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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

MOCK CLAT 35

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE context, the author mentions that reminding oneself of
1. (d) This is a tone that affects or moves the emotions or the fact that one is dying prevents one from thinking that
one’s mental appeal; therefore, poignant is the there is something that one will miss out on in life or that
correct answer. The author in the passage stirs the something will escape you. ‘Loose’, on the other hand,
readers mental and emotional through an encouraging means moveable, irresponsible or free. It does not fit the
and courageous attitude adopted by him; thereby, context. The rest of the options do not apply as the
moving the readers’ senses to do the right thing by them. respective words have been correctly used.
The tone is not gloomy, even in parts. Gloomy means 5. (c) Although it is a story of the author’s life and success, the
depressing. message given in option (c) is very clear; the whole
Sarcastic means mocking, which is not conveyed in the passage has been structured around the quote. The
passage. author has lived by the motto all his life, including when
Didactic means ‘intended for instruction’, but it has a he discovers that he has cancer. Also, it is this quote he
negative connotation that of inclined to twach a moral uses to prescribe it as the way of living for others.
lesson or lecture others too much. Although in the Therefore, option (c) is the best choice.
passage, the author gives suggestions, but it is more of Option (a) is beyond the interconnectedness between
an emotional appeal; therefore, didactic is not the right life and death.
tone in the given context. Option (b) is random and does not reflect the passage
Option (d) is correct. one bit.
2. (c) The author has included the concept of death to explain Option (d) presents an incomplete picture of the
that the time available is limited and hence should not be passage.
wasted. It should be utilized in a fruitful way. Option (c) 6. (b) Terminal: This word means leading to death or having
is correct for this logic. It is true that everyone would no possibility of being cured, which is the closest
relate to death but it would not add value to the point the synonym to “incurable”.
author is looking to make in the passage; hence, option Incorrect Answers:
(a) does not qualify as an answer. Option (b) is illogical Option (a) Treatable: This word means capable of being
for its hypothetical and farfetched reasoning. Option (d) treated or cured, which is the opposite of “incurable”.
is not evident in the passage, so can be rejected. Option (c) Temporary: This word means lasting for a
3. (c) In option (c), it is not certain whether death defines the limited period of time, which does not relate to the
prupose for all or not. It may or may not be one’s attitude concept of being “incurable”.
toward life. Therefore, option (c) is not applicable to all. Option (d) Manageable: This word means capable of
Also, the statement does not find support in the passage. being controlled or dealt with, which implies that the
Options (a), option (b) and (d) are clearly written in the condition can be handled, unlike “incurable”.
passage. Refer to the fifth paragraph. Therefore, these 7. (c) The author keeps on hinting how the situation has
are not untrue. turned out to be a little tense with a crowd of people
4. (d) The correct option is (d). The word that needs to replace getting together to protest against the government
‘loose’ is ‘lose’. Lose means to miss or escape. In this officials.

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8. (c) The author has used an idiom to convey the attitude of sentence in the passage says that the roof protects the
people towards the entertainer. pillars form wind and rain so it might be thought as a
Similie means a stated comparison (usually formed way for durability of the inscriptions on the pillars.
with "like" or "as") between two fundamentally Hence, the answer is option (d). Options (a), (b) and (c)
dissimilar things that have certain qualities in common. do not find a mention in the passage and, therefore, are
Hence, this is not used.
Metaphor means an implied comparison between two incorrect.
dissimilar things that have something in common. 16. (c) Option (c) is correct as per the first and second sentence
Hence, this has not been used. of the third paragraph of the given passage which says
Idiom is a group of words established by usage as that the message was inscribed across the empire onto
having a meaning not deducible from those of the freestanding boulders etc. Hence, the answer is option
individual words. Hence, this is the answer (c). Option (a) is a false notion and does not address the
Litotes is a figure of speech consisting of an
understatement in which an affirmative is expressed by question stem. Option (b) is incorrect as the message
negating its opposite. We don’t see its usage. was inscripted in many languages, but not as a
9. (b) Option (a) is incorrect as the author hints that Gao Yang translation. Option (d) is ruled out as it is contrary to
did not intend to be a part of this movement and did not what has been mentioned in the passage. Refer to the
come with that intention. However, he could not leave line, ‘Ashoka's ethical message was refined and rendered
and he thought staying may not be too much trouble. in a number of Indian vernaculars, as well as Greek and
10. (d) Options (a) & (b) are synonyms and incorrect. Option (c) Aramaic.’
is not an antonym for the word premonition which 17. (c) Both b) and d) are correct as per the first sentence of the
means a strong feeling that something is about to fourth paragraph in the passage. Hence, the answer is
happen, especially something unpleasant. Therefore, the option c). Refer to the lines, ‘'This Inscription on Ethics
correct answer is Option (d). has been written in stone so that it might endure long
11. (d) Options (b) & (c) do not relate to the information and that my descendants might act in conformity with it,'
provided in the passage and hence, are incorrect. Option Ashoka says at the end of the fifth edict.’. Option (a) does
(a) is incorrect in light of inferences drawn from the first not find a mention in the passage and was not the
paragraph as well as the last paragraph which shows intention of the emperor, as well.
that the farmers came with the intention to voice their 18. (c) This is an inferential question that also tests one’s
concerns. interpretation of the statement. Such statements invite
12. (a) Options (b), (c) & (d) do not seem as the most reasonable varied interpretation, but the one that is the closest to
outcomes from what the author has written. The last two the essence can be taken the answer. Usually, adages on
paragraphs point towards the protestors turning violent ethics come from personal or relative experiences.
and the government officials failing to address them. In Option (c) is correct as the inscription talks about how
all probability, the reasonable outcome is Option (a). hard it is to do good and even beginning to do good is
13. (b) Option b) is correct as per the fourth paragraph of the hard. This message might be an experience from his own
given passage as the whole paragraph talks about the life. Option (a) is ruled out as it a wrong interpretation of
fact that it important that the message inscribed on the the statement. Option (b) is far-fetched as ‘not always’
pillars must be first adopted by his sons, grandsons and, cannot be the possible interpretation. Option (d) is
after those, my posterity, otherwise it might be forgotten illogical. How do we figure out his personality through
and cannot become a way of life. So, he changed his the statement: That he was a calm man? It is absurd.
words of the fourth edict (in the fifth edict) where he 19. (d) The definition of epidemiologist’ is a specialist who studies,
speaks of his ethical project progressing 'until the end of assess, and analyses public health concerns in a given
the world'. Hence, the answer is option b).Option (a) is population, the tracking of patterns and effects of diseases,
contrary as he knew that unless his immediate environmental toxins, natural disasters, violence etc. All
successors do not continue the legacy, his words will option more or less appear true, but option (d) is the most
fade. Option (c) is ruled out as it finds no support in the comprehensive as epidemiologists are not restricted only
passage. Option (d) is beyond the scope and nowhere to children, neither are they restricted to emotional or
near the interpretation that the author gives. mental health. When we say public health, the word public
14. (c) Option (c) strengthens the argument mentioned in the takes into account all and sundry and health is all
question. The sentence says that Ashoka's influence is encompassing. (Physical, emotional, mental, spiritual).
still there though the Mauryan empire sustained for Options (a), (b) and (c) are partially true and restricting;
lesser period of time. Statement in option (c) which says therefore, ruled out.
that Ashoka's influence can be seen in India itself as India 20. (a) A tone is a particular style or manner, as of writing or
adopted the Ashoka wheel on the National flag of India. speech; mood. Let us options one by one to understand
This strengthens the idea of his influence mentioned in as to why option A is the tone of the passage.
