LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 39
TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120

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this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
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replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. shaded completely without leaving any space.
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Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
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sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
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Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
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response.
 CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-51 11
Legal Reasoning 52-83 16
Logical Reasoning 84-108 27
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 34

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The piano teacher, Erika Kohut, bursts like a whirlwind into the apartment she shares with
her mother. Mama likes calling Erika her little whirlwind, for the child can be an absolute speed demon. She is
trying to escape her mother. Erika is in her late thirties. Her mother is old enough to be her grandmother. The
baby was born after long and difficult years of marriage. Her father promptly left, passing the torch to his
daughter. Erika entered, her father exited. Eventually, Erika learned how to move swiftly. She had to. Now she
bursts into the apartment like a swarm of autumn leaves, hoping to get to her room without being seen. But her
mother looms before her, confronts her. She puts Erika against the wall, under interrogation – inquisitor and
executioner in one, unanimously recognized as Mother by the State and by the Family. She investigates: Why
has Erika come home so late? Erika dismissed her last student three hours ago, after heaping him with scorn.
You must think I won’t find out where you’ve been, Erika. A child should own up to her mother without being
asked. But Mother never believes her because Erika tends to lie. Mother is waiting. She starts counting to three.

By the count of two, Erika offers an answer that deviates sharply from the truth. Her briefcase, filled with musical
scores, is wrenched from her hands – and Mother instantly finds the bitter answer to all questions. Four volumes
of Beethoven sonatas indignantly share cramped quarters with an obviously brand-new dress. Mother rails
against the purchase. The dress, pierced by a hook, was so seductive at the shop, so soft and colorful. Now it lies
there, a droopy rag, pierced by Mother’s glare. The money was earmarked for their savings account. Now it’s
been spent prematurely. The dress could have been visible at any time as an entry in the bank book – if you
didn’t mind going to the linen closet, where the bank book peeks out from behind a pile of sheets. But today, the
bank book went on an outing, a sum was withdrawn, and the result can now be seen. Erika should put this dress
on whenever they wonder where the nice money went. Mother screams: You’ve squandered your future! We
could have had a new apartment someday, but you couldn’t wait. This is not even gold. All you’ve got now is a
rag, and it’ll soon be out of fashion. Money never goes out of fashion. The narrow apartment they now rent is
so ancient, you might as well just abandon it.

1. Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?

(a) Mother and Daughter: A boisterous existence.
(b) Domineering Mother, prevaricating Daughter.
(c) Two contraries: Grandparent and Grandchild.
(d) Irate Mother, Serene daughter.

2. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The usual concern of the mother for her speedy daughter which generally results in a prurient skirmish.
(b) A typical concern of an elderly mother for her hasty daughter which intermittently results in a dominant
intrusion.
(c) An elderly mother’s dominance over her daughter which resulted in a violent fight for monetary prudence.
(d) A mother’s dominance over her challenging daughter which resulted in an invasion of her rights.

3. Why does the author chose a dress instead of jewelry to depict the monetary excursion by the daughter?
(a) Because dresses like those are considered to be quite expensive with fashion symbolism instead of jewelry.
(b) Because jewelry is much more durable and sturdy in its value than mere clothes which get torn or faded.
(c) Because dresses can get out of fashion appreciating their value while jewelry is generally considered stable
in its value.
(d) Because out-of-fashion dresses will lose value swiftly wasting money while jewelry will be much stable in
value signifying saving.

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4. In the context of the above passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the term
“like a whirlwind”?
(a) Happening of many events very quickly.
(b) Unable to be controlled due to speed.
(c) An air demon who is known for its speed.
(d) Extremely powerful due to spinning tremendously fast.

5. Which of the following words will replace the bold word from the passage?
The narrow apartment they now rent is so ancient, you might as well just abandon it.
(a) Enormous. (b) Commodious. (c) Classified. (d) Cramped.

Passage (Q.6-Q.9): Everything is connected. You've probably heard that before, but it bears repeating. Below
are five ways to boost both your individual health and the health of our planet — a combination that
environmentalists call co-benefits. First is increasing plant-based foods in your diet while minimizing meat.
Making these types of choices lowers the risks of heart disease, stroke, obesity, high blood pressure, type 2
diabetes, and many cancers while being beneficial for the planet. Plant foods also vary greatly, both in terms of
their nutritional content and in their environmental impact. Learning to read labels can help you determine the
nutritional value of foods. Choose an alternative to driving such as walking, biking, or using public transportation
when possible. Current health recommendations encourage adults to get 150 minutes each week of moderate-
intensity physical activity, and two sessions of muscle strengthening activity. Regular physical activity improves
mental health, bone health, and weight management. It also reduces risks of heart disease, some cancers, and
falls in older adults. Fewer miles driven in gas-powered vehicles means cleaner air, decreased carbon emissions
contributing to climate change, and less air pollution (known to cause asthma exacerbations and many other
diseases). Changes that work for one person may not work for another. Maybe you will pledge to eat one vegan
meal each week, or maybe you will pledge to limit meat to once a week. Maybe you will try out taking the bus
to work, or maybe you will bike to work when it's not winter. Set goals for yourself that are achievable but are
also a challenge. Sharing your thoughts about what matters to you and about what you are doing might make
you feel less isolated and help build community. Building community contributes to well-being and resilience.
Plus, if you share your pledges and aims with one person, and that person does the same, then your actions are
amplified. Making widespread changes is counterproductive and less accepted than individual behavioral
changes through small compulsory measures.

6. In the context of the above passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the word
“exacerbation”?
(a) The process of making anything complicated.
(b) An acute increase in the severity of an illness.
(c) Making a positive feeling worse.
(d) Causing additional problems in health.

7. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) There is little linkage between reduction and switching of vehicle use with physical activity and better Earth
health.
(b) Most processes in the world are existing in silos with little inter-linkage between them.
(c) Animal products especially meat has been linked with much higher emissions decreasing Earth and human
health.
(d) There have been examples in which isolated individuals have been much more instrumental in making big
changes.

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8. According to the passage, which of the following actions can be rightly justified by the passage above?
(a) Making it compulsory to only consume plant based foods and ban meat products all over the world.
(b) Putting a blanket ban on driving vehicles to work and only allowing public transport.
(c) Making it obligatory to share thoughts about health concerns and the planet to amplify their reach.
(d) Making it mandatory to use bike or walking two days a week from employers all around the world.

9. Which of the following is not a correct inference from the passage above?
(a) People should read labels of foods to determine their nutritional value and buy better nutritious food.
(b) Employees should make choices to lessen driving to work and choose options which are not fuel-driven.
(c) Government large-scale measures are much helpful in reducing health related complications for persons and
the planet.
(d) There are mutual benefits which can be derived from individual actions related to their health and for the
planet.

Passage (Q.10-Q.14): The militaries of the Quad — Australia, India, Japan, and the United States — conducted
the joint Malabar exercise off the coast of Japan in November. The exercise came against the backdrop of not
only China’s aggressive behavior but also increased belligerence from North Korea, which has conducted more
ballistic missile tests in 2022 than in any previous year. The four participating countries have more in common
in terms of their strategic goals for the Indo-Pacific region as well as their desire to gain greater operational
efficiency through better integration.

In February 2021, responding to a question in the Parliament on the Malabar exercise after Australia’s inclusion,
Indian Minister of State for Defense Shripad Naik said, “The exercises highlight the convergence of views among
the participating countries on maritime issues and their shared commitment to an open, inclusive Indo-Pacific
and a rules-based international order.” The exercise brings together the four Quad countries with a sense of
purpose of ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Indian Chief of Naval Staff Admiral Hari Kumar was in Japan for the inauguration of the 2022 edition of the
Malabar exercise. According to a press release from the Indian Ministry of Defense, the Indian navy chief was
in Japan for a couple of additional engagements as well, including witnessing the International Fleet Review
held by the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF) and celebrating the 70th anniversary of the IFR, as
well as to participate in the Western Pacific Naval Symposium (WPNS) as an Observer Navy. Kumar also used
the opportunity to meet with his counterparts from almost 30 countries that are participating in the IFR, WPNS,
and the Malabar exercise. These meetings have become an excellent opportunity for the Indian Navy to engage
in broader outreach and strategic engagements.

On the Indian side, two indigenously-developed ships participated, the INS Shivalik, a stealth frigate, and INS
Kamorta, an anti-submarine warfare (ASW) corvette. The group was led by Rear Admiral Sanjay Bhalla, Flag
Officer Commanding the Eastern Fleet. The two ships also participated in the International Fleet Review. India
also sent a P-8I long-range maritime patrol aircraft for the annual exercise.

The exercise also validated the participating countries’ different logistics support agreements signed at bilateral
levels. These exercises have proven to be enormously useful in producing a better understanding of each other’s
operational methodologies like the better choice of accoutrements, discreet reconnoitre, operationalizing or
defending against sortie techniques, and their skill sets to cooperate effectively while handling a variety of
maritime challenges in the Indo-Pacific.

Clearly, the Indian eagerness to partner with the Quad countries in joint military exercises is evident. Given the
continuing tensions with China, India will continue to expand these military engagements and security

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 consultations for more coordinated military activities in the region in order to ensure a stable and secure Indo-
Pacific.

10. Identify the central idea of the passage.

(a) The Malabar exercise showcases the maritime prowess and cooperative strategies of the Quad countries in
countering regional challenges.
(b) The Malabar exercise emphasizes the intricate logistical agreements among participating nations to
effectively address Indo-Pacific maritime challenges.
(c) The Malabar exercise primarily focuses on India's proactive approach to strengthening military ties and
partnerships with Quad countries for regional stability.
(d) The Malabar exercise signifies the convergence of global navies to address increasing belligerence from
North Korea and China's aggressive behavior in the Indo-Pacific.

11. Which of the following follow-up sentences added at the end of paragraph 2 will be factually coherent?
(a) Subsequently, the bilateral discussions culminated in a comprehensive maritime security framework,
solidifying the collaborative stance of the Quad nations against regional threats.
(b) This alignment of strategic visions between the participating countries has sparked renewed interest in global
maritime stability, leading to increased diplomatic interactions.
(c) Moreover, the quadrilateral cooperation has paved the way for enhanced interoperability, prompting
discussions on joint naval exercises beyond the scope of the Indo-Pacific.
(d) Furthermore, the exercise underscored the collective commitment of the Quad nations to address maritime
challenges, fostering a secure environment for regional economic growth.

12. Which term from the passage refers to the concept of mutual understanding and coordinated action among the
Quad countries to efficiently manage and address the various intricate and complex challenges arising in the
maritime domain of the Indo-Pacific region?
(a) Propinquity. (b) Pluripotent. (c) Querulous. (d) Synchrony.

13. Identify the tone of the author in describing the Malabar exercise.
(a) Approbatory. (b) Contentious. (c) Lugubrious. (d) Laconic.

14. Which of the following French-origin military vocabulary means 'a small warship designed for convoy escort
duty?
(a) accoutrements. (b) corvette. (c) reconnoitre. (d) sortie.

Passage (Q.15-Q.19): As one closely observes the unfolding of Kiran’s career, a pattern in her responses
becomes evident. The intensity of her responses is as per the demands of the situation. What is admirable and
worth emulation is how she rises to the occasion every time, even when the situation is seemingly uninspiring,
virtually invisible, big in scale, yet neglected. In fact, the observation is that the bigger the scale of the challenge,
the greater her achievement. The case in point is her historical reformation of a corruption-ridden, drug-abusing,
riotous, overcrowded, under-resourced cluster of prisons housing nearly 10,000 prisoners.

