TOP MUST DOs

IBPS CLERK MAINS

Quantitative Aptitude
Reasoning Ability
English Language
General Awareness Power Capsule

500+ Must Practice Questions for

IBPS Clerk Mains
.

Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Quantitative Aptitude
Quadratic Equations
Directions (1-3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
A. P2 – 25P + 144 = 0
B. 6Q2 – Q – 40 = 0
C. 2R2 + 3R – 135 = 0
I. |K| is a perfect square, where K is one of the roots of same equation.
II. Difference of root is not less than 7.
III. HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where Z and Y are the roots of same equation.
1. Find which of the following match is/are possible.
M. A – I, B – III, C – II
N. A – III, B – III, C – II
L. A – II, B – I, C – III
A.M only
B.M and L only
C.N and L only
D.M and N only
E.None of these

2. An equation is given below:

H2 + 43H – (15a + 60b) = 0, where one root of equation is sum of negative root of B and positive root of
C.
Find the maximum value of (a + b), where a and b both are positive integers?
A.17
B.16
C.13
D.10
E.None of these

3. Smaller root of A is how much percent more or less than positive root of C?
A.16.66%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

B.20%
C.25%
D.15%
E.None of these

Directions (4-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
I. P2 – 23P + Z = 0, Difference between roots of equation is 7.
II. Q2 – (Y + 15) Q + 132, where Y is the two less than larger root of I.
III. 36a2 – 120ab = -(25b2), where a, and b are non-zeros.
4. Find the difference between Z and larger root of equation II?
A.98
B.88
C.102
D.92
E.None of these

5. M = Percentage of small roots of II more / less than smaller root of I.

N = Percentage of value of b is more/less than value of a.
Find the correct relation between M and N
A.M > N
B.M < N
C.M = N
D.M ≥ N
E.M ≤ N

6. Quantity I. 2Z3 – 11Z2 + 19Z – 10 = 0, Find the value of Z

Quantity II. (Y +1)2 = 4, Find the value of Y

Find the correct relation between Quantity I and Quantity II.
A.Z > Y
B.Z < Y
C.Z ≤ Y

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

D.Z ≥ Y
E.Z = Y, or No relation
7. M = 15ZY/ (Z + Y) and (Z2 – Y2) = 105ZY/M, where Z is a prime number > 7.
Quantity I. Find the minimum possible value of (Z – 1)
Quantity II. Find minimum possible value of 2.5Y
A.Quantity I < Quantity II
B.Quantity I > Quantity II
C.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D.Quantity I = Quantity II
E.No relation can be established

8.
A.If Quantity I > Quantity II
B.If Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.If Quantity I < Quantity II
D.If Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E.If Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be decided between ' Quantity I’ and ' Quantity II '.

9. 22Z+Y = 41.5Z ……………... (1)

[(Z + Y)/Z]M = [(3Z – Y)/Y]N/2 …………………... (2)
Quantity I. Find the value of (N/M)
Quantity II. Find the value of (1.5Y/Z)
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I < Quantity II
C.Quantity I = Quantity II
D.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
E.Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

10. Quantity I. (2x)2 – ( )x + 102 – 1 = 0, find the value of x.

(II) Quantity II. (2y)2 – (4 × )y + 42 – 1 = 0, Find the value of y.

A.if x > y
B.if x ≤ y
C.if x ≥ y
D.if x < y
E.if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

11.
A.if x > y
B.if x ≤ y
C.if x ≥ y
D.if x < y
E.if x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

Directions (12): Two equations are given below. Solve the quadratic equations and answer the
questions given below:
I. 2x²-(2-s)x-(2t+1)=0
II. 3y²+sy-2t=0
Roots of equation I are (n and 9/2) and roots of equation II are (n and 8/3).
12. Find the value of ‘a’ in the following equation.
2s% of 640 + 720/(2t) = a% of 1900 - 12
A.2
B.-2
C.0
D.4
E.-3

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Directions (13-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
I. P2 – 3P – (2Z + 5Y - 1) = 0, Where (- 4) and (K + 2) are the roots of equation, and Z and Y are natural
numbers such that Y > Z.
II. L2-aL – (Q + 4)=0, where (K+3) and M are the roots of equation and Q is a perfect square and a is
natural number. Q > a
13. Find the value of (2Y + M).
A.5
B.0
C.8
D.12
E.Can’t be determined

14. Find the value of (3K + 2Z + 4a).

A.38
B.32
C.45
D.31
E.Can’t be determined

Directions (15-16): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Two quadratic equations I and II given below:
Equation I: Y2 – Ya + b = 0, have roots Z and 5
Equation II: Y2 – (a + 1) Y + (b + 4) = 0, have roots (Z + 2) and 4
15. Find the value of Z?
A.5
B.6
C.4
D.8
E.None of these

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

16. Find the value of (3a + 4b)?

A.96
B.97
C.117
D.107
E.None of these

Directions (17-18): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Given an equation: Pz3 + Qz2 – Rz + S = 0, [a, b, c are integers]
(i) Highest root of the above equation is same as smallest root of the equation: (√2 x)2+ (√8)4+
(√8)0=[(3)3-(√2)4]x
(ii) Second highest root of the above equation is same as second highest root of the equation: (2y-9)2=
(2y-9)+2
(iii) Smallest root of the above equation is the average of 80% of the highest root and 50% of the
second highest root.
(iv) Value of S is equal to the products of all the roots of the given equation.
17. (S – 15P) is what percent more or less than (R + Q + 9P).
A.100%
B.75%
C.50%
D.25%
E.None of these

18. What is the average of the LCM of [(R – Q + S/3 + 5) & 1.5(S)] and HCF of [(S + 10P) & (R – 13)].
A.90
B.91
C.60
D.62
E.None of these

Directions (19-20): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Two quadratic equations I and II in x and y given below:

Equation I. a𝑥2 + 6𝑥 - 70 = 0
Equation II. b𝑦2 + 20𝑦 - 208 = 0
Note:
(A) Both a & b are positive integers
(B) One of the roots of eq. II is -13/2
(C) The ratio of the highest root of eq. I to the highest root of eq. II is 7:8
19. Find the ratio of smallest root of eq. I to the smallest root of eq. II.
A.13:2
B.10:13
C.7:13
D.13:10
E.None of these

20. Find the both roots of equation given below:

(ab + 3) 𝑥2 + (a + b + 1) 𝑥 - (3ab – 6) = 0
A.10/7 & -9/5
B.10/7 & -4/5
C.9/7 & -3/5
D.10/3 & -9/7
E.None of these

Number Series (New)

Directions (21-22): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Two wrong number series I and II given below follows certain patterns:
Series I: 128, 116, 111, 108, 122, 138
Series II: 14, 30, 64, 126, 254, 510
21. If P and Q are wrong numbers in series I and II, find the value of (2P – Q)?
A.152
B.186
C.142

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

D.196
E.None of these

22. If P and Q are the correct terms replaces wrong terms in series I and II respectively, then find which
of the following statements is/are must be true.
A: 'P' is a prime number.
B: (P + Q) is a multiple of 5
C: (Q + 2) is a perfect cube.
A.Only A and B
B.Only C
C.All of A, B and C
D.Only B and C
E.None of these

23. A wrong number series is given below;

360, 180, 120, 90, 75, 60
Find which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely false.
I. Wrong number is exactly divisible by 30
II. Unit digit of Pp is 1, where P is the correct number replacing the wrong number in the series.
III. when wrong number divided by 14, then remainder is even number
A.I only
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.I, II, and III
E.None of these

Directions (24-28): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
24. Below given is a wrong number series:
2.5, 5, 15, 55, 225, 855

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

If A is the wrong term and B is the next term of the series, then which of the following regarding A and B
is TRUE?
I: B = 15A + 40
II: B = 16A – 185
III: 45B = 683A
A.Only I is True
B.Both I and III are True
C.Both I and II are True
D.All I, II, and III are True
E.Only II is True

25. A series I is given below having a missing term X. A second number series II starting with X and
follows the same logic as that in series I. Find the difference between 3rd and 4th term of series II.
Series I: 2, X, 70, 770, 10010, 170170
A.3500
B.4900
C.2800
D.4200
E.2100

26. There are two series given below series I and II each having a wrong term. If wrong term of series I
and series II are mentioned as A and B respectively, then which of the following is TRUE?
Series I: 15, 40, 76, 125, 190, 270
Series II: 18, 35, 69, 139, 273, 545
A.A = B – 51
B.2A < B
C.A < B
D.A = B
E.A > B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

27. Below given as two series I and II, each having a missing term. Which of the following regarding
missing term(s) is/are TRUE?
Series I: 100, 123, 152, 183, ?, 261
Series II: 20, 28, ?, 119, 244, 460
I: Missing term of series I is divisible by 13.
II: Missing term of series II is divisible by 11.
III: Missing term of series I ÷ Missing term of series II = 0.25
A.All I, II, and III
B.Both I and II
C.Only II
D.None
E.Only III

28. Below given is a series having one wrong term and one missing term. Identify the missing and
wrong term in the series and find their sum.
Series: 10, ?, 40, 88, 170, 300, 490, 752
A.792
B.60
C.210
D.128
E.340

29. A series is given below.

4.5, P, Q, 71, 147
If P is 2nd lowest multiple of 7, then which of the following is/are true?
A: 6th term of the series is a multiple of 7.
B: Difference between P and Q is 19.
C: Q is a prime number.
A.Only B
B.Only B and C
C.All are true

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

D.Only A
E.Only A and C

30. A series is given below, in which there are two missing terms X and Y.
Series 1: 8,16,Y,192,960
Series 2: X,36,9,3, 1.5
Which relationship/s between X and Y is/are true?
A: Ratio of X to Y is 15: 4.
B: Value of (X – 2Y) is 84.
C: Difference between X and Y is 132.
A.Only B
B.Only B and C
C.All are true
D.Only A
E.Only A and C

Application Dis
Directions (31-34): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The table given below shows the partial information about the articles (4 articles) – A, B, C, and D sold
by a shopkeeper.

Note: Discount given on article A is Q% while on article D is 3P%.

31. For article C, discount given is Rs. M and profit earned is Rs. 600. Find profit% earned on article C
is if ratio of profit and discount earned is 4Q:5P?
A.60%
B.40%
C.50%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

D.45%
E.None of these

32. Ratio of discount offered on article D to that of profit earned on article A is 15:4, find the value of Z?
A.Rs.200
B.Rs.180
C.Rs.300
D.Rs.240
E.None of these

33. Discount given on article B is Rs. 60, and marked price of article C is 50% more than that of B. if
article C sold after two successive discounts of 30% and Rs. 130 respectively. Find the selling price of
article C.
A.Rs. 500
B.Rs. 600
C.Rs. 540
D.Rs. 640
E.None of these

34. Selling price of article D is half as that cost price of article E. Article E sold after profit % of (2Q –
5)%. Find difference between selling price of article E and article A, if cost price of D is same as that of
B?
A.Rs. 576
B.Rs. 516
C.Rs. 408
D.Rs. 508
E.None of these

Directions (35-39): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
Table given below shows the cost prices of 5 articles A, B, C, D and E. It also shows marked up
percentage of each article and discount percentage on marked price of each article.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Note: Some data in the table is missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions.
35. If marked up amount on article A is double of that on article D, then find the profit or loss percentage
on article A?
A.7.2%
B.6.4%
C.8.0%
D.5.6%
E.4.8%

36. If average of marked prices of articles C, D and E is Rs.1170, then find the profit amount received
on article C?
A.Rs.36
B.Rs.48
C.Rs.32
D.Rs.30
E.Rs.42

37. If article E were sold at 10% discount, the profit received would be Rs.57 less than original profit
received. Find the original discount percentage on marked price of article E?
A.4%
B.8%
C.5%
D.6%
E.2%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

38. If cost price of article D is 12.5% more than that of article B, then find the difference between profit
received from article B and that received from article E (consider the data of previous question)?
A.Rs.33
B.Rs.25
C.Rs.54
D.Rs.67
E.Rs.20

39. If loss occurred on article D is Rs.18 more than its marked-up amount, then find the ratio of discount
percentage on marked price of article B and that on article D?
A.3: 4
B.1: 2
C.5: 6
D.3: 5
E.15: 19

Caselets based on Application Sums

Directions (40-43): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The investment ratio of A and B is 6:7 and the investment ratio of B and C is 7:8. A invest his money for
R% rate of interest for 2 years. B invest his money for M% rate of interest for T years. C invest his
money for N% rate of interest for 2 years. A got Rs.5280 as a compound interest and B got Rs.12600 as
simple interest. A's investment amount is Rs.12000. Ratio of interest rates of A and B is 2:3. The rate of
interest of C is the average of interest rate A and B together.
40. D invest Rs. (9600+I) at the interest rate of [M/2]% for (t+1) years simple interest. If the interest
amount of is Rs.9000 find the value of I?
A.2540
B.6522
C.5400
D.8400
E.9600

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

41. If E invest average of investment A and B at N% rate of interest for 2 years in compound interest.
Find the difference between the compound interest of E and C?
A.Rs.7854.5
B.Rs.1456.5
C.Rs.7312.5
D.Rs.1687.5
E.Rs.9000

42. If B invest 50% of his interest at R% for t years in compound interest and rest will be invest at M%
for 2 years in simple interest. Find the total interest?
A.Rs.8476.4
B.Rs.8366.4
C.Rs.8956.4
D.Rs.8236.4
E.None of these

43. If A, invest Rs._______ extra at the same interest rate for 3 years in simple interest, then the interest
will be Rs.______.
Which of the following option is true as per the statement?
A.4600, 9960
B.4500, 9450
C.4250, 9870
D.More than one option is true
E.None of these

Directions (44-47): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The bar graph given below shows the % by which marked price of four articles – P, Q, R, and S is more
than their cost price.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

• Article P sold at two successive discounts of (M – 5) % and (N + 5) % respectively while Q and S

sold after a single discount of N% and 30% respectively.
• 25% of the sum of the cost price of P and Q together is Rs. 475 which is Rs. 2425 less than the
combined cost price of P, Q, and R together.
• 1/4 x Selling price of S is (13M + 6N), while cost price of S is 20% more than that of R. Article R
sold after two successive discounts of N%, and M% respectively.
• Average cost price of Q and S together is Rs. 1350, M and N are positive integers, and selling
price of all articles is an integer value.
44. Z = Profit % earned on article P, if single discount of (8M/3) % given on article.
Y = Profit % earned on article R, if single discount of 2.5N% given on article.
A.Z > Y
B.Z < Y
C.Z = Y
D.Z ≥ Y
E.Z ≤ Y
45. For article T, marked up by (6M – 10) % above its cost price and sold after discount of N% thus
earning profit of K%. If article is marked up by Rs. 400 more than the previous marked up price, then
sold it after discount of 40% then profit earned is (K – 24) %. Find the Difference between cost price of
article T and marked price of article S.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

A.Rs. 300
B.Rs. 160
C.Rs. 240
D.Rs. 200
E.None of these

46. A person buys 2 units of article Q and 5 units of article P. Find the total amount paid by the person.
A.Rs. 6540
B.Rs. 6840
C.Rs. 7540
D.Rs. 6450
E.None of these

47. Selling price of article R and S together is how much % more/less than Marked price of P and Q
together?
A.10% More
B.7.5% Less
C.12.5% More
D.11.25% Less
E.None of these

Directions (48-50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
A and B entered into a partnership with initial investment of Rs. P and Rs. 1.2P respectively. After Z
months A withdrew his entire amount and C entered into business. At the end of 9 months, from starting
the business, B increased his investment by 25%. At the end of one-year, total profit of A and B together
is Rs. 14200. If B invested 25% more amount after Z months instead of 9 months then profit share of B
is 170% more than that of A.
48. Find the value of (87Z + 99)?
A. 627
B. 422
C. 521

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

D. 621
E. None of these

49. Find the difference between profit share of A and B, if profit shares of A and B is in ratio of 20:51
A. Rs. 4600
B. Rs. 6200
C. Rs. 5400
D. Rs 5200
E. Rs. 5100

50. If respective ratio of total profit and investment of C is 101:5 respectively, then find total profit.
A. Rs. 18180
B. Rs. 25250
C. Rs. 20200
D. Rs. 30300
E. None of these

Directions (51-53): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are three vessels P, Q, and R. Vessel P contains milk and water in ratio of 2:1, and vessel Q
contains milk and water in ratio of 3:2, and vessel R contains only Milk. When Z ml from vessel P, Y ml
from vessel Q and 20 ml from vessel R mixed to form a new mixture, such that amount of milk in new
mixture becomes twice as that of water. Now L% mixture is removed and replaced by same amount of
another element A (mixable with milk and water), now in new mixture amount of element A is 25% less
than that of water.
Note: Z is thrice as that of L
51. Find amount of milk taken from the vessel P to form new mixture?
A.60 ml
B.40 ml
C.45 ml
D.75 ml
E.Can’t be determined

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

52. Find the value of (Y + 3L)?

A.180
B.120
C.160
D.150
E.None of these

53. A vessel S contains mixture of milk and water in ratio of Z: Y. When mixture in vessel S and vessel
Q mixed in M: N respectively, such that amount of milk and water becomes same in the resultant
mixture. Find N:M respectively.
A.3:2
B.8:5
C.5:3
D.5:4
E.None of these

Directions (54-58): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
A shopkeeper sold four articles – P, Q, R, and S after giving two successive discounts.
Article P: Marked up by 50% above its cost price and sold after discounts of Z% and 10% respectively.
Total discount offered is Rs. 336 and selling price after discount of Z% is 20% more than the cost price.
Article Q: Sold after discounts of (L – 5) % and 6.66% respectively and ratio of selling price after first
discount to that of cost price is 5:4. Difference between marked price and cost price is 40Z, and the total
discount offered on the article is 25% less than the cost price of article P.
Article R: Selling price after first discount is 75% more than cost price and article sold after discounts of
Y% and (200/7) % respectively. Marked price of the article is twice as that of the cost price.
Article S: Marked price of article is Rs. 600 more than its cost price and article sold after discounts of
K% and 1.2Y% respectively. Total discount offered is Rs. 308 which is Rs. 8 more than that of article R.
Selling price after first discount is 52% more than that of its cost price.
54. Z is how much % more or less than that of Y?
A. 75%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 80%
E. None of these

55. A = Profit % earned on article Q. Only numerical value

B = profit % earned on article S. Only numerical value
Find the value of 15% of (A x B)?
A. 73
B. 146
C. 96
D. 112
E. None of these

56. For article R, if the article is marked up by 7Y% and sold after a discount of (10K/3) %, then find its
new cost price. Selling price of the article remains the same.
A. Rs. 300
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 400
D. Rs. 320
E. None of these

57. C = Difference between marked price of P and S

D = Difference between marked price of Q and R
Find the difference between C and D.
A. 400
B. 200
C. 600
D. 1000
E. None of these

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58. Cost price of article R and S together is how much % more or less than the combined cost price of P
and Q together?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. None of these

Directions (59-62): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are four boats – P, Q, R, and S travel in different rivers.
Boat P: Travels Y km downstream distance, which is Z km less than that of upstream distance traveled
by the boat. Speed of boat in still water is (M – 1) km/h and speed of stream is 5 km/h. Total journey
time of the boat is 10 hours.
Boat Q: Travels 30 km upstream distance in 5 hours and travels (Y + 20) km downstream distance in T
hours. Speed of boat in still water (N km/h) is four times as that of stream.
Boat R: The boat travels 200 km downstream distance in K hours and in same time it covers 120 km
upstream distance. Speed of boat in still water is M km/h and speed of stream is twice as that of stream
for boat Q.
Boat S: Speed of stream is 3 km/h and speed of boat in still water is 1.5N km/h. The boat covers 4.5Z
km upstream distance in (T + 14) hours and L km downstream distance in T hours.
59. Find the upstream distance travelled by boat Q in (T + 2) hours?
A. 80 km
B. 48 km
C. 60 km
D. 100 km
E. None of these

60. Find correct relation between Z and Y?

A. Z > Y
B. Z < Y
C. Z = Y

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D. Z + Y > 100
E. None of these

61. Find difference between the time taken to travel given downstream distance by boat P and Q?
A. 4 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 5 hours
E. None of these

62. Which of the following is/are definitely true.

I). L = 90
II). M = 15
III). N = 8
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. None of these

Caselet Previous year question

Directions (63-67): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are four companies P, Q, R, and S. Total employees in P is 120, while number of male
employees in Q is Z and number of female employees in Q is Y. Average number of employees in Q
and S together is 150, and difference between number of male and female employees in R is 80.
Number of employees in R is 8 more than number of male employees in S, while number of female
employees in S is (Y + 28). Number of male employees in P is N % as that of Q, and number of male
employees is more than that of female employees in company R. Total number of employees in R is
200.
Note: Z2 + 4Y2 = 4ZY

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63. Number of female employees in company P is 50% more than that of company S, find the value of
N?
A. 160
B. 80
C. 120
D. 180
E. None of these

64. If respective ratio of number of male employees in company S to the number of female employees
of company P is 24:7, and number of male employees in company T is twice as that of female
employees in company R, find the number of female employees in company T, if total number of
employees in company is 3N?
A. 320
B. 360
C. 340
D. 280
E. None of these

65. A = Difference between total number of employees in R and S

B = Number of Female employees in company Q
Find A is how much % more than that of 1.2B.
A. 60%
B. 80%
C. 100%
D. 66.66%
E. None of these

66. For company S, average salary of a male employee is Rs. 2A and of a female employee is Rs. (2A
+ 40000). Find the value of A, if average salary of an employee in company S is Rs. 28000.
A. 10000
B. 15000

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C. 12000
D. 8000
E. None of these

67. If N = 150, then find total number of female employees in all the companies together is
approximately what % of total number of employees in all companies together?
A. 33%
B. 35%
C. 37.5%
D. 32%
E. 30%

Directions (68-72): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are two buses B1 and B2, both takes three rounds R1, R2, and R3 in a day.
Bus B1: Bus is 16-seater and number of vacant seats in R1 is (M + N – 8). Number of passengers in R2
is 50% more than that in bus B2 of same round. Total number of passengers in all three rounds are 38.
Bus B2: Bus is [2M + Z – 3N] seater and no seats are full in any of the round. Number of passengers in
R1 and R2 together of bus B1 is twice as that of bus B2. Number of passengers in R1 is half as that of
R3.
Note: 6M + 11Z = 75, Where M, and Z are distinct natural numbers.
NM = NZ
68. If fare for passenger is Rs. 80, Rs, 60, and Rs. 120 for round R1, R2, and R3 respectively for B1. In
return journey fare reduced by 40%. Find the revenue generated from Bus B1 for return journey?
A. Rs. 2400
B. Rs. 2560
C. Rs. 1920
D. Rs. 3200
E. None of these

69. For B2, if 50%, 25% and 33.33% of passengers in R1, R2 and R3 are males, then find number of
female passengers?

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A. 15
B. 19
C. 16
D.17
E. None of these

70. Find total passengers in R1 of B2 and R3 of B1 together?

A. 15
B. 17
C. 16
D. 18
E. None of these

71. Number of vacant seats in B2 is how much % more or less than number of passengers in R2 of B1?
A. 33.33%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 66.66%
E. None of these

72. Find total number of passengers in both buses together?

A. 60
B. 64
C. 56
D. 62
E. None of these

DI Previous year question

Directions (73-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

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There are five buckets, [E, J, O, T and Y]. Each bucket has three different colors balls [Red, Blue, and
Black]. Percentage of Red balls and the Difference between the number of Blue and Black balls in each
Bucket is given in the table.

Statements:-
a). X = 75 + 30 – 80 + 5 * 2 - 15 and Y = 60 – 230 + 142 + 22 + 36 .
b). Number of blue balls is more in buckets E, O, and Y, and in others black balls are more.
73. If the difference in the number of blue and black balls in bucket E is 160% of the difference in the
number of blue and black in bucket J. Then find, total number of blue balls in bucket E is approximately
what percent of the total number of balls in the same bucket.
A. 29%
B. 23%
C. 33%
D. 43%
E. 40%

74. Number of Blue balls in bucket J and the number of black balls in bucket O are the same. Find the
difference between the number of red balls in bucket J and Bucket O.
A. 180
B. 160
C. 130
D. 140
E. 120

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75. If the number of Black balls in bucket T is 4X. find the difference between the number of blue and
red balls in bucket T.
A. 30
B. 0
C. 10
D. 20
E. None of these

76. Let there be another bucket N, the number of red balls in bucket N is 16 more than the number of
red balls in bucket E. In bucket N 40% are the red balls. If the difference between blue and black balls in
bucket N is 20 then find the number of black balls.
A. 80
B. 100
C. 90
D. 110
E. Cannot be determined

77. Take 10% of the number of red, blue, and black balls out of bucket O and put it in a new bucket M.
Now find the probability of getting one red and one blue ball when two balls are randomly picked up.
A. 54/195
B. 56/195
C. 17/195
D. 19/195
E. None of these

Directions (78-82): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions based on it.
The table given below shows the number of applicants who attend the interview for executive MBA
program in five different panels of IIM – A.

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Note:
a) Out of total applicants in panel D, A and B are D (20%), A (40%) and B (60%) are rejected
respectively.
b) Sum of LCM and HCF of P and Q is 205, while LCM is 40 times of HCF.
c) P + R = 90
78. In panel C, rejected applicants are what percent of total number of applicants?
A. 75%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 80%
E. None of these

79. For panel B, there are two interviewers in this panel – L and Z. L takes an interview in a group of
three students (consider as one interview), while Z in group of five (consider as one interview).
Which of the following is/are possible sum of number of interviews for rejected candidates?
I). 14
II). 16
III). 12
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

80. Which of the following statement/s is/are true.

I). Number of applicants rejected in A and B are the same.

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II). Number of applicants selected from panel C is highest among all given panels.
III). Total applicants in panel D is half as that in panel A
A. Only II is True
B. Only I and II are True
C. Only III is True
D. Only III and II are True
E. All I, II, and III are True

81. M = total number of applicants selected in Panel B and E together.

N = total number of applicants rejected in panel A and D together.
Find the difference between values of M and N.
A. 27
B. 37
C. 47
D. 17
E. None of these

82. Find the average number of applicants in all the panels together.
A. 112
B. 102
C. 108
D. 104
E. None of these

Directions (83-87): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A Car company MNO has five showrooms [A, B, C, D, and E]. Each showroom sold three types of
models, i.e., LX, VX, and ZX. Percentage distribution of the total number of cars sold in five cities is
given in the Pie chart. Ratio of LX and VX models sold in five showrooms and the Percentage of ZX
models sold out of the total number of cars sold in a showroom is given. Total 300 ZX model cars sold
in showroom C.

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83. Number of LX model cars sold in showroom A is 60% of the number of ZX model cars sold in the
same showroom. If the ratio of Petrol and Diesel cars sold in the VX model is 2:1 then find the number
of VX model Diesel cars sold in showroom A.
A. 121
B. 124
C. 108
D. 102
E. 111

84. Number of LX model cars sold in B is 50% more than the number of ZX models sold in A. Out of the
total ZX model cars sold in B, 55% have automatic control features then find the number of ZX model
cars sold in B that do not have automatic features.
A. 110
B. 105

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C. 80
D. 90
E. 120

85. There are companies i.e., UII, NIA, and OIC that provide insurance for all cars sold in showrooms D.
The ratio of cars that are insured by companies UII, NIA, and OIC respectively of model LX, and VX are
1:2:2 and 2:1:3 respectively. If UII and NIA provide insurance for a total of 400 and 300 cars sold in D
respectively then find the number of insurances provided by OIC on ZX model cars.
A. 65
B. 75
C. 80
D. 100
E. None of these

86. If the ratio of VX and LX model cars sold in showroom C is 4:3 then find the difference in number
between VX and ZX model cars sold in showroom C.
A. 100
B. 120
C. 150
D. 200
E. None of these

87. If the number of LX model cars sold in showroom D is equal to the number of LX model cars sold in
showroom E. Find the number of ZX model cars sold in E is what percent of the number of ZX model
cars sold in D.
A. 150%
B. 145%
C. 120%
D. 130%
E. None of these

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Directions (88-91): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The data given below is related to the total amount invested by A, B, C, D and E in two schemes P and
Q.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of total amount invested by each person in
both the schemes together.

The table given below shows the amount invested by each person in schemes P and Q.

Note: Some data in the table is missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions and the missing
data is same for each question.
88. If the SI received by E from scheme Q at 12.5% rate after 3 years is Rs.3000, then find the
difference between the SI received by C from scheme P at 8% rate after 2 years and that received by C
from scheme Q at 5% rate after 3 years?
A. Rs. 450
B. Rs. 800
C. Rs. 750
D. Rs. 500

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E. Rs. 600

89. If the total amount invested by D in both schemes is Rs. 6600 more than the 120% of the total
amount invested by B in both the schemes. Find the ratio of SI received by B from scheme Q at 12%
rate after 2 years to that received by D from scheme P at 8% rate after 3 years?
A. 1:1
B. 12:13
C. 2:1
D. 24:23
E. 6:7

90. If the average of the amount invested by A, B and E in scheme P is Rs. 13000 and the total SI
received by A from scheme P at 18% rate after 1 year and that received from scheme Q at 15% rate
after 2 years is Rs. 6300, then find the average of the total amount invested by C, D and E in both the
schemes together?
A. 22000
B. 25000
C.24000
D. 28000
E. 26000

91. Which of the following statements is/are true? (Collect the data from above questions)
P: Difference between the total amount invested by B and that invested by D in both the schemes
together is Rs.3000.
Q: The amount invested by C in scheme Q is 105% more than that invested by A in scheme Q.
R: Ratio of the total amount invested by B and E in scheme P to that invested by B and E in scheme Q
is 3: 2.
A. Only P and Q
B. Only R
C. Only Q and R
D. Only P

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E. Only Q

Directions (92-95): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
ARUN is Quant content developer in GUIDELY for Mains Exam. The first pie chart given below shows
the % distribution of Total number of questions developed by Arun in four months from March to June,
and the second pie chart shows the % distribution of number of DI question developed by Arun in these
four Months.

Note:
a) Out of Total number of DI question developed by Arun, half of them developed in month of April.
b) Number of Arithmetic Question developed in month of March are 20 less than that of number of DI
questions developed in same month.
c) Number of Arithmetic questions developed in April are 80.

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Total number of questions =Number of DI questions + Number of Arithmetic Questions

92. For June, total number of DI questions developed are of three type sets – A (set of five questions), B
(set of three questions), C (set of six questions). Number of set B is 50% more than that of set A, while
maximum possible and minimum possible number of set C is P and Q respectively. Find the value of (P
– Q).
A. 27
B. 19
C. 21
D. 17
E. None of these

93. Number of arithmetic questions in June is what % of total questions developed in March?
A. 16.66%
B. 8.33%
C. 13.33%
D. 12.5%
E. None of these

94. P = Number of arithmetic questions in March

Q = Number of arithmetic questions in May
Find correct relation between P and Q.
A. P > Q
B. P < Q
C. P ≥ Q
D. P ≤ Q
E. P = Q
95. If company P pays Rs. 180 for each DI question, and Rs. 120 for each Arithmetic question. Find
total earnings of Arun in month of June?
A. Rs. 40800
B. Rs. 31300
C. Rs. 38400

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D. Rs. 32800
E. None of these

Directions (96-99): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The chart given below shows the % distribution of number of cars manufactured by four different
companies – P, Q, R, and S.

Note:
a). Difference between number of cars manufactured by company P and Q (Q > P) is same as that of
cars manufactured by company R.
b). Number of cars manufactured by company S is 60 more than that of R, while number of cars
manufactured by Q is twice as that of S.
c). Out of total number of vehicles (Cars + Buses) manufactured by all companies together, Z% are
buses.
96. Find total number of buses manufactured by all companies together?
A. 2000
B. 1200
C. 1600
D. 1500
E. None of these

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97. Total number of vehicles manufactured by company Q is 800, find average number of buses
manufactured by company P, R, and S together?
A. 120
B. 140
C. 180
D. 160
E. None of these

98. For another company T, total number of vehicles (Cars + buses) manufactured is thrice of number
of cars manufactured by company S. Out of the total number of vehicle manufactured by company T,
75% are cars. 80% of the number of buses manufactured by company T are sold. Find number of
unsold buses of company T.
A. 36
B. 44
C. 54
D. 40
E. None of these

99. A = Difference between number of cars manufactured by P and Q

B = Difference between number of cars manufactured by R and S.
Find A is how many times of B
A. 2 times
B. 2.5 times
C. 3.2 times
D. 3 times
E. None of these
Directions (100-104): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The given below line graph shows the average number of toys manufactured by four different machines
on Monday and Tuesday together, and number of toys manufactured on Tuesday, and the below table
shows the number of non–defective (ND) toys manufactured by a machine on Monday and Tuesday.

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Total toys manufactured = Non – Defective toys (ND) + Defective toys (DF)

Note:
a) Number of defective toys manufactured by all machines together on Monday is 110, and all variables
in the table are distinct natural numbers.
b) P is a Multiple of 50, K is half of P
100. Non – defective toys manufactured on Tuesday sold at Rs. 20 per toys, and each defective toys
manufactured on Tuesday sold at 25% less than the selling price of Non – defective toys manufactured
on Tuesday, then find the total revenue generated on Tuesday.
A. Rs. 9575
B. Rs. 9000
C. Rs. 8575
D. Rs. 8775
E. None of these

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101. Find the difference between the defective products manufactured by M2 on Tuesday and M4 on
Monday.
A. 20
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
E. Can’t be determined

102. Non – defective toys manufactured by M3 on Monday is how much percent of non – defective toys
manufactured by M3 on Tuesday?
A. 25%
B. 62.5%
C. 40%
D. 37.5%
E. None of these

103. Which of the following statement/s is/are definitely true.

I. DF toys manufactured by M1 on Monday is twice as that on Tuesday
II. ND toys manufactured by M2 on Tuesday is 80.
III. DF toys manufactured on both the days by M4 are the same.
A. Only I and II are true
B. Only II is true
C. Only III and I are true
D. Only II and III are true
E. All I, II, and III are true

104. Find the total number of non – defective toys manufactured by all the given machines in both days
together.
A. 295
B. 385
C. 645

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D. 305
E. None of these

Directions (105-109): Study the following data carefully and answer the given questions:
Data given below is related to discount (in rupees) on article P, discount (in rupees) on article Q and
discount (in rupees) on article R in five different malls A, B, C, D and E.
Line graph given below shows the sum (in rupees) of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in
each mall.

Table given below shows the discount on article Q as percent more than that on article P and difference
between discounts on article Q and article R in each mall.

Note: Some data in the table is missing, which needs to be calculated in the questions.

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105. If the discount on article R in mall B is 15(5/13) % of the sum of discounts on article P, article Q
and article R in mall B and discount on article R in mall A is Rs.30 more than that in mall B, then find the
difference between discounts on article Q and article R in mall A?
A. Rs.50
B. Rs.70
C. Rs.90
D. Rs.60
E. Rs.80

106. If the ratio of discount on article P to that on article R in mall C is 4: 1 and discount on article P in
mall E is Rs.60 less than that on article Q in mall C, then find that discount on article Q in mall E is what
percent more than that on article P in mall E?
A. 80%
B. 66.67%
C. 75%
D. 60%
E. 62.5%

107. If ratio of discount on article P to that on article R in mall C is 4: 1 and difference between
discounts on article Q and article R in mall C is equal to that in mall D, then find the ratio of discount on
article Q to that on article R in mall D?
A. 3: 1
B. 15: 7
C. 6: 1
D. 9: 4
E. 18: 7

108. Find the difference between discounts on article P and article R in mall B?
Statement I: Discount on article Q in mall B is half of the sum of discounts on article P, article Q and
article R in mall E.
Statement II: Difference between discounts on article P and article Q in mall B is Rs.60.

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A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the statement II alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the statement I alone is not sufficient.
C. Both the statements together are required to answer the question.
D. Either of the two statements is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

109. If the discount on article Q in mall D is 54% of the sum of discounts on article P, article Q and
article R in mall C, then what will be the difference between discounts on article Q and article R in mall
D?
A. Rs.82
B. Rs.68
C. Rs.74
D. Rs.66
E. Rs.76

Directions (110-114): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are five companies – P, Q, R, S, and T. The chart given below shows the number of managers in
five companies (some data is missing), and table given below shows the Ratio of male and female
employees in a particular company, and % of managers out of total employees in that particular
company.

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Note:
a) Total number of employees in all companies together is 2500. Number of managers in S is 6.25%
less than that of R, while number of male employees in T is 50% more than that in P.
b) Z = HCF of (n, n + 1) + L, where n is a natural number.
110. Find difference between number of male employees in company T and number of female
employees in company P?
A. 200
B. 50
C. 100
D. 160
E. Can’t be determined

111. Out of total female employees in company T, 20% are managers, then find the difference between
male and female (other than managers).
A. 240
B. 160
C. 120
D. 200
E. None of these

112. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely true?

I. Male employees in company Q is half as that in company R.
II. Difference between male and female employees in company P and T is same.
III. Difference between total employees in S and T is 400.
A. I and III only
B. I and II only

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III
E. None of these

113. Find total number of employees in company T?

A. 800
B. 600
C. 1200
D. 960
E. Can’t be determined

114. For company S, if average salary of a male manager is Rs. 17000, and that of female manager is
Rs. 12000. Find number of female non-managers if average salary of a manager is Rs. 16000?
A. 90
B.50
C. 80
D. 70
E. None of these

Directions (115-119): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
There are five companies – P, Q, R, S, and T those companies are manufactured certain number of
bags – (Sports and Formal). Each type of bag has two categorization – Mid range and exclusive range.
The given below bar chart shows the % of sports bags manufactured by the company out of total bags
manufactured by that particular company, and table shows the exclusive range sports bags
manufactured by that particular company.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

115.In company Q, the number of mid-range sports bag manufactured by the company is 75, while the
number total number of exclusive bags manufactured by the company is 425, then find the number of
mid-range formal bags manufactured by the company is how much % more or less than that of mid-
range sports bags manufactured by the company?
A. 466.66%More
B. 366.66%Less
C. 333.33% More
D. 433.33%More
E. None of these

116. In company P, the total number of formal bags manufactured by the company is 300 more than
that of sports bags, then find number of mid–range sports bags manufactured by the company.
A. 90
B. 60

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C. 150
D. 80
E. None of these

117. In company T, total number of exclusive bags manufactured is thrice as that of mid–range bags
manufactured, while number of mid–range formal bags manufactured is 1/3rd as that of exclusive formal
bags manufactured. Then find the total number of formal bags manufactured by the company.
A. 480
B. 540
C. 640
D. 420
E. None of these

118. In company R, the total number of formal bags manufactured by the company is 350, then find
number of mid–range sports bags manufactured by the company?
A. 40
B. 25
C. 80
D. 60
E. None of these

119. In company S, number of exclusive sports bags manufactured by company is twice as that of mid–
range sports bags manufactured, then find total number of bags manufactured by the company.
A. 720
B. 800
C. 640
D. 880
E. None of these

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Arithmetic DI Previous year question

Directions (120-123): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the selling price of five different items
[ A, B, C, D, and E].