the question. Hence, the answer is option c). Option (a) Option (a): ‘Though-provoking’ means a tone that
is merely a description of what the animals symbolise compels one to think seriously about the given issue,
and does not answer the question stem. Option (b) is Clearly, through the passage, the author wants to
irrelevant, as it again does not answer the question stem. communicate to keep a tight check on all protocols
Option (d) is partially true; only the former part of the regarding Pandemic. Similarly, ‘Prescribing’ means
sentence. The latter part of the sentence is beyond the giving solutions. Through the last paragraph of the
scope. passage, the author suggests various measures to ward
15. (d) Option (d) is correct as per the second and third off any danger towards the children.
sentence of the first paragraph of the given passage. This

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 Option (b) is ruled out as ‘condescending’ means while we are cautious, we also have to move ahead. We
showing or implying a superiority by descending from cannot remain stagnant (the decision by the government
one’s position. ‘Demeaning’ means to be mean or to open schools amid fear of third wave). Option (d) is
belittling towards others. partly true as a title, it does not take the entire passage into
Option (c) is incorrect as ‘vituperative’ means insulting account. Of course, we are on red alert (vigilant, in case of
by way of using abusive language and ‘incendiary’ means the third wave), but that is not the only thing the author
provoking someone to a state of anger. communicates through the passage. Option (a) is a total
Option (d) is ruled out as ‘circumventing’ means to contradiction to the essence of the passage; therefore,
evade an issue, which is definitely not the case here. And cannot serve as a title. ‘Throwing caution to the wind’
‘insouciant’ means carefree almost to the point of being means to completely discard one’s cautiousness in order to
indifferent. take a risk.
From the various tones, one can understand that option 24. (b) The word ‘calibrated’ is a verb. A word that changes a
A is best describes the tone of the passage. form to ‘ed’ usually belongs to the part of speech ‘verb’.
21. (a) Refer to the lines, “In Israel, one of the most vaccinated The meaning of the word ‘calibrated’ is to determine,
countries with an estimated 78% coverage of the over- check or rectify the graduation of any measurement. It
12 population, the Delta variant swiftly caused a spike in also means to divide or mark with gradation. The
infections as distancing norms, the mask mandate and meaning in the context of the passage is to devise or
travel bans were eliminated.” Israil serves as an example plan something for precise application or appeal.
to remain vigilant against the Delta variant, particularly
against disregarding basic protocols of distancing SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
norms, the mask mandate and travel bans. This is best 25. (a) Only statement 1 is correct.
stated in option (a). He has represented the north-western city of Tabriz in
Option (b) is incorrect as though the first part of the parliament since 2008 and was a deputy speaker from 2016
sentence is true, but the fact that Delta variant is to 2020.
stubborn against the vaccination finds no mention in the After a crackdown on the unrest that followed the disputed
example of Israel. 2009 presidential election, Mr Pezeshkian drew attention for
Option (c) is incorrect for two reasons: first, the his criticism of the government's treatment of protesters,
government does not require the author’s permission which spurred a backlash from Iran’s hard-line politicians.
(gives nod to). Even if we take it as the author agreeing He has represented the north-western city of Tabriz in
to the government’s decision, it is still not the relevant parliament since 2008 and was a deputy speaker from 2016
option as example of Israel has been used with regard to to 2020.
taking all necessary precaution even after vaccination. 26. (b) The Supreme Leader might be seeking to soften the
Option (d) is far-fetched as the example of Israel is not to government's stance on some issues.
fend off (brush aside) the fact that Delta variant is In a celebratory speech, he praised the "guidance" of
immune to virus. Ayatollah Khamenei, saying he would not have been able to
22. (d) Let us understand ‘qualified approval’. Qualified means succeed without him.
limited/cautious/partial/. While the author welcomes the With Iran facing a struggling economy, a shadow-war with
decision by the government to open up the school as an act Israel that burst into the open earlier this year, and
of bridging of the learning deficit caused by prolonged continuing discontent over the violent crackdown on the
school closures that are crippling future prospects of women-led protests that erupted in 2022, the fact that Mr
millions of children, he is equally sceptical of the risk of Pezeshkian was even allowed to stand could be a sign that
infection due to exposure to the virus. the Supreme Leader wishes to soften the government's
Option (a) is ruled out as the author is not blaming or stance on certain issues.
criticizing (censuring) the government’s decision. There 27. (b) The Iran-Iraq War
are no harsh words used in the passage that are Masoud Pezeshkian was born in 1954 in the city of
indicative of censure. Mahabad, in the north-western province of West Azerbaijan.
Option (b), while true, is only partially true. The author He is of mixed Azeri-Kurdish ancestry and grew up
is cautious (circumspect), but is also approving the speaking both languages, giving him broad appeal among
government’s decision. the ethnic minority groups which make up more than a third
Option (c) is rejected as embracing means all welcoming, of Iran’s population of 89 million.
which is not the case. The author is not inviting with his He studied medicine in the years before the 1979 Islamic
arms wide open to welcome the decision of the revolution - and as a fresh-faced doctor he organised
government. medical assistance for wounded soldiers during the Iran-Iraq
23. (c) Before we address all options, let us understand the War in the 1980s. He specialized in cardiac surgery after the
meaning of the word discretion as it appears in two out of conflict.
four options. Discretion means the quality of showing the 28. (d) Masoud Pezeshkian, a former health minister and member
prudence with reference to one’s actions or speech. It of parliament, was the most moderate of the candidates
means to have the foresight or to take responsibility. While vying for the presidency after the sudden death of former
options (b), (c) and (d) are more or less on the same lines, President Ibrahim Raisi in a helicopter crash in May.
Wildcard candidate Masoud Pezeshkian will become Iran's
yet there are crucial differences in all. Definitely this is an
first reformist president in almost two decades, after he
age of discretion, (option (b)) with pandemic sieging us on
defeated hardliner Saeed Jalili in a run-off election on
all sides, one will have to be discreet about one’s actions. At
Friday.
the same time, option (c) is better suited as a title because

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29. (a) Iran's government is controlled by a religious figure called The aircraft registered VT-RTN, arrived directly from the
the supreme leader, who is appointed by a group of Islamic Airbus facility in Toulouse, France on Sunday.
clerics called the Assembly of Experts. A president, elected 38. (a) Only 1
by the people, is second in command. The addition of the new aircraft to its existing fleet is a
Iran has extensive oil reserves, but its economy has been hit significant milestone in the brand's transformational
hard by a trade ban imposed by the United States since the journey, said the company reported ANI. The aircraft
shah was ousted in 1979. Allegations that Iran supports features a three-class configuration which includes eight
terrorism and a belief that it is developing nuclear weapons business-class seats, a premium economy class with 24
has led to further isolation in recent years. seats, and a 132-seat economy class.
30. (b) Iran's government is controlled by a religious figure called Air India owned by the Tata Group welcomed its first A320,
the supreme leader, who is appointed by a group of Islamic a narrow-body aircraft wrapped up in the new brand livery
clerics called the Assembly of Experts. A president, elected at the Indira Gandhi International Airport in New Delhi,
by the people, is second in command. reported ANI on Sunday, July 7th.
