1

1-In applying pit-and-fissure sealants, which of the following steps are

necessary to ensure sealant retention?
1. Clean the tooth surface.
2. Air abrade the pits and fissures.
3. Dry the tooth surface.
4. Perform enameloplasty with a diamond
bur.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

2-Generalized aggressive periodontitis is characterized by attachment loss

affecting the first molars and incisors and at least
A. 1 other permanent tooth.
B. 3 other permanent teeth.
C. 5 other permanent teeth.
D. 7 other permanent teeth.

3-A large pericoronal radiolucency associated with an impacted third molar

tooth is most likely a/an
A. ameloblastoma.
B. odontogenic keratocyst.
C. eruption cyst.
D. dentigerous cyst.
E. calcifying odontogenic cyst.

4-In patients with an Angle Class I malocclusion,

arch length in the mandible changes between 5
and 18 years of age. It usually
A. increases 0-1mm.
B. increases 3-4mm.
C. decreases 0-1mm.
D. decreases 3-4mm.
 2

5-Locally delivered antimicrobials used to treat

infected periodontal pockets include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. Metronidazole (Elyzol®).
B. Chlorhexidine (Periochip®).
C. Clindamycin (Clinix®).
D. Doxycycline fibres (Actisite®).
E. Doxycycline polymerics (Atridox®).

6-A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a

restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. The
tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The
radiograph will show
A. an apical radiolucency.
B. acute osteitis.
C. root resorption.
D. condensing osteitis.
E. normal lamina dura.

7-A furcation involvement in which bone loss allows the probe to extend
completely through the furcation is classified as
A. incipient.
B. Class I.
C. Class II.
D. Class III.
E. chronic.

8-Blue sclera is characteristic of

A. osteopetrosis.
B. osteogenesis imperfecta.
C. osteitis deformans.
D. fibrous dysplasia.

9-Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a tooth

displaying crazing of the enamel?
A. Splinting of teeth.
 3

B. Stainless steel band.

C. Endodontic treatment.
D. Periodic observation

10-Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate for a patient

with a compound fracture of the mandible?
A. Chloromycetin.
B. Tetracycline.
C. Penicillin.
D. Erythromycin.

11- Locally delivered antimicrobials used to treat infected periodontal

pockets include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Metronidazole (Elyzol®).

B. Chlorhexidine (Periochip®).

C. Clindamycin (Clinix®).

D. Doxycycline fibres (Actisite®).

E. Doxycycline polymerics (Atridox®).

12- To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements

contain
A. salicylic acid.
B. phosphoric acid.
C. maleic acid.
D. tartaric acid.
E. itaconic acid. (affects compressive and bending strength)

13- Which of the following radiographic techniques is NOT useful for

assessing temporomandibular joint space?
A. Panoramic.
B. Arthrography.
 4

C. Corrected transcranial.
D. Corrected tomography.

14- A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of injury could be a potential

analgesic because ATP
A. inhibits nociceptors.
B. activates nociceptors.
C. causes vasoconstriction.
D. prevents vasoconstriction

15- A small hinge articulator was used for the fabrication of a cast gold
onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the
greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient?
A. Laterotrusive.
B. Mediotrusive.
C. Protrusive.
D. Retrusive.

16- The protective role of junctional epithelium is aided by its increased

number of
A. cell layers.
B. intercellular spaces.
C. cell-cell adhesions.
D. collagen fibres.

17- One of the mechanisms of bacterial adherence to the dental pellicle is

through
A. positively charged bacteria with the pellicle.
B. interaction of cations such as calcium.
C. hydrophilic interactions.
D. interaction of salivary anions.

18- What is the most likely age (in years) of a patient with the following
dentition?
FDI NUMBERING SYSTEM
A. 8.
B. 9.
C. 10.
D. 11.
 5

E. 12.

19- A 50 year old obese patient with type 2 diabetes takes oral
hypoglycemics. He is frequently skipping meals in order to reduce his
weight. During his 8:30 a.m. appointment, his speech becomes slurred and
he is less alert than usual. Which of the following is the most appropriate
management of this patient?

A. 175ml of diet cola.

B. 15g of glucose as tablets or in solution.
C. 175ml unsweetened orange juice.
D. Dismissal of the patient to have his breakfast.

20- Which of the following is most likely to be a squamous cell carcinoma?

A. Sore shallow ulcer, present for a few days.

B. Burning red plaque, present for several weeks.
C. Asymptomatic gray macule, present for several months.
D. Occasionally tender normal coloured nodule, present for several years.

21- In applying pit-and-fissure sealants, which of the following steps are

necessary to ensure sealant retention?
1. Clean the tooth surface.
2. Air abrade the pits and fissures.
3. Dry the tooth surface.
4. Perform enameloplasty with a diamond
bur.
A. (1) (2) (3)
 6

B. (1) and (3)

C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

22- Which of the following can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A. Chronic obstructive pulomonary disease.
B. Chronic renal failure.
C. Ulcerative colitis.
D. Acute thyroiditis.
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency.