In the Indian Police Service, a prison assignment for an IPS officer is considered to be a 'dump' posting. For
Kiran, it was a 'double dump' as she was denied a return to her own Delhi Police despite a more- than-two-year
stint in Mizoram, considered a 'hard area' posting. After a hard stint, an officer is entitled to select a posting of
his or her choice.

The jail is indeed a microcosm of the India that lives outside it. And outside, the condition of a majority of
women is pathetic. They have virtually no rights and are merely treated as barely tolerable property to be passed
from father to husband to son. At any of these stages, she has only to prove herself to be interfering or
burdensome, and her life becomes a veritable hell. Those unfortunate women who find their way to prison are,

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 by and large, uneducated, submissive, and apathetic to their accepted lot in life. In prison, they do not have the
foggiest notion of the technicalities of legal or prison rights, rules of remission, parole, or premature release.
Lawyers are quick to take them on as clients, and hence the latter leave matters in the former's hands.
Intermittently, lawyers fleece them for money, but even then, they languish for years in prison without even
once seeing the inside of a court.

For the prison staff, such women become grist for their libidinous mill. The apathy of the outside world is turned
to cruelty here. Physical punishments are awarded not as corrective measures but more to satisfy sadistic desires
that find an unobstructed vent in the confines of the prison walls. And rape becomes a veritable right.

The conditions prevailing in the past in Tihar Jail had promoted a very unhealthy mentality, which steadily
polluted the minds of its unfortunate inmates. There was an unhealthy absence of any constructive or creative
activity. The environment was overcrowded and unhygienic. Medical aid was almost non-existent. Above all,
and probably what was the root cause of such an appalling situation, was that there appeared to be no one with
any sensitivity to the abounding misery.

15. Identify the statement which is NOT False according to the given facts of the extract.
(a) Kiran's historical reformation of the corrupt prison system was achieved through her sensitive approach and
understanding of the abounding misery.
(b) The majority of women in Indian prisons are educated and well-informed about their legal and prison rights,
which is why they end up languishing for years without going to court.
(c) The Indian Police Service considers the availability of discretion in prison assignments for IPS officers post
a stint - as prestigious postings.
(d) The unhealthy mentality prevailing in Tihar Jail was primarily due to the absence of any constructive or
creative activity, the overcrowded and unhygienic environment, and the lack of medical aid.

16. Identify the gist of the passage.

(a) The passage centers around Kiran's exceptional career responses and achievements, emphasizing her ability
to rise to challenges, even in seemingly uninspiring and neglected situations. It also highlights her historical
reformation of a corruption-ridden prison. Moreover, it discusses the unfortunate conditions faced by women
prisoners and the apathy of the prison staff.
(b) The passage delves into the career trajectory of Kiran, showcasing a pattern in her responses to various
challenges, with the intensity of her responses matching the demands of the situation. It highlights her
remarkable achievements, particularly her historical reformation of a prison housing thousands of inmates.
Additionally, it sheds light on the dismal conditions endured by women prisoners and the cruel treatment
they receive from the prison staff.
(c) The passage primarily revolves around Kiran's career responses, particularly her ability to excel in
challenging situations and achieve remarkable success. It also focuses on her transformative work in a
corruption-ridden prison and highlights the deplorable conditions faced by women inmates, including
mistreatment by the prison staff.
(d) The passage discusses Kiran's career responses to challenges, particularly her ability to rise to the occasion,
even in seemingly uninspiring situations. It also mentions her historical reformation of a corruption-ridden
prison and touches upon the dismal conditions faced by women prisoners due to societal apathy.

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17. Choose the argument which will weaken the given argument:
‘Kiran’s solution of communication for the situation was to proselytize the staff from supposedly
appointed captious alcade to welfare, ensuring watchdogs for the jailbirds were laudable.’
(a) Kiran's proselytization approach might have led to a diffusion of responsibility among the staff, potentially
resulting in a lack of accountability and oversight in managing the jailbirds effectively.
(b) The supposed laudability of having watchdogs for the jailbirds through welfare initiatives might be
overshadowed by the disregard for proper training and competence of the staff in handling such
responsibilities.
(c) The captious alcade, though appointed, might have possessed valuable expertise and knowledge of the
intricate security measures required for handling prisoners, which could have been compromised through the
welfare-centric approach.
(d) Kiran's perspicacious strategy of proselytizing the supposedly appointed captious alcade to welfare would
have inevitably led to the amelioration of the penological milieu, culminating in an efficacious and
rehabilitative environment that fostered a synergistic penological atmosphere.

18. Which of the following inferences about the microcosm of jail in 1993 India is correct?
(a) The deleterious amalgamation of abysmal carceral conditions, paucity of carceral intelligence, and inimical
treatment of incarcerated individuals in Tihar Jail, as highlighted in the passage, engendered a sinister
proclivity toward recidivism among its unfortunate inmates.
(b) Kiran's perspicacious endeavor to dismantle the corruption-ridden and drug-abusing milieu of Tihar Jail
demonstrates her sagacious understanding of the penological intricacies, contributing to the ostensible
success of her historical reformation.
(c) The inchoate state of legal awareness and recidivist predilections among the incarcerated women in 1993
India, as portrayed in the passage, accentuates the exigency for robust carceral rehabilitation programs and
gender-sensitive penological reforms.
(d) The non-existence of a salubrious environment in Tihar Jail during 1993 perpetuated a grim trajectory,
wherein the incarcerates psychological dereliction metamorphosed into a deleterious cycle.

19. Choose the correct sequence of antonyms for the given group of words from the passage.
“emulation, languish, grist, libidinous”
(a) Parenthesis, Apotheosis, Flourish, Platonic
(b) Repudiation, Prosper, Tangent, Undefiled
(c) Prodigy, Thrive, Fragment, Ascetic
(d) Adulation, Wither, Chaste, Kernel

Passage (Q.20-Q.24): India’s street dogs have long been a fixture of the urban landscape, whether lying in the
sun, scavenging for food, or trotting along busy streets. They are often referred to as ‘strays’, but that word
implies a certain vulnerability or lack of belonging, whereas India’s street dogs are very much at home on the
streets. They are a familiar sight and, despite the occasional menace of packs of barking dogs, are largely left to
their own devices. It’s common to see a street dog sleeping soundly on the pavement, barely even registering the
noise and chaos of the city around them.

Contrast this with the way many pet dogs are kept in India. In many households, dogs are confined to small
apartments for most of the day, and taken out only for a brief walk on a leash. They are often overfed and
underexercised, leading to health problems such as obesity and joint pain. Their natural behaviours, such as
running, playing, and socialising with other dogs, are severely curtailed. They are often dressed in fancy clothes,
pampered with expensive treats, and treated as objects of status or fashion. The contrast between the lives of
street dogs and pet dogs in India raises some uncomfortable questions about our attitudes towards dogs and our
responsibilities towards them. Are we really providing the best life possible for our pets by keeping them

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 confined and limiting their natural behaviours? Or are we imposing our own preferences and values onto them,
without regard for their own needs and desires?

Of course, there are dangers and risks associated with living on the streets, even for dogs. Street dogs are exposed
to diseases, traffic accidents, and violence from humans and other dogs. They are also subject to harassment and
abuse from people who see them as nuisances or threats. But for many street dogs, the benefits of freedom and
socialisation outweigh the risks. They form their own communities, with complex social hierarchies and
behaviours. They learn to navigate the city and find sources of food and shelter. And they often receive the care
and attention of kind-hearted people who feed them, offer them medical treatment, and even adopt them as pets.

Perhaps the lesson we can learn from India’s street dogs is that dogs are not just objects of our affection or status
symbols, but living beings with their own needs and desires. They are capable of forming their own communities
and adapting to different environments, whether on the streets or in our homes. Instead of imposing our own
values onto them, we should strive to understand and respect their unique perspectives and behaviours. We
should give them the freedom and socialisation they need to be happy and healthy, whether that means letting
them roam the streets or taking them on regular walks in the park.
Reference: "Dogs on India's streets can be freer and happier than many pets" by Anu Kumar, published on Aeon.
Article: https://aeon.co/essays/dogs-on-indias-streets-can-be-freer-and-happier-than-many-pets

20. Which of the following options best represents the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) The lives of street dogs in India are better than those of pet dogs, as they are free to roam and socialize.
(b) Dogs are capable of forming their own communities and adapting to different environments, whether on
the streets or in our homes.
(c) Our attitudes towards dogs and our responsibilities towards them should be based on their own needs and
desires.
(d) The risks associated with living on the streets outweigh the benefits for street dogs in India.

21. It can be inferred that the main contrast between street dogs and pet dogs in India, according to the passage is
(a) Street dogs are often overfed and underexercised, while pet dogs are left to roam free.
(b) Pet dogs are confined to small apartments and taken out on leashes, while street dogs are free to roam and
socialize.
(c) Street dogs are exposed to dangers such as disease and violence, while pet dogs are protected from harm.
(d) Pet dogs are treated as objects of status or fashion, while street dogs are free to live according to their natural
behaviours.

22. The overall tone of the passage is

(a) Critical and judgemental.
(b) Sympathetic and contemplative.
(c) Sarcastic and dismissive.
(d) Indifferent and apathetic.

23. Which of the following statements is NOT true based on the passage?
(a) Pet dogs in India are often confined to small apartments and taken out on leashes.
(b) Street dogs in India are free to roam and socialize.
(c) Pet dogs in India are often overfed and underexercised, leading to health problems.
(d) Street dogs in India are always aggressive and dangerous to people.

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24. It can be conclude that some of the risks and benefits associated with living on the streets for India's street dogs
is
(a) Street dogs are at risk of disease, accidents, and violence from humans and other dogs, but they also form
their own communities and receive care and attention from kind-hearted people.
(b) Street dogs are often aggressive and pose a threat to humans, but they are also free to roam and socialize.
(c) Street dogs are vulnerable and lack a sense of belonging, but they are also able to adapt to different
environments.
(d) Street dogs are often abused and mistreated by humans, but they are also able to navigate the city and find
sources of food and shelter.

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 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.25-Q.51): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.25-Q.29): India post payment Banks

Making a transformative milestone in the realm of banking services, India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) proudly
declares the continuation of its profit streak, reiterating its steadfast dedication to sustainable financial inclusion
and citizen empowerment. Celebrating the maiden profit journey last financial year and continuing a successful
profit run with the close of first-quarter this financial year, the IPPB is wholeheartedly committed to driving the
Digital India initiative, ensuring no one is left behind, even in the remotest corners of the country. Since its
foundation, the IPPB has been motivated by the dream of extending doorstep banking services to millions of
households nationwide. The journey began with pilot branches launched in Ranchi, Jharkhand and Raipur,
Chhattisgarh in the year 2017 and witnessed unprecedented success in a remarkably short span to make it a
dominant banking service provider at the last mile. The IPPB is delighted to share the extraordinary
accomplishment of generating a net profit of Rs. 20.16 crore during the financial year 2022-23, culminating in a
year of tremendous progress for the bank. A growth of 66.12 per cent in overall revenue was witnessed, which
surpassed an increase in overall operating costs of 17.36 per cent, which were the main factors in this
accomplishment, demonstrating the power of IPPB’s customer-centric and cost-effective banking model.

25. What is IPPB's unique positioning in the banking sector that distinguishes it from traditional banks?
(a) Conventional barriers
(b) Regulatory support
(c) Serves specific demographic segment
(d) Prudent financial management

26. What is the key difference between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)?
(a) RBI regulates monetary policy, while IPPB focuses on postal services.
(b) RBI provides banking services to the public, while IPPB manages foreign exchange reserves.
(c) RBI is a government-owned bank, while IPPB is a private-sector financial institution.
(d) RBI primarily supervises commercial banks, while IPPB offers financial services in rural areas.