31. (a) This mission drives responsible and inclusive growth of The aircraft registered VT-RTN, arrived directly from the
India's AI ecosystem through the following seven pillars Airbus facility in Toulouse, France on Sunday.
which will be the key focus of Global IndiaAI Summit. 39. (c) Luxury business class seats
32. (a) This initiative promotes AI applications in critical sectors by After 69 years of operating under the government of India,
addressing problem statements from Central Ministries, Tata Group bought it back in January 2022. Since then the
State Departments, and other institutions. It focuses on brand has been focused on taking back market share by
developing, scaling, and promoting the adoption of offering a full-service and luxury experience. The airline
impactful AI solutions with the potential for large-scale operator has been addressing issues like recruiting talent,
socio-economic transformation. servicing aircraft, getting new aircraft, upgrading
33. (b) To increase the number of AI courses at various educational technology, enhancing customer service, etc.
levels 40. (d) Campbell Wilson is the chief executive officer and
This pillar aims to reduce barriers to entry into AI programs managing director of Air India, from 16 June 2022. He was
by increasing AI courses at the undergraduate, master's, and previously the chief executive officer of Singaporean low-
Ph.D. levels. Data and AI Labs will be established in Tier 2 cost airline, Scoot. He was appointed the founding member
and Tier 3 cities to offer foundational courses. of the airline on 18 July 2011.
34. (b) July 3rd and 4th, 2024 41. (a) Rabindranath Tagore Jayanti 2024 commemorates the 163rd
Continuing the Government of India’s commitment to birth anniversary of the versatile Bengali Poet, known for
advancing the responsible development, deployment, and his literary contributions, establishment of Viswa Bharti
adoption of AI, the ‘Global IndiaAI Summit’ is being University, and timeless inspirational quotes promoting
organized for July 3rd and 4th, 2024 in New Delhi, India. courage, humility, and happiness. People pay tribute to him
The Summit will focus on key pillars of the AI ecosystem, through their act, discussions, organising cultural events.
including Compute Capacity, Foundational Models, Originally called Shantiniketan, Viswa Bharti University
Datasets, Application Development, Future Skills, Startup was established by Rabindranath Tagore.
Financing, and Safe and trusted AI. As the Lead Chair of the 42. (b) Rabindranath Tagore Jayanti 2024: As per Gregorian
Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI), India calendar, Rabindra Jayanti falls on May 7, but according to
will host GPAI member countries, and experts to advance Bengali calendar, it will be observed on May 8.
GPAI’s commitment to safe, secure, and trustworthy AI. 43. (b) Tagore is the only person as per historical records to have
35. (a) Minister for Railways, lnformation and Broadcasting, written the national anthem for two countries. He wrote Jana
Electronics & Information Technology, Government of Gana Mana, the national anthem for India, and Amar Sonar
India. Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw (born in 1970) is a Member Bangla, the national anthem for Bangladesh. Further, some
of Rajya Sabha from Odisha. historians claim he deeply influenced the Sri Lankan
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is national anthem as well.
organizing the ‘Global IndiaAI Summit’ on July 3rd and 4th, He won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913—the first non-
2024, in New Delhi. The summit aims to foster collaboration European to do so—for his acclaimed collection of poems
and knowledge exchange, underscoring India’s dedication titled Gitanjali. The Nobel committee said Tagore was
to the ethical and inclusive growth of AI technologies. awarded the prestigious prize "because of his profoundly
36. (b) The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is sensitive, fresh and beautiful verse, by which, with
a multi-stakeholder initiative which aims to bridge the gap consummate skill, he has made his poetic thought, expressed
between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting- in his own English words, a part of the literature of the
edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities. West."
Launched in June 2020 with 15 members, today GPAI’s 44. (b) His role as a political leader
membership has expanded to 28 member countries and the Tagore is revered around the world for his remarkable
European Union. As one of the founding members of GPAI contributions to the fields of literature, music and art. He
in 2020, the current incoming Support Chair of GPAI, and was a massive cultural icon who wore many hats including
the Lead Chair for GPAI in 2024, India is hosting the Annual poet, writer, composer, social reformer and educationist, to
GPAI Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023. name a few. In his memory, cultural programmes and events
37. (b) VT-RTN are held on Rabindra Jayanti.
Air India owned by the Tata Group welcomed its first A320, In order to reform classroom education, Tagore set up a
a narrow-body aircraft wrapped up in the new brand livery university of his own—Visva-Bharati University in
at the Indira Gandhi International Airport in New Delhi, Santiniketan, West Bengal—using the cash prize he
reported ANI on Sunday, July 7th. received with the Nobel as well as funds collected from

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 around the world. Rabindra Jayanti is celebrated on a large The pivotal roles played by these stakeholders in driving
scale at Santiniketan, mainly at Visva-Bharati. growth and fostering value-added transformation within
45. (a) He won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913—the first non- India's agricultural sector are commendable and warrant
European to do so—for his acclaimed collection of poems recognition and accolades.
titled Gitanjali. The Nobel committee said Tagore was Today, a new revolution is unfolding within the agriculture
awarded the prestigious prize "because of his profoundly sector, propelled by the relentless dedication of farmers,
sensitive, fresh and beautiful verse, by which, with progressive government policies, sustained interventions
consummate skill, he has made his poetic thought, expressed by institutions and corporations, and the innovative
in his own English words, a part of the literature of the solutions offered by startups and individuals.
West."
46. (d) Screening his movies SECTION-C : LEGAL REASONING
On this day, seminars and programmes are organised all 53. (a) Option (a) is correct. Although Y helped X in procuring
over Bengal where people celebrate the poet with his the grenade and gave him a lift to the parliament the day
creations. People sing his songs, perform dramas written by X had planned to throw the grenade, nothing in the given
him and recite his poetry. 2024 will observe Rabindranath fact suggests that Y stayed with X, to constitute unlawful
Tagore's 163rd birth anniversary. assembly. Question does not suggest that there were 5
47. (a) The National Awards Committee, chaired by Hon'ble Mr. or more member. In whole situation X and Y are involved
Justice P. Sathasivam, comprises a distinguished panel of a and the action of Y after dropping X to parliament left for
dozen national luminaries. A rigorous selection process, college shows there was no common object. The last line
employing a two-tier system, ensures the utmost integrity in of the passage states that for deciding the liability of a
the awarding process. person one should be the member of such assembly
48. (b) These prestigious awards are conferred annually across followed by whether that person share common object
various categories to honour individuals and organisations or not. Since 1st condition is not met by Y thus, Option (a)
for their outstanding contributions in their respective fields.
will be correct and Option (b) will be incorrect because
The National Awards Committee, chaired by Hon’ble Mr.
there is no requirement to see common object as he was
Justice P. Sathasivam, comprises a distinguished panel of a
not a member of unlawful assembly. Option (a) is more
dozen national luminaries. A rigorous selection process,
appropriate answer. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect
employing a two-tier system, ensures the utmost integrity in
because nothing is indicative of the fact that Y knew
the awarding process.
about X’s intention to throw grenade in the parliament,
49. (c) The Agriculture Leadership Awards, instituted in 2008, are
hence the ingredients are not satisfied completely.
annual recognitions that celebrate excellence and leadership
in agricultural development and rural prosperity. The 2024 54. (d) Option (d) is correct. Even with the change in facts, there
awards ceremony took place as part of the 15th Agriculture is nothing conclusive to indicate that Y stayed there with
Leadership Conclave held in New Delhi. X with the common objective to throw grenade. He had
50. (c) Dedication of farmers, progressive policies, institutional to wait because his bike was punctured, hence no
interventions, and innovations by startups liability under section 149 can be attracted and still it
The agricultural landscape in India has undergone a does not satisfy the first condition of five or more
remarkable transformation since the Green Revolution. member. Since our answer from the previous question is
Today, a new revolution is unfolding within the agriculture not changing, the options with ‘yes’ are straightaway
sector, propelled by the relentless dedication of farmers, eliminated i.e., A & C, thus leaving us with B & D, where
progressive government policies, sustained interventions by the latter is correct due to correct (d) because no act of
institutions and corporations, and the innovative solutions Y constitute offence under section 149 .