23- A 50 year old patient presents for extraction of an asymptomatic tooth.

The preoperative blood pressure is 198/111 mmHg. The most appropriate
treatment is to

A. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic without epinephrine.

B. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic with epinephrine.
C. refer to a physician for preoperative evaluation.
D. extract the tooth and refer to a physician.

24- Two important wound healing principles for guided tissue regeneration
are

A. space creation and wound stabilization.

B. space creation and intramarrow penetration.
C. root surface biomodification and wound stabilization.
D. root surface biomodification and intramarrow penetration.
25- A 10 year old patient has mandibular canines erupting into a space
deficient by 2mm. The first premolars are also erupting. The primary second
molars are large and firmly in place. The most appropriate treatment for this
patient is
A. disking the mesial surfaces of the primary mandibular second molars.
B. extracting the primary mandibular second molars.
C. placing a removable bite opener.
D. extracting the first mandibular premolars.
 7

26- Compared to nonsmokers, cigarette smokers are more likely to have

A. less bone loss.
B. less gingival recession.
C. more bleeding on probing.
D. more attachment loss.

27- A 5 year old child is diagnosed with leukocyte adherence deficiency and
is also affected with generalized severe bone loss adjacent to his
primary teeth. What is the diagnosis?

A. Generalized aggressive periodontitis.

B. Generalized chronic periodontitis.
C. Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors.
D. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease.

Till p 50.

28- Decreased alveolar bone density is associated with decreased levels of

A. thyroxin.
B. hydrocortisone.
C. parathyroid hormone.
D. estrogen.

29-Which of the following maxillary incisor angulations complicates a

functional appliance construction bite?
A. Retroclined central incisors.
B. Proclined lateral incisors.
C. Retroclined lateral incisors.
D. Proclined central incisors.
30- The incidence of a second mesiobuccal canal in the maxillary first molar
is
A. 40%
B. 60%.
C. 80%.
D. 100%.

31- Which radiograph best depicts the buccal cortex of the mandible?
 8

A. Bite-wing.
B. Periapical.
C. Panoramic.
D. Occlusal.

32- In dental radiography, the most effective method of reducing patient

somatic exposure is to use
A. a lead apron.
B. high speed film.
C. added filtration.
D. collimation.

33- In a child, correction of a bilateral posterior constriction of the maxillary

arch has the WORST long term prognosis for stability if
A. the maxillary posterior teeth are centred on the alveolar process.
B. a fixed expansion quadhelix is used for treatment.
C. there is a functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation.
D. there is a history of prolonged thumb sucking.

34- A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of injury could be a potential

analgesic because ATP
A. inhibits nociceptors.
B. activates nociceptors.
C. causes vasoconstriction.
D. prevents vasoconstriction.

35- Which mucogingival surgical procedure does NOT increase the zone of
attached gingiva?
A. Free autogenous gingival graft.
B. Laterally positioned flap.
C. Coronally positioned flap.
D. Subepithelial connective tissue graft forroot coverage.

36- The physical properties of alginate impression materials will be

adversely affected by
 9

A. "tumbling" the alginate container prior to filling the dispensing scoop.

B. adding powder to the water in the mixing bowl.
C. using room temperature water.
D. mixing beyond the recommended time.

Till p.80

37- A maxillary posterior buccal crossbite in the deciduous dentition will

most likely
A. be present when the permanent teeth erupt.
B. correct itself when the permanent teeth erupt.
C. be self-correcting with the discontinuance of an associated habit.
D. be associated with inadequate arch length.

38- Twenty-four hours following the simple extraction of tooth 4.7, a patient
presents with severe bleeding from the extraction site. The
most likely cause of this bleeding is a/an
A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug.
B. infection of the socket.
C. undiagnosed coagulopathy.
D. dry socket.

39- In the context of informed consent, choice means the ability

A. to accept recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily.
B. to refuse recommended beneficial treatment voluntarily.
C. to refuse recommmended beneficial treatment with an understanding of
forseeable consequences.

40- Migration of the permanent maxillary first molar following the

premature loss of the primary second molar is usually mesial with
A. the mesiobuccal cusp rotating lingually.
B. the mesiobuccal cusp rotating buccally.
C. buccal tilt of the crown.

Till p.100

41- According to functional matrix theory of growth, primary sites

A. cause expansion and growth.
 10

B. respond by compensation to translational forces.

C. are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development.
D. in addition to the bony skull are the major influences of growth.
42- To control the progression of dental caries, the most appropriate action is
to
A. alter the diet to reduce the intake of refined carbohydrates.
B. increase the amount of fluoride available for re-mineralization.
C. restore teeth back to original precarious form.
D. control the presence of cariogenic bacteria.