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding RBI?

(a) RBI operates as a commercial bank
(b) RBI issues licenses for new banks
(c) RBI ensures the stability of financial institutions.
(d) All are correct

28. Who was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) C D Deshmukh (b) Benegal Rama Rau
(c) PC Bhattacharya (d) LK Jha

29. Which ministry is the Department of Posts a part of?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Communications
(d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

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 Passage (Q.30-Q.33): India Digital Rupee - Evolution of cryptocurrency - India targets
The State Bank of India (SBI) has become the seventh bank to implement UPI interoperability in its Digital
Rupee (e ₹) also called Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC). With this move, the bank aims to deliver
unprecedented convenience and accessibility to its customers. “This cutting-edge feature, accessible through the
'eRupee by SBI' application will empower SBI CBDC users to effortlessly scan any merchant UPI QR code for
swift and secure transactions," SBI said in a statement. SBI was among the first few banks to participate in the
RBI's retail digital e-rupee project in December 2022. SBI feels that this integration will be a game changer for
the digital currency ecosystem. By bridging the gap between CBDC and the extensively used UPI platform, SBI
aims to revolutionize payments made in India. With this move in the realm of digital payments, the future of
CBDC integration appears promising. Customers can now use their digital currency available in their digital
rupee [CBDC-R] wallet and scan to pay across any UPI QR code. Similarly, merchants need to only display their
existing single QR code, which can accept payments in both CBDC and UPI. State Bank of India is the largest
commercial bank in terms of assets, deposits, branches, customers, and employees. It is also the largest mortgage
lender in the country.

30. Which of these countries has not launched a digital currency as of September 2023?
(a) China (b) Jamaica (c) Sweden (d) Japan

31. Which option does not represent a probable application for CBDCs?
(a) Enhancing international payments
(b) Serving as a substitute for tangible currency
(c) Minimizing tax fraud
(d) Supporting unidentified transactions

32. What is the name of the flagship initiative launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to turn India into a global
manufacturing powerhouse by cutting red tape and drawing investment for export hubs?
(a) Make in India (b) Skill India
(c) Startup India (d) Digital India

33. How will the India Digital Rupee be different from private cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin?
(a) It will be based on a decentralized ledger
(b) It will offer complete anonymity to users
(c) It will be issued and regulated by the central bank
(d) It will rely on proof-of-stake consensus

Passage (Q.34-Q.38): Carrying Capacity of Himalayan States

The Centre on Monday urged the Supreme Court to direct all 13 Himalayan states/UTs to spell out steps taken
and an action plan, in a time-bound manner, for initiating a plan regarding the carrying capacity assessment as
per the guidelines prepared by GB Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment. The issue assumes
importance in view of recent landslides in HP and Uttarakhand in which hundreds died and scores went missing.
“It will be imperative that factual aspects of each hill station are specifically identified and collected with the
help of the local authorities,” the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change said in an affidavit filed
in the apex court. The ministry suggested that the “carrying capacity studies thus prepared by the 13 Himalayan
states may be examined by a technical committee headed by the Director, GB Pant National Institute of
Himalayan Environment”. The institute has been involved in conducting similar “studies for Mussoorie, Manali
and McLeodganj,” arising out of cases pending in the National Green Tribunal (NGT), it pointed out. The
ministry said directors or nominees of the National Institute of Disaster Management, Bhopal; National Institute
of Hydrology, Roorkee; Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun; National Environmental Engineering
Research Institute, Nagpur etc.

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34. Which of the following factors is not considered in calculating the carrying capacity of an area?
(a) Availability of natural resources
(b) Level of human intervention
(c) Rate of population growth
(d) Quality of life indicators

35. Which Himalayan state is particularly vulnerable to glacial melt, affecting water resources and the carrying
capacity of the region?
(a) Sikkim (b) Uttarakhand (c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland

36. Which of the following accurately describes the geological origin of the Himalayan Mountain range?
(a) The Himalayas were formed by volcanic eruptions millions of years ago.
(b) The Himalayas are a result of the subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.
(c) The Himalayas are composed primarily of sedimentary rocks with no involvement in tectonic processes.
(d) The Himalayas were created by the accumulation of river sediments over millions of years.

37. What did the Mishra Committee Report of 1976 primarily provide findings on?
(a) Climate change adaptation
(b) Cultural practices in Himalayas
(c) Land subsidence in Joshimath
(d) Himalayan flora and fauna

38. Which of the following is not among the 13 Himalayan states?

(a) West Bengal (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim (d) Uttar Pradesh

Passage (Q.39-Q.43): Initiatives under NEP 2020

On July 29, 2023, the country will be celebrating the 3 rd anniversary of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020,
the historic declaration of the vision for a new education system for India. To provide ample opportunities for
its students for holistic development, the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati has been actively working to
achieve the rational targets it had set under the framework of NEP 2020. Speaking about the implementation of
NEP 2020, Professor Parameswar K Iyer, Officiating Director, IIT Guwahati, said, “NEP 2020 has set up the
base for streamlining an array of progressive objectives, which is expected to catalyze the furtherance of
academic and research excellence in the institutes of higher education. NEP2020 envisions setting up a workforce
to fulfil the needs of an enlightened, conscious, knowledgeable, and skilled Nation capable of identifying and
solving its problems for long-term sustainability. At IIT Guwahati, we are implementing NEP2020 in a phase-
wise manner to make sure the best practices can be included in our curriculum in the most efficient way possible.”
On July 29 2020, NEP 2020 was introduced to bring systemic reforms to Higher Education Institutions (HEIs)
in the country. In this regard, IIT Guwahati has implemented key features of NEP 2020 through multiple inter,
multi, and trans-disciplinary initiatives.

39. What is the name of the scheme launched by the Ministry of Education to provide quality education to children
in remote areas through a network of virtual schools?
(a) Vidya-Daan (b) Vidya-Pravesh
(c) Vidya-Sagar (d) Vidya-Vahini

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40. What is the name of the digital platform that will store the academic credits earned by students from various
higher education institutions and enable multiple entry and exit options?
(a) Academic Bank of Credit (ABC)
(b) National Academic Depository (NAD)
(c) National Digital Education Architecture (NDEAR)
(d) National Education Technology Forum (NETF)

41. Which of the following authorities is responsible for planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating the
NPEGEL programme at the district level?
(a) District Project Coordinator (DPC)
(b) District Education Officer (DEO)
(c) District Institute of Education and Training (DIET)
(d) District Resource Group (DRG)

42. Which structure does the NEP 2020 recommend for school education?
(a) 5+4+3+4 (b) 5+4+4+3 (c) 5+3+3+4 (d) 5+4+3+3

43. The National Education Policy (NEP) advocates for the use of _______ as the medium of instruction in schools
up to the _______ grade, to promote a strong foundation in students' mother tongue or local language.
(a) English, fifth
(b) Hindi, eighth
(c) Mother tongue or local language, fifth
(d) Sanskrit, tenth

Passage (Q.44-Q.47): Conjunctivitis

With persistent rain, cases of conjunctivitis, or [1], are on the rise in several parts of the country, including New
Delhi, Chandigarh, and Gujarat. A conjunctivitis patient generally experiences eyes turning red, feeling itchy
and painful, and witnessing a watery or thicker discharge. The disease can be caused by viruses, bacteria, or
allergens, and in some cases can be highly infectious. In New Delhi this year, most cases are of viral
conjunctivitis. Dr JS Titiyal, chief of the Dr Rajendra Prasad Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences, AIIMS, Delhi,
said almost 100 cases of conjunctivitis are being reported a day. “Almost every alternate year there is an epidemic
of keratoconjunctivitis (an inflammatory process that involves both the conjunctiva and the superficial cornea)
and mainly, it is adenovirus only with different strains. All the cases we have cultured this time have adenovirus.
Very few cases have superadded bacterial infections like staphylococcus…Almost 99 percent of cases are
coming with adenovirus,” Dr Titiyal said. He said that experts from the institute will keep these adenovirus
strains and subsequently, analysis will be carried out to identify which exact strain was causing the epidemic this
year. Treatment usually involves the management of symptoms. Doctors advise against taking medicines without
medical guidance.

44. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(a) Red Eye (b) Yellow Eye (c) Pink eye (d) Green eye

45. Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of conjunctivitis is accurate?
(a) Conjunctivitis is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets.
(b) Viral and bacterial conjunctivitis are not contagious.
(c) Hand hygiene is not important in preventing the spread of conjunctivitis.
(d) Contact with contaminated surfaces can contribute to the transmission of conjunctivitis.

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46. What is the most common cause of vision impairment and blindness at a global level?
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Diabetic retinopathy
(c) Refractive errors
(d) Age-related macular degeneration

47. Allergic conjunctivitis is typically triggered by exposure to environmental _______ such as pollen or dust mites,
leading to symptoms of redness, itching, and tearing in the eyes.
(a) Protozoan (b) Moulds (c) Allergens (d) Fungal spores

Passage (Q.48-Q.51): BharatNet Project

The Union Cabinet has approved an allotment of ₹1,39,579 crore for the next phase of Bharat Net to make 5G
network available to remote areas of the country, according to government officials. “With a system of ring
topology, we plan to reach 6.4 lakh villages within the next two years from the current 1.94 lakh connected
villages under the Bharat Net Udyami Yojana," one of them said, asking not to be named. The Bharat Net project,
executed by the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) consisting of the Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL)
and Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) merger, completed a pilot project in eight months, covering 60,000
villages across four districts. The average rural consumption of 175 GB per household per month, compared to
230 GB in urban areas, has led to approximately 5.67 lakh active household connections, facilitated by small
private companies serving as Internet Service Providers (ISPs). The project operates on a [1] revenue-sharing
model with partners," the official added. The official also said, around 1,700 towers have been fiberized during
the pilot project, while online training is provided for fibre maintenance and installation. The government meets
the project's capital cost, and any damage to the optical fibre triggers an automated message to the network
operation centre.

48. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(a) 60-40 (b) 50-50 (c) 70-30 (d) 65-35

49. Which of the following statements accurately represents the funding structure of the BharatNet Project?
(a) The entire project is funded by the central government of India.
(b) Funding is solely sourced from international organizations and foreign aid.
(c) The project follows a public-private partnership (PPP) model for financing.
(d) BharatNet relies on user subscription fees as its sole source of funding.

50. What is the name of the ultra-high-speed 5G hotspot device that Jio announced at the previous AGM in July
2022?
(a) Jio Air Fiber (b) Jio Fiber Link
(c) Jio Air Link (d) Jio Fiber Air

51. What is the name of the fund that is financing the entire BharatNet Project?
(a) Universal Service Obligation Fund
(b) Digital India Fund
(c) National Optical Fibre Fund
(d) Rural Broadband Fund

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 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.52-Q.83): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.