offered by startups and individuals. The pivotal roles played 55. (c) Option (c) is correct. It is quite apparent that no offence
by these stakeholders in driving growth and fostering value- has been committed by Z and his friends under section
added transformation within India's agricultural sector are 149 of IPC because they were arrested before the
commendable and warrant recognition and accolades. commission of any offence, hence the ingredients of the
51. (b) To honour and incentivize individuals and organizations for said section are left unsatisfied; giving us C as the correct
exemplary leadership in agriculture answer. A also seems to be true but C offers a more
In response to the imperative to acknowledge the comprehensive (c). 2nd line of the 3rd para sates that
contributions of various stakeholders in agriculture at the “There must be reasonable direct or indirect
national level, our magazine has taken the initiative to circumstances which lend assurance to the prosecution
honour and incentivise individuals and organisations who case that they shared common object of the unlawful
have demonstrated exemplary leadership in agriculture. The assembly”. In present situation Z got the petrol and
inception of the Agriculture Leadership Awards in 2008 lighter which was not known to other. Thus, Option (b)
marked the initial stride in this direction. is incorrect. On the basis of the same reasoning Option
These prestigious awards are conferred annually across (d) is correct.
various categories to honour individuals and organisations 56. (d) Option (d) is correct. As per the given facts, it was Z’s idea
for their outstanding contributions in their respective fields. to burn the house using petrol, furthermore nothing in
The National Awards Committee, chaired by Hon’ble Mr. the facts suggest that it was a common object of
Justice P. Sathasivam, comprises a distinguished panel of a everyone in the same. Also, it was Z only who went and
dozen national luminaries. A rigorous selection process, brought the petrol and lighter so although Z is liable, he
employing a two-tier system, ensures the utmost integrity in cannot be held liable under section 149 because the
the awarding process. ingredients of unlawful assembly are not satisfied. Since
52. (c) Tourism development our answer from the previous question is not changing,

217
 the options with ‘yes’ are straightaway eliminated i.e., A however it was received by the promisee at 6:00 PM.
& C, thus leaving us with B & D, where the latter is correct There for the offer is set to be made at 6:00 PM.
due to correct (d) . Option (c) is incorrect since it mentions the time of
57. (b) Option (b) is correct as Q and his friends had a mutual acceptance as 11:31 PM that is the time when it was
understanding to just go and threaten P but when they received by the promisor. However, the communication
reached there it was Q’s individual decision to assault P; of acceptance against the promisor is complete when the
nothing in the facts suggest of anything contrary to this. acceptance is put in the course of transmission. Since the
Hence, although Q can be held liable separately, the acceptance was put in course of transmission at 11:30
entire group cannot be made liable under section 149 as PM, the acceptance is completed at 11:30 PM itself.
one of the most important factor of five or more member Option (d) is incorrect in light of the reasoning given for
is also not inferred from the question. Option (b) is more option (a) and (c).
correct answer than D, due to the exhaustive (b) it 61. (b) Correct Answer: the passage provides that section 13 of
serves. On the basis of above (b) options A and C can be the IT Act provides for the place and time of dispatch and
straightaway eliminated. receipt of the electronic record. However, it provides
58. (d) Option (d) is correct. As even if everyone was involved in that section 13 will apply only in cases where there is no
assaulting P, nothing in the facts suggest that there was prior agreement with respect to the place and time
a common object between all of them and fact is also between the parties. Therefore, section 13 will govern
silent about the number of people involved; they all the date and time of contract made through electronic
assaulted P in their individual capacity, hence the means only when the parties have not agreed about
ingredient that the members of the unlawful assembly anything with respect to place and time. However, in
should share the common object at all stages is not light of the facts of the case, parties have agreed that the
satisfied, hence 149 will not be attracted. Since our place shall be Mumbai. Hence (b) undisputedly stands
answer from the previous question is not changing, the correct.
options with ‘yes’ are straightaway eliminated i.e., A & C, Option (a) is incorrect because the parties have decided
thus leaving us with B & D, where the latter is correct due that the place for contract shall be Mumbai. Hence there
to correct (d) shall be no application of section 13 of the IT Act, since it
59. (c) The passage provides that there was no provision to is applicable only those situations where there is no
legally recognise E-Contract under the Indian Contract agreement between the parties.
Act and that lacuna was filled by IT Act. 1st line of 3rd para Option (c) and (d) cannot be correct in light of the
clearly states that Thus, the empty vessel of the Contract aforesaid reasoning.
Act, is filled by the IT Act and shall work concurrently. 62. (c) as per the passage, the electronic contracts for given
Thus, once the contract is made through electronic legal recognition by section 10A of the IT Act. However,
mode, it is governed by Contract Act for all other a careful reading of section 10A shall provide that it
purposes, like fulfilling the essential requirements of the merely declares that no contract should be invalid solely
contract, place of contract etc. Since the object of the on the grounds of being made electronically. However if
contract is in doubt in the passage, we shall look at it the law itself provides that a contract if made
under contract act too. Hence, all e-contracts are electronically has to also be put in writing and registered
governed by both IT Act and Contract Act. Thus (c) with the ministry, then we cannot say that a contract
Option (a) and (b) are partially correct as every e- which is merely made online is valid until such
contract is governed by both IT Act and Contract Act. additional requirements are fulfilled. Therefore, a
Merely because a Contract has been made electronically, contract made electronically is valid as long as it fulfills
it does not mean that it shall be out of the clutches of all additional requirements of law, if any. Since in the
Contract Act. facts of the case, the contract was not put in writing and
Option (d) is incorrect because no such discretion is registered with the required ministry, we cannot say
given to the party, since every e-contract is governed by that it was a valid contract. Hence (c).
both IT Act and Contract Act. A party has to rely on both Option (a) is incorrect because even though an
the laws and cannot choose between one or the other. electronic contract is recognized by the IT Act, and
60. (b) as per the passage, the communication of the offer is provides that no contract shall be invalid solely on this
complete when it comes to the knowledge of the ground. However, if there are additional requirements
promisee. Therefore, an offer is set to be in the which are to be fulfilled under any other rules
knowledge of the promise when he receives the offer and regulations, statute, then such electronic contract can be
not when it was posted by the Promisor. Since the mail invalid in case it fails to fulfill those additional
was received by the Promisee at 6 PM, it shall be the time requirements.
of offer. Similarly, communication of the acceptance as Option (b) is incorrect because the passage itself says
against the promisor is complete when it is put in course that the contract act, in itself, does not recognize or
of transmission. Therefore, the moment an email is sent provide for electronic contract.
by the Promisee, the communication is complete against Option (d) is invalid in light of reasoning given for Option
the promisor. Since the mail was sent at 11:30 PM, it (a) and (b). Since a contract is required to fulfill all legal
shall be the time of acceptance. Hence (b) requirements under any statute since the contract in the
Option (a) is incorrect since the time of offer is given as question fail to comply with the rules made specially for
5:53 PM, whereas the communication of offer is set to be the government contracts, we cannot say that the
complete when it is received by the promisee. Since in contract is a valid one.
the facts of the case the offer was sent at 5:53 PM

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63. (a) Correct Answer: the passage provides that in case the 66. (b) Statement I is not correct as the passage do not states
acceptance is given through telephone, then the contract that to form a case of false imprisonment there must
is said to be made at the place where the acceptance is essentially be an intention to cause an unlawful arrest,
received. In the question, the acceptance was given on confinement or imprisonment on the part of the
phone even though the offer was made in an email. defendant to be held guilty. Thus, not correct.