Note: Item C is marked up by 60% above the cost price and given Rs.48 as a discount, then the profit
percentage is 20%.
120. Item A is marked up by 50% and gives a discount of Rs. d. The profit percentage of item A is 20%.
The cost price of item F is 7d and item F is sold at Rs.94 discount after being marked up 40% above the
cost price. Find the selling price of item F?
A. Rs.546.3
B. Rs.444.2
C. Rs.435.2
D. Rs.394.2
E. Rs.420.2

121. If item B, Marked up by _________ % and given a discount of Rs. _______. The sum of selling price
and cost price of item B is ______.
I). 60%, Rs.120, Rs.504
II). 50%, Rs.81, Rs.494

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

III). 40%, Rs.51, Rs.489

Find which of the following is satisfy the blank?
A. only I and III
B. only II
C. only I and II
D. all three
E. none of these

122. If the ratio of the marked price to the selling price of item D is 11:8. The profit percentage is 25%. If
the discount amount is Rs. 60 and the marked price is the same, then find the profit percentage of item
D?
A. 44.258%
B. 40.625%
C. 51.325%
D. 72.324%
E. None of these

123. The cost price of item E is (x+75) and the profit percentage is 20%. The ratio of the cost price of
items E and F is 7:8 and the selling price of item F is 2x. Find the profit percentage of item F?
A. 28.125%
B. 21.25%
C. 24.32%
D. 29.325%
E. None of these

Answer with Detail Explanation

Directions (1-3):
1. Answer: D
For A
A. P2 – 25P + 144 = 0

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

(P – 16) (P – 9) = 0
P = 9, 16
I. At least one root of the same equation is a perfect square [follows]
II. Difference of root is not less than 7
Difference of roots = 16 – 9 = 7 (follows)
III. HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where Z and Y are the roots of same equation.
HCF of 16 and 9 is 1 (follows)
So, possible combinations are A – I, A – II, and A - III
For B
6Q2 – Q – 40 = 0
(3Q – 8) (2Q + 5) = 0
Q = 8/3, - 5/2
I. At least one root of the same equation is perfect square. [Not follows]
II. Difference of root is not less than 7.
Difference if roots = 8/3 + 5/2 = 31/6 (not follows)
III. HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where Z and Y are the roots of same equation.
HCF of (8/3, -5/2) = 1 [follows]
So, possible combination is B – III
For C
C. 2R2 + 3R – 135 = 0
(2R – 15) (R + 9) = 0
R = 15/2, - 9
I. At least one root of the same equation is perfect square. [Not Follows]
II. Difference of root is not less than 7
Required difference = 15/2 + 9 = 16.5 [follows]
III. HCF of |Z| and |Y| is not more than 1, where Z and Y are the roots of same equation. [Not follows]
HCF of (15/2, -9) = 3/1 = 3
So, possible combination is C – II
Hence answer is option D

2. Answer: C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Root of the given equation = 15/2 – 5/2 = 5

So,
15a + 60b = 52 + 43 x 5
(a + 4b) = 16
Possible value of a = 4, 8, and 12
Possible value of b = 3, 2, 1
Maximum sum = 12 + 1 = 13
Hence answer is option C

3. Answer: B
Smaller root of A = 9
Positive root of C = 15/2
Ratio of roots = 6:5
Required % change = 20%
Hence answer is option B

Directions (4-5):
Difference of roots = 7
Sum of roots = - (- 23) = 23
So, roots of equation P = 30/2, 16/2 = 15, 8
Value of Z = 15 x 8 = 120
Value of Y = 15 – 2 = 13
So, Q2 – 28Q + 132 = 0
(Q – 22) (Q – 6) =0
Q = 22, 6
Now, 36a2 – 60ab = - 25b2
(6a – 5b)2 = 0
So, a/b = 5/6

4. Answer: A
According to question

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Required difference = 120 – 22 = 98

Hence answer is option A

5. Answer: A
For M
Smaller root of II = 6
Smaller root of I = 8
Required percentage change = (8 – 6)/8 x 100 = 25%
For N
(a/b) = 5/6
Required percentage change = 1/5 x 100 = 20%
So, M > N
Hence answer is option A

6. Answer: D
Quantity I.
Put Z = 1
2 x (1)3 – 11 x (1)2 + 19 x 1 – 10 = 0
0=0
So, (Z – 1) is one of the factors of the equation.
(Z – 1) (2Z2 – 9Z + 10) = 0
(Z – 1) (2Z2 – 5Z – 4Z + 10) = 0
(Z – 1) (2Z – 5) (Z – 2) = 0
So, Z = 1, 2.5 and 2
Quantity II.
(Y +1)2 = 4
Y = 1, - 3
So, value of Z ≥ Y
Hence answer is option D

7. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

M = 15ZY/ (Z + Y)
ZY = M (Z + Y)/15……………. (1)
Also, we have
(Z2 – Y2) = 105ZY/M……………... (2)
Put equation (1) in equation (2), we get
(Z + Y) (Z – Y) = 105 x M x (Z + Y)/15M
(Z – Y) = 7
Z is a prime number > 7
Z = 11, 13…...
Minimum value of Z = 11, so value of Y = 4
If we increase the value of Z, value of Y will also increase,
So, minimum value of Z = 11 and minimum value of Y = 4
Quantity I. Required value = (Z – 1) = (11 – 1) = 10
Quantity II. Required value = 2.5 x 4 = 10
So, quantity I = Quantity II
Hence answer is option D

8. Answer: E

9. Answer: A
22Z+Y = 41.5Z ……………... (1)

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

22Z+Y = 23Z
2Z + Y = 3Z
Z=Y
Put this value in equation (2), we get
(2Z/Z)M = [(3Z – Z)/Z]N/2
2M = 2N/2
So, N = 2M
Quantity I. Find the value of (N/M)
Required value = 2M/M = 2
Quantity II. Find the value of (1.5Y/Z)
Required value = 1.5Y/Y = 1.5
So, Quantity I > Quantity II
Hence answer is option A

10. Answer: A
(I) (2x)2 – ( ∛64000 )x + 102 – 1 = 0
4x2 – 40x + 99 = 0
4x2 – 22x – 18x + 99 = 0
2x(2x – 11) – 9(2x – 11) = 0
(2x – 9)(2x - 11) = 0
x = 4.5 & 5.5
(II) (2y)2 – (4 × ∛64 )y + 42 – 1 = 0
4y2 – 16y + 15 = 0
4y2 – 10y – 6y + 15 = 0
2y(2y – 5) -3(2y – 5) = 0
(2y – 3)(2y – 5) = 0
y = 1.5 & 2.5
So, y is less than x
Hence answer is option A

11. Answer: B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Directions (12):
In equation I, substitute x=9/2
2*(9/2)²-(2-s)(9/2)-(2t+1)=0
81/2-9+9s/2-2t-1=0
9s-4t+61=0 →eq1
In equation II, substitute y=8/3
3*(8/3)²+s*(8/3)-2t=0
(64/3)+(8s/3)-2t=0
8s-6t+64=0 →eq2
On solving those two equations,
We get,

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

22s = -110
s=-5 and t=4
12. Answer: A
[2*(-5)/100]*640 + [720/(2*4)]=(a/100)*1900-12
-64+90=19a-12
19a=38
a=2

Directions (13-14):
P2 – 3P – (2Z + 5Y - 1) = 0, Where (- 4) and (K + 2) are the roots of equation, and Z and Y are natural
numbers such that Y > Z.
(- 4)2 – 3(-4) – (2Z + 5Y - 1) = 0
2Z + 5Y = 29
Value of Z = (29 – 5Y)/2
If Z = 2, Y = 5 (possible)
If Z = 7, Y = 3 (not possible)
So, possible value of Z = 2, and Y = 5
Now,
P2 – 3P – 28 = 0
Sum of roots = 3
So, another root of this equation = 3 + 4 = 7
So, value of (K + 2) = 7
Value of K = 5
L2-aL – (Q + 4)=0, where (K + 3) and M are the roots of equations and Q is a perfect square.
Now,
82-8a – (Q + 4) = 0
60 – 8a = Q
Q is perfect square.
If a = 3, Q = 36
If a = 7, Q = 4 (not possible) Q > a
So, a = 3, Q = 36

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Now,
L2 – 3L – 40 = 0
Sum of roots = 3
So, M = 3 – 8 = - 5
So, Z = 2, Y = 5, a = 3, Q = 36, M = - 5, K = 5
13. Answer: A
According to question,
Value of (2Y + M) = (2 x 5 – 5) = 5
Hence answer is option A

14. Answer: D
Required value = (3 x 5 + 2 x 2 + 4 x 3) = 31
Hence answer is option D

Directions (15-16):
Y2 – Ya + b = 0, have roots Z and 5
Product of roots (5 x Z) = b -------→ (1)
Y2 – (a + 1) Y + (b + 4) = 0, have roots (Z + 2) and 4
Product of roots [(Z + 2) x 4] = (b + 4) -----→ (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
(Z + 2) x 4 = 5 x Z + 4
4Z + 8 = 5Z + 4
Z=4
So, value of b = 5 x 4 = 20
15. Answer: C
Sum of roots of equation I = (Z + 5) = - (-a)
Value of a = 5 + 4 = 9
Hence, the answer is option C

16. Answer: D
Required value = (3 x 9 + 4 x 20) = 107

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Hence,the answer is option D

Directions (17-18):
From (i),
Given, (√2 x)2+ (√8)4+ (√8)0=[(3)3-(√2)4]x
2x2 + 65 = [27-4]x
2x2 – 23x + 65 = 0
2x2 – 13x – 10x + 65 = 0
x(2x – 13) -5(2x – 13) = 0
(x-5)(2x-13) = 0
x = 5 & 6.5
So, highest value of the z as the root of the equation = 5
From (ii),
Given, (2y-9)2= (2y-9)+2
4y2 + 81 – 36y = 2y – 7
4y2 - 38y + 88 = 0
2y2 – 19y + 44 = 0
2y2 – 11y – 8y + 44 = 0
y(2y – 11) - 4(2y – 11) = 0
(y – 4)(2y – 11) = 0
y = 4 & 5.5
So, second highest value of z as the root of the equation = 4
Now, third root = (80% of 5 + 50% of 4)/2 = 3
Thus, all the three roots of the equations are, 3, 4 & 5
Also, S = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60
Now, sum of roots = 3 + 4 + 5 = -Q/P
12 = -Q/P
Product of Roots Taken Two at a Time: (3)(4) + (4)(5) + (5)(3) = -R/P
47 = -R/P
And, Products of roots taken three at a time = (3)(4)(5) = -S/P
60 = -S/P

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

As, S = 60
So, P = -1 , Q = 12 & R = 47
17. Answer: C
Now, solution for 1)
(S – 15P) = 60 -15(-1) = 75
(R + Q + 9P) = 47 + 12 – 9 = 50
Required% = (75-50)/50 × 100 = 50%
Hence answer is option C

18. Answer: B
As, R – Q + S/3 + 5 = 47 – 12 + 60/3 + 5 = 60
And, 1.5(S) = 90
So, LCM of 60 & 90 is 180
As, S + 10P = 60 + 10(-1) = 50
And, R – 13 = 47 – 13 = 34
So, HCF of 50 & 34 is 2
Required Average = (180 + 2)/2 = 91
Hence answer is option B

Directions (19-20):
For eq. II =>b(-13/2)2 + 20(-13/2) - 208 = 0
• b=8
Now, 8𝑦2 + 20𝑦 - 208 = 0
4𝑦2 + 10𝑦 - 104 = 0
4𝑦2 + 26 𝑦 – 16 𝑦 – 104 = 0
2𝑦 (2 𝑦 + 13) – 8(2 𝑦 + 13) = 0
(2𝑦 – 8) (2 𝑦 + 13) = 0
𝑦 = 4, – 6.5
Given, the ratio of highest root of equation I to the highest root of equation II is 7:8
So, let the highest root of equation I = p
So, p/4 = 7/8

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

• p = 7/2 = 3.5
For eq. I => a (7/2)2 + 6(7/2) - 70 = 0
• a=4
Now, 4𝑥2 + 6𝑥 - 70 = 0
2𝑥2 + 3𝑥 - 35 = 0
2x2 + 10x – 7x – 35 = 0
2x (x + 5) – 7(x + 5) = 0
(2x – 7) (x + 5) = 0
x = 3.5, – 5
19. Answer: B
According to question,
Required Ratio = (-5)/ (-6.5) = 10: 13
Hence answer is option B

20. Answer: A
(ab + 3)x2 + (a + b + 1) + (3ab – 6) = 0
ab + 3 = 4 x 8 + 3 = 35 ; a + b + 1 = 13 ; 3ab – 6 = 90
So, 35x2 + 63x – 50x – 90 = 0
7x(5x + 9) – 10(5x + 9) = 0
(7x – 10)(5x + 9) = 0
x = 10/7 & -9/5
Hence answer is option A

Directions (21-22):
Series I.

Wrong number = 108

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Series II:
14 X 2 + 2 = 30
30 X 2 + 2 = 62
62 X 2 + 2 = 126
126 X 2 + 2 = 254
254 X 2 + 2 = 510
Wrong number = 64
21. Answer: A
According to question,
Value of P = 108
Value of Q = 64
Required value = 2 x 108 – 64 = 152
Hence answer is option A

22. Answer: C
Value of P = 113
Value of Q = 62
Statement A:
P = 113.
Since, 113 is a prime number.
So, statement A is true.
Statement B:
P + Q = 113 + 62 = 175
Since, 175 ÷ 5 = 35
So, statement B is true.
Statement C:
Q + 2 = 62 + 2 = 64
Since, 64 = 43
So, statement C is true.
Hence answer is option C.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

23. Answer: D
360 x 1/2 = 180
180 x 2/3 = 120
120 x 3/4 = 90
90 x 4/5 = 72
72 x 5/6 = 60
Wrong number = 75
I. Wrong number is exactly divisible by 30 [false]
II. Unit digit of Pp is 1, where P is the correct number replacing the wrong number in the series [False]
P = 72
Unit digit of 7272 = 6
III. When the wrong number is divided by 14, then the remainder is an even number. [False]
75/14 = 14 x 5 + 5
Required remainder = 5 (odd)
This statement is false.
Hence answer is option D

24. Answer: D
Logic in the series is:
2.5 * 4 – 5 = 5
5 * 4 – 5 = 15
15 * 4 – 5 = 55
55 * 4 – 5 = 215 (Not 225)
215 * 4 – 5 = 855
855 * 4 – 5 = 3415
Hence, A = 225 and B = 3415
B = 15A + 40 = 15 * 225 + 40 = 3415
B = 16A – 185 = 16 * 225 – 185 = 3415
45B = 683A = B = 683A/45 = 683 * 5 = 3415
Hence, all I, II, and III are TRUE.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

25. Answer: A
Logic in the series is:
Series I: 2 * 5 = 10
10 * 7 = 70
70 * 11 = 770
770 * 13 = 10010
10010 * 17 = 170170
X = 10
Series II:
10 * 5 = 50
50 * 7 = 350
350 * 11 = 3850
Difference between 3rd and 4th term of series II = 3850 – 350
= 3500

26. Answer: E
Logics in the series are:
Series I:
15 + 52 = 40
40 + 62 = 76
76 + 72 = 125
125 + 82 = 189 (Not 190)
189 + 92 = 270
A = 190
Series II:
18 * 2 – 1 = 35
35 * 2 – 1 = 69
69 * 2 – 1 = 137 (Not 139)
137 * 2 – 1 = 273
273 * 2 – 1 = 545
B = 139

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Hence,
A>B

27. Answer: C
Logics in the series are:
Series I:
100 + 23 = 123
123 + 29 = 152
152 + 31 = 183
183 + 37 = 220
220 + 41 = 261
Series II:
20 + 23 = 28
28 + 33 = 55
55 + 43 = 119
119 + 53 = 244
244 + 63 = 460
I: Missing term of series I is 220 which is not divisible by 13.
II: Missing term of series II is 55 which is divisible by 11.
III: Missing term of series I ÷ Missing term of series II = 220 ÷ 55 = 4
Hence, only II is TRUE.

28. Answer: B
Logic in the series is:

Wrong term = 40
Missing term = 20
Sum = 40 + 20 = 60

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

29. Answer: A
In the series: 4.5, P,Q, 71, 147
P is 2nd lowest multiple of 7, which is 14.
So, P = 14
Logic in the series:
4.5 * 2 + 5 = 14
14* 2 + 5 = 33(Q)
33 * 2 + 5 = 71
71 * 2 + 5 = 147
From A:
Obtained series is 4.5,14,33,71,147
6th term of the series = 147 * 2 + 5 = 299
Since, 299 is not a multiple of 7.
So, A is not true.
From B:
P = 14, Q = 33
Difference between P and Q = 33 – 14 = 19
So, B is true.
From C:
Q = 33
Since, 33 is not a prime number.
So, C is not true.
Hence, only B is true.

30. Answer: C
There are two different series in the given series.
Series I: 8, 16, Y, 192, 960
Logic in series I:
8 * 2 = 16
16 * 3 = 48(Y)
48 * 4 = 192

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

192 * 5 = 960
So, Y = 48
Series II: X, 36, 9, 3, 1.5
Logic in series II:
180/5 = 36
36/4 = 9
9/3 = 3
3/2 = 1.5
So, X = 180
From A:
Ratio of X to Y = X: Y = 180: 48 = 15: 4
So, A is true.
From B:
Value of (X – 2Y) = 180 – 2*48 = 84
So, B is true.
From C:
Difference between X and Y = 180 – 48 = 132.
So, C is true.
Hence, all are true.

Directions (31-34):
For Article A,
Ratio of cost price and marked price of article = 100:160 = 5:8
Discount % = Q%
Profit % = P%
Now,
5 x (100 + P) = 8 x (100 – Q)
8Q + 5P = 300………………... (1)
For Article D,
Ratio of Cost price and marked price = 100:150 = 2:3
Discount % = 3P%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Loss % = (P + Q – 5)%
Now,
2 x (100 – P – Q + 5) = 3 x (100 – 3P)
210 – 2P – 2Q = 300 – 9P
7P – 2Q = 90……………. (1)
On solving both we get, P = 20 and Q = 25

31. Answer: C
According to question,
For article C
Ratio of profit and discount = 4 x 25: 5 x 20 = 1:1
So, discount offered = profit earned
Marked price of article = 2 x CP = 2CP
So, 2CP – CP = 600 + 600
So, cost price = 1200
Required % profit = 600/1200 x 100 = 50%
Hence answer is option C

32. Answer: A
Selling price of A = 240 x 1.6 x .75 = 288
Profit earned on A = 288 – 240 = 48
Discount offered on D = 48/4 x 15 = 180
So, marked price of D = 180/60 x 100 = 300
So, value of Z = 300 x 2/3 = Rs. 200
Hence answer is option A

33. Answer: A

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Selling price of B = 400 x 1.35 = Rs. 540

Marked price of B = 540 + 60 = Rs. 600
Marked price of C = 600 x 1.5 = Rs. 900
Cost price of C = 900/2 = Rs. 450
Selling price of C = 900 x 70% - 130 = Rs. 500
Hence answer is option A

34. Answer: C
Cost price of B = 400
Selling price of D = 400 x 60% = 240
Cost price of E = 240 x 2 = 480
Selling price of E = 480 x 1.45 = 696
Selling price of A = 240 x 6/5 = 288
Required difference = 696 – 288 = Rs.408
Hence answer is option C

35. Answer: B
Marked up amount on article D = 10% of 900 = Rs.90
Marked up amount on article A = 2 * 90 = Rs.180
MP of article A = 1500 + 180 = Rs.1680
SP of article A = 1680 * (95/100) = Rs.1596
Profit percentage on article A = [(1596 – 1500)/1500] * 100 = 6.4%

36. Answer: E
MP of article D = 110% of 900 = Rs.990
MP of article E = 114% of 1000 = Rs.1140
So, MP of article C = (3 * 1170) – (990 + 1140) = Rs.1380
CP of article C = 1380 * (100/115) = Rs.1200
SP of article C = 1380 * (90/100) = Rs.1242
Profit amount received on article C = 1242 – 1200 = Rs.42

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

37. Answer: C
Let original discount percentage on MP of article E = ‘x’%
So,
1000 * (114/100) * [{(100 – x)/100} – (90/100)] = 57
114 * [100 – x – 90] = 570
10 – x = 5
x = 5%

38. Answer: D
CP of article D = Rs.900
So, CP of article B = 900 * (100/112.5) = Rs.800
Profit received on article B = 800 * (120/100) * (85/100) – 800 = Rs.16
From previous question:
CP of article E = Rs.1000
MP of article E = 114% of 1000 = Rs.1140
SP of article E = 1140 * (95/100) = Rs.1083
Profit received on article E = 1083 – 1000 = Rs.83
Required difference = 83 – 16 = Rs.67

39. Answer: A
Marked up amount of article D = 10% of 900 = Rs.90
So, loss occurred on article D = 90 + 18 = Rs.108
SP of article D = 900 – 108 = Rs.792
MP of article D = 900 + 90 = Rs.990
Discount percentage on marked price of article D = [(990 – 792)/990] * 100 = 20%
Discount percentage on marked price of article B = 15%
Required ratio = 15: 20 = 3: 4

Directions (40-43):
Given,
Investment ratio of A:B = 6:7 and B:C =7:8

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

A: B: C= 42:49:56 =6:7:8

We know that investment of A is 12000

So, B = 14000 and C = 16000
To find R, we know that A got Rs.5280 as a compound interest
A invested Rs.12000 and compound interest is Rs.5280
So, 12000[1+R/100]2-1=5280
[1+R/100]2= (5280/12000 +1 =17280/12000)
[1+R/100]2 = (36/25 or (6/5)2)
So, R/100=6/5 – 1 = 1/5
R=20.
To find M&T, we know that B got Rs.12600 as simple interest.
And we know that interest ratio of A:B = 2:3
We know that interest rate A is R, R = 20. So M = 30
So, 14000*30*T/100 = 12600
T=3.
To find N, we know that the interest rate of C average of A and B together.
So, (R+M)/2 = (20+30)/2 = 50/2 = 25

40. Answer: C
[9600+I]*[30/2]*[3+1]/100 = 9000
[9600+I] *15*4 = 9000*100
[9600+I] = 3000*5 or 15000
I= 15000-9600=5400

41. Answer: D
So, E’s invest amount is = [12000+14000]/2=13000

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Compound interest of E is
= 13000*[1+25/100]2-13000=Rs.7312.5
Compound interest of C is
= 16000*[1+25/100]2-16000 = 9000
So, the difference is [9000-7312.5]=Rs.1687.5

42. Answer: B
We know the interest earned by B is 12600
So, the total interest earned by B
= [12600*50/100]*[1+20/100]3-[12600*50/100]+[12600*50/100]*30*2/100
= [6300*[1+20/100]3-6300+6300*30*2/100=4586.4+3780=Rs.8366.4

43. Answer: A
[12000+4600]*20*3/100=Rs.9960true
[12000+4500] *20*3/100= Rs.9900 false
[12000+4250] *20*3/100= Rs.9750 false
So, option A is true.

Directions (44-47):
25% of CP of (P + Q) = 475
So, cost price of (P + Q) = 1900………. (1)
Cost price of (P + Q + R) = 475 + 2425 = 2900………… (2)
From (1) and (2)
Cost price of R = 2900 – 1900 = 1000
So, cost price of S = 1000 x 120% = 1200
Cost price of (Q + S) = 2 x 1350 = 2700
So, cost price of Q = 2700 – 1200 = 1500
So, cost price of P = 1900 – 1500 = 400
Marked price of S = 1200 x 1.5 = 1800
Discount % on S = 30%
So, selling price of S = 1800 x 70% = 1260

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Now,
1/4 x (1260) = 13M + 6N
13M + 6N = 315
N = (315 – 13M)/6
M must be an odd number, because every multiple of 6 is an even number.
First discount given on P is (M – 5) %, so M must be more than 5.
If M = 7, N = 224/6 [non integral]
If M = 9, N = 198/6 = 33 [Possible]
There is no common multiple between 13 and 6 so the next multiple which is divisible by 6 is (198 – 13 x
6).
If M = 15, N = 120/6 = 20 [Possible]
If M = 21, N = 42/6 =7 [Possible]
No other value of M and N is not possible.
Marked price of P = 400 x 200% = 800
Marked price of Q = 1500 x 1.6 = 2400
Marked price of R= 1000 x 250% = 2500
If M = 9, N = 33
So, Selling price of P = 800 x 0.96 x 0.62 = 476.16 (not possible)
If M = 15, N = 20
Selling price of P = 800 x 90% x 75% = 540 [possible]
If M = 21, N = 7
Selling price of P = 800 x 84% x 88% = 591.36 (not possible)
Now we can find all the data

44. Answer: B
According to question,
For Z
Marked price of article P = 800
Selling price after single discount of (8M/3) % = 800 x [100 – (8 x 15)/3] % = 480

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Cost price of P = 400

Required profit % = (480 – 400) / 400 x 100 = 20%
For Y
Marked price of article R = 2500
Selling price after single discount of 2.5N % = 1000 x (100 – 2.5 x 20) % = 1250
Cost price of R = 1000
Required profit % = (1250 – 1000) / 1000 x 100 = 25%
So, Z < Y
Hence answer is option B

45. Answer: D
For article T
Article is marked up by (6 x 15 – 10) % and sold after discount of N% (20).
So, selling price of article = cost price x 1.8 x 0.8 = cost price x 1.44
So, profit % earned = 44%
Value of K = 44
Now, article is marked up by Rs. 400 more than previous mark up and sold after discount of 40%, then
profit is 20% (44 – 24).
Now,
CP x 1.2 = 60% x (CP x 1.8 + 400)
12% x CP = 240
Value of CP = 240/12 x 100 = Rs. 2000
Marked price of article S = 1800
Required difference = 2000 – 1800 = 200
Hence answer is option D

46. Answer: A
Required amount = 5 x 540 + 2 x 1920 = Rs. 6540
Hence answer is option A

47. Answer: B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Selling price of R and S together = 1700 + 1260 = 2960

Marked price of P and Q together = 800 + 2400 = 3200
Required % change = (3200 – 2960)/3200 x 100 = 7.5%
Hence answer is option B

Directions (48-50):
(P x Z) / (1.2P x Z + 1.2P x 1.25 x (12 – Z) = 10/27
Z/ (18 – 0.3Z) = 10/27
27Z = 180 – 3Z
30Z = 180
48. Answer: D
Now according to question
Value of Z = 6
Therefore (87Z + 99)= 87*6 + 99= 621
Hence answer is option D

49. Answer: B
Total profit and A and B together = Rs. 14200
Difference between profit share of A and B = [(51 – 20) / (51 + 20)] x 14200 = Rs. 6200
Hence answer is option B

50. Answer: C
Let total profit = 101a
So, investment of C = 5a
Profit share of A, B, and C respectively = (6 x P): (1.2P x 9 + 1.5P x 3): (5a x 6)
Now,
5a/ (6P + 15.3P + 30a) = 5/101
71a = 21.3P
Value of a = 0.3P
So, ratio of profit = 6: 15.3: 9
Total profit = [14200 / (21.3)] x (21.3 + 9) = RS. 20200

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Hence answer is option C

Directions (51-53):
Ratio of milk and water in vessel P = 2:1
Ratio of milk and water in vessel Q = 3:2
% of milk in vessel R = 100%
Now,
When Z ml from P, Y ml from Q and 20 ml milk from R poured into another empty vessel, then ratio of
milk and water = 2:1
Now,
(2/3 x Z + 3/5 x Y + 20) = 2 x (1/3 x Z + 2/5 x Y)
3Y/5 + 20 = 2Y/5
Y/5 = 20
Value of Y = 100
Now,
Amount of water in new mixture = 1/3 x Z + 2/5 x 100 = (Z/3 + 40) ml = (L + 40)
Total Mixture = (100 + Z +20) = (120 + 3L)
Now on removal of L% from mixture and then added same amount of element A, that ratio of water and
A = 4:3, respectively.
Now,
(L + 40) x (100 – L) % / (120 + 3L) x L% = 4/3
(100 – L)/L = 4
Value of L = 20
So, value of Z = 3 x 20 = 60
Now we can calculate all data
51. Answer: B
According to question,
Amount of mixture taken from vessel P = 60 ml
Ratio of milk and water in vessel P = 2:1
Required amount of milk = 2/3 x 60 = 40 ml
Hence answer is option B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

52. Answer: C
Required value = (100 + 3 x 20) = 160
Hence answer is option C

53. Answer: D
Ratio of milk and water in vessel S = 60:100 = 3:5
Ratio of milk and water in Q = 3:2
Now,
37.5% 60%
50%
10% 12.5%
So, M: N = 10:12.5 = 4:5
So, required ratio = 5:4
Hence answer is option D

Directions (54-58):
For P
Let the cost price of article = 100a
Article is marked up by 50%, so its marked price = 100a x 150% = 150a
Selling price of article after first discount = 100a x 120% = 120a
Now,
(100 – Z) = 120a/150a x 100
So, value of Z = 20
Total discount offered = Rs. 336
Now,
150a – 150a x 80% x 90% = 336
42a = 336
So, value of a = 336/42 = 8
So, cost price of article = 8 x 100 = Rs. 800
Marked price of article = 800 x 1.5 = Rs. 1200

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Selling price of article = 1200 x 80% x 90% = Rs. 864

For Q
Let the cost price of article = 4b
Difference between cost price and marked price = 40Z = 40 x 20 = Rs. 800
So, marked price of article = 4b + 800
Total discount offered = 800 x 75% = Rs. 600
Selling price of article = 5b x (1 – 1/15) = 14b/3
Now,
14b/3 + 600 = 4b + 800
2b/3 = 200
Value of b = 300
So, cost price of article = 300 x 4 = 1200
Marked price of article = 1200 + 800 = Rs. 2000
Selling price of article after first discount = 5 x 300 = 1500
So, (L – 5) = (2000 – 1500)/2000 x 100 = 25
Value of L = 25 + 5 = 30
For R
Total discount offered is Rs. 308 which is Rs. 8 more than that of article R.
Let cost price of article = c
So, marked price of article = 2 x c = 2c
Selling price after first discount = 175% x c = 7c/4
Total discount offered = Rs. 300
Ratio of marked price and selling price after first discount = 2c:7c/4 = 8:7
So, value of Y% = (8 – 7)/8 x 100 = 12.5%
So, selling price after second discount = 7c/4 x 5/7 = 5c/4
Total discount offered = 2c – 5c/4 = 3c/4
So, 3c/4 = 300
Value of c = Rs. 400
For article S
Let cost price of article = Rs. d
Marked price of article = (d + 600)

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Selling price after first discount = 1.52 x d = 1.52d

Selling price after second discount = 1.52d x (100 – 12.5 x 1.2)/100 = 1.292d
Now,
(d + 600) – 1.292d = 308
0.292d = 292
So, value of d = 1000
So, marked price of article = 1000 + 600 = 1600
Selling price after first discount = 1.52 x 1000 = 1520
So, value of K = (1600 – 1520)/1600 x 100 = 5%

54. Answer: B
According to question,
Value of Z = 20
Value of Y = 12.5
Required % change = (20 – 12.5)/12.5 x 100 = 60%
Hence answer is option B

55. Answer: A
% Profit earned on article Q = (1400 – 1200)/1200 x 100 = (50/3) %
% Profit earned on article S = (1292 – 1000)/1000 x 100 = 29.2%
Required value = 15 x 29.2 x 50/3 x 1/100 = 73
Hence answer is option A

56. Answer: D
Article R
Selling price of article = Rs. 500
Discount % given = (10 x 5)/3 = 50/3%

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

So, new marked price of article = 500 x 6/5 = Rs. 600

Mark up % = 7 x 12.5% = 87.5%
So, new cost price of article = 8/15 x 600 = Rs. 320
Hence answer is option D

57. Answer: E
Value of C = 1600 – 1200 = 400
Value of D = 2000 – 800 = 1200
Required difference = 1200 – 400 = 800
Hence answer is option E

58. Answer: C
Cost price of (R + S) = 400 + 1000 = 1400
Cost price of (P + Q) = 800 + 1200 = 2000
Required % change = (2000 – 1400)/2000 x 100 = 30%
Hence answer is option C

Directions (59-62):
Ratio of speed of boat Q in still water to that of speed of stream for boat Q = 4:1
Speed of boat Q in still water = N km/h
Speed of stream for boat Q = N/4 km/h
Now,
30 = 5 x (N – N/4)
Value of N = 8 km/h
Speed of stream for boat Q = 8/4 = 2 km/h
Time taken by boat R to travel given upstream and downstream distance is same = K hours
Speed of stream for boat R = 2 x 2 = 4 km/h
Now,
200/(M + 4) = 120 / (M – 4)
3M + 12 = 5M – 20
2M = 32

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Value of M = 16
So, speed of boat in still water for boat P = 16 – 1 = 15 km/h
Downstream distance travelled by boat P = Y km
Upstream distance travelled by boat P = (Z + Y) km
Now,
(Z + Y) / (15 - 5) + Y / (15 + 5) = 10
2Z + 3Y = 200………………. (1)
Also, time taken by boat Q to travel (Y + 20) km downstream = T hours
So, (Y + 20)/10 = T……………… (2)
Speed of boat in still water for boat S = 1.5 x 8 = 12 km/h
Time taken by boat S to travel 4.5Z upstream distance = (T + 14) hours
So, 4.5Z/ 9 = (T + 14)……………. (3)
From (2) and (3), we get
4.5Z/9 – (Y + 20)/10 = 14
5Z – Y = 160………………... (4)
From (1) and (4), we get
17Z = 200 + 480
17Z = 680
Value of Z = 40
So, value of Y = 40
Value of T = (40 + 20) / 10 = 6
Value of L = 6 x (12 + 3) = 90 km
59. Answer: B
According to question,
Upstream distance travelled by boat Q in (T + 2) hours = (6 + 2) x (8 – 2) = 48 km
Hence answer is option B

60. Answer: C
Value of Z = Y = 40
So, Z = Y
Hence answer is option C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

61. Answer: A
Time taken by boat P to travel given downstream distance = 40 / 20 = 2 hours
Time taken by boat Q to travel given downstream distance =60/10= 6 hours
Required difference = 6 – 2 = 4 hours
Hence answer is option A

62. Answer: D
Value of L = 90
Value of M = 16
Value of N = 8
So, only I and III are true
Hence answer is option D

Directions (63-67):
Z2 + 4Y2 = 4ZY
(Z2 + 4Y2 – 4ZY) = 0
(Z – 2Y)2 = 0
That means, Z = 2Y
So number of male employees in Q = Z = 2Y
Number of Female employees in Q = Y
Total number of employees in Q = 2Y + Y = 3Y
Total number of employees in R = 200
Difference between number of male and female employees in R = 80
So, number of male employees in R = (200 + 80)/2 = 140
Number of Female employees in R = 200 – 140 = 60
Number of male employees in S = 200 – 8 = 192
Number of female employees in S = Y + 28
Total number of employees in S = 192 + Y + 28 =220 + Y
Total number of employees in (Q + S) = 2 x 150 = 300
Now,

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

3Y + 220 + Y = 300
Value of Y = 20
Value of Z = 40

63. Answer: C
According to question,
Number of Female employees in company P = 1.5 x 48 = 72
So, number of male employees in company P = 120 – 72 = 48
Number of Male employees in Q = 40
Value of N = 48/40 x 100 = 120
Hence answer is option c

64. Answer: B
Number of female employees in company P = 192/24 x 7 = 56
Number of male employees in company P = 120 – 56 = 64
Value of N = 64/40 = 160
Total number of employees in company T = 3 x 160 = 480
Number of male employees in company T = 2 x 60 = 120
So, number of female employees in company T = 480 – 120 = 360
Hence answer is option b

65. Answer: D
Value of A = 240 – 200 = 40
Value of B = 20
Value of 1.2B = 1.2 x 20 = 24
Required % change = (40 -24)/24 x 100 = 66.66%
Hence answer is option D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

66. Answer: A
For company S,
Ratio of male and female employees = 192:48 = 4:1
Now,
2A x 4 + (2A + 40000) x 1 = 5 x 28000
Value of A = 10000
Hence answer is option A

67. Answer: E
Total number of employees in all companies together = 120 + 60 + 200+ 240 = 620
Number of male employees in P = 150% x 40 = 60
So, number of female employees in P = 120 – 60 = 60
Total number of female employees in all companies together = 60 + 20 + 60 + 48 = 188
Required % = 188/620 x 100 = 30% (approx.)
Hence answer is option E

Directions (68-72):
First, we have to calculate the value of variables.
6M + 11Z = 75
M = (75 – 11Z)/6
Z should be odd, because 75 is also odd.
If Z = 1, M = 64/6 [Not possible]
If Z = 3, M = 42/6 = 7 [Possible]
If Z = 5, M = 20/6 [Not possible]
So, M = 7, Z = 3
Also,
N7 = N3
Possible value of N = 0, 1
If N = 0
Number of vacant seats in R1 of bus B1 = (M + N – 8) = 7 + 0 – 8 = - 1

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Not possible, so value of N = 1

Number of vacant seats in R1 of Bus B1 = (7 + 1 – 8) = 0
So, number of passengers in R1 of Bus B1 = 16
Number of total seats in B2 = [2M + Z – 3N] = 2 x 7 + 3 – 3 x 1 = 14
Number of passengers in R2 of bus B1 and B2 = 3:2 [3a and 2a]
Let number of passengers in R1 of B2 = b
So, Total passengers in (R1 + R2) of B1 = 16 + 3a
Total passengers in (R1 + R2) of B2 = 2a + b
Now,
16 + 3a = 2 x (2a + b)
16 – a = 2b
Value of b = (16 – a)/2
Value of a must be even,
If a = 2
Value of b = (16 – 2)/2 = 7
Then, number of passengers in R3 of B2 = 7 x 2 = 14 [not possible, because no seats are full in any of
the three rounds of B2]
If a = 4
Value of b = (16 – 4)/2 = 6
Then number of passengers in R3 of B2 = 2 x 6 = 12 [possible]
If a = 6, then number of passengers in R2 of B1 = 3a = 3 x 6 = 18 [not possible.
So, number of passengers in R3 of B1 = 38 – 16 – 12 = 10
Now, we are able to calculate all data.

68. Answer: C
Revenue generated by bus B1 for return journey = 60% x [16 x 80 + 12 x 60 + 10 x 120] = Rs. 1920
Hence answer is option C

69. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

For bus B2,

Number of female passengers = 6 x 1/2 + 8 x 3/4 + 12 x 2/3 = 17
Hence answer is option D

70. Answer: C
Number of passengers in R1 of B2 = 6
Number of passengers in R3 of B1 = 10
Required sum = 6 + 10 = 16
Hence answer is option C

71. Answer: A
Number of vacant seats in B2 = 42 – 6 – 8 – 12 = 16
Number of passengers in R2 of B1 = 12
Required % change = (16 – 12)/12 x 100 = 33.33%
Hence answer is option A

72. Answer: B
Total number of passengers = 64
Hence answer is option B

Directions (73-77):
X = 75 + 30 – 80 + 5 * 2 – 15 = 20
Y = 60 – 230 + 142 + 22 + 36 = 30

73. Answer: C
Difference between the blue ball and black ball in bucket E = 10 * 160/100 = 16
In E, the blue ball is more than the black ball.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Total number of the black and blue balls in E = 260 * 60/100 = 156
So, the Number of Blue balls = [156 + 16]/2 = 86
Required percentage = [86/260] * 100 = 33.07% = 33% (approx.)

74. Answer: D
Number red ball in O = 400 * 60/100 = 240
Total number of blue and black balls = 400 – 240 = 160
Difference of number blue and black balls is 20 whereas the number of blue balls is more.
Number of black balls in O = [160 - 20]/2 = 70
Number of blue balls in J = 70
Number of black balls in J = 70 + 10 = 80
Number of red balls = 250 – 150 = 100
So, the required difference = 240 – 100 = 140

75. Answer: B
Number of red balls in bucket T = 200 * 30/100 = 60
Number of black balls = 4 * 20 = 80
Number of blue balls in bucket T = 200 – 80 – 60 = 60
Required difference = 60 – 60 = 0

76. Answer: E
Number of red balls in bucket E = 260 * 40/100 = 104
Number of red balls in bucket N = [104 + 16] = 120
Total number of black and blue balls in N = 120/40 * 60 = 180
Difference between blue and black balls is 20.
But which color of the ball is more we don’t know?
So, it cannot be determined.