Direction (Q.52– Q.57): The rules relating to the offence of criminal conspiracy under the Indian Penal Code
1860 punish several persons who are directly or indirectly engaged in the commission of any illegal act or
omission. One of the main requirements for constituting the offence of criminal conspiracy is the involvement
of two or more persons. The offence of criminal conspiracy cannot be committed by a single person. The second
requirement for the constitution of the offence of criminal conspiracy is an agreement between the parties. There
should be consensus ad idem (meeting of minds) between the parties, as an agreement cannot exist unless and
until there is a meeting of minds between the parties. The word agreement itself includes the word 'agree', which
stipulates that the parties to the agreement should agree on the same thing; if it is not so, then no agreement
would exist between the parties. The last but not the least requirement for constituting the offence of criminal
conspiracy is a commission of an 'illegal act'. The most important ingredient for constituting an offence under
criminal law is the presence of mensrea or ill intention, and any action would not be considered illegal unless
and until it incorporates mensrea; it also constitutes doing a legal act through illegal means.
52. Ramesh was a petty thief, and he always used to steal a lot of things from his nearby stores and even houses.
One day, he got to know that the house two blocks farther had bought a brand new washing machine worth Three
Lakhs, and he got to know that if he sold it, he would get more than four lakh rupees and so he wanted to really
steal it. However, the machine was quite big, so he could not take it alone; he asked his close friend Mahesh to
help him with the theft. Mahesh said he would help him, and they agreed to do the theft on a particular night
three days later. On the said day, Mahesh did not show up, and Ramesh decided to go ahead alone but got caught.
Can they both be sued for Criminal conspiracy?
(a) No, because there was no conspiracy here, as Mahesh never showed up for the crime.
(b) Yes, because they had agreed to commit a criminal act via conspiracy.
(c) No, But Mahesh will also be held responsible because he had agreed to commit theft.
(d) Only Ramesh will be held responsible because he alone committed the theft and not Mahesh because he did
not
53. Komal and Raju were two high school sweethearts; they both wanted to be together even after they graduated
college. Komal belonged to a very rich family and was also an upper-caste Hindu, whereas Raju was a lower-
caste tribal and also was not very affluent. Komal's family was totally against this relationship, so Raju and
Komal decided to go against the wishes of their families. However, Raju got to know that Komal's family was
trying to get her married, so he wanted to elope with her. On the day he killed Komal's brother as he was trying
to stop them from running away. Will they be liable for conspiring to kill the brother?
(a) No, because Komal and Raju only wanted to be together, and their families were against it.
(b) No, because they were major and could have decided on who to marry or who not to.
(c) Yes, because they wanted to run away, and so, they also killed the brother as he was an impediment in the
said plan.
(d) No, because there was no agreement to kill the brother, only Raju will be liable.

54. Kamal, Akbar and Anthony were three best friends, and they lived together as well. They all had very less paying
jobs and not enough to sustain their needs. Kamal one day got to know about a big mansion which had a lot of
valuable items, and so he decided to commit robbery along with both Akbar and Anthony. They all planned to
commit theft, Kamal went inside to commit the theft, but Akbar and Anthony decided to stay outside and look
for any possible people who might come so they could alert Kamal. When they got caught, Akbar said that he
did not commit the said Act, so he would not be held liable. Decide.
(a) Yes, he also will be held liable as he was also helping the others in a criminal act.
(b) They all will be liable because robbery is a serious offence, and they all committed it.
(c) Akbar and Anthony would not be liable as they did not commit the robbery.
(d) This was a criminal conspiracy, and they all had a part in it, so Akbar also will be responsible.
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55. Mangal and Dangal were twin brothers. They always stayed together and did most of their chores together.
Mangal was very much into drugs and alcohol, and he needed constant funds for the same. They both decided to
rob a house and then split the money. Dangal was also homosexual and had a boyfriend he wanted to move in
with, so he agreed. On the day of commission, Mangal was running with the money when the housemaid saw
him, so he decided to rape her. He shot her later, and she died right there. Can they both be held liable for criminal
conspiracy to rape and kill the maid?
(a) No, because they only decided to rob the place, and there was no consensus about killing the maid.
(b) Only Mangal will be responsible for killing the maid, as he did not ask Dangal before doing it.
(c) Dangal was homosexual anyways, so he would not be liable for raping her.
(d) Mangal had to do that so he could proceed with the conspiracy of robbery.

56. Rhea's birthday was coming up. Her brother and his best friend decided to throw her a surprise birthday party.
They knew Rhea was a huge fan of serial killers, sothey made the whole room like a crime scene, and they used
real blood from a nearby butcher. They also hid some bones made out of clay that looked very real. When Rhea
came back, the friend grabbed her playfullyand then pushed her on the floor, but she got scared. Then they
revealed the whole thing, but Rhea was still so angry, so she sued them for emotional distress and attempted to
murder. Can they be held responsible for the same by criminal conspiracy?
(a) No, because they lacked mensrea & did not decide to do any illegal activity, hence, they would not be
responsible for the same.
(b) Yes, because they scared Rhea a lot, and they also did it knowingly.
(c) No, because they merely planned a birthday surprise, and there was no intention to kill anyone or cause
emotional distress.
(d) Yes, because they wanted to scare her, as they also got real blood.

57. Pranav and Ram were good friends. They always helped each other in any circumstance. One day Ram came to
Pranav and told him that he needed some money in order for him to be able to put his daughter through college.
Pranav did not know what to do, so he went to a company to get a job, the company, however, only took
graduates, and Pranav was not a graduate, so he decided to forge a certificate, and Ram helped him with the
same. Will they be liable for criminal conspiracy?
(a) No, because they only wanted to earn money for a very genuine cause.
(b) No, because at least they did not commit robbery or steal anything.
(c) Yes, because they did a legal act i.e applied for a job by illegal means (forging documents).
(d) Yes, because they tried to earn money in a way that was illegal.

Direction (Q.58– Q.63): Whenever a party restricts another party from carrying out certain business or trade as
per an agreement, it falls under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872. It thus provides that an agreement
restraining a person from carrying on a lawful profession, trade or business is void to that extent. However, an
agreement not to carry on within specified local limits, a business similar to the business of which goodwill is
sold, can be enforced, provided the limits of restraint are reasonable. Goodwill is an intangible asset and the only
exception that is referred to in Section 27 of the statute. It means the restrictions imposed on the seller should be
reasonable. Seller is restrained from practising such business or trade for a certain time period for which this
business is sold, either by the buyer or by any person obtaining title to the goodwill from him/her. Under the
statute of Indian Partnership, Section 36 defines that those business partners who are stepping out of business
shall not carry the similar business or trade for a specific time duration within specified geographical local limits;
in these circumstances, these agreements providing for reasonable restrictions in terms of specified time and
geographical limits will be held valid.

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58. April fried chicken had very famous chicken rice that they had kept a secret for a long time. They did not want
to put the secret out, so they had a policy that anyone who left the company would not open a secret business
with their chicken recipe for at least two years. Given they were very famous, the rule became a very norm for
the geographical area. Bunty worked in the company as a chef. He left the company and then decided to start his
own chicken business. The company sued him. Decide the validity of the restriction imposed.
(a) They can sue him because he went against the contractual rules, as mentioned.
(b) Two years is not a reasonable time, so they cannot sue him for starting his business.
(c) Everyone has a fundamental right to trade and profession of their choice, and so Bunty can choose to do
what he wants.
(d) This was not a reasonable restriction as no goodwill was sold, so they could not sue him and hold him liable.

59. A and B were childhood friends, and they both wanted to start a business together. They both started a business
of wines and wanted to expand it more and more. Their wine business bloomed suddenly, and they became
millionaires. B was sick for a while, and so he wanted to leave the business and just go and relax. He sold the
goodwill to A, and A demanded that B not start a similar business for at least a year. B agreed; however, his son
started a similar wine business in eleven months. Can A sue B for breaching the said contract?
(a) No, because the time had almost elapsed, and so it can be waived off.
(b) Yes, because they had a contract for not starting a similar business for one year, and that was breached.
(c) No, because they both had started the business together, and so, one cannot sell the entire goodwill to another.
(d) No, because the restriction was on B and not on his son.

60. Aman and Jaman both were bakery owners in the same locality. Aman's store was a big hit for a while, and his
rosemary bread was loved by everyone currently. Jaman was incurring huge losses because of the same. He
wanted to do something, so Aman's bakery would not be as popular. Jaman went to Aman and told him he would
pay him One lakh if he closed his bakery for two months so his own business could flourish. Aman agreed, but
then Jaman could not pay him the money, so Aman sued Jaman for not paying him. Comment on the validity of
the agreement.
(a) The said agreement was a restraint to trade, and that is void, as the passage clearly mentions.
(b) Aman can sue Jaman as he had agreed to shut his bakery down for two months, which caused him a lot of
loss as well.
(c) Jaman will be held liable as he had asked Aman to stop his bakery so he could earn his fortune.
(d) Jaman cannot be held liable as Aman himself entered into a void agreement.

61. Kentucky Fried Pollo was a very famous franchise for chicken in Spain. The store was spread all around the
country and was extremely famous as well. They were looking forward to further expanding their business in
other parts of the world as well. Mohan worked under them in the Madrid outlet. The owner of the company sold
the goodwill to Mohan as he was their best employee. Mohan made them sign an agreement saying they would
not open any same businesses in nearby places within the country. The owner came to India and opened a similar
business named Jugar fried Pollo. Mohan sued them for breaching the terms of agreement.
(a) Mohan could sue them as the company was famous all over the world, and so everyone would know this was
the same person.
(b) Mohan can sue them because of the contract, as they opened a similar business.
(c) Mohan can sue as his restriction was valid and not erroneous and was breached as well.
(d) Mohan cannot sue because the nearby geographical area condition was not breached as Spain is very far
from India.

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62. Sumitra and Luthra were renowned chilli sauce, business partners. They both were very famous and rich and had
owned the business for a decade now. One partner Sumitra Madan wanted to step out of business now as he
wanted to make his individual name in the field of business. Luthra made him sign an agreement that Sumitra
would not start a similar business within one year and not in the areas where the already established chilli
business factories were located. Sumitra claimed this was against his right to have an occupation of his choice.
Decide.
(a) The agreement was void because an agreement restraining a person from carrying on a lawful profession,
trade or business is void to that extent.
(b) The agreement was not void because the restriction was reasonable, under section 36 of Indian Partnership
Act.
(c) The agreement was not void because there was a reasonable fear that he would start a similar business.
(d) The contract was void because the time limit of three years was unreasonable.

63. X and Y were partners in an embroidery business. They wanted to expand their business further. Y was, however,
not very keen on expanding the business any further with X. He wanted to break out of the partnership. He
wanted to start a similar business on his own, so he broke the partnership. X laid out terms that Y would not start
a similar business for at least ten years and could not do it in the same country ever. Y contended that the said
contractual terms were very unreasonable, and so he decided to move the court for the same.
(a) Yes, the restrictions were very unreasonable and hence, cannot be enforced on Y's part.
(b) The restrictions were not unreasonable as the partners could choose them as they wanted.
(c) Y should agree as he was finally being able to start his own business.
(d) Section 36 defines that those business partners who are stepping out of the business will be subject to
restrictions, hence valid.

Direction (Q.64– Q.68): The 22nd Law Commission of India headed by former Chief Justice of Karnataka High
Court Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which criminalizes
sedition, should be retained in the statute book with certain changes. In its report, the Law Commission said that
"Section 124A needs to be retained in the Indian Penal Code, though certain amendments, as suggested, may be
introduced in it by incorporating the ratio decidendi of KedarNath Singh v. State of Bihar so as to bring about
greater clarity regarding the usage of the provision." Currently, the scheme of punishment provides for life
imprisonment or imprisonment upto 3 years. The Commission has suggested that the jail term of 3 years be
enhanced to 7 years. the Law Commission has now recommended altering the Section as: Sedition "Whoever by
words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring
into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law
in India, with a tendency to incite violence or cause public disorder shall be punished with imprisonment for life,
to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven
years, to which fine may be added, or with fine." The expression "tendency" would mean mere inclination to
incite violence or cause public disorder rather than proof of actual violence or imminent threat to violence, the
report clarified. The Commission also suggested that no FIR dealing with Section 124A be registered "unless a
police officer, not below the rank of Inspector, conducts a preliminary inquiry and on the basis of the report
made by the said police officer the Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be, grants
permission for registering a First Information Report." On the argument that sedition law must be scrapped
owing to its colonial legacy, the Commission stated that people are at liberty to indulge in healthy and
constructive criticism of their government in a democratic set-up but what Section l24A of IPC seeks to penalize
is only the pernicious tendency to incite violence or cause public disorder in the guise of exercising right to
freedom of speech and expression.