Till p. 103

43- Which of the following is true about “putative periodontal pathogenic

bacteria”?
A. This refers to 2 specific organisms.
B. A critical mass is needed to trigger development of periodontitis.
C. All individuals will respond the same way to the same concentration of
these organisms.
D. Their presence indicates a patient has periodontitis.

44- The best choice of cement for luting a ceramic veneer is

A. zinc phosphate.
B. glass ionomer.
C. light-cured resin.
D. self-cured resin.

45- A carious lesion can NOT be re-mineralized when

A. when the caries visually appears as a ‟white spot”.
B. dentin is demineralized.
C. the surface is cavitated.
D. the pH of the saliva is too high.
E. the caries has progressed to the dentinoenamel junction.

46- The elastic limit of a material is the greatest load to which a material can
be subjected to in order that it will
A. fracture.
 11

B. remain distorted.
C. return to its original dimension.
D. return to a point beyond its original
dimension.

Till p. 110

47- The best method of treatment of a nondisplaced fracture of the body of

the mandible in an edentulous patient is
A. K-wire insertion without immobilization.
B. open reduction and lower border wiring without immobilization.
C. open reduction and lower border wiring plus immobilization.
D. use of splint or lower denture with circumferential wiring.

48- Which of the following is NOT a feature of aggressive periodontitis?

A. Localized and generalized forms.
B. Familial aggregation.
C. Necrotic tissue.
D. Presence of Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.

49- A 3 year old has been diagnosed with an inverted mesiodens. What is the
most appropriate time to extract the mesiodens?
A. Immediately.
B. Just prior to the eruption of the first permanent molars.
C. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary central incisors.
D. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary canines.

50- A 12 year old patient with a complete dentition has enamel hypoplasia of
tooth 1.4. This condition was most likely caused by
A. low calcium intake.
B. high fluoride intake.
C. an abscessed tooth 5.4.
D. systemic tetracycline.
E. a febrile illness.

51- Potential side-effects of all systemic antibiotics used for the treatment of
 12

periodontitis include
1. superinfection with commensal organisms.
2. allergic reactions.
3. development of resistant organisms.
4. pseudomembranous colitis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Till p. 120

52- Which of the following radiographic techniques is NOT useful for

assessing temporomandibular joint space?
A. Panoramic.
B. Arthrography.
C. Corrected transcranial.
D. Corrected tomography.

53- The physiologic rest position of the mandible is

1. a position determined by the musculature.
2. a fairly constant position throughout life.
3. used in determining occlusal vertical dimension.
4. used when making a centric interocclusal record.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

54- Which of the following is the most appropriate agent for management of
xerostomia associated with Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Ipratropium.
B. Neostigmine.
C. Pilocarpine.
D. Propantheline.

55- Which disease is associated with a higher proportion of Fusobacterium,

Porphyromonas, Prevotella, and spirochetes?
 13

A. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.

B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Aggressive periodontitis.
D. Root caries.
E. Early childhood caries.

56- Microbial virulence factors

A. are produced by non-pathogenic microbes.
B. are always pathogenic.
C. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxins and enzymes.
D. are caused only by Gram-positive microbes.

57- Which of the following is NOT related to an interincisal diastema?

A. The presence of a mesiodens.
B. A tongue thrust when swallowing.
C. A hypertrophic labial frenum.
D. A thumb sucking habit.
E. A Class II canine relationship.

58- Which diagnostic method is most appropriate to differentiate a “white

spot” lesion associated with carious demineralization from enamel
hypoplasia on the facial enamel?
A. Rewetting the dried surface.
B. Tactile examination with a sharp explorer.
C. Transillumination.
D. Bite-wing radiograph.

59- The microorganisms that initially colonize the tooth surface are
associated with the genus
A. Porphyromonas.
B. Actinobacillus.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Prevotella.

60- Two radiographs have been taken of a supernumerary tooth in the

maxillary premolar region. The second radiograph is taken from a
more anterior angle. If the image of the supernumerary tooth appears
to have shifted distally on the second radiograph, this indicates that the
 14

supernumerary tooth lies

A. buccal to the premolars.
B. lingual to the premolars.
C. on the same place as the premolars.
D. mesial to the premolars.
E. distal to the premolars.

Till p. 130

61- During the act of swallowing, the auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube is

A. opened by the tensor tympani muscle.
B. closed by the tensor tympani muscle.
C. opened by the tensor veli palatine muscle.
D. closed by the levator veli palatine muscle.
E. closed by the superior constrictor muscle.