77. Answer: A
Number red ball in O = 400 * 60/100 = 240
Total number of blue and black balls = 400 – 240 = 160

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Difference between the number of blue and black balls is 20 whereas the number of blue balls is more.
Number of black balls in O = [160 – 20]/2 = 70
Number of blue balls in O = 160 – 70 = 90
Number of balls in bucket M = 24 + 7 + 9 = 40
Required probability = 9C1 * 24C1/40C2 = 216/780 = 54/195

Directions (78-82):
(LCM + HCF) of P and Q = 205
LCM = 40 x HCF
So, LCM = 200, and HCF = 5
Let two numbers are = 5a and 5b
Now,
5a x 5b = 200 x 5
So, a x b = 40
Possible values of (a, b) = (1, 40) and (5, 8)
So, possible values of (P, Q) = (5, 200) and (25, 40)
Also, known that P + R = 90
So, P < 90
In panel D, 20% of total applicants are rejected, that means 80% of total applicants are selected.
If P = 5
Then, 80% of total applicants in D = (5 + 8)
So, total applicants in D = 13 x 5/4 (not possible)
So, this is for sure P is even number.
So, value of P = 40, then Q = 25
Value of R = 90 – 40 =50
Now, we can find all the possible data

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

78. Answer: C
For panel C,
Total number of applicants = 150
Number of applicants rejected = 75
Required % = 75/150 x 100 = 50%
Hence answer is option C
79. Answer: D
For panel B,
Total number of applicants rejected = 48
Let number of interviews in group of three and five students respectively = a and b
Now,
3a + 5b = 48
Value of a = 16 – 5b/3
So, b should be a multiple of 3
If b = 3, a = 11
If b = 6, a = 6
If b = 9, a = 1
So, possible sums are = 14 and 12
So, only I and III is possible.
Hence answer is option D

80. Answer: E
I). Number of applicants rejected in A and B are same
Number of applicants rejected in A = Number of applicants rejected in B = 48
This statement is true.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

II). Number of applicants selected from panel C is highest among all given panels.
Number of applicants selected from panel C = 75 [highest]
This statement is true.
III). Total applicants in panel D is half as that in panel A.
Total applicants in panel D = 60
Total applicants in panel A = 120
This statement is true.
Hence the answer is option E

81. Answer: A
M = 32 + 55 = 87
N = 48 + 12 = 60
Required difference = 87 – 60 = 27
Hence answer is option A

82. Answer: B
Required average = 510/5 = 102
Hence answer is option B

Directions (83-87):
Number of ZX models sold in showroom C = 300.
So, the total number of cars sold in showroom C = [300/30] * 100 = 1000
Total number of cars sold in all showrooms together = [1000/20] * 100 = 5000
So, the number of cars sold in showrooms A = 5000 * 18/100 = 900
In B = 5000 * 22/100 = 1100, in D =5000 * 25/100 = 1250, In E = 5000 * 15/100 = 750

83. Answer: C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

In showroom A:
Number of ZX model cars sold = 900 * 40/100 = 360
Number of LX model cars sold = 360 * 60/100 = 216
Number of VX model cars sold = 900 – 360 – 216 = 324
Number of VX model diesel cars sold = 324 * 1/3 = 108

84. Answer: D
Number of ZX model cars sold in showroom A = 900 * 40/100 = 360
Number of LX model cars sold in showroom B = 360 * 150/100 = 540
Number of VX model cars sold in showroom B = 540 * 2/3 = 360
Number of ZX model cars sold in showroom B = 1100 – 540 – 360 = 200
Number of ZX model cars sold in showroom B that do not have automatic features = 200 * 45/100 = 90
85. Answer: B
Total ZX model car sold in D = 1250 * 20/100 = 250
Total LX model car sold in D = 1000 * 1/4 = 250
Total VX model car sold in D = 1250 – 500 = 750
Total number of insurances provided by UII in LX and VX model cars = 250 * 1/5 +750 * 2/6 = 300
Total number of insurances provided by NIA in LX and VX model cars = 250 * 2/5 + 750 * 1/6 = 225
So, UII provides insurance on ZX model car = 400 – 300 = 100
NIA provides insurance on ZX model car = 300 – 225 = 75
OIC provides insurance on ZX model car = 250 – 175 = 75

86. Answer: A
VX model car sold in showroom C = [1000 - 300] * 4/7 = 400
So, the required difference = 400 – 300 = 100

87. Answer: A
Total ZX model cars sold in D = 1250 * 20/100 = 250
Total LX model cars sold in D = 1000 * 1/4 = 250
Number of VX model cars sold in E = 250 * 1/2 = 125
So, the number of ZX model cars sold in E = 750 – 250 – 125 = 375

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Required percentage = [375/250] * 100 = 150%

88. Answer: C
Since, the SI received by E from scheme Q at 12.5% rate after 3 years is Rs. 3000.
So, the amount invested by E in scheme Q:
(3000 ×100)/(12.5 ×3) = Rs. 8000
Since, the total amount invested by E in both the schemes together = 16000 + 8000 = Rs. 24000
So, the total amount invested by C in both the schemes together:
24000 × 30/20 = Rs. 36000
And the amount invested by C in scheme P = 36000 – 21000 = Rs. 15000
Now, the required difference:
(21000 ×5 ×3)/100 - (15000 ×8 ×2)/100 = 3150 – 2400 = Rs. 750

89. Answer: A
Let the total amount invested by B and D in both the schemes together are Rs. 15x and Rs. 12.5x
respectively.
So, the amount invested by D in scheme P = Rs. (12.5x – 5000)
So,
120
(12.5x + 6600) = 15x ×
100
12.5x + 6600 = 18x
x = 1200

Now, the amount invested by B in scheme Q = (15 * 1200) – 8000 = Rs.10000

And the amount invested by D in scheme P = (12.5 * 1200) – 5000 = Rs.10000
The SI received by B from scheme Q at 12% rate after 2 years:
(10000 × 12 × 2)/100 = Rs. 2400
The SI received by D from scheme P at 8% rate after 3 years:
(10000 × 8 × 3)/100 = Rs. 2400
Required ratio = 2400:2400 = 1:1

90. Answer: B
Since, the average of the amount invested by A, B and E in scheme P is Rs. 13000.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

So, the amount invested by A in scheme P = (3 * 13000) – (8000 + 16000) = Rs. 15000
Let the amount invested by A in scheme Q be Rs. x.
So,

x = 12000
Since, the total amount invested by A in both the schemes together = 15000 + 12000 = ₹ 27000
So, the total amount invested by C in both the schemes together:

The total amount invested by D in both the schemes together:

The total amount invested by E in both the schemes together:

Required average = (36000 + 15000 + 24000)/3 = Rs. 25000

91. Answer: D
From P:
The total amount invested by B in both the schemes together:
8000 + 10000 = Rs. 18000
The total amount invested by D in both the schemes together:
10000 + 5000 = Rs. 15000
Required difference = 18000 – 15000 = Rs.3000
So, P is true.
From Q:
The amount invested by A in scheme Q = Rs. 12000
The amount invested by C in scheme Q = Rs. 21000
Required percentage = (21000 -12000)/12000 ×100 = 75%
So, Q is not true.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

From R:
The total amount invested by B and E in scheme P = 8000 + 16000 = Rs. 24000
The total amount invested by B and E in scheme Q = 10000 + 8000 = Rs. 18000
Required ratio = 24000:18000 = 4:3
So, R is not true.
Hence, only P is true.

Directions (92-95):
Number of DI questions made by Arun in April = 800 x 1/2 = 400
Now,
2Z + 10 = 400/800 x 100
2Z = 40%
Z = 20%
Total number of questions made by Arun in March (DI + AM) = (20 + 5) % x 1200 = 300
Difference between number of DI and Arithmetic questions made by Arun in March = 20
So,number of DI questions made by Arun in March = (300 + 20)/2 = 160
Number of arithmetic questions made by Arun in March = 160 – 20 = 140
Total number of questions made by Arun in April = 400 + 80 = 480
So, value of Y = 480/1200 x 100 = 40%
So, value of M = 100 – 25 – 40 – 20 = 15%
Value of N = 160/800 x 100 = 20%
So, value of K = 100 – 50 – 20 – 5 = 25%
Now we can calculate all data.

92. Answer: B
According to question,
For June,

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Let number of set A = 2a

So, number of set B = 1.5 x 2a = 3a
Let number of set C = b
Now,
5 x 2a + 3 x 3a + 6 x b = 200
Value of b = (200 – 19a)/6
(200 – 19a) must be even (divisible by 6).
Minimum possible value of a = 2, so value of b = (200 – 19 x 2)/6 = 162/6 = 27
Value of b(P) = 27
Next possible value for a = 8, so value of b = (200 – 19 x 8)/6
So, value of b (Q) = 48/6 = 8
Required difference = 27 – 8 = 19
Hence answer is option B

93. Answer: C
Number of arithmetic questions in June = 40
Total number of questions in March = 300
Required % = 40/300 x 100 = 13.33%
Hence answer is option C

94. Answer: E
Value of P = 140
Value of Q = 140
So, P = Q.
Hence answer of option E

95. Answer: A
Total earnings of Arun in month of June = 200 x 180 + 40 x 120 = Rs. 40800
Hence answer is option A

Directions (96-99):

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Difference between number of cars manufactured by company P and Q (Q > P) is same as that of cars
manufactured by company R.
Y = Z – 25…………………… (1)
Also,
100 = 25 + Z + M + Y
Y = 75 – (Z + M) ………………… (2)
Form (1) and (2), we get
75 – (Z + M) = Z – 25
100 = 2Z + M
It is given that Z = 2M
So,
100 = 2 x 2M + M
Value of M = 100/5 = 20%
So, value of Z = 2 x 20% = 40%
Value of Y = 40 – 25 = 15%
Now,
(20 – 15) % x total number of cars manufactured by company = 60
So, total number of cars manufactured by all companies = 60/5 x 100 = 1200
so, 60% x (total number of vehicles manufactured by company) = 1200
so, total number of vehicles manufactured by company = 1200/60 x 100 = 2000
Number of buses manufactured by company = 2000 – 1200 = 800

96. Answer: E
According to question,
Total number ofbuses manufactured by all companies together = 800
Hence answer is option E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

97. Answer: D
Total number of vehicles manufactured by company Q = 800
So, number of buses manufactured by Q = 800 – 480 = 320
So, total number of buses manufactured by (P + R + S) = 800 – 320 = 480
Required average = 480/3 = 160
Hence answer is option D
98. Answer: A
Number of vehicles manufactured by company T = 3 x 240 = 720
Number of buses manufactured by company T = 25% x 720 = 180
Number of unsold buses of company T = 20% x 180 = 36
Hence answer is option A

99. Answer: D
Value of A = 40 – 25 = 15%
Value of B = 20 – 15 = 5%
A: B = 15:5 = 3:1
Hence answer is option D

Directions (100-104):
Number of toys manufactured by M1 on (Monday + Tuesday) = 2 x 105 = 210
Number of toys manufactured by M2 on Tuesday = 90
So, number of toys manufactured by M2 on Monday = 210 – 90 = 120
Similarly, we can find the manufacturing data for all machines

Number of DF toys manufactured by all machines on Monday = 110

So, number of ND toys manufactured by all machines together on Monday = (120 + 150 + 80 + 40) –
110 = 280
Now,

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

5M + 3L + 100 + 5M + 2L + 2M – 14 = 280
12M + 5L = 194
L = (194 – 12M)/5
(194 – 12M) is an even number, so even multiple of 5 contains zero as unit digit, so unit digit of 12M is
4,
Value of M = 2, 7, 12, 17….
If M = 2, L = 34
So, number of ND toys manufactured by M4 = 2(34 + 2) – 14 = 58 (Not possible, because total toys
manufactured by M4 is 40)
If M = 7, L = 22
Number of ND toys manufactured by M4 = 2 x (27 + 7) – 14 = 44 (not possible)
If M = 12, L = 10
Number of ND toys manufactured by M4 = 2 x (10 + 12) – 14 = 30 (possible)
No further values of M and N is possible.
Now we can find all the related data on Monday
P is multiple of 50, and K is half of P, so K is multiple of 25
First possible value of P = 50 (possible)
If P = 100, then number of ND toys manufactured by M4 is 100, which is not possible because total toys
manufactured by M4 on Tuesday is 60,
So, K = 50/2 = 25
Now we can find all the related data on Tuesday.

100. Answer: C
According to question,
Total revenue = 365 x 20 + 85 x 20 x (75/100) = Rs. 8575
Hence answer is option C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

101. Answer: B
Defective toys manufactured by M2 on Tuesday = 20
Defective toys manufactured by M4 on Monday = 10
Required difference = 20 – 10 = 10
Hence answer is option B

102. Answer: D
Non – defective toys manufactured by M3 on Monday = 60
Non – defective toys manufactured by M3 on Tuesday = 160
Required percentage = 60/160 x 100 = 37.5%
Hence answer is option D

103. Answer: E
I. DF manufactured by M1 on Monday is twice as that on Tuesday.
DF manufactured by M1 on Monday = 30
DF manufactured by M1 on Tuesday = 15
This statement is true.
II. ND toys manufactured by M2 on Tuesday is 80
ND toys manufactured by M2 on Tuesday = 80
This statement is true
III. DF toys manufactured on both the days by M4 is same
DF toys manufactured by M4 on both the days = 10
This statement is true.
So, all given statements are true
Hence answer is option E

104. Answer: C
Required sum = 280 + 365 = 645
Hence answer is option C

105. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall B = Rs.260

So, discount on article R in mall B = 15(5/13) % of 260 = Rs.40
And discount on article R in mall A = 40 + 30 = Rs.70
Sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall A = Rs.320
So, sum of discounts on article P and article Q in mall A = 320 – 70 = Rs.250
Let discount on article P in mall A = ‘x’ rupees
So, discount on article Q in mall A = 150% of ‘x’ = ‘1.5x’ rupees
So, x + 1.5x = 250
x = 100
Discount on article Q in mall A = 1.5 * 100 = Rs.150
Required difference = 150 – 70 = Rs.80

106. Answer: B
Ratio between discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall C is respectively = 100: 125: (100/4)
= 4: 5: 1
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall C = Rs.300
So, discount on article Q in mall C = 300 * 5/ (4 + 5 + 1) = Rs.150
And discount on article P in mall E = 150 – 60 = Rs.90
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall E = Rs.280
So, sum of discounts on article Q and article R in mall E = 280 – 90 = 190
Since, in mall E, discount on article Q is Rs.110 more than that on article R.
So, discount on article Q in mall E = (190 + 110)/2 = Rs.150
Required percentage = [(150 – 90)/90] * 100 = 66.67%

107. Answer: A
Ratio between discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall C is respectively = 100: 125: (100/4)
= 4: 5: 1
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall C = Rs.300
So, difference between discounts on article Q and article R in mall C = 300 * (5 – 1)/ (4 + 5 + 1) =
Rs.120
And difference between discounts on article Q and article R in mall D = Rs.120

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Let discount on article P in mall D = ‘100y’ rupees

So, discount on article Q in mall D = 180% of ‘100y’ = ‘180y’ rupees
And discount on article R in mall D = (180y – 120) rupees
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall D = Rs.340
So, 100y + 180y + (180y – 120) = 340
y=1
Discount on article Q in mall D = 180 * 1 = Rs.180
Discount on article R in mall D = 180 – 120 = Rs.60
Required ratio = 180: 60 = 3: 1

108. Answer: A
From statement I alone:
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall E = Rs.280
So, discount on article Q in mall B = 280/2 = Rs.140
And discount on article R in mall B = 140 – 100 = Rs.40
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall B = Rs.260
So, discount on article P in mall B = 260 – 140 – 40 = Rs.80
Required difference = 80 – 40 = Rs.40
So, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II alone:
Difference between discounts on article P and article Q in mall B is Rs.60.
Since, we don’t know whether discount on article P is Rs.60 more than that on article Q or discount on
article Q is Rs.60 more than that on article P.
So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

109. Answer: C
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall C = Rs.300
So, discount on article Q in mall D = 54% of 300 = Rs.162
Since, in mall D, discount on article Q is 80% more than that on article P.
So, discount on article P in mall D = 162 * (100/180) = Rs.90
Since, sum of discounts on article P, article Q and article R in mall D = Rs.340

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

So, discount on article R in mall D = 340 – 162 – 90 = Rs.88

Required difference = 162 – 88 = Rs.74

Directions (110-114):
Total number of employees in all companies together = 2500
HCF of (n, n + 1) = 1
So, Z = L + 1.
From the table we have ratio of male and females
Number of managers in P = 20% of total employees in P
So, 20% of total employees in P = 120
Total employees in P = 120 x 5 = 600
25% of total employees in Q = 50
So, total employees in Q = 50 x 4 = 200
Number of managers in S is 6.25% less than that of R
Number of managers in S = 150
So, number of managers in R = 16/15 x 150 = 160
Total number of employees in R = 160/40 x 100 = 400
Total number of employees in S = 150/30 x 100 = 500
So, number of employees in T = 2500 – 400 – 500 – 600 – 200 = 800
Number of males in P = [1/ (1 + L)] x 600
Number of males in T = [(L + 1) / (L + 1 + 5)] x 800
Now,
3/2 x [1/ (1 + L)] x 600 = [(L + 1) / (L + 6)] x 800
9(L + 6) = 8 x (L + 1)2
8L2 + 7L – 46 = 0
8L2 + 23L – 16L – 46 = 0
(8L + 23) (L – 2) = 0
So possible value of L = 2
Now we can find all the data

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

110. Answer: C
Difference between Males in T and females in P = 400 – 300 = 100
Hence answer is option C

111. Answer: B
For company T,
Number of female employees = 500
Number of females, other than manager = 500 x 80% = 400
So, number of males, other than managers = 640 – 400 = 240
Required difference = 400 – 240 = 160
Hence answer is option B

112. Answer: B
I. Male employees in company Q is half as that in company R
Male employees in company Q = 120
Male employees in company R = 240
Required ratio = 120:240 = 1:2
This statement is true.
II. Difference between male and female employees in company P and T is same.
Difference between male and female employees in company P = 400 – 200 = 200
Difference between male and female employees in company T = 500 – 300 = 200
This statement is true
III. Difference between total employees in S and T is 400.
Required difference = 800 – 500 = 300
This statement is not true

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Only I and II is true.

Hence answer is option B

113. Answer: A
Total number of employees in company T = 800
Hence answer is option A

114. Answer: D
For company S
By concept of allegations,
17000_____________16000___________12000
4000 1000
Ratio of male and female managers = 4:1
Number of female managers = 1/5 x 150 = 30
Number of non – manager females = 100 – 30 = 70
Hence answer is option D

115. Answer: D
In company Q,
Number of exclusive sports bags manufactured by the company = 60
Number of mid–range sports bag manufactured by the company = 75
So, total number of sports bags manufactured by the company = 60 + 75 = 135
So, total number of formal bags manufactured by the company = 135/15 x 85 = 765
So, number of exclusive formal bags manufactured by the company = 425 – 60 = 365
So, number of mid–range formal bags manufactured by the company = 765 – 365 = 400
Required % change = (400 – 75)/75 x 100 = 433.33%More
Hence answer is option D

116. Answer: B
In company P
Number of sports bags manufactured = 25% of total bags

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Number of formal bags manufactured = 75% of total bags

Now,
(75% - 25%) x total bags = 300
So, total bags manufactured by the company = 300/50 x 100 = 600
Number of sports bags manufactured by the company = 25% x 600 = 150
So, number of mid–range sports bags manufactured by the company = 150 – 90 = 60
Hence answer is option B

117. Answer: C
In company T,
Number of mid–range bags manufactured = 1/4 x 100% = 25%
Number of exclusive bags manufactured = 100% - 25% = 75%
Number of sports bags manufactured = 20%
So, number of formal bags manufactured = 80%
Number of mid–range formal bags manufactured = 1/4 x 80% = 20%
So, number of exclusive formal bags manufactured = 80% - 20% = 60%
Number of sports exclusive bags manufactured = 75% - 60% = 15%
Now,
15% of total bags manufactured = 120
So, total bags manufactured = 120/15 x 100 = 800
So, number of formal bags manufactured = 80% x 800 = 640
Hence answer is option C

118. Answer: E
In company R,
Number of formal bags manufactured by the company = 350
So, total number of bags manufactured by the company = 350/70 x 100 = 500
Number of sports bags manufactured by the company = 30% x 500 = 150
Number of exclusive sports bags manufactured by the company = 100
So, number of mid–range sports bags manufactured by the company = 150 – 100 = 50
Hence answer is option E

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119. Answer: A
In company S,
Number of exclusive sports bags manufactured by company = 192
So, number of mid–range sports bags manufactured by company = 192/2 = 96
So, total number of sports bags manufactured by company = 96 + 192 = 288
So, total number of bags manufactured by the company = 288/40 x 100 = 720
Hence answer is option A

Directions (120-123):
Let the total selling price of all items is 100x.
The selling price of item C is 12x.
So, the cost price is 12x*100/120=10x
Marked price is 12x+48 = 10x*160/100
Or, 16x-12x=48, x=48/4=12
So, the total selling price of all items is 12*100=1200

120. Answer: C
The cost price of item A is = 216*100/120=Rs.180
Marked price is = 180*150/100=270, so, d=270-216=54
So, the cost price of item F is 7*54=378
So, the selling price of item F is 378*140/100-94=Rs.435.2

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121. Answer: D
For I,
So, marked price = 264+120=384
So, cost price = 504-264=240
So, marked percentage = [(384-240)/240]*100=60%
So, it satisfies
Similarly, we check others' values also and all are satisfied.

122. Answer: B
The marked price of item D is = 240*11/8=330
So, cost price is = 240*100/125=192
Now the selling price is = 330-60=270
So, profit percentage = [270-192]*100/192=40.625%

123. Answer: A
The cost price of item E is = 336*100/120=280,
So, x=280-75=205
The cost price of item F is = 280*8/7=320
The selling price of item F is = 205*2=410
So, profit percentage = [410-320]*100/320=28.125%

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Reasoning Ability
Input - Output
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Five triangles numbered 1 to 5 are inscribed in a pentagon box. Each triangle has a letter and value
(positive integers). The value for each triangle is the difference between the first five two digit composite
numbers and the square value of the first five odd prime numbers respectively, then the resultant values
are arranged in ascending order from triangles 1 to 5 respectively. The letter for each triangle is the
corresponding letter of the sum of the digits of the resultant value of each triangle, then the resultant
letters are arranged in alphabetical order from triangles 1 to 5 respectively.
Conditions:
I). If the triangle has a vowel letter, then the letter is replaced by the immediate
preceding letter of its reverse alphabet according to alphabetical series.
II). If the triangle has an odd value, then the value is replaced by its square value of
the sum of the digits.
III). If the triangle has a consonant letter, then the letter is replaced by its third
succeeding letter of its reverse alphabet according to alphabetical series.
IV). If the triangle has an even value, then the value is subtracted from its immediate
preceding prime number.
1. What is the square value of the difference between the highest and the second highest value from
the final output?
A. 49
B. 324
C. 361
D. 289
E. None of these

2. What is the final output of triangle 4?

A. 3V
B. 64W
C. 16Z
D. 81Q

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E. 1Y
3. If all the letters are written together without any gap in the same order of triangle 1 to 5 in the final
output, then how many such pairs of letters are there in the word each of which has as many letters
between them as there in the English alphabetical series (both forward and backward directions)?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Three
E. None

4. What is the corresponding letter (as per the alphabetical order) of the difference between the place
value(as per the alphabetical order) of the letters which are obtained from triangle 2 and triangle 5 in the
final output?
A. H
B. I
C. D
D. J
E. F

5. If all the letters are obtained in the final output arranged in alphabetical order starting from triangle 1
in the final output, then the position of which of the following letter will remain unchanged?
A. Z
B. V
C. Q
D. Y
E. W

Directions (6-10): A string of numbers is given as input. The further steps given are obtained by
applying certain logic. Each step is a result of the previous step only. Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below it.

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Input:
Step I- 18712 24286 16323 10408 35300 28540
Step II- 109 22 87 121 011 145
Step III- 436 66 348 484 44 580
Step IV- 22 12 35 36 08 05
Step V- 10 09 128 219 512 125
Step VI- 7.6 6 86.3 148 346.3 84.3
Step VI is the last step of the above input.
Input: 389 234 378 159 648 225 392
6. What is the position of the first odd number from the left end with respect to the number which is
second from the right end of step IV?
A. Third to the left
B. Fourth to the left
C. Third to the right
D. Either (a) or (b)
E. None of these

7. Which among the following combination is the last step of the given input?
A. 3.2 15.6 3.8 20.6 12 45
B. 20.6 7.6 1.5 19 326.5 143.2
C. 20.6 84.3 147.3 1.3 494.3 146.6
D. 5.6 31.6 19 8 6.6 449.3 143.2
E. None of these

8. Which of the following step is correctly representing step IV?

A. 05 26 16 20 29 14
B. 13 14 15 20 16 29
C. 25 13 12 06 18 22
D. 13 05 26 20 29 16

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E. None of these
9. Find the sum of the first element from the left end and the second element from the right end in step
V of the given input.
A. 624
B. 759
C. 842
D. 486
E. None of these

10. What is the difference between the number which is second from the left end in Step II and fifth from
the right end in Step III?
A. 208
B. 136
C. 126
D. 106
E. None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers, it performs some mathematical
operations in each step.
Input: 69542 56832 47963 85214 49753
Step I: 9521 6828 7931 5249 9739
Step II: 915 668 729 552 967
Step III: 2591 046 8172 095 4996
Step IV: 17 10 18 14 28
Step V: 0343 0512 064 2744
Step V is the final step of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find appropriate steps for the given input
Input: 34568 43215 68321 57314 73196
11. What is the difference between the output of “34568” in step III and the output of “57314” in step II?
A. 557

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B. 2230
C. 1718
D. 1818
E. 2523

12. What is the sum of all the odd digits (in each number) in step V?
A. 41
B. 35
C. 37
D. 43
E. 33

13. The final output of “12167” is obtained from which of the following two inputs?
A. 34568 and 43215
B. 68321 and 57314
C. 43215 and 68321
D. 57314 and 73196
E. None of these

14. If all the digits are added within the number in step IV, then find the product of the highest and the
lowest numbers thus formed.
A. 9
B. 8
C. 15
D. 54
E. 30

15. How many even numbers are obtained in the first three steps?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Six

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D. Four
E. Five

Computer Aptitude
Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Below questions consist of numbers in three rows. Results from each row can be obtained by applying
certain rules given below. Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
I).If an odd number is followed by a composite number, then the sum of the unit digits is taken.
II). If an even number is followed by a perfect square number, then the product of the digits of the even
number is taken.
III). If an even number is followed by a perfect cube, then multiply the unit digit of the even number by
the cube root of the perfect cube.
IV). If both the numbers are odd, then add the numbers.
V). If more than one condition is applied, then only one condition is applied as per the order.
VI). If no conditions are applied, then the sum of the squares of the unit digits is taken.
16. What is the sum of the digits of the resultant of all three rows?
12 25 8
33 48 23
13 56 97
A. 13
B. 14
C. 18
D. 19
E. None of these

17. What is the product of the digital sum of the resultant of all three rows?
11 34 53
32 21 76
9 17 46
A. 232
B. 234

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C. 123
D. 165
E. None of these

18. If the sum of the result of all the three rows is 31, then what is the value of X?
46 10 49
23 47 27
33 X 23
A. 14
B. 16
C. 17
D. 19
E. 11

19. What is the sum of the resultant of all three rows?

20 36 53
19 18 43
25 38 40
A. 63
B. 72
C. 75
D. 68

20. What is half of the sum of the resultants of all three rows?
44 67 35
28 64 8
31 46 79
A. 58
B. 44
C. 54
D. 53

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E. None of these

Directions (21-25): In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant
number in each row is to be workout separately based on the following rules and the question below the
rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules:
I). If a perfect square number is followed by an odd number, then both numbers are to be added.
II). If an even number is followed by a prime number, then the unit digit of the first number is to be
multiplied by the unit digit of the second number.
III). If an odd number is followed by an even number, then the first number is subtracted from the
second number (ignore negativity).
IV). If an even number is followed by an even number, then both numbers are to be added.
V). If an odd number is followed by an odd number, then the unit digits of both numbers are to be
added.
21. What will be the sum of the resultant of both rows?
18 23 48
25 62 29
A. 76
B. 56
C. 88
D. 64
E. 70

22. What is the value of Y + 2X, where X and Y is the resultant of row 1 and 2 respectively?
16 33 21 = X
11 39 64 = Y
A. 200
B. 243
C. 198
D. 214
E. 302

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23. What will be the value of X/Y?

24 29 44 = X
19 30 13= Y
A. 20
B. 23
C. 45
D. 36

24. What will be the difference between the resultant of both rows?
49 27 14
69 35 54
A. 24
B. 22
C. 38
D. 42
E. 63

25. Find the value of X+Y?

14 19 73=X
37 17 40=Y
A. 160
B. 337
C. 248
D. 174
E. 163

Direction
Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A@B means A is north of B
A%B means A is south of B
A$B means A is east of B

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A#B means A is west of B

A?B means the distance between point A and B is either 6m or 9m
A&B means the distance between point A and B is either 8m or 13m
A*BC means A is the exact midpoint of B and C
Note:
A@#B means A is north-west of B
A@?B means A is either 6m or 9m to the north of B.
AB>CD means the distance between A and B is more than the distance between C and D.
AB=CD means the distance between A and B is equal to the distance between C and D.
Statement:
P #?Q; T @& S; V %? U; R @&Q; T #& U; R $?S; W $& V; V %$ R; TS=VW; SR > PQ; TU > RQ
26. If X*PQ and R$Y@X, then what is the shortest distance between points S and Y?
A. 7m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D. 11m
E. 10m

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the directions of the points in the given
arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. PR
B. SU
C. QV
D. PW
E. TV

28. Which of the following statement is sufficient to find the distance between point Q and Z?
Statement 1: Z%W; Z$Q
Statement 2: Z@Q; R#Y
A. Either Statement 1 alone or Statement 2 alone is sufficient
B. Both statement 1 and statement 2 together are sufficient

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C. Only Statement 1 is sufficient

D. Only Statement 2 is sufficient
E. Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is sufficient

29. What is the direction of point T with respect to point P?

A. Southwest
B. Southeast
C. Northeast
D. Northwest
E. None of these

30. If point M is 8m to the north of point R, then what is the shortest distance between point U and M?
A. 4m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 7m
E. 9m

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
“A % B (37)” means “A is 22m north of B”
“A # B (18)” means “A is 26m east of B”
“A @ B (25)” means “A is 13m south of B”
“A & B (48)” means “A is 25m west of B”
If “A %# B” means “A is northeast of B”
Statement:
U%V (33); Q#R (8); S@Q (36); P@R (24); W#V (9); Q&V (44); T&U (50); Y@W (31).
31. If X&T (33) then what is the direction and shortest distance of X with respect to R?
A. South, 18m
B. North, 18m
C. South, 16m
D. North, 16m

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E. None of these

32. What is the direction of T with respect to S?

A. T%S
B. T@&S
C. T%&S
D. S@&T
E. S%#T

33. Four of the following five pairs of points are alike in a certain way based on the directions in the
given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. QP
B. VS
C. UV
D. TR
E. WS

34. If Z%&S and the distance between Q and Z is 10m less than the distance between Q and V in the
final arrangement, then what is the shortest distance between Z and P?
A. 12m
B. 11m
C. 9m
D. 13m
E. 14m

35. If K@#T and K@U, then what is the direction of K with respect to V?
A. East
B. North
C. West
D. South
E. Either b or d

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Inequality
Directions (36-40): In the given questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements followed by some conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
A#B means B is neither greater than nor equal to A
A$B means B is neither smaller than nor equal to A
A%B means B is neither greater than nor less than A
A&B means B is not greater than A
A@B means B is not smaller than A
36. Statements:
Q@W$E%R&T;U&E@I%O$P;H#O@G%L#A
Conclusions:
I). H $ T
II). R @ L
III). Q $ P
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
D. Only conclusion III is true
E. Both conclusions II and III are true

37. Statements:
A@B&C%D$E;G%F$D#H$I;L$H&J&K%M
Conclusions:
I). K @ B
II). L $ G
III). E # M
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
D. Only conclusion III is true
E. None is true

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38. Statements:
K@L%J&H#G;A&S%Y$D@F;E#L$T%Y@O
Conclusions:
I). F & K
II). H $ A
III). J # O
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
D. Only conclusion III is true
E. Both conclusions II and III are true

39. Statements:
Z $ X % K & O # V; S & H % K $ L @ C; A # S @ D # F $ G
Conclusions:
I). X $ G
II). A # V
III). K & G
A. Only conclusion I is true
B. Only conclusion II is true
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
D. Either conclusion I or III is true
E. Both b and d are true

40. Statements:
P@L@M%N&B;S@W#A%E@R;A%V$N#C$X
Conclusions:
I). P @ R
II). W # C
III). E $ X

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A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Both conclusions I and II are true
C. None is true
D. Only conclusion II is true
E. Both conclusions I and III are true

Directions (41-45): Below questions consists of some statements in three columns. Study the following
information carefully and answer the question.
41. Which of the following combination gives “L > G” is definitely true and “M < K” is definitely false?

A. Both CPZ and BRY

B. Only ARY
C. Only CQX
D. Both AQZ and CPZ
E. None of these

42. Which of the following combination gives “U < F” is definitely true and “G ≥ D” is false?

A. Only ARY
B. Only CQX
C. Both CPZ and BRY
D. Both AQZ and CPZ
E. None of these

43. Which of the following combination gives “G > L” is definitely false?

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A. Only BQ
B. Only CQ
C. Both CP and BR
D. Both AR and CP
E. None of these

44. Which of the following combination gives “T > U” is definitely true?

A. Only AR
B. Only CQ
C. Both CP and BR
D. Both AR and CP
E. None of these

45. Which of the following combination gives “R > M” is definitely false?

A. Only AR
B. Only CQ
C. Both CP and BR
D. Both AR and CP
E. None of these

Directions (46-48): Each question below consists of two columns and three conclusions in each column.
You have to decide which of the following combinations are true with respect to the given statements.

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The conclusions given below in column 1 can be used along with the conclusions given below in column
2. No conclusion in the same column is combined together.
46. Which of the following conclusions is/are true for the given statements?
D < F = G ≥ W; F < P = K; I < J ≥ K

A. Only conclusions I and VI are true

B. Only conclusions III and VI are true
C. Only conclusions III and IV are true
D. Only conclusions II and V are true
E. Only conclusions II and IV are true

47. Which of the following conclusions is/are true for the given statements?
A < D = C > B < M; L > U > D; K = C > J > P

A. Only conclusions I and IV are true

B. Only conclusions II and V are true
C. Only conclusions III and V are true
D. Only conclusions III and VI are true
E. None is true

48. Which of the following conclusions is/are true for the given statements?
N < J ≥ R > T; M = J > K; C > M ≤ Q

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A. Only conclusions II and IV are true

B. Only conclusions I and VI are true
C. Only conclusions III and VI are true
D. Only conclusions I and IV are true
E. Only conclusions II and V are true

Step based Series

Directions (49-50): In the given questions, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships
between elements as follows
A#B means A is not greater than B
A@B means A is not less than B
A*B means A is neither greater than nor less than B.
A%B means A is less than B
A&B means A is greater than B
49. Which of the following statement(s) is/are sufficient to make the conclusions L&W definitely true?
Statement 1: K%L*P@U
Statement 2: I%P&Y@T
Statement 3: G%T@J*W
A Both I and II together are sufficient
B. Both I and III together are sufficient
C. Both II and III together are sufficient
D. All the statements together are sufficient
E. None of the statements is sufficient

50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are sufficient to make the conclusions T%M definitely true?
Statement 1: T#Y*U%O&C
Statement 2: Q@W*R%T

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Statement 3: K@O#Z%M
A. Both I and II together are sufficient
B. Both I and III together are sufficient
C. Both II and III together are sufficient
D. All the statements together are sufficient
E. None of the statements is sufficient

Directions (51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the following given questions.
KSNYRWPQGKLZX
Step 1: The odd numbers upto 9 in the number series are placed one by one after every two letters in
descending order from right to left.
Step 2: The following vowels A, E, I, O, U are placed in the middle of every two consonants in the same
order (except the consonants which are immediately followed by numbers) from left to right and the
symbols @, #, $, % and & are placed to the immediate left of vowels one by one in the same order.
Step 3: The even numbers up to 8 are placed in the middle of every two letters from right to left in
ascending order. Then, the first fifteen elements from the left end are arranged in reverse order.
Note: Step 1 is followed by step 2 and step 2 is followed by step 3.
Step-3 is the last and final step and the outcome in this step is the final series. As per the steps given
above, find out the final alphanumeric series and answer the following question given below.
51. If a vowel and symbol are placed adjacent to each other, then the position of both vowel and symbol
are interchanged and the vowel is changed to the unit digit of the square of its place value as per the
alphabetical series, then how many symbols are there each of which is immediately followed by a
number which is less than 5?
A. Three
B. Two
C. More than three
D. One
E. None

52. Which of the following is the seventh number to the right of the thirteenth element from the left end?
A. 6

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B. 7
C. 9
D. 2
E. None of these

53. If the even positioned elements from the right end interchanged their positions (such that the second
and fourth elements are interchanged, in the same way, sixth and eighth elements are interchanged
and so on.), then which of the following will be the fourth symbol to the right of the third alphabet from
the left end?
A. #
B. %
C. $
D. @
E. &

54. If the number is immediately preceded and immediately followed by a consonant, then one is
subtracted from that number, then what is the difference between the sum of all even numbers and the
sum of all odd numbers in the series?
A. 26
B. 24
C. 30
D. 20
E. None of these

55. How many elements are there which are immediately preceded by a number and immediately
followed by a number?
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Seven
E. None of these

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Alphanumeric
Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
749128453197513657314982752649
Note: 0 is neither an even digit nor an odd digit
Step 1: One is added to every fourth digit from the left end and two is subtracted from the digits in the
prime numbered positions from the left end in the given series.
Step 2: After completing step 1, the odd numbers which are either immediately followed by an odd digit
or immediately preceded by an even digit but not both are to be written in descending order after the
last digit from the left in the series.
Step 3: After completing step 2, the digits which are continuously repeated for more than two times are
dropped from the series.
Step 4: After completing step 3, the first 12 digits from the left end are arranged in ascending order from
the left end followed by the remaining digits are arranged in descending order.
Step 4 is the last and final step and the outcome in this step is the final series.
56. In which of the following step the product of the digits which is fourth from the left end and third from
the right end is Minimum?
A. Step 2
B. Step 4
C. Step 1
D. Step 3
E. Both a and d

57. If all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right in step 2, then what is the
difference between the digits which are fifth from the right end and seventh from the left end?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
E. 2
58. If one is subtracted from all the odd digits and one is added to all the even digits in the last step,
then which of the following digits appear more than thrice?

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A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. Both b and c
E. All a, b and c

59. In which of the following step the gap between the first “3” from the right end and first “3” from the
left end is Minimum?
I). Step 1
II). Step 3
III). Step 4
A. Only II
B. Only I and II
C. Only III
D. Only II and III
E. All I, II and III

60. In step 1, how many such 2’s are each of which is immediately preceded as well as immediately
followed by an odd digit?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
E. Five

Directions (61-65): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
Step 1: Take the alphabet from the alphabetical series which has the place value as the prime number
and write it down in the reverse alphabetical order from the left end (Excluding the vowels). Then write
down all the vowels in alphabetical order from the right end.
Step 2: After completing step-2, the following symbols “#, @, ©, $, &, %”, are placed (in the same order)
after every two elements from the left end, in the series thus formed after step I.

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Step 3: After completing step 2, take the consecutive two digits odd numbers up to 27 and add the digits
within the number till it becomes a single digit, then place the resultant number one by one in the same
order from the left end immediately after the letters which have the place value as the odd number
except the letters that come before G as per the alphabetical series, in the series thus formed after step
II.
Step 4. After completing step 3, the letters that come before N in the alphabetical series are changed to
the second previous letter and the letters that come after N in the alphabetical series are changed to
immediate succeeding letters in the series thus formed after step III.(Consider Z as the immediate
previous letter of A and so on)
Step IV is the final step and answer the below questions according to the final step.
61. If the first 14 elements are reversed, then how many such letters are there in the series each of
which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None

62. If all the letters which are immediately preceded by a symbol are dropped, then which of the
following element is sixth to the right of the fifth element from the left end?
A. 8
B. E
C. 3
D. @
E. None of these

63. What is the sum of the numbers which are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately
followed by a symbol?
A. 32
B. 22
C. 18

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D. 25
E. 19

64. If all the symbols are dropped and all the numbers are arranged in ascending order from the left end
then which of the following element will be 16th from the right end?
A. U
B. 8
C. 7
D. Q
E. None of these

65. If 2 is related to % and 4 is related to 9 in a certain way, then which of the following is related to 8?
A. @
B. 6
C. 8
D. 5
E. None of these

Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
S5@TH3#2A%R$Q6?M^B&D76*P9=V4βLα8X
Step 1: Two is subtracted from the numbers each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not
immediately followed by another number.
Step 2: All such letters each of which is either immediately succeeded by a symbol or immediately
preceded by a number but not both are replaced by the corresponding complementary pair as per the
English alphabetical series.
Step 3: All such symbols each of which is immediately succeeded by a consonant are interchanging
their position with respect to the element immediately before it.
Note: Step 1 is followed by step 2 and step 2 is followed by step 3.
66. If the positions of the second odd number from the left end and the second consonant from the right
end in the final step are interchanged and then the alphabets which are immediately followed by a

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symbol is dropped, then which of the following statement is true with respect to “^” in the final
arrangement?
A. It is 6th to the left of the =
B. $ is 5th to the right of ^
C. It is 7th to the left of the 8th element from the right end
D. It is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a number
E. All the statements are true

67. What is the difference between the place values (as per the alphabetical series) of the letters which
is the second vowel from the left end and the third consonant from the right end in step 2?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 18
D. 5
E. 7

68. What is the position of the first symbol towards the left of R in Step 1?
A. Fifth from R
B. Second from R
C. Fourth from R
D. Immediate left of R
E. Third from R

69. If every alternate element starting from @ in step 3 is dropped, then which of the following element
is exactly in the middle of the third consonant from the left end and the second symbol from the right
end?
A. 6
B. 7
C. Y
D. N
E. Q

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70. If every letter in step 2 is replaced by the succeeding letter (as per English alphabetical series), then
how many such symbols are in the series each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not
immediately followed by a vowel?
A. Three
B. Five
C. Four
D. One
E. Two

Syllogism
Directions (71-75): Below questions consist of some conclusions followed by some statements. Study
the following information carefully and decide which of the statement is correct for the given conclusion.
71. Conclusions:
Some Men are not Teacher.
No Singer is a Teacher.
Some Artists are not Men is a possibility
Statements:
I). Only a few Men are Singers. Some singers are Actors. No Actor is a teacher. Some Teachers are
Artists.
II). Only a few Men are Singer. All singers are Actors. Some Actors are Teachers. No Teacher is an
Artist
III). Only a few Men are Singers. All Singers are Actors. No Actor is a Teacher. Some Teachers are
Artists.
A. Both statements I and III follow
B. Only statement II follows
C. Both statements II and III follow
D. Only statement III follows
E. None follows

72. Conclusions:

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No White being Black is a possibility.