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64. KavishRumar is a renowned anchor in a famous media house called BharatTV where his prime time show
‘Kavish-ki-report’ generates the highest amount of revenue for the channel and is often characterized as anti-
establishment views. Kavish is very vocal about his dissatisfaction with the ruling party and he criticizes nearly
all the policies of the government. The Central government introduced a policy of “instant death penalty’ where
individuals committing serious crimes would be given an instant death penalty after being convicted by the
highest court of appeal. This was done so as to make sure that the convicts do not get the opportunity to apply
for mercy petition and to send a message that the government is not complacent towards the criminals. During
one of his episodes where he was criticizing the third policy of the government, he stated “At least the Taliban
government does what is written in the holy texts, the government here does whatever it feels like. There is no
rule of law left in India. The people and the civil society should contemplate on this.” Later, the police arrested
him on the charge of sedition.
(a) Kavish is liable as his speech had the tendency to incite protest which could have caused violence.
(b) Kavish is not liable as his speech did not have a tendency to cause violence.
(c) Kavish is liable as his words seek to defame India by comparing it with Taliban.
(d) Kavish is not is liable as his intentions were not malafide.

65. Amrinder Singh is a famous pop star hailing from the state of Punjab where there is an increasing problem of
separatism. Recently he released his new album called the ‘Thugs of Punjab”, where he is seen patronizing
Punjabi cult leader called Jeet pal Singh who is convicted of inciting violence and the State and conspiring
against the State by inciting separatism. After the release of his album Amrinder in one interview stated, “I am
in complete support of Jeet Pal, as he stood for the conscience of Punjab. I would do whatever I could to further
the cause rest is your call to protect your state.” He has millions of followers who blindly followed him. Soon
after the interview, many untoward events were reported in the news. Later the police arrested him under section
124A of the IPC.
(a) Amrinder Singh is not liable as mere support to Jeet pal per se is not punishable.
(b) Amrinder Singh is liable as his acts incline towards spreading enmity and hatred..
(c) Amrinder Singh is not liable as his speech supporting Jeet Pal does not have a tendency to cause violence at
all.
(d) Amrinder Singh is liable for sedition because his support for a separatist convict has the tendency to cause
violence enmity & hatred towards the nation.

66. SannaMurshid is a journalist of repute in an international media house named ‘CCB’ headquartered at New
Delhi, India. She is known for having strong view against the ruling party and is often involved in protests and
demonstrations against the ruling party. She was also accused of inciting violence against the State in the
erstwhile state of Srinagar by voicing her controversial views in favour of India’s enemy state. She remains in
the news for strong views and is often labelled as “anti-national” by some on social media. In one of her articles
she wrote, “The ruling party has reduced the country into a deeply polarized society, the government including
the Prime Minister and other MP’s belonging from the ruling dispensation shall be kicked out of the Parliament
to maintain the fabrics of our society. Lets come together and do the needful” Subsequently, she was arrested by
the local cops under section 124A for sedition.
(a) Sanna is not liable as her comments were made with a bonafide intention.
(b) Sanna is liable as her words have a tendency to excite disaffection against the government established by
law.
(c) Sanna is not liable as her comments were not directed towards the government.
(d) Sanna is liable as her past links with Pakistan show her inclination to cause violence in India thereby
attracting section 124A of IPC.

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67. MahimaMoitra a prominent politician and a Member of Parliament, is said to have a strong ideological
inclination which is considered to be controversial by many. She was also accused of being ‘anti-national’ for
her stance on the issue of Pakistan’s state-sponsored terrorism, which according to many went against the martyrs
of India. She is also said to have close links with the elite establishment of Pakistan because of which she often
appears in Pakistan’s media houses as well. In one such interview Mahima said, “For a better India-Pakistan
relations, the Prime Minister of India and the ruling party shall be thrown out of power. It is now necessary to
do so to protect the fabric of democracy in India.” Later, upon her arrival at Delhi International Airport, she was
arrested by the Sub-Inspector of Karol Bagh Police Station and a subsequent inquiry was done in the Karol Bagh
Police Station. And several charges were put against her including one for sedition under 124A. Decide
(a) Mahima is liable because her for history with Pakistan, which shows her malicious intention to harm the
Indian interest.
(b) Mahima is not liable because the place of offense is not in India and her comments had no tendency to cause
sedition.
(c) Mahima is liable as her words had the tendency to cause violence and disharmony.
(d) Mahima is not liable as the arrest was not made in accordance with Section 124A.

68. Aftab Siddiqui is a prominent politician in the state of Kerala in India. He belongs to the party called, “Indian
Socialist Party”. The party is said to have stood for the separate identity of the State. Which advocates for a
distinct culture and language of the people and a different form of society. In one of his rallies in the State of
Kerala, he said, “Our State is different from the rest of the country. Our only aim is to give it a separate and
distinct identity and this can only happen if we stage a protest in front of the parliament. We would not do
anything illegal but would only ask for our demands to be fulfilled." Later, Aftab was arrested by the police. For
conducting the inquiry, the inspector wrote to the state government for its permission, but due to the alliance of
ISP with the ruling party, it did not allow the initiation. However, looking at the circumstances a ruling party
ally JantaSangathan' s chief who happens to be the Central Defence Minister gave his permission to arrest Aftab.
He was arrested subsequently. Decide -
(a) Aftab is not liable as the arrest was not made in accordance with the procedure under 124 A.
(b) Aftab is liable as the comments made by him had the tendency to incite violence against the state.
(c) Aftab is not liable as his intention was never to cause disharmony amongst the people. His statement did not
indicate any tendency to cause violence.
(d) Aftab is liable as his words express his deep bias against India, he showed a clear intent to incite violence
and make people listen to him.

Direction (Q.69– Q.73): The Titan submersible vanished on Sunday roughly two hours into its dive and was
found in pieces on the ocean floor after what the US Coast Guard said on Thursday was a “catastrophic
implosion” of its pressure chamber.
The passengers, who paid as much as $250,000 each for the journey to 12,500 feet (3,810 meters) below the
surface, are believed to have signed liability waivers. A CBS reporter who made the trip with OceanGate
Expeditions in July 2022 reported that the waiver he signed mentioned the possibility of death three times on the
first page alone.

Waivers are not always ironclad, and it is not uncommon for judges to reject them if there is evidence of gross
negligence or hazards that were not fully disclosed.

“If there were aspects of the design or construction of this vessel that were kept from the passengers or it was
knowingly operated despite information that it was not suitable for this dive, that would absolutely go against
the validity of the waiver,” said personal injury attorney and maritime law expert Matthew D Shaffer, who is
based in Texas.

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 Families could also seek damages from any outside parties that designed, helped build or made components for
the Titan if they were found to be negligent and a cause of the implosion.

69. John, an adventurous thrill-seeker, signed up for a bungee jumping experience with a reputable company called
"Leap of Faith." Before the jump, John was required to sign a waiver releasing the company from any liability
in case of an accident or injury. The waiver stated that John understood and accepted the inherent risks associated
with bungee jumping. On the day of the jump, John noticed that the bungee cord used for the activity appeared
worn out and frayed. Concerned about his safety, he raised his concerns with the company's staff. They assured
him that the cord was still in good working condition and that it had been regularly inspected. Relying on their
assurances, John decided to proceed with the jump. During the jump, the bungee cord unexpectedly snapped,
causing John to fall and sustain serious injuries. He filed a lawsuit against "Leap of Faith," arguing that they
were negligent in maintaining their equipment and that they had failed to disclose the actual condition of the
bungee cord. Based on the principle mentioned above, what is the likely outcome of John's lawsuit against "Leap
of Faith"?
(a) John's lawsuit will succeed since there was gross negligence on the part of Leap of Faith
(b) John's lawsuit will succeed since the risks of bungee jumping were not fully disclosed by Leap of Faith
(c) John's lawsuit will not succeed since the risks of bungee jumping were fully disclosed by Leap of Faith
(d) John's lawsuit will not succeed since there was no gross negligence on the part of Leap of Faith

70. Sarah, an avid hiker, decided to join a guided trekking tour in a mountainous region. Before the trek, Sarah
signed a waiver releasing the tour company from any liability in case of accidents or injuries. The waiver clearly
stated that hiking involves inherent risks, including slips, falls, and encounters with wildlife. During the trek,
Sarah slipped on a slippery snowy track and fractured her ankle. She believed that the tour company was
negligent and sought compensation for her medical expenses and pain and suffering. Based on the principle
mentioned above, what is the likely outcome of Sarah's claim against the tour company?
(a) The waiver will be rejected but claim of negligence will be allowed
(b) The waiver will be upheld and the claim of negligence will not be allowed
(c) The waiver will not be rejected and the claim of negligence will be allowed
(d) The waiver will be allowed and the claim of negligence will be allowed

71. Mark, a sports enthusiast, decided to participate in an extreme sports event organized by a reputable company.
Before the event, Mark signed a waiver releasing the company from any liability for injuries that might occur
during the event. The waiver explicitly mentioned the risks associated with the sport and stated that participants
voluntarily assumed all such risks. During the event, Mark was seriously injured due to the company's failure to
provide adequate safety equipment. He argued that the company was negligent in ensuring participant safety and
that the waiver did not cover such acts of negligence. Based on the principle mentioned above, what is the likely
outcome of Mark's claim against the company?
(a) Mark's claim will succeed because the company failed to disclose the risks associated with the event
(b) Mark's claim will succeed because failure to provide adequate safety equipment constitutes gross negligence
(c) Mark's claim will not succeed because there was no non-disclosure or gross negligence
(d) Mark's claim will not succeed because he signed a waiver

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72. A group of diving enthusiasts, including Emily, booked a scuba diving trip with an established dive company
called "Deep Blue Adventures." Prior to the trip, each participant was required to sign a waiver releasing the
company from any liability in case of accidents or injuries during the dive. The waiver explicitly mentioned the
inherent risks associated with scuba diving, including decompression sickness and encounters with marine life.
During the dive, the group was taken to a shipwreck site. While exploring the wreck, Emily's oxygen tank
malfunctioned, causing her to rapidly ascend to the surface. She suffered from decompression sickness and
required immediate medical attention. After recovering, Emily discovered that the dive company had been aware
of the faulty oxygen tanks but failed to disclose this information to the participants. Based on the principle
mentioned above, what is the likely outcome if Emily files a lawsuit against "Deep Blue Adventures"?
(a) The waiver will be deemed valid, and Emily's lawsuit will be dismissed.
(b) The waiver will be declared invalid, and Emily's lawsuit will proceed.
(c) The waiver will be upheld, and Emily's lawsuit will be dismissed.
(d) The waiver will be rejected, and Emily's lawsuit will not proceed.

