NABARD Grade A Previous Year Paper 2023

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six persons Y, T, O, V, Q and L were born in six different months i.e. January, March, April, May, June and July
of six different years 2002, 2005, 2008, 2009, 2012 and 2013. All the above information (except years) is
not necessarily in the same order.
Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one who
was born in January. The one who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having
odd number of days. No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. Number of
persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were born before
V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June.

Q1. Who among the following was born in April?

(a) T
(b) Y
(c) Q
(d) O
(e) None of these

Q2. Who among the following was born in 2013?

(a) T
(b) L
(c) Q
(d) V
(e) None of these

Q3. What is the difference between the years in which V was born and the one who was born in June?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) Can’t be determined

Q4. Which of the following option is true?

(a) Y– June - 2012
(b) V – April - 2013
(c) V – July - 2012
(d) O – January - 2013
(e) All are true

Q5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the one
that doesn’t belong to that group?
(a) V
(b) L
(c) O
(d) Y
(e) Q
1 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CALCULATIONS’, each of which have as many
letters between them as they have in English alphabetical series only in backward direction?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) Four

Directions (7-11): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons sit around a circular table in such a way that all of them faces towards the table. One person
sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit
adjacent to G. D neither sits adjacent to H nor to F. B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to
D.

Q7. Who among the following persons sits 3rd to the left of G?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) F
(d) E
(e) H

Q8. How many persons sit between B and D?

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
(e) None

Q9. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order starting from A in anti-clockwise direction,
then position of how many persons will remain unchanged (except A)?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Four

Q10. What is the position of F with respect to D?

(a) 2nd to the left
(b) None of these
(c) 3rd to the left
(d) 2nd to the right
(e) 3rd to the right

Q11. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) C is not an immediate neighbour of F
(b) Three persons sit between G and C
(c) G sits 2nd to the left of A
(d) H sits immediate right of C
(e) D and E are immediate neighbours
2 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Directions (12-14): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Q12. Among J, K, P, H, U, R and G each join SBI in seven different days of a week starting from Monday
to Sunday not neccesary in same manner, who joins on Wednesday?
I. U join one of the days after Tuesday but not on last day of the week. K joins just after the day on which H
joins who joins Friday. Three person joins before P.
II. More than two persons join after U but he doesn’t join on Monday. Three persons join between G and U.
As many persons join before G as many persons after J.
(a) If the Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q13. Six person sits in a circular table facing towards the centre, who sits immediate left of D?
I. Two person sit between F and C. A is neither sits adjacent to F nor sits adjacent to C.
II. B sits immediate left of F who sits opposite to C. E sits second to the left of one who faces A.
(a) If the Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q14. Five students sit in a linear row, some of them facing towards north and some of them facing
towards south, who sits 2nd to the right of Y?
I. As many persons sits to the right of Y as same number of persons sits to the left of Y. One person sits
between D and W.
II. R sits 3rd to the right of W who faces same direction as Y. Immediate neighbour of Y faces opposite
direction to each other.
(a) If the Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
3 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Directions (15-17): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Some points are drawn on a sheet such that all the points are at different direction (having different
distances) with each other. Point P is 20m south of point J. Point E is 23m east of point M which is exactly
in middle of point J and point P. Point E is in north of point W and the distance between them is same as the
distance between point M and point P. Point W is in 8m west of point V.

Q15. In which direction is Point M with respect to Point V?

(a) West
(b) North
(c) North-East
(d) North- West
(e) East

Q16. What is the shortest distance between Point P and Point W?

(a) 27m
(b) 16m
(c) 23m
(d) 18m
(e) None of these

Q17. How far and in which direction is point V with respect to point P?
(a) 8m, east
(b) 23m, east
(c) 23m, west
(d) 31m, west
(e) 31m, east

Directions (18-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In a certain code language,
“Program will start early” is coded as “la ba ka pa”
“Early program must go” is coded as “ba la ha ma”
“Early must go start” is coded as “ba ha ma ka”

Q18. What is the code for the word “early” in the given code language?
(a) pa
(b) la
(c) ba
(d) ha
(e) None of these

Q19. What is the code for the word “start” in the given code language?
(a) ha
(b) ka
(c) pa
(d) Either pa or ka
(e) Either ka or ha
4 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q20. What is the code for the word “go” in the given code language?
(a) Either ma or ha
(b) ba
(c) pa
(d) ka
(e) None of these

Directions (21-25): In the question given below, some words are highlighted. Identify the wrongly
spelt or inappropriate words in the context of the sentence. In case all the words are correct, then
choose option “none of the above” as your answer.

Q21. Educating people about the need to preserve nature and protect animal habitats is a naturalist’s
job.
(a) educating
(b) preserve
(c) protect
(d) habitats
(e) None of the above

Q22. The sunrise over the tranquil lake, with its gentle reflection and the surrounding mountains, created
a breathtaking display of scenic beauty
(a) tranquil
(b) reflection
(c) breathtaking
(d) scenic
(e) None of the above

Q23. The concept of reacting mechanically to events is not a purely materialistic one as it is seen at the
first cite.
(a) concept
(b) mechanically
(c) materialistic
(d) cite
(e) None of the above

Q24. After receiving unprecedented support from the government, the port authorities have drawn up
an ambitious expansion plan.
(a) unprecedented
(b) authorities
(c) ambitious
(d) expansion
(e) None of the above

Q25. Several factories had encroached upon the forests and whipped out several trees that had been
classified as sensitive by the government.
(a) encroached
(b) whipped
(c) classified
(d) sensitive
(e) None of the above
5 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q26. Given the set of sentences below, with 'F' designated as the concluding sentence, rearrange the
other sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
(A) When the pressure is high, the weather tends to be clear and dry, while low pressure often brings clouds
and rain.
(B) Devices like barometers are used to measure and track changes in atmospheric pressure, helping us
understand and predict weather conditions.
(C) Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the air that surrounds us on Earth. It’s like the weight of
the air above pushing down on everything below.
(D) People who live in high-altitude places experience lower atmospheric pressure, which can affect their
breathing and require adaptation.
(E) We often don’t notice it, but it’s crucial for our daily lives. Weather patterns, like high and low- pressure
systems, are caused by variations in atmospheric pressure.
(F) The atmospheric pressure also plays a role in making objects stick to the Earth’s surface rather than
floating away into space.
(a) CEADBF
(b) ADECBF
(c) DCEABF
(d) ECDBAF
(e) DECBAF

Q27. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
(A) With urbanization, there’s greater emphasis on personal space and privacy, which nuclear families
provide.
(B) Despite these changes, nuclear families still foster strong bonds among family members and are often
seen as a practical and manageable way of life.
(C) This shift can be attributed to various factors. Economic independence and better career opportunities
often lead couples to prefer a smaller family unit.
(D) This shift reflects the evolving dynamics of modern society, where self-sufficiency and personal
fulfillment are becoming more important considerations.
(E) In recent decades, there has been a growing trend towards nuclear families. A nuclear family typically
consists of parents and their children living together in a separate household.
(F) Changing social norms and values have also influenced this trend, as people now value individual
freedom and autonomy.
(G) Additionally, the increasing cost of living has made it more challenging for extended families to cohabit
in a single household.
(a) FEGDCAB
(b) ECAFGBD
(c) CDEABFG
(d) GFEDBCA
(e) DCBEFAG

Q28. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
(A) It is imperative to underscore that proactively seeking assistance and fortification is emblematic of
mettle, not frailty.
(B) It encompasses cognitive processes, emotional resonance, and one’s adaptive capacities in navigating
the vicissitudes of existence.
6 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
(C) The conscientious cultivation and stewardship of our mental health represent an indomitable
imperative in the holistic orchestration of a harmonious and fulfilled existence. On occasion, individuals
encounter circumstances that may precipitate perturbations in their mental well-being, ranging from
distress and bereavement to pervasive anxiety.
(D) Mental health pertains to the psychoemotional equilibrium intrinsic to the human condition.
(E) Analogous to physical well-being, sound mental health is paramount for the realization of a fulfilling
and gratifying life.
(a) DECBA
(b) CDEAB
(c) EBDAC
(d) ADECB
(e) BDEACQ29. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph.
(A) This culture can lead to a lack of collaboration and mutual support, which may hinder the overall
productivity and job satisfaction within the organization.
(B) Corporate wolf culture, often encountered in competitive workplaces, is a phenomenon where
individuals prioritize their personal success and advancement over team cohesion and cooperation.
(C) While some level of competition can be motivating, fostering a more collaborative and inclusive
atmosphere tends to yield better long-term results for both the employees and the company.
(D) In such environments, employees may resort to cutthroat tactics and intense rivalry to climb the
corporate ladder.
(E) In sum, navigating the intricacies of corporate wolf culture calls for a delicate equilibrium between
personal ambition and the broader goals of the organization.
(F) It’s essential to strike a balance between individual ambition and collective success in a corporate
setting.
(a) BDAFCE
(b) DCEABF
(c) AEDCBF
(d) FEDCAB
(e) CBDEFA

Q30. Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
(A) One pivotal ecological niche that serves as a formidable bulwark against pollution is the wetland.
(B) The conservation of wetlands is imperative, as it stands as a cornerstone in our collective efforts to
abate pollution and perpetuate an equilibrium in environmental sustainability.
(C) Wetlands assume the mantle of nature’s eminent purifiers, adeptly sieving water of noxious
contaminants, while concurrently acting as a reservoir for excess precipitation, thus ameliorating the peril
of inundations.
(D) Pollution, a substantial environmental predicament, exerts deleterious effects on the ecological triad
encompassing the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere.
(E) The pivotal role wetlands play in ameliorating water quality assumes heightened importance in view
of the pivotal role of pristine water sources in human sustenance, agriculture, and multifarious industrial
processes.
(F) They underpin rich and multifarious ecosystems, engendering an optimal habitat for diverse flora and
fauna, which, in turn, contributes to ecological robustness.
(a) DACFEB
(b) CDABEF
(c) FDECBA
(d) BDECFA
(e) CEFDBA

7 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Directions (31-35): In each question two blanks are given, and with respect to that five pairs of
words are provided. Choose the most appropriate pair of words that will fit these blanks in the same
order.

Q31. Success of a business is ____________ on too many factors for one methodology to guarantee that
any single business will _____________ a winner.
(a) rest, proven
(b) built, recognized
(c) predicted, be
(d) grounded, sure
(e) ban, produce

Q32. Over the years, the _____________ over the financial benefit of buying gold has resulted in the
identification of several ways through which one can _____________ in it, other than buying it in physical
form.
(a) debate, invest
(b) tension, diversify
(c) lack, trade
(d) issues, sell
(e) problem, spent

Q33. Job ___________ was lesser and transient in the second wave and was barely ____________ in the third
wave of the pandemic.
(a) growth, larger
(b) accumulation, absence
(c) market, evidence
(d) loss, present
(e) prospects, minimum

Q34. The author _____________ the characters of his novels with compassion and charm but he does not
____________ away from the ordinary struggles that they face.
(a) writes, cast
(b) discussed, stray
(c) exemplifying, step
(d) illustrate, move
(e) treats, shy

Q35. Genetically modified crops have been developed to enhance _____________ to pests, increase crop
yields, and ___________ various agricultural challenges.
(a) frugal, thrift
(b) dally, tether
(c) aplomb, roving
(d) resistance, address
(e) fray, latch

8 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Directions (36-46): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
IN SEPTEMBER 1995, the presidents of the five republics which constitute the watershed of the Aral Sea -
Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Kazakhstan, and Uzbekistan - met in Nukus, the capital of
Karakalpakstan, the autonomous republic of Uzbekistan (the worst-affected by the tragedy). This was the
fourth meeting of the presidents within three years. The objective: to deal with the Aral Sea crisis and
effectively try to contain the terrible after-effects of this gigantic ecological disaster. The meeting was
preceded by an international conference where the presidents called upon the international community to
help them save the Aral Sea. A resolution was taken up to formulate a regional treaty to share the waters of
the rivers feeding the Aral Sea. Since these states were until recently part of the former Soviet Union, non-
governmental organizations have rarely been involved in ecological work. But significantly, for the first
time, on paper at least, the official Nukus Declaration stated government intent to provide space for NGOs
to be involved in the revival of the Aral Sea. The conference laid bare all the elements of the crisis - the need
for humanitarian aid, the need for plans to move towards “sustainable development” and ecological
restoration. But the one question uppermost in the minds of concerned environmentalists - Will the Aral
Sea ever recover its former glory? - remained unanswered!
The genesis: The quest for self-sufficiency is indisputably a lofty goal, a meaningful aspiration, especially
when it seeks to change the destiny of a land and its teeming millions. But sometimes when dreams run
contrary to reason, failing to take cognizance of ground realities and existing truths, the outcome can be
devastating. The Aral Sea crisis is one such disaster. A colossal blunder, borne of short-sighted planning,
triggered by nothing but an all-consuming concern for self-sufficiency. Ever since Lenin had decreed in
1919 that the USSR should become self-sufficient in cotton, the country’s central planners concentrated on
cotton production. A process that sets into motion a series of chain reactions leading to a calamitous, cul
de-sac gateway to eventual catastrophe. The future, as perceived by the Soviet planners, lay in the
development of ambitious irrigation schemes that would milk the rivers to quench the growing, almost
insatiable demands of cotton production. And if at the end of it all a sea was to be sacrificed, what of it? So,
the Aral Sea was made to pay for the consequences of mega planning that paid no heed to ecological
considerations.
One of the most ancient lakes on earth, the Aral Sea, which is bounded by three deserts and shared by the
five newly independent republics of Central Asia, had been the USSR’s second largest inland water body
and the world’s fourth-largest inland sea. Fed mainly by two rivers - Amu Darya and Syr Darya - which
collect the runoffs and glacier melts from the Pamir and Tien Shan mountains of Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
- it had an average depth of 16 meters and a maximum depth of 68 meters with a salt content of 1 percent
only. It had abundant f ish resources and a busy shipping trade extending from its northern port of Aralsk
in Kazakhstan to the river ports of Amu Darya, some as remote as Tajikistan. But all this was about to
change. The Aral Sea and the adjoining tract of Central Asia were soon to feel the effects of these changes.
More than three-quarters of the territory in Central Asia is desert lowland, part of a closed basin with no
open sea or ocean outlet. Its hydrological cycle is strongly affected by the prevalent climatic features. There
is very little rainfall in the lowland plains as all the monsoon-bearing winds from the Indian Ocean to the
south are blocked by the high Himalayan peaks. The high temperatures, low humidity, and high solar
radiation combine to create very high evaporation rates.
The fertile irrigated land between the two rivers is an ancient area of human settlement and has a history
of approximately 3500 years. Sophisticated water distribution systems were in operation here, especially
in the regions of Khorezm and Fergana. Archaeological research has shown that millions of hectares of
water were locally managed by village councils, which allocated and controlled water use and enforced
water laws. According to tradition, users of irrigation water took part in the construction and maintenance
of irrigation networks. When Russians conquered the Khanates of Turkestan (now Central Asia) in the late
19th century, they introduced technologies and began large-scale cotton cultivation. With the consolidation
of Soviet power in the ‘20s, cotton was extensively developed in suitable areas. Sovietization led to a
diminished appreciation by the inhabitants of the precious character of its water resources.