Some Green is not White is a possibility.
Some Blue is not Green.
Statements:
I). Some Red is Blue. No Blue is White. Only a few Blue is Black. All green is Black.
II). Some Red is Blue. Only a few Blue is Black. No Blue is White. Some Green is Black.
III). Only a few Blue is Black. Some Red is Blue. Some Green is Red. No Blue is white.
A. Both statements I and II follow
B. Both statements I and III follow
C. Both statements II and III follow
D. Only statement I follows
E. Only statement III follows

73. Conclusions:
Some Tea is not Drink.
All soup can never be Coffee.
All Drinks can be Tea.
Statements:
I). Only a few Soups are Tea. Some Coffee is Tea. No Coffee is a Drink. No Coffee is a Soup.
II). Some Coffee is Tea. No Coffee is a Soup. Only a few Soups are Drink.
III). Only a few Soups are Tea. All Drinks are soup. No Drink is a Coffee. Some Coffee is Tea.
A. Only statement III follows
B. Both statements I and II follow
C. Only statement I follows
D. Both statements II and III follow
E. Both statements I and III follow

74. Conclusions:
No Cat is Man is a possibility.
Some Monkey is definitely not Rat.
All Dogs can never be Cats.

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Statements:
I). Some Cats are Rats. Only a few Dogs are Rats. Some Cats are Monkey. No Man is a Monkey.
II). Only a few Dogs are Rats. No cat is a Rat. All Cats are Monkey. Some Monkeys are Man.
III). No Man is a Monkey. Some Monkeys are Cat. Only a few cats are Rats. Some Rats are Dogs.
A. Only statement III follows
B. Both statements I and II follow
C. Only statement II follows
D. Both statements II and III follow
E. Both statements I and III follow

75. Statements:
Some One can be Five.
Some Five is definitely not Nine.
All Seven being one is a possibility.
Statements:
I). All One is Ten. Only a few Ten are Five. Some Five are Seven. No Seven is Nine.
II). Only a few Five are Nine. No Nine is One. Some One is Ten. All Ten are Seven.
III). Some One is Seven. No Seven is Ten. All Ten are Nine. Only a few Five is Nine.
A. Only statement III follows
B. Both statements I and II follow
C. Both statements I and III follow
D. Only statement I follows
E. All statements I, II and III follow

Directions (76-80): Below questions consist of some statements followed by some conclusions. Study
the following information carefully and decide which of the following conclusion logically follows.
“A@B” means “Some A are B”.
“A%B” means “All B are A”.
“A&B” means “Only a few A are B”.
“A+B” means “No A are B”.
“A#B” means “Only B are A”.

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“A$B” means “Some A are not B”.

“A*@B” means “Some A are B is a possibility”.
“A^@B” means “Some A are B is not a possibility”.
76. Statements: Iraq % Russia & Israel, Mexico + Israel, Cuba @ Mexico
Conclusions:
I. Iraq $ Israel
II. Cuba $ Israel
III. Mexico ^@ Iraq
A. Only II follows
B. Both I and II follow
C. All I, II, and III follow
D. Only III follows
E. None follows

77. Statements: Tomato % Capsicum, Tomato % Guava @ Onion, Potato + Onion

Conclusions:
I.Capsicum ^@ Potato
II.Guava $ Onion
III. Potato *% Guava
A. Only I follows
B. Both I and II follow
C. All I, II, and III follow
D. Only III follows
E. None follows

78. Statements: Carbon & Nitrogen & Oxygen, Energy % Oxygen, Energy + Mineral, Graphite %
Carbon.
Conclusions:
I. Graphite $ Nitrogen
II. Mineral *% Oxygen
III. Nitrogen $ Mineral

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A. Only II follows
B. Both I and III follow
C. All I, II, and III follow
D. Only III follows
E. None follows

79. Statements: Rose @ Tulip & Lotus, Lilly + Daisy % Lotus, Orchid % Rose
Conclusions:
I. Orchid *$ Lotus
II. Lotus @ Lilly
III. Daisy ^@ Rose
A. Only I follows
B. Both I and II follow
C. All I, II, and III follow
D. Only III follows
E. None follows

80. Statements: Coal & Oil, Crude & Energy, Crude % Oil, Mineral + Energy @ Fertilizer
Conclusions:
I. Fertilizer $ Oil
II. Coal ^@ Mineral
III. Crude $ Coal
A. Only I follows
B. Both II and III follow
C. All I, II, and III follow
D. Only II follows
E. None follows

Directions (81-83): In each question, three conclusions have been given followed by 5 sets of possible
statements. You have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with

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the commonly known facts and then decide that the conclusions logically follow for which of the given
statements.
81. Conclusions:
All Hero can be Honda.
Some Royal Enfield can be Yamaha.
All Royal Enfield can never be Hero.
Statements:
A. Only a few Honda is Yamaha; All Hero is Royal Enfield; All Royal Enfield is Honda
B. Only a few Royal Enfield is Yamaha; Some Yamaha is Hero; No Yamaha is Honda
C. Only a few Royal Enfield is Hero; Some Hero is Yamaha; All Yamaha is Honda
D. Only a few Honda is Hero; Some Hero is Yamaha; All Yamaha is Royal Enfield
E. All the statements are true

82. Conclusions:
Some Suzuki is KTM.
Some Suzuki is not TVS.
Some TVS is Suzuki.
Statements:
A. Only a few KTM is TVS; Some TVS is Suzuki; No Suzuki is Bajaj
B. Only a few Bajaj is KTM; All KTM is TVS; All TVS is Suzuki
C. Only a few Suzuki is TVS; Some TVS is KTM; No KTM is Bajaj
D. Only a few Bajaj is TVS; All TVS is KTM; All Bajaj is Suzuki
E. All the statements are true

83. Conclusions:
No Samsung is Xiaomi.
Some Nokia is Apple.
Some Samsung is not Apple.
Statements:
A. Only a few Apple is Samsung; Some Samsung is Nokia; Some Nokia is Xiaomi
B. Only a few Samsung is Apple; All Samsung is Nokia; No Nokia is Xiaomi

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C. Only a few Nokia is Apple; All Apple is Xiaomi; All Xiaomi is Samsung
D. Only a few Samsung is Apple; All Apple is Nokia; Some Nokia is Xiaomi
E. All the statements are true

Directions (84-85): In the following questions, the symbols #, @, $, %, &and ! are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below. study the following information and answer the given question.
In each of the question given below statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts
A$B means Some A is B
A#B means No A is B
A*B means Only a few A is B
A@B means Only A is B
A&B means All A is B
A%B means Some A is not B
?means Possibility
Note: If ‘?’ is placed after any of the symbols mentioned above then it will be considered as a possible
case of the symbol.
For example A$?B means Some A being B is a possibility.
84. Statements:
Asia $ Europe # Australia & Africa * Antartic; Australia $ America
Conclusions:
I. Antartic % Europe
II. Asia % Australia
III. Antartic $? Asia
A. Both conclusions II and III follow
B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Both conclusions I and III follow
D. Both conclusions I and II follow
E. All conclusion follows

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85. Statements:
Ant & Mosquito * Fly $ Bug # Beetle$ Bees & Ladybugs
Conclusions:
I. Beetle &? Mosquito
II. Fly % Beetle
III. Mosquito &? Fly
A. Both conclusions II and III follow
B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Both conclusions I and III follow
D. Both conclusions I and II follow
E. All conclusions follow

Blood Relation
Directions (86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A@B means B is the mother of A.
A#B means B is the Grand parent of A
A$B means B is the mother-in-law of A
A%B means A is the father-in-law of B
A^B means B is the niece/nephew of A
A&B means B is the daughter of A
A*B means B is the sister-in-law of A
A+B means B is the brother-in-law of A
86. If there are eight members in the family and Z$D; A#F%E*G; B%C&A; Z+C@D, then which of the
following statements is/are not true with respect to the final arrangement?
A. A and E are of different gender
B. Z is the son-in-law of C’s father-in-law
C. D is the mother-in-law of B’s daughter
D. Both a and b
E. All the given statements are not true

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87. P$R*Q^T; P+T^S@V; S#U, if seven members in the family, then who among the following person is
the paternal aunt of V?
A. The one who is the sister of T
B. U
C. The one who is the mother-in-law of P
D. T
E. The one who is the sister of U

88. K%I+J&O#N*Q; M#K&P^O@L$N, if nine members in the family and L has only one child and M is
not the son of I, then which of the following statements is/are true?
A. J is the paternal uncle of P’s daughter
B. M and O are siblings and of same gender
C. The daughter of L is the only grand-daughter of K
D. All the given statements are true
E. All the given statements are false

89. K%I+J&O#N*Q; M#K&P^O@L$N, if nine members in the family, then which of the following pair of
person shows that the first person is definitely the niece of the second person?
A. MJ
B. PK
C. OP
D. JQ
E. MP

90. A%G+E@D; B*C^F#D; H%C; A&C; B$D, if eight members are in the family and G has no siblings,
then how many female members are in the family?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Four
E. Can’t be determined

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Directions (91-93): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
In a family of eight persons with three generations and three married couples are there in the family.
Each person likes different numbers viz. - 16, 18, 23, 24, 28, 29, 31 and 32. The persons who are
unmarried members of the family like even numbers. H likes 24 and is one of the married male
members of the family. T is the daughter of D and is married to the one who likes 31. Q is the mother of
the one who likes 28. The one who likes 18 is married to D, who is the son of P. The one who likes 24 is
married to R’s mother. The one who likes 23 is the sister of L, who likes 28. The one who likes 23 is the
only daughter of the one who likes 32. R is the sister-in-law of Q and likes 16. M neither likes 29 nor
married to L.
91. How H is related to Q?
A. Maternal Uncle
B. Father-in-law
C. Brother-in-law
D. Son-in-law
E. None of these

92. How the one who likes 16 is related to the one who likes 23?
A. Aunty
B. Grandmother
C. Brother-in-law
D. Sister
E. None of these

93. How M is related to the one who likes 32?

A. Sister-in-law
B. Son -in-law
C. Brother
D. Nephew
E. None of these

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Directions (94-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
In a family of ten members of three generations. Either both or none of the parents are alive. U is the
only sister of P, who is an unmarried male member of the family. None of the members of the family in
the third generation are married. M is the only son of R and is the nephew of P. At-least one couple
have no child. D is the son-in-law of J. H is the father of P and is the grandfather of M. B is the sister-in-
law of J. G is the mother of C and is not married to H.H has only three children and B is an unmarrried
member of the family. R is not married to U

94. How G is related to J?

A. Niece
B. Daughter-in-law
C. Sister-in-law
D. Grand Daughter
E. None of these

95. How B is related to U?

A. Aunty
B. Mother
C. Sister-in-law
D. Sister
E. None of these

Puzzles
Directions (96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eleven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are living on four different floors of a four storey
building, where the lowermost floor is numbered one and the floor immediately above it is numbered two
and so on.
Note-1: Each floor has three type of flats viz., Flat-P, Flat-Q and Flat-R, where Flat P is to the west of
Flat Q and Flat Q is to the west of Flat R.
Note-2: Flat Q of floor 2 is immediately above Flat Q of floor 1 and immediately below Flat Q of floor 3
and so on. Similarly, Flat P of floor 2 is immediately above Flat P of floor 1 and immediately below Flat

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P of floor 3 and so on. Flat R of floor 2 is immediately above Flat R of floor 1 and immediately below Flat
R of floor 3 and so on
Note-3: The area of each flat on each floor is same.
Note-4: Atmost three persons live on each floor and atmost one person lives in each plat. One of the
flats is vacant.
Only two floors are between I and B, both are living in the same type of flat. I lives in the immediate west
flat of C. D lives two floors below C but both are living in the same type of flat. No one lives to the east
of H. Only one floor is between H and F but both are not living in different type of flats. E lives west of H
and lives immediately above the flat of A. A does not live in Flat Q. The number of persons living above
B in the same type of flat is two more than the number of persons living below G in the same type of flat.
No one lives below G in the same type of flat. K lives on one of the floors above J but not immediately
above.
96. Who among the following person lives on the second floor?
I). A
II). H
III). J
A. Only III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only II
E. Only I and III

97. Who among the following persons live on the same floor?
A. K and F
B. E and A
C. J and D
D. B and I
E. None of these

98. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?
I). G lives to the south of I

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II). A lives to the west of D

III). H lives below K
A. Only III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only II
E. Only I and III

99. Who among the following person lives in the east of vacant flat?
A. The one who lives immediately above F in the same type of flat.
B. E
C. C
D. The one who lives above D in the same type of flat
E. K

100. How many persons live between K and A in the same type of flat?
A. Two
B. As many persons live between B and I in the same type of flat
C. One
D. As many persons live between C and F in the same type of flat
E. Both b and c

Directions (101-105): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Ten persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are living in a five-storey building marked 1 to 5 from
bottom to top, there are two different flats A and B on each floor, where flat A is to the west of flat B.
Each of them earns different salaries – 6000, 9000, 10000, 12000, 16000, 21000, 23000, 25000,
28000and 33000 per month, but not necessarily in the same order.
The one whose salary is 12000 lives three floors below R where both lives in different flats. The number
of floors below the one whose salary is 12000 is one less than the number of floors above S, where

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both lives in the same flat. As many floors between R and Q as between X and Q, who lives northeast
of Y. X doesn’t live on the same floor with R. Y, whose monthly salary is multiple of seven, lives on an
even numbered floor. Two floors are between the one whose salary is 23000 and U, where both lives in
the same flat. The one whose salary is 25000 lives to the east of U. The sum of salaries of T and W is
equal to S, whose salary is less than Y. Salary of P is more than V. Q lives north of the one whose
salary is 9000. The salary difference between V and R is a multiple of nine. Salary of U is 4000 more
than W.
101. Who lives in flat A of floor number one and what’s his monthly salary?
A. W-9000
B. P-23000
C. T-9000
D. Y-9000
E. Can’t be determined

102. What is the sum of the salaries of the one who lives immediately below U’s flat and the one who
lives west to V?
A. 15000
B. 43000
C. 35000
D. 20000
E. 23000

103. How many persons live between Q and W and what is the salary difference between Q and W?
A. Two-10000
B. Three- 3000
C. Three-10000
D. Two-13000
E. Two-3000

104. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not false with respect to the final arrangement?
A. Y lives on an even numbered floor and his monthly salary is 28000

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B. R lives immediately above X and his monthly salary is a multiple of 3

C. Sum of the salaries of P and Q is a multiple of 8.
D. Both a and b
E. Both a and c

105. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a
group. Find the one who does not belong to that group.
A. V-6000
B. R-33000
C. T-9000
D. S-21000
E. Y-28000

Directions (106-110): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a building, there are certain number of floors where the ground floor is numbered
one and the floor immediately above it is numbered two and so on.
Note I: Each floor has two type of flats viz., Flat-A and Flat-B, where Flat-A is to the
west of Flat-B.
Note II: Flat-B of floor 2 is immediately above the Flat-B of floor 1 and immediately
below the Flat-B of floor 3 and so on. Similarly, Flat-A of floor 2 is immediately above
the Flat-A of floor 1 and immediately below the Flat-A of floor 3 and so on.
Note III: Area of each flat on each floor is equal.
Note IV: Atmost two persons live on each floor and Atmost one person lives in each flat.
Note V: Consecutive alphabetically named persons are not living on the adjacent floors of the same flat.
Only two floors are between V and K, who lives on the fourth floor. C lives three floors above the flat of
V. No one lives to the west of C. C lives four floors away from Q, who lives two floors above M. Q lives
west of T. M doesn’t live on the floor number which is a multiple of 3. No one lives between T and F,
who lives two floors below the flat of S. Only two floors are between S and I but both of them are not
living in the same type of flat. As many floors between I and F as below B. Only four floors are between
W and B, who lives four floors below the flat of R. E lives immediately below R. Only two floors are

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between E and Z, who doesn’t live adjacent floor of W. Z lives two floors above N, who lives in different
type of flat as F. As many floors below N as above C.
106. How many flats are above N?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 16
D. 18
E. 8

107. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE as per the given arrangement?
I). W lives immediately above the flat of R
II). No one lives to the east of M
III). E and V are not living on the adjacent floors
A. Only I and III
B. Only I
C. Only II and III
D. Only III
E. All are true

108. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form
a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. EZ
B. FK
C. NT
D. ZE
E. KB

109. As many floors between Z and ___ as between ___ and I respectively.
A. Q and W
B. E and S
C. S and Q

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D. M and C
E. F and E

110. If the persons living on an odd numbered floor paid Rs.10000/month as the flat rent and the
persons living on an even numbered floor paid 25000/month, then what is the sum of the rents paid by
Q, N and S?
A. Rs.50000
B. Rs.55000
C. Rs.45000
D. Rs.80000
E. Rs.65000

Directions (111-115): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
A certain number of boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Each box has different items.
Information about only a few boxes is known.
Note:
1). The consecutive alphabetically named boxes and complementary paired boxes are not kept adjacent
to each other.
2). Not more than 15 boxes are kept in the stack.
Only two boxes are kept between box S and box W. Only four boxes are kept between box W and the
box which has Tie. Box T is kept three boxes below the box which has Tie. The number of boxes kept
between box S and the box which has Tie is two less than the number of boxes kept between box W
and box R, which has Belt. Only two boxes are kept between box R and the box which has handbag.
Only one box is kept between the box which has handbag and box D, which has Ring. Only seven
boxes are kept between boxes D and U. The box which has shoe is kept three boxes above box U. The
number of boxes kept between box T and the box which has shoes is one more than the number of
boxes kept between box U and box Q, which has Watch. Only two boxes are kept between box Q and
box V.
111. Which of the following box has Tie?
A. The box which is kept two boxes below box Q
B. Box U

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C. The box which is kept immediately below box R

D. Box W
E. Box S

112. Which of the following box is kept seventh from the top of the stack?
A. Box D
B. Box R
C. The box which has shoes
D. Box W
E. The box which has handbag

113. Which of the following boxes are not kept above box S?
I). Box V
II). The box which has watch
III). Box T
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III
E. All I, II and III

114. How many boxes are kept in the stack?

A. 13
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
E. 14

115. Which of the following statement is/are not true as per the given arrangement?
A. Box R is kept at the top of the stack
B. Box W and the box with handbag are kept adjacent to each other

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C. Box U has Tie

D. Box T is kept third from the bottom of the stack
E. All the statements are true

Directions (116-120): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are kept one above the other in a single stack. Each box has
different items viz.- Chocolate, Marker, Chips, Ball, Book, Biscuit, and Toy.
Box S is kept two boxes above the box which has toys. Only three boxes are kept between box S and
the box which has Balls. Box R and the box which has Balls are kept adjacent to each other. Box U,
which has Biscuit, is kept immediately below box Q. As many boxes kept below box U is two more than
the number of boxes kept above the box which has book. The box which has marker is kept two boxes
below box P. No boxes are kept between box P and the box which has chocolate. As many boxes kept
between box Q and box V as between the box which has chocolate and box T. Box V has neither
marker nor book.
116. Which of the following box has the Chocolate?
A. The box which is kept immediately above box T
B. Box S
C. The box which is kept two boxes below box Q
D. Box V
E. Both b and c

117. How many boxes are kept between box U and the box with marker?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None

118. Which of the following boxes are not kept above box P?
I). Box R
II). The box with balls

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III). The box with Biscuit

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only I and III
D. Only I and II
E. All I, II and III

119. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

A. R - Chocolate
B. Q - Chips
C. T – Books
D. P - Balls
E. None of these

120. Which of the following statement is true as per the given arrangement?
A. Box V has the toys
B. Only two boxes are kept between box S and box T
C. Box Q is kept two boxes below box U
D. Box T has the Chips
E. None is true

Directions (121-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight boxes - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept one above another in eight different shelves where the
bottommost shelf is numbered one and the shelf immediately above it is numbered two and so on till the
topmost shelf is numbered eight. Each box has different number of coins.
Note: The number of coins in each box is equal to the multiple of the shelf number which is kept
immediately above it. The box which is kept on the topmost shelf has 40 coins.
The box which has 42 coins is kept three boxes above box C, which has 20 coins more than the box
which is kept on the topmost shelf. Only one box is kept between box C and box D, which has 4 coins
more than box A. As many boxes kept above box D as below box B. Box H, which is not kept on the

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bottommost shelf, has 4 coins more than box C. Less than four boxes are kept between box H and the
box which has 28 coins less than box H. Box F is kept four boxes above box G. The box which is kept
on the fifth shelf has twice the number of coins in box G. The sum of the number of coins in Box E and
box A is 66.
121. What is the sum of the coins in box A and box H?
A. 106
B. 88
C. 94
D. 100
E. None of these

122. How many boxes are kept above the box which has maximum number of coins?
A. Three
B. One
C. Five
D. Six
E. Four

123. Which of the following box has least number of coins?

A. The box which is kept immediately above box D
B. A
C. The box which is kept on the sixth shelf
D. H
E. B

124. Which of the following boxes are not kept above box E?
I). Box C
II). The box which is kept immediately below box G
III). The box which is kept two boxes below box B
A. Only I

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B. Only II
C. Only I and III
D. Only I and II
E. All I, II and III

125. Which of the following statements is/are not true as per the given arrangement?
A. Only two boxes are kept boxes C and H
B. The sum of the number of coins in E and G is a multiple of seven
C. The difference between the number of coins in B and F is an odd number
D. All the given statement is true
E. All the given statement is false

Directions (126-130): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Nine persons – O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and, W joined the bank in three different months viz.- March,
June, and August on three different dates – 4th, 7th, and 9th. Only one person joined on one date of each
month. All persons like different shoe brands viz.- Mochi, Puma, Reebok, Bata, Relaxo, Nike, Red
Chief, Liberty, and Adidas.
The one who likes Bata joined on an even numbered date in a month having an odd number of days.
Only three persons joined between the one who likes Bata and W, who joined immediately after the one
who likes Nike. R joined four persons before the one who likes Red Chief. At least one but not more
than three persons joined between the one who likes Bata and R. Both R and O like neither Nike nor
Adidas. S joined three persons before the one who likes Adidas. Both O and S like neither Bata nor
Nike. As many persons joined before the one who likes Adidas as after O. As many persons joined
between the one who likes Red Chief and O as between P and the one who likes Relaxo. The one who
likes Relaxo joined immediately after U, who joined on an even numbered date. P and the one who likes
Mochi joined in the same month. Only three persons joined between T and the one who likes Mochi.
More than two persons joined between the one who likes Liberty and Q, who likes neither Red Chief nor
Reebok.
126. Who among the following person likes Relaxo?
A. T
B. The one who joined on June 7th

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C. The one who joined two persons after S

D. O
E. V

127. Who among the following person joined on 7th August?

A. The one who likes Bata
B. The one who joined two persons after U
C. The one who likes Puma
D. V
E. P

128. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form
a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. T
B. Q
C. W
D. R
E. S

129. How many persons joined between U and the one who likes Reebok?
A. As many persons joined before the one who likes Nike
B. Three
C. As many persons joined between V and the one who likes Reebok
D. Four
E. None

130. Which of the following statements is/are not true as per the given arrangement?
A. T joined in August
B. The one who likes Puma joined immediately after V
C. Three persons joined before U
D. Either B or C

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E. All the above statements are true

Directions (131-135): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were born either on 5th or on 8th of four different months -
January, April, August, and November of the same year, but not necessarily in the same order. Each
person gets different number of toffees on their birthday - 9, 12, 13, 14, 15, 18, 21, and 26.
A was born on an even numbered date of the month having 31 days. Only two persons were born
between A and the one who gets 21 toffees. F was born three persons before the one who gets five
toffees more than B. F was born on an odd numbered date and gets an even number of toffees. A was
neither born in the same month along with F nor with G, who gets an even number of toffees. The one
who gets 26 toffees was born three persons after B. B was born immediately after H but not in the same
month. The number of persons born between C and H is one less than the number of persons born after
the one who gets 12 toffees. The number of toffees that G gets is twice the number of toffees that C
gets. Not more than three persons were born between G and the one who gets 9 toffees. E doesn’t get
15 toffees.
131. How many persons were born between the one who gets 9 toffees and G?
A. As many persons born before the one who gets 14 toffees
B. As many persons born between A and the one who gets 21 toffees
C. Four
D. Both A or C
E. None of these

132. What is the sum of the number of toffees with D, H, and C?

A. 45
B. 49
C. 41
D. 42
E. None of these

133. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a
group. Find the one that doesn’t belong to that group.

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A. C-14
B. G-12
C. A-14
D. E-9
E. B-26

134. Who among the following person was born just after the one who gets 12 toffees?
A. G
B. The one who was born three persons after C
C. The one who was born just before G
D. Both B or C
E. None of these

135. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?
I). Three persons were born before the one who gets 21 toffees.
II). The one who gets 12 toffees was born two persons after H.
III). Two persons were born between F and the one who gets 14 toffees.
A. Both II and III
B. Only III
C. Only I
D. Both I and II
E. None of these

Critical Reasoning
Directions (136-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons were born in different months of different dates - 3, 7, 9 and 12 of the same year, but not
necessarily in the same order.
Note: Only two persons were born on the same date.
W was born four months before Y, where both of them were born in the month having an odd number of
days. No person was born in December. Only one person was born between Y and B, who was born in
the month having days which is a multiple of five. B was not born before June and after October. W and

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Y were born on an even numbered date. T was born in one of the months after July but in the month
having odd days. The number of persons born before W is one less than the number of persons born
after T. One of the persons was born on 9th February. At least two persons were born between Q and
one who was born in September 3rd. Q was born neither after T nor in April. More than two persons
were born before Y. S was born immediately after the one who was born on October 9 th. As many
persons born between Q and W as after T. Only two persons were born between A and C, who was
born on 7th of the month. C was neither born in June nor in July. S doesn’t born on 7th of any of the
month.
136. Who among the following was born four months after the one who was born two persons before
the one who was born on March 7th?
A. C
B. The one who was born two months before T
C. The one who was born on 12th may
D. B
E. T

137. If W is related to Q and the one who was born on 3rd September is related to S in a certain way,
then who among the following person is related to T?
A. Y
B. C
C. The one who was born two months after Q
D. The one who was born on 7th August
E. Both b and d

138. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with respect to the final arrangement?
A. Two persons were born between W and Y
B. Only two persons were born before Q
C. As many persons born between B and S as between Y and A
D. All the given statements are false
E. All the given statements are true

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139. Who among the following person was born on prime numbered date of month having an even
number of days?
A. The one who was born two months after B
B. The one who was born five persons before B
C. C
D. The one who was born three persons before S
E. T

140. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form
a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
A. The one who was born three persons before B
B. S
C. The one who was born two persons after A
D. B
E. The one who was born immediately after Y

Direction (141): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions based on the same
respectively
In scenes reminiscent of the Arab Spring, (A) citizens stormed the residences of Sri Lanka’s president
and prime minister in Colombo, (B) forcing both leaders to announce that they would quit their
respective offices. President Gotabaya Rajapaksa, the main target of the protests that erupted in April
over food and fuel shortages and have continued since, promised to resign by Wednesday. The
Speaker of Sri Lanka’s parliament, Yapa Abeywardena, is expected to take over as acting president and
prime minister, and facilitate, possibly, the setting up of a national unity government. Gotabaya’s
resignation could bring down the temperature and help the authorities to persuade the protestors to
return home. Though the marches and sit-ins in Galle Face and elsewhere have been largely peaceful,
the recent violent events suggest that the people, battling acute shortage of essentials, including milk,
baby food, petrol, are on the edge. Only a new leadership can win back public trust in government and
steer the island nation’s economy out of choppy waters.
141. Which of the following can be a probable ‘Course Of Action’ to pacify the anxious people?
A. All the protestors should be jailed so that more people don’t join the protests

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B. The protestors should be promised with free food and basic facilities for all of them
C. Present heads of the country should resign with immediate effect
D. A new government should take charge and try to restore the trust of the people
E. The protestors should be given employment which would ensure consistent money flow

Direction (142-143): Read the statement given below and the questions that follow. Considering all the
details to be true, mark the suitable option as your answer
142. Statement: The students these days do not have the habit of reading and that is the reason their
knowledge in many areas is not as profound as it used to be earlier as they depend on others to tell
them the important information or events.
Course of Action:
I. Schools should promote reading as a habit in students right from their early classes
II. Parents must help the children come closer to reading by making their personal library at home
A.Only II
B.Only I
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
E.Either I or II

143. Statement: The students these days do not have the habit of reading and that is the reason their
knowledge in many areas is not as profound as it used to be earlier as they depend on others to tell
them the important information or events.
Course of Action:
I. Schools should promote reading as a habit in students right from their early classes
II. Parents must help the children come closer to reading by making their personal library at home
A.Only II
B.Only I
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
E.Either I or II

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144. Statement: At least 69 per cent of parents believe that they lose track of their children,
surroundings when they are immersed in their smartphones and 74 per cent admit to getting irritated
when their children ask them something
Course of Action:
I. Uninstalling unnecessary apps and turning off the notifications can help as they won’t distract
II. People must develop a habit of switching off or putting the phone on silent mode while spending time
with their children
III. Simple phones must be bought by the parents as they are not as distracting as the smartphones
A.Only III
B.Both I and II
C.Only II
D.All I, II and III
E.Only I

145. Statement: French Open finalist Anastasia Pavlyuchenkova tests positive for Covid-19 casting
doubts on Australian Open
Course of Action:
I. All those who came in contact with the tennis star must get themselves tested immediately
II. Anastasia must be responsible and avoid all public contact with immediate effect
III. Australian Open should be cancelled and all the players should be isolated
A.Only II
B.Both I and III
C.Both I and II
D.Only I
E.Either II or III

Direction (146): The given information below is followed by questions based on them. Read the
following carefully and choose the options required based on the same
Indian millennials and Gen-Z -- particularly those between the ages of 17 and 25 -- are responsible for
the increase of Korean learning in India, influenced by pop culture. Korean has risen to the top of India's
most popular languages, becoming the fastest growing and securely establishing itself as the country's

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fifth most popular language. This increase can be ascribed in part to the 2021 premiere of the popular
TV show Squid Games.
I). Pop culture trendsetters such as movies, OTT shows, and web series motivated people to learn a
new language.
II). India consumes more Korean culture and listens to more K-pop.
III). There is a significant impact of culture on language acquisition
146. Which statement from the given three above can be concluded from the paragraph above?
A. Only II
B. Only III
C. Both I and III
D. Only I
E. Both II and III

147. Statement: Scientists have identified antibodies that neutralize Omicron and other variants of
coronavirus by targeting areas that remain essentially unchanged as the virus mutates.
Which of the statements given below would weaken the statement given above?
A.Antibodies from people who had been infected, recovered, and then had two doses of vaccine also
had reduced activity
B.An antibody called sotrovimab, has a two- to three-fold reduction in neutralizing activity
C.A third dose is really, really helpful against Omicron
D.Both (a) and (c)
E.None of the above

148. Statements:
I. Despite the fact that the lack of power in schools is taken note of by the Parliamentary Standing
Committee which operates its own schemes and sponsors several school education programmes, India
has not yet electrified a significant number of government schools.
II. According to data, only 56.45% of government schools had electricity and 56.98% a playground,
while almost 40% lacked a boundary wall.
Conclusions:

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I. The tardy progress on such important facilities, in spite of the projects having been sanctioned, shows
the low priority that school education is being accorded.
II. The government-run school sector needs a fund infusion and a public school system that guarantees
universal access, good learning and all facilities has to be among the highest national priorities.
A.Only conclusion I follows
B.Only conclusion II follows
C.Either conclusion I or II follows
D.Neither conclusion II nor conclusion II follows
E.Both conclusions I and conclusion II follow

149. Statement: Joint military exercise between countries helps to increase friendly relations between
countries.
Conclusions:
I). It means that countries will help each other when needed.
II). It will make it easy for one country to terrorize its enemy countries.
A.Only conclusion I follows.
B.Only conclusion II follows.
C.Either conclusion I or II follows.
D.Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
E.Both I and II follow.

150. Gold is likely to regain the glitter and cross the Rs 55,000-per-10-grams level amid pandemic
woes, inflation worries and stronger US dollar.
Which of the given statements can be concluded from the details given above?
A.As on date, 1.27 lakh jewellers have taken registration from BIS for selling hallmarked jewellery.
B.Gold lost its sheen to some extent in the second half of 2021 but 2022 will be better
C.Rising inflation tends to drive gold demand
D.Electronic Gold Receipt mark would be potentially transformative
E.Both (b) and (d)

151. Statement:

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“Lok Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill in 2017. The amendments were targeted
towards bringing changes in the transport sector to encourage safer driving practices among Indian
motor vehicle drivers. The amendment’s draft was put forward in the lower house of the Parliament to
impose rigid fines for the traffic rules violation and to promote e-governance.”
Assumptions:
I). Now people would be more careful before riding their two-wheelers without a helmet and while
driving their cars without wearing seatbelts or without valid motor insurance.
II). Contractors will be held responsible and blacklisted for the bad condition of roads.
III). The previous governments have not taken enough measures for road safety.
A. Only I and III are implicit
B. Only I and II are implicit
C. Only III is implicit
D. Only I is implicit
E. Only II and III are implicit

152. Statement: Cigarettes constitute a mere 20% of tobacco consumption in India, and fewer than 15%
of the 200 million tobacco users consume cigarettes., Yet these 15% contribute nearly 90% of the tax
revenues to the Exchequer from the tobacco sector. The punitive cigarette taxation regime has kept the
tax base narrow, and reducing taxes will expand this base.
Which one of the following assumptions best bolsters the fact that reducing duties will expand the tax
base'?
A. The cigarette manufacturers’ association has decided to indulge in aggressive promotion
B. There is a likelihood that tobacco consumers will shift to cigarette smoking if cigarette prices were to
reduce
C. The cigarette manufacturers are lobbying for a reduction on duties
D. An increase in duties on non-cigarette tobacco may lead to a shift in favor cigarette smoking
E. none of these

153. Statement:
"You are hereby appointed as an officer with a probation period of one year and your performance will
be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation." - A line in an appointment letter.