However since the acceptance is given on phone, the Statement II is again not correct as the passage only
contract shall be completed in Delhi since the acceptance implies false imprisonment as an incident where an
was received in Delhi. It does not matter that after giving individual’s personal freedom and liberty is taken away.
acceptance on phone, the promise also wrote an email as Thus, not correct.
the acceptance was already communicated. Hence (a) Statement III is correct as The tort of false imprisonment
Option (b) is incorrect because the acceptance was given can be defined as an incidence where there is an
through phone. The passage itself provides that where infringement of a person's right to freedom of movement
the acceptance is given through phone the contract is granted by law, which is a prerequisite of all civilized
said to be made at the place where the acceptance is living.
received. Since the Acceptance was received by the Statement IV is correct as an unlawful detention is
promisor in Delhi, therefore, the place where the barred by article 21 of the constitution of India. Thus, an
contract concluded is Delhi and not Banaras. essential for the commission of the tort of false
Option (c) is incorrect because the acceptance was given imprisonment.
through phone. The passage itself provides that where Therefore, Option (b) is correct.
the acceptance is given through phone the contract is 67. (b) Option (a) will not be a deemed good example of false
said to be made at the place where the acceptance is imprisonment as the Preventive Detention Act of 1950
received. Since the Acceptance was received by the gives immunity to officers if the arrest or detention is
promisor in Delhi, therefore, the place where the affected in good faith and in pursuance of the Act. it can
contract concluded is Delhi and not Mumbai. be inferred from the illustration given that the officer
Option (d) is incorrect because there is no concept like only detained the plaintiff for a brief period of time for
partial completion of contract at two places. Further, in interrogation. Thus, not a good example of false
case communication of acceptance is given imprisonment.
telephonically, it is completed at the place where Option (b) will be a good example of false imprisonment
acceptance is received. Since the promisor received the as not releasing a prisoner immediately after completion
acceptance through phone in Delhi, the contract of jail sentence amounts to false imprisonment.
concluded in Delhi Moreover, the officer being negligent adds to the liability
64. (c) The crowd will be held liable for committing the tort of imposing false imprisonment.
false imprisonment as according to the passage, The tort Option (c), will not be a good example of false
of false imprisonment is, in essence, only an imprisonment. In the present case the school boy didn’t
infringement of a person's right to freedom of movement even detained yet. Conversation is still going on. Thus,
granted by law, which is a prerequisite of all civilized not a good illustration for false imprisonment.
living. The police constables had the authority to take Illustration given under Option (d) also do not provide
Chuck to the police station since they discovered an for a good example of false imprisonment as the plaintiff
unlawful object in his possession. As a result, the mob restrained on a justified reason.
will be held responsible for the tort and violating Article 68. (a) Option (a) is correct as even if they agreed to work till 4
21. Both A and B will be rejected since they are partially pm, they did not agree to work in unbreathable
correct. Option (c) includes both (a) and (b). Option (d) conditions. Hence, if a person has not agreed over
is erroneous since the factual question asks about the something and is being forced to stay in a place against
crowd's culpability, not the constables'. As a result, it's his will violates Article 21, thus amounts to wrongful
wrong. confinement. As a result of same options (c) and (d)
65. (a) Option (a) is correct as a writ of habeas corpus can be stands incorrect. Option (b) is not correct as it does not
applied for in an incidence of police atrocities. Since the states it will be false imprisonment. It just made it
facts suggests that the police officer with an intent to unlawful so Option (a) will be more appropriate answer.
cause injury to the applicant filed a false statement 69. (c) according to passage’s text, the Common law principles
against the applicant. Thus, it would be a correct ruling. did not require pre-existing contractual relations for the
Option (b) is incorrect since the supplied statement does doctrine of agency of necessity to be applicable which
not provide any justification for the assertion given. impacted persons who has not appointed them thus this
Furthermore, under the Prevention of Detention Act, the loophole is over come under Indian law. However Indian
accused can only claim immunity if the act was done in law mandates for a contractual relation to be present
good faith, which is not the situation here. As a result, between the principle and agent for the doctrine to be
Option (c) is inaccurate as well. applicable as stated in Section 189 of The Indian
Option (d) is not considered since the law only grants Contract Act, 1872. Therefore, if a person acts on behalf
police immunity if the arrest or detention is made in of another person, albeit in an emergency, without a pre-
good faith and in accordance with the Act. In present existing contractual relationship, his/her act will not be
situation officer cannot claim immunity under the covered under the doctrine of agency of necessity as it is
Preventive Detention Act of 1950 as he acted in common law. Thus, Option (c) is correct. Option (a) is
maliciously. incorrect as it depicts a situation for application of
doctrine in common law. Option (b) is not correct as

219
 under Indian law, a principle will be held liable for the proves that it was impossible for the agent to get the
acts done by his agents outside of their authority. principal's instruction. Thus Option (b) is correct.
70. (a) Option (a) is correct as it can be inferred from the three The statement given in Option (c) will support the B’s
essentials mentioned in the passage for the application claim of application of the doctrine of agency by
of the doctrine. Which states, the doctrine of agency of necessity as the agent must have acted bona fide is an
necessity applies when the agent acted in bona fide essential condition for the application of the doctrine.
manner. The statement given in Option (d) will support the B’s
Option (b) is not correct as the passage in its entire claim of application of the doctrine of agency by
context do not discusses the liability of the principle it necessity as a genuine necessity is an essential condition
only provides for when an agent will be absolved of from for the application of the doctrine.
the liability if he acts out of necessity under an 74. (b) Option (a) is incorrect as according to the passage, India
emergency situation. is currently going through a deep crisis, with the
Option (c) is not correct as the passage do not discusses judiciary being tasked with strengthening democracy
the domain of liability of the principle in case of third and defending and advancing social liberties. As a result,
party. Thus, not correct. Option (d) again is eliminated the topic of political ideology, or the dominance of that
on grounds that no such information can be deduced ideology, is not the context of the text.
from passage’s context. Option (b) is correct as the third paragraph of the
71. (d) According to English common law,it does not require passage states the threats which Indian democracy is
pre-existing contractual relations for the doctrine of facing in current sceneries. It includes denial of
agency of necessity to be applicable. However it is legislature from doing their duties along with separation
necessary that the agents must have acted to protect the of the morality of society from the morality declared by
interest or property of the principal as stated in the 3rd the Indian judiciary.
line of the passage that the agent, is faced with an Option (c) is eliminated as the concept of economical
emergency which poses an imminent threat to the crisis is not the context of the passage. Option (d) is
interests or the property of another 3rd party or the incorrect as Political criminalization as a major threat to
Principal, and there is insufficient time or means for the Indian democracy and its long-term viability has not
agent to seek for the Principal's directions or authority been discussed in the passage’s context.
regarding the matter.. Thus, in this situation A will not be 75. (d) Option (d) is correct as here in this case, all the above
successful as he acted not to protect the interest of the mentioned options are correct as they are clearly
owner or 3rd party but for personal interest. Thus, depicting the examples which shows that parliament
Option (d) is correct. Therefore Option (b) is eliminated. being supreme in the country doesn’t work efficiently.