9 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

As recently as the late ‘50s, most surface water for irrigation came from smaller streams, and only about
15-17 percent of the Amu and Syr Darya flows were used for irrigation. Because of the low level of
irrigation, the volume of the Aral Sea basin was more or less in equilibrium, with the evaporation from the
surface being counterbalanced by the river inflow, groundwater aquifers, and rainfall. The volume of water
fluctuated by only 100-150 cu km, and the surface area by 4000 sq km. Sponging of a sea: When the decision
to divert the waters of the two major rivers feeding the Aral Sea, the Amu Darya and Syr Darya, was
implemented, the fate of the once-mighty Aral Sea and the inhabitants of the region was sadly and
irrevocably sealed. These diverted waters were to irrigate the ancient steppes (grasslands) of Central Asia,
which had traditionally supported shepherds and nomads. But the Soviet planners were fully aware that
this diversion would eventually starve the Aral Sea and compel it to shrink. They, therefore, had a
contingency plan up their sleeves - the waters of the Siberian rivers flowing into the Central Asian region
would be diverted to the Aral Sea to bolster the loss of Amu Darya and Syr Darya river flow. However, while
the Central Asian irrigation plan went on stream, the plan to divert the Siberian rivers encountered stiff
opposition from several ecologically concerned Soviet scientists. Struck down by the sheer vehemence of
such overwhelming protest, the planners backed off, leaving the poor Aral Sea to face the brunt of a decision
that was to recoil most tragically on its perpetrator and victims alike.

Q36. Which of the following words is same in meaning as the word ‘Resolution’, as used in the
passage?
(a) Conclusion
(b) Choice
(c) Ruling
(d) Document
(e) Decision

Q37. The Aral Sea serves as a stark reminder of the environmental consequences of unsustainable
water management and has become a symbol of the urgent need for ecological restoration. It is
surrounded by ___ deserts in the Central Asian region?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Two
(e) Six

Q38. Which of the following statement is truly stating the objectives of the Nukus Declaration?
(a) The Declaration’s primary objective was to encourage private organizations to play an active role in the
Aral Sea’s restoration.
(b) A central focus of the Declaration was to foster collaboration between governmental bodies and
community groups for the Aral Sea’s revival.
(c) The Declaration was a call to action, urging environmental organizations to contribute their expertise
and resources to restore the Aral Sea.
(d) The Declaration aimed at inviting NGOs to be involved in the revival of the Aral Sea.
(e) The Declaration sought to engage community groups in rejuvenating the Amu Darya and Syr Darya
ecosystem.
10 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q39. Which of the following crops’ cultivation led to the deterioration of the Aral Sea?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rice
(d) Alfalfa
(e) Maize

Q40. Which of the following statement is truly stating the objectives of the September 1995 meeting
of the five Central Asian countries?
(a) To improve the livelihood options of nomad tribes living in the Central Asian Region
(b) To deal with the Aral Sea crisis and contain the terrible after effects of this gigantic ecological disaster
(c) To enhance the connectivity options for nomadic tribes in the Central Asian region
(d) To provide mobile healthcare clinics and training nomads in basic medical skills
(e) To promote eco-friendly practices to preserve the fragile ecosystems where nomadic tribes reside

Q41. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the geographical features of the Aral Sea?
(a) It was the USSR’s second largest inland water body and the world’s fourth-largest inland sea
(b) It is fed mainly by two rivers - Amu Darya and Syr Darya.
(c) It had deficient fish resources and more than three-quarters of the territory surrounding it is desert
lowland
(d) It had an average depth of 16 meters and a maximum depth of 68 meters with a salt content of 1 percent
only
(e)The sea is made from the runoffs and glacier melts from the Pamir and Tien Shan mountains of Tajikistan
and Kyrgyzstan

Q42. Aralsk is the port in which country?

(a) Uzbekistan
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Turkmenistan
(d) Tajikistan
(e) Kyrgyzstan

Q43. What caused the contingency plan for Aral Sea to fail?
(a) Strong opposition of the Soviet environmentalists
(b) High costs of the conservation project
(c) Insufficient funding and resources allocated to the plan
(d) Political and bureaucratic obstacles within the Soviet government
(e) Lack of international support and cooperation for the contingency plan

Q44. What is the meaning of cul-de-sac?

(a) A complex, difficult, or problematic situation with no clear way out
(b) A short road that is blocked off at one end
(c) A situation where opposing forces or factors are evenly balanced
(d) A situation in which no one involved can make any further progress because all parties are equally
matched, and no one can win
(e) A situation where there is no movement or activity, often due to a halt
11 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q45. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to ‘insatiable’?
(a) Gratified
(b) Voracious
(c) Ravenous
(d) Gluttonous
(e) Avaricious

Q46. What is the contingency plan to save the Aral Sea from deterioration?
(a) Implementing water-saving technologies and sustainable farming practices in the region
(b) Promoting international cooperation and agreements on water resource management
(c) Diversion of the waters of the Siberian rivers flowing into the Central Asian region to the Aral Sea
(d) Restoring natural habitats and wetlands to improve the Aral Sea’s ecosystem
(e) Establishing desalination plants to provide fresh water to the Aral Sea region

Directions (47-50): In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with four words
highlighted. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then
followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order
to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the
words that replace each other.

Q47. The dispute between the neighbors was highly placable (1), and a tenable (2) solution was reached
through open communication (3) and compromise (4).
(a) 2-3
(b) 1-4
(c) 1-2
(d) 3-4
(e) 2-4

Q48. The harmony (1) of various religious beliefs in the region resulted in a diverse (2) cultural
landscape, where a syndicate (3) of spiritual leaders aimed to foster syncretism (4) among the faiths.
(a) 2-3
(b) 1-3
(c) 2-4
(d) 1-4
(e) 3-4

Q49. The tenacious (1) investigative journalist trail (2) the rapacious (3) exploitation of natural
resources by uncovering a exposed (4) of corruption and greed.
(a) 1-3
(b) 2-4
(c) 2-3
(d) 1-4
(e) 1-2
12 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q50. The fratricide (1) decisions of the dictator led to widespread
(2) unrest, ultimately culminating (3) in a tragic capricious (4)
within the ruling family.
(a) 2-4
(b) 2-3
(c) 1-3
(d) 1-4
(e) 1-2

Q51. What does 'R' stand for in CD-R?

(a) Rewritable
(b) Recordable
(c) Repository
(d) Removable
(e) Resource

Q52. Which of the following is the basic unit of information in quantum computing?
(a) OCTABYTE
(b) QUBYTE
(c) GIGABIT
(d) QUBIT
(e) BIT

Q53. What is the primary advantage of using a stylus with a touchscreen device?
(a) Higher screen resolution
(b) Improved sound quality
(c) Faster internet connection
(d) Extended battery life of the device
(e) Enhanced precision for drawing and writing

Q54. Which of the following is an Open source operating system?

(a) MS-DOS
(b) iOS
(c) Linux
(d) Windows
(e) Internet explorer

Q55. Which touchscreen technology is commonly used in ATMs and Point-of-sale (POS) machines?
(a) Optical
(b) Surface Acoustic Wave
(c) Infrared
(d) Resistive
(e) Capacitive

Q56. Integrated Circuits (ICs) are related to which generation of computers?

(a) First Generation
(b) Second Generation
(c) Third Generation
(d) Fourth Generation
(e) Fifth Generation
13 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q57. The dark web is part of the internet that isn't visible to search engines. Accessing the dark web
requires a special browser and the use of a VPN to keep your online activity private and secure.
What does VPN stand for?
(a) Virtual Personalized Network
(b) Virtual Personal Networking
(c) Virtual Private Networking
(d) Virtual Personal Network
(e) Virtual Private Network

Q58. Arrange the following devices in ascending order of the speed:

A. RAM
B. Hard disk
C. Cache
D. Floppy
(a) ABDC
(b) BDAC
(c) DBAC
(d) BADC
(e) DABC

Q59. Vacuum tubes were replaced by __________________.

(a) Transistors
(b) Microchips
(c) Resistor networks
(d) Electromagnetic coils
(e) Diodes

Q60. What is the primary purpose of POST (Power-On-Self- Test)?

(a) It performs diagnostics tests before booting the operating system.
(b) It serves as a temporary storage area where information can be accessed and manipulated quickly in
order to carry out complex tasks.
(c) It is the backbone that ties the computer's components together at one spot and allows them to talk to
each other.
(d) It provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level.
(e) It converts mains AC to low-voltage regulated DC power for the internal components of a computer.

Q61. Which of the following is an example of system software?

(a) Microsoft Word
(b) Windows operating system
(c) Microsoft Excel
(d) Google Chrome
(e) Adobe Photoshop

Q62. Which connector is used to connect the mouse and keyboard to the CPU?
(a) USB-C
(b) USB-A
(c) USB-B
(d) Micro-USB
(e) Mini-USB
14 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q63. What is the shortcut key to switch between open windows on a Windows operating system?
(a) Alt + Tab
(b) Ctrl + W
(c) Shift + Esc
(d) Windows key + S
(e) Alt + Space

Q64. Which of the following computer was created by Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak in the year
1976?
(a) Apple I
(b) Macintosh 512k
(c) Fat Mac
(d) iMac
(e) Macintosh SE

Q65. Which of the following best describes "real-time protection" in antivirus software?
(a) Scanning your computer only during system startup
(b) Running system optimization tools
(c) Providing automatic, continuous monitoring for threats
(d) Cleaning up your internet browser history
(e) Defragmenting your hard drive

Q66. In which field of an email message is the BCC option typically located?
(a) Subject
(b) To
(c) From
(d) CC
(e) Attachments

Q67. Which search engine was developed by Microsoft?

(a) Microsoft Explorer
(b) Microsoft Edge
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Microsoft Bing
(e) MSN Search

Q68. Which component of the CPU is responsible for fetching and decoding instructions from
memory?
(a) ALU
(b) Control Unit
(c) Cache memory
(d) RAM
(e) Registers

Q69. Which Control Panel category allows you to optimise visual display on your desktop?
(a) Ease of Access
(b) Hardware and Sound
(c) Network and Sharing Center
(d) System and Security
(e) Appearance and Personalization
15 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q70. How do you right click on the laptop trackpad?
(a) Scroll with 3 fingers
(b) Scroll with 2 fingers
(c) Double tap with 1 finger
(d) Tap with 2 fingers
(e) Tap with 3 fingers

Directions (71-75): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one
number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q71. 4752, 2555, 1224, 495, 154, 27, 0

(a) 4752
(b) 154
(c) 27
(d) 0
(e) 1224

Q72. 18, 22, 36, 56, 86, 128, 184

(a) 22
(b) 128
(c) 86
(d) 56
(e) 18

Q73. 20, 10, 40, 123, 488, 2445, 14664

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 2445
(d) 10
(e) 14664

Q74. 118, 59, 62, 88, 183, 448.5, 1356.5

(a) 88
(b) 62
(c) 448.5
(d) 118
(e) 59

Q75. 2500, 2000, 1600, 1280, 1025, 819.2, 655.36

(a) 2500
(b) 1025
(c) 1600
(d) 819.2
(e) 655.36

16 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Directions (76-80): Pie chart given below shows the degree distribution of total doctors in five (A,
B, C, D and E) different hospitals. Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions
given below.

Note: Difference between total doctors in hospital B and E are 144.

Q76. Male and female doctors in hospital D are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. If male doctors in
hospital A is 20% more than that of in hospital D, then find the total female doctors in hospitals A
and D together.
(a) 240
(b) 390
(c) 220
(d) 360
(e) 400

Q77. If total nurses in hospital B are ‘1.5X’, then find the ratio between total doctors in hospital E to
total nurses in hospital B.
(a) 3:2
(b) 4:1
(c) 5:2
(d) 1:2
(e) 6:5

Q78. 25% of total doctors in hospital C are surgeon, and one-fourth of the remaining doctors are
oncologist. If the rest of the doctors are neurologist, then find the total neurologist doctors are how
much percentage of total doctors in hospital C?
(a) 58.25%
(b) 65.25%
(c) 72.25%
(d) 45.25%
(e) 56.25%
17 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q79. Total doctors in hospital P are If 20% of doctors are left, then find the average
(approx.) of remaining doctors in hospitals P and total doctors in hospitals E & B.
(a) 185
(b) 192
(c) 171
(d) 197
(e) 173

Q80. Total doctors in hospital Q are half of the total doctors in hospital C. If total doctors in hospital
R is 75% of the total doctors in hospital Q, then find the difference between total doctors in hospital
A to that of in hospital R.
(a) 280
(b) 234
(c) 176
(d) 222
(e) 245

Directions (81-82): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The upstream speed of boat A is 7/11th of it downstream speed and boat A cover 140 km upstream in 10
hours. Boat B takes 20 hours to cover 240 km in upstream.
Note: The speed of stream is same for both boat

Q81. Find total time taken by boat B to cover 160 km in downstream & same distance in upstream?
(a) 21 1/3 hours
(b) 22 2/3 hours
(c) 16 2/3 hours
(d) 20 1/3 hours
(e) 24 1/3 hours

Q82. If speed of boat C in still water is 5/4th of the speed of boat B in still water, then find the speed
of boat A is what percent more or less than the speed of the boat C in still water?
(a) 11.11%
(b) 9.99%
(c) 5%
(d) 8%
(e) 10%

Directions (83-84): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P can complete 37.5% of a work in 9 days, Q can do 32.5 % of the same work in 6 1/2 days, while R can do
33.33% of the same work in 5 days. Efficiency of S is 25% more than that of R.

Q83. If S and R started to work together and after X days, R left the work and P joined S. If the
remaining work done by P& S together in X-3 days, then find the value of X.
(a) 2
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 10
18 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q84. Q & R started working together for six days and after six days S joined them. If S destroyed the
work with same efficiency for doing the work, then find in how many days, total work will be
completed (in days).
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
(e) 16

Directions (85-86): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A invest Rs X in simple interest at the rate of R% p.a. for six-years and receives interest that is two times
more than the amount he invested. If he had invested the same amount at the rate of (R-30) % compound
annually for two years, then he receives an interest of Rs.2640.

Q85. B purchased an article for Rs. (X-1500) and marked up R% above its cost price. If he allows a
discount of (R-20) %, then find the profit/loss percentage.
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 4%
(d) 10%
(e) 2.5%

Q86. If P invested Rs.60R in compound interest compound half yearly at the rate of X/300% p.a. for
1.5 years, then find the total amount received after 1.5 years (in Rs.).
(a) 3569
(b) 3993
(c) 3880
(d) 3923
(e) 3159

Directions (87-88): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Train P has a length of 300 m and a speed of 72 km/hr. Train Q has a length of 600 m and a speed of 90
km/hr. Both train enter a tunnel from opposite directions simultaneously. The length of the tunnel is 600
m.

Q87. Which train exits the tunnel first completely and what length of the other train is still in the
tunnel at that time (in meters)?
(a) P, 75
(b) Q, 75
(c) P, 90
(d) Q, 90
(e) Can’t determine

Q88. Find the distance between the point where the rear ends of the trains cross each other and the
point of entry of the slower train (in meters)?
(a) 398 1/3
(b) 366 2/3
(c) 216 2/3
(d) 233 1/3
(e) 333 2/3
19 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Directions (89-90): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are five members A, B, C, D and E in a family. The ratio of ages of A and B five years ago was 3 : 4. Five
years hence, the sum of ages of D and E will be 90 years. If C were born four years later than his actual date
of birth, Age of C would be half to that of E.