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Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is known at the time of the appointment offer.
II. Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth during the probation period
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (154): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions based on the same
respectively
Newly launched Blessful Sleep Gummies are perfect bliss to induce restful sleep. With a hectic
schedule and long tiring day, sound sleep is all we need to wake up refreshed. Take two beauty sleep
gummies 30 minutes before bedtime and dive into your dreamland. Additionally, it also helps in
rejuvenating your skin health overnight. You can easily manage your sleep-wake cycle with wholesome
ingredients; Vitamin B6 to fall asleep faster, Passiflora Extract that induces restful sleep by relaxing your
body and mind, and Melatonin to improve your sleep routine. These non-habit-forming gummies calm
your body and mind by coping with daily stress. Passion Fruit Flavour gummies will reverse the skin
damage caused by stress and rejuvenate the skin from within, while you sleep tight. These Gummies
will help you in getting your dream sleep and managing your sleep disorders. It is a 100 per cent
clinically tested & doctor recommended product for managing sleep disorders.
144. Which of the following ‘assumptions’ is correct as per the contents of the paragraph?
A. The people with sleep disorders continuously keep looking for remedies
B. Natural ingredients do not have side effects
C. People with sleep disorders are concerned about their skin health
D. The gummies will be accepted by people as they are innocuous
E. All the given statements are correct

155. Statement: There is a family of 27 people of which the senior most person celebrates his birthday
today. The youngsters and the children of the family are excited about the cake-cutting.
Assumptions:

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(i) Of everyone, the children enjoy the party the most

(ii) Birthday celebrations involve cake-cutting
(iii) Celebration is fun in bigger families
A.Only (i)
B.Both (i) and (ii)
C.Only (ii)
D.Both (ii) and (iii)
E.Either (i) or (iii)

Answer with Detail Explanation

Directions (1-5):

Final arrangement:
Five triangles are numbered 1 to 5 are inscribed in a pentagon box.
Each triangle has a letter and value(positive integer).
The value for each triangle is the difference between the first five two digit composite numbers and the
square value of the first five odd prime numbers respectively, then the resultant values are arranged in
ascending order from triangles 1 to 5 respectively. The square value of the first five odd prime numbers
are – 9, 25, 49, 121 and 169
The first five two digit composite numbers are – 10, 12, 14, 15 and 16
The difference between the square value of the first five odd prime numbers and the
first five two digit composite numbers are,
Triangle 1 = 10-9 = 1
Triangle 2 = 25-12 = 13
Triangle 3 = 49-14 = 35
Triangle 4 = 121-15 = 106
Triangle 5 = 169-16 = 153

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

The letter for each triangle is the corresponding letter of the sum of the digits of the resultant value of
each triangle, then the resultant letters are arranged in alphabetical order from triangles 1 to 5
respectively.
1 = A; 1+3=4 = D; 3+5=8 = H; 1+0+6= G; 1+5+3= I

1. Answer: D
2. Answer: A
3. Answer: C
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: E

Directions (6-10):
Final arrangement

Step I- 62436 62132 33572 62072 1 2840 61810

Step II- 183 104 218 107 141 142
Step III- 732 312 654 428 564 426
Step IV- 13 05 26 20 29 16
Step V- 28 125 218 02 731 217
Step VI- 20.6 84.3 147.3 1.3 494.3 146.6
For Step I:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Multiply 1st the digit of the first number by the 1st digit of the second number and write it first followed by
the multiplication of the 2 digits of the first number and the 2 nd digit of the second number, then the
3rd digit of the first number to 3rd digit of the second number.
For Step II:
Step I- 18712
Step II- 109
The digital sum of all even digits is taken followed by the digital sum of all odd digits.
(8+2)=10, (1+7+1) = 9
109
For Step III:
Step II- 109
Step III- 436
All even numbers are multiplied by 3, whereas all odd numbers are multiplied by 4.
For Step IV
Step III- 436 66
Step IV- 22 12
For three digit number- add the first digit with the multiplication of the second and third digits within the
number.
4+(3×6)= 22
For two digit number- add the first and second digits.
6+6= 12
For Step V
Step IV- 22
Step V- 10
Cube value of the the last digit and add the remaining digits to it.
(2)3 +2= 10
For Step VI
Step V- 10

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Step VI- 7.6

Divide all the numbers by 1.5 and add the first digit is added to it.
(10÷1.5)+1= 7.6
6. Answer: B
7. Answer: C
8. Answer: D
9. Answer: B
10. Answer: A

Directions (11-15):
Input: 34568 43215 68321 57314 73196
Step I: In this step, the second, third and fifth digits are written respectively and then the sum of the first
and the fourth digits are written (If the resultant is two digits then add within the digits to get a single
digit).
Step II: From Step I, in each number, the first digit is written and then the difference between the last
two digits is written, whereas the second digit is written at last.
Step III: From step II, in each number, if the last digit is an odd number, then square that number and
write at first and then the first and the second digits are written in the same order. If the last digit is an
even number, then the square value of the difference between the first and the last digits is written at
first followed by the second digit.
Step IV: From step III, in each number, all the digits are added within the number.
Step V: From step IV, the cube value of the difference between the first and the second number is
written, and the second and the third numbers did the same and so on.
Input: 34568 43215 68321 57314 73196
Step I: 4589 3255 8318 7346 3167
Step II: 415 302 873 723 311
Step III: 2541 010 0987 0972 0131
Step IV: 12 01 24 18 05
Step V: 1331 12167 0216 2197
11. Answer: D
Step II: 415 302 873 723 311

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Step III: 2541 010 0987 0972 0131

The output of “34568” in step III is 2541 and the output of “57314” is 723.
2541-723=1818

12. Answer: B
Step V: 1331 12167 0216 2197
1+3+3+1+1+1+7+1+1+9+7=35

13. Answer: C

14. Answer: A
Step IV: 12 01 24 18 05
31695
9*1=9

15. Answer: E
Step I: 4589 3255 8318 7346 3167
Step II: 415 302 873 723 311
Step III: 2541 010 0987 0972 0131

16. Answer: C
12 25 8
From condition II: (1*2) = 2
From condition III: (2*2) = 4
33 48 23
From condition I: (3+8) = 11
From condition IV: (11+23) = 34
13 56 97
From condition I: (3+6) = 9
From condition IV: (9+97) = 106
Required number = 4+3+4+1+0+6= 18

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17. Answer: B
11 34 53
From condition I: (1+4) = 5
From condition IV: (5+53) =58
32 21 76
From condition VI: (4+1) = 5
From condition I: (5+6) = 11
9 17 46
From condition IV: (9+17) = 26
From condition VI: (36+36) = 72
Required number = 13*2*9 = 234

18. Answer: D
46 10 49
From condition VI: (36+0) = 36
From condition II: (3*6) = 18
23 47 27
From condition IV: (23+47) = 70
From condition III: (0*3) = 0
Thus, result of 3rd row= 31-18= 13
33 19 23
From condition IV: (33+19)= 52
From condition VI: (4+9) = 13
19. Answer: B
20 36 53
From condition II: (2*0) = 0
From condition VI: (0+9) = 9
19 18 43
From condition I: (9+8) = 17
From condition IV: (17+43) = 60

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

25 38 40
From condition I: (8+5) = 13
From condition I: (3+0) = 3
Required number = 9+60+3 = 72

20. Answer: C
44 67 35
From condition VI: (16+49) = 65
From condition I: (5+5) = 10
28 64 8
From condition II: (2*8) = 16
From condition III: (6*2) = 12
31 46 79
From condition I: (1+6) = 7
From condition IV: (7+79) = 86
Required number = (86+12+10)/2 = 54

21. Answer: C
Row 1
8*3=24 (Rule II)
24+48=72 (Rule IV)
Row 2
62-25=37 (Rule III)
7+9=16 (Rule V)
72+16=88

22. Answer: D
Row 1
16+33=49 (Rule I)
49+21=70(Rule I)
Row 2

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1+9=10 (Rule V)
10+64=74 (Rule IV)
Y + 2X = 74 + (2*70) = 214

23. Answer: A
Row 1
4*9=36 (Rule II)
36+44 =80 (Rule IV)
Row 2
30-19=11 (Rule III)
1+3=4 (Rule V)
X/Y=80/4=20

24. Answer: B
Row 1
49+27=76 (Rule I)
76+14 =90 (Rule IV)
Row 2
9+5=14 (Rule V)
54+14=68(Rule IV)
90-68=22

25. Answer: E
Row 1
4*9=36 (Rule II)
73+36=109=X (Rule I)
Row 2
7+7=14 (Rule V)
40+14=54=Y (Rule IV)
X+Y=109+54=163

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Directions (26-30):
Final arrangement:

26. Answer: B
27. Answer: E (The first point is to the south west of the second point except option e)
28. Answer: C
29. Answer: D
30. Answer: A

Directions (31-35):
% - (37m-22m) – (-15m)
# - (18m-26m) – (+8m)
@ - (25m-13m) – (-12m)
& - (48m-25m) – (-23m)

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31. Answer: B
32. Answer: C
33. Answer: C (First point is northeast of second point except option c)
34. Answer: D
If Z%&S,
The distance between Z and Q is 11m and Z is in west of Q.
(PZ)2 = (ZR)2 + (RP)2
= (5)2 + (12)2
= 25 + 144
(PZ)2 = 169
PZ = 13m
35. Answer: E

36. Answer: E
I). H $ T -> T > H (T ≤ R = E ≤ I = O < H) -> False
II). R @ L -> L ≥ R (R = E ≤ I = O ≤ G = L) -> True
III). Q $ P -> Q < P (P > O = I ≥ E > W ≥ Q) -> True

37. Answer: D
I). K @ B -> B ≥ K (K ≤ J ≤ H < D = C ≤ B) -> False
II). L $ G -> G > L (G = F < D > H > L) -> False
III). E # M -> M < E ( E > D > H ≥ J ≥ K = M) -> True

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38. Answer: B
I). F & K -> F ≥ K (K ≤ L < T = Y < D ≤ F) -> False
II). H $ A -> A > H (H ≤ J = L < T = Y = S ≤ A) ->True
III). J # O -> O < J (J = L < T = Y ≤ O) -> False

39. Answer: E
I). X $ G -> X < G (X = K = H ≤ S ≤ D > F < G) -> False
II). A # V -> V < A (V < O ≤ K = H ≤ S < A) -> True
III). K & G -> K ≥ G (X = K = H ≤ S ≤ D > F < G) -> False
Combining I and III, we can say either conclusion I or III is true

40. Answer: C
I). P @ R -> P ≤ R (P ≤ L ≤ M = N > V = A = E ≤ R) -> False
II). W # C -> W > C (C < N > V = A < W) -> False
III). E $ X -> E < X (X > C < N > V = A = E) -> False

41. Answer: C
From CQX:
H≥L=C>D=G≤M>U≥B=T>K
L > G (L = C > D = G) ------> definitely true
M < K (M > U ≥ B = T > K) -------> definitely false

42. Answer: A
From ARY:
F≥W>T=G≥U=L≥H>S≥D=K
U < F (F ≥ W > T = G ≥ U) ------> definitely true
G ≥ D (G ≥ U = L ≥ H > S ≥ D) ------> false

43. Answer: D

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From AR:
G > L (G < U ≤ S = W < K ≤ L) -----> definitely false
From CP:
G > L ( G ≤ M < D ≤ S ≤ L) --------> definitely false
44. Answer: C
From CP:
T > U (T ≥ L > M ≥ H = F > J ≥ U) -------> definitely true
From BR:
T > U ( T ≥ F > H ≥ J > M > U) --------> definitely true

45. Answer: B
From CQ:
R > M (R ≤ T < P ≤ D ≤ M) ------> definitely false

46. Answer: D
II).
W < K (W ≤ G = F < P = K) -> True
J > D (D < F < P = K ≤ J) -> True
V).
K > G (G = F < P = K) -> True
P ≤ J (P = K ≤ J) -> True

47. Answer: B
II.
U > K (U > D = C = K) -> True
B < L (L > U > D = C > B) -> True
V.
U > P(U > D = C > J > P) -> True
D < L(L > U > D) -> True

48. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

I.
Q > N (N < J = M ≤ Q) -> True
K < C (C > M = J > K) -> True
IV.
T < C (C > M = J ≥ R > T) -> True
Q > K(K < J = M ≤ Q) -> True
49. Answer: D
L = P > Y ≥ T ≥ J = W -> True
All the statement together is sufficient

50. Answer: B
T ≤ Y = U < O ≤ Z < M -> True
Both I and III together are sufficient

Directions (51-55):
Final alphanumeric arrangement:
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
Step 1: The odd numbers up to 9 in the number series are placed one by one after every two letters in
descending order from right to left.
KSN1YR3WP5QG7KL9ZX
Step 2: The following vowels A, E, I, O, U are placed in the middle of every two consonants (except the
consonants which are immediately followed by numbers) from left to right and the symbols @, #, $,
% and & are placed to the immediate left of vowels one by one in the same order.
K @ A S # E N 1 Y $ I R 3 W % O P 5 Q& U G 7 K L 9 Z X
Step 3: The even numbers up to 8 are placed in the middle of every two letters from right to left in
ascending order. Then, the first fifteen elements from the left end are arranged in reverse order.
K @ A S # E N 1 Y $ I R 3 W % O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
K @ A S # E N 1 Y $ I R 3 W % O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
Step-3 is the last and final step and the outcome in this step is the final series. As per the steps given
above, find out the final alphanumeric series and answer the following question given below.

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51. Answer: B
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 3 R $ I Y 1 N # E S @ A K O8 P 5 QU &6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 3 R $ 1Y 1 N # 5 S @ 1 K O 8 P 5 Q 1& 6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X

52. Answer: D
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4L 9 Z 2X

53. Answer: E
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
3 W % R Y $ I 1 # E N S K @ A O5P 8 Q 6 U&G 4 K 7L 2 Z 9X
3W%RY$I1#ENSK@AO5P8Q6U&G4K7L2Z9X

54. Answer: C
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 2 R I $ Y 0 N E # S A @ K O8 P 4 Q& U6 G 6 K 3L 8 Z 1X
%W2RI$Y0NE#SA@KO8P4Q&U6G6K3L8Z1X
(2+8+8+4+6+6)- (3+1)=34-4=30

55. Answer: B
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z 2 X
% W 3 R I $ Y 1 N E # S A @ K O8 P 5 Q& U6 G 7 K 4 L 9 Z2 X

Directions (56-60):
749128453197513657314982752649
Step 1: 7 2 7 2 0 8 2 6 3 1 7 8 3 1 3 7 3 7 1 2 4 9 6 3 7 5 2 7 2 9
Step 2: 7 2 2 0 8 2 6 3 7 8 3 1 2 4 6 3 5 2 2 9 9 7 7 7 7 7 3 3 1 1
Step 3: 7 2 2 0 8 2 6 3 7 8 3 1 2 4 6 3 5 2 2 9 9 3 3 1 1
Step 4: 0 1 2 2 2 3 3 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 6 5 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 1
56. Answer: E

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Step 1: 2 * 7 = 14
Step 2: 0* 3 = 0
Step 3: 0*3 = 0
Step 4: 2*2 = 4

57. Answer: C
Step 2: 7 2 2 0 8 2 6 3 7 8 3 1 2 4 6 3 5 2 2 9 9 7 7 7 7 7 3 3 1 1
Descending order:
Step 2: 9 9 8 8 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 6 6 5 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 10
Difference = 7 – 2 = 5

58. Answer: E
Step 4: 0 1 2 2 2 3 3 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 6 5 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 1
Step 4: 0 0 3 3 3 2 2 7 6 6 9 9 8 8 7 4 52 2 2 3 3 3 0 0

59. Answer: C
Step 1: 7 2 7 2 0 8 2 6 3 1 7 8 3 1 3 7 3 7 1 2 4 9 6 3 7 5 2 7 2 9-> 14 digits
Step 2: 7 2 2 0 8 2 6 3 7 8 3 1 2 4 6 3 5 2 2 9 9 7 7 7 7 7 3 3 1 1->19 digits
Step 3: 7 2 2 0 8 2 6 3 7 8 3 1 2 4 6 3 5 2 2 9 9 3 3 1 1-> 14 digits
Step 4: 0 1 2 2 2 3 3 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 6 5 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 -> 13 digits

60. Answer: B
Step 1: 7 2 7 2 0 8 2 6 3 1 7 8 3 1 3 7 3 7 1 2 4 9 6 3 7 5 2 7 2 9

Directions (61-65):
Step 1: Take the alphabet from the alphabetical series which has the place value as the prime number
and write it down in the reverse alphabetical order from the left end (Excluding the vowels). Then write
down all the vowels in alphabetical order from the right end.
WSQMKGCBUOIEA
Step 2: After completing step-2, the following symbols “#, @, ©, $, &, %”, are placed (in the same order)
after every two elements from the left end, in the series thus formed after step I.

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WS#QM@KG©CB$UO&IE%A
Step 3: After completing step 2, take the consecutive two digits odd numbers up to 27 and add the digits
within the number till it becomes a single digit, then place the resultant number one by one in the same
order from the left end immediately after the letters which has the place value as the odd number except
the letters that come before G(as per the alphabetical series), in the series thus formed after step II.
W 2 S 4 # Q 6 M 8 @ K 1 G 3 © C B $ U 5 O 7& I 9 E % A
Step 4. After completing step 3, the letters that come before N in the alphabetical series are changed to
the second previous letter and the letters that come after N are changed to immediate succeeding
letters, in the series thus formed after step III.(Consider Z as the immediate previous letter of A and so
on )
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y
61. Answer: B
Given series:
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y
3E1I@8K6R#4T2X©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y

62. Answer: B
Given series:
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y
X2T4#6K8@1E3©Z$5P7&9C%

63. Answer: E
Given series:
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y
4+8+7= 19

64. Answer: C
Given series:
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y
123456789XTRKIEAZVPGCY

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65. Answer: D
Given series:
X2T4#R6K8@I1E3©AZ$V5P7&G9C%Y

Directions (66-70):
Step 1: Two is subtracted from the numbers each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not
immediately followed by another number.
Given series:
S5@TH3#2A%R$Q6?M^B&D76*P9=V4βLα8X
Required series:
Step 1: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % R $ Q 4 ? M ^ B & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β L α 8 X
From Step 1,
Step 2: All such letters each of which is either immediately succeeded by a symbol or immediately
preceded by a number but not both are replaced with the corresponding complementary pair as per the
English alphabetical series.
Step 1: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % R $ Q 4 ? M ^ B & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β L α 8 X
Required series:
Step 2: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % I $ Q 4 ? N ^ Y & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β O α 8 C
From Step 2,
Step 3: All such symbols each of which is immediately followed by a consonant are interchanged their
position with respect to the element immediately before it.
Step 2: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % I $ Q 4 ? N ^ Y & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β O α 8 C
Required series:
Step 3: S @ 3 T H 1 # 2 A % $ I Q ? 4 ^ N & Y D 7 * 6 P = 7 V 2 β O α 8 C.
66. Answer: C
Step 3: S @ 3 T H 1 # 2 A % $ I Q ? 4 ^ N & Y D 7 * 6 P = 7 V 2 β O α 8 C.
The Second odd number from the left end and the second consonant from the right end
are 1 and V respectively.
S @ 3 T H V # 2 A % $ I Q ? 4 ^ N & Y D 7 * 6 P = 7 1 2 β O α 8 C.
And then the alphabets which are immediately followed by a symbol is dropped
Required series:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

@ 3 T H # 2 % $ I ? 4 ^ & Y D 7 * 6 = 7 1 2 β α 8 C.

67. Answer: E
Step 2: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % I $ Q 4 ? N ^ Y & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β O α 8 C
The Second vowel from the left end is I and the third consonant from the right end is P
The Place value of I is 9 and the place value of P is 16
16-9=7

68. Answer: D
Step 1: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % R $ Q 4 ? M ^ B & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β L α 8 X

69. Answer: B
Step 3: S @ 3 T H 1 # 2 A % $ I Q ? 4 ^ N & Y D 7 * 6 P = 7 V 2 β O α 8 C.
Every alternate element starting from @ is dropped from the given series
Required series:
S3H#A$Q4NY76=VβαC
S3H#A$Q4NY76=VβαC
The third consonant from the left end is Q and the second symbol from the right end is β
Q 4 N Y 7 6 = V β.

70. Answer: C
Step 2: S 3 @ T H 1 # 2 A % I $ Q 4 ? N ^ Y & D 7 6 * P 7 = V 2 β O α 8 C
Every letter is replaced by a succeeding letter as per the alphabetical series
Required series:
T3@UI1#2B%J$R4?O^Z&E76*Q7=W2βPα8D

71. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

72. Answer: D

73. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

74. Answer: C

75. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

76. Answer: B

Clearly, both I and II follow.

77. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Clearly, none of the conclusion follows.

78. Answer: B

Clearly, conclusion I and III follows

79. Answer: A

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Clearly, only conclusion I follows

80. Answer: E

Clearly, none of the conclusions follows

81. Answer: C

82. Answer: D

83. Answer: B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

84. Answer: A

85. Answer: D

86. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

87. Answer: E

88. Answer: E

89. Answer: C

(M can either sibling or cousin of O)

90. Answer: E

Directions (91-93):
We have:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

• Q is the mother of the one who likes 28.

• The one who likes 24 is married to R’s mother.
• The one who likes 18 is married to D, who is the son of P.
• T is the daughter of D and is married to the one who likes 31.
Based on above given information we have:

Again, we have:
• R is the sister-in-law of Q and likes 16.
• The persons who are unmarried members of family like even numbers.
That means, R is the sister of Q’s husband.
• The one who likes 23 is the sister of L, who likes 28.
• Only three married couples are there in the family of three generations.
• H likes 24 and is one of the married male member of the family.
That means, P must be married to H and D must be married to Q.
Since, T is married to the one who likes 31, thus T must likes 23.
• M neither likes 29 nor married to L.
That means, M is married to T.
• The one who likes 23 is the only daughter of the one who likes 32.
That means, L is the son of D and D likes 32.
Based on above given information we have:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

91. Answer: B
Clearly, H is father-in-law of Q.
Hence, option B is correct choice.

92. Answer: A
Clearly, the one who likes 16 is Aunty of the one who likes 23.
Hence, option A is correct choice.

93. Answer: B
Clearly, M is the son-in-law of the one who likes 32.
Hence, option B is correct choice.

Directions (94-95):

94. Answer: B
Clearly, G is the daughter-in-law of J.
Hence, option B is correct choice.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

95. Answer: A
Clearly, B is the aunty of U.
Hence, option A is correct choice.

Directions (96-100):
Final arrangement:

We have,
• Only two floors are between I and B, both are living in the same type of flat.
• I lives in the immediate west flat of C.
• D lives two floors below C but both are living in the same type of flat.
After applying the above conditions, there are two possibilities.

Again, we have
• No one lives to the east of H.
• Only one floor is between H and F but both are not living in different type of flats.
• E lives west of H and lives immediately above the flat of A.
• A does not live in Flat Q.
After applying the above conditions, there is another possibility.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again, we have
• The number of persons living above B in the same type of flat is two more than the number of
persons living below G in the same type of flat.
• No one lives below G in the same type of flat.
• K lives on one of the floors above J but not immediately above.
After applying the above conditions, case 1 and 1a get eliminated because there is no place for G,
hence case 2 shows the final arrangement.

96. Answer: E
97. Answer: C
98. Answer: C
99. Answer: D
100. Answer: E
Directions (101-105):
Final arrangement:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have,
• The one whose salary is 12000 lives three floor below R where both lives in different flats.
• The number of floors below the one whose salary is 12000 is one less than the number of floors
above S, where both lives in the same flat.
From the above conditions, we have four possibilities:

Again we have,
• As many floors between R and Q as between X and Q, who lives northeast of Y.
• X doesn’t live on the same floor with R.
• Y, whose monthly salary is multiple of seven, lives on an even numbered floor. (While applying
these conditions, case 2 gets eliminated)

Again we have,
• Two floors are between the one whose salary is 23000 and U, where both lives in the same flat.
• The one whose salary is 25000 lives to the east of U.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

While applying this condition, case 3 gets eliminated.

Again we have,
• The sum of salaries of T and W is equal to S, whose salary is less than Y.
• Salary of P is more than V.
• Q lives north of the one whose salary is 9000. (While applying this condition, case 1 and 4 gets
eliminated)
• The salary difference between V and R is a multiple of nine.
• Salary of U is 4000 more than W.

Thus, case 1.a gives the final arrangement.

101. Answer: B
102. Answer: B
103. Answer: D
104. Answer: E
105. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

(In the given options, each person has salary which is a multiple of 3, except option e)

Directions (106-110):
Final arrangement

We have,
• Only two floors are between V and K, who lives on the fourth floor.
• C lives three floors above the flat of V.
• No one lives to the west of C.
From the above condition, there are three possibilities

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• C lives four floors away from Q, who lives two floors above M.
• Q lives west of T
• M doesn’t live on the floor number which is a multiple of 3.
• No one lives between T and F, who lives two floors below the flat of S.
After applying the above condition, Case1 gets eliminated. Because there is no possibility to place M.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• As many floors between I and F as below B
• Only two floors are between S and I but both of them are not living in the same type of flat.
• Only four floors are between W and B, who lives four floors below the flat of R
• E lives immediately below R.
• Only two floors are between E and Z, who doesn’t live adjacent floor of W
• Z lives two floors above N, who lives in different type of flat as F.
• As many floors below N as above C
After applying the above condition, Case 3 gets eliminated. Because there is no possibility to place N.
Hence, Case 2 shows the final arrangement.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

106. Answer: D
107. Answer: A
108. Answer: E (Only two floors are between the given pair of persons except option E)
109. Answer: B
110. Answer: C

Directions (111-115):
Final arrangement:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have,
• Only two boxes are kept between box S and box W.
• Only four boxes are kept between box W and the box which has Tie.
From the above conditions, we have four possibilities,

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• Box T is kept three boxes below the box which has Tie.
• The number of boxes kept between box S and the box has Tie is two less than the number of
boxes kept between box W and box R, which has Belt.
• Only two boxes are kept between box R and the box which has handbag.
Box T and box S are kept adjacent to each other in case 3. Hence it is eliminated.

Again we have,
• Only one box is kept between the box which has handbag and box D, which has Ring.
• Only seven boxes are kept between box D and U.
• The box which has shoe is kept three boxes above box U.
Box T and box U are kept adjacent to each other in case 2. Hence it is eliminated.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• The number of boxes kept between box T and the box which has shoes is one more than the
number of boxes kept between box U and box Q, which has Watch.
• Only two boxes are kept between box Q and box V.
Box Q cannot be placed in case 1. Hence it is eliminated. Thus, case 4 gives the final arrangement.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

111. Answer: B
112. Answer: C
113. Answer: E
114. Answer: D
115. Answer: E
Directions (116-120):
Final arrangement:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have,
• Box S is kept two boxes above the box which has toys.
• Only three boxes are kept between box S and the box which has Balls.
• Box R and the box which has Balls are kept adjacent to each other.
From the above conditions, we have three possibilities,

Again we have,
• Box U, which has Biscuit, is kept immediately below box Q.
• As many boxes kept below box U is two more than the number of boxes kept above the box
which has book.
• The box which has marker is kept two boxes below box P.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• No boxes are kept between box P and the box which has chocolate.
• As many boxes kept between box Q and box V as between the box which has chocolate and box
T.
• Box V has neither marker nor book.
We cannot place the box with chocolate in case 1. Hence it is eliminated.
We cannot place box V and box T in case 2. Hence it is eliminated. Thus, case 3 gives the final
arrangement.

116. Answer: E
117. Answer: C
118. Answer: D
119. Answer: B
120. Answer: A
Directions (121-125):
Final arrangement:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have,
• The box which has 42 coins is kept three boxes above box C, which has 20 coins more than the
box which is kept on the topmost shelf.
• Only one box is kept between box C and box D, which has 4 coins more than box A.
From the above conditions, we have three possibilities,

Again we have,
• As many boxes kept above box D as below box B.
• Box H, which is not kept on the bottommost shelf, has 4 coins more than box C.
• Less than four boxes are kept between box H and the box which has 28 coins less than box H.
• Box F is kept four boxes above box G.
While applying above conditions, case 2 gets eliminated, because can’t place H.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again we have,
• The box which is kept on the fifth shelf has twice the number of coins in box G.
• The sum of the number of coins in Box E and box A is 66.
Case 1 gets eliminated, because box D should have 4 coins more than box A, which is not possible.
Thus, case 3 gives the final arrangement.

121. Answer: C
122. Answer: B
123. Answer: A
124. Answer: D
125. Answer: E

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Directions (126-130):

We have:
• The one who likes Bata joined on an even numbered date in a month having an odd number of
days.
• Only three persons joined between the one who likes Bata and W, who joined immediately after
the one who likes Nike.
That means, in case (1) the one who likes Bata joined on 4 March, in case (2) the one who likes Bata
joined on 4 August.
Based on the above given information we have:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again, we have:
• R joined four persons before the one who likes Red Chief.
• At least one and not more than three persons joined between the one who likes Bata and R.
• Both R and O like neither Nike nor Adidas.
That means, in case (1) R joined on 9 March, in case (2) R joined on 7 June, in case (2a) R joined on 4
June.
Based on the above given information we have:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again, we have:
• S joined three persons before the one who likes Adidas.
• Both O and S like neither Bata nor Nike.
• As many persons joined before the one who likes Adidas as after O.
Since, R doesn’t like Adidas.
That means, in case (2) S joined on 4 March, in case (2a) R joined on 9 June, case (1) is not valid.
Based on the above given information we have:

Case (1) is not valid as O doesn’t like Bata.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again, we have:
• As many persons joined between the one who likes Red Chief and O as between P and the one
who likes Relaxo.
• The one who likes Relaxo joined immediately after U, who joined on an even numbered date.
That means, in case (2) U joined on 4 June, case (2a) is not valid.
• P and the one who likes Mochi joined in the same month.
• Only three persons joined between T and the one who likes Mochi.
That means, W likes Mochi and T likes Bata.
Based on the above given information we have:

Case (2a) is not valid as the one who likes Relaxo joined immediate after U.
Again, we have:
• More than two persons joined between the one who likes Liberty and Q, who likes neither Red
Chief nor Reebok.
Thus, S likes Liberty and O likes Reebok.
Based on the above given information we have:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

126. Answer: B
127. Answer: C
128. Answer: D (All the persons joined in the month having 31 days except option D)
129. Answer: A
130. Answer: B
Directions (131-135):
Final arrangement

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have:
• A was born on an even numbered date of the month having 31 days.
• Only two persons were born between A and the one who gets 21 toffees.
• F was born three persons before the one who gets five toffees more than B.
• F was born on an odd numbered date and gets an even number of toffees.
• A was neither born in the same month along with F nor with G, who gets an even number of
toffees.
From the above conditions, there are two possibilities.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Again, we have:
• The one who gets 26 toffees was born three persons after B.
• B was born immediately after H but not in the same month.
• The number of persons born between C and H is one less than the number of persons born after
the one who gets 12 toffees.
From the above conditions, there is one more possibility and case 1 gets eliminated.

Again, we have:
• The number of toffees that G gets is twice the number of toffees that C gets. Since, only such
possible combinations are (9, 18) and (13, 26).
• Not more than three persons were born between G and the one who gets 9 toffees.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

• E doesn’t get 15 toffees. Since, F gets an even number of toffees.

From the above conditions, case 2 gets eliminated.

131. Answer: B
132. Answer: D
133. Answer: E (Only one person was born between both the persons, except option e)
134. Answer: C
135. Answer: A
Directions (136-140):
Final arrangement:

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have,
• W was born four months before Y, where both of them born in the month having an odd number
of days.
• No person was born in December.
• Only one person was born between Y and B, who was born in the month having days which is a
multiple of five.
• B was not born before June and after October.
• W and Y were born on an even numbered date.
From the above conditions, there are two possibilities

Again, we have
• T was born in one of the months after July but in the month having odd days.
• The number of persons born before W is one less then number of persons born after T.
• One of the persons was born on 9th February.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

• At least two persons were born between Q and one who was born in September 3 rd.
• Q was born neither after T nor in April.
• More than two persons were born before Y.

Again, we have
• S was born immediately after the one who was born in October 9th.
• As many persons born between Q and W as after T.
• Only two persons were born between A and C, who was born on 7th of the month.
• C was neither born in June nor in July.
• S doesn’t born on 7th of any of the month.
After applying the above conditions case-2 gets eliminated because the statement ,As many persons
born between Q and W as after T is not satisfied, hence case-1 shows the final arrangement.

136. Answer: C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

137. Answer: E
138. Answer: E
139. Answer: A
140. Answer: C (All of them were born on an odd numbered date except option (c))
141. Answer: D
A Course of Action should always be inclined towards lessening the problem and never an extreme
step. The option that one chooses should either solve the issue given in the context or at least lessen
the intensity of the same.
The first option is an extreme step which should be avoided as it won’t make any difference.
Option (b) is not a solution as it would put a lot of pressure on the country and increase the problem
indirectly.
It has been given in the paragraph that the people have become anxious as they have no access to
even the basic necessities so as per the content above, it has been said that a new leadership should
quickly take charge. Option (c) could be correct had the issue been stopping the protests. But the issue
asked is mentioned at the end of the paragraph. (e) becomes superfluous looking at the situation given
in the paragraph.
So, the correct answer is option (d).

142. Answer: B
As per the condition, only I is the correct answer as it will help in addressing the problem that has been
given. II can be eliminated as it is an extreme solution. Personal library for everyone is a bit
unreasonable, so this can be ruled out.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

143. Answer: B
As per the condition, only I is the correct answer as it will help in addressing the problem that has been
given. II can be eliminated as it is an extreme solution. Personal library for everyone is a bit
unreasonable, so this can be ruled out.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

144. Answer: C

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

The problem that has been mentioned in the paragraph is that the parents are not able to pay attention
to their children even when spending time together because they get consumed by their smartphones.
So, a step that would help in reducing or eliminating this problem is the ideal course of action. If we
evaluate (I), we can conclude that it may help in controlling smartphone addiction but the real issue here
is controlling the use of phone while spending time with children. So, this can be eliminated even if it is
very close. (III) is not an ideal solution as its not about the type of phone and also not buying a certain
type of phone doesn’t guarantee spending quality time with children.
The best COA therefore should be (II) as it addresses the issue directly.
So, the best option is (c).

145. Answer: C
Both I and II would prevent further spread of the virus and it will be easier to manage and take
preventive measures.
However, III is okay till the event to be cancelled but isolating all players won’t be possible and that too
when we do not know for sure that all the players have caught the virus or not.
So, the best option is (c).

146. Answer: D
The best conclusion is one that can be defined as a judgement or decision reached by reasoning or can
be put as a last part of something.
So, the best statement that justifies the basics in the lines above is statement I.
Therefore, option (d) is correct.

147. Answer: B
The statement says that the antibodies neutralize Omicron but (b) talks about a certain antibody that
reduces the neutralizing capacity which is opposite of what is being discussed in the statement.
So, the best option that weakens the point being made above is (b).

148. Answer: E
According to the statements, it is understood that the centre and state governments are not giving
enough priority in developing the education system of government-run schools. They need fund infusion

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.

Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

and all the facilities to be provided to government–run schools have to be among the highest national
priorities. Therefore, both the conclusions follow.

149. Answer: A
The correct answer is Option a, i.e. Only conclusion I follows.
According to the statement, this will lead to friendly relations. Therefore, every country will help its
supporting and friendly country. But this does not mean that they together will terrorize other countries
and nothing about this is mentioned in the statement.
Thus, the correct answer is option a.

150. Answer: B
The given information says that the price of gold would rise and reach the 55,000 per 10 grams mark
which means the price had fallen before that.
So, (b) is the most logical conclusion that can be drawn.
All other options can be eliminated as they seem to look like additional information and hence do not fit
well to be the correct conclusion.

151. Answer: D
Assumption I: It is implicit because the decision to impose rigid fines for the traffic rules violation would
make people careful while coming on the roads with their vehicles.
Assumption II: This may be included in the amendment bill, but it could not be an assumption.
Assumption III: It is not implicit, as nothing about the previous governments or
their measures is mentioned in the statement.

152. Answer: B
There is a likelihood that tobacco consumers will shift to cigarette smoking if cigarette prices were to
reduce.
This is the exact assumption for the given statement

153. Answer: B
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as the statement mentions. So, I
is not implicit.

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The statement mentions that the individual's worth shall be reviewed (during probation period) before
confirmation. So, II is implicit.

154. Answer: C
The entire paragraph focusses on addressing the issue of sleep disorders and at multiple places, the
skin has also been mentioned. It gives us a hint that the author assumes that people are affected by
their sleep cycle and they are concerned as it directly affects their skin. If we assume that the people
look for good skin health, we will be able to understand the analogy.
Options (a) and (b) are superfluous as; (a) looks more like a fact and not an assumption and (b) is not
necessarily true. It cannot be assumed as nothing about the quality etc of the ingredients has been
discussed. (d) is illogical as no connection about the same can be made through the paragraph about
the same.
Thus, the best would be to go with option (c) as the answer.

155. Answer: C
If we look at the options, the first option can already be found as a fact in the sentence. So, the same
cannot be taken as an assumption.
An assumption is a sentence that if checked can help us understand the belief based on which the
things given in the statement can be based.
The second sentence if assumed, can help us understand why the children seem to be excited about
the celebrations as they assume there would be cake for sure… So, this counts for a strong
assumption.
If the third statement if assumed, doesn’t help us deduce any of the facts given above. Yes, the size of
the family has been mentioned but that doesn’t help us create a relationship between the size and the
enjoyment in the celebration.
So, the best would be to mark option (c) as the answer.

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English Language
Filler
Direction (1-20): The following statement has three blanks which are to be filled with the options given
below. Find the right combination of words which when placed in the same order as given in the option
can most suitably complete the sentence without changing the meaning of the statement.
1. In light of the company’s recent ____________ performance, management is expected to take
____________ steps to ____________ potential future losses.
A) lackluster, decisive, mitigate
B) stellar, minor, amplify
C) exceptional, vague, ignore
D) unsatisfactory, indifferent, increase
E) None of these

2. The rapid development of artificial intelligence has led to both ____________ advancements in
technology and ____________ concerns regarding the ____________ impact on employment across
various sectors.
A) incremental, exaggerated, trivial
B) minor, unwarranted, negligible
C) transformative, legitimate, profound
D) disruptive, questionable, limited
E) None of these

3. Although the ____________ of climate change are becoming increasingly evident, many governments
continue to ____________ necessary reforms, potentially ____________ the planet’s ecological balance
irreversibly.
A) consequences, delay, jeopardize
B) benefits, implement, restore
C) advantages, expedite, improve
D) risks, embrace, safeguard
E) None of these

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4. Despite their initial ____________, the scientists soon realized that their ____________ hypothesis did
not account for several ____________ factors, leading them to reassess their approach.
A) confidence, conclusive, trivial
B) doubt, final, minor
C) hesitation, flawed, irrelevant
D) enthusiasm, preliminary, crucial
E) None of these

5. In an increasingly globalized world, the ability to ____________ cross-cultural communication and

collaboration is ____________ to success in international business, particularly in ____________ markets
where local customs and practices vary significantly.
A) disrupt, irrelevant, homogeneous
B) navigate, fundamental, diverse
C) complicate, unnecessary, predictable
D) dismiss, secondary, uniform
E) None of these

6. As the government continues to ____________ economic reforms, it must also ____________ the
challenges posed by ____________ inflation and stagnating growth rates.
A) implement, address, rising
B) reverse, ignore, stable
C) introduce, amplify, decreasing
D) delay, intensify, low
E) None of these

7. The new policy framework aims to ____________ innovation in the technology sector by ____________
regulations that ____________ startups from entering the market.
A) inhibit, maintaining, assist
B) foster, removing, hinder
C) obstruct, enforcing, benefit
D) regulate, imposing, support

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E) None of these

8. Despite the ____________ of the global economy, businesses are expected to ____________ growth
through ____________ strategies that adapt to changing market conditions.
A) instability, drive, agile
B) prosperity, stifle, stagnant
C) volatility, spur, flexible
D) recession, curb, conservative
E) None of these

9. In order to ____________ sustainable energy practices, governments must ____________ both

financial incentives and ____________ support for research and development.
A) undermine, withdraw, minimal
B) promote, offer, significant
C) restrict, reduce, negligible
D) hinder, diminish, substantial
E) None of these

10. The CEO's decision to ____________ a new product line was driven by the company's need to
____________ its declining market share in an increasingly ____________ industry.
A) scrap, salvage, growing
B) abandon, increase, saturated
C) launch, reverse, competitive
D) reduce, maintain, shrinking
E) None of these

11. The ____________ of renewable energy technologies has ____________ dramatically in recent years,
driven by ____________ concerns about climate change and energy security.
A) popularity, diminished, irrelevant
B) adoption, accelerated, growing
C) use, decelerated, declining

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D) rejection, decreased, increasing

E) None of these

12. As artificial intelligence becomes more ____________, companies are investing heavily in
____________ that allow them to ____________ complex data.
A) obsolete, methods, simplify
B) ubiquitous, technologies, analyze
C) irrelevant, practices, ignore
D) limited, strategies, avoid
E) None of these

13. The ____________ growth of the startup was attributed to its ____________ business model and its
ability to ___________ to market demands.
A) rapid, innovative, adapt
B) slow, traditional, respond
C) minimal, outdated, conform
D) unpredictable, rigid, ignore
E) None of these

14. The ____________ of global supply chains during the pandemic ____________ the vulnerabilities of a
____________ interconnected world economy.
A) resilience, strengthened, loosely
B) disruption, exposed, highly
C) efficiency, masked, partially
D) continuity, concealed, rarely
E) None of these

15. As companies strive to ____________ their operations, they must also ____________ the growing
need for environmental sustainability and ____________ practices that support long-term ecological
balance.
A) reduce, amplify, reverse

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B) streamline, address, implement

C) complicate, downplay, ignore
D) expand, overlook, eliminate
E) None of these

16. The ____________ between different departments in the organization ____________ progress,
leading to delays in key projects and ____________ inefficiencies in resource allocation.
A) cooperation, hastened, improved
B) collaboration, accelerated, eliminated
C) conflict, hindered, exacerbated
D) synergy, facilitated, reduced
E) None of these

17. While the company’s initial efforts to ____________ were met with success, it soon became apparent
that the ____________ nature of the market required continuous ____________ to remain competitive.
A) innovate, dynamic, adaptation
B) regress, stable, stagnation
C) downsize, volatile, resistance
D) expand, predictable, hesitation
E) None of these

18. The ____________ in global markets has forced companies to ____________ their traditional
business models and ____________ new strategies for survival.
A) stability, retain, enforce
B) volatility, rethink, adopt
C) consistency, maintain, refine
D) growth, discard, ignore
E) None of these

19. The ____________ of advanced analytics tools has ____________ organizations to make data-driven
decisions, ____________ improving efficiency and effectiveness.