Option (a) is correct but acting in the interest for the All these three examples are given in fifth, sixth and
principle is also an essential for application for pleading seventh paragraphs of the passage. Hence, Option (d)
the defence of doctrine of necessity. Thus, not correct. provides the most appropriate rationale for this
Option (c) is not correct as the Common law principles reasoning.
did not require pre-existing contractual relations for the 76. (a) Option (a) is correct as it can be clearly inferred from
doctrine of agency of necessity to be applicable. the passage that the sole responsibility to protect the
72. (b) The doctrine of agency of necessity applies in the case social freedoms is placed solely upon the judiciary as
when one party, the agent, is faced with an emergency there is degradation and abuse of the roles played by the
which poses an imminent threat to the interests or the legislature and executive. Therefore, Option (a)
property of 3rd party or the principal, and there is deducing the most appropriate rationale for this
insufficient time or means for the agent to seek for the reasoning. Option (c) is incorrect as content of Option (c)
principal’s directions or authority regarding the matter. is included in Option (a).
Since the facts do not assert that there is any necessity Option (b) is depicting the current situation and giving
not imminent threat to the principle’s interest i.e., the the solution as suggested in passage’s last paragraph.
cloth. Thus, not A but B is correct. Hence, Option (c) is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect as it presents a suggestive Option (d) is eliminated as passage’s context clearly
argument i.e., it “should” have waited for P’s instruction. suggests itis judiciary that has assumed the role of the
Thus, eliminated. single most important pillar of India’s parliamentary
Option (d) is incorrect as the facts do not asserts democracy, built on separation of powers, mainly
expressly that the agent acted in good faith. Except for because of the degradation and abuse of the roles of the
the fact that he sold the cloth analyzing its appreciating legislature and the executive.
value in the market. This assertion cannot be deduced as 77. (c) Option (a) is incorrect as though it can be considered as
an act done in good faith unless expressly mentioned. one of the reason as to why the judiciary can’t be given
73. (b) Option (a) is not correct as the stand on the existence of the work of the democratizing the society, but since no
the relationship between principle and agent differs in such reason is expressly presented in the text of the
common law and Indian law. Since the factual question passage, hence, not considered. Option (b) is incorrect
states he was tasked for work thus existence of on the similar lines.
relationship is clear. Thus, Option (a) cannot be correct. In the last paragraph of the passage itself, it is clearly
Option (b) is correct as in absence of channel of mentioned that it’s not responsibility of the judiciary to
communication. The second principle talks about democratize the society. The Judiciary is a constituted
impossible for the agent to get the principal's body or unelected body which doesn’t have any people's
instruction. In factual matrix no situation is shown that mandate. Hence, it would not be possible for Judiciary to

220
 run the government or democratizing the society. As a the words, signs or representations show them as a
result, Option (c) deduces the most relevant justification representative of the government. The applicants were
for this reasoning, ruling out Option (d) as the correct shouting at Z in his individual capacity and did not target
answer. the government per se. Option (a) is not the correct
78. (c) We can come to the conclusion by critically analyze the answer for the same reason. Option (c) is not the correct
second paragraph of the passage where it is clearly answer as just disrupting the public order does not make
mentioned that, because the Supreme Court Judges one liable for sedition. Option (d) is not the correct
passed the judgments like Sabrimala Verdict, Triple answer since a charge for sedition can be made even
Talaq, Section 377 of IPC, the court aims at abolishing the though Z has committed a wrongful act.
old persisting evils. Therefore, Option (c) deducing the 83. (c) The correct answer is Option (c) since L, being a
most appropriate rationale for this reasoning. Option (a) newspaper editor just expressed his disapproval or
is incorrect since the cartoonist refers to the Supreme criticism of the government without any attempt to
Court as the one accepting responsibility for bringing bring hatred, or contempt, or any feeling of enmity or
about change and evolving the society into a better disloyalty against the government. He did not create any
human species. It may also be extrapolated from public disorder nor did he try to spread any disaffection
cartoonists' comment that such Supreme Court against the government. It is also mentioned in the
decisions are undoubtedly causing good changes in passage that while deciding for sedition, the intention
society. Option (d) though correct but it only reiterates has to be looked at. Here, L published the article with the
to what has been said in the context of the line and hence intent of explaining the entire system. Option (a) is not
Option (c) is a better alternative. the correct answer for the same reason. Option (b) is not
Option (b) is ruled out since the cartoonist made such a the correct answer since an opinion as well can be
statement on the Supreme Court in light of the judgment. seditious in nature. Option (d) is not the correct answer
Option (c) connects the argument to the Supreme since all the requisites of sedition are not being satisfied
Court's decision. As a result, Option (c) is examined. as mentioned earlier.
79. (c) The correct answer is Option (c) as a citizen can use his 84. (d) The correct answer is Option (d) since the passage states
freedom of expression to criticize the Government, as that words, signs or representations against politicians
long as the citizen does not incite people to violence or public servants by themselves do not fall under
against the Government. As no one paid any heed sedition unless the words/signs/representations show
towards P's statement, there was no incitement to any them as representative of the Government. Option (a) is
violence or disruption of public order which is a not the correct answer because a citizen may utilize his
necessary criterion to be liable for sedition. Option (a) is freedom of expression to criticize the government as
not the correct answer because there was no violence long as he does not urge people to violence against the
taking place in the above situation. Option (b) is not the government, which is regarded an ‘legitimate’
correct answer as all the requisites of sedition are not restriction imposed and not illegitimate. Option (b) is
being satisfied. Option (d) is not the correct answer not the correct answer because the motive behind the
because there is nothing as an absolute freedom of words of the seditious statement must be considered
speech and expression. A citizen has his freedom of fairly and holistically when considering any offence
speech and expression but subject to public order under Section 124A, rather than focusing on single
80. (a) The correct answer is Option (a) as it is given in the portions. Option (c) is not the correct answer as
passage that for examining whether a speech or words, comments against the government or criticizing it in an
etc. are seditious in nature, the real intent of those effort to overthrow it through legal ways with an
words, speech, etc. has to be considered. Here, K had a attempt to cause disaffection, enmity or disloyalty to the
relevant reason to accuse them as he was not allowed to government is considered seditious.
cast his vote and was not provided with any explanation
either. There was no ill-intent on his part. Option (b) is SECTION-D : LOGICAL REASONING
not the correct answer for the same reason. Option (c) is 85. (c) The correct answer is Option (c). The author has
not the correct answer as K did not try to do any such explicitly criticised the prevalence of drugs, the
thing. He only filed a complaint for being illegitimately agricultural crisis and the fact that corrupt officials slyly
interrupted to vote. Option (d) is not the correct answer obtain permanent residencies abroad to evade any trials
as K had a valid reason to criticize the government. or proceedings. On the other hand, the author has just
81. (a) The correct answer is Option (a) since S attempted to suggested that it is because of the lost glory of Punjab
bring hatred and excite disaffection against the that the youngsters are leaving for better opportunities
government which led to disruption of public order. abroad. Therefore, the correct answer is Option (c).