62- The areas that may be adjusted during a laboratory occlusal correction of
complete dentures with teeth set in a normal horizontal overlap relationship
without changing the vertical dimension of occlusion are the
A. maxillary lingual cusps.
B. mandibular buccal cusps.
C. central grooves of mandibular posterior teeth.
D. maxillary buccal cusps.

63- Orthodontic treatment using growth modification should be

A. started as early as possible.
B. individualized to maximize effect.
C. delayed until the eruption of the permanent dentition.
D. used in adult patients.

64- A patient with a malocclusion with a deep overbite has

A. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth.
B. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth.
C. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth.
D. increased eruption of the poterior teeth.
 15

65- During the fabrication of a removable complete denture, block out and
relief is placed on the
A. diagnostic cast.
B. master cast.
C. refractory cast.
D. remount cast.

66- Which of the following most likely causes pulpal irritation with posterior
composite resin restorations?
A. Seepage of residual monomer to the pulp.
B. Inadequate calcium hydroxide dentin coverage.
C. Leakage of bisphenol-A from bis-GMAbased resin composites.
D. Separation of composite resin from acidetched dentin.

67- Centric relation is a

A. relation of the maxilla to the rest of the skull.
B. vertical relationship of the mandible to the maxilla.
C. horizontal relationship of the mandible to the maxilla.
D. rest position of the mandible.

68- The diagnosis of a 1.5cm white patch after incisional biopsy is severe
epithelial dysplasia. The most appropriate management is
A. complete excision.
B. repeat biopsy.
C. radiation therapy.
D. observation.

69- Silicone impression materials that set by condensation polymerization

A. liberate ethyl alcohol as a byproduct of the polymerization reaction.
B. polymerize more slowly.
C. undergo high shrinkage during the first 24 hours.
D. contain an accelerator consisting of a stannous sulfate.

Till p. 150 ----

70- In a developing crown, ameloblasts and odontoblasts

A. are polarized in opposite directions.
B. initially produce an organic nonmineralized matrix.
 16

C. begin to produce matrix simultaneously.

D. have rapid cell division.

71- A zirconia-based ceramic fixed partial denture is indicated for which of

the following clinical conditions?
A. Periodontally involved abutment teeth.
B. Long clinical crowns.
C. Deep vertical anterior overlap.
D. Cantilever pontic.
E. Evidence of bruxism.

72- Which periodontal pathogen can use the hormone estrogen as a growth
factor?
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.
C. Prevotella intermedia.
D. Bacteroides forsythus.

Till p. 170

73- What is the most appropriate initial management of a localized

periodontal abscess?
A. Prescription of an antibiotic.
B. Surgical pocket reduction.
C. Occlusal adjustment.
D. Debridement of the pocket. (ref.)

From p. 180

74- Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely the result of

A. low surface tension of a silicone impression material.
B. high surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid.
C. using a hydrophilized addition silicone.
D. spraying a surfactant on the impression.

75- In order to prevent gingival recession, a full gold crown should have
A. a slightly narrow food table.
B. a slightly overcontoured tooth form.
 17

C. normal contour reproduced.

D. the margins extended 1mm into the gingival crevice.

76- A chronic alcohol abuser has just been diagnosed with Wernicke-
Korsakoff’s syndrome. He complains of pain and burning mouth and
presents with angular cheilitis and glossitis. He is suffering from a severe
deficiency of
A. vitamin A.
B. ascorbic acid.
C. vitamin K.
D. thiamin.

77- A dentist must be prudent in deciding how far to follow a patient’s

informed choice for suboptimal treatment because
A. the law protects a patient’s right to make poor decisions.
B. a patient’s informed choice must always be honoured.
C. the principle of do-no-harm overrides the patient’s personal choice.

78- Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in

defects in the
A. zygomatic bones and external ears.
B. mandible and external nose.
C. maxilla and muscles of facial expression.
D. palate and hyoid bone.

79- Immediately following an inferior alveolar nerve block, the patient

exhibits facial paralysis. The needle has penetrated through
which ligament?
A. Sphenomandibular.
B. Stylomandibular.
C. Stylohyoid.
D. Pterygomandibular.

80- An anterior endodontically treated tooth has been restored with a carbon
fibre, a direct restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal
crown. What is the most important factor influencing the prognosis of this
tooth?
 18

A. Type of core material.

B. Type of luting cement.
C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.
D. Alloy composition of the post.

81- A type 2 diabetic patient is having a surgical extraction. Ten minutes

after the injection of local anesthetic, the patient starts sweating,
becomes pale and agitated and has an increased heart rate. What is the most
appropriate treatment?
A. Recline the chair and administer oxygen.
B. Administer epinephrine 1/1000 sublingually.
C. Administer or have the patient administer insulin.
D. Administer a source of rapidly absorbable glucose.