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A) rejection, allowed, thus

B) removal, restricted, by
C) introduction, enabled, thereby
D) lack, prevented, consequently
E) None of these

20. The increasing dependence on digital technologies has ____________ both opportunities and
challenges, as companies must ____________ data privacy concerns while ____________ innovation to
stay competitive.
A) created, downplay, restrain
B) amplified, mitigate, fostering
C) diminished, embrace, delaying
D) restricted, ignore, enhancing
E) None of these

Idioms Phrases
Direction (21-30): In each of the questions given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then
followed by five options. Try to understand its meaning as used in the sentence. Choose the option
which gives the meaning of the idiom/phrase most appropriately in the context of the given sentence.
21. After hearing about the sudden resignation of the CEO, the board members decided to bury the
hatchet and move forward with the company's new strategy.
A. Hide their feelings
B. Ignore the problem
C. Settle their differences
D. Delay the decision
E. Revisit the conflict

22. Even though the new project is risky, we should take it with a pinch of salt and proceed cautiously.
A. Accept it without question
B. Be skeptical about it
C. Reject it outright
D. Consider it seriously

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E. Approach it with excitement

23. After weeks of negotiations, the two companies were finally able to break the ice and begin working
together.
A. Start a conversation
B. Finalize the agreement
C. End the partnership
D. Establish dominance
E. Avoid the discussion

24. The manager’s decision to transfer John to a new team was seen as an attempt to pass the buck
and avoid responsibility for the department's poor performance.
A. Delegate responsibility
B. Shift blame to someone else
C. Offer a solution
D. Motivate the team
E. Avoid confrontation

25. Despite the market crash, the company decided to keep its chin up and focus on future
opportunities.
A. Avoid taking risks
B. Wait for better results
C. Maintain a positive attitude
D. Lower expectations
E. Plan for the worst

26. When Sarah got her promotion, she didn’t hesitate to blow her own trumpet about her
achievements.
A. Criticize others
B. Complain about work
C. Acknowledge her mistakes

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D. Brag about herself

E. Seek sympathy

27. The team was working well, but the sudden disagreement between John and Maria threw a spanner
in the works.
A. Created a big opportunity
B. Brought a new idea
C. Solved a misunderstanding
D. Speeded up progress
E. Caused a problem

28. The company had to cut corners on production costs in order to stay within budget.
A. Complete the task early
B. Take shortcuts to save time or money
C. Invest more in quality
D. Improve efficiency
E. Delay the project

29. After months of negotiations, the deal finally fell through, and the partners decided to pursue other
opportunities.
A. Was delayed
B. Became successful
C. Was cancelled
D. Was improved
E. Was postponed

30. After months of struggle, Rachel finally turned the corner and started seeing positive changes in her
career.
A. Made significant progress
B. Reached a dead-end
C. Faced a new obstacle

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D. Gave up on her goals

E. Took a wrong direction

Direction (31-35): In the question below, a statement has been given with a blank. In the options some
idioms/phrases are given which may or may not fit meaningfully in the blank. You are required to
choose from the options, the one that provides the correct combination of the idioms/phrases which fit in
the blanks grammatically and contextually.
31. The company has been facing numerous challenges, but the CEO is confident that if everyone
works together, they will successfully _____________________.
A. cut corners
B. weather the storm
C. hit the nail on the head
D. let the cat out of the bag
E. None of these

32. Despite all the difficulties, she decided to _____________ and finish the project, knowing it would be
rewarding in the end.
A. bite the bullet
B. kick the bucket
C. throw in the towel
D. burn the midnight oil
E. None of these

33. His excuses for not finishing the task were nothing but ___________________; everyone knew he
hadn't even started.
A. a blessing in disguise
B. a cock and bull story
C. the tip of the iceberg
D. a piece of cake
E. None of these

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34. The new manager's strategies helped the company improve its sales, but they still have a long way
to go to truly _______________.
A. turn over a new leaf
B. move heaven and earth
C. turn the corner
D. kill two birds with one stone
E. None of these

35. She didn't realize the impact of her words until it was too late, and by then, she had already
_____________________.
A. opened a can of worms
B. put the cart before the horse
C. crossed the Rubicon
D. taken it with a grain of salt
E. None of these

Column and word swap

Directions- (36-45): In the table given below two columns are given to connect the sentence. The sentence
given in column A may or may not be connected with column B contextually and grammatically. You have
to identify possible combination to combine the sentence from column A to column B. If any possible
connections are not found from the option, choose “None of these” as your answer.
36.
Column A Column B
A.The rapid adoption of blockchain 1.in how financial transactions are verified,
technology across industries signals a decentralized, and secured.
profound shift
B.Her astute observations on the interplay 2.health outcomes offers fresh insights into
between socio-economic factors and public tackling systemic inequalities.
C.The diplomatic negotiations reached an 3.compromise on territorial disputes,
impasse as both parties refused to exacerbating regional tensions.

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A) A2, B3 & C1
B) Only A1 & C3
C) C3, B2& A1
D) Only C1 & B2
E) None of these

37.
Column A Column B
A.The global energy crisis has prompted 1.data encryption, making cyber-attacks
governments to expedite the transition to more difficult to execute.
B.His critical analysis of modern literature 2.prevalent in works that grapple with the
underscores the existential angst and uncertainties of contemporary life.
disillusionment
C.The complex algorithm developed by the 3.renewable energy sources, with solar and
research team significantly enhances wind power taking center stage in policy
discussions.
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) Only B1 & A2
D) A3, C1 & B2
E) None of these

38.
Column A Column B
A.Her charismatic leadership style 1.unprecedented challenges, requiring
galvanized the organization, fostering an innovative approaches to elder care and
environment of resource allocation.
B.The ecological ramifications of 2.collaboration and innovation that propelled
deforestation have become increasingly the company to new heights.
dire, threatening
C.As the nation grapples with an aging 3.biodiversity and accelerating the affects of

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population, the healthcare system faces climate change on a global scale.

A) Only A1& C3
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) C3, B1 & A2
D) Only C1 & B2
E) None of these

39.
Column A Column B
A.The novel’s intricate narrative structure, 1.growth butalso ledto complex regulatory
alternating between multiple perspectives, challenges that demand constant
adds adaptation.
B.The intricate network of trade agreements 2.layers of depth to the reader’s
between the nations has bolstered understanding of the characters’
economic motivations.
C.The philosopher’s seminal work on the 3.influenced contemporary debates on free
nature of consciousness has profoundly will and the human experience.
A) Only B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) B1, C3& A2
D) A3, C1 & B2
E) None of these

40.
Column A Column B
A.The volatility of global financial markets in 1.privileged and underserved communities
recent months has sparked widespread through equal access to resources.
concern
B.Her philanthropic endeavors focus on 2.among investors, driving a surge in
education reform, aiming to bridge the gap demand for safer assets like gold.
between

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C.The technological innovations emerging 3.medical diagnostics, offering

from the biotech sector have revolutionized unprecedented precision in detecting and
treating diseases.
A) Only B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) C3, B1 & A2
D) A3, C1 & B2
E) None of these

41.
Column A Column B
A.The increasing reliance on artificial 1.focusing on long-term growth rather than
intelligence in healthcare diagnostics is short-term gains.
B.The nobel’s portrayal of intergenerational 2.and modernity, creating a rich tapestry of
conflict captures the tension between cultural introspection.
tradition
C.Amid the volatility of emerging markets, 3.transforming patient care, offering more
investors are adopting more cautious accurate results while raising ethical
strategies, concerns about data usage.
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) Only A1 & C3
C) C3, B1 & A2
D) Only A3&C1
E) None of these

42.
Column A Column B
A.Her philanthropic initiative aimed at 1.mobilizing resources and reshaping
eradicating childhood illiteracy has gained educational outreach programs.
global recognition,
B.The government's stimulus package, 2.economy, has sparked debate over its

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designed to revitalize small businesses in long-term fiscal sustainability.

the post-pandemic
C.The biotechnological advances in gene 3.potential cures for previously untreatable
editing have revolutionized medicine, genetic disorders but also igniting ethical
offering debates.
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) Only B1 & A2
D) A3, C1 & B2
E) None of these

43.
Column A Column B
A.The diplomatic envoy's deft negotiation 1.a compelling exploration of identity and the
skills diffused a potentially volatile situation, passage of time.
B.Her entrepreneurial success in 2.preventing an escalation of hostilities
establishing a sustainable fashion brand between the two nations.
highlights the
C.The narrative’s nonlinear structure mirrors 3.growing consumer demand for ethical and
the protagonist’s fragmented memories, environmentally conscious products.
creating
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) Only B1 & A2
D) A3, C1 & B2
E) None of these

44.
Column A Column B
A.As climate disasters become more 1.reducing dependence fossil fuels and
frequent, insurance companies are reshaping geopolitical power structures.

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recalibrating their
B.The intersection of neuroscience and 2.human cognition, though concerns about
artificial intelligence is opening new avenues ethical limits remain prevalent.
for enhancing
C.The surge in renewable energy adoption 3.risk models, reflecting the rising cost of
has triggered a significant shift in global natural catastrophes.
energy markets,
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) Only B2& C3
C) C3, B1 & A2
D) Only A1& B2
E) None of these

45.
Column A Column B
A.The museum’s collection of surrealist art, 1.about humanity’s potential colonization of
featuring works that defy conventional other planets, raising both excitement and
aesthetics, ethical questions.
B.Her comprehensive study on the 2.challenges viewers to engage with the
socioeconomic impacts of urban migration subconscious and the absurd.
underscores
C.The ongoing exploration of Mars by 3.the urgent need for policies that address
robotic missions continues to fuel housing shortages and infrastructure
speculation development.
A) A2, B3 & C1
B) B2, A1 & C3
C) C3, B1 & A2
D) Only C1 & B2
E) None of these

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Direction (46-50): In the following question, two sentences with five words are given in bold. These words
may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct
combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. In case, none of the
options seem to be correct, mark option E i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.
46.
I.The unprecedented convergence of (A) internationaland globalization has (B) catalyzed a new era of
economic interdependence, forcing businesses to rethink their competitive strategies.
II.Her unparalleled expertise in (C) astrophysics has garnered (D) digitalizationacclaim, particularly for her
work on dark matter and its (E) implications for our understanding of the universe.
a) A-C & B-E
b) A-D & B-C
c) Only A-D
d) A-E & B-D
e) None of these

47.
I. The (A) psychologicalrelationship between political stability and economic growth is frequently
(B)oeuvreby external shocks, such as geopolitical tensions or financial crises.
II.His literary (C) disruptedis renowned for its intricate character development, exploring the (D) symbiotic
depths of individuals (E) grappling with existential dilemmas.
a) A-C & B-E
b) A-D & B-C
c) Only B-E
d) A-E & B-D
e) None of these

48.
I.The (A) burgeoning interest in plant-based diets is not only a reflection of changing consumer
preferences but also (B) indicative of a broader shift toward sustainable living.

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II.The financial institution’s aggressive expansion into (C) emerging markets has drawn criticism for (D)
exacerbating income inequality while simultaneously (E) boosting investor profits.
a) A-C & B-E
b) A-D & B-C
c) Only B-E
d) A-E & B-D
e) None of these

49.
I.The architect’s (A) tangibleuse of biomimicry in designing eco-friendly buildings demonstrates the
profound potential for nature-(B) poisedsolutions to modern urban challenges.
II.As quantum computing becomes more (C)innovative, the (D) implications for industries ranging from
cryptography to pharmaceuticals are (E)inspiredto be nothing short of revolutionary.
a) A-C & B-E
b) A-D & B-C
c) Only B-E
d) A-E & B-D
e) None of these

50.
I.Her (A) stricter commentary on social justice issues illuminates the systemic inequalities that continue
to (B) permeate legal frameworks and cultural institutions alike.
II.The (C) proliferation of misinformation on social media platforms has created a breeding ground for (D)
polarization, necessitating (E) incisivecontent moderation policies.
a) A-C & B-E
b) A-D & B-C
c) Only A-E
d) A-E & B-D
e) None of these

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Para-Jumbles
Direction (51-55): The following statements have been taken from a paragraph but these are not in their
proper order. Read the same carefully and rearrange the same so that they form a coherent paragraph
A). With utmost confidence, the government informed the court that
B). To supplement this argument, the government produced
C). The Union government was emphatic in informing the Supreme Court that no one has died due to
hunger in India.
D). a health survey report of 2015 and an article from a newspaper.
E). there have been no starvation deaths in the country during recent times, even during adverse
situations like the pandemic
51. Which of the given sentences will be the first statement after rearrangement?
A. E
B. D
C. A
D. None of the above
E. B

52. The correct sequence of the statements given above is?

A. ABDEC
B. CAEBD
C. DECBA
D. BEDCA
E. CDEAB

53. Which of the following options will be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C
E. E

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54. The concluding sentence after rearrangement would be?

A. D
B. C
C. E
D. A
E. B

55. The sentence that will come after D in the given paragraph will be?
A. E
B. A
C. C
D. B
E. There is no such sentence

Direction (56-60): In the following questions, a small passage is divided into six statements, and
jumbled into a random order. You have to arrange the statements so that a meaningful passage can be
formed
A). Designed to look like a slim picture frame, the TV blends seamlessly with the wall décor
B). Is it a TV or is it a picture frame?
C). A palette of 16 different colours to make them more realistic
D). The new model comes with customizable bezels, matte display, art mode and Samsung’s
proprietary QLED technology to offer immersive entertainment
E). Samsung is making consumers ask the question once again as it has introduced the latest edition of
its premium lifestyle TV
F). You can even upload and display your family or travel photographs or customize your pictures with
five different mat layout options
56. After arrangement, which of the following is the third statement?
A. B
B. C
C. D

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D. E
E. F
57. After arrangement, which of the following is the starting statement?
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. E
E. F

58. After arrangement, which of the following is the second statement?

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. F

59. After arrangement, which of the following is the last statement?

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. F

60. After arrangement, which of the following is the fifth statement?

A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. F

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Direction (61-65): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) to make a
meaningful paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
A. This may seem a tad too modest coming from a writer with a voluminous literary output.
B. A decade back, she took a break from the wizarding world and fantastic beasts and turned to writing
crime fiction.
C. A few years ago, during an interaction with her readers on Twitter, she said, “The wonderful and
terrifying thing about writing is that there is always a blank page waiting”.
D. The heart of the matter is that even a prodigiously prolific writer like Rowling can be daunted by a
blank page on certain days.
E. JK Rowling, creator of the ‘Harry Potter’ series, is known to share her thoughts on writing very often.
61. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
A.D
B.B
C.C
D.E
E.A

62. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the
rearrangement?
A.D
B.B
C.C
D.E
E.A

63. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
A.D
B.B
C.C
D.E
E.A

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64. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
A.D
B.B
C.C
D.E
E.A

65. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
A.D
B.B
C.C
D.E
E.A

Direction (66-70): The five sentences given below have been taken from a paragraph but these are not
in their proper order. You must rearrange the same to form a paragraph before marking answers to the
questions given below them.
A). But is it affordable for all of us? Poverty and population rise are still one of the leading factors
responsible for a lot of issues in the country.
B). This is where millet made its grand entry again!
C). After two years of isolation and chaotic challenges, people have finally realised the importance of
maintaining a healthy mental and physical routine.
D). Hence, people as well as the government had no other choice but to introduce grains and other food
items that can be affordable.
E). The health-conscious culture has brought back many long-lost foods and habits that once supported
healthy well-being.
66. Which of the given statements should come first after rearrangement?
A. A
B. E
C. B
D. D

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E. C

67. Which of the given options should come third in the given sequence?
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. B
E. D

68. Which of the given statements comes last in the sequence of the sentences?
A. A
B. E
C. D
D. B
E. C

69. Which of the given sequences should be the correct arrangement of the sentences above?
A. BECAD
B. DEACB
C. DBECA
D. CEADB
E. BADEC

70. Which of the given options would be the penultimate statement after rearrangement?
A. D
B. E
C. A
D. B
E. C

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Direction (71-75): A set of sentences is given, which when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. A sentence given in bold is fixed at the respective position and need not to be rearranged.
Arrange the remaining sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow.
A). Personality as a whole means a combination of characteristics and appearance of an individual that
includes the pattern of thought, feelings, attitude, his behaviour, communication ability and physical
features.
B). Every individual is different from the other and possesses a personality of his own that is unique
from the others in every form.
C). Personality is an important thing in the life of a person that determines not only his professional
success but also his overall behaviour and attitude in life.
D). You must have noticed that there are people who have a lot of friends in a school, college or office
and there are also people in the same place who don’t socialize much and have very few friends.
E). It has been believed that a child inherits a lot of personality traits from its parents.
F). This difference is mainly due to the difference in thinking, characteristics and most importantly the
difference in the personality of the people.
71. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

72. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

73. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

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A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

74. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

75. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Direction (76- 80): The given statements have been taken from a paragraph but have not been given in
their correct order. You are required to read them carefully and rearrange them in a proper sequence
that forms a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions that follow
A. The Wholesale Price Index suggested abnormal inflationary pressures on the common man.
B. Seasonal factors do intervene to push up prices to abnormal levels.
C. The data released by the government suggest inflation reached a shocking high of 15.08 per cent in
April, up from 14.55 per cent in March.
D. The nation was outraged to see reports of lemons being sold for Rs 200 to Rs 300 a kg in many parts
of the country but the story of prices wasn’t restricted to one item.
E. Even lemon can burn holes in the pocket once in a while.
76. Which of the given sentences would come exactly in the middle after the rearrangement?

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A.E
B.D
C.A
D.B
E.C

77. Choose the option that gives a pair of consecutive sentences.

A.EC
B.CB
C.AB
D.EA
E.BD

78. Which of the following sentences would be the last sentence after rearrangement?
A.D
B.A
C.B
D.C
E.E

79. Which of the given sequences is the correct rearrangement of the given sentences?
A.ABEDC
B.BEDAC
C.EBDAC
D.CEDAB
E.DEACB

80. Which of the following is the introductory statement?

A.A
B.C
C.D

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D.B
E.E

Direction (81-85): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (Note: The position of the highlighted sentence
i.e (D) is correct and does not require rearrangement)
(A) However, there are variations both among and within countries in the number of cases and in case
fatality rates.
(B) In comparison, the U.S. and the U.K., which also reported their first cases around the same time,
recorded over 13,47,930 cases and over 2,24,330 cases, and over 80,600 deaths and over 32,100
deaths, respectively.
(C) COVID-19 has caused severe disruption across the world.
(D) Further, India had reported its first case on January 30, 2020; as of May 12, it has reported over
71,000 cases and more than 2,300 deaths.
(E) It is not yet clear why such geographical differences exist; they cannot be explained by healthcare
facilities alone.
(F) In general, Europe and the U.S. have borne the brunt of the infection, while Asian and African
countries have been relatively less affected so far.
81. Which of the following statements will be the fifth statement after rearrangement?
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. F
E. E

82. Which of the following statements will be the second statement after rearrangement?
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. F
E. E

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83. Which of the following statements will be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
A. E
B. C
C. A
D. F
E. B

84. Which of the following statements will be the last statement after rearrangement?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. A

85. Which of the following statements will be the first statement after rearrangement?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. A

Direction (86- 90): Given below are few questions based on the jumbled sentences given. You have to
rearrange the jumbled sentences and make a meaningful paragraph and answer the given questions
accordingly.
a). Accenture announced layoffs last month. The company said that it is firing as many as 19,000
workers due to difficult macroeconomic situations.
b). Accenture said that the layoffs are impacting around 2.5 per cent of its workforce, but the company
also said that the company will not immediately eliminate employees.
c). At that point, the company also said that it would continue to hire new people in late 2023.

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d). It said that the layoffs will continue over the next 18 months. "Over the next 18 months, these actions
are expected to result in the departure of approximately 19,000 people (or 2.5 per cent of our current
workforce), and we expect over half of these departures will consist of people in our non-billable
corporate functions," Accenture said in the regulatory filing.
e). "While we continue to hire, especially to support our strategic growth priorities, during the second
quarter of fiscal 2023, we initiated actions to streamline our operations and transform our non-billable
corporate functions to reduce costs," Accenture noted. But looking at the recent LinkedIn job postings, it
appears that amid layoffs, Accenture continues recruiting.
86. Which of the following sentence will come first after rearrangement?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

87. Which of the following sentence will come fourth after rearrangement?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

88. Which of the following sentence will come third after rearrangement?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

89. Which of the following sentence will come fifth after rearrangement?
A. a

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B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

90. Which of the following sentence will come second after rearrangement?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e

Direction (91- 95): A set of six statements is given below in an inappropriate order. Rearrange the
statements and choose the option giving the correct sequence.
A). GIC is the eighth largest wealth management fund in the world.
B). It owned shares worth about Rs. 1.09 lakh crore at the end of March 2022 in India alone.
C). This money is also used by the government for public welfare.
D). Around the world, GIC investments amount to about Rs.55 lakh crore.
E). The Government of Singapore Investment Corporation (GIC) invests internationally in inequities.
F). The money doubled in real terms in the last 20 years.
91. Which of the following should be the third sentence of the paragraph?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

92. What is the FOURTH sentence after rearranging in the paragraph?

A. F
B. E
C. D

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D. A
E. B

93. What is the FIRST sentence after rearranging in the paragraph?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

94. Which of the following should be the second sentence of the paragraph?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

95. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence of the paragraph?
A. D
B. C
C. F
D. B
E. A
Direction (96-100): Some sentences are given below. Arrange these sentences to form a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions given below the sentences.
A) The state’s Disaster Management Plan of 2017 listed several ‘landslide risk mitigation’ measures
including stabilising of hill slopes, afforestation and early warning systems.
B) If that is not possible, the least the state could do is to close the dangerous roads for all but
emergency traffic during rains.
C) Landslides have been a way of life in Himachal, but the level of human exposure to risk of disaster
had remained low due to the state’s low population density.

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D) If implemented fully, these measures could reduce risk to life and property.
E) However, due to a big push for construction of infrastructure and roads, and the resultant increase in
human settlements and road traffic, more lives are in danger than ever before, especially during rains.
96. Which of the following will be the third sentence after rearrangement?
A. C
B. D
C. A
D. E
E. B

97. Which of the following will be the first sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B
E. E

98. Which of the following will be the last sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

99. Which of the following will make a pair of consecutive sentences after the rearrangement?
A. A-C
B. C-D
C. B-A
D. C-E
E. D-C

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100. Which of the following will be the second sentence after rearrangement?
A. E
B. A
C. B
D. C
E. D

Reading Comprehension
Direction (101-107): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Some
words may be highlighted to help you locate the same while answering.
Globalization is a multifaceted phenomenon that has significantly shaped the contemporary world,
fostering interconnectedness and interdependence among nations, economies, and cultures. At its core,
globalization reflects the increasing flow of goods, services, information, and ideas across
borders, transcending geographical boundaries and reshaping traditional notions of sovereignty.
Economically, globalization has ushered in an era of unprecedented interconnectivity. International
trade has surged, facilitated by advancements in transportation and communication technologies. This
integration of markets has enabled countries to specialize in the production of goods and services in
which they have a comparative advantage, fostering economic efficiency and growth. However, it has
also led to concerns about economic inequality, as some regions and social groups benefit more than
others. Culturally, globalization has given rise to a global village, where diverse traditions, languages,
and lifestyles intersect. The exchange of cultural expressions, whether through literature, music, or
cinema, has become more fluid. While this cultural exchange can enhance mutual understanding and
appreciation, it also raises questions about cultural homogenization and the potential loss of distinct
identities.
Technological advancements, particularly in information technology, have been instrumental in
propelling globalization forward. The internet, in particular, has transformed how people communicate
and access information, bridging gaps and fostering a sense of global citizenship. Social media
platforms have amplified voices from every corner of the world, contributing to the emergence of a
global public sphere. Globalization's impact on politics is profound. International institutions and
agreements have proliferated, seeking to regulate and govern global affairs. Nations are increasingly
interconnected through diplomatic, economic, and environmental challenges, necessitating collaborative

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solutions. However, this interconnectedness has also led to concerns about the erosion of national
sovereignty and the potential for powerful multinational corporations to exert undue influence.
While globalization has undoubtedly brought about numerous benefits, it is not without its challenges.
Striking a balance between the advantages of increased connectivity and the need to address issues
like economic disparity, cultural preservation, and environmental sustainability remains a complex and
ongoing task. In navigating the complexities of globalization, societies must actively engage in
thoughtful dialogue and cooperation to harness its potential for the greater good while mitigating its
adverse effects.
101. Which aspect of globalization has raised concerns about potential cultural homogenization and the
loss of distinct identities?
A. Economic interdependence
B. Advancements in information technology
C. The surge in international trade
D. Cultural exchange through literature and music
E. Technological impacts on politics

102. What major economic concern is associated with globalization, as mentioned in the passage?
A. Technological advancements
B. Cultural homogenization
C. Economic inequality
D. Interconnectedness through information technology
E. Rise of multinational corporations

103. How has information technology, particularly the internet, contributed to globalization according to
the passage?
A. Propelling globalization forward
B. Enhancing mutual understanding through cultural exchange
C. Facilitating international trade
D. Addressing issues of economic disparity
E. Eroding national sovereignty

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104. What does the passage suggest is crucial for societies in navigating the complexities of
globalization?
A. Economic disparity
B. Cultural preservation
C. Environmental sustainability
D. Thoughtful dialogue and cooperation
E. All the above

105. According to the passage, what has globalization facilitated in terms of economic activities?
A. Advancements in transportation and communication technologies
B. Surge in international trade
C. Loss of distinct identities
D. Cultural homogenization
E. Specialization in the production of goods and services

106. Which of the following is the SYNONYM of the word ‘TRANSCEND’ as used in the passage?
A. Descend
B. Conform
C. Surrender
D. Hinder
E. Surpass

107. Which of the following is the ANTONYM of the word ‘PROLIFERATE’ as used in the passage?
A. Accumulate
B. Flourish
C. Propagate
D. Dwindle
E. Expand

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Direction (108-114): The passage given below contains few words or phrases highlighted. A blank in
one of the sentences shows that it’s incomplete. Read the given passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow:
Vulnerably every school in the country closed in March 2020, replacing in-person schooling with an
online piecemeal education program. The learning setbacks over the last one and half years range from
grave for all groups of students to catastrophic for poor children. As a parent of two school going kids,
from the start I have felt that the elected officials had been more concerned about reopening bars and
restaurants than safely reopening schools that hold the futures of millions of children in their hands. This
continues to be painfully evident as the states enter yet another pandemic school year without enforcing
public health policies for post-Covid-19 mental wellbeing in in-person schooling. These policies were
needed all the more when the highly infectious variants continue doing the rounds and the coronavirus
seems likely to become a permanent feature of life which in most likelihood will push and pull the school
life years to off and online mode every now and then. Our kids have come out of the toughest times on
the planet and have been doing the best they possibly can, physically and mentally, for the little time
they have been on this earth. Now that the kids are returning to school, we must know that the role of
schools need to be reimagined and enhanced. Schooling a student’s life is not just academic, it is also
about overall development -life skills, social and emotional intelligence. The Covid-19 control measures
have taken a toll on the children, and we have the mental health statistics from WHO that paints a bleak
picture.
WHO stated that a fifth of children and adolescents worldwide suffer from a disabling mental illness.
Epidemiological studies from India suggest nearly 10-15 per cent of those aged 16 or below suffer from
a diagnosable psychiatric disorder. Suicide rates in Indian adolescents appear to be several-fold higher
than anywhere else in the world accounting for a fourth of deaths in boys and 50-75 per cent deaths in
girls aged 10-19 years. Schools have an unprecedented opportunity to improve the lives of young
people and the authorities should recognize this strength of schools as a change-maker in the young
world. It is progressively becoming necessary ___________________________. Authorities governing
schools must recognize and respond to the diverse mental wellness needs of the students
accommodating both different styles/rates of learning and different states of mental health they are in.
Thereby ensuring not only quality education but guiding them develop mental resilience to counteract
stressors of life; and these all should be enabled through an appropriate curriculum, teaching strategies
and resource support.

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What students missed during the pandemic waves are not only academic classes but, sports activities,
field trips, music, while handling anxiety and economic precarity all throughout. Now, they must leap into
the future, with the school’s help. We now need professionals or trained personnel to teach the children
ways to improve their moods/minds -- practicing yoga, meditation and most importantly teach them the
concept and ways to bring in mental resilience to stressors of life. Schools should make available a
space within the school premises where youngsters can immediately find a counsellor or trained adult to
talk with who can identify problems such as depression and anxiety. Schools have the opportunity to
contribute to development of children and adolescents and provide scope for interventions at all levels
of the schooling span. There’s a need to train man power for child/adolescent mental health at various
levels of schooling especially the teachers and student peer groups on screening and preventive aspect
of the mind management.
The government agencies and also NGOs have an important role to play in advocacy, awareness and
comprehensive and continuous training of man power for the wellbeing of the future generation. As a
powerful socializing agent, schools play a crucial role in the transformation of cognitive, linguistic and
psychosocial competencies and creating happy, healthy and harmonious schools for mental health
wellness of kids. Lastly, about policy and practices of mental health, India is yet to develop a
comprehensive approach to school mental health promotion. Currently child mental health policy is non-
existent in spite of the dire consequences of the pandemic times. The five-year plans, until recently,
have set aside only a few crores for mental health with the child’s mental health promotion receiving a
very low priority. Lot of complexities exist in multiplicities of laws related to mental health and the
associated disabilities.
108. Which of the following statements will complete the line with the blank in the passage above?
A. to expand there role in providing services for overall development and wellbeing.
B. to expand their role in providing services in overall development and wellbeing.
C. to expand their role in providing services for overall development and wellbeing.
D. to expand their role to providing services from overall development to wellbeing.
E. to expand their role in provide services for overall development and wellbeing.

109. Which of the following is incorrect as per the given passage?

A. A fourth of children and adolescents worldwide suffer from a disabling mental illness
B. A fourth of deaths in boys and 50-75 per cent deaths in girls aged 10-19 years.

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C. Suicide rates in Indian adolescents appear to be two-fold higher than anywhere else in the world
D. Both (a) and (c)
E. All are true

110. What is the tone of the author?

A. Euphemistic
B. Laudatory
C. Contended
D. Perturbing
E. Commiserating

111. Why has the author referred to the schools as ‘socializing agents?’
I. Schools play a climacteric role in the metamorphosis of thinking, linguistic and psychosocial
competencies and creating happy, healthy and harmonious schools for mental health wellness of kids.
II. Schools contribute to the development of children and adolescents and provide scope for
interventions at all levels of the schooling span.
III. Schools play an important role to play in advocacy, awareness and comprehensive and continuous
training of man power for the wellbeing of the future generation.
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (iii)
E. Both (ii) and (iii)

112. What are the author’s recommendations for the governing bodies of schools as per the passage?
A. To recognize and respond to the diverse mental wellness needs of the students
B. To ensure not only quality education but also guide them to develop mental resilience
C. Professionals or trained personnel must teach the children ways to improve their moods/minds
D. Make available a space within the school premises to immediately find a counsellor
E. All of the above

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113. Which of the following is a word that best replaces the word ‘Vulnerable’ as used in the passage?
A. Virtually
B. Practically
C. Roughly
D. Nearly
E. All of the above
114. From the options given below, find the best theme for the given passage:
A. India is yet to develop a comprehensive approach to school mental health promotion
B. Youngsters are the future of our country and their health is paramount
C. The schools have always played a pivotal role and it would be their responsibility to bring a change
D. The authorities governing the school must take the curriculum changes seriously
E. None of the above

Direction (115-122): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Social security without appropriate maternity benefits for all working women – whether daily wagers in a
brick kiln or in agriculture or in other unorganized sectors or as manual scavengers – will remain an
incomplete scheme for crores of women who are foot soldiers of development.
_______ (A) the post Covid period, this requirement is a national urgency. The total number of female
workers in rural and urban areas is around 122 and 30 million respectively.
The Maternity Benefits Act was amended in 2017 to raise the paid leave benefit period to 26 weeks for
up to two surviving children and a medical bonus of Rs 3,500 was also provided. Benefits of 12 weeks’
paid leave are available for miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy also. There are other
benefits including provision for safe and light work. A woman is entitled to these benefits only after
working not less than 80 days in the 12 months immediately preceding her delivery. A new Section 11A
was inserted to provide facility of crèche in every establishment having fifty or more employees. Now
the provisions of this legislation have been included in Chapter VI of the Code on Social Security, 2020
and the 1961 Act has been repealed by the Code.
The Union Government is considering implementation of four labour Codes with effect from 1st April
2021. In the Code and in notified draft Rules of the Code on Social Security, it has been provided that in
every establishment where fifty or more women employees are ordinarily employed, a creche will be
provided and maintained for the use of children under the age of six. As in the Code on Industrial

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Relations, the Code on Social Security has also provided that employees who are in ‘fixed term
employment’ shall be entitled to same wages, allowances and other benefits as available to the
permanent employees.
This is a welcome improvement and women employees would be benefitted during maternity period as
income security and other benefits are guaranteed. In this context, the provisions of Section 70 of the
Code on Social Security should be reviewed at an appropriate time.
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan is a commendable scheme to provide timely and quality
antenatal care, free of cost universally to all pregnant women and can complement the Maternity
Benefits scheme under the new Code. There is a provision for social security fund in Chapter III of the
Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions, 2020 for welfare of the unorganized
workers and amount of this fund can be transferred to any fund established under any other law for their
welfare.
(and a guaranteed income security during pregnancy (A)/ The responsibility is on the Central
Government to frame a (B)/ no job security in these sectors (C)/ universal maternity benefit scheme to
ensure better health care (D)/ and thereafter, as there is (E)) Since most of these women workers in
unorganized sectors are engaged in manual arduous work, they need more rest and better nutrition.
Considering their financial vulnerability, the social security scheme should provide comprehensive social
security umbrella so that births can take place with peace of mind.
115. What is important to make the maternity benefits scheme worthwhile?
a) Compensation to women workers in unorganized sector
b) Medical advice to women to decide whether to continue her work or to take rest
c) Social security to all employees and workers in organized, unorganized or any other sector
A.Only (a)
B.Only (b)
C.Only (c)
D.Both (a) and (b)
E.All are correct

116. Which of the following options is incorrect, in context of the Maternity Benefits amendment act
2017?

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A.The Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leaves to 26 weeks from the present twelve
weeks
B.The Act makes it compulsory for every establishment employing 50 or more women to have in- house
crèche facilities
C.To avail the benefits of the act, a woman should not have worked less than 80 days in the 12 months
immediately preceding her delivery
D.A medical bonus of Rs 3500 was provided under the Maternity benefits amendment Act 2017
E.All are correct

117. Which of the following options mentioned under “four labour code” is correct?
a) The code of wages made provisions for minimum and timely payment of wages to all the workers in
India
b) The code of industrial relations provided wages, allowances and other benefits to fixed term
employees same as the benefits entitled to the permanent employees
c) The code of occupational safety and working condition required to ensure that workplace should be
free from hazards.
A.Only (a)
B.Only (b)
C.Only (c)
D.Both (a) and (b)
E.All are correct

118. Which of the following options is incorrect, in context of the “Pradhan Mantra Surakshit Matritva
Abhiyan”?
a) The Program aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost,
universally to all pregnant women
b) The program follows a systematic approval for engagement with private sector to generate
awareness and appeal to the private sector to participate in the Abhiyan
c) The program ensures at least one antenatal checkup for all pregnant women in their second or third
trimester by a physician/specialist
A.Only (a)

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B.Only (b)
C.Only (c)
D.Both (a) and (b)
E.Both (b) and (c)

119. Why social security is an important factor in maternity benefits scheme?

a) So that women do not have to pick motherhood over their career.
b) So that women remain committed to their jobs.
c) So that women can take care of themselves with the peace of mind.
A.Only (a)
B.Only (b)
C.Only (c)
D.Both (a) and (c)
E.All are correct

120. In the passage, a blank is given, marked as (A), you need to identify the correct word from the
following options to make the sentence complete
A.In
B.When
C.During
D.While
E.None of these
121. In the passage, the jumbled parts of the sentence are given. You have to rearrange the jumbled
parts of the sentence to make it meaningful
A.ECDAB
B.ACEBD
C.DBACE
D.BDAEC
E.ABDEC

122. Which of the following options is opposite in meaning to ‘arduous?

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A.Onerous
B.Laborious
C.Effortless
D.Strenuous
E.None of these

Direction (123-129): Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are
highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.
Pets make our home more complete by being there to greet you after a hard day at work or snuggling
up to you while you sleep. Cats have been termed the most fickle of creatures; however, they are sweet
lovable creatures if you raise them from infancy. Most cats recognize their owners by the sound of their
voice, the car they drive, and who spoils them the most. Like dogs, cats can be trained. A cat can be
trained to come to your call, to bring their toys when they want to play, as well as more domestic issues
such as using a litter box. The key to training a cat or kitten is reinforcement. Reinforcement starts at
any age, but it is typically wise to start with a kitten. Cats cannot distinguish words, but they are very
astute in distinguishing the tones of your voice. They will know they have done something wrong just by
the tone of voice you use. _________________________________ (18), otherwise, they will become
confused. Let us go back to reinforcement. Reinforcement is either positive or negative. Water is a
negative reinforcement for a cat or kitten because they typically despise being wet. Some positive
reinforcement can be hugs or fully body petting, treats, or playtime.
Training your kitty to come to your call is to repeat their name while looking at you. Look them in the eye
while you are using a nice tone of voice. Another way to call your cat is to have another sound, like
snapping fingers or clicking noises with your tongue. These typically gain the attention of your cat or
kitten so they learn to come when you call. Litter box training is perhaps the easiest part of having a kitty
in your life. It is best to keep them confined to one room, the room you will have the litter box in to train
them. They will learn by putting them in the box and allowing them to familiarize themselves with the
smell. Cats by nature understand the feel of litter associating it with dirt. You may have to pick them up
when they first begin to go if they do not understand the litter box and place them inside. Occasionally a
cat does not like the litter you use. They show their displeasure by using the floor. This is a time to try
something new. Most female adult cats will train their kittens, so they do not leave their mother’s care
too quickly. Food works in much the same way. Once you show them where their food bowls are they

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will continue to go there. Cats are creatures of habit. Habits are how you will train your kitty to bring you
toys. Some cats will simply meow when they want to play and casually bat their toy, however, if you give
them positive reinforcement every time they carry a toy mouse or stuffed toy they will continue to bring
the toy without the reinforcement of a treat. For example, my kitty, Spooky, is two. She brings me a
stuffed animal every afternoon or evening when she wants to play. She lays it down near the end of my
couch and meows until I recognize the good deed and begin to play with her. Cats are trainable,
perhaps not to the degree; a dog is trainable with voice commands, but you can succeed in training
them in some ways. Cats will enliven any home and given a lot of positive reinforcement, they can be
just as much fun if not more fun than other pets. These moments can take away a bad day at work
within a few seconds.
123. What is the most suggestive method suggested by the author to train the cats?
A. Keeping them confined to the room will help the cat adapt to the surroundings
B. They displeasure us often by not following what we want.
C. Behaviour with desirable consequences to be repeated.
D. Only female cats can train and nourish them in the way the owner wants, because female adult cats
are already trained under them.
E. None of the above

124. Which of the following moments can be true to make ‘these moments’ in the highlighted sentence
correct?
A. Cats are more disturbing and they sleep only with the owner in the same bed.
B. A person having a bad day at work will be overburdened by the routine task of looking after a cat.
C. Cats give you comfort by stepping on your lap, kneading and purring.
D. The cuteness overloaded cats create trouble and they get away with their cuteness which is as
disturbing as having a dog.
E. The blue sky thinking of a child in a home will be increased, if there is a cat at home.

125. Which of the following can fill the blank (18) as given in the passage?
A. This is why it is important to use the raised voice all the time.
B. This is why it is important to confuse the cat with petting it for wrong doing.
C. This is why it is important to use the soft voice to explain its wrongdoing.

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D. This is why it is important to use your upset voice when they have done something wrong
E. None of the above

126. What is the suitable title for the passage?

A. A cat’s view of its place in life
B. Reinforcement of cat
C. Cat secrets
D. Stress versus cat
E. None of the above

127. How old is the author’s cat as per the passage?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above

128. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to despise as highlighted in the given
passage?
a) Reverie
b) Loathe
c) Abominate
d) Condemn
e) Revere
A. Both c and d
B. All b, c, d
C. Only a
D. Only e
E. Only a and e

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129. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to enliven as highlighted in the given
passage?
a) Reinvigorate
b) Revitalize
c) Energize
d) Enlighten
e) Impoverish
A. Both c and b
B. All b, c, d
C. Only a
D. All except e
E. All a, b, c, d, e
Direction (130-136): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Mangoes are sweet, creamy fruits that has a range of possible health benefits. They are high popular
around the world.The mangoes are tropical stone fruits and members of the drupe family. This is a type
of plant food with a fleshy outer section that surrounds a shell, or pit. This pit contains a seed. Other
members of the drupe family include dates, olives and coconuts. There are many different kinds of
mangoes. They vary in color, shape, flavor, and seed size. Although mangoes skin can be green, red,
yellow and or orange. Its inner flesh is mostly golden yellow.
Mangoes could help facilitate healthy digestion. Mangoes contain enzymes that aid the breakdown and
digestion of protein, and also fiber, which keeps the digestive tract working efficiently. Green mangoes
have more pectin fiber than ripe mangoes. Eating mango is a great way to improve your skin from the
inside out. Mangoes are rich in vitamin C, which plays a major role in skin health and may even help
reduce the signs of ageing.
Raw mango juice can prevent dehydration by stopping excessive loss of sodium chloride and iron from
the body. It reduces the effects of sunstroke caused due to intense heat. Raw mango may reduce
prickly heat and scratching of the nose. It is the best summer refreshment drink after working out.
Mango is an excellent source of immunity booster nutrients such as vitamin C, vitamin E, and
antioxidants. This vitamin can help your body produce more disease-fighting white blood cells, help
these cells work more effectively, and improve your skin’s defenses.