73. James, an adventure enthusiast, signed up for a skydiving experience with "Soaring Heights Skydiving." Before
the jump, James signed a waiver releasing the company from any liability in case of accidents or injuries. The
waiver stated that skydiving involves inherent risks, including parachute failures and landing injuries. During
the jump, James experienced a parachute malfunction due to a manufacturing defect that the company was aware
of but failed to disclose. As a result, James had a rough landing, causing multiple fractures in his leg. He believed
that the company's failure to disclose the manufacturing defect rendered the waiver invalid. Decide.
(a) The waiver will be upheld, and James' lawsuit will be dismissed.
(b) The waiver will be rejected, and James will proceed with the lawsuit.
(c) The waiver will be upheld, but James' lawsuit will still proceed.
(d) The waiver will be rejected, but James' lawsuit will be dismissed.

Direction (Q.74– Q.78): Section 41A of CrPC — which has a prominent safeguard against arrests — will get a
new number, Section 35. It has an additional provision: no person can be arrested without prior permission of an
officer, not below the rank of a deputy SP, in cases where the offence is punishable with less than three years,
or if the person is infirm above 60 years of age. On receiving information in cognizable cases where the offence
attracts 3-7 years, the police officer will conduct a preliminary inquiry to ascertain whether there exists a prima
facie case to proceed within 14 days. There is a provision on procedures for the timeframe to file mercy petitions
in death sentence cases. After being informed by jail authorities on the disposal of the petition of a convict
sentenced to death, he, or his legal heir or relative can submit a mercy petition within 30 days to the Governor.
If rejected, the person can petition the President within 60 days of the rejection. No appeal against the order of
the President shall lie in any court. A decision to grant or reject sanction to prosecute a public servant must be
reached by the government within 120 days of receiving a request. If the government fails to do so, the sanction
will be deemed to have been accorded. No sanction is required in cases including sexual offences, trafficking,
etc. Section 144A of the CrPC gives the district magistrate the power to prohibit the carrying of arms in any
procession, mass drill or mass training, to preserve the public peace. The provisions granting powers to the DM
to pass orders in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger remain as they are in Section 144 of the CrPC.
The Bill has provisions for the magistrate to order any person to give samples of his signature, handwriting,
voice or finger impressions for the purpose of investigation without being arrested.
Recently, the new bill has acquired the status of law after the assent from the president.

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74. The proposed changes to the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) introduce several new provisions and
alterations. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the modification and addition to Section 41A
of the CrPC, as explained in the passage?
(a) Section 41A has been replaced by Section 35, introducing prior permission for arrests in cases with less than
three years' punishment or for individuals above 60 years of age.
(b) The police officer, in cases with a possible sentence of 3-7 years, must initiate a preliminary inquiry within
7 days to determine the viability of a prima facie case.
(c) The timeframe to file mercy petitions in death sentence cases has been extended to 90 days for submitting
the petition to the President.
(d) No appeal can be filed against the order of the President in cases related to the granting or rejection of
sanction to prosecute a public servant.

75. T was charged with committing an offense that carries a two-year sentence. When the police learned about this,
they rushed to T's residence to make an arrest. As soon as the FIR was filed, the police arrived to take T into
custody. T's brother protested that the new bill's guidelines weren't being followed. Comment on whether the
police adhered to the new bill's terms after reading the passage.
(a) The police adhered to the new bill's terms, which allow them to detain anyone after an FIR is filed against
them.
(b) Since they did not obtain the necessary clearance from the relevant authorities, the police did not adhere to
the new bill's terms.
(c) Since they did not notify the accused in advance, the police did not adhere to the new bill's stipulations.
(d) Since T was taken into custody following a thorough investigation, the police adhered to the bill's
requirements.

76. There was supposed to be a Z religious procession. Because the area was dominated by the Y religion, which
had a generational rivalry with the Z religion, the people of the Z religion decided to arm themselves in order to
defend themselves. Because a lot of blood had been shed the previous year on the same occasion, the chief
minister barred the Z religion from carrying any weapons. Determine if the chief minister's directive should be
complied with. Answer by referring to the criminal procedure code.
(a) In such circumstances, the chief minister's direction must be followed in accordance with Section 144A of
the CrPC.
(b) Since the followers of the Z religion were required to carry weapons for their own safety, the chief minister's
order is not relevant.
(c) A few police officers need to be stationed nearby the procession if the chief minister wishes to keep the peace
in the community.
(d) Since the chief minister lacks the authority to issue such orders, his order is not applicable.

77. P was a good man who had never been accused of a crime. However, a sexual assault complaint was made
against him and a FIR was lodged. He denied the accusations and insisted that he didn't even know the victim.
His finger samples needed to be collected for the investigation's purposes. P was not detained because the district
magistrate did not see sufficient cause in the FIR, but because the FIR had been filed, he ordered that his samples
be collected for investigation. Find out if a procedure like that needs to be followed.
(a) The procedure was unnecessary because no samples had to be taken if the magistrate did not think the FIR
was accurate.
(b) The procedure was meant to be followed since the magistrate has the authority to order the accused's samples
to be taken without placing him under custody.
(c) Since he needed to be arrested first, the procedure wasn't carried out properly.
(d) The passage does not contain enough information to determine whether or not such a procedure was required
to be followed.

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78. V received a death sentence for the rape and murder of a little girl. He said that he did it in a moment of rage but
that he was feeling guilty for what he had done. He presented the Governor with a petition for mercy, which was
ultimately denied. As a result, he also submitted a mercy petition to the president within a month. However, the
president rejected his petition due to the gravity and sensitivity of the offense. Find out if V has any other
remedies.
(a) Since V committed an offense for which a mercy plea cannot be granted, he is without recourse.
(b) V is now entitled to petition the country's prime minister for mercy if the president rejected his plea
(c) Once the President of the country rejects the mercy petition, V is out of options.
(d) V may file a petition to request that his sentence be reduced from the death penalty to imprisonment and a
fine.

Direction (Q.79– Q.83): The Supreme Court observed that there is no blanket ban on advocates solemnizing
“self-respect” marriages under Section 7(A) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.In doing so, a Bench of Justices S
RavindraBhat and Aravind Kumar set aside a 2014 ruling of the Madras High Court holding that marriages
performed by the advocates are not valid and that “suyamariyathai” or “self-respect” marriages cannot be
solemnized in secrecy. On January 17, 1968, the Hindu Marriage (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act, 1967, received
the President’s approval and became the law. This amendment modified the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955, by
inserting Section 7-A into it. However, it extended only to the state of Tamil Nadu.Section 7-A deals with the
special provision on “self-respect and secular marriages”. It legally recognizes “any marriage between any two
Hindus”, which can be referred to as “suyamariyathai” or “seerthiruththa marriage” or by any other name.Such
marriages are solemnized in the presence of relatives, friends, or other persons, with parties declaring each other
to be husband or wife, in a language understood by them. Further, each party to the marriage garlands the other
or puts a ring on the other’s finger or ties a “thali” or mangal sutra. However, such marriages are also required
to be registered as per the law. The rationale behind the Tamil Nadu government amending the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955, to include “suyamariyathai” or “self-respect” marriages, was to radically simplify weddings by
shunning the need for mandatory Brahmin priests, holy fire and saptapadi (seven steps). In its recent order, the
Supreme Court allowed a petition challenging a Madras High Court order where the court had ordered the
initiation of disciplinary action against the advocates who solemnized such marriages in their offices and issued
marriage certificates to consenting adults.

79. What is the significance of Section 7-A of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, as amended by the Hindu Marriage
(Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act, 1967, with regard to "self-respect" marriages or "suyamariyathai" marriages?
(a) Section 7-A prohibits the solemnization of "self-respect" marriages under any circumstances.
(b) Section 7-A recognizes and legally permits "self-respect" marriages between any two Hindus.
(c) Section 7-A applies only to marriages conducted by Brahmin priests and does not cover other types of
marriages.
(d) Section 7-A mandates that "self-respect" marriages must be conducted with holy fire and saptapadi (seven
steps).

80. V and G based in Chennaiwanted to get married. Despite the fact that they were adults, their parents refused to
approve of their marriage. As a result, they decided to flee and marry. They went to P, an advocate by profession
and G's childhood friend, because they couldn't find a priest. He advised him to marry in accordance with Section
7A of the Hindu Marriage Act. The entire procedure was carried out in the presence of V's friends. Determine
the legality of such a marriage.
(a) Such a marriage is legitimate since it is authorized by the Hindu Marriage Act.
(b) Such a marriage cannot be considered legitimate until all of the requirements of a Hindu marriage have been
completed.
(c) If one person from each side had been there, the marriage would have been lawful.
(d) Because they married against their parents' wishes, such a marriage cannot be considered legitimate.

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81. J was South Indian, and L was a Christian. They began dating after meeting each other in college. They decided
to be married in accordance with Section 7A since they lacked sufficient funds. In their respective languages,
they addressed one another as husband and wife. When their parents learned about them, they asserted that their
marriage was invalid. They invoked Section 7A as a defense in this instance, which said that a marriage was
lawful even if the ceremonies were not performed. Identify who has a convincing argument.
(a) Section 7 A permits these types of marriages, thus L and J have a valid argument.
(b) Due to their failure to obtain their parents' permission, L and J's case is not persuasive.
(c) Due to the fact that L and J are not protected by Section 7 A, their parents have a valid argument.
(d) L and J voluntarily agreed to get married, thus their parents' objection isn't really legitimate.

82. H and P wanted to marry each other in Coimbatore. They did not, however, desire any exorbitant events. As a
result, they simply opted to marry in accordance with amended Section 7 A of the Hindu Marriage Act. When
they later sought their counsel for registration, he advised them that registration is not required when two parties
marry under Section 7 A. Read the passage carefully and decide if the advocate provided the couple sound
advice.
(a) Because marriage registration under Section 7 A is required, the advocate did not provide the couple sound
advice.
(b) Since the marriage took place in front of him, there was no need for registration, according to the lawyer.
(c) The advocate gave the couple incorrect advice since marriages under Section 7 A is no longer recognized in
the first place.
(d) The passage does not provide enough information to establish if the advocate provided sound advice.

83. According to the guidelines of the amended Hindu Marriage Act, Y and Z got married. They did not, however,
go through the Saptapadi procedure. They employed a lawyer who performed a self-respect marriage ceremony
for the couple. The friends of Y and Z witnessed the entire process. After reading the passage do you believe
that a Hindu marriage without a saptapadi should be recognized as legitimate? To select the right answer, refer
to the passage.
(a) Due to the mandatory requirement of saptapadi in a Hindu marriage, their marriage shall not be recognized
as legal.
(b) According to Section 7A, even without saptapadi, their marriage shall be recognized as legitimate.
(c) Due to the failure to adhere to all the requirements of the Hindu Marriage Act, their marriage shall not be
recognized as legal.
(d) As long as they willingly consented to the marriage, it shall be regarded as legitimate.

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 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.84-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.84-Q.88): During 2017-2018, Uttarakhand ranked as the best state under the Pradhan Mantri Gram
Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) for constructing the highest number of village roads. The state successfully built 1839
km of roads, surpassing the target of 1500 km set for that year. This scheme was initiated in India in 2000 to
enhance connectivity in rural areas as a part of poverty reduction. It has effectively reached remote and
inaccessible regions, including the village of Pothing in Kapkot block, Bageshwar, Uttarakhand. However, it has
been over 15 years since the road was constructed in 2007, and it is now deteriorating, causing difficulties for
the locals.