82- A patient assessed as “low-risk” for new caries would have

1. no new physical limitations.
2. no restorations replaced due to recurrent caries in the past 5 years.
3. no change in dietary habits.
4. possible presence of arrested caries
lesions.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

83- A 19 year old patient presents with pain, trismus, right submandibular
lymphadenopathy and a temperature of 39 C (102°F). There is no
history of trauma. The most likely diagnosis is
A. submandibular space infection.
B. epidemic parotitis.
C. stenosis of the parotid duct.
D. pericoronitis of tooth 4.8.
E. peritonsillar abscess.

From p.200 till p.220

 19

84- A patient successfully treated 8 years ago for moderate chronic

periodontitis now presents with generalized erythematous and edematous
gingiva with bleeding on probing. There is no clinical or radiographic
evidence of further attachment loss. The most likely diagnosis is

A. gingivitis.
B. chronic periodontitis.
C. aggressive periodontitis.
D. recurrent periodontitis.

85- Which of the following factors decrease the cariogenic potential of food?

A. Decreased buffering capacity.

B. Increase of fermentable carbohydrates.
C. Low protein content.
D. A pH lower than 6.

86- The tooth surfaces LEAST susceptible to

caries are
A. mesial of the maxillary arch.
B. lingual of the mandibular arch.
C. distal of the maxillary arch.
D. occlusal of the mandibular arch.
E. lingual of the maxillary arch.

87- An advantage of glass ionomer cement is

A. low solubility.
B. wear resistance.
C. adhesion to hard tooth tissues.
D. low incidence of sensitivity.

88- The cariogenicity of carbohydrates is affected by

1. frequency of ingestion.
2. retentiveness of the food.
3. type of carbohydrate.
4. presence of protective factors like calcium, phosphate and fluoride.
 20

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

89- Which of the following is true of smoking and

the risk of periodontal disease? Smokers

1. have an increased risk of development of periodontitis.

2. do not respond to treatment as well.
3. develop more severe periodontitis.
4. have more bacterial plaque.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

90- When using a semi-adjustable articulator, the most significant effect on

the occlusal anatomy of a restoration arises from alteration of the

A. immediate side shift.

B. intercondylar width.
C. level of the Frankfort plane.
D. position of the incisal pin.
E. posterior wall of the fossae

91- Occipital and/or cervical extra-oral anchorage is used to

1. restrict anterior tooth movement.
2. enhance maxillary forward growth.
3. enhance mandibular forward growth.
 21

4. encourage anterior tooth movement.

5. restrict maxillary forward growth.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (2) and (4)
C. (3) and (5)
D. (1) and (5)
E. (2) and (3)

92- What are the characteristics of "group function" occlusion?

A. The teeth on the non-working side make contact in lateral excursion.

B. The teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursion.
C. Only the canine and lateral incisors makecontact in lateral excursion.
D. The posterior teeth on both sides make contact in lateral excursion.

93- Orthodontic tooth movement in an adolescent is easier than an adult

because of
A. differences in tissue/bone reaction.
B. differences in growth.
C. differences in cooperation.
D. all of the above.

94- Which of the following indicates a failure of a dental implant?

A. Gingival inflammation.
B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of the implant length.
C. Mobility.
D. Increased probing depths

95- The most likely diagnosis of a proliferative lesion found at a denture

periphery is a/an
A. epulis granulomatosum.
B. epulis fissuratum.
C. giant cell granuloma.
D. squamous cell carcinoma
 22

96- Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of

Tylenol 3®?
A. Concurrent use of Penicillin V.
B. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid.
C. An allergy to acetaminophen.
D. A gastric ulcer.

97- It is ethical to replace amalgam restorations

A. on request from an informed patient.
B. to relieve symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
C. to reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.
D. to eliminate toxins from the patient.

98- Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with

A. inadequate periodontal support.
B. pulp stones.
C. constricted root canals.
D. accessory canals. E. curved roots

99- Which of the following conditions CONTRAINDICATES routine dental

treatment in the dental office?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Recent (15 days) myocardial infarct.
C. Second trimester pregnancy.
D. Insulin-dependent diabetes.

100- Which of the following statements regarding the association of

coronary artery disease and periodontal disease can NOT be supported by
scientific evidence?

A. There is a strong statistical association.

B. There is a direct causal relationship.
C. Genetic risks are similar.
D. Smoking is a risk factor for both

101- Which of the following sedative barbiturates is also useful in reducing

the frequency of seizures in persons with grand mal epilepsy?

A. Thiopental.
B. Amobarbital.
 23

C. Secobarbital.
D. Pentobarbital.
E. Phenobarbital.

102- Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting bulbous
crowns, cervical constriction and obliterated pulp canals and chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
C. Dentin dysplasia type I.
D. Dentin dysplasia type II

From p. 220

103- The earliest clinical sign of gingivitis is

A. increased tooth mobility.
B. bleeding on probing.
C. change in color of the attached gingiva.
D. change in consistency of the attached
gingiva.
104- Informed Consent includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. disclosure of all probable complications.
B. allowing for questions posed by the patient.
C. alternative treatment options, including no treatment.
D. signature of a witnessed form just prior to treatment.