Q89. What is the age of D four years ago, if the current age of C is 27 years?
(a) 36 years
(b) 34 years
(c) 38 years
(d) 30 years
(e) Cannot be determined

Q90. After 3 years, A will be 20 years old. What is the average of current ages of A, B, D and E
together?
(a) 29 years
(b) 29.5 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 30.5 years
(e) 31 years

Q91. Fill in the blank with an appropriate option below.

Pareto analysis is a statistical technique that is used in decision-making for the selection of the limited
number of tasks that produce the most significant overall effect. It uses the concept based on identifying
the top _______ of causes that need to be addressed in order to resolve ________ of the problems.
(a) 20%, 80%
(b) 80%, 20%
(c) 50%, 50%
(d) 30%, 70%
(e) 70%, 30%

Q92. What is the concept of “satisfcing” in the bounded rationality model of decision-making?
(a) Choosing the option with the highest potential outcome
(b) Accepting the first alternative that meets the minimum criteria
(c) Relying on gut feelings and emotions
(d) Conducting a thorough search for alternatives
(e) Delegating decision-making to others

Q93. Which one of the following statements is correctly associated with the primary characteristic
of the intuitive decisionmaking model?
(a) It involves thorough analysis and conscious reasoning.
(b) It relies on luck and chance.
(c) It uses a list of well-thought-out alternatives.
(d) It arrives at decisions without conscious reasoning.
(e) It requires formal training and education.
20 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q94. How might confirmation bias affect decision-making and critical thinking?
(a) It enhances decision-making by encouraging openmindedness.
(b) It helps individuals objectively evaluate different perspectives.
(c) It can hinder decision-making by limiting exposure to diverse viewpoints.
(d) It has no impact on decision-making or critical thinking.
(e) It leads individuals to always choose the most popular option.

Q95. Which one of the following is an approach to problemsolving that focuses on cultivating
creative thinking, often among small groups of individuals with diverse experience and skills?
(a) Rational Approach
(b) Classical Approach
(c) Non-Synectic
(d) Synectic
(e) None of the Above

Q96. How does the Nominal Group Technique (NGT) address the issue of group decision-making
problems such as groupthink?
(a) By encouraging silent participation
(b) By eliminating discussions and clarifications
(c) By minimizing individual participation
(d) By ensuring full participation and avoiding groupthink
(e) By prioritizing the preferences of group leaders

Q97. What does it refer to here?

It is one that is routine and repetitive in nature. It usually occurs in a situation involving a limited number
of decision variables where the outcomes of each alternative are known. Most of these decision problems
are solved by habitual responses, standard operating procedures, or clerical routines.
(a) Illogical Decision Making
(b) Mechanistic Decision Making
(c) Rational Decision Making
(d) Intuitive Decision-making
(e) Step by step Decision Making

Q98. According to prospect theory, how do people typically evaluate options that involve risk and
uncertainty?
(a) In terms of absolute results
(b) Based on a present wealth
(c) By comparing projected utility to a benchmark
(d) By minimizing losses
(e) By maximizing gains

Q99. Which of the following statements correctly describes “escalation of commitment” in decision-
making?
(a) The tendency to focus solely on a desired outcome
(b) The tendency to avoid making decisions due to uncertainty
(c) The tendency to invest more resources in a failing course of action based on prior investment
(d) The process of generating ideas during brainstorming
(e) The tendency to rely on a single piece of information for decision-making
21 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q100. What does Gestalt decision-making suggest about the role of unconscious mental processes
in decision-making?
(a) They have no impact on decision-making.
(b) They are only relevant for highly complex decisions.
(c) They may play a significant role in shaping decisions.
(d) They are unreliable sources of information.
(e) None of the Above

Q101. The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew
Weissman for their discoveries related to nucleoside base modifications that facilitated the creation
of effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19. What does the letter ‘m’ in ‘mRNA’ stand for?
(a) Microbial
(b) Messenger
(c) Microscopic
(d) Minuscule
(e) Miniature

Q102. NATO, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, is a military alliance dedicated to collective
defense and enhancing security and stability in the North Atlantic region. Established in 1949, it
remains a vital component of international security cooperation. How many countries are currently
members of NATO?
(a) 31
(b) 26
(c) 28
(d) 32
(e) 37

Q103. Central Railway's New Amravati station has become the first station in the Bhusaval Division
and the third in the Central Railway (CR) to be designated as a Pink Station, meaning it is entirely
managed by women staff. Where is the headquarters of the Central Railway Zone of India located?
(a) Bilaspur
(b) Mumbai
(c) Jaipur
(d) Prayagraj
(e) Secunderabad

Q104. In 2002, _____ company was established by entrepreneur

Elon Musk, with the aim of revolutionizing the aerospace
industry and making spaceflight more affordable.
(a) Beagle Aircraft
(b) Rocket Lab
(c) Blue Origin
(d) SpaceX
(e) Virgin Galactic

22 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q105. Sounding rockets play a crucial role in collecting essential data on the Earth’s atmosphere,
auroras, and ionosphere, thereby enhancing our understanding of weather, climate, and
communication systems. In which year was the first sounding rocket launched from the Thumba
Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in Thiruvananthapuram?
(a) 1970
(b) 1974
(c) 1959
(d) 1968
(e) 1963

Q106. Nirmala Sitharaman is a prominent political figure in India, recognized for her commitment
to fiscal responsibility and economic development, as well as her significant influence in shaping
the country’s economic policies. Which of the following institutions is currently headed by Nirmala
Sitharaman?
(a) Financial Stability and Development Council
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(c) GST Council
(d) Ministry of Finance
(e) All of the above

Q107. The UNESCO World Heritage List protects significant cultural and natural sites globally.
Which of the following places from India is not part of this list?
(a) Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Park
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Great Living Chola Temples
(d) Dholavira: A Harappan City
(e) All of the above are present

Q108. The Women's Reservation Bill reserves 33% of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative
assemblies for women. Passed by the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in 2023, it became law after
President Droupadi Murmu's assent. Women's reservation in politics began in 1992 with
reservation in Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which constitutional amendment act provided
reservation to SC/ST women in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(a) 91st
(b) 61st
(c) 85th
(d) 73rd
(e) 42nd

Q109. Identify the incorrect pair from the options given below.
(a) Frank Walter – Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany
(b) Ebrahim Raisi – President of Iran
(c) Cyril Ramaphosa – President of South Africa
(d) Srettha Thavisin – Prime Minister of Thailand
(e) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva – President of Brazil

23 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q110. In which of the following years did India, in partnership with other Asian countries, host the
ICC World Cup?
(a) 1987
(b) 1992
(c) 1996
(d) 1999
(e) 2011

Q111. The top 3 cities in the "National Smart Cities Awards" category of the India Smart Cities Award
Contest (ISAC) 2022 are from which states, listed in order of their ranks?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Chhattisgarh
5. Uttar Pradesh
(a) Only 1, 2, and 4
(b) Only 4, 1, and 5
(c) Only 1, 3, and 5
(d) Only 3, 2, and 1
(e) Only 2, 4, and 3

Q112. Multiple Grand Slam winner Leander Paes became the first Asian man to be nominated for
the International Tennis Hall of Fame in the player category. How many Grand Slam titles has
Leander Paes won in doubles and mixed doubles categories over his three-decade career?
(a) 24
(b) 18
(c) 15
(d) 21
(e) 14

Q113. Antony Blinken is recognized for his diplomatic expertise and dedication to enhancing
international relations, tackling global challenges, and supporting American foreign policy
interests. What position does Antony Blinken currently hold in the US Cabinet?
(a) Director General of National Intelligence
(b) Secretary of Homeland Security
(c) Secretary of Agriculture
(d) Secretary of Veterans Affairs
(e) Secretary of State

Q114. India is a member of which of the following organizations?

(a) United Nations Security Council
(b) Quadrilateral Security Dialogue
(c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(e) All of the above

24 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q115. The National Green Hydrogen Mission in India aims to promote the production of clean
hydrogen from renewable sources to reduce carbon emissions and drive sustainable energy
solutions. Which of the following statements correctly states the benefits of the National Green
Hydrogen Mission?
1. Reduction in dependence on imported fuels
2. Increase in renewable energy usage across all economic spheres
3. Decentralization in power generation
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1, 2, and 3
(e) Only 3

Q116. NCERT has partnered with which organization to introduce the comic book titled "Let’s Move
Forward," aimed at teaching crucial life skills to promote responsible and health-conscious
behavior among adolescents?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) UNESCO
(c) World Bank
(d) UNDP
(e) USAID

Q117. Russia has introduced an e-visa facility for Indians starting August 1, allowing travelers to
bypass the regular visa process. This facility, also available to travelers from 54 other countries,
eliminates the need to visit consulates or embassies. How many days can travelers stay in Russia
using this e-visa?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 16
(d) 30
(e) 45

Q118. The Prime Minister announced that the old parliament building will now be called
"Samvidhan Sadan" (Constitution House), while the new Parliament building is now the official
Indian parliament. What was the old parliament building previously known as?
(a) National Assembly of India
(b) National People’s Congress of India
(c) Constituent Assembly of India
(d) Magistrative Council of India
(e) Imperial Legislative Council of India

Q119. Which Government of India scheme won the prestigious National Award for e-Governance
2023 (Gold) for its application of emerging technologies in providing citizen-centric services?
(a) UMANG
(b) SVAMITVA
(c) SAMARTH
(d) NIRVIK
(e) HRIDAY
25 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q120. Which railway station was recently awarded the top-rated Platinum certification by the
Indian Green Building Council - Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and recognized as a “Green
Railway Station”?
(a) Chandigarh Railway Station
(b) Guwahati Railway Station
(c) Vijayawada Railway Station
(d) Vadodara Railway Station
(e) Mumbai Central Railway Station

Q121.Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana aims to promote and develop the village industries through
common facilities, technological modernisation, training, etc. What is the target age group of
beneficiaries of this scheme?
(a) 21-60 years
(b) 16-30 years
(c) 20-35 years
(d) 18-55 years
(e) 25-40 years

Q122.Which of the following are central sector sub-schemes of the umbrella scheme - Scholarships
for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS) implemented by the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment?
1. Free Coaching Scheme for SCs and OBCs
2. National Overseas Scheme for SCs
3. National Fellowship for SCs
4. Top Class Education for SCs
5. Post Matric Scholarship for Scheduled Tribe Students
(a) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4, and 5
(e) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Q123.Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is the largest health assurance scheme in the world which
aims at providing a health cover to poor and vulnerable families for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization. What is the maximum insured amount provided to eligible beneficiaries?
(a) Rs.4,00,000
(b) Rs.7,00,000
(c) Rs. 5,00,000
(d) Rs. 6,00,000
(e) Rs. 8,00,000

Q124.Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare (Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances &
Pensions) has been promoting Digital Life Certificate to enhance ‘Ease of Living’ of Central
Government pensioners. This certificate is also called as
(a) Jeevan Certificate
(b) Jeevan Bima
(c) Jeevan Umeed
(d) Jeevan Suraksha
(e) Jeevan Pramaan
26 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q125.Which of the following statement is incorrect about Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
- National Mission for Financial Inclusion?
(a) It was launched in the year 2014.
(b) It provides opening of basic savings bank deposit account with minimal paperwork, relaxed KYC, e-KYC,
account opening in camp mode, zero balance & zero charges
(c) It provides insurance – accident cover up to Rs. 1,00,000 and life cover of Rs. 30,000
(d) It provides basic savings bank accounts with overdraft facility of Rs. 20,000/- to every eligible adult
(e) None of the above

Q126.The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which shows the growth rates in different
industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time. Which of the following is not amongst
the broad sectors of IIP?
1. Mining
2. Gas and Water connection
3. Manufacturing
4. Electricity
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 Only
(d) 3 only
(e) All of the above

Q127. Under the PM Vishwakarma scheme, a collateral-free ‘Enterprise Development Loan’ of

__________ is given to eligible artisans/craftsmen in the first tranche. Fill the gap
(a) Rs. 1 lakh
(b) Rs. 2 lakhs
(c) Rs. 3 lakhs
(d) Rs. 4 lakhs
(e) Rs. 5 lakhs

Q128. The duration of Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) is from 2022-23 to
_________. Fill the gap
(a) 2025-26
(b) 2026-27
(c) 2027-28
(d) 2028-29
(e) 2029-30

Q129.The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has launched the ‘Skills on Wheels’
initiative of the National Skill Development Corporation and ______ to promote skilling for a period
of ______. Fill the gaps
(a) Bank of Baroda, 2 years
(b) Union Bank of India, 3 years
(c) IndusInd Bank, 5 years
(d) State Bank of India, 10 years
(e) Bank of India, 7 years

27 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q130.The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has approved the continuation of the
Integrated Scheme for Agricultural Marketing (ISAM) scheme up to _________. Fill the gap
(a) 31st January 2026
(b) 31st March 2025
(c) 31st April 2025
(d) 31st March 2026
(e) 31st April 2026

Q131.The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is an initiative by India as the G20 Chair. The Alliance
intends to expedite the global uptake of biofuels through facilitating technology advancements,
intensifying utilization of sustainable biofuels, shaping robust standard setting and certification
through the participation of a wide spectrum of stakeholders. GBA will help to accelerate India’s
existing biofuels programs such as
1. GOBARdhan Scheme
2. PM-JIVAN Yojana
3. SATAT Yojana
4. KUSUM Scheme
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 Only
(d) 1 Only
(e) All of the above

Q132.__________ Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises aids to
set up a network of technology centres and to set up incubation centres to accelerate
entrepreneurship and also to promote startups for innovation in agro-industry and provides
financial support to set up Livelihood Business Incubators or Technology Business Incubator. Fill
the gap
(a) NISHTHA
(b) SUGAM
(c) SAKSHAM
(d) PRAGATI
(e) ASPIRE

Q133.The Government has approved a new integrated food security scheme - Pradhan Mantri Garib
Kalyan Ann Yojana for providing free foodgrains to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) & Primary Household
(PHH) beneficiaries. It has been rolled out from 1st January 2023. What is the tenure of this scheme?
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years
(e) 5 years
28 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q134.The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched the Unified Portal for
Agricultural Statistics (UPAg) Portal. It is an advanced agricultural data management platform
designed to generate crop estimates and integrate with other systems generating Agriculture
Statistics. Which is not the key feature of the UPAg Portal?
(a) Data Standardization
(b) Data Analysis
(c) Granular Production Estimates
(d) Commodity Profile Estimates
(e) Data Circulation

Q135.Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra in his speech
recently mentioned the trinity of
1. Jan Dhan
2. Aadhaar
3. Mobile Connections
4. PAN
(a) 2 and 3 Only
(b) 1 and 4 Only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 Only
(d) 1 and 2 Only
(e) All of the above

Q136._________ is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks the existing APMC mandis to
create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. Fill the gap
(a) e NAM
(b) e NAMO
(c) e APMC
(d) e CONNECT
(e) e FARM

Q137.Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana -National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) is the flagship
program of the Government for promoting poverty reduction through building strong institutions
of the poor and enabling these institutions to access a range of financial services and livelihood
services. DAY-NRLM list finalized after the Participatory Identification of Poor (PIP) Process is
vetted by _______________. Fill the gap
(a) Block Office
(b) Nagar Panchayat
(c) Gram Parishad
(d) Nagar Nigam
(e) Gram Sabha