Option (b) is not the correct answer since the passage 86. (a) The correct answer is Option (a). This Option captures
does not mention anything against false rumors. Option the main idea of the passage. The passage is mainly
(c) is not the correct answer as it is evident that S did not about the investment of Tata in Punjab and how it holds
act in good faith. He tried to disrepute the government. promise for arresting the slide in the economy. Other
Option (d) is not the correct answer since freedom of options can’t be convincingly inferred from the passage
speech and expression is restricted to public order. - let alone be the main idea. Therefore, the correct
82. (b) The correct answer is Option (b) since it is directly answer is Option (a).
mentioned in the passage that words, signs or 87. (d) The correct answer is Option (d). All of the statements
representations against politicians or public servants by can’t be concluded based on the information given in the
themselves do not fall in the category of sedition unless passage. Statement (i) is incorrect because Punjab’s

221
 economy wasn’t completely dependent on the that the infrastructure projects and developments may
investment by the Tatas. Also, the statement is an have upset the ecological balance of the mountain areas.
extreme conclusion. Statement (ii) is incorrect because Also, if looked carefully, the passage revolves around the
whether Tata Steel’s secondary plant investment is its hill states-mainly Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
biggest investment in recent years or not is not clear bearing disproportionate climate fury due to the terrain.
from the passage. The passage states that it is Tata’s In this regard, the best option is Option (a). Option (b) is
biggest unit, but does not say anything about investment. incorrect because it does not cover the central idea of the
Statement (iii) is not correct because it is an extreme passage but talks about a particular idea. C can’t be
interpretation of the author’s opinion. convincingly inferred from the passage. D is quite similar
88. (a) The correct answer is Option (a). The author has called to B and is incorrect for the same reason. Also, both
for some better policies for established firms and start- options (b) and (d) do not form the central idea as they
ups. Therefore, the author would certainly appreciate are both more of a solution to the ongoing crises.
this step. On the other hand, there is no concrete reason 92. (c) The correct answer is Option (c). The author in the
in the passage as to why he would appreciate the passage highlights the fact that the vagaries and the risk
introduction of more schemes like the Progressive of catastrophe are often overlooked by the authorities in
Punjab. Refer to the lines, ‘The Punjab Government’s the name of balancing the demands of the people for
efforts in the past few years to rope in companies better infrastructure and services. Therefore, one can
through programmes like ‘Progressive Punjab’ have not infer that the interest of the public cannot dominate the
yielded much to tom-tom about.’ Why would the author risk involved in trying to attain them. Option (a) is
agree with bringing in more schemes when this is not incorrect because the passage indicates that property
giving results? Option (c) is incorrect because whether damage is on the surface of the effects of heavy rains.
the Vigilance Bureau should use excessive resources is Option (b) is wrong because the IMD is an entity of the
not clear. Option (d) is incorrect for the author would government itself. Option (d) has not been suggested
disagree with the given step. Tata’s investment amid anywhere in the passage.
prevailing issues is an indicator that positive steps are 93. (b) The correct answer is Option (b). Both statements i and
taken in the presence of and not the absence of ii strengthen the author’s argument that damage to life
challenges. and property are effects of unusual rainfall. These pieces
89. (d) The correct answer is Option (d). It is the underlying of evidence suggest other secondary effects of increased
assumption behind the argument. The chance that the rain as well. On the other hand, statement iii does not
creation of the aspirational condition will (in future) substantially impact any of the author's arguments in the
prevent the depletion and restore Punjab’s glory is the passage.
basis of the main argument. Option (a) is a distorted 94. (c) The correct answer is Option (c). The positives of the
assumption. It should be the other way around. The early warning system are that it helps in the timely
restoration of the lost glory of Punjab relies on the evacuation and rehabilitation of vulnerable people. Even
creation of aspirational conditions. Option (b) is then, this is not foolproof since it has not tasted enough
incorrect, for it is arresting the depletion of precious success against floods. Therefore, the correct answer is
human resources, not the depletion.. Option (c) is Option (c). Option (a) is incorrect because it is too strong
incorrect as it goes against the argument made in the to claim that the system has “worked wonders” for India.
passage. Clear evidence against option (b) is present in the
90. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer. This Option directly passage. Option (d) is incorrect because such early
challenges the assertion that corrupt government warning systems are not said to be limited only to the
employees use foreign residencies to escape legal evacuation and rehabilitation of vulnerable people.
scrutiny, by suggesting that many government 95. (a) The correct answer is Option (a). Option (a) would
employees have obtained foreign residencies for clearly be appreciated by the author since he has stated
legitimate reasons, such as personal or professional explicitly that the accuracy of early weather forecasts is
reasons, and not to avoid legal scrutiny. not that accurate. Employing new technologies to
Option (a) The Vigilance Bureau's successful improve its accuracy would most likely be appreciated
prosecution of some government employees does not by the author. On the other hand, option (b) is incorrect
necessarily contradict the idea that others may be using because the author has not explicitly called for
foreign residencies to escape scrutiny. compensation for the families of the casualties. Also,
Option (b) The fact that government employees with changing the terrain of hill states along with an exodus
foreign residencies are subject to the same legal of people from the mountainous terrains to the plains
processes as those without does not necessarily mean during the monsoon is impractical.
that they are not using their residencies to avoid 96. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer. The passage highlights
scrutiny. that while increased rainfall might offer some immediate
Option (c) The decrease in the number of government benefits for agriculture, these benefits are
employees acquiring foreign residencies could be due to overshadowed by the severe long-term consequences
various reasons, including stricter enforcement of such as floods and landslides. The passage emphasizes
residency laws, but it does not directly challenge the that the monsoon compresses the annual rainfall into a
assertion that some employees use foreign residencies short period, which leads to uneven distribution and
to avoid legal scrutiny. exacerbates the risk of extreme weather events. These
91. (a) The correct answer is Option (a). The central idea of the conditions result in substantial damage to property and
passage is located in the last part, where it is mentioned infrastructure, and pose significant challenges for

222
 communities, particularly in hilly and unstable terrains. cannot be understood by the common people who are
The focus is on how the immediate agricultural benefits the most concerned with it. Hence, the author will most
are far outweighed by the extensive and damaging likely agree with option (a).
secondary impacts. The passage does not support option (b).
Option (b) Increased monsoon rainfall does not provide Option (c) is not true for all countries. Some countries
consistent benefits to agricultural production and have made a move towards simplicity and brevity.
infrastructure development, as it also leads to floods and Option (d) is contrary to the content of the passage. The
landslides. author cites the judgement of HP to emphasise the
Option (c) The passage states that the rise in rainfall has verdicts of the past; therefore, the fact that the
led to an increase in high-energy cyclones and droughts, judgement is unprecedented will not find a voice with
not a decrease. the author.
Option (d) While early warning improvements are 101. (c) A text that is too complex to understand can be termed
important, they have not mitigated all secondary tortuous. Hence, option (c) is the correct reason to call
impacts of increased monsoon rainfall, as the passage some of the legal texts tortuous. Tortuous sentence
highlights ongoing challenges and risks. construction does not lead to irrelevance; therefore,
97. (b) The question has close options. Use the elimination option (a) is ruled out. Options (b) and (d) are not
method to solve it. supported by the passage.
Option (a) is incorrect as the judgement, whether 102. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. The passage discusses
written in an easy-to-understand or complex language, how the language used in legal and administrative
has its value and is binding. documents remains archaic and convoluted, creating
Option (b) is the most critical message that the author is barriers to clarity and comprehension. Implementing a
trying to convey through the passage. According to the comprehensive review process to identify and update
author, it is high time that in a democratic set-up, such as outdated expressions and convoluted sentence
India, the language of governance should be brief, simple structures would directly tackle this problem by
and clear for the masses to understand. modernizing the language used in legal texts, making
Option (c) is not clear. It does not say approach for what. them more accessible and understandable.