Pothing is located 10 km from the sub-district headquarters Kapkot and it takes over an hour to enter the boundary
of the village traversing the narrow-broken road which was once built under PMGSY. The road is flanked by a
dense jungle on one side and a gorge leading to a stream, locally known as Belang, on the other. During Monsoon,
which is quite extreme in this Himalayan state, waterfalls in the jungle become active, cascading into the stream,
causing slippery routes, intermittent breakages and an increase in the water level of the stream. As it is the only
route to reach the village, the villagers find themselves bereft of alternatives. Pooja Gadiya, a teenager from the
village, faces a challenging daily journey of 17 km from her house to school as there are very few vehicles on
her route to school. During the rainy season, there are no vehicles available, making her commute even more
difficult. “To navigate the unsafe road, we have no choice but to carry our school bags on our heads and hold
our slippers in our hands. The unpaved path becomes extremely slippery when it rains, posing a constant risk of
falling into the gorge. The situation is so severe that the school often declares holidays during the rainy season
to prioritize students’ safety,” Pooja expressed.

84. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) A state is awarded as the best state under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana if it surpasses the target
assigned to it.
(b) Every state is assigned an annual target of building roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
(c) The daily life of the residents of Pothing village is impacted by worsening conditions of the roads.
(d) The monsoon season exacerbates the poor condition of the road, increasing risks for travellers.

85. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument regarding the challenges posed by
the deteriorating roads in Pothing, Uttarakhand?
(a) The government of Uttarakhand has announced a plan to build a new highway connecting Pothing with the
capital, Dehradun.
(b) The meteorological Department has predicted heavier than usual monsoon rains in the region for the
upcoming season.
(c) Life in remote villages depends on the timely transportation of goods and services from other parts of the
country.
(d) Casualty records of Uttarakhand show a positive correlation between drastic rise in accidents in the last five
years and the condition of roads in Pothing.

86. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments about the poor condition and impact
of the road to Pothing village?
(a) Pothing village receives assistance from non-governmental organizations for transportation during the rainy
season.
(b) The Indian government is launching a new scheme that focuses on the maintenance and repair of rural roads.
(c) The village of Pothing has a newly installed cable car system which provides an alternative route for
villagers.
(d) Uttarakhand state has initiated a new infrastructure plan to strengthen rural roads in the next two years.

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87. Given the challenges described in the passage, what would be the most immediate and effective action to alleviate
the villagers’ problems during the rainy season?
I. Constructing a bridge across the Belang stream to avoid the rise in water level during the monsoon.
II. Introducing a system of school buses that could provide transportation to students during the non-rainy
season.
III. Installing safety railings along the road to prevent villagers from falling into the gorge.
IV. Launching a short-term shuttle service using four-wheel-drive vehicles to navigate the slippery and broken
road.
(a) Only II, III, and IV (b) All of the above
(c) Only III and IV (d) I, III, and IV

88. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the situation in Pothing village?
(a) The lack of vehicular availability during the rainy season suggests that the villagers do not own private
vehicles for commutation.
(b) During monsoons, residents of Pothing village do not use their private vehicles to commute to more
connected places.
(c) The poor condition of the road has made the villagers of Pothing petition for relocation.
(d) The villagers of Pothing have adapted well to the road conditions and are not significantly affected during
the monsoon season.

Passage (Q.89-Q.93): On May 16, the United States Congress witnessed some unusual scenes. Sam Altman,
CEO of OpenAI, the organisation behind ChatGPT, in a three-hour long hearing urged the Senate’s privacy,
technology, and law subcommittee to regulate AI technologies, going as far as asking for “licensing” in the field.
This is incongruous for two reasons. One, Silicon Valley and the larger American tech industry have historically
fought vociferously against any form of regulation or government intervention. Innovation and geopolitics have
been invoked ad nauseam to argue against any meaningful government oversight in the past. Second, the US
government itself is unsure of how it wants to potentially regulate AI, if at all. In fact, during the hearing some
Congress members seemed to be more circumspect about regulating AI than Sam Altman. What then explains
this sudden call for regulation?

The answer can be found in an anonymous internal Google memo leaked a few weeks ago. The memo argues
that neither Google nor OpenAI have a “moat” when it comes to AI technologies. A “moat” in business parlance,
and particularly in the tech industry, is a set of products or services that protects a company’s competitive
advantage over its rivals. It is something that ensures the company remains economically competitive, even
dominant. Google’s search engine, for example, is its moat. Amazon’s moat is both its Amazon Web Services
offerings and its e-commerce platform. The lack of a similar moat in AI technologies, the Google memo goes
on to argue, makes the space extremely competitive, with free open-source AI services competing effectively
against more proprietary services offered by the likes of Google and OpenAI.

This lack of an economic moat boils down to the fact that most AI technologies and services are fundamentally
interchangeable. After all, at their core, there is nothing inherently different between OpenAI’s ChatGPT and
Google’s Bard AI. Similarly, there is unlikely to be any use case difference between Microsoft’s integration of
ChatGPT in its search engine, and Google’s integration of Bard in its offerings. Most AI assistants that are
currently available do not offer substantially varied user experiences in their offerings. One writing or travel
planning assistant is much the same as another. Further, with the wide availability of open-source databases and
AI models along with newer training mechanisms, one no longer requires concentrated computing and economic
power to build a market-ready AI product.

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89. Which of the following is primary argument of the author?
(a) Sam Altman’s demand for regulating OpenAI is misleading as he wants to remove competition from the
field.
(b) Sam Altman’s demand for regulating AI technologies, esp. when the Silicon Valley has never asked for
regulations, is surprising.
(c) Since the services offered by Google is not very different from those offered by ChatGPT, AI technologies
need to be regulated.
(d) As it is easy to access open-source databases and AI models to build and offer AI-ready products, Altman
wants AI technologies to be regulated.

90. Which of the following scenarios most closely parallels the argument presented about the AI industry’s lack of
a competitive “moat” due to interchangeability?
(a) An automobile company finds that its strategy to market electric car models is being used by all competitors
manufacturing electric cars.
(b) A clothing brand realizes that its unique designs are being imitated by many competitors within weeks of
release.
(c) A software firm witnessing its unique coding tools being reproduced and distributed freely online by open-
source developers.
(d) A coffee chain noticing a decline in customers because various cafes are using the same premium beans and
brewing techniques.

91. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s argument that Altman’s demand for regulation is to create
an economic moat for his company?
(a) Silicon Valley has traditionally believed that regulation stifles creativity in tech sectors.
(b) Sam Altman has a personal inclination towards advocating for government regulation in new tech sectors.
(c) AI technology's rapid growth and open-source nature have made it uniquely vulnerable to unethical
applications.
(d) OpenAI, under Sam Altman's leadership, has consistently shown support for global tech regulations.

92. Which of the following is/are valid assumption(s) in the author’s argument?
I. Regulation of AI technologies will discourage some players manufacturing market-ready AI products from
offering those products.
II. The services offered by the companies using open-source databases and AI models to produce AI products,
impact the business of Altman.
III. Building products in the field of Artificial Technologies do not require knowledge
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III
(c) All of the above (d) Only I and III

93. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument in the passage?
(a) Sam Altman has personally invested in other AI companies outside of OpenAI.
(b) Many startups have successfully competed with Google and OpenAI using open-source AI technologies.
(c) Amazon Web Services has recently experienced a decline in market share.
(d) The US Senate’s privacy, technology, and law subcommittee has recently issued a proposal for AI regulation.

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 Passage (Q.94-Q.98): The death of 17 persons over the past few days, in two incidents in north Tamil Nadu,
after consuming spurious liquor comes a month after the State government informed the Assembly that there has
been no hooch tragedy for the last 14 years. As on Monday evening, 12 persons of Villupuram district and five
of Chengalpattu district have died, while 50 people have been hospitalised. The development is surprising as
Union Ministry of Home Affairs and National Crime Records Bureau data (2016-21) show that illicit or spurious
liquor deaths have been largely contained. According to the central authorities, Tamil Nadu reported no deaths
during 2016 to 2019; 20 in 2020 and six in 2021. Besides, the State has safeguards to prevent such tragedies.
Since 2002, methanol, regarded as the main reason behind hooch tragedies, has been brought under the ambit of
the Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act, 1937. Amendments have also been made to the Tamil Nadu Denatured Spirit,
Methyl Alcohol and Varnish (French Polish) Rules, 1959, to maintain control over methanol supply. What is
disturbing is that the two recent instances point to the apparent use of methanol.

While the government is expected to probe the causative factors, it is obvious that there are administrative lapses.
The availability of cheaper brew than what is sold at retail outlets of the Tamil Nadu State Marketing Corporation
Limited (Tasmac) is disconcerting. This could have been tackled had the law-enforcing authorities, including
the police, monitored the movement of methanol. It is no surprise that several police officials have been placed
under suspension. Chief Minister M.K. Stalin, who visited the two districts on Monday, also announced a Crime
Branch-CID probe. Apart from announcing a solatium of ₹10 lakh to every family of the deceased and ₹50,000
to each of those undergoing treatment, the Chief Minister has not provided any scope for debate whether the
families concerned should get financial assistance. Perhaps, he has gone by the example set by Bihar Chief
Minister Nitish Kumar, who announced last month, subsequent to the many deaths in East Champaran district,
the payment of ₹4 lakh each to family members of those who had died in hooch incidents since 2016. Till then,
Mr. Kumar had held the position against providing any compensation. Such a stand was in vogue once in Tamil
Nadu, as administrators were of the view that financial assistance could encourage those on the wrong path. It is
time States evolved a uniform and comprehensive policy to counter the problem of spurious or illicit liquor, apart
from sending a strong message to the law-enforcement agencies that there would be zero tolerance to illicit
liquor.

94. Based on the author's argument about the lapses in preventing spurious liquor tragedies in Tamil Nadu, which
of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument?
(a) In recent years, there have been numerous public protests against the illicit liquor industry in Tamil Nadu,
indicating growing public concern.
(b) Instances of spurious liquor consumption and resultant deaths have been significantly rising in neighboring
states as well.
(c) There is documented evidence that methanol, despite regulations, is being illegally trafficked into Tamil
Nadu for illicit liquor production.
(d) Consumption of alcohol has been showing a declining trend worldwide, as per recent health reports.

95. Based on the author's argument about the administrative lapses in preventing spurious liquor tragedies in Tamil
Nadu, which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument?
(a) Youth enters the cheaper brew market due to unemployment, making it impossible for the administration to
tackle the situation.
(b) Consumer demand for illicit liquor is skyrocketing due to the high price of legally sold alcohol.
(c) The production of spurious liquor has become technologically sophisticated, making detection more
challenging.
(d) The black market for methanol has expanded globally due to its use in various industries.

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96. According to the passage, which of the following claims regarding the recent hooch tragedies in Tamil Nadu is
most accurate?
(a) Tamil Nadu has a long history of hooch tragedies, with one occurring nearly every year.
(b) In the aftermath of the incidents, several police officials were suspended and the Chief Minister announced
a Crime Branch-CID probe.
(c) The Tamil Nadu State Marketing Corporation Limited (Tasmac) has been found directly responsible for the
hooch tragedies.
(d) The National Crime Records Bureau data shows a continuous rise in illicit liquor deaths in Tamil Nadu over
the years.

97. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The recent hooch tragedies in Tamil Nadu are solely the result of administrative lapses.
(b) Financial compensation should be provided to the families affected by the hooch tragedies.
(c) The Tamil Nadu government should focus on stricter enforcement of existing laws and regulations.
(d) Illicit liquor deaths have been largely contained in Tamil Nadu over the past few years.

98. If it were found that methanol supply had not increased but was merely redirected from other industries, it would
most call into question which of the following aspects of the passage?
I. The role of Union Ministry of Home Affairs in monitoring the movement of methanol.
II. The effectiveness of the Tamil Nadu Denatured Spirit, Methyl Alcohol and Varnish Rules in controlling
methanol supply.
III. The significance of methanol being the main reason behind hooch tragedies.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II (c) Only II and III (d) All of the above.