Q138.Which of the following institutions is the last mile financer under Aajeevika Microfinance
Yojana (Livelihood Microfinance Scheme)?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Rural Cooperative Banks
(c) Urban Cooperative Banks
(d) Non-Banking Financial Companies-Micro Finance Institutions (NBFC-MFI)
(e) None of these
29 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q139.Which of the following is the correct objective of Jan Shikshan Sansthan Scheme?
(a) It covers all children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body, and Government-aided
schools, with one or more disabilities
(b) It provides additional components for the education of girls at the elementary level
(c) It will provide students with a platform to solve some of the pressing problems we face in our daily lives
(d) Its main target is to impart vocational skills to the non-literates between the age group of 15-45 years
(e) None of the above

Q140.RBI recently has come out with a four-tiered regulatory framework for _____________ for ease of
regulation. Fill the gap
(a) UCBs
(b) RCBs
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) RRBs
(e) All of the above

Q141.The Stand-Up India scheme was launched in 2016 for promoting Aatmanirbhar Bharat by
changing the lives of SC/ST and/or Women Entrepreneurs. Under it, eligible beneficiaries are
provided loans for Greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, services, or the trading sector and
activities allied to agriculture between Rs. 10 Lakh to ____?
(a) Rs. 25 Lakh
(b) Rs. 50 Lakh
(c) Rs. 1 Crore
(d) Rs. 1.5 Crore
(e) Rs. 2 Crore

Q142.What is the standard time frame for supplying information to an applicant under the RTI Act
2005?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 48 hours
(e) 70 days

Q143.Which are the uses of Consumer Price Index for the rural, urban, and combined section?
1. CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation
2. Government of India and RBI use CPI for targeting inflation & for monitoring price stability
3. It is used as a deflator in national accounts.
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 3 Only
(c) 1 and 2 Only
(d) 2 and 3 Only
(e) All of the above
30 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q144.Under the MGNREGA Scheme, the work is ordinarily provided within ____ Km radius of the
village. In case work is provided beyond that, extra wages of ___ % are payable to meet additional
transportation and living expenses. Fill the gaps
(a) 2 km and 5% extra
(b) 3 km and 5% extra
(c) 4 km and 5% extra
(d) 5 km and 10% extra
(e) 6 km and 15% extra

Q145.________________ is a scheme being implemented in mission mode by the Ministry of Women and
Child Development aimed at strengthening interventions for women’s safety, security, and
empowerment. Fill the gap
(a) Mission Parvati
(b) Mission Suvidha
(c) Mission Jyoti
(d) Mission Jan Suraksha
(e) Mission Shakti

Q146.Which of the following statements is true about the National Curriculum Framework for
School Education (NCFSE)?
1. All Board examinations must move towards becoming 'easier without any compromise on assessing
genuine learning
2. In ten years, Boards of Examination should be prepared to offer certification through modular
examinations.
3. All students will be allowed to take Board examinations on at least two occasions during any given school
year, with only the best score being retained
4. To get a Grade 12 certificate, the students should pass the 2 examinations in Languages
(a) 1, 2, and 4 Only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 Only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 Only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 Only
(e) All of the above

Q147.Bank loan for _______________ up to an aggregate limit of Rs. 100 crore per borrower will be
eligible to be classified as an ancillary service of the agriculture sector under Priority Sector
Lending. Fill the gap
(a) Food and Agro-processing units
(b) Higher Educational Institutions
(c) Advanced Technology for SMEs
(d) Capital for Purchasing land for FPOs
(e) None of the above
31 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q148.As per the Technical Gap on Population projection of July 2020, of the projected increase in
population of 31.1 crores in India during 2011-36, 17 crores are likely to occur in the five States.
Which among the following is not among the Top 5 states?
(a) UP
(b) Bihar
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
(e) Maharashtra

Q149.How many additional consumers are set to receive LPG connections through the extension of
the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)?
(a) 25 lakh consumers by 2025-26
(b) 50 lakh consumers by 2025-26
(c) 75 lakh consumers by 2025-26
(d) 50 lakh consumers by 2024-25
(e) 75 lakh consumers by 2027-28

Q150.Which among the following are the categories of the roads constructed under Pradhan Mantri
Gram Sadak Yojana?
1. Other District Roads
2. Village Roads
3. Major Districts Roads
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 and 3 Only
(c) 2 Only
(d) 1 and 2 Only
(e) All of the above

Q151.Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a new Central Sector Scheme to provide
income support to all landholding farmers’ families in the country to supplement their financial
needs for procuring various inputs related to agriculture and allied activities as well as domestic
needs. Which of the following statements is correct about PM-KISAN?
(a) All institutional landholders are its beneficiary
(b) In this case, family comprises father, mother, two children, grandfather, and in-laws, if they are old
(c) Tenant farmers who work on other’s field also eligible to avail benefits under it
(d) Under it, all landholding farmers’ families are provided the financial benefit of Rs.6000 per annum
(e) All of the above

Q152.According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, __________ percentage of the population lives in
rural areas and out of this population 47% is engaged in _____________. Fill the gaps
(a) 55, Agriculture
(b) 45, Manufacture
(c) 35, Service
(d) 65, Agriculture
(e) 75, Agriculture
32 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q153.In an address delivered in August 2023 - “Building Blocks for a Sustainable Future”, the RBI
Governor mentioned six thrust areas that can propel India forward over the next 25 years. They are
agriculture, manufacturing, services, technology, innovation, and __________. Fill the gap
(a) Higher Education
(b) Financial Literacy
(c) Startups
(d) Capital Investment
(e) Women Empowerment

Q154.The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a voluntary retirement savings scheme that allows its
subscribers to make defined contributions towards planned savings, thereby securing the future in
the form of a Pension. Who amongst the following is/are not eligible to become the beneficiary of
NPS?
(a) Any individual citizen of India
(b) Non-resident of India
(c) OCI (Overseas Citizens of India)
(d) PIO (Person of Indian Origin)
(e) Both c and d

Q155.Gender indicators are quantitative metrics to provide information to monitor performance,

measure achievement, and determine accountability. Which of the following are listed by the
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation under Gender Relevant Indicators?
1. Adolescent fertility rate
2. Proportion of employees who are own-account workers by sex
3. Proportion of households using clean cooking fuel
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 2 Only
(d) 1 Only
(e) All of the above

Q156.What is the threshold loan amount available to individuals for educational purposes under
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) under recent revised RBI Guidelines?
(a) Rs. 15 lakhs
(b) Rs. 20 lakhs
(c) Rs. 23 lakhs
(d) Rs. 25 lakhs
(e) Rs. 30 lakhs

Q157.The G20 New Delhi Declaration 2023 focuses on which areas relating to gender equality,
women empowerment, and women-led development?
(a) Enhancing economic and social empowerment
(b) Bridging the gender digital divide
(c) Increasing women participation in political leadership across the globe
(d) Driving gender-inclusive climate action
(e) Securing women’s food security, nutrition, and well-being
33 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q158.Which of the following are included in Ancillary Activities of agriculture under Public Sector
Lending?
1. Loans up to Rs 5 crore to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing of the produce of members
2. Loans for setting up of Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres
3. Loans for Food and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of Rs. 100 crore per borrower
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
(e) All of the above

Q159.Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) Phase II [SBM (G) Phase II] is being implemented till 2024-
25, with a focus on Open Defecation Free Plus (ODF Plus), which includes ODF sustainability and
Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM). The program will also work towards ensuring that no
one is left behind and everyone uses a toilet. 5% of the outlay of SBMG Phase II is allocated for?
1. Administrative expenses
2. Information, education & communication
3. Capacity building
4. Construction of Integrated System
(a) 2 Only
(b) 1 and 3 Only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 Only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 Only
(e) None of these

Q160.To avail benefit under small loan schemes of individuals offered by the National Backward
Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC), the annual family income of small farmers
should not exceed
(a) Rs. 2.5 Lakhs
(b) Rs. 3 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 4 Lakhs
(d) Rs. 5 Lakhs
(e) Rs. 6 Lakhs

Q161. What is the scientific name of Carnation?

(a) Rosa rubiginosa
(b) Bellis perennis
(c) Dianthus caryophyllus
(d) Helianthus annus
(e) Tagetes erecta

Q162. Which scheme has been launched by government of India that allows all NFSA beneficiaries,
particularly the migrant beneficiaries, to claim either full or part of their entitled food grains from
any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country?
(a) ONORC
(b) PM-Gareeb Kalyan Anna Yojana
(c) PM- SVANidhi
(d) DAY-NRLM
(e) DDU-GKY
34 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q163. The assortment of fruits and vegetables into different groups according to their size, shape,
colour and volumes to fetch high prices in the market is known as-
(a) Gravity separator
(b) Winnowing
(c) Colour sorter
(d) Grading
(e) None of the above

Q164. Who recommends the minimum support prices (MSP) for crops?
(a) APMCs
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(c) Government of India
(d) State government
(e) Niti Aayog

Q165. When nursing is done by taking young ones away from the mother is called
(a) Culling
(b) Servicing
(c) Dehorning
(d) Disbudding
(e) Weaning

Q166. What is the period of South-west monsoon?

(a) December to March
(b) January to May
(c) June to September
(d) October to December
(e) November to April

Q167.It is a type of cropping in which two crops, morphologically different grown together and they
complement each other. It is _______
(a) Synergistic cropping
(b) Mixed cropping
(c) Supplementary cropping
(d) Complementary intensive farming
(e) Intercropping

Q168.Indian cattle breed having dual purpose, characteristics intermediate between milch and
draught and these are found in Nashik and Ahmednagar. Identify the cattle breed-
(a) Gir
(b) Amritmahal
(c) Dangi
(d) Red Sindhi
(e) Deoni
35 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q169.Groundnut seeds contain ________of oil and ____________ protein content.
(a) 20, 39
(b) 45, 26
(c) 35, 14
(d) 56, 30
(e) 31, 10

Q170.Irrigation project having cultural command area (CCA) more than 2000 hectares to 10000
hectares is known as_________.
(a) Major irrigation
(b) Large irrigation
(c) Minor irrigation
(d) Medium irrigation project
(e) Very small irrigation

Q171.How many additional days’ work is provided under MGNREGA scheme in case of calamities
like drought?
(a) 100 days
(b) 75 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 25 days
(e) 50 days

Q172.What is the family of Khair?

(a) Fabaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Gramineae
(d) Tiliaeae
(e) Caryophyllaceae

Q173.How many Liters’ water/ person/ days is guaranteed by Government under Jal Jeevan
Mission?
(a) 25 Liters/day
(b) 75 Liters/day
(c) 15 Liters/day
(d) 35 Liters/day
(e) 55 Liters/day

Q174.Which biofertilizers are used for non-legume crops?

(a) Blue green algae
(b) Azotobacter/ Azospirrilum
(c) Azolla
(d) Rhizobium
(e) Frankia
36 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q175.Cultivation of crops where rainfall lies between 750 to 1150 mm is called______.
(a) Dry farming
(b) Integrated farming
(c) Rainfed farming
(d) Dryland farming
(e) None of the above

Q176.Rocks that are formed by deposition and cementation of weathering products of other
rocks_________.
(a) Extrusive Igneous Rocks
(b) Sedimentary rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Intrusive igneous rocks
(e) All of these

Q177.A chemical decomposition process that refers to association of water molecules with minerals
is called ______.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Hydration
(c) Dissolution
(d) Chromatography
(e) Hydrolysis

Q178.In which extension method in which researcher explains how production can be increased
per unit area per unit time.
(a) Varietal demonstration
(b) Result demonstration
(c) Front line demonstration
(d) Method demonstration
(e) None of the above

Q179.Which of the following cost is covered under operating cost of tractors?

(a) Fuel Costs
(b) Purchase Price
(c) Building Maintenance
(d) Employee Benefits
(e) Marketing Expenses

Q180.Which of the following Greenhouse gases (GHGs) released from volcanic eruptions, animal
respiration, deforestation and burning of fossil fuels?
(a) Water vapours
(b) Chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Methane
(d) Sulphur
(e) Carbon dioxide

37 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q181.The sum of lignin and polysaccharides that are not digested by digestive tract.
(a) Starch
(b) Lipid
(c) Amides
(d) Polysaccharides
(e) Dietary fibres

Q182.How much is the agriculture credit target for animal husbandry, dairying and fisheries under
budget 2023-24?
(a) 20 Lakh crores
(b) 9 lakh crores
(c) 10 lakh crores
(d) 30 lakh crores
(e) 5 lakh crores

Q183.Which of the following is a rainwater harvesting technique in which a long, narrow and
elevated strips of ridges are crossed by earth bands within the furrow or ties constructed to enhance
soil water conservation.
(a) Contour Trenching
(b) Tied Ridging
(c) Compartmental bunding
(d) BBF
(e) Contour Bunding

Q184.Under PMFBY, threshold yield is measured by multiplying average yield with _______.
(a) Crop Area
(b) MSP
(c) Threshold Yield Factor (Indemnity Level)
(d) Rainfall Index
(e) Market Value

Q185.Which water quality parameter is used to measure total quantity of dissolved salts in water
and units of Deci Seimens per meter.
(a) pH
(b) Electrical conductivity
(c) Sodium absorption rate
(d) Cation exchange capacity
(e) Exchangeable sodium

Q186.Which device is used to change voltage without changing

frequency?
(a) Transistor
(b) Resistor
(c) Transformer
(d) Galvanometer
(e) Capacitator
38 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q187.What is the label tag colour of quality certified seeds?
(a) Golden yellow
(b) Opal green
(c) Blue
(d) White
(e) Orange

Q188.Young chicken of either sex, 8 to 10 weeks of age, having weight of 1.5 to 2 Kg that are used for
tender meat are called______.
(a) Pullet
(b) Broiler
(c) Stag
(d) Rooster
(e) Layer

Q189.What is the duration of Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) Phase 2?

(a) 2017-18 to 2021-23
(b) 2014-15 to 2018-19
(c) 2009-10 to 2013-14
(d) 2020-21 to 2024-25
(e) 2018-19 to 2022-23

Q190.A male pig that has been castrated before sexual maturity is known as-
(a) Barrow
(b) Sow
(c) Stag
(d) Sire
(e) Gilt

Q191.Layers are economical up to average age of-

(a) 12 months
(b) 36 months
(c) 18 months
(d) 15 months
(e) 10 months

Q192.Which of the following is true with respect to vegetative propagation?

(a) Genetic variations arise frequently from vegetative propagation.
(b) Vegetative propagation is a faster mechanism of reproduction as compared to sexual reproduction.
(c) Layering is a type of natural vegetative propagation.
(d) Vegetative propagation is seen in animals.
(e) Asexual reproduction involves the fusion of gametes.

Q193.Which of the following is the objective of pruning?

(a) To have a balance between vegetative and reproductive growth.
(b) To thin out flowers and fruit.
(c) To control flowering and fruiting.
(d) To remove diseased, damaged, insect infested and weak shoots.
(e) To allow excess sunlight to old shoots.
39 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Q194.What is the optimum level of dissolved oxygen in fish pond?
(a) 5 mg/l
(b) 2 mg/l
(c) 1 mg/l
(d) 2.5 mg/l
(e) 10 mg/l

Q195.The soils of _________ textured class having lowest particle density.

(a) Clayey loam
(b) Fine sand
(c) Clay
(d) Loam
(e) Coarse sand

Q196.Which of the following statement is true with respect to drip irrigation?

(a) It reduces water use efficiency.
(b) It increases wastage of water.
(c) It minimizes soil erosion and water runoff.
(d) It increases the weed population.
(e) None of the above

Q197.What is the loan limit to SHGs under DAY-NRLM?