105- An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is most likely to occur

1. when the drug is administered parenterally.
2. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug.
3. within minutes after drug administration.
4. when the drug is administered orally.
5. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
106- The etiologic agent for necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (NUG) is
 24

A. bacterial.
B. viral.
C. fungal.
D. protozoan.
107- A 7-year old patient is missing tooth 5.5 and tooth 7.5. Space
maintainers were not placed. A current mixed dentition analysis yields the
following data:

R L
-5mm -3mm
-3mm -4.5mm

The actual space loss is

A. 8mm in the maxilla.
B. 2mm in the maxilla.
C. 7.5mm in the mandible.
D. 4.5mm in the mandible.
108- The maxillary central incisors of a 2 year old child have been
traumatically intruded 4mm. Immediate treatment is to
A. carefully remove both incisors.
B. reposition the intruded teeth.
C. make the patient comfortable without disturbing the teeth.
D. reposition and splint the intruded teeth.

From p. 230
109- The psychomotor recovery time from nitrous oxide sedation is
A. immediate.
B. 1 to 2 minutes.
C. 10 minutes.
D. 30 minutes.
110- A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated from a periradicular
cyst by the
A. radiographic appearance.
B. patient’s symptoms.
C. response to percussion testing.
D. results of the biopsy.
 25

111- A small hinge articulator was used for the fabrication of a cast gold
onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the
greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient?
A. Laterotrusive.
B. Mediotrusive.
C. Protrusive.
D. Retrusive
112- The most appropriate treatment for a unicystic ameloblastoma of the
posterior mandible in an 18 year old patient is
A. root canal therapy.
B. hemi-mandibulectomy.
C. block resection.
D. curettage.
E. radiotherapy

113- A major difference between stable angina pectoris and myocardial

infarction is that stable angina pectoris does NOT involve
A. crushing substernal pain.
B. ischemic myocardial necrosis.
C. occlusive coronary artery disease.
D. atherosclerosis.
E. females under the age of 80 years
114- An 8 year old patient has a permanent maxillary right first molar
extracted because of caries. The most appropriate management to prevent a
malocclusion is to
A. place a space maintainer.
B. wait for the second molar to erupt into the space.
C. extract the permanent mandibular right first molar to equalize the tooth
size ratio on the right side.
D. extract the permanent maxillary left first
molar to maintain symmetry in the upper arch.

115- Patients with known prion diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

are characterized by
A. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an
infected patient.
B. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the
 26

patient.
C. the disease usually being fatal within one year.
D. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease.

From p. 240

116- Studies have established links between the incidence of periodontal

disease and which of the following?
1. Circulating inflammatory protein levels.
2. Cerebral vascular accidents.
3. Patient’s smoking habits.
4. Coronary artery disease.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

117- In a 17 years old, which traumatic dental injury is most likely to result
in pulp necrosis on tooth 1.1?
A. Extrusion
B. Intrusion
C. Luxation
D. Subluxation

118- A unilateral cross-bite involving the permanent maxillary first molar

may be
A. associated with a mandibular shift.
B. a bilateral constriction of the maxilla.
C. corrected with palatal expansion.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

119- Fremitus is
A. tooth mobility of grade II.
B. mobility during occlusion.
C. vertical tooth mobility.
D. tooth pain upon percussion.
 27

From p. 250
120- Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are
A. less soluble than zinc phosphate cements.
B. more soluble than zinc phosphate cements.
C. as soluble as zinc phosphate cements.
D. less soluble than glass ionomer cements.

121- Which of the following is the most important determinant for the
maximum length of a post in an endodontically treated tooth?
A. Distance between the crestal bone and root apex.
B. Crown/root ratio.
C. Maintenance of an apical gutta percha seal.
D. Thickness of the post.

122- Tachycardia is a term which describes a pulse rate of

A. less than 50.
B. less than 60.
C. less than 70.
D. more than 70.

From p. 260
123- Which of the following is the normal range of sequential fasting
glucose levels for nondiabetic patients?
A. 3-5mmol/L
B. 5-7mmol/L
C. 7-9mmol/L
D. 9-11mmol/L

124- Proper lip support for a maxillary complete denture is provided

primarily by which of the following?
A. Labial surface of the teeth and simulated gingiva.
B. Thickness of the border in the vestibule.
C. Festooned carvings on the labial surface of the simulated gingiva.
D. Convex surface of the labial flange.