Passage (Q.99-Q.103): The timeline for blending of ethanol in automotive fuel up to 20% has been moved to
2025, from 2030. The way forward is to step up usage of biomass, agricultural residue and municipal solid waste
as feedstock for ethanol, so as to gainfully reduce crude oil imports, cut down on tailpipe emissions and to also
boost our energy security in the bargain.
However, there is an ongoing change in the techno-economic paradigm in transport and mobility away from the
internal combustion engine, and towards electric vehicles, which can only accelerate. So, while 20% blending
of ethanol with petrol can make economic and ecological sense in the here and now, it cannot really be a long-
term solution to shore up energy supply.

Yet, it is notable that ethanol blending has picked up speed lately. Back in 2019, the blending rate was about
5.8%, up from less than 1% in 2014, against a target of 5%. The aim now is to go for 20% blending by 2025, by
using damaged broken grain, rice straw and biomass generally as ethanol feedstock, although the bulk of ethanol
production today is very much a by-product of the sugar industry.

And, sugarcane is hugely water-intensive; stepping up cane output is clearly avoidable in water-stressed India.
Hence the need to innovate and use new enzymes to produce syngas from biomass that can then be used to make
ethanol, or produce hydrogen, the promising new sustainable, green, non-polluting energy source of the future.
Bioethanol can be a huge economic opportunity.

For 20% ethanol blending by 2025, 1,000 crore litres would be needed, which, at current prices, would be worth
Rs 60,000-65,000 crore. It also has the potential to put paid to crop residue burning, a source of air pollution.
Also, the unused stocks rotting at FCI godowns can be utilized for producing ethanol.

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99. Which of the following is true as per the passage above?
(a) Ethanol blending is an ecological way of adulterating fuels and must be given a long-term perspective.
(b) With changing anatomy of automobiles, blending ethanol with automotive fuel may not cater to India’s long-
term energy needs.
(c) Bio-ethanol, although ecologically and economically friendly, is a hypothetical concept.
(d) India being a water-deficient country cannot produce enough sugarcane to support bio-fuels through its
residue.

100. Which of the following can be concluded about the above passage?
(a) The passage illustrates the percentage of ethanol blending through the advancing years.
(b) The passage is an elucidation of the growing rate of ethanol blending and its viability in the near future while
discussing viable sources of ethanol.
(c) The passage explains the prospects of several ethanol-producing bio-fuels in the near future.
(d) The passage is a demonstration of the efficiency of automotive fuel upon blending with ethanol.

101. The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

(a) The aim should be to reduce crude oil imports by adding to fuel the ethanol sourced from ecologically and
economically sustainable avenues.
(b) 20% of ethanol blending is the ideal percentage of blending in order to achieve maximum fuel efficiency.
(c) Blending ethanol in automotive fuel depreciates its value and efficiency.
(d) The country is bent upon using biogas and biomass as a source of energy so as to reduce the importation of
crude oil from foreign markets.

102. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) Sugarcane by-products are good sources of ethanol production.
(b) The production of sugarcane in India can be enhanced by investing in water conservation techniques.
(c) Sugarcane production in India should be stepped up so that the residue can be utilized as biomass.
(d) Water conditions in India do not permit stepping up ethanol production through Sugarcane.

103. Which of the following serves as a plausible explanation for "techno-economic paradigm"?
(a) Technology has changed the vehicular structure of transport and has benefitted customers financially.
(b) The technology and economic dimensions in the country cannot afford ethanol to be used as automotive fuel.
(c) The face of vehicular structure and mechanical designs is changing with respect to technology and economy.
(d) Due to the economy, changing with technology, ethanol is seen as the most efficient fuel alternative.

Passage (Q.104-Q.108): When Prime Minister Narendra Modi took the stage to address the UNSC on a debate
on maritime security — the first Indian premier to do so — he might have hoped to keep the focus of the
discussion on building maritime ties and developing maritime infrastructure through regional cooperation
initiatives. Yet, once more the discussion veered toward major nations trading barbs on continuing strategic
dissonance in this sphere. At the heart of the strident claims and counterclaims regarding allegations of abuse of
maritime resources and disrespect of territorial sovereignty rights of nations were the U.S., on the one hand, and
China and Russia on the other. Mr. Modi deserves credit for bringing to the table a five-prong plan to enhance
maritime security worldwide through cooperation, including removing barriers to legitimate maritime trade,
settling maritime disputes peacefully and based on international law, jointly facing natural disasters and maritime
threats created by non-state actors, preserving maritime environment and resources, and encouraging responsible
maritime connectivity. Indeed, the acceptance at the UNSC of the legislative framework for UNCLOS, the “legal
framework applicable to activities in the oceans, including countering illicit activities at sea”, is seen as an
important achievement during India’s month at the helm of the Council. The sustained interest of India in
promoting maritime security also draws from Mr. Modi’s SAGAR vision plan aimed at strengthening economic
and security connections with regional maritime nations.

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 If there are strategic barriers to creating momentum in achieving these goals, they are associated with specific
regions of maritime tension including the South China Sea and the Black Sea. Regarding the former, U.S.
Secretary of State Antony Blinken decried the “dangerous encounters between vessels at sea and provocative
actions to advance unlawful maritime claims”, rejecting “actions that intimidate and bully other states from
lawfully accessing their maritime resources”. Similarly, regarding the Black Sea, the Kerch Strait, the Sea of
Azov, Mr. Blinken at the UNSC debate hit out at what Washington considered “continued aggressive actions
against Ukraine... which are disrupting commerce and energy access”. Although India’s presidency of the
Council is brief, its sustained commitment to promoting maritime security and boosting trade through sea routes
will require it to be adroit in negotiating with these squabbling powers and creative in seeking resolution of the
very real conflicts at the heart of their disputes. While some may deride UNCLOS as lacking teeth for
enforcement, ultimately it is the only comprehensive framework of laws available to maritime powers to assert
their rights consistent with the rules-based international order. Through its UNSC presidency and beyond, New
Delhi must faithfully advocate for ratification of UNCLOS by all major maritime powers, including the U.S.

104. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The conflict related to maritime issues among the major trading powers is not likely to end soon.
(b) The UNCLOS does not have enough authority to strictly enforce maritime laws and prevent countries from
violating them.
(c) UNCLOS is a legal framework developed by India and applicable to activities in the oceans, including
countering illicit activities at sea.
(d) UNCLOS is a set of laws that govern maritime activities in international waters.

105. Which of the following is the primary argument of the passage?

(a) Mr. Modi is the first Indian premier to bring five prong plan to enhance maritime security worldwide through
cooperation.
(b) UNSC recognizes importance of enhancing international cooperation to counter maritime security threats.
(c) In light of the jurisdictional difficulties caused by the different maritime zones and transnational character
of maritime threats, there is a pressing need for an extensive form of cooperation in this field.
(d) India must press for the ratification of UNCLOS by all major maritime powers.

106. On the basis of information provided in the passage, which of the following courses of action should India adopt
to promote maritime security and boost trade through sea routes?
(a) Exploiting the weakness of a country to force the country give into the demands put across by India.
(b) Using dialogue to devise a strategy addressing concerns of other country while aiming to achieve maritime
cooperation.
(c) Using stratagem to get a country sign the maritime co-operation deal.
(d) Using nuclear might and threat to get a country sign the maritime co-operation deal.

107. Which of the following is an appropriate title to the passage?

(a) Evolving maritime geopolitics in Indo-Pacific region
(b) Maritime Security in South-East Asia: Cheers for Regional Co-operation.
(c) India’s strategic outreach to seize global maritime accord.
(d) India’s stake in maritime domain.

108. Each of the following can be answered on the basis of information provided in the passage, except that
(a) Problems related to which regions should be addressed first in order to accelerate the cooperation on
international maritime challenges?
(b) How can SAGAR vision plan help achieve the cooperation on global maritime challenges?
(c) What is the source for India’s continuous interest in promoting maritime security?
(d) As far as territorial sovereignty is concerned, how are relations among major trading nations?

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 SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.109-Q.113): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Total number of students in the college is 900 and they like six different computer courses-Web Designing,
Mobile Application, Graphic Designing, Cyber security, Animation and Tally. The number of students like Tally
is 100% more than the number of students like Web Designing. Ratio of the number of students like Cyber
Security to Animation is 3:1. The sum of the number of students like Mobile application and Tally together is
double the number of students like Graphic Designing. The number of students like Cyber security is 20% more
than the number of students like Tally and the number of students like Graphic Designing is 80 less than the
number of students like Cyber Security.

109. The ratio of number of girls to boys like Web designing is 2:3 and the number of CSE department girls like Web
designing is 20 and the remaining girls like web designing are ECE department. If the number of ECE boys like
Web designing is 90% of the total number of girls like Web designing and the remaining boys like web designing
are CSE department, then what is the ratio of the number of ECE to CSE students like Web designing?
(a) 13:11 (b) 14:11 (c) 12:7 (d) 11:6

110. If the number of boys like Graphic Designing, Cyber security and Tally is 60%, 50% and 30% respectively, then
what is the average number of girls like Graphic Designing, Cyber security and Tally together?
(a) 111 (b) 115 (c) 103 (d) 108

111. The number of students like Animation is approximately what percent of the number of students like Graphic
Designing and Web designing together?
(a) 27.77% (b) 24.18% (c) 30.76% (d) 29.28%

112. The ratio of the number of boys to girls like Mobile Application and Cyber Security is 2:3 and 3:1 respectively.
The number of girls like Mobile Application and Cyber security together is approximately what percent of the
number of boys like Mobile Application and Cyber security together?
(a) 55.55% (b) 57.89% (c) 53.32% (d) 51.78%

113. What is the ratio of the number of students like Graphic Designing, Cyber security and Animation together to
the number of students like Web designing, Mobile application and Tally together?
(a) 9:8 (b) 8:7 (c) 7:6 (d) 6:5

Directions (Q.114-Q.116): There are two Indoor games such as Chess and Carrom played by some boys and
girls. The total number of boys playing indoor games is 50 and the total number of girls playing indoor games is
half the number of boys. At the event, 20% of the total boys and 40% of total girls have played in Chess. The
remaining number of girls and boys played Carrom. One person can play only one game and everyone is playing.

114. Find the sum of number of boys who have played Carrom at the Event and number of girls who have played
Chess at the Event.
(a) 50 (b) 30 (c) 10 (d) 15

115. Find the ratio of boys and girls who have played Chess in the event.
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 8:3

116. Find the percentage of girls playing chess is what percentage more/less boys playing Carrom.
(a) 75% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%

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 Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.
Shritej went to the market to buy two articles, namely article 1 and 2, for his school project. He bought a total
of 25 articles, which include only article 1 and article 2. The number of article 1 bought is equal to the cost of
article 2 and the number of article 2 bought is equal to the cost of article 1. The total payment made by him is
Rs. 288. The number of article 1 and the number of article 2 bought are not equal.

117. Find the number of article 1 bought by Shritej.

(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) Cannot be determined

118. Find the number of article 2 bought by Shritej if the number of article 1 bought is always less than that of article
2?
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 16 or 9 (d) Cannot be determined

119. The price of a unit and the number of article 1 are the same. Also, the price of a unit and the number of article 2
are the same. Find the number of article 1 bought.
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 16 or 9 (d) Cannot be determined

120. The price of a unit and the number of article 1 are the same. Also, the price of a unit and the number of article 2
are the same. Find the number of article 2 bought.
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 16 or 9 (d) Cannot be determined

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 Notes:-

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