(a) Rs.2 lakhs
(b) Rs.10 Lakhs
(c) Rs.1 Lakh
(d) Rs.0.5 Lakh
(e) Rs.2.5 Lakhs

Q198.What is the target of RBI to lend Small and Marginal farmers for FY 2023-24?
(a) 17 % of ANBC
(b) 5 % of ANBC
(c) 20 % of ANBC
(d) 2 % of ANBC
(e) 10 % of ANBC

Q199.Food grains and oilseeds are dried to the moisture level of-
(a) 19-21%
(b) 7-11%
(c) 4-6 %
(d) 16-18%
(e) 10-14%

Q200.What is the next stage of sheet erosion in which finger like projections appears?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Splash erosion
(d) Rill erosion
(e) None of the above
40 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one
who was born in January. There are two possible cases: -

No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. so, case 1 is cancelled here. The one
who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having odd number of days.

Number of persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were
born before V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June, so Y was born in June and the
final arrangement is: -

T was born in April.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one
who was born in January. There are two possible cases: -

41 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. so, case 1 is cancelled here. The one
who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having odd number of days.

Number of persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were
born before V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June, so Y was born in June and the
final arrangement is: -

L was born in 2013.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one
who was born in January. There are two possible cases: -

No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. so, case 1 is cancelled here. The one
who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having odd number of days.

42 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Number of persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were
born before V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June, so Y was born in June and the
final arrangement is: -

V was born in 2008 and Y was born in June in 2012

Thus, the required difference is 4.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one
who was born in January. There are two possible cases: -

No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. so, case 1 is cancelled here. The one
who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having odd number of days.

Number of persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were
born before V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June, so Y was born in June and the
final arrangement is: -

Combination in option (a) is true.

43 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Y was born in an even numbered year but just after Q. Two persons were born between Y and the one
who was born in January. There are two possible cases: -

No one was born between T and O, and they were born before 2008. so, case 1 is cancelled here. The one
who was born in July is 5 years older than L who was born in the month having odd number of days.

Number of persons were born after the one who was born in May is same as the number of persons were
born before V. T was neither born in the month having 31 days nor in June, so Y was born in June and the
final arrangement is: -

Except Y, all of the persons were born in the month having 31 days.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. There are two pairs in backward direction.

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. One person sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. There are two possible cases: -

44 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit adjacent to G, one more possibility arise from case 2. D
neither sits adjacent to H nor to F.

B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to D, so case 1 and case 2 is ruled out here

45 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Thus, the final arrangement is: -

E sits 3rd to the left of G.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. One person sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. There are two possible cases: -

Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit adjacent to G, one more possibility arise from case 2. D
neither sits adjacent to H nor to F.

B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to D, so case 1 and case 2 is ruled out here

46 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Thus, the final arrangement is: -

Five persons sit between B and D.

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. One person sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. There are two possible cases: -

Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit adjacent to G, one more possibility arise from case 2. D
neither sits adjacent to H nor to F.
47 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to D, so case 1 and case 2 is ruled out here

Thus, the final arrangement is: -

48 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

No one remains at same position.

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. One person sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. There are two possible cases: -

Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit adjacent to G, one more possibility arise from case 2. D
neither sits adjacent to H nor to F.

B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to D, so case 1 and case 2 is ruled out here

49 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Thus, the final arrangement is: -

F sits 3rd to the right of D.

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. One person sits between H and A who sits immediate right of E. There are two possible cases: -

Two persons sit between E and F who doesn’t sit adjacent to G, one more possibility arise from case 2. D
neither sits adjacent to H nor to F.

50 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

B sits 2nd to the left of C and none of them sit adjacent to D, so case 1 and case 2 is ruled out here

Thus, the final arrangement is: -

Statement in option (d) is true.

51 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. From Statement I, we get: -

Hence, we get answer that U joins on Wednesday.

From Statement II, we get: -

So, either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer.

S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement I is not sufficient to answer and Statement II is alone sufficient to answer

Hence, C sits immediate left of D.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement I and Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer but after combining statement I and
statement II, we get

Hence, from both cases we get R sits 2nd to the right of Y.

52 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S15. Ans.(d)
Sol.

Point M is in north-west of point V.

S16. Ans.(c)
Sol.

Shortest distance between point P and point W is 23m.

S17. Ans.(e)
Sol.

Point V is in 31m east of point P.

53 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S18. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S19. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S20. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S21. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the highlighted words in the sentence are correctly spelled and appropriately used in the context
provided. Therefore, the correct answer is:
(e) None of the above
Here are short meanings for the highlighted words in the sentence:
(a) Educating - The process of teaching or instructing someone, usually in a formal setting.
(b) Preserve - To maintain something in its original or existing state, typically to prevent it from decaying
or being damaged.
(c) Protect - To keep safe from harm or injury.
(d) Habitats - The natural environments in which specific species live and thrive.

S22. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the highlighted words in the sentence are correctly spelled and appropriately used in the context
provided. Therefore, the correct answer is:
(e) None of the above
54 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Here are short meanings for the highlighted words in the sentence:
(a) Tranquil - Calm, peaceful, and undisturbed.
(b) Reflection - The image of something in a mirror or on any reflective surface.
(c) Breathtaking - Extremely impressive, beautiful, or astonishing.
(d) Scenic - Related to or providing a view of natural landscapes that are pleasing to the eye.

S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. There is a spelling error in the sentence provided. The word "cite" is used incorrectly in this context.
The correct spelling for the context should be "sight," which refers to the act of seeing something.
Therefore, the answer should be:
(d) cite (intended to be "sight")
(a) Concept - A general idea or understanding of something.
(b) Mechanically - Acting in a way that is automatic without thought or conscious effort.
(c) Materialistic - Focused on physical objects or money rather than spiritual or intellectual values.
(d) Cite - To mention as an example, proof, or precedent; however, in the context provided, the intended
word should be "sight," meaning the ability to see or the act of seeing something.

S24. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the highlighted words in the sentence are correctly spelled and appropriately used in the context
provided. Therefore, the correct answer is:
(e) None of the above
Here are short meanings for the highlighted words in the sentence:
(a) Unprecedented - Never done or known before; without previous example.
(b) Authorities - The people or organizations that have the power to make decisions and enforce rules.
(c) Ambitious - Having or showing a strong desire and determination to succeed.
(d) Expansion - The process of increasing in size, number, or importance.

S25. Ans.(b)
Sol. There is a spelling error in the sentence provided. The word "whipped" is used incorrectly in this
context. The correct word should be "wiped," which means to remove or eliminate. Therefore, the correct
answer is:
(b) whipped (intended to be "wiped")
Here are short meanings for the highlighted words in the sentence:
(a) Encroached - Intruded on, especially in a gradual way that causes infringement or trespass.
(b) Whipped - Moved or removed quickly or suddenly; however, in this context, the intended word should
be "wiped," meaning to erase or remove completely.
(c) Classified - Arranged or categorized according to class or category.
(d) Sensitive - Quick to detect or respond to slight changes, signals, or influences; also can refer to
something needing careful handling, typically because of its delicacy or potential controversy.

S26. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) CEADBF is the best sequence for arranging these sentences into a coherent paragraph
because it logically progresses from a general introduction of atmospheric pressure to specific details about
how it influences daily life and weather patterns. Here's a brief explanation of why this sequence works
best:
• (C) Starts by defining what atmospheric pressure is, setting a foundational understanding.
• (E) Expands on the significance of atmospheric pressure, explaining its crucial role in shaping weather
patterns.
55 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• (A) Provides specific examples of how variations in atmospheric pressure affect the weather, tying
directly into the introduction from (E).
• (D) Discusses the impact of atmospheric pressure on people living in high-altitude areas, adding a
human element to its effects.
• (B) Explains how atmospheric pressure is measured, which is relevant after understanding its effects
on weather and living conditions.
• (F) Concludes with a broader implication of atmospheric pressure, connecting it to a fundamental
physical phenomenon (gravity).
This sequence creates a smooth, logical flow from definition to specific impacts, measurement, and a broad
conclusion, effectively building on each point introduced.

S27. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) ECAFGBD provides a comprehensive and logical progression from introduction, through
various causal explanations, to implications and a broader societal reflection, making it the best choice
among the options for organizing these sentences into a coherent paragraph.
Here's a brief explanation of why this sequence (ECAFGBD) works best:
Option (b) ECAFGBD:
(E) Introduces the growing trend towards nuclear families and defines what a nuclear family consists of.
(C) Explains economic independence and better career opportunities as factors driving couples towards
smaller family units.
(A) Discusses how urbanization leads to a greater emphasis on personal space and privacy, which nuclear
families provide.
(F) Highlights changing social norms and values that emphasize individual freedom and autonomy.
(G) Notes the economic aspect, stating that the rising cost of living makes it harder for extended families to
live together.
(B) Concludes that despite these changes, nuclear families still foster strong bonds among members.
(D) Reflects on the overall shift as a reflection of evolving dynamics in modern society, emphasizing self-
sufficiency and personal fulfillment.
This sequence starts by defining the trend, explains various factors contributing to the trend, and then
concludes with observations on family bonds and broader societal changes. It effectively builds up from the
specifics of what a nuclear family is to the reasons behind their formation and concludes with the
implications on personal relationships and societal values.

S28. Ans.(b)
Sol. To arrange these sentences into a coherent paragraph about mental health, we need to consider the
sequence that introduces the topic, elaborates on its significance, discusses related issues, and provides
concluding thoughts. Option (b) CDEAB is the best choice as it offers a structured progression from
introducing mental health issues to defining mental health, emphasizing its importance, encouraging
proactive behavior, and finally, detailing its components. Here's a brief explanation of why this sequence
(CDEAB) works best:
Option (b) CDEAB:
(C) Starts with an introduction to the importance of mental health and the issues that might affect it.
(D) Continues by defining mental health and explaining its fundamental aspects.
(E) Emphasizes the importance of mental health, drawing a parallel to physical health.
(A) Concludes with the idea that seeking help is a sign of strength, not weakness.
(B) Expands on what mental health involves, detailing cognitive and emotional components and adaptive
capacities.
This sequence logically builds an understanding of mental health from an introduction and definition,
through its importance, to the conclusion about seeking help and further details on its components.
56 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S29. Ans.(a)
Sol. To effectively organize these sentences into a coherent paragraph about corporate wolf culture, we
should ensure that the sentences logically introduce the concept, describe its effects, discuss potential
modifications, and conclude with general insights. Option (a) BDAFCE offers a well-structured narrative
from definition and problem identification to suggesting solutions and summarizing, making it the best
choice for forming a coherent paragraph on corporate wolf culture. Here's a brief explanation of why this
sequence (BDAFCE) works best:
Option (a) BDAFCE:
(B) Introduces corporate wolf culture and its prioritization of personal success over teamwork.
(D) Details the behaviors in such environments, like cutthroat tactics.
(A) Discusses the negative impacts on collaboration and productivity.
(F) Suggests the necessity of balancing individual and collective goals.
(C) Explains the benefits of a more collaborative environment.
(E) Concludes with a call for finding a balance between personal ambition and organizational goals.
This sequence creates a logical flow, starting with an introduction to the concept, exploring its negative
aspects, suggesting a solution, and wrapping up with a broader conclusion.

S30. Ans.(a)
Sol. To form a meaningful paragraph about the role of wetlands in combating pollution, we need to establish
a sequence that introduces the issue of pollution, explains the function and importance of wetlands, and
then concludes with the implications of their conservation. Option (a) DACFEB provides a coherent and
logical progression that effectively introduces the issue, details the role of wetlands in addressing it, and
concludes with the importance of their conservation. This arrangement offers a comprehensive overview
of the environmental significance of wetlands, making it the best choice among the options. Here's a brief
explanation of why this sequence (DACFEB) works best:
Option (a) DACFEB:
(D) Introduces pollution as a major environmental issue.
(A) Immediately identifies wetlands as crucial in fighting pollution.
(C) Describes the specific functions of wetlands in purifying water and managing floods.
(F) Highlights the biodiversity supported by wetlands.
(E) Discusses the broader significance of clean water and wetlands' role in providing it.
(B) Concludes with the importance of conserving wetlands for environmental sustainability.
This sequence starts by framing the problem of pollution and directly ties wetlands into the solution,
followed by detailed explanations of their functions, broader implications, and ends with a call for
conservation.

S31. Ans.(c)
Sol. The best pair of words that fit the sentence in the given question correctly are:
(c) predicted, be
The sentence with these words filled in reads: "Success of a business is predicted on too many factors for
one methodology to guarantee that any single business will be a winner."
This pair works because "predicted" correctly implies that success can be anticipated or forecast based on
numerous factors, and "be" is a simple auxiliary verb that appropriately completes the sentence.
Here are brief explanations for each pair of words provided in the options:
(a) rest, proven
• Rest: Remain or be left in a specified condition.
57 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• Proven: Demonstrated or established as a fact.
• This pair doesn’t fit well because "rest" doesn't typically pair with "proven" in the context of business
methodology.
(b) built, recognized
• Built: Constructed or developed.
• Recognized: Acknowledged or identified.
• This pair suggests that success is constructed from many factors and the business is acknowledged as
a winner, but it doesn’t quite fit the context of predicting or ensuring success.
(c) predicted, be
• Predicted: Foretold or expected.
• Be: Exist or occur.
• This pair fits well as it suggests success is based on expectations from various factors, and a business
might exist as a winner.
(d) grounded, sure
• Grounded: Based on; founded.
• Sure: Certain or without doubt.
• While “grounded” fits as it suggests a strong foundation, “sure” implies certainty that doesn't align with
the context of not being able to guarantee success.
(e) ban, produce
• Ban: Prohibit or forbid.
• Produce: Create or manufacture.
• This pair does not make sense in the context as "ban" is not a verb that relates to the development or
success of a business in this way.

S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. The best pair of words that fit the sentence in in the given correctly are:
(a) debate, invest
The sentence with these words filled in reads: "Over the years, the debate over the financial benefit of
buying gold has resulted in the identification of several ways through which one can invest in it, other than
buying it in physical form."
This pair works because "debate" implies a discussion or argument about whether buying gold is beneficial,
and "invest" is appropriate as it refers to putting money into various forms of gold investments other than
its physical form.
Here are brief explanations for each pair of words provided in the options:
(a) debate, invest
• Debate: A formal discussion or argument about a specific topic.
• Invest: To allocate resources, usually money, with the expectation of generating an income or profit.
• This pair is appropriate as it suggests a discussion about the merits of gold investment leading to
various investment strategies.
(b) tension, diversify
• Tension: Mental or emotional strain, stress, or conflict.
• Diversify: To expand into a variety of different items or activities, usually to spread risk.
• This pair doesn’t fit as well because "tension" doesn't commonly lead to diversification strategies in a
financial context.
(c) lack, trade
• Lack: The absence of something needed or expected.
• Trade: The action of buying, selling, or exchanging goods or services.
58 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• The word "lack" doesn't logically connect to identifying ways to trade in gold, making this pair less
suitable.
(d) issues, sell
• Issues: Problems or challenges.
• Sell: To give something in exchange for money.
• Although this pair could be conceivable, it doesn’t fit as well in the context of exploring diverse ways of
engaging with gold beyond just selling it.
(e) problem, spent
• Problem: A matter or situation regarded as unwelcome or harmful and needing to be dealt with.
• Spent: Used up or exhausted.
• This pair is not suitable as "spent" does not correctly describe engaging in an investment activity, and
"problem" doesn’t effectively lead into identifying investment strategies.

