for making fuses? (A) high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low
melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
110. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force
on a charged particle in a magnetic field is true? (A) It is a maximum if the
particle is stationary. (B) It is a maximum if the particle moves parallel to the
field. (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positively charged particle. (D)
It depends on the component of the particle's velocity that is perpendicular
to the field.

Thanks for getting my personally-solved UI

practice question.

Please allow 5 minutes, let me show you;

Why a lot of UI aspirants fail UI post UTME (that is their
scores don’t meet the cut off mark of their aspired course)
and also why many will still fail this year.
Sincerely, for UI, if your score doesn’t meet the cut off mark for your
aspired course, this means “no admission for you to study the course.”
I wasn’t given any course too, the first time I wrote UI POST UTME because
I failed! My post UTME score was 3 marks below the cut off mark.
Now, you think “I was lazy or maybe I didn’t read well.”
See, I read 99% of my textbooks, I even went ahead to read A-level
textbooks which I bought, solved more than 85 A-level questions, I also
attended two tutorials, solved the entire UI practice questions UI released.
I just wanted to be safe because I didn’t know where UI could bring
questions from; I didn’t want to leave any stone unturned.
Now, I am sure you are doing the same; attending tutorials, aiming not to
leave any stone unturned, reading and reading, without knowing the full
nature of the exam.
It was after writing the POST UTME for the first time that I knew the nature
of the exam and how UI sets questions and where UI sets questions from
too.
In fact, let me tell you a secret, if you just know this only, you already have
the key to UI POST UTME,
So, what is the secret?
UI POST UTME IS O-LEVEL NOT A-LEVEL
Maybe this is why UI doesn’t release her POST UTME past questions and
also restricts the Use of Calculator in the exam hall; all these to make the
exam seem difficult or make you score less.
The following year, I scored 306 and my POST UTME score was 4 marks
above the cut off mark for my aspired course, (I passed).
I didn’t have to go to any tutorial (don’t get me wrong, tutorials are
helpful), but since I already knew the nature of the exam and I was certain
of admission, I knew what and what to read, what part of JAMB series UI
sets questions from and how the questions are set.
So, I asked myself, “Why do I need tutorial again?”
I created a reading strategy that worked for me; it brought out the genius in
me. Everybody has that genius in them.
I didn’t even open the two A-level textbooks which I had bought the
previous year. UI even repeated some questions from the previous year.
So, knowing the nature of the UI POST UTME made me gain admission
easily.
So, how did I know it?
I knew it after writing UI POST UTME once, I knew how UI sets questions
and what UI set and where UI set questions from.
But, you don’t have to write it once too before knowing its nature.
You don’t have to waste one year, do you?
You don’t have to fail once, to know the nature of the exam.

The bitter truth is that, many will still fail (not gain
admission) this year.
Which is why I want to show very few UI SCIENCE aspirants who are
serious about gaining admission, the nature of UI POST UTME by giving
them the questions that were asked in (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017 &
2018, no post UTME in 2016), give them all that worked for me; my reading
strategy, my recommended textbooks, timely info (you won’t have to listen
to rumours again, all information about the exam will be confirmed at the
admissions office)
You may not go to tutorials (your choice) but if you can follow my
instructions to the letter, you don’t need to attend one. You will be in my
inner circle whatsapp group where you will be monitored.
All this for almost FREE, and I am going to scare the lazy aspirants by
requesting a tiny investment on your part.
I want to show you the nature of UI POST UTME, so you too can get your
dream course without much stress.
And if that sounds like what you want,
Take this further,
What? You are still reading??????
Contact me now, 09011356353, (WHATSAPP or call)
Or if you don’t believe me, you can end it here and keep wondering what UI post UTME looks
like, maybe you too will know its nature after writing it once.