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Raw mango is rich in antioxidants such as polyphony that reduce the risk of cancer. Clinical studies
suggest that raw mango reduces inflammation and blocks the cancer cell division. Raw mango is rich in
vitamin C that helps reduce bleeding gums and dental problems. It reduces the likelihood of you getting
scurvy, anemia or bleeding gums and improves your health manifold.
Mangoes are highly rich in Vitamin B6, this type of vitamin is very important for maintaining and
improving the brain’s function. These vitamins help to get a decisive mood and also help to get better
sleep. You can keep your brain healthy and improve your sleep by adding mango in your daily diet.
Mangoes contain glut-amine acid that helps to improve concentration and also the power of your
memory.
130. Which of the following benefits of mango has been not mentioned in the passage?
A. It helps in digestion
B. Gives skin a healthy glow
C. Good for weight gain
D. Kills the intense summer heat
E. Lowers the Cancer risk

131. Which of the following statements is/are true to the context of the passage?
I). Mangoes help in maintaining and improving the brain’s function.
II). Mangoes are tropical stone fruits and members of the drupe family.
III). Mangoes are rich in Vitamin B5, vitamin C, vitamin E.
A. Only I
B. Both I and II
C. Only III
D. Both I and III
E. None of these

132. How can you say that raw mango juice can prevent problems like dehydration ?
A. Raw mango juice stops excessive loss of sodium chloride and iron from the body
B. Raw mango juice reduces the effects of sunstroke caused due to intense heat.
C. Raw mango is rich in antioxidants such as polyphony that reduce the risk of dehydration.
D. None of above

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E. All except C

133. How can we keep our brain healthy and improve our sleep?
A. By adding mango with milk
B. By drinking raw mango juice during breakfast..
C. By eating mangoes once a week.
D. By adding mango in our daily diet.
E. None of these

134. Which of the following statements is/are not true to the context of the passage?
A. Mangoes are rich in vitamin C, which plays a major role in skin health.
B. Green mangoes have more pectin fiber than ripe mangoes.
C. Mango reduces scurvy, anemia or bleeding gums.
D. Mangoes keep the digestive tract working inefficiently.
E. Mango is an excellent source of immunity booster nutrients.

135. Find out the grammatically correct option.

I). Mangoes are sweet, creamy fruits that has a range of possible health benefits.
II). They are high popular around the world.
III). The mangoes are tropical stone fruits and members of the drupe family.
A. Only I
B. Both I and II
C. Only III
D. Both I and III
E. All are correct

136. Which of the following is not an example of a drupe family?

A. Peach
B. Cherry
C. Muskmelon
D. Walnut

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E. Butternuts

Directions (137-143): The passage given below contains few words or phrases highlighted. There is a
blank in one sentence as well. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Unesco’s recent State of Education report for India paints a bleak picture of India’s strength of skilled
teachers. The country is short of 11 lakh skilled teachers, with the rural parts of the country bearing the
larger share of the deficit—69% of the vacancies are in schools in these areas. How acute the problem
is for those lacking privilege is spelled out in the fact that 89% of rural schools in the country are single-
teacher schools. No wonder, then, India had a mediocre showing in the UN’s education index (0.555 in
2019, the latest such data available), and ASER findings across years show how poor the learning
outcomes are for students in rural areas.
Sure, teacher shortage is not a uniquely Indian problem; even developed nations like the US and
Germany have to ______________ this. However, contributing factors—even when some of these are
common across nations—seem to be quite a few degrees worse in India. Teachers in the country have
to face lack of job security, low salary, and the lack of benefits, respect associated with the profession,
and autonomy— 43% of all teachers do not have a job contract at all, and, according to the Unesco
report, they are one of the least paid public service professionals, which has consequences for the
attractiveness of the profession. Private school teachers are worse off—of the 43% of teachers with no
contracts, 69% teach in private schools, and they also earn around half of what their government-school
peers get on average. Teachers also do not enjoy benefits such as pension, healthcare, or gratuity—
only 41% and 11% of teachers employed by government and private schools, respectively, have access
to all three. As for professional autonomy, private school teachers are pressured to stick to non-
disruptive measures and large-scale innovative measures are frequently stonewalled by the school
administration.
It is not as if the government—both the Centre and the states, given education is a concurrent subject—
is oblivious. Some measures have been taken, but these have created more problems than solutions.
According to the Unesco report, in order to fulfill the requirements, the standards of hiring teachers were
lowered, which “effectively gave rise to large numbers of untrained and underpaid contractual teachers
in the system.” While steps were taken to train these teachers, the lack of uniformity across states
created learning gaps that got compounded with the passing of academic years. To date, at least 41%
private-school teachers at all levels are underqualified. However, there is some hope as the National

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Education Policy 2020 tries to address several of these shortcomings such as improving work
environment, focusing on teachers’ continuous development, and standards to regulate the profession.
Several other aspects, such as access to and proficiency in the use of digital resources, are other
discussions altogether. The report lays down ten recommendations for the improvement of the current
situation including obvious answers such as providing teachers with job security as well as the respect
they deserve, along with providing proper training and creating an evolving career path. To truly
succeed, as education researcher Gerald K LeTendre notes, policies must focus on teachers’ needs
themselves.
137. Which of the following factors emphasizes the severity of the problem that Indian Education is
being faced with?
i). India’s position in the recent State of Education Report by the UNESCO
ii). There is a shortage of 11 lakh skilled teachers overall
iii). Around 89% of the rural schools in the country are single-teacher schools
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. Both (ii) and (iii)
E. Only (iii)

138. What according to the author makes education less attractive as a career to be pursued?
A. Visible lack of job security, low salary
B. The lack of benefits, respect associated with the profession, and autonomy
C. About 43% of all teachers do not have a job contract at all
D. Teachers are one of the least paid public service professionals
E. All of the above
139. What are the views of the author over the ‘teacher’s autonomy’ as presented in the passage?
A. The government school teachers get a free hand as to how do they wish to teach and improve the
condition of the students
B. The school administration is very supportive of the new and innovative techniques being devised by
the teachers of the private schools

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C. The private school teachers are compelled to stick to the traditional measures and large-scale
innovative measures are generally not welcomed by the authorities
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. Not discussed in the passage

140. Choose the best option that fills the blank given in one of the lines in the passage above.
A. Contend with
B. Dealt from
C. Serve to
D. Act under
E. Reeling under

141. Which of the following given options acts as the main idea of the passage given above?
A. The Indian teachers are no less than their counterparts in the developed countries
B. To address teacher shortage, pay better, give more autonomy
C. Lessons from the crisis over the state of teachers around the world
D. Indian students are suffering due to the lack of skilled manpower in schools
E. None of the above

142. Which of the following words will be the best antonym to the word ‘stonewalled’ as used in the
passage?
A. Blocked the ideas
B. Be defensive over something
C. Provide a critical outlook
D. Invigorate the ideas
E. All are synonyms

143. What exactly happened when the government tried to address the issues mentioned in the
passage?
i). Measures such as providing teachers with job security as well as the respect they deserve resulted in
more people leaning towards teaching as a profession

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ii). The steps taken have created more problems than solutions as in order to fulfill the requirements,
the standards of hiring teachers were lowered, which gave rise to large numbers of untrained and
underpaid contractual teachers in the system.
iii). Providing proper training and creating an evolving career path have improved the number of
teachers in the schools
A. Only (i)
B. Only (iii)
C. Both (ii) and (iii)
D. All of the above
E. Only (ii)

Direction (144-150): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The tyranny of working and communicating digitally is one reason for the recent appetite for crafting – it
is the perfect antidote to the online world. And of all the crafts, perhaps pottery does this most
successfully. The messiness of working with wet or damp clay and the need to follow a process to
achieve results forces practitioners to put their phones and tablets aside. What's more, although multi-
tasking has long been seen in a positive light, now is a time when many of us yearn to slow down, and
focus on a single, absorbing activity.
Amateur pottery buffs all over the world are increasingly attending classes or open studios where they
can choose to make pottery for one-off sessions or take out longer memberships. In the UK, the
popularity of open-access studios is a nationwide phenomenon. Such spaces include Turning Earth in
Leyton and Hoxton, London, the Clay Room in Leicester and Clay College in Stoke-on-Trent
Ceramics are a highly versatile medium, allowing makers to learn myriad techniques, including hand-
sculpted pots, slab pots (created by joining pieces of flattened clay) and pots made by pinching or
coiling clay or using plaster press moulds. "Clay acts almost as an antidote to overwhelm of the digital
world," says Jennifer Waverek, owner of Bklyn Clay. "It interrupts your compulsive email-checking. Your
mind has a single focus, so the practice can feel meditative or therapeutic. There is no way to speed up
clay-drying or firing, there's no 'clay-microwave' – ceramics take as much time to make today as they did
2,000 years ago."
However, there is a major irony to the crafting trend: social media is fuelling it. It has hooked a younger
generation's interest in pottery in particular. Young amateur potters showcase their work on social

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media, and the interest in it can be gauged by the huge number of likes on their Instagram pages.
"Social media has played a crucial role in bringing craftsmanship to a new audience," says Pablo
Fernández-Canivell, a self-taught ceramicist based in Malaga, Spain. He began making pottery in 2017
on the recommendation of a therapist, who suggested it as a form of stress relief as he was
experiencing severe anxiety. "Instagram is full of hypnotic videos of people making ceramics by hand,
and millennials, many of whom had never been near a real pottery wheel before, find the process of
hand-making ceramics very appealing."
Tallie Maughan, co-founder of Turning Earth, believes many are attracted to making pottery because of
the _______ (A) they derive from ending up with practical pieces: "Careers that come with seeing the
end result of your work are becoming rare. Working with clay allows people to create something
satisfyingly functional. Within a year, you can even populate your kitchen with usable, self-made
crockery."
144. Why it is said that pottery is an antidote to digital world?
A. Concentration is the ability to direct one’s attention in accordance with one’s will
B. It increases the ability to focus on one subject and ignore unrelated thoughts, ideas, feelings
C. It helps in practicing good habits and reducing distractibility
D. Both (B) and (C)
E. None of these

145. What is the irony to use social media?

A. Using social media to showcase crafts on other hand humiliating potters
B. Accusing social media but using it to reach mass audience
C. Practicing pottery to release stress given by digital world and on other hand using it to exhibit the
crafts
D. Humiliating social media while practicing pottery
E. None of these

146. How has social media helped to bridge the gap between craftsmen and their audience?
A. Social media helped to discover new techniques of pottery
B. It helped the people to choose pottery studios nationwide
C. It fuelled the crafting trend and encouraged youngsters to practice pottery

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D. It helped to learn pottery at home without attending any classes or in-person studio.
E. None of these

147. In the context of the passage, which of the following statements is true?
A. The technique of using clay is as old as it was many years ago
B. Ceramic material, which is fired at high temperatures to give a hard, durable form
C. Pottery often means vessels only, and figures of the same material are called terracotta.
D. Pottery is made by forming a ceramic body into objects of a desired shape and heating them to high
temperatures.
E. None of these

148. What are the different techniques of ceramics mentioned in the passage?
a) Hand- sculpted pots, slab pots
b) Pots made by pinching or coiling clay
c) Clay drying or firing
A. Only (B)
B. Both (B) and (C)
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Both (A) and (C)
E. All of the above

149. In the context of the passage which word has the similar meaning to Gauged?
A. Measure
B. Calculate
C. Determine
D. Qualify
E. All of the above

150. A blank marked (A) is given in the passage, which of the following options may fill the blank to
make it contextually correct?
A. Desires

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B. Satisfaction
C. Expectation
D. Knowledge
E. Discontent

Direction (151-157): Some information has been given in the passage given below. There are questions
that have been framed on the same. Few words or phrases might have been highlighted for help. You
are expected to read all the information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Holding that it is the right time to confer juristic status to ‘Mother Nature’, Justice S. Srimathy of the
Madurai Bench of Madras High Court invoked the ‘parens patriae jurisdiction’, and declared ‘Mother
Nature’ as a ‘living being’ having the status of a legal entity. Justice S. Srimathy observed that the court
is hereby declaring ‘Mother Nature’ a ‘living being’ having the status of a legal person with all
corresponding rights, duties and liabilities of a living person, in order to preserve and conserve it. The
court observed that ‘Mother Nature’ was accorded the rights akin to fundamental rights, legal rights,
constitutional rights for its survival, safety, sustenance and resurgence in order to maintain its status
and also to promote its health and well-being.
The State and Central governments are directed to protect ‘Mother Nature’ and take appropriate steps
in this regard in all possible ways. The court was hearing petitions filed by A. Periyakaruppan of Theni,
who served in the Revenue Department. He had (A) challenged an order (B) passed by the Revenue
Department, due to which the (C) petitiener was not allowed to retire from service but put under (D)
suspension. The petitioner was then placed under compulsory retirement for issuing a patta (deed) for
land that was classified as ‘Forest Land’ in Megamalai. He said that he was only carrying out the orders
of his superiors.
The judge said, indiscriminate destruction or change is leading to several complications in the
ecosystem and is ultimately endangering the very existence of flora and fauna, forests, water bodies,
mountains, glaciers, air and of course humans. Strangely, the destruction is carried out by a few
humans. Any such act ought to be checked at all levels. The natural environment is part of basic human
rights, of ‘right to life’ itself, she added.
The judge modified the punishment of compulsory retirement to stoppage of increment for six months
without cumulative effect. The consequential monetary benefits shall be conferred on the petitioner. This
punishment is imposed for the act done against the ‘Mother Nature,’ the judge observed.

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151. Why has Mother Nature been declared as a living being?

(i) The court wants to preserve and conserve mother earth
(ii) To promote its health and well-being
(iii) So that it will have the status of a legal entity
A.Only (i)
B.Both (ii) and (iii)
C.Only (ii)
D.Both (i) and (ii)
E.Only (iii)

152. In what sense has the phrase ‘akin to’ been used in the passage?
A.Parallel
B.Equivalent
C.Except
D.Comprising of
E.Including

153. Why was the petitioner not allowed to retire as per the passage?
A.Because his years of service were still left
B.The petitioner had illegally allotted land
C.For following his senior’s orders and not the court’s
D.Because the court wanted to put him under suspension
E.Not discussed explicitly in the passage

154. Four words have been marked in bold as (A), (B), (C) and (D). one of these words has been
wrongly spelt. Choose the same from the options below
A.Suspension
B.Challenged
C.Petitiener
D.Passed
E.All are correct

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155. Which of the following is creating a disturbance in the flora-fauna and the entire humanity?
A.Allotment of indiscriminate land
B.Random change or damage in the ecosystem
C.Acts of negligence being done by few humans
D.People not taking responsibility of their actions
E.Intruding into the rights of the humans
156. Which of the following is the correct tone of the passage?
A.Critical
B.Informative
C.Cautionary
D.Optimistic
E.Jovial

157. Choose the correct antonym for the word ‘cumulative’ given in the passage above
A.Snowballing
B.Accruing
C.Diminishing
D.Climbing
E.Stagnating

Direction (158-164): Some information has been given in the passage given below. There are questions
that have been framed on the same. Few words or phrases might have been highlighted for help. You
are expected to read all the information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The scope for employment away from agriculture is not increasing. The government is reducing jobs in
the public sector. More and more public sector undertakings are being sold to the private sector. The
government’s mantra is, “The government has no business to be in business.” The government is
outsourcing several works that were earlier done by its departments, which means a contraction in
public employment. The government’s policy of more and more privatisation presumes that it will be the
private sector that will employ the job seekers. However, that is turning out to be a fantasy tale. The

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private sector’s priority is not to employ labour but to free itself from labour hassles. Its policy is guided
by the spectre of trade unions ‘ruining’ the company.
So, while the government subsidises and promotes privatisation, selling the fantasy to the people that it
will create jobs for them, the harsh reality is the private sector, while taking all the benefits from the
public resources, is devoted to the cause of creating less and less employment. It is using technology in
more and more of its space to avoid employing humans. A recent report suggested that more and more
Indian factories are rapidly adopting robots, Artificial Intelligence (AI), and the Internet of Things (IoT) to
reduce dependence on human resources. The demand for robots among Indian companies has been
increasing exponentially. Inputs to machines are now being done through barcodes and finished goods
are moved from factories to stores by robots.
The other thing the Indian companies are doing is outsourcing as much of their work as possible, so that
‘labour hassles’ happen in the courtyards of its suppliers, contractors, and vendors and not in their
courtyard. Where the businesses are forced to employ humans, they do so on terms of contract which
gives them all the authority and power to reduce the financial benefits and to fire them whenever they
want. The pro-privatisation government is making it easier for them by making laws in the name of
‘labour reforms’ that empowers the employers. The situation that obtains in the country today, therefore,
is that there are too many job seekers seeking too few jobs. In this competition, the job seekers from
poorer family backgrounds find it extremely difficult to go past the job seekers from relatively privileged
backgrounds. Decent jobs today demand a certain level of education, skill, and cultural refinement
which the job seekers from the poorer backgrounds lack in.
With more and more high-technology automation, the type of human resources the manufacturing and
trading companies require demands higher skills, such as knowledge of how computers operate and
quick adaptability to technological upgradation. These are areas in which job seekers from relatively
privileged backgrounds leave those from poorer backgrounds miles behind because the latter is
constrained by deeply-embedded negative social and economic discrimination in making progress in
acquiring education and skills.
158. Which of the following has been described to be a fantasy tale?
A. That the public sector would take charge of employing people
B. The assumption that the private sector will create jobs for the unemployed
C. That the private sector would complete the process of lay-offs
D. The public sector will successfully get rid of the labour unions

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E. Both (a) and (d)

159. Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

A. The demand for robots from the companies has gone up
B. Most companies are reducing their dependence on human resource
C. IoT (Internet of Things) is a relatively new phenomenon
D. It seems to be a pro-privatisation government these days
E. All options are true

160. What makes the companies embrace outsourcing of jobs?

A. The labour issues can be gotten rid off
B. They can hire employees on contract and fire them whenever they want
C. There are too many job seekers today for too few jobs
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. All (a), (b) and (c)

161. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?

A. The high-tech jobs that require upgraded skills these days are far from the reach of the people from
poorer backgrounds
B. The privileged never face social discrimination in gaining education and skills
C. The companies indirectly have made it clear that they need employees only from the privileged
backgrounds
D. Every company has a limitation and if that is hindering its growth, it should to eliminate the same
E. None of the above

162. Which of the following options would be the best synonym for the word ‘spectre’ as used in the
passage above?
A. Shadow
B. Threat
C. Illusion
D. Multitude

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E. Variety

163. Which of the following can be a suitable title for the given passage?
A. The companies and the undue advantage
B. Poor people and unemployment
C. Inclusive growth is an illusion
D. The rich and the poor
E. Labour laws and trade unions

164. A sentence from the above passage has been divided into parts given below. Choose the option
containing an error in it.
A. The pro-privatisation government
B. is making it easier for them by
C. making laws in the name of ‘labour
D. reforms’ that empowers the employers
E. No error

Direction (165-171): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
India was ranked at the bottom, at the 180th position, in the recently released 2022 Environmental
Performance Index (EPI) Report. The publication of the EPI Report led to ________ (P) in the Ministry of
Environment and Forests. The Government of India categorically rejected the EPI 2022 Report, stating
that The Environmental Performance Index 2022 released recently has many indicators based on
unfounded assumptions. Moreover, some of these indicators used for assessing performance
are extrapolated and based on surmices and unscientific methods. The Government may have sound
technical and/or statistical reasons for rejecting the EPI 2022 Report but routine rejection, in the
immaculate bureaucratese, of all studies and reports that show the Government of India in a poor light,
e.g., the US State Department report on religious freedom, the World Bank’s report on Human Capital
Index (HCI) or the WHO report on Covid deaths, makes the next rejection sound even more hollow than
the last one. The Environmental Performance Index was developed by Yale University (Yale Center for
Environmental Law and Policy) and Columbia University (Center for International Earth Science

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Information Network). The EPI 2022 Report was audited by the Joint Research Centre of the European
Commission.
The 2022 EPI Report ranks 180 countries on an integrated index derived from the country’s
performance vis-à-vis climate change, environmental health, and ecosystem vitality. The ranking is
based on 40 performance indicators across 11 issue categories. The EPI 2022 Report reveals that
despite solemn promises, the latest being at UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow (COP26),
most countries have not done enough to protect the environment. To recapitulate: In the 2021 Glasgow
Climate Pact, the global community established a target of net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by mid-
century and made commitments for more ambitious climate policies to achieve this aim. However, the
EPI 2022 Report shows that only a handful of countries, which included the top rankers, Denmark and
the United Kingdom, are currently slated to reach greenhouse gas neutrality by 2050. Many other
nations like China, India, and Russia are headed in exactly the opposite direction, with rapidly rising
greenhouse gas emissions.
The EPI 2022 Report notes that disruptions brought about by the Covid-19 pandemic have added to the
challenge of meeting climate change goals.noticed during the lockdown came at a terrible cost(S)/
reductions in greenhouse gas emissions (T)/ the remarkable improvements in air quality and (U)/ in
terms of human health and economic well-being(V). Moreover, policymakers squandered the chance to
preserve pandemic-induced gains in environmental health and ecosystem vitality and in rebuilding their
economies and societies on a more sustainable basis. Air pollution has rebounded to pre-pandemic
levels almost everywhere, as have many countries’ greenhouse gas emissions. Additionally, the
response to the Covid- 19 pandemic generated millions of tons of plastic waste in the form of
facemasks, plastic food containers, and protective equipment, much of which is still to be disposed of.
165. Which of the following set of words will fill in the blank (P) to make a contextually meaningful and
grammatically correct sentence?
A. Consternation
B. Callous
C. Blandishment
D. Brusque
E. None of these

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166. Find the word that is wrongly spelt or inappropriate for the sentence. If all are correct, mark option
(e) as your answer.
Moreover, some of these indicators used for assessing performance are extrapolated and based
on surmices and unscientific methods.
A. Indicators
B. Extrapolated
C. Surmices
D. Unscientific
E. All are correct

167. According to the passage, what brings the Government of India in a poor light?
A. The inability of the Government to handle global warming & grave environmental situation
B. Indian Governments continuous rejection of all studies and reports by the bureaucrats
C. The sustainability planning of the Indian Government is not accepted by other bureaucrats
D. Due to the response to the Covid- 19 pandemic, which generated millions of tons of plastic waste
E. None of the above

168. Match the column as per the information available in the passage.

A. A-F
B. B-D
C. C-E
D. A-E
E. Only (a) & (b)

169. What could be the synonym of the highlighted word “squandered” as given in the passage?

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A. Misused
B. Wasted
C. Dissipated
D. Splash out
E. All of the above

170. Rearrange the given highlighted sentence to form a grammatically and contextually meaningful
sentence.
noticed during the lockdown came at a terrible cost(S)/ reductions in greenhouse gas emissions (T)/ the
remarkable improvements in air quality and (U)/ in terms of human health and economic well-being(V).
A. UTSV
B. TUVS
C. STUV
D. VUTS
E. VTSU

171. Which of the following is “false” about the 2022 Environmental Performance Index (EPI) Report?
A. The ranking is based on 40 performance indicators across 11 issue categories.
B. India was ranked at the bottom, at the 180th position, in the recently released 2022 Environmental
Performance Index (EPI) Report.
C. The EPI 2022 Report was developed by the Joint Research Centre of the European Commission.
D. The EPI 2022 Report notes the problems brought by the Covid-19 pandemic for meeting climate
change goals.
E. All are true

Answer with Detail Explanation

1. Answer: A.
Lackluster: lacking brilliance or vitality; dull.
Decisive: having the power or quality of deciding; showing determination.
Mitigate: to make less severe or serious.
The sentence suggests that the company’s recent performance has been underwhelming, and
management needs to take determined steps to reduce potential future losses. Thus, "lackluster" fits the

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

negative context of the company's performance, "decisive" indicates strong action, and "mitigate"
correctly refers to reducing losses.

2. Answer: C
Transformative: causing a marked change in form, nature, or appearance.
Legitimate: reasonable and justified.
Profound: very great or intense.
In the context of the sentence, artificial intelligence is described as leading to major changes in
technology (transformative), creating justified concerns (legitimate) regarding significant effects on
employment (profound).

3. Answer: A
Consequences: a result or effect, typically one that is unwelcome.
Delay: to postpone or put off action.
Jeopardize: to put in danger or at risk.
In the sentence, the negative impacts of climate change (consequences) are clear, yet governments are
postponing necessary reforms (delay), which could endanger the ecological balance (jeopardize).

4. Answer: D
Enthusiasm: intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
Preliminary: denoting an action or event preceding or done in preparation for something more important.
Crucial: decisive or critical, especially in the success or failure of something.
This sentence describes how the scientists were initially eager (enthusiasm) but realized that their early
(preliminary) hypothesis missed important elements (crucial factors), causing them to reevaluate their
work.

5. Answer: B
Navigate:to plan and direct the course of something, especially with skill.
Fundamental: forming a necessary base or core; of central importance.
Diverse: showing a great deal of variety; very different.

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In this sentence, the importance of effectively managing (navigating) cross-cultural communication is

essential (fundamental) for success, especially in varied (diverse) markets where practices differ.

6. Answer: A
Implement: to put (a decision, plan, agreement, etc.) into effect.
Address: to deal with or discuss a problem or issue.
Rising: increasing or going upwards.
The sentence talks about the government putting economic reforms into action (implement) while
dealing with (addressing) increasing inflation (rising) and slow growth.

7. Answer: B
Foster: to encourage the development of something.
Removing: taking away or eliminating something.
Hinder: to create difficulties, resulting in delay or obstruction.
The policy framework is designed to encourage innovation (foster) by eliminating (removing) regulations
that prevent (hinder) startups from entering the market.

8. Answer: C
Volatility: the quality of being subject to frequent and sudden changes.
Spur: to encourage or prompt action.
Flexible: adaptable and responsive to change.
In the sentence, despite the frequent changes (volatility) in the global economy, businesses are
expected to prompt (spur) growth through adaptable (flexible) strategies.

9. Answer: B
Promote: to support or actively encourage something.
Offer: to provide or give.
Significant: important or of considerable importance.
The sentence suggests that to support (promote) sustainable energy practices, governments need to
provide (offer) both financial incentives and important (significant) support for research and
development.

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10. Answer: C
Launch: to introduce or start something, such as a product.
Reverse: to change something to the opposite direction or state.
Competitive: involving rivalry between individuals or businesses.
The sentence indicates that the CEO decided to introduce (launch) a new product to change (reverse)
the company's declining market share in a highly rivalrous (competitive) industry.

11. Answer: B
Adoption: the action of beginning to use or accept something.
Accelerated: to increase the speed or rate of something.
Growing: increasing in size or amount.
The sentence talks about the increased use (adoption) of renewable energy, which has sped up
(accelerated) due to increasing (growing) concerns about climate change.

12. Answer: B
Ubiquitous: present, appearing, or found everywhere.
Technologies: the application of scientific knowledge for practical purposes.
Analyze: to examine something in detail in order to understand it better.
The sentence indicates that as AI becomes widespread (ubiquitous), companies are investing in
technologies that help them process (analyze) complex data.

13. Answer: A
Rapid: happening in a short time or at a fast pace.
Innovative: introducing new ideas; original and creative in thinking.
Adapt: to adjust or modify to suit conditions.
The startup’s fast (rapid) growth is attributed to its creative (innovative) business model and its flexibility
to adjust (adapt) to market demands.

14. Answer: B
Disruption: a disturbance or problem that interrupts an event or process.

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Exposed: made something visible or revealed something hidden.

Highly: to a high degree or level.
The sentence discusses how the disturbance (disruption) in global supply chains revealed (exposed)
the weaknesses of a very (highly) interconnected global economy.

15. Answer: B
Streamline: to make something more efficient by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps.
Address: to deal with or discuss a problem or issue.
Implement: to put into action or execute something.
The sentence suggests that as companies work to simplify (streamline) their operations, they must also
consider (address) the need for sustainability and put in place (implement) practices that support
environmental balance.

16. Answer: C
Conflict: a serious disagreement or argument.
Hindered: created difficulties for; obstructed.
Exacerbated: made something worse.
The sentence describes how disagreement (conflict) between departments slowed down (hindered)
progress, making existing inefficiencies worse (exacerbated).

17. Answer: A
Innovate: to introduce new ideas or methods.
Dynamic: characterized by constant change or activity.
Adaptation: the process of change by which something becomes better suited to its environment.
The sentence highlights that while initial efforts to bring new ideas (innovate) were successful, the
changing (dynamic) market requires continuous adjustment (adaptation).

18. Answer: B
Volatility: frequent, unpredictable changes.
Rethink:to reconsider something, especially in light of new information.
Adopt: to start using or following something, such as a new idea or policy.

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Due to unpredictable changes (volatility) in global markets, companies must reconsider (rethink) their
business models and take on (adopt) new strategies.

19. Answer: C
Introduction: the act of bringing something into use or operation for the first time.
Enabled: made something possible.
Thereby: by that means; as a result.
The sentence suggests that the introduction of analytics tools made it possible (enabled) for
organizations to make data-driven decisions, improving efficiency as a result (thereby).

20. Answer: B
Amplified: increased or made more intense.
Mitigate: to make less severe or serious.
Fostering: encouraging the development of something.
The sentence highlights how the growing reliance on digital technologies has increased (amplified) both
opportunities and challenges. Companies must reduce (mitigate) data privacy concerns while promoting
(fostering) innovation to remain competitive.

21. Answer: C
Bury the hatchet means to end a conflict or disagreement and make peace. In this context, the board
members are putting aside their differences to focus on the company’s new strategy.
A. Hide their feelings is incorrect because the idiom refers to resolving a conflict, not suppressing
emotions.
C. Ignore the problem is incorrect because they are actively working together after settling their
differences, not neglecting the issue.
D. Delay the decision is incorrect because they are moving forward, not postponing anything.
E. Revisit the conflict is incorrect because "bury the hatchet" means to move beyond the conflict, not
return to it.

22. Answer: B

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Take it with a pinch of salt means to not take something literally or completely seriously, usually
implying some skepticism. Here, the caution is implied when moving forward with the risky project.
A. Accept it without question is incorrect because "a pinch of salt" means to question or doubt
something, not accept it blindly.
C. Reject it outright is incorrect because while skepticism is implied, the idiom does not mean outright
rejection, just caution.
D. Consider it seriously is incorrect because this option implies full seriousness, whereas the idiom
involves a degree of doubt or uncertainty.
E. Approach it with excitement is incorrect because excitement contradicts the caution implied by
skepticism.

23. Answer: A
Break the ice means to overcome initial awkwardness or tension and begin to communicate or work
together smoothly. Here, it refers to the companies starting to work together after resolving earlier
barriers.
B. Finalize the agreement is incorrect because breaking the ice refers to easing tension, not completing
a formal process.
C. End the partnership is incorrect because the idiom refers to starting or improving a relationship, not
ending it.
D. Establish dominance is incorrect because "breaking the ice" is about reducing awkwardness or
tension, not establishing control.
E. Avoid the discussion is incorrect because breaking the ice involves engaging in communication, not
avoiding it.

24. Answer: B
Pass the buck means to avoid taking responsibility for something by transferring it to someone else. In
this case, the manager is avoiding responsibility for the department’s poor performance.
A. Delegate responsibility is incorrect because delegation is a formal process of assigning tasks,
whereas "passing the buck" refers to avoiding responsibility.
C. Offer a solution is incorrect because the idiom is about shifting blame, not providing a solution.

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D. Motivate the team is incorrect because the idiom does not involve any action to improve team
performance.
E. Avoid confrontation is incorrect because while avoiding responsibility is implied, it’s more about
shifting blame, not avoiding direct conflict.

25. Answer: C
Keep one’s chin up means to remain optimistic and stay positive, especially during difficult times. Here,
the company is choosing to stay positive after the market crash.
A. Avoid taking risks is incorrect because the idiom is about maintaining optimism, not avoiding risk.
B. Wait for better results is incorrect because it implies passivity, whereas the idiom suggests an active
choice to stay positive.
D. Lower expectations is incorrect because staying positive involves maintaining hope, not lowering
standards or expectations.
E. Plan for the worst is incorrect because while planning for challenges could be practical, the idiom is
about staying optimistic, not anticipating negative outcomes.

26. Answer: D
Blow one’s own trumpet means to boast or speak proudly about one’s achievements. In this context,
Sarah is openly praising her own success.
A. Criticize others is incorrect because the idiom refers to boasting about oneself, not putting others
down.
B. Complain about work is incorrect because the idiom involves self-praise, not complaining.
D. Acknowledge her mistakes is incorrect because the idiom focuses on boasting, not admitting faults.
E. Seek sympathy is incorrect because the idiom is about pride, not looking for compassion.

27. Answer: E
Throw a spanner in the works means to disrupt or cause a problem that hinders progress. In this
context, the disagreement has caused a setback.
A. Created a big opportunity is incorrect because the idiom refers to causing trouble, not creating an
opportunity.
B. Brought a new idea is incorrect because the idiom is about disruption, not innovation.

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D. Speeded up progress is incorrect because the phrase refers to slowing down or halting progress, not
accelerating it.
C. Solved a misunderstanding is incorrect because the idiom indicates creating problems, not resolving
them.

28. Answer: B
Cut corners means to do something in a cheaper, easier, or faster way, often by compromising on
quality. In this context, the company is reducing production costs by taking shortcuts.
A. Complete the task early is incorrect because cutting corners refers to reducing costs or effort, not just
finishing quickly.
C. Invest more in quality is incorrect because the idiom implies reducing quality to save money, not
improving it.
D. Improve efficiency is incorrect because while shortcuts might save time or money, they don’t
necessarily improve efficiency.
E. Delay the project is incorrect because the idiom involves saving time or resources, not delaying
tasks.

29. Answer: C
Fall through means for a plan or agreement to fail or be cancelled. In this case, the deal didn’t happen
as expected.
A. Was delayed is incorrect because the idiom indicates failure, not postponement.
B. Became successful is incorrect because "fall through" means failure, not success.
D. Was improved is incorrect because the idiom implies failure, not enhancement.
E. Was postponed is incorrect because the deal was cancelled, not merely postponed.

30. Answer: A
Turn the corner means to pass a critical point in a process and start to improve or progress. Rachel is
now seeing positive changes after a difficult period.
C. Faced a new obstacle is incorrect because turning the corner refers to improvement, not
encountering new difficulties.
B. Reached a dead-end is incorrect because the idiom implies progress, not failure or stagnation.

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D. Gave up on her goals is incorrect because the phrase suggests moving forward, not quitting.
E. Took a wrong direction is incorrect because the idiom means to improve, not make a mistake or go in
the wrong direction.

31. Answer: B
Weather the storm means to endure a difficult situation successfully, which fits the context of
overcoming challenges.
Cut corners implies doing something in a cheaper or easier way, which doesn't fit with the idea of
overcoming challenges.
Hit the nail on the head means to describe something accurately, but does not relate to overcoming
challenges.
Let the cat out of the bag refers to revealing a secret and is unrelated to the context.

32. Answer: A
Bite the bullet means to endure a painful or difficult situation, which fits her decision to finish the project
despite challenges.
Kick the bucket means to die and is not relevant here.
Throw in the towel means to give up, which contradicts her intention to finish the project.
Burn the midnight oil means to work late into the night but does not express the concept of enduring
difficulties as effectively.

33. Answer: B
A cock and bull story refers to a fabricated or implausible tale, making it appropriate for describing his
unbelievable excuses.
A blessing in disguise means something bad that results in something good, which doesn’t apply to the
context.
The tip of the iceberg indicates only a small part of a much larger issue, which does not directly describe
excuses.
A piece of cake means something easy to do, which contradicts the idea of making excuses for a lack of
effort.

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34. Answer: C
Turn the corner means to begin to recover or improve, which aligns with the context of improving sales.
Turn over a new leaf means to start fresh, which is less specific to improvement in this context.
Move heaven and earth means to make a great effort but doesn't suggest that improvement is
happening.
Kill two birds with one stone means to achieve two things with one action and doesn’t relate to
improvement directly.

35. Answer: A
Opened a can of worms means to create a complex or problematic situation, which fits the context of
her realizing the unintended impact of her words.
Put the cart before the horse means to do things in the wrong order, which doesn’t apply here.
Crossed the Rubicon means to take an irreversible step, but it doesn’t convey the idea of realizing the
impact of her words.
Taken it with a grain of salt means to view something skeptically, which is not relevant to her failing to
realize the impact.

36. Answer: B
A1:The rapid adoption of blockchain technology across industries signals a profound shift in how financial
transactions are verified, decentralized, and secured.
B2:Her astute observations on the interplay between socio-economic factors and public health outcomes
offer fresh insights into tackling systemic inequalities.
C3:The diplomatic negotiations reached an impasse as both parties refused to compromise on territorial
disputes, exacerbating regional tensions.

37. Answer: D
A3:The global energy crisis has prompted governments to expedite the transition to renewable energy
sources, with solar and wind power taking center stage in policy discussions.
B2:His critical analysis of modern literature underscores the existential angst and disillusionment
prevalent in works that grapple with the uncertainties of contemporary life.

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C1:The complex algorithm developed by the research team significantly enhances data encryption,
making cyber-attacks more difficult to execute.

38. Answer: E
A2:Her charismatic leadership style galvanized the organization, fostering an environment of collaboration
and innovation that propelled the company to new heights.
B3:The ecological ramifications of deforestation have become increasingly dire, threatening biodiversity
and accelerating the effects of climate change on a global scale.
C1:As the nation grapples with an aging population, the healthcare system faces unprecedented
challenges, requiring innovative approaches to elder care and resource allocation.

39. Answer: C
A2:The novel’s intricate narrative structure, alternating between multiple perspectives, adds layers of
depth to the reader’s understanding of the characters’ motivations.
B1:The intricate network of trade agreements between the nations has bolstered economic growth but
also led to complex regulatory challenges that demand constant adaptation.
C3:The philosopher’s seminal work on the nature of consciousness has profoundly influenced
contemporary debates on free will and the human experience.

40. Answer: C
A2:The volatility of global financial markets in recent months has sparked widespread concern among
investors, driving a surge in demand for safer assets like gold.
B1:Her philanthropic endeavors focus on education reform, aiming to bridge the gap between privileged
and underserved communities through equal access to resources.
C3:The technological innovations emerging from the biotech sector have revolutionized medical
diagnostics, offering unprecedented precision in detecting and treating diseases.

41. Answer: D
A3: The increasing reliance on artificial intelligence in healthcare diagnostics is transforming patient care,
offering more accurate results while raising ethical concerns about data usage.

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B2:The novel’s portrayal of intergenerational conflict captures the tension between tradition and
modernity, creating a rich tapestry of cultural introspection.
C1:Amid the volatility of emerging markets, investors are adopting more cautious strategies, focusing on
long-term growth rather than short-term gains.

42. Answer: B
A1:Her philanthropic initiative aimed at eradicating childhood illiteracy has gained global recognition,
mobilizing resources and reshaping educational outreach programs.
B2:The government's stimulus package, designed to revitalize small businesses in the post-pandemic
economy, has sparked debate over its long-term fiscal sustainability.
C3:The biotechnological advances in gene editing have revolutionized medicine, offering potential cures
for previously untreatable genetic disorders but also igniting ethical debates.

43. Answer: A
A2:The diplomatic envoy's deft negotiation skills diffused a potentially volatile situation, preventing an
escalation of hostilities between the two nations.
B3:Her entrepreneurial success in establishing a sustainable fashion brand highlights the growing
consumer demand for ethical and environmentally conscious products.
C1:The narrative’s nonlinear structure mirrors the protagonist’s fragmented memories, creating a
compelling exploration of identity and the passage of time.

44. Answer: E
A3:As climate disasters become more frequent, insurance companies are recalibrating their risk models,
reflecting the rising cost of natural catastrophes.
B2:The intersection of neuroscience and artificial intelligence is opening new avenues for enhancing
human cognition, though concerns about ethical limits remain prevalent.
C1:The surge in renewable energy adoption has triggered a significant shift in global energy markets,
reducing dependence on fossil fuels and reshaping geopolitical power structures.

45. Answer: A

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A2: The museum’s collection of surrealist art, featuring works that defy conventional aesthetics,
challenges viewers to engage with the subconscious and the absurd.
B3:Her comprehensive study on the socioeconomic impacts of urban migration underscores the urgent
need for policies that address housing shortages and infrastructure development.
C1:The ongoing exploration of Mars by robotic missions continues to fuel speculation about humanity’s
potential colonization of other planets, raising both excitement and ethical questions.

46. Answer: C
I. The unprecedented convergence of digitalization and globalization has catalyzed a new era of economic
interdependence, forcing businesses to rethink their competitive strategies.
II. Her unparalleled expertise in astrophysics has garnered international acclaim, particularly for her work
on dark matter and its implications for our understanding of the universe.

47. Answer: B
I. The symbiotic relationship between political stability and economic growth is frequently disrupted by
external shocks, such as geopolitical tensions or financial crises.
II. His literary oeuvre is renowned for its intricate character development, exploring the psychological
depths of individuals grappling with existential dilemmas.