Hence, it is not correct. Option (a) Training programs for legal and
Option (d) is the supporting statement, not the main administrative professionals would improve their skills,
point of discussion. but may not necessarily lead to a comprehensive
98. (b) The professional approach does not mean writing a overhaul of legal language.
judgement in complex language with much jargon. Option (b) Revising historical legal documents may
Option (a) does not give the correct logic. make them more accessible, but may not address the
The most logical assumption is given by option (b). The underlying issue of complex language in current legal
judges must not have cared about the language of the texts.
judgement. Option (d) Public awareness campaigns may raise
Option (c) is not correct because it gives a feeling that awareness about the issue, but do not directly address
judges intentionally used complex professional language the problem of complex legal language.
while writing the content of the decision. 103. (d) All of the following can be concluded from the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect because it is an extreme Option (a) can be concluded from the last paragraph. The
assumption that is disjointed with the arguments in the author says that epidemics do not end, but they move
passage. from an ‘emergency state’ to a medical condition that no
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. longer results in a medical crisis. It means that medical
99. (a) The author has raised a point that communications from treatments transform epidemics from a critical stage to
authorities shall be in simple terms in modern times. The a manageable stage. Option (b) can be concluded from
truth shall be stated in simple terms in the correct title. the entire passage, as it also is the primary purpose of
Option (a) is correct in the context of the passage. Option the author. Option (c) can be concluded from the second
(b) is incorrect, for the arguments in the passage is not paragraph. If the end encompasses the end of the crisis
about the truth being complicated. It is about persisting and regulations (the political end) and the return to
with archaic expressions and tortuous sentence normalcy (the social end), and these endings are related,
constructions that should now be done away with. but they are different – and they can be at odds with one
Option (c), though very close, is incorrect because it is another; it also means that various regulatory
general and vague. The beginning of the passage authorities (medical, political and social) will negotiate
highlights the tortuous terms used by the judges making and compete with one another in what constitutes
“incomprehensible” judgment of the Himachal Pradesh ‘normalcy’ in case of epidemics. Hence option (d) is the
high court. The passage is more specific to the evolution correct answer.
of the language of judgements; therefore, option (a) is a 104. (d) As suggested in the passage by WHO, the pandemic
better choice. Option (d) is incorrect, for the passage reshapes them to less severe diseases. It is also
does not concern itself with the unnecessity of the mentioned that end of the pandemic needs to be decided
voluble judgements. The judgements are verbose only after considering the political, medical and social
because of the tortuous use of language. Also, this Option end. So, we can say that author is suggesting option (d).
does not capture the essence of the passage. Option (a) is not explicitly mentioned in the passage.
100. (a) The author is critical of the complexity of official
communication by the government and courts that

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 The author has nothing to say about the recurrence of =1:1
the pandemic in the passage. Hence, option (c) is No. of boys in section F of class 10th = 1/2 x 50 = 25
incorrect. No. of girls in section F of class 12th = 60% of 25 = 15
Option (b) looks fictitious. It is not based on the No. of boys in section F of class 12th = 50 — 15 = 35
passage. ∴ Boy to girl ratio in section F of class 12th = 35 : 15 = 7
105. (b) The last part of the passage is very important in this :3
regard. The author has clearly mentioned that it is not 110. (b) Total no. of students in a section = 50
easy to decide whether to continue with the restrictions Ratio of girls to boys in sections D and E of class 10th = 3
or lift them while considering whether the epidemic has :7
ended completely or not. It is also not clear who shall Total no. of boys in sections D & E of class 10th = 2 x 7/10
decide the end of the pandemic. The lesson that can be x 50 = 70
taken is that there is no abrupt end to an epidemic, which Total no. of girls in sections D & E of class 12th = 60% of
can occur with varying degrees of intensity; therefore, 70 = 42
the measures should be lifted in a phased manner. ∴ Total no. of boys in section D & E of class 12th = 100 —
So, option (b) is the most logical lesson that can be 42 = 58
taken from history. 111. (c) Total no. of students in a section = 50
Option (a) is not true as the passage does not support it. Ratio of girls to boys in section C of class 10th = 2 : 3
Option (c) and option (d) are neither stated nor can be No. of boys in section C of class 10th = 3/5 x 50 = 30
inferred from the passage. ∴ No. of girls in section C of class 12th = 60% of 30 = 18
106. (a) Only option (a) can be assumed, looking at the case of 112. (b) Total no. of students in a section = 50
H1N1 infections turning into seasonal influenza. Other Ratio of girls to boys in section A of class 10th = 2 : 3
options are incorrect assumptions as they do not find No. of boys in section A of class 10th = 3/5 x 50 = 30
relevant supporting statements in the passage. ∴ No. of boys in section A of class 12th = 80% of 30 = 24
107. (a) The author studies the history of epidemics and their 113. (c) Total no. of students in one section = 50
treatment and management to the recent crisis and its Ratio of girls to boys = 2 : 3
course of action. He has discussed how different ends of Total no. of girls in one section = 2/5 x 50 = 20
a pandemic exist, how the disease can change its form, ∴ Total no. of girls in sections A, B, C = 3 x 20 = 60
and how difficult it is to decide to impose, lift or reinstate 114. (c) Section E Boys in Class 10th = 35
health restrictions. So, option (a) is the correct answer. Section E Boys in Class 12th = 50 – 60% of 35 = 29
He is not looking like only the observant rather, he is Total number of boys in Section 𝐸 (10th +12th) :
giving insight like a person having deep thoughts about 35 + 29 = 64
the issue. At the same time, the author does not look to 115. (c) Total non-engineers in departments 𝑋 and 𝑍 :
amplify the already serious issue of epidemics. Option 4
X: × 81 = 36
(b), option (c) and option (d) are not correct. 9
5
Hence, option (a) is the only correct answer. Z: × 72 = 30
12
108. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer. The passage discusses Total: 36 + 30 = 66
the complex nature of ending an epidemic, emphasizing
116. (d) Engineers in 𝑌 and 𝑊 as a percentage of total employees:
that it involves not just the medical aspect of disease 3
rates but also political regulations and social norms. The Engineers in Y: × 90 = 54
5
title “Epidemic Endgames: Navigating Medical, Engineers in W: × 60 = 24
2
5
Political, and Social Conclusions” best encapsulates
Total engineers: 54 + 24 = 78
this approach by highlighting the need to navigate
through various dimensions—medical, political, and Total employees: 90 + 60 = 150
78
social—to understand when an epidemic truly ends. Percentage: × 100 = 52%
150
Option (a) “The Final Countdown: When Do Epidemics 117. (b) Average number of employees in all departments:
Truly End?” suggests a singular focus on the timing of Total employees: 81 + 90 + 72 + 60 = 303
the end, which does not fully reflect the complex, 303
Average: = 75.75
layered approach discussed in the passage. 4
Option (c) “From Crisis to Calm: The Unseen Layers of 118. (a) Ratio of engineers in 𝑋 to 𝑍 :
Epidemic Resolution” implies a focus on transitioning Engineers in X: 45
from crisis to calm, which might overlook the distinct Engineers in Z: 42
roles of medical, political, and social factors. 119. (c) Total employees vs. total engineers percentage:
Option (d) “Epidemic Endings: The Intersection of Total engineers: 45 + 54 + 42 + 24 = 165
Disease Rates, Regulations, and Social Norms” captures Total employees: 81 + 90 + 72 + 60 = 303
some elements but may not fully convey the dynamic Percentage more:
303−165
× 100 ≈ 83.64%
and contested nature of the conclusions discussed in 165
the passage. 120. (a) Difference between engineers in 𝑋 and non-engineers in
𝑌:
Engineers in X: 45
SECTION-E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
109. (d) Total no. of students in a section = 50 Non-engineers in Y: 90 − 54 = 36
Ratio of girls to boys in section F of class 10th Difference: 45 − 36 = 9

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