125- Collagenase activity is inhibited by

A. clindamycin.
 28

B. tetracycline.
C. penicillin.
D. metronidazole.

From p. 270

126- Which type of periodontitis is generally treated WITHOUT antibiotics?

A. Aggressive periodontitis in a 16 year old patient.
B. Aggressive periodontitis in a 25 year old patient.
C. Refractory chronic periodontitis.
D. Chronic periodontitis.
E. Aggressive periodontitis in a child.

127- A modified hinge non-adjustable articulator is limited in its accuracy to

reproduce dynamic jaw movements because it can only reproduce
A. large centric relation- maximum intercuspation slides.
B. one hinge axis movement.
C. one specific intercuspal position.
D. eccentric movements by multiple lateroprotrusive registrations.

128- Which of the following substances causes inflammation and pain when
released by pulpal fibres?
A. Prostaglandin E2.
B. Calcitonin gene related peptide.
C. Neuraminase.
D. Acetylcholine.

From p. 280

129- The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed
by
A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride.
B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA.
C. chlorhexidine and chloroform.
D. calcium hydroxide and phenol.

130- Compared to nonsmokers, patients who smoke have

 29

A. increased salivary antibodies (immunoglobulin A).

B. increased serum IgG antibody response to periodontal pathogens.
C. decreased serum T lymphocytes.
D. decreased collagenase in periodontal tissue.

131- A severe bleeding disorder due to a deficiency of coagulation factors

would most likely occur in a patient with
A. daily aspirin use.
B. sickle cell anemia.
C. liver disease.
D. adenocarcinoma of the colon.
E. chronic renal failure.

From p. 290

132- A patient with a malocclusion with an anterior openbite has

A. decreased eruption of the posterior teeth.
B. increased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth.
C. decreased vertical overlap of the anterior teeth.
D. increased eruption of the posterior teeth.

133- Known risk factors for developing impaired glucose tolerance or

diabetes include
1. obesity
2. increasing age.
3. First Nations ancestry.
4. periodontal disease.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.

134- Polysulfide impression materials

A. have a higher "tear strength" than condensation polymerized silicones.
B. have better dimensional stability than addition cured silicones.
C. set more slowly if moisture is incorporated.
D. cannot undergo distortion when removed from undercuts.
E. are not cross-linked.
 30

135- What is the threshold count of S. mutans in mixed saliva at which a

patient is deemed “high risk” for caries?
A. 100/ml.
B. 10,000/ml.
C. 1,000,000/ml.
D. 100,000,000/ml.

136- Which of the following drugs should NOT be administered to a patient

in order to alleviate symptoms of an acute asthmatic attack?
A. Isoproterenol.
B. Metaproterenol.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Hydrocortisone.
From p. 300

137- Which of the following is the most reliable indication of an active root
caries lesion?
A. Brown discolouration.
B. Abfraction deeper than 1.5mm.
C. Discoloured lesion with the same hardness as healthy root surface.
D. Leathery consistency.
138- The correlation between malocclusion and temporomandibular
dysfunction is
A. weak.
B. moderate.
C. strong.
D. definitive.

139- The appropriate management for a white lesion, 10 x 15mm in size,

that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently
become ulcerated is
A. observation.
B. excisional biopsy.
C. incisional biopsy.
D. aspiration biopsy.
E. cytologic examination.

From p. 310
 31

140- A “caries risk assessment “includes an analysis of

1. saliva.
2. diet.
3. past caries experience.
4. occupational and demographic factors.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

141- When performing a periodontal screening and recording (PSR) for a

patient, the code asterisk (*) is used for a sextant when
A. a tooth in the sextant needs to be extracted.
B. all the teeth in the sextant are missing.
C. a mucogingival problem is present.
D. a tooth in the sextant has supraerupted.

142- Extensive caries on the primary maxillary incisors of a 2 year old is

generally indicative of
A. fluorosis of the primary dentition.
B. fever related hypoplasia.
C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. demand breast or bottle feeding.

From p. 320

143- Bisphosphonates used in the treatment of osteoporosis

A. stimulate the mineralization of bone.
B. inhibit bone osteoclastic resorption.
C. have no effect on alveolar and jaw bone.
D. increase a patient’s ability to withstand periodontal infections.

144- Which of the following is true regarding “arrested caries”? It

A. is certain to progress, but at a slow rate.
B. should be treated the same as any other carious lesion.
 32

C. can remineralize and not need any restoration.

D. must be restored if it is visible radiographically.
E. can be identified by surface roughness.

145- If an active carious lesion arrests and remineralizes, it will show

A. an increase in radiodensity.
B. no change in hardness.
C. decreased explorer “stickiness”.
D. an increase in size.

146- Which of the following best describes Fordyce granules (spots)?