48. Answer: E
I. The burgeoning interest in plant-based diets is not only a reflection of changing consumer preferences
but also indicative of a broader shift toward sustainable living.
II. The financial institution’s aggressive expansion into emerging markets has drawn criticism for
exacerbating income inequality while simultaneously boosting investor profits.

49. Answer: A
I. The architect’s innovative use of biomimicry in designing eco-friendly buildings demonstrates the
profound potential for nature-inspired solutions to modern urban challenges.
II. As quantum computing becomes more tangible, the implications for industries ranging from
cryptography to pharmaceuticals are poised to be nothing short of revolutionary.

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50. Answer: C
I. Her incisive commentary on social justice issues illuminates the systemic inequalities that continue to
permeate legal frameworks and cultural institutions alike.
II. The proliferation of misinformation on social media platforms has created a breeding ground for
polarization, necessitating stricter content moderation policies.

51. Answer: D
B says, ‘this argument’ which means something about the same has previously been discussed in the
passage. So, this cannot be the introductory sentence.
We can see that AE form a pair so, E cannot come first. D doesn’t introduce anything and looks like a
disconnected sentence which cannot start a paragraph. Out of A and C, C is a better start as it clearly
mentions what is being discussed.
So, the correct answer is ‘none of these’
Option (d) should hence, be correct.

52. Answer: B
B says, ‘this argument’ which means something about the same has previously been discussed in the
passage. So, this cannot be the introductory sentence.
We can see that AE form a pair so, E cannot come first. D doesn’t introduce anything and looks like a
disconnected sentence which cannot start a paragraph. Out of A and C, C starts the idea of the
paragraph ie; the government is forceful in telling the SC that there have been no deaths due to
starvation. A says ‘…with utmost confidence…’ the government is doing the same which means it is
continuing the idea given in C. So, C and A form a pair.
These hints make it clear that option (b) should be the correct answer.

53. Answer: C
B says, ‘this argument’ which means something about the same has previously been discussed in the
passage. So, this cannot be the introductory sentence.
We can see that AE form a pair so, E cannot come first. D doesn’t introduce anything and looks like a
disconnected sentence which cannot start a paragraph. Out of A and C, C starts the idea of the
paragraph ie; the government is forceful in telling the SC that there have been no deaths due to

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starvation. A says ‘…with utmost confidence…’ the government is doing the same which means it is
continuing the idea given in C. So, C and A form a pair. So, CAE is the starting. After E, B should come
as D cannot come before B.
The correct sequence therefore, would be CAEBD which tells us that the fourth sentence would be B.

54. Answer: A
B says, ‘this argument’ which means something about the same has previously been discussed in the
passage. So, this cannot be the introductory sentence.
We can see that AE form a pair so, E cannot come first. D doesn’t introduce anything and looks like a
disconnected sentence which cannot start a paragraph. Out of A and C, C starts the idea of the
paragraph ie; the government is forceful in telling the SC that there have been no deaths due to
starvation. A says ‘…with utmost confidence…’ the government is doing the same which means it is
continuing the idea given in C. So, C and A form a pair. So, CAE is the starting. After E, B should come
as D cannot come before B.
The correct sequence therefore, would be CAEBD
The correct answer should therefore, be option (a).

55. Answer: E
B says, ‘this argument’ which means something about the same has previously been discussed in the
passage. So, this cannot be the introductory sentence.
We can see that AE form a pair so, E cannot come first. D doesn’t introduce anything and looks like a
disconnected sentence which cannot start a paragraph. Out of A and C, C starts the idea of the
paragraph ie; the government is forceful in telling the SC that there have been no deaths due to
starvation. A says ‘…with utmost confidence…’ the government is doing the same which means it is
continuing the idea given in C. So, C and A form a pair. So, CAE is the starting. After E, B should come
as D cannot come before B.
The correct sequence therefore, would be CAEBD
We can see that D is the last sentence and therefore, the correct answer would be option (e).

Direction (56-60):
56. Answer: C

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57. Answer: B
58. Answer: D
59. Answer: B
60. Answer: E
The final sequence is – BEDAFC
After reading all the sentences carefully, we can say that statement (B) is the introductory statement; it
introduces the topic by asking a question.
After statement (B), statement (E) will come; we get the hint from 'the question', which is asked in
statement (B)
After statement (E), statement (D) will come; it further explains the features of the latest model of TV
After statement (D), statement (A) will come; it further explains the features of the TV, which can be
used as wall decor
After statement (A), statement (F) will come; it further explains how the TV can be used as wall decor
After statement (F), statement (C) will come; it further explains how the pictures can be customized
The final sequences is – BEDAFC
Direction (61-65):
61. Answer: B
62. Answer: D
63. Answer: C
64. Answer: E
65. Answer: A
ECABD is the correct arrangement.
The paragraph begins with sentence E, introducing the subject, J.K. Rowling, and how she often shares
her opinions on writing. Following with Sentence E comes Sentence C, providing an example of
Rowling's perspectives on writing and how she communicates these ideas to her readers, which is
mentioned in Sentence E about sharing opinions. So, EC becomes a pair. Then, Sentence A highlights
the contrast between Rowling's extensive literary works and her humble statement about writing, linking
back to her thoughts on facing a blank page as mentioned in Sentence C, which makes CA a pair.
Following that, Sentence B explains how she shifted her genre from fantasy to crime fiction. Finally,
sentence D concludes by summarising the central theme, highlighting that even an exceptionally prolific
writer like Rowling faces challenges with a blank page.

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66. Answer: E
Only C and E look like introductory sentences as they start a certain given idea. The other three
sentences are continuing ideas and do not look like starting statements.
The third sentence talks about realising the importance of healthy eating after two years of the
pandemic… and the E talks about bringing back the long-lost foods following the healthy eating culture.
E should come after C in the sequence.
So, the first sentence should be C ie; option (e).

67. Answer: A
Only C and E look like introductory sentences as they start a certain given idea. The other three
sentences are continuing ideas and do not look like starting statements.
The third sentence talks about realising the importance of healthy eating after two years of the
pandemic… and the E talks about bringing back the long-lost foods following the healthy eating culture.
E should come after C in the sequence.
After C and E that talk about the healthy eating culture comes the discussion whether this is an
affordable lifestyle. This question has been asked in A. So, CEA should be the correct sequence making
A, the third in the correct order.
This makes option (a) the most appropriate answer.

68. Answer: D
Only C and E look like introductory sentences as they start a certain given idea. The other three
sentences are continuing ideas and do not look like starting statements.
The third sentence talks about realising the importance of healthy eating after two years of the
pandemic… and the E talks about bringing back the long-lost foods following the healthy eating culture.
E should come after C in the sequence.
After C and E that talk about the healthy eating culture comes the discussion whether this is an
affordable lifestyle. This question has been asked in A. So, CEA should be the correct sequence making
A, the third in the correct order.
D should come before B because, B mentions ‘this is where…’ which should be preceded with the
situation that made the same happen.

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This makes the sequence CEADB the correct sequence and sentence B the last sentence as required.
The correct answer hence, is option (d).

69. Answer: D
Only C and E look like introductory sentences as they start a certain given idea. The other three
sentences are continuing ideas and do not look like starting statements.
The third sentence talks about realising the importance of healthy eating after two years of the
pandemic… and the E talks about bringing back the long-lost foods following the healthy eating culture.
E should come after C in the sequence.
After C and E that talk about the healthy eating culture comes the discussion whether this is an
affordable lifestyle. This question has been asked in A. So, CEA should be the correct sequence making
A, the third in the correct order.
D should come before B because, B mentions ‘this is where…’ which should be preceded with the
situation that made the same happen.
This makes the sequence CEADB the correct sequence.
The correct answer hence, is option (d).

70. Answer: A
Only C and E look like introductory sentences as they start a certain given idea. The other three
sentences are continuing ideas and do not look like starting statements.
The third sentence talks about realising the importance of healthy eating after two years of the
pandemic… and the E talks about bringing back the long-lost foods following the healthy eating culture.
E should come after C in the sequence.
After C and E that talk about the healthy eating culture comes the discussion whether this is an
affordable lifestyle. This question has been asked in A. So, CEA should be the correct sequence making
A, the third in the correct order.
D should come before B because, B mentions ‘this is where…’ which should be preceded with the
situation that made the same happen.
This makes the sequence CEADB the correct sequence.

71. Answer: C

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The correct sequence is CAEBDF.

Here, after reading all the statements we can deduce that the whole passage talks about the term called
"personality". Between the statements A and C, only statement C is the introductory one of this
passage. Because, statement A talks about what is the meaning of the term "personality" whereas
statement C introduce the term "personality". Generally, the explanation should come after the
introduction. So, the first statement (C) is an introduction and the second statement (A) is the
explanation of "personality". The third statement is E, because it explains, from where, a child gets the
personality since the beginning. Between the statements D and B, we can easily deduce the fifth
statement. Because, sixth statement (F) which is fixed talks about "this difference", it indicates that
some differentiation has been discussed earlier. According to this, only statement D talks about the
prevailing difference between "extrovert" and "introvert". Therefore, the fifth statement must be D, so
then it helps to tell what does the phrase “this difference” indicates in the sixth statement. Then, the
remaining statement B can be fixed as the fourth statement.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

72. Answer: A
The correct sequence is CAEBDF.
Here, after reading all the statements we can deduce that the whole passage talks about the term called
"personality". Between the statements A and C, only statement C is the introductory one of this
passage. Because, statement A talks about what is the meaning of the term "personality" whereas
statement C introduce the term "personality". Generally, the explanation should come after the
introduction. So, the first statement (C) is an introduction and the second statement (A) is the
explanation of "personality". The third statement is E, because it explains, from where, a child gets the
personality since the beginning. Between the statements D and B, we can easily deduce the fifth
statement. Because, sixth statement (F) which is fixed talks about "this difference", it indicates that
some differentiation has been discussed earlier. According to this, only statement D talks about the
prevailing difference between "extrovert" and "introvert". Therefore, the fifth statement must be D, so
then it helps to tell what does the phrase “this difference” indicates in the sixth statement. Then, the
remaining statement B can be fixed as the fourth statement.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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73. Answer: E
The correct sequence is CAEBDF.
Here, after reading all the statements we can deduce that the whole passage talks about the term called
"personality". Between the statements A and C, only statement C is the introductory one of this
passage. Because, statement A talks about what is the meaning of the term "personality" whereas
statement C introduce the term "personality". Generally, the explanation should come after the
introduction. So, the first statement (C) is an introduction and the second statement (A) is the
explanation of "personality". The third statement is E, because it explains, from where, a child gets the
personality since the beginning. Between the statements D and B, we can easily deduce the fifth
statement. Because, sixth statement (F) which is fixed talks about "this difference", it indicates that
some differentiation has been discussed earlier. According to this, only statement D talks about the
prevailing difference between "extrovert" and "introvert". Therefore, the fifth statement must be D, so
then it helps to tell what does the phrase “this difference” indicates in the sixth statement. Then, the
remaining statement B can be fixed as the fourth statement.
Hence, option E is the correct answer.

74. Answer: B
The correct sequence is CAEBDF.
Here, after reading all the statements we can deduce that the whole passage talks about the term called
"personality". Between the statements A and C, only statement C is the introductory one of this
passage. Because, statement A talks about what is the meaning of the term "personality" whereas
statement C introduce the term "personality". Generally, the explanation should come after the
introduction. So, the first statement (C) is an introduction and the second statement (A) is the
explanation of "personality". The third statement is E, because it explains, from where, a child gets the
personality since the beginning. Between the statements D and B, we can easily deduce the fifth
statement. Because, sixth statement (F) which is fixed talks about "this difference", it indicates that
some differentiation has been discussed earlier. According to this, only statement D talks about the
prevailing difference between "extrovert" and "introvert". Therefore, the fifth statement must be D, so
then it helps to tell what does the phrase “this difference” indicates in the sixth statement. Then, the
remaining statement B can be fixed as the fourth statement.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

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75. Answer: D
The correct sequence is CAEBDF.
Here, after reading all the statements we can deduce that the whole passage talks about the term called
"personality". Between the statements A and C, only statement C is the introductory one of this
passage. Because, statement A talks about what is the meaning of the term "personality" whereas
statement C introduce the term "personality". Generally, the explanation should come after the
introduction. So, the first statement (C) is an introduction and the second statement (A) is the
explanation of "personality". The third statement is E, because it explains, from where, a child gets the
personality since the beginning. Between the statements D and B, we can easily deduce the fifth
statement. Because, sixth statement (F) which is fixed talks about "this difference", it indicates that
some differentiation has been discussed earlier. According to this, only statement D talks about the
prevailing difference between "extrovert" and "introvert". Therefore, the fifth statement must be D, so
then it helps to tell what does the phrase “this difference” indicates in the sixth statement. Then, the
remaining statement B can be fixed as the fourth statement.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

76. Answer: B
E must come before D in the sequence because D explains how lemons can burn holes in the pockets
as mentioned in E. AC should come together so this becomes a strong link. This explains that E would
be the starting sentence as no other sentence sets the tone for the discussion.
Then, B can qualify to come in between E and D because B talks about some ad-hoc reasons that can
lead to such a disaster as well sometime. This makes EBD a good connection.
Now, A and C are also related as we saw above so, these two sentences can help complete the idea of
the paragraph that; wholesale price index and the rate of inflation have been the troubles facing the
common man.
This helps us form the complete sequence as; EBDAC.
The sentence in the middle hence, the third sentence would be D ie; given in option (b).

77. Answer: E

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E must come before D in the sequence because D explains how lemons can burn holes in the pockets
as mentioned in E. AC should come together so this becomes a strong link. This explains that E would
be the starting sentence as no other sentence sets the tone for the discussion.
Then, B can qualify to come in between E and D because B talks about some ad-hoc reasons that can
lead to such a disaster as well sometime. This makes EBD a good connection.
Now, A and C are also related as we saw above so, these two sentences can help complete the idea of
the paragraph that; wholesale price index and the rate of inflation have been the troubles facing the
common man.
This helps us form the complete sequence as; EBDAC.
We can clearly check the options and find that only BD is a pair of two consecutive statements and all
the other options are incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is in option (e).

78. Answer: D
E must come before D in the sequence because D explains how lemons can burn holes in the pockets
as mentioned in E. AC should come together so this becomes a strong link. This explains that E would
be the starting sentence as no other sentence sets the tone for the discussion.
Then, B can qualify to come in between E and D because B talks about some ad-hoc reasons that can
lead to such a disaster as well sometime. This makes EBD a good connection.
Now, A and C are also related as we saw above so, these two sentences can help complete the idea of
the paragraph that; wholesale price index and the rate of inflation have been the troubles facing the
common man.
This helps us form the complete sequence as; EBDAC.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

79. Answer: C
E must come before D in the sequence because D explains how lemons can burn holes in the pockets
as mentioned in E. AC should come together so this becomes a strong link. This explains that E would
be the starting sentence as no other sentence sets the tone for the discussion.
Then, B can qualify to come in between E and D because B talks about some ad-hoc reasons that can
lead to such a disaster as well sometime. This makes EBD a good connection.

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Now, A and C are also related as we saw above so, these two sentences can help complete the idea of
the paragraph that; wholesale price index and the rate of inflation have been the troubles facing the
common man.
This helps us form the complete sequence as; EBDAC.
Option (c) is the correct answer.

80. Answer: E
E must come before D in the sequence because D explains how lemons can burn holes in the pockets
as mentioned in E. AC should come together so this becomes a strong link. This explains that E would
be the starting sentence as no other sentence sets the tone for the discussion. ‘
Hence, the correct answer is option (e).

81. Answer: C
Going through the sentences, we can infer that these are based on the difference in number of cases
and deaths among various regions. Here, (C) being an independent statement is the most suitable
sentence to begin the paragraph. Further, (A) will follow (C) because it mentions a contrast from (C) by
stating how the disruption is uneven across various regions. This is further supported by a generalized
statement (F) which mentions the variations across Europe, American, Asia and Africa. Further, (D) is
fixed and is the fourth sentence after rearrangement. (D) will be followed by (B) which establishes a
comparison between India, U.S and UK. Finally, the paragraph will be concluded by sentence (E), which
states the lack of clarity on the reasons behind such variations. Therefore, the correct sequence of the
sentences will be CAFDBE. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

82. Answer: A
Going through the sentences, we can infer that these are based on the difference in number of cases
and deaths among various regions. Here, (C) being an independent statement is the most suitable
sentence to begin the paragraph. Further, (A) will follow (C) because it mentions a contrast from (C) by
stating how the disruption is uneven across various regions. This is further supported by a generalized
statement (F) which mentions the variations across Europe, American, Asia and Africa. Further, (D) is
fixed and is the fourth sentence after rearrangement. (D) will be followed by (B) which establishes a
comparison between India, U.S and UK. Finally, the paragraph will be concluded by sentence (E), which

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states the lack of clarity on the reasons behind such variations. Therefore, the correct sequence of the
sentences will be CAFDBE. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.

83. Answer: D
Going through the sentences, we can infer that these are based on the difference in number of cases
and deaths among various regions. Here, (C) being an independent statement is the most suitable
sentence to begin the paragraph. Further, (A) will follow (C) because it mentions a contrast from (C) by
stating how the disruption is uneven across various regions. This is further supported by a generalized
statement (F) which mentions the variations across Europe, American, Asia and Africa. Further, (D) is
fixed and is the fourth sentence after rearrangement. (D) will be followed by (B) which establishes a
comparison between India, U.S and UK. Finally, the paragraph will be concluded by sentence (E), which
states the lack of clarity on the reasons behind such variations. Therefore, the correct sequence of the
sentences will be CAFDBE. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

84. Answer: D
Going through the sentences, we can infer that these are based on the difference in number of cases
and deaths among various regions. Here, (C) being an independent statement is the most suitable
sentence to begin the paragraph. Further, (A) will follow (C) because it mentions a contrast from (C) by
stating how the disruption is uneven across various regions. This is further supported by a generalized
statement (F) which mentions the variations across Europe, American, Asia and Africa. Further, (D) is
fixed and is the fourth sentence after rearrangement. (D) will be followed by (B) which establishes a
comparison between India, U.S and UK. Finally, the paragraph will be concluded by sentence (E), which
states the lack of clarity on the reasons behind such variations. Therefore, the correct sequence of the
sentences will be CAFDBE. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

85. Answer: B
Going through the sentences, we can infer that these are based on the difference in number of cases
and deaths among various regions. Here, (C) being an independent statement is the most suitable
sentence to begin the paragraph. Further, (A) will follow (C) because it mentions a contrast from (C) by
stating how the disruption is uneven across various regions. This is further supported by a generalized
statement (F) which mentions the variations across Europe, American, Asia and Africa. Further, (D) is

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fixed and is the fourth sentence after rearrangement. (D) will be followed by (B) which establishes a
comparison between India, U.S and UK. Finally, the paragraph will be concluded by sentence (E), which
states the lack of clarity on the reasons behind such variations. Therefore, the correct sequence of the
sentences will be CAFDBE. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

86. Answer: A
Here, first sentence after rearrangement will be a as it gives introductory part of the paragraph as layoffs
by Accenture, followed by b which explains further and connects with it, followed by d which gives
information about further layoffs to be done in future followed by c which connects contextually with d
and finally ends with e which gives ending part with information about further recruitments. So, option A
is the correct answer.

87. Answer: C
Here, first sentence after rearrangement will be a as it gives introductory part of the paragraph as layoffs
by Accenture, followed by b which explains further and connects with it, followed by d which gives
information about further layoffs to be done in future followed by c which connects contextually with d
and finally ends with e which gives ending part with information about further recruitments. So, option C
is the correct answer.

88. Answer: D
Here, first sentence after rearrangement will be a as it gives introductory part of the paragraph as layoffs
by Accenture, followed by b which explains further and connects with it, followed by d which gives
information about further layoffs to be done in future followed by c which connects contextually with d
and finally ends with e which gives ending part with information about further recruitments. So, option D
is the correct answer.

89. Answer: E
Here, first sentence after rearrangement will be a as it gives introductory part of the paragraph as layoffs
by Accenture, followed by b which explains further and connects with it, followed by d which gives
information about further layoffs to be done in future followed by c which connects contextually with d

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and finally ends with e which gives ending part with information about further recruitments. So, option E
is the correct answer.

90. Answer: B
Here, first sentence after rearrangement will be a as it gives introductory part of the paragraph as layoffs
by Accenture, followed by b which explains further and connects with it, followed by d which gives
information about further layoffs to be done in future followed by c which connects contextually with d
and finally ends with e which gives ending part with information about further recruitments. So, option B
is the correct answer.

91. Answer: D
The correct sequence is: EBDAFC
When we solve Para jumble, first we should try to make pairs and identify the first statement.
In this Para jumble: we clearly see that only statement E is an independent sentence, so we start the
passage with this statement.
Now we try to make pairs:
In statement C, the pronoun "this" is used here. We have to find the noun for this pronoun. Statement
C talks about "money" and statement F discusses money also. Hence, FC is a pair.
Statement B talks about only "India" and statement D talks about the world. Hence, D is followed by B.
So, BD is another pair.
Statement A also talks about the world that GIC is the eighth largest management fund in the world.
Hence, A is followed by the pair BD.
After BDA, statement F will be fit because BD talks about some funds and F talks about this fund in
terms of money.
Hence, the final sequence is: EBDAFC
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

92. Answer: D
The correct sequence is: EBDAFC
When we solve Para jumble, first we should try to make pairs and identify the first statement.

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In this Para jumble: we clearly see that only statement E is an independent sentence, so we start the
passage with this statement.
Now we try to make pairs:
In statement C, the pronoun "this" is used here. We have to find the noun for this pronoun. Statement
C talks about "money" and statement F discusses money also. Hence, FC is a pair.
Statement B talks about only "India" and statement D talks about the world. Hence, D is followed by B.
So, BD is another pair.
Statement A also talks about the world that GIC is the eighth largest management fund in the world.
Hence, A is followed by the pair BD.
After BDA, statement F will be fit because BD talks about some funds and F talks about this fund in the
terms of money.
Hence, the final sequence is: EBDAFC
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

93. Answer: E
The correct sequence is: EBDAFC
When we solve Para jumble, first we should try to make pairs and identify the first statement.
In this Para jumble: we clearly see that only statement E is an independent sentence, so we start the
passage with this statement.
Now we try to make pairs:
In statement C, the pronoun "this" is used here. We have to find the noun for this pronoun. Statement
C talks about "money" and statement F discusses money also. Hence, FC is a pair.
Statement B talks about only "India" and statement D talks about the world. Hence, D is followed by B.
So, BD is another pair.
Statement A also talks about the world that GIC is the eighth largest management fund in the world.
Hence, A is followed by the pair BD.
After BDA, statement F will be fit because BD talks about some funds and F talks about this fund in the
terms of money.
Hence, the final sequence is: EBDAFC
Hence, option E is the correct answer.

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94. Answer: B
When we solve Para jumble, first we should try to make pairs and identify the first statement.
In this Para jumble: we clearly see that only statement E is an independent sentence, so we start the
passage with this statement.
Now we try to make pairs:
In statement C, the pronoun "this" is used here. We have to find the noun for this pronoun. Statement
C talks about "money" and statement F discusses money also. Hence, FC is a pair.
Statement B talks about only "India" and statement D talks about the world. Hence, D is followed by B.
So, BD is another pair.
Statement A also talks about the world that GIC is the eighth largest management fund in the world.
Hence, A is followed by the pair BD.
After BDA, statement F will be fit because BD talks about some funds and F talks about this fund in the
terms of money.
Hence, the final sequence is: EBDAFC
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

95. Answer: B
The correct sequence is: EBDAFC
When we solve Para jumble, first we should try to make pairs and identify the first statement.
In this Para jumble: we clearly see that only statement E is an independent sentence, so we start the
passage with this statement.
Now we try to make pairs:
In statement C, the pronoun "this" is used here. We have to find the noun for this pronoun. Statement
C talks about "money" and statement F discusses money also. Hence, FC is a pair.
Statement B talks about only "India" and statement D talks about the world. Hence, D is followed by B.
So, BD is another pair.
Statement A also talks about the world that GIC is the eighth largest management fund in the world.
Hence, A is followed by the pair BD.
After BDA, statement F will be fit because BD talks about some funds and F talks about this fund in the
terms of money.
Hence, the final sequence is: EBDAFC

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Hence, option B is the correct answer.

96. Answer: C
The state’s Disaster Management Plan of 2017 listed several ‘landslide risk mitigation’ measures
including stabilising of hill slopes, afforestation and early warning systems.

97. Answer: B
Landslides have been a way of life in Himachal, but the level of human exposure to risk of disaster had
remained low due to the state’s low population density.

98. Answer: B
If that is not possible, the least the state could do is to close the dangerous roads for all but emergency
traffic during rains.

99. Answer: D
C) Landslides have been a way of life in Himachal, but the level of human exposure to risk of disaster
had remained low due to the state’s low population density.
E) However, due to a big push for construction of infrastructure and roads, and the resultant increase in
human settlements and road traffic, more lives are in danger than ever before, especially during rains.
In the sentence C, the topic is ‘landslides’ in the state of Himachal Pradesh and in sentence E, we can
find a contrast about the danger to human lives, which is being discussed in the sentence C that due to
the state’s low population, people are at less risk but due to construction of buildings and roads, there
has been an increase in human settlements.
So, the correct answer is option D.

100. Answer: A
To rearrange the sentences in order to make a meaningful paragraph, we need to find the theme of the
paragraph that is ‘landslides’ which is given in sentence C. So, the introductory sentence of the
paragraph will be sentence C. After this, we find that the first sentence is talking about the low intensity
of disaster and there has been a contradiction to it in sentence E, hence it will be the second sentence
of the paragraph. Now, we can find that there’s an indication of a plan that listed measures to reduce

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the landslide risk. So, the third sentence will be A. After this, sentence D talks about the advantages of
the implementation of the measures. Hence, it will be the forth sentence of the paragraph. And the last
sentence will be sentence B that shows if the plan is not implemented then what the state could do to its
best.
So, the correct rearrangement is- CEADB.
C) Landslides have been a way of life in Himachal, but the level of human exposure to risk of disaster
had remained low due to the state’s low population density.
E) However, due to a big push for construction of infrastructure and roads, and the resultant increase in
human settlements and road traffic, more lives are in danger than ever before, especially during rains.
A) The state’s Disaster Management Plan of 2017 listed several ‘landslide risk mitigation’ measures
including stabilising of hill slopes, afforestation and early warning systems.
D) If implemented fully, these measures could reduce risk to life and property.
B) If that is not possible, the least the state could do is to close the dangerous roads for all but
emergency traffic during rains.

101. Answer: D
In the passage, it's mentioned that globalization has led to a global village where diverse traditions,
languages, and lifestyles intersect. The exchange of cultural expressions, particularly through literature,
music, and other forms, has become more fluid. However, this cultural exchange also raises questions
about the potential homogenization of cultures and the loss of distinct identities.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

102. Answer: C
In the passage, it's noted that while globalization has led to increased economic interconnectivity and
efficiency, it has also raised concerns about economic inequality. The integration of markets and the
specialization of countries in certain economic activities have led to imbalances, benefiting some
regions and social groups more than others.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

103. Answer: A

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It is mentioned in the passage that “Technological advancements, particularly in information technology,

have been instrumental in propelling globalization forward. The internet, in particular, has transformed
how people communicate and access information, bridging gaps and fostering a sense of global
citizenship.”
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

104. Answer: D
It is mentioned in the passage that “In navigating the complexities of globalization, societies must
actively engage in thoughtful dialogue and cooperation to harness its potential for the greater good
while mitigating its adverse effects.”
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

105. Answer: B
It is mentioned in the passage that “Economically, globalization has ushered in an era of unprecedented
interconnectivity. International trade has surged, facilitated by advancements in transportation and
communication technologies. This integration of markets has enabled countries to specialize in the
production of goods and services in which they have a comparative advantage, fostering economic
efficiency and growth. ”
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

106. Answer: E
In the passage, "transcend" is used to describe globalization's effect on geographical boundaries,
indicating a surpassing or going beyond traditional limits. "Surpass" means to exceed or go beyond,
making it the most fitting synonym in the given context.
Therefore, option E is the correct answer.

107. Answer: D
"Proliferate" means ‘increase rapidly in number; multiply’. The opposite of this would be a decrease or
reduction, which aligns with the meaning of "dwindle.""Dwindle" means to diminish or gradually become
smaller, making it the appropriate antonym in this context.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

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108. Answer: C
The question checks your grammatical ability more than the comprehension as all the options are same
but you have to choose the correct one.
Option (a) gets eliminated due to the usage of ‘there’
Option (b) is wrong as ‘in overall development’ is grammatically incorrect.
Option (d) is wrong as ‘to providing’ is the wrong usage and the usage of from and to is also not up to
the mark.
Option (e) is wrong for the usage of ‘in provide’
Therefore, option (c) is the best answer.

109. Answer: D
In sentence (a), ‘fourth’ should be replaced by ‘fifth’
In sentence (c), ‘two’ should be replaced by ‘several’
Statement (b) is absolutely correct so that can be eliminated.
Hence, the best option is (d).

110. Answer: D
There are few things we can understand about the author through the passage:
I. He is concerned about the mental health of the children
II. He has offered suggestions on what should be kept in mind while framing policies etc.
III. He is well read and has supported his ideas with facts and figures
These things show us that the author is disturbed by the current scenario of education and children
affected by COVID. So, the best option that describes his tone should be ‘perturbed’.
Options (a), (b) and (c) can be eliminated as they are praising and positive which is not the case here.
Commiserating could be a slightly confusing option but the meaning involves pity, suffering and
empathy which is an extreme and is not the case here as the author is just concerned and serious about
the situation.

111. Answer: A
Refer to the following lines from the fourth paragraph to get a clarity over the answer:

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As a powerful socializing agent, schools play a crucial role in the transformation of cognitive, linguistic
and psychosocial competencies and creating happy, healthy and harmonious schools for mental health
wellness of kids.
(iii) is wrong as the role that is mentioned in (iii) has actually been given for NGOs and not the schools.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (a).

112. Answer: E
All the given options have been mentioned in the third paragraph of the passage if you closely read,
scan and match the options once.
Therefore, (e) is the best option.

113. Answer: E
The given word is making no sense when we talk about the schools etc. The author simply means that
the ‘Practically or any of the options given’ the schools were shut down since COVID hit the country.
So, the best option is (e) as all the words fit in pretty well.

114. Answer: A
All the options certainly fit the context but if we carefully read the options, we would understand that, (b)
has been generalised and does not fit well for the theme. (c) is vague as change in what sense is being
discussed is not sure. (d) is just one aspect of it and not the complete theme around which the whole
passage is centred. Eliminating all the options, we have the best choice that explains all the aspects in
one single option ie; (a).

115. Answer: C
It is mentioned in the passage that without social security, appropriate maternity benefits for all working
women will remain incomplete.
In that context, options (a) and (b), both are incorrect. ‘Compensation’ and ‘medical advice’ are one of
the benefits of Maternity scheme, but the whole passage is more focused on providing social security to
women
Option (c) – it is mentioned in the passage (Social security without appropriate maternity benefits for all
working women – whether daily wagers in a brick kiln or in agriculture or in other unorganized sectors or

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as manual scavengers – will remain an incomplete scheme for crores of women who are foot soldiers of
development)

116. Answer: A
Option (B) - It is mentioned in the passage (A new Section 11A was inserted to provide facility of crèche
in every establishment having fifty or more employees)
Option (C) - It is mentioned in the passage (A woman is entitled to these benefits only after working not
less than 80 days in the 12 months immediately preceding her delivery)
Option (D) - it is mentioned in the passage (a medical bonus of Rs 3,500 was also provided)
Option (A) - it is mentioned in the passage that it has raised paid leave benefit period to 26 weeks, but it
is not mentioned in the passage that it is raised from 12 weeks. So, this option is incorrect.
(The Maternity Benefits Act was amended in 2017 to raise the paid leave benefit period to 26 weeks for
up to two surviving children)

117. Answer: B
Options (a) and (c) - Both the options are incorrect as ’code of wages’ is not discussed in the passage.
And the information provided under ‘code of occupational safety and working condition’ is out of context
Option (b) - it is mentioned in the passage (As in the Code on Industrial Relations, the Code on Social
Security has also provided that employees who are in ‘fixed term employment’ shall be entitled to same
wages, allowances and other benefits as available to the permanent employees)

118. Answer: E
Option (A) - It is mentioned in the passage (Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan is a
commendable scheme to provide timely and quality antenatal care, free of cost universally to all
pregnant women and can complement the Maternity Benefits scheme under the new Code)
Options (b) and (c) - Both are out of context. No such information is mentioned in the passage.

119. Answer: C
Options (a) and (b) - both are incorrect. The options focused more on the jobs rather than the maternity
benefits

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Option (c) - This option is correct as it is mentioned in the passage (Considering their financial
vulnerability, the social security scheme should provide comprehensive social security umbrella so that
births can take place with peace of mind)

120. Answer: C
The context of the sentence talks about the post covid period. Among all the options, only option (C)
‘during’ is used for a course or duration of a period of time
Option (A) – ‘In’ is used to express a particular time within which an event happens
Option (B) – ‘when’ is used to denote the time at or on which (referring to a time or circumstances)
Option (D) – ‘While’ is used as ‘at the same time; meanwhile’

121. Answer: D
The sentence is - The responsibility is on the Central Government to frame a universal maternity benefit
scheme to ensure better health care and a guaranteed income security during pregnancy and
thereafter, as there is no job security in these sectors

122. Answer: C
Meaning of ‘arduous’ – difficult or tiring, or needing great deal of efforts
Options (A), (B) and (D) all are its synonyms.
Option (C) ‘effortless’ is its antonym.

123. Answer: C
It is clear from the first paragraph that, the author is focussing more on reinforcement that is repetitive
training of the cat that leads to learning, in other words cats are creatures of habit. Option a is nowhere
mentioned , option b is irrelevant with regard to the question, option d is again wordplay , the
introduction of extreme words like ‘only’ in the option will render the answer incorrect.

124. Answer: C
the question is tricky ‘these moments’ in the highlighted sentence refers to ‘cat-moments’, so the
question can be rephrased as , which one of the following activities will reduce your stressed day at
work by being with a cat? So it is easy to answer now, so something positive about the cat should be

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mentioned in the options to take away the stress, option a and d can be eliminated because they are
talking negative about having a cat, option b can be eliminated because it is talking about person and
not cat, option e is eliminated because it has nothing to do with creative skills of the child and cat’s
moment is not mentioned.

125. Answer: D
from the lines given before and after the blank, it is clear that the cat can understand its wrongdoing by
distinguishing the mood of the speaker by his/her tone, so it is very important for the owner to use his
voice wisely, all the options except d are not matching the context given with the blank.

126. Answer: C
throughout the passage the author is revealing the tips and tricks to handle a cat wisely and its habits
which they acquire with repeated activity. So, author is revealing the hack to handle the cats, option c is
more appropriate, option a and b are irrelevant, option d is too narrow and mentioned only in one
paragraph hence eliminated.

127. Answer: E
it is clear from the lines of the last para ‘my kitty, Spooky, is two’, hence option e is the answer.

128. Answer: B
Reverie (daydreaming), despise/abominate/condemn/loathe means hate, revere means respect

129. Answer: D
enliven (reinvigorate/revitalize/energize/enlighten) and impoverish means weaken

130. Answer: C
All the options except C have been mentioned in the passage.
Refer to these lines of the passage-
A. It helps in digestion- Mangoes could help facilitate healthy digestion. Mangoes contain enzymes that
aid the breakdown and digestion of protein, and also fiber, which keeps the digestive tract working
efficiently. Green mangoes have more pectin fiber than ripe mangoes.

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B. Gives skin a healthy glow- Eating mango is a great way to improve your skin from the inside out.
Mangoes are rich in vitamin C, which plays a major role in skin health and may even help reduce the
signs of ageing.
D. Kills the intense summer heat- Raw mango juice can prevent dehydration by stopping excessive loss
of sodium chloride and iron from the body. It reduces the effects of sunstroke caused due to intense
heat.
E. Lowers the Cancer risk- Raw mango is rich in antioxidants such as polyphony that reduce the risk of
cancer. Clinical studies suggest that raw mango reduces inflammation and blocks the cancer cell
division.
Hence option C is the correct answer.

131. Answer: B
Out of the given three statements both I and II are true to the context of the passage.
For III refer to these quoted lines of the last paragraph- “Mangoes are highly rich in Vitamin B6, this type
of vitamin is very important for maintaining and improving the brain’s function.”
Hence option B is the correct answer.
132. Answer: E
Refer to the third paragraph- “Raw mango juice can prevent dehydration by stopping excessive loss of
sodium chloride and iron from the body. It reduces the effects of sunstroke caused due to intense heat.
Raw mango may reduce prickly heat and scratching of the nose”.
Option C is incorrect because raw mango is rich in antioxidants such as polyphony that reduce the risk
of cancer.
So from the above quoted lines we can say that option E is the correct answer.
133. Answer: D
Refer to the last paragraph- “You can keep your brain healthy and improve your sleep by adding mango
in your daily diet. Mangoes contain glut-amine acid that helps to improve concentration and also the
power of your memory.” So from the above quoted lines we can say that option D is the correct answer.
134. Answer: D
Out of the given options, D is not true to the context of the passage.

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For D refer to these quoted lines of the second paragraph- “Mangoes could help facilitate healthy
digestion. Mangoes contain enzymes that aid the breakdown and digestion of protein, and also fiber,
which keeps the digestive tract working efficiently”
Hence option D is the correct answer.
135. Answer: C
Only option C is grammatically correct, rest are erroneous-
I- Mangoes are sweet, creamy fruits that have a range of possible health benefits.(Plural subject
“mangoes” should be followed by plural verb “have”)
II- They are highly popular around the world. (Adjective (popular) is qualified by adverb (highly))
Hence option C is the correct answer.
136. Answer: C
Except “muskmelon” all fruits belong to the drupe family. A drupe is a fleshy fruit usually consisting of a
single seed. It means that drupe is any fruit that grows from a single ovary of an individual flower.
Hence option C is the correct answer.
137. Answer: E
All the given points have been discussed in the passage but if we carefully concentrate on the question
asked, we see that the reason that makes the problem alarming or worth paying attention has been
asked and not just another reason.
On reading the first paragraph especially the lines given below will help us reach the correct statement:
Unesco’s recent State of Education report for India paints a bleak picture of India’s strength of skilled
teachers. The country is short of 11 lakh skilled teachers, with the rural parts of the country bearing the
larger share of the deficit—69% of the vacancies are in schools in these areas. How acute the problem
is for those lacking privilege is spelled out in the fact that 89% of rural schools in the country are single-
teacher schools.
So, our required reason is in point no (iii) and hence option (e) is the correct answer.
138. Answer: D
A careful reading of the lines below will help:
Lack of job security, low salary, and the lack of benefits, respect associated with the profession, and
autonomy— 43% of all teachers do not have a job contract at all, and, according to the Unesco report,
they are one of the least paid public service professionals which has consequences for the
attractiveness of the profession.

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The answer option (d) can be clearly deduced from the above.
139. Answer: C
As per the question, the best option that explains the reason being asked is option (c). The idea given in
the passage in the following lines of the second paragraph can be understood below:
As for professional autonomy, private school teachers are pressured to stick to non-disruptive
measures and large-scale innovative measures are frequently stonewalled by the school administration.
The other options are not consistent with the idea being presented by the author and hence can be
eliminated.
140. Answer: A
The sentence with the blank is discussing the fact that it is not just India that needs to face or deal with
the issue of the shortage of teachers.
Even developed countries like the US and Germany have to face the same. Of all the given options, (a)
fits the blank meaningfully well.
Contend with ----> to deal with (something difficult or unpleasant).
Dealt from is grammatically incorrect. Serve, Act and Reeling use the wrong prepositions with them and
hence can all be eliminated.
So, option (a) is the best answer.
141. Answer: B
Option (a) looks like a word play but fails to give a specific idea
Option (c) is too general and fails to stick to the author’s perspective and can be eliminated
(d) talks about students’ sufferings which is partially okay but the passage talks about teachers and not
all the manpower so this can be ruled out as well.
The best option is (b) as it addresses all the concerns being discussed in the passage.
142. Answer: D
The sentences tells us that the school administration generally does not welcome or encourage the
innovative methods and ideas presented by the teachers. So, the