S33. Ans.(d)
Sol. The best pair of words that fit the sentence in the question correctly are:
(d) loss, present
The sentence with these words filled in reads: "Job loss was lesser and transient in the second wave and
was barely present in the third wave of the pandemic."
This pair works because "loss" appropriately describes the context of jobs being impacted during the
pandemic, and "present" indicates that the job loss was hardly noticeable or almost non-existent in the
third wave, fitting well into the structure and meaning of the sentence.
Here are brief explanations for each pair of words provided in the options:
(a) growth, larger
• Growth: An increase or expansion in some area, such as jobs.
• Larger: Bigger in size or amount.
• This pair doesn't fit the context since the sentence implies a reduction or minimal impact, not an
increase.
(b) accumulation, absence
• Accumulation: The process of gradually gathering or increasing.
• Absence: The state of being away or not present.
• This pair is also not suitable because "accumulation" implies building up, which contradicts the context
of lesser impact mentioned in the sentence.
(c) market, evidence
• Market: Can refer to the job market or economic sector.
• Evidence: Proof or indication of something.
• Although "market" fits in terms of referring to the job market, "evidence" does not smoothly integrate
into the sentence, as it typically means proof rather than a level of presence or impact.
(d) loss, present
• Loss: The act of losing something, such as jobs.
• Present: Existing or occurring now.
• This pair fits well as it discusses the presence or minimal impact of job loss during different waves of
the pandemic.
(e) prospects, minimum
• Prospects: Expectations or chances for future success, often used in terms of job opportunities.
• Minimum: The least or smallest amount or quantity possible.
• This pair does not accurately reflect the context, as "prospects" suggests future potential rather than
actual job status or impact during the pandemic waves.
59 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S34. Ans.(e)
Sol. The best pair of words that fit the sentence in the given question correctly are:
(e) treats, shy
The sentence with these words filled in reads: "The author treats the characters of his novels with
compassion and charm but he does not shy away from the ordinary struggles that they face."
This pair works well because "treats" appropriately conveys the way the author deals with his characters,
using compassion and charm, and "shy" complements this by indicating that the author does not avoid
discussing their struggles, fitting seamlessly into the intended meaning of the sentence.
Here are brief explanations for each pair of words provided in the options:
(a) writes, cast
• Writes: To compose text or create literary work.
• Cast: To throw something forcefully or to assign roles in a play or film.
• This pair does not fit as "cast" does not correctly convey avoiding or confronting an issue.
(b) discussed, stray
• Discussed: Talked about or examined.
• Stray: To wander off or deviate from the correct path or subject.
• While "discussed" is a plausible verb for the author's actions, "stray" implies wandering away, which
does not fit the context of confronting challenges.
(c) exemplifying, step
• Exemplifying: Serving as a typical example of something.
• Step: To move by lifting your foot and putting it down in a different place.
• "Exemplifying" suggests demonstrating qualities or characteristics, but "step" does not align with the
idea of confronting or avoiding issues.
(d) illustrate, move
• Illustrate: To explain or make something clear by using examples, pictures, or diagrams.
• Move: To change position or go from one place to another.
• "Illustrate" could be used to describe how an author represents characters, but "move" does not convey
the notion of avoiding or confronting challenges effectively.
(e) treats, shy
• Treats: To behave towards or deal with in a certain way.
• Shy: To avoid due to timidity or caution.
• This pair is suitable as it indicates the author’s method of handling characters compassionately while
not avoiding the depiction of their struggles.

S35. Ans.(d)
Sol. The best pair of words that fit the sentence in the given question correctly are:
(d) resistance, address
The sentence with these words filled in reads: "Genetically modified crops have been developed to enhance
resistance to pests, increase crop yields, and address various agricultural challenges."
This pair works well because "resistance" correctly conveys the idea of being less affected by pests, a
common goal in the development of genetically modified crops, and "address" means to deal with or tackle
problems, fitting the context of solving agricultural challenges.
Here are brief explanations for each pair of words provided in the options:
(a) frugal, thrift
• Frugal: Economical in use or expenditure; prudently saving or sparing.
• Thrift: The quality of using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully.
• This pair focuses on economical use of resources but does not fit the context of genetically modified
crops which is about biological enhancements and agricultural productivity.
60 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
(b) dally, tether
• Dally: To act or move slowly; to waste time.
• Tether: To tie with a rope or chain so as to restrict movement.
• Neither of these words is relevant to the technological context of genetically modifying crops for better
agricultural outcomes.
(c) aplomb, roving
• Aplomb: Self-confidence or assurance, especially when in a demanding situation.
• Roving: Travelling constantly without a fixed destination; wandering.
• These terms are more related to behavior or movement and do not align with the genetic modification
of crops for specific agricultural advantages.
(d) resistance, address
• Resistance: The refusal to accept or comply with something; the ability to withstand something.
• Address: To direct attention to something and deal with it.
• This pair is directly relevant to genetically modified crops which are designed to resist pests and tackle
agricultural challenges.
(e) fray, latch
• Fray: To show the effects of strain, typically referring to fabric or nerves starting to unravel.
• Latch: To fasten or secure with a latch, or to attach or connect.
• These words do not pertain to the specific enhancements typically associated with genetically modified
crops such as resistance to pests or yield improvement.

S36. Ans.(e)
Sol. In the passage, the term "resolution" is used in the context of the presidents of the Central Asian
republics agreeing to create a regional treaty concerning the Aral Sea. This suggests that "resolution" is
used to indicate a formal expression of intent or a firm decision, typically documented or agreed upon in
an official or formal setting.
Given this context:
(a) Conclusion — generally refers to the end or finish of an event or process, not necessarily a decision.
(b) Choice — implies an option or selection among alternatives, which is not specific enough in this context.
(c) Ruling — usually associated with a decision made by a judge or court, which is not applicable here. (d)
Document — while a resolution can be documented, this choice refers more to the format rather than the
decision-making aspect.
(e) Decision — directly corresponds to the act of deciding something, which fits the usage in the passage
where a "resolution" was made to develop a regional treaty.
Therefore, the word "resolution" as used in the passage is synonymous with (e) Decision.

S37. Ans.(a)
Sol. The passage specifies that the Aral Sea is bounded by three deserts. It states: "One of the most ancient
lakes on earth, the Aral Sea, which is bounded by three deserts..."
Thus, the correct answer to the question is:
(a) Three

S38. Ans.(d)
Sol. The passage mentions the Nukus Declaration specifically: "But significantly, for the first time, on
paper at least, the official Nukus Declaration stated government intent to provide space for NGOs to
be involved in the revival of the Aral Sea." This statement clearly outlines the intent of the declaration as
involving non-governmental organizations (NGOs) in the restoration efforts for the Aral Sea.
61 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
Analyzing the given options:
(a) This option incorrectly specifies "private organizations" rather than specifically mentioning NGOs.
(b) This option is broader and includes "community groups," which is not specifically supported by the text.
(c) This option refers to "environmental organizations" and not specifically NGOs, which is a broader
category.
(d) This is the correct option as it specifically matches the intent stated in the passage about involving NGOs
in the revival of the Aral Sea.
(e) This option inaccurately mentions "community groups" and focuses on the Amu Darya and Syr Darya
ecosystem rather than the Aral Sea itself.
Thus, the correct answer is:
(d) The Declaration aimed at inviting NGOs to be involved in the revival of the Aral Sea.

S39. Ans.(a)
Sol. The passage directly identifies cotton as the crop whose cultivation contributed to the deterioration of
the Aral Sea. It states: "Ever since Lenin had decreed in 1919 that the USSR should become self-
sufficient in cotton, the country’s central planners concentrated on cotton production." This focus on
cotton required extensive irrigation, which led to the diversion of water from the rivers that fed the Aral
Sea, ultimately causing its shrinkage.
Therefore, the correct answer is: (a) Cotton

S40. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage explicitly states the objectives of the September 1995 meeting of the presidents of the five
Central Asian countries: "The objective: to deal with the Aral Sea crisis and effectively try to contain
the terrible after-effects of this gigantic ecological disaster." This statement highlights that the focus of
the meeting was specifically on addressing the ecological and environmental issues associated with the
Aral Sea crisis.
Therefore, the correct answer is: (b) To deal with the Aral Sea crisis and contain the terrible after
effects of this gigantic ecological disaster.

S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. To determine which statement is incorrect about the geographical features of the Aral Sea, let's review
the statements against the details provided in the passage:
(a) Correct - The passage states that the Aral Sea was "the USSR’s second largest inland water body and
the world’s fourth-largest inland sea."
(b) Correct - The passage mentions that the Aral Sea is "Fed mainly by two rivers - Amu Darya and Syr
Darya."
(c) Incorrect - The passage describes that the Aral Sea "had abundant fish resources," which contradicts
the statement of it having "deficient fish resources."
(d) Correct - It is mentioned in the passage that the sea had "an average depth of 16 meters and a
maximum depth of 68 meters with a salt content of 1 percent only."
(e) Correct - The statement aligns with the passage's information that the sea is made from the "runoffs
and glacier melts from the Pamir and Tien Shan mountains of Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan."
Based on the above, the incorrect statement is: (c) It had deficient fish resources and more than three-
quarters of the territory surrounding it is desert lowland.
62 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage mentions Aralsk as a port located on the northern part of the Aral Sea. It is specifically
associated with Kazakhstan. Here's the relevant excerpt from the passage: "One of the most ancient lakes
on earth, the Aral Sea, which is bounded by three deserts and shared by the five newly independent
republics of Central Asia, had been the USSR’s second largest inland water body and the world’s
fourth-largest inland sea. It had abundant fish resources and a busy shipping trade extending from
its northern port of Aralsk in Kazakhstan to the river ports of Amu Darya, some as remote as
Tajikistan."
Therefore, the correct answer is: (b) Kazakhstan

S43. Ans.(a)
Sol. The passage provides clear information about the failure of the contingency plan for the Aral Sea, which
was intended to divert waters from Siberian rivers to compensate for the loss of flow from the Amu Darya
and Syr Darya rivers. The specific reason given for the plan's failure was the strong opposition it
encountered from ecologically concerned Soviet scientists. The passage states: "However, while the
Central Asian irrigation plan went on stream, the plan to divert the Siberian rivers encountered stiff
opposition from several ecologically concerned Soviet scientists. Struck down by the sheer
vehemence of such overwhelming protest, the planners backed off..."
Therefore, the correct answer is: (a) Strong opposition of the Soviet environmentalists

S44. Ans.(a)
Sol. The term "cul-de-sac" literally translates to "bottom of the sack" and refers to a street or passage closed
at one end, typically used in residential area planning. However, in a metaphorical context, particularly as
used in the passage regarding the Aral Sea crisis, it denotes a situation with no straightforward solution or
escape, essentially a dead end in terms of progress or resolution.
From the passage: "A process that sets into motion a series of chain reactions leading to a calamitous,
cul-de-sac gateway to eventual catastrophe." This implies a complex, problematic situation that
progressively worsens and leads to an inevitable disaster without any clear way out.
Given the options:
(a) A complex, difficult, or problematic situation with no clear way out — This aligns closely with the
metaphorical usage in the context of the passage.
(b) A short road that is blocked off at one end — This is the literal meaning but not applicable in the
metaphorical context given in the passage.
(c) A situation where opposing forces or factors are evenly balanced — Not relevant to the usage in
the passage.
(d) A situation in which no one involved can make any further progress because all parties are
equally matched, and no one can win — This describes a stalemate rather than a cul-de-sac situation.
(e) A situation where there is no movement or activity, often due to a halt — This describes stagnation
more than the complex, problematic situation indicated by a metaphorical cul-de-sac.
The correct answer, according to the usage in the passage and its implications, is:
(a) A complex, difficult, or problematic situation with no clear way out.

S45. Ans.(a)
Sol. The word "insatiable" refers to an inability to be satisfied, an unquenchable or endless desire or
appetite for something.
Reviewing the options:
(a) Gratified implies being satisfied or fulfilled, which is the opposite of an unending desire.
(b) Voracious means having a very eager approach to an activity, similar to insatiable in context of appetite.
(c) Ravenous also describes being extremely hungry, similar to insatiable.
63 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
(d) Gluttonous means excessively greedy, closely aligned with the idea of insatiable.
(e) Avaricious describes extreme greed for wealth or material gain, also akin to insatiable in terms of greed.
Given these descriptions, the correct opposite of "insatiable" is: (a) Gratified

S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. From the passage, the specific contingency plan mentioned for addressing the deterioration of the Aral
Sea involves the diversion of Siberian River waters. Here is the direct quote from the passage explaining
this plan:
"They, therefore, had a contingency plan up their sleeves - the waters of the Siberian rivers flowing
into the Central Asian region would be diverted to the Aral Sea to bolster the loss of Amu Darya and
Syr Darya river flow."
This quote clearly indicates that the contingency plan was to divert water from Siberian rivers to the Aral
Sea to compensate for the reduced flow from the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers.
Thus, the correct answer to the question is: (c) Diversion of the waters of the Siberian rivers flowing
into the Central Asian region to the Aral Sea.

S47. Ans.(c)
Sol. To determine the correct word replacements, we'll examine the meanings of the highlighted words
within the context of the sentence:
Highlighted words and their meanings:
1. Placable (1): Capable of being appeased or pacified. This seems like a typo or incorrect usage; the correct
form of the word should be "placable" or "placated," but it needs context that matches the concept of
appeasement or calmness.
2. Tenable (2): Capable of being held, maintained, or defended, as in an argument or position.
3. Open communication (3): Clear, straightforward dialogue or exchange of information without barriers.
4. Compromise (4): A middle ground in disputes where each party makes concessions.
Sentence analysis: "The dispute between the neighbors was highly placable (1), and a tenable (2) solution
was reached through open communication (3) and compromise (4)."
From the context:
• Placable does not correctly describe the nature of a dispute. A dispute typically isn't described as
"placable" but could end with a solution that is "tenable" or "placable" in terms of resolution. The
intended meaning seems to point towards the dispute being something that can be appeased or
resolved, suggesting the need for a word like "placable" in a different placement.
• Tenable seems misplaced when describing a solution directly after stating the dispute was "placable."
Instead, "tenable" should describe the nature of the solution, suggesting that it's viable or defensible.
Correct changes:
• Swap Placable (1) with Tenable (2). After this swap: "The dispute between the neighbors was highly
tenable (1), and a placable (2) solution was reached through open communication and compromise."
Corrected understanding:
• The dispute being "highly tenable" is still a bit off in context. It would be more appropriate to describe
a dispute as intense, significant, or severe, rather than "tenable." This suggests another typo or incorrect
word might be in play, where "tenable" doesn't fit well either. However, based on the choices and
alignment to the intended meaning of the words "placable" and "tenable," the intended correction aligns
"placable" with the resolution's nature (as capable of being appeased or resolved).
Thus, the correct answer based on the options and context provided would be: (c) 1-2
64 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S48. Ans.(d)
Sol. To find the correct combination of word replacements, let's first examine each highlighted word in the
sentence and understand their meanings and context:
Highlighted words and their meanings:
1. Harmony (1): A pleasing combination or arrangement of different elements.
2. Diverse (2): Showing a great deal of variety; very different.
3. Syndicate (3): A group of individuals or organizations combined to promote some common interest.
4. Syncretism (4): The amalgamation or attempted amalgamation of different religions, cultures, or
schools of thought.
Sentence analysis: "The harmony (1) of various religious beliefs in the region resulted in a diverse (2)
cultural landscape, where a syndicate (3) of spiritual leaders aimed to foster syncretism (4) among the
faiths."
Considering the meanings and the sentence structure:
• Harmony and syncretism are both terms related to the blending and peaceful coexistence of different
elements. Harmony refers to the state itself, while syncretism refers to the process or goal of blending
different religious or cultural traditions.
Correct changes:
• Swap Harmony (1) with Syncretism (4) and perhaps consider the fit of other words as needed, but
based on the options provided:
o Swapping Harmony and Syncretism would mean rephrasing the sentence to reflect that the syncretism
(the blending process) of various religious beliefs led to a harmonious cultural landscape, more accurately
aligning the usage of syncretism as a process.
Correct sentence after applying option (d) 1-4: "The syncretism of various religious beliefs in the region
resulted in a diverse cultural landscape, where a syndicate of spiritual leaders aimed to foster harmony
among the faiths."
This corrected sentence makes more sense because:
• Syncretism is now properly used to describe the process of blending different religious beliefs, which
leads to a diverse cultural landscape.
• Harmony is now used to describe the goal of the spiritual leaders' efforts, which is to create a peaceful
coexistence among different faiths.
Thus, the correct answer is: (d) 1-4

S49. Ans.(b)
Sol. To determine the correct word replacements, we need to examine the context and meanings of the
highlighted words within the sentence:
Highlighted words and their meanings:
1. Tenacious (1): Persistent or determined.
2. Trail (2): To follow or pursue.
3. Rapacious (3): Aggressively greedy or grasping.
4. Exposed (4): Revealed or made known.
Sentence analysis: "The tenacious (1) investigative journalist trail (2) the rapacious (3) exploitation of
natural resources by uncovering a exposed (4) of corruption and greed."
From the context:
• "Tenacious" is appropriately describing the journalist, which fits well to characterize the determination
of an investigative journalist.