A. Hyperkeratosis.
B. Submucosal salivary gland tissue.
C. Multiple small epidermoid cysts.
D. Normal sebaceous glands.
E. Submucosal sweat glands.

From p. 330

147- Which of the following does NOT affect probing depth measurement?
A. Probing force.
B. Diameter of the probe tip.
C. Angulation of the probe.
D. Subgingival calculus.
E. Position of the mucogingival junction.

148- During an incisal clench, the activity of the elevator muscles is

A. increased.
B. decreased.
C. unaffected.

149- In planning a bilateral distal extension (freeend) mandibular removable

partial denture, the most important considerations are
1. aesthetics.
2. stress distribution.
3. rigid clasping.
 33

4. maximum tissue coverage.

A. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) (2) (3)
D. All of the above.

150- Veillonella species in supragingival plaque

A. act symbiotically with S. mutans to decrease pH and promote caries
activity.
B. convert lactate to acetic and propionic acid.
C. enhance the progression of caries by metabolizing sucrose.
D. act as pioneer microorganisms in the development of plaque.

From p. 340

151- Which of the following may result in acetone breath?

A. Prolonged fasting.
B. High carbohydrate diet.
C. High protein diet.
D. Poor oral hygiene.

152- Which of the following are signs of aggressive periodontitis?

1. Rapid attachment loss.
2. Suspected periodontal microbial pathogens.
3. Onset before the age of 35.
4. Ulcerations of the gingiva.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

153-Which of the following is the most common reason for the breakage of
a local anesthetic needle when performing an inferior alveolar block?
A. Use of 25 gauge long needles.
B. Too rapid injection of the local anesthetic.
C. Use of 30 gauge short needles.
D. Manufacturer’s defect.
 34

From p. 350

154- Regarding the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for calcium,

A. adult men and women require the same amount.
B. more calcium is required during pregnancy and lactation.
C. women over 70 years require more than men over 70 years.
D. under the age of 18, boys require more calcium than girls.

155- A smooth surface coronal white spot carious lesion that is visible when
the tooth is both wet and dry indicates that the
A. lesion is less than halfway through the enamel.
B. enamel is stained and not demineralized.
C. lesion is more than halfway through the enamel.
D. caries involves the inner half of the dentin.

156- Increasing the amount of network modifiers (e.g. CaO, Na2O) in

porcelain will
A. increase its fusion temperature.
B. decrease its thermal expansion.
C. increase its chemical reactivity.
D. decrease its potential for devitrification upon heating.

157- Which of the following analgesics is CONTRAINDICATED for the

long-term management of myofascial pain syndrome?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid with codeine.
B. Ibuprofen.
C. Oxycodone.
D. Acetaminophen with codeine.

158- The advantage of a posterior composite resin restoration when

compared to amalgam is an immediate reduction in
A. marginal leakage.
B. post-operative sensitivity.
C. technique sensitivity.
D. caries risk for patients with poor oral hygiene.

Till p. 355

159- Which of the following would characterize a patient assessed with a

moderate-to-high caries risk?
 35

1. Development of new caries lesions.

2. Presence of arrested caries lesions.
3. Placement of new restorations for caries within the last 2 years.
4. Replacement of old restorations within the last year.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

160- Reciprocation as applied to cast removable partial dentures refers to the

A. function of the occlusal rest to counteract occlusal forces.
B. resistance to flexion of the clasp arm.
C. return to a passive state of the flexed clasp.
D. function of the clasp arm to counteract the retentive clasp arm.

161- Hypoglycemia in the conscious patient is best managed with

A. oxygen.
B. epinephrine.
C. carbohydrates.
D. glucagon.
E. insulin.

162- A narrow triangular-shaped gingival recession over the root of a tooth

is called a
A. festoon.
B. cleft.
C. crater.
D. fenestration.
E. dehiscence.

163- Which of the following should be prescribed for a patient who cannot
sleep because of
frequent coughing spells?
 36

A. Triazolam.
B. Propoxyphene.
C. Meperidine.
D. Codeine.

164- Recurrent herpes labialis is

A. caused by a different organism than is primary herpetic stomatitis.
B. a form of disease which heals by scarring.
C. seen more frequently in adult patients.
D. not a contagious lesion.
E. a venereal disease.

165- What is the essential etiologic factor for generalized aggressive

periodontitis?
A. Altered lymphocyte activity.
B. Generalized subgingival calculus.
C. Impaired polymorphonuclear phagocytosis.
D. Bacterial plaque.

166- An incipient carious lesion is described as being in

A. dentin without pulpal involvement.
B. the cementum only.
C. the enamel and in the dentin up to 1mm.
D. the enamel only

167- When orthodontically retracting a maxillary right canine, blood flow to

the periodontal ligament is altered within
A. seconds.
B. minutes.
C. hours.
D. days.

Till p. 375
The End!