65 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

• "Trail" is used incorrectly as it suggests the verb 'to follow,' but in the context, it seems intended to be
used as a noun (likely referring to a series of evidence or information).
• "Rapacious" correctly describes the nature of the exploitation, aligning well with the aggressive
depletion of resources.
• "Exposed" is out of place as it is used as a noun in the sentence, but it should be a verb or part of a noun
phrase.
The correct reconfiguration needs to:
• Replace "trail" with a noun that properly fits the context of uncovering a series of corruption and greed-
related incidents.
• Replace "exposed" with a verb that properly describes the action of revealing or uncovering these
incidents.
Considering the options:
• Option (b) 2-4 proposes swapping "trail" with "exposed," suggesting: "The tenacious investigative
journalist exposed the rapacious exploitation of natural resources by uncovering a trail of corruption
and greed."
This swap corrects the sentence as follows:
• Exposed is now correctly used as a verb to describe the action of the journalist in revealing the
corruption.
• Trail is now used as a noun to describe the path of evidence that has been uncovered regarding
corruption and greed, which is a typical way this term is used in investigative contexts.
Therefore, option (b) 2-4 is the correct answer, effectively making the sentence both grammatically and
contextually correct.

S50. Ans.(d)
Sol. To find the correct combination of word replacements, let's analyze each of the highlighted words and
their placements within the sentence:
Highlighted words and their meanings:
1. Fratricide (1): The killing of one's brother or sister.
2. Decisions (2): Choices or judgments made after consideration.
3. Culminating (3): Reaching a climax or point of highest development.
4. Capricious (4): Given to sudden and unaccountable changes of mood or behavior.
Sentence analysis: "The fratricide (1) decisions of the dictator led to widespread unrest (2), ultimately
culminating (3) in a tragic capricious (4) within the ruling family."
Considering the context:
• Fratricide, meaning the act of killing one's sibling, does not logically modify "decisions." It should
describe an event or action directly related to such an act.
• Capricious, which describes unpredictability or whimsical behavior, is misused as a noun here. It
should describe the nature of something, typically a decision or action, rather than an event itself.
Based on these insights, the sentence should rearrange these terms to better reflect their meanings:
• Swap Fratricide (1) with Capricious (4), as "capricious" could logically describe the nature of
decisions, especially if they are whimsical or erratic, leading to serious consequences. "Fratricide"
should be the noun describing the type of event or climax reached.
Correct sentence after applying option (d) 1-4: "The capricious decisions of the dictator led to widespread
unrest, ultimately culminating in a tragic fratricide within the ruling family."
This corrected sentence makes sense because:
• Capricious decisions now accurately describes the erratic and unpredictable decisions of the dictator.
• Fratricide now correctly refers to the tragic event within the ruling family, likely a result of these
unpredictable decisions.
Therefore, the correct answer is: (d) 1-4
66 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S51. Ans.(b)
Sol. CD-R stands for "Compact Disc-Recordable." It means that the disc can be recorded or written once,
but cannot be erased or reused.

S52. Ans.(d)
Sol. The basic unit of information in quantum computing is the "qubit," short for "quantum bit." Unlike a
classical bit that can be 0 or 1, a qubit can be in a superposition of both states simultaneously.

S53. Ans.(e)
Sol. A stylus provides enhanced precision for drawing and writing on a touchscreen device compared
to using a finger.

S54. Ans.(c)
Sol. Linux is an open-source operating system, meaning its source code is freely available for anyone to
view, modify, and distribute.

S55. Ans.(d)
Sol. Resistive touchscreen technology is commonly used in ATMs and POS machines because it is durable
and can be used with a finger, stylus, or any other pointing device.

S56. Ans.(c)
Sol. The third generation of computers (1965-1971) used integrated circuits (ICs), which allowed for
more compact and efficient designs compared to the transistors used in the second generation.

S57. Ans.(e)
Sol. VPN stands for "Virtual Private Network." It creates a secure, encrypted connection over a less secure
network, such as the internet.

S58. Ans.(c)
Sol. D. Floppy Disk: Slowest, with low data transfer rates (250 Kbps to 1 Mbps).
B. Hard Disk: Faster than floppy disks, with transfer rates (50 MBps to 150 MBps).
A. RAM: Much faster, used for quick access by the CPU, with transfer rates in GBps.
C. Cache: Fastest, very low access times, high-speed data transfer.

S59. Ans.(a)
Sol. Transistors replaced vacuum tubes in the second generation of computers, leading to smaller, more
reliable, and more efficient machines.

S60. Ans.(a)
Sol. POST (Power-On-Self-Test) is a process performed by firmware or software routines immediately after
a computer or other digital electronic device is powered on. It checks hardware components such as RAM,
hard drives, and peripherals to ensure they are functioning correctly before the operating system starts.

S61. Ans.(b)
Sol. System software includes the operating system and all utility programs that manage computer
resources. Windows is an example of an operating system, which is a type of system software.
67 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S62. Ans.(b)
Sol. USB-A is the standard connector type used for many peripherals, including mice and keyboards, to
connect to the CPU.

S63. Ans.(a)
Sol. Pressing Alt + Tab allows you to cycle through and switch between open windows on a Windows
operating system.

S64. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Apple I was the first computer created by Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak in 1976. It was one of the
first personal computers.

S65. Ans.(c)
Sol. Real-time protection in antivirus software means it continuously monitors the system for threats
and acts immediately to detect and prevent malware.

S66. Ans.(b)
Sol. The BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) option in an email message is typically located near the “To” field. When
you add an email address to the BCC field, that recipient receives a copy of the email while their address
remains hidden from all other recipients. BCC recipients cannot use the reply-all function.

S67. Ans.(d)
Sol. Microsoft Bing is the search engine developed by Microsoft.

S68. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Control Unit (CU) of the CPU is responsible for fetching and decoding instructions from memory
and directing the operation of the other components.

S69. Ans.(e)
Sol. The "Appearance and Personalization" category in the Control Panel includes settings for optimizing
the visual display on your desktop, such as adjusting screen resolution and personalizing the desktop
background.

S70. Ans.(d)
Sol. On many laptop trackpads, tapping with two fingers performs a right-click action.

S71. Ans.(b)
Sol.

68 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S72. Ans.(a)
Sol. Wrong number = 22
Pattern of series –
18+(2×3) =24
24+(3×4) =36
36+(4×5) =56
56+(5×6) =86
86+(6×7) =128
128 + (7×8) = 184

S73. Ans.(d)
Sol. Wrong number = 10
Pattern of series –
20×1+1=21
21×2-2=40
40×3+3=123
123×4-4=488
488×5+5=2445
2445×6-6=14664

S74. Ans.(d)
Sol. Wrong number = 118
Pattern of series –
120×0.5-1=59
59×1+3=62
62×1.5-5=88
88×2+7=183
183×2.5-9=448.5
448.5×3+11=1356.5

S75. Ans.(b)
Sol. Wrong number = 1025
Pattern of series –
2500×4/5=2000
2000×4/5=1600
1600×4/5=1280
1280×4/5=1024
1024×4/5=819.2
819.2×4/5=655.36

S76. Ans.(b)
Sol.

69 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S77. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S78. Ans.(e)
Sol.

70 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S79. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S80. Ans.(b)
Sol.

71 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S81. Ans.(a)
Sol. For boat A,
Upstream speed = 140/10=14 km/hr
Downstream speed = 14/7×11=22 km/hr
Speed in still water = (14+22)/2=18 km/hr
Speed of stream = (22-14)/2=4 km/hr
For boat B
Upstream speed = 240/20=12 km/hr
Downstream speed = 12+2×4=20 km/hr
Speed in still water = (12+20)/2=16 km/hr
Required time = 160/20 + 160/12
= 8 + 40/3
= 21 1/3 hours

S82. Ans.(e)
Sol. For boat A,
Upstream speed = 140/10=14 km/hr
Downstream speed = 14/7×11=22 km/hr
Speed in still water = (14+22)/2=18 km/hr
Speed of stream = (22-14)/2=4 km/hr
For boat B
Upstream speed = 240/20=12 km/hr
Downstream speed = 12+2×4=20 km/hr
Speed in still water = (12+20)/2=16 km/hr
Speed of boat C in still water = 16 ×5/4=20 km/hr
Required %= (20-18)/20 ×100=10%

S83. Ans.(d)
Sol. ATQ.
(8+10) ×X+(10+5) ×(X-3) =120
18X+15X-45=120
33X=165
X=5

S84. Ans.(d)
Sol.

72 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S85. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S86. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S87. Ans.(b)
Sol.

73 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S88. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S89. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S90. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S91. Ans.(a)
Sol. 20%, 80%

S92. Ans.(a)
Sol. Choosing the option with the highest potential outcome
74 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S93. Ans.(d)
Sol. It arrives at decisions without conscious reasoning

S94. Ans.(c)
Sol. It can hinder decision-making by limiting exposure to diverse viewpoints.

S95. Ans.(d)
Sol. Synectic

S96. Ans.(d)
Sol. By ensuring full participation and avoiding groupthink

S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. Mechanistic Decision Making

S98. Ans.(c)
Sol. By comparing projected utility to a benchmark

S99. Ans.(c)
Sol. The tendency to invest more resources in a failing course of action based on prior investment

S100. Ans.(c)
Sol. They may play a significant role in shaping decisions.

S101. Ans.(b)
Sol. The letter 'm' in 'mRNA' stands for 'Messenger'. mRNA stands for messenger RNA, which is a type of
RNA that carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are synthesized. The
discoveries by Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman have been pivotal in the development of mRNA vaccines,
such as those used to combat COVID-19, by enabling modifications that make the mRNA more stable and
efficient in eliciting an immune response.

S102. Ans.(d)
Sol. At present, NATO has 32 member countries. These countries, called NATO Allies, are sovereign states
that come together through NATO to discuss political and security issues and make collective decisions by
consensus.

S103. Ans.(b)
Sol. The headquarters of the Central Railway Zone of India is located in Mumbai. The Central Railway Zone
is one of the oldest and largest railway zones in India. It was formed in 1951 and plays a crucial role in
connecting various parts of the country. Mumbai, being a major commercial hub, is strategically significant
for the operations and management of the Central Railway Zone.

S104. Ans.(d)
Sol. In 2002, SpaceX (Space Exploration Technologies Corp.) was established by entrepreneur Elon
Musk. The company's primary aim is to revolutionize the aerospace industry and make spaceflight more
affordable. SpaceX has achieved numerous milestones, including the development of the Falcon and
Starship rockets, and successfully launching and landing reusable rockets, which significantly reduce the
cost of space travel. The company's long-term goal is to enable human colonization of Mars.
75 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S105. Ans.(e)
Sol. The first sounding rocket was launched from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
(TERLS) in Thiruvananthapuram in 1963. This marked the beginning of India's journey into space research
and development. The launch of the American-made Nike-Apache rocket in November 1963 was a
significant milestone for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and paved the way for future
advancements in space exploration and technology in India.

S106. Ans.(d)
Sol. Nirmala Sitharaman is the current head of the Ministry of Finance in India. She has been serving as
the Minister of Finance since May 2019. The Ministry of Finance is responsible for managing the economic
and financial affairs of the government, including the formulation and implementation of policies related
to taxation, financial institutions, and fiscal management. Nirmala Sitharaman has played a key role in
steering the economic policies of the country and addressing various financial challenges.

S107. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the listed places from India are part of the UNESCO World Heritage List. Nanda Devi and Valley
of Flowers National Park, Western Ghats, Great Living Chola Temples, and Dholavira: A Harappan City are
all recognized for their outstanding cultural or natural significance. UNESCO designates World Heritage
Sites to ensure their protection and preservation for future generations.

S108. Ans.(d)
Sol. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1992, provided for the reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Panchayati Raj Institutions, including a provision for
reserving seats for SC/ST women. This amendment aimed to enhance the participation of marginalized
communities, including women, in local governance by ensuring their representation in Panchayats,
thereby promoting inclusive and participatory democracy at the grassroots level.

S109. Ans.(a)
Sol. The incorrect pair is (a) Frank Walter – Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany. Frank-Walter
Steinmeier is the President of Germany, not the Chancellor. The current Chancellor of Germany is Olaf
Scholz. The other pairs are correctly matched with Ebrahim Raisi as the President of Iran, Cyril Ramaphosa
as the President of South Africa, Srettha Thavisin as the Prime Minister of Thailand, and Luiz Inacio Lula da
Silva as the President of Brazil.

S110. Ans.(e)
Sol. India, in partnership with other Asian countries, hosted the ICC World Cup in 2011. The tournament
was co-hosted by India, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh. This World Cup is memorable for India as the Indian
cricket team won the tournament, securing their second World Cup title after 28 years.

S111. Ans.(d)
Sol. The top 3 cities in the "National Smart Cities Awards" category of the India Smart Cities Award Contest
(ISAC) 2022 are from Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.

S112. Ans.(b)
Sol. Leander Paes has won a total of 18 Grand Slam titles in the doubles and mixed doubles categories
over his three-decade career. His achievements include 8 Grand Slam titles in men's doubles and 10 in
mixed doubles, making him one of the most successful doubles players in tennis history. His nomination to
the International Tennis Hall of Fame recognizes his exceptional contributions to the sport.
76 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S113. Ans.(e)
Sol. Antony Blinken currently holds the position of Secretary of State in the US Cabinet. As Secretary of
State, he is responsible for overseeing the United States' foreign policy and international relations, playing
a key role in diplomatic efforts and global engagement on behalf of the United States.

S114. Ans.(b)
Sol. India is a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad), which is a strategic forum
consisting of India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The primary focus of the Quad is to ensure a free,
open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region. India is not a permanent member of the United Nations Security
Council (UNSC) but has been elected as a non-permanent member for two-year terms in the past. India is
not a member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) or the Organization for Economic
Cooperation and Development (OECD).

S115. Ans.(d)
Sol. The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to promote the production and usage of green hydrogen in
India. The benefits include:
Reduction in dependence on imported fuels by producing hydrogen locally.
Increase in renewable energy usage across all economic spheres as green hydrogen production relies on
renewable energy sources like solar and wind power.
Decentralization in power generation by enabling localized production and usage of green hydrogen,
reducing the need for large, centralized power plants.
Thus, all three statements correctly state the benefits of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.

S116. Ans.(b)
Sol. NCERT has partnered with UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organization) to introduce the comic book titled "Let’s Move Forward." This comic book aims to teach
crucial life skills to adolescents, promoting responsible and health-conscious behavior. The collaboration
seeks to enhance the educational experience by making learning engaging and relevant for young people.

S117. Ans.(c)
Sol. Travelers using the e-visa facility can stay in Russia for up to 16 days. The e-visa, which has a validity
of 60 days from the date of issue, streamlines the visa application process by allowing applications to be
completed online without needing to visit consulates or embassies

S118. Ans.(e)
Sol. The old parliament building was previously known as the Imperial Legislative Council of India. This
historic building served as the seat of the Imperial Legislative Council before India gained independence,
and subsequently housed the Constituent Assembly of India before becoming the home of the Indian
Parliament until the recent move to the new Parliament building

S119. Ans.(b)
Sol. The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village
Areas) Scheme, initiated by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, won the prestigious National Award for e-
Governance 2023 (Gold) for its application of emerging technologies in providing citizen-centric services .

S120. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Vijayawada Railway Station was awarded the top-rated Platinum certification by the Indian
Green Building Council - Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) in 2023, recognizing it as a “Green Railway
Station.”
77 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S121. Ans.(d)
Sol. Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana (KGVY)
Objective:
• The aim is to promote and develop village industries through common facilities, technological
modernization, training, and more.
Eligibility Criteria:
• Any Indian citizen can be a beneficiary of KGVY.
• Beneficiaries may be identified by KVIC, NGOs, KIs, VIs, KVIBs, DICs, FPOs, etc.
Target Age Group:
• 18-55 years

S122. Ans.(b)
Sol. The central sector sub-schemes of SHREYAS include Free Coaching Scheme for SCs and OBCs, National
Overseas Scheme for SCs, National Fellowship for SCs, and Top-Class Education for SCs.

S123. Ans.(c)
Sol. Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, the maximum insured amount provided to eligible
beneficiaries is Rs. 5,00,000.

S124. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Digital Life Certificate promoted by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare is called
Jeevan Pramaan.
Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners. Pensioners of Central Government,
State Government or any other Government organization can take beneft of this facility.

S125. Ans.(d)
Sol. Features of the Scheme:
• Provides basic savings bank accounts with an overdraft facility of Rs. 10,000/- to every eligible adult.
• Enhancement in Overdraft Facilities:
o Overdraft limit increased from Rs. 5,000/- to Rs. 10,000/-.
o Overdraft up to Rs. 2,000/- available without conditions.
o Upper age limit for availing overdraft increased from 60 to 65 years.

S126. Ans.(c)
Sol. IIP is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classifed under, Broad
sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing and Electricity Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital
Goods and Intermediate Goods.

S127. Ans.(c)
Sol. PM Vishwakarma Scheme
• Provides collateral-free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ up to Rs. 3 lakhs, disbursed in two tranches:
o First Tranche: Rs. 1 lakh with a tenure of 18 months.
o Second Tranche: Rs. 2 lakhs with a tenure of 30 months.

S128. Ans.(b)
Sol. PM SHRI schools (PM ScHools for Rising India) is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
with a total project cost of Rs. 27360 crore which includes a central share of Rs. 18128 crores for the period
of fve years from year 2022-23 to 2026-27.

78 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

S129. Ans.(c)
Sol. About ‘Skills on Wheels’
Objectives:
• To empower a large number of youths with industry-relevant skill training.
• To bridge the gap between the industry's demand for skilled workers and the unemployed youth.
Initiative:
• A collaborative effort by the National Skill Development Corporation and IndusInd Bank aimed at
promoting skill development over a period of 5 years.

S130. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has approved the continuation of the Integrated
Scheme for Agricultural Marketing (ISAM) scheme up to 31st March 2026.

S131. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) will help to accelerate India’s existing biofuels programs such as
GOBARdhan Scheme, PM-JIVAN Yojana, and SATAT Yojana.

S132. Ans.(e)
Sol. The ASPIRE scheme implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises aids in setting
up a network of technology centres and incubation centres to accelerate entrepreneurship and promote
startups for innovation in the agro-industry.

S133. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana for providing free foodgrains has a tenure of 1 year, rolled
out from 1st January 2023.

S134. Ans.(e)
Sol. Key Features of UPAg Portal
1. Data Standardization:
• Standardizes data on prices, production, area, yield, and trade, making it accessible in one location.
• Eliminates the need to compile data from multiple sources.
2. Data Analysis:
• Performs advanced analytics to offer insights on production trends, trade correlations, and
consumption patterns.
• Assists policymakers in making informed decisions.
3. Granular Production Estimates:
• Generates detailed production estimates with increased frequency.
• Enhances the government's ability to respond swiftly to agricultural crises.
4. Commodity Profile Reports:
• Produced using algorithms to minimize subjectivity, providing accurate and objective reports to users.

S135. Ans.(c)
Sol. Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra mentioned the trinity of Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, and Mobile Connections (JAM)
in his speech.

S136. Ans.(a)
Sol. e NAM (National Agriculture Market) is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks existing
APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
79 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S137. Ans.(e)
Sol. The list of beneficiaries under DAY-NRLM, finalized after the Participatory Identification of Poor (PIP)
Process, is vetted by the Gram Sabha.

S138. Ans.(d)
Sol. Non-Banking Financial Companies-Micro Finance Institutions (NBFC-MFI) are the last mile financers
under Aajeevika Microfinance Yojana.

S139. Ans.(d)
Sol. The main target of the Jan Shikshan Sansthan Scheme is to impart vocational skills to the non-literates
between the age group of 15-45 years.

S140. Ans.(a)
Sol. The RBI recently came out with a four-tiered regulatory framework for Urban Cooperative Banks
(UCBs) for ease of regulation.

S141. Ans.(c)
Sol. About Stand-Up India Scheme
Objectives:
• Promote entrepreneurship among women and individuals from SC & ST categories.
• Provide loans for greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, services, trading sectors, and activities allied
to agriculture.
Key Features:
• Facilitates bank loans ranging from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 1 crore.
• Targets at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one-woman
borrower per bank branch for setting up greenfield enterprises.

S142. Ans.(b)
Sol. The standard time frame for supplying information to an applicant under the RTI Act 2005 is 30 days.

S143. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the mentioned uses are correct. CPI is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, by the
Government of India and RBI for targeting inflation & monitoring price stability, and as a deflator in
national accounts.

S144. Ans.(d)
Sol. Under the MGNREGA Scheme, the work is ordinarily provided within a 5 km radius of the village. In
case work is provided beyond that, extra wages of 10% are payable to meet additional transportation and
living expenses.

S145. Ans.(e)
Sol. Mission Shakti is a scheme being implemented in mission mode by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development aimed at strengthening interventions for women's safety, security, and empowerment.

S146. Ans.(e)
Sol. National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE)
• Overview:
o The NCF-SE is the curriculum framework designed for the 5+3+3+4 schooling structure proposed
by the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020).
80 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• Recommendations:
o NEP 2020 recommended the development of a new and comprehensive National Curriculum
Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) to align with the four-stage school design.
• Curriculum Release:
o The entire curriculum framework for all four stages—Foundational Stage, Preparatory Stage, Middle
Stage, and Secondary Stage—has been released.

S147. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bank loans for Food and Agro-processing units up to an aggregate limit of Rs. 100 crore per borrower
will be eligible to be classified as an ancillary service of the agriculture sector under Priority Sector Lending.

S148. Ans.(c)
Sol. Andhra Pradesh is not among the top 5 states projected to have the highest increase in population. The
top 5 states are UP, Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.

S149. Ans.(c)
Sol. Through the extension of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), 75 lakh additional consumers
are set to receive LPG connections by 2025-26.

S150. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) Road Coverage
• Rural Roads Focus:
o PMGSY covers only rural roads, specifically those previously classified as 'Other District Roads'
(ODR) and 'Village Roads' (VR).
• Other District Roads (ODR):
o These roads serve rural production areas and provide access to market centers, taluka (tehsil)
headquarters, block headquarters, or other main roads.
• Village Roads (VR):
o These roads connect villages or habitations, or groups of habitations, with each other and to the
nearest road of a higher category.

S151. Ans.(d)
Sol. Under the PM-KISAN scheme, all landholding farmers’ families are provided a financial benefit of Rs.
6000 per annum.

S152. Ans.(d)
Sol. According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, 65% of the population lives in rural areas and out of this
population, 47% is engaged in Agriculture.

S153. Ans.(c)
Sol. Six thrust areas mentioned by Governor are: Agriculture, manufacturing, services, demography,
technology and startups.

S154. Ans.(e)
Sol. OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Persons of Indian Origin) are not eligible to become
beneficiaries of the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
81 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S155. Ans.(b)
Sol. Gender Relevant Indicators by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
• Proportion of Employees:
o The percentage of employees who are own-account workers, categorized by sex.
• Households Using Clean Cooking Fuel:
o The proportion of households using clean cooking fuel.

S156. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the threshold for education loan under priority sector
lending to not exceeding Rs. 20 lakhs from the earlier Rs. 10 lakhs.

S157. Ans.(c)
Sol. The G20 New Delhi Leaders' Declaration 2023 focuses on 'Enhancing Economic and Social
Empowerment', 'Bridging the Gender Digital Divide', Driving Gender Inclusive Climate Action' and
'Securing Women's Food Security, Nutrition and Well-Being'

S158. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the mentioned activities—loans up to Rs 5 crore to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing
of the produce of members, loans for setting up of Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres, and loans for Food
and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of Rs. 100 crore per borrower—are included in
Ancillary Activities of agriculture under Public Sector Lending.

S159. Ans.(a)
Sol. Under SBM (G) Phase-II, up to 5 per cent of total programme funds can be spent on Information,
education & communication.

S160. Ans.(b)
Sol. Landless Agricultural Laborers and Marginalized Farmers:
• Those with land holdings less than 1 hectare will be considered to have an annual family income up to
Rs. 1.50 lakh per annum.
Small Farmers:
• Those with land holdings between 1 to 2 hectares will be considered to have an annual family income
up to Rs. 3.00 lakh per annum.

S161. Ans.(c)
Sol. The scientific name of Carnation is Dianthus caryophyllus.

S162. Ans.(a)
Sol. The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme allows NFSA beneficiaries to claim food grains from
any FPS in the country.

S163. Ans.(d)
Sol. Grading is the process of sorting fruits and vegetables according to their size, shape, colour, and
volumes to fetch high prices in the market.

S164. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends the minimum support prices
(MSP) for crops.
82 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S165. Ans.(e)
Sol. Weaning is the process of taking young ones away from the mother to stop them from nursing.

S166. Ans.(c)
Sol. The South-west monsoon period in India is from June to September.

S167. Ans.(d)
Sol. Mixed cropping involves growing two morphologically different crops together, which complement
each other.

S168. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Deoni cattle breed, found in Nashik and Ahmednagar, has characteristics intermediate between
milch and draught.

S169. Ans.(b)
Sol. Groundnut seeds contain approximately 45% oil and 26% protein content.

S170. Ans.(d)
Sol. An irrigation project with a CCA of more than 2000 hectares to 10000 hectares is known as a Medium
irrigation project.

S171. Ans.(e)
Sol. In case of calamities like drought, MGNREGA provides an additional 50 days of work.

S172. Ans.(a)
Sol. Khair (Acacia catechu) belongs to the Fabaceae family.

S173. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Jal Jeevan Mission guarantees 55 Liters of water per person per day.

S174. Ans.(b)
Sol. Azotobacter and Azospirrilum are biofertilizers used for non-legume crops.

S175. Ans.(d)
Sol. Cultivation of crops in areas where rainfall ranges between 750 to 1150 mm is called Dryland farming.

S176. Ans.(b)
Sol. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the deposition and cementation of weathering products of other
rocks.

S177. Ans.(b)
Sol. Hydration is a chemical decomposition process that involves the association of water molecules with
minerals.

S178. Ans.(b)
Sol. Result demonstration, researchers explain how production can be increased per unit area per unit
time.
83 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S179. Ans.(a)
Sol. Fuel costs are covered under the operating cost of tractors.

S180. Ans.(e)
Sol. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas released from volcanic eruptions, animal respiration, deforestation,
and burning of fossil fuels.

S181. Ans.(e)
Sol. Dietary fibres are the sum of lignin and polysaccharides that are not digested by the digestive tract.

S182. Ans.(a)
Sol. The agriculture credit target for animal husbandry, dairying, and fisheries under the budget 2023-24
is 20 lakh crores.

S183. Ans.(b)
Sol. Tied Ridging is a rainwater harvesting technique involving long, narrow, and elevated strips of ridges
crossed by earth bands within the furrow or ties.

S184. Ans.(c)
Sol. Under PMFBY, threshold yield is measured by multiplying the average yield with the Threshold Yield
Factor (Indemnity Level).

S185. Ans.(b)
Sol. Electrical conductivity is the water quality parameter used to measure the total quantity of dissolved
salts in water, and its units are Deci Siemens per meter.

S186. Ans.(c)
Sol. A transformer is a device used to change voltage without changing frequency.

S187. Ans.(c)
Sol. The label tag color of quality certified seeds is blue.

S188. Ans.(b)
Sol. Young chickens of either sex, 8 to 10 weeks of age, weighing 1.5 to 2 kg and used for tender meat are
called broilers.

S189. Ans.(d)
Sol. The duration of Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) Phase 2 is from 2020-21 to 2024-25.

S190. Ans.(a)
Sol. A male pig that has been castrated before sexual maturity is known as a barrow.

S191. Ans.(a)
Sol. Layers are economical up to an average age of 12 months.

S192. Ans.(b)
Sol. Vegetative propagation is a faster mechanism of reproduction as compared to sexual reproduction.
84 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S193. Ans.(d)
Sol. The objective of pruning is to remove diseased, damaged, insect-
infested, and weak shoots and ensure production of large number of
strong and healthy shoots.

S194. Ans.(a)
Sol. The optimum level of dissolved oxygen in a fish pond is 5 mg/l.

S195. Ans.(e)
Sol. Coarse sand class soils have the lowest particle density.

S196. Ans.(c)
Sol. Drip irrigation minimizes soil erosion and water runoff.

S197. Ans.(a)
Sol. The loan limit to Self-Help Groups (SHGs) under DAY-NRLM is Rs.2 lakhs.

S198. Ans.(e)
Sol. The target of RBI to lend to Small and Marginal farmers for FY 2023-24 is 10% of ANBC (Adjusted Net
Bank Credit).

S199. Ans.(b)
Sol. Food grains and oilseeds are dried to the moisture level of 7-11%.

S200. Ans.(d)
Sol. The next stage of sheet erosion in which finger-like projections appear is called rill erosion.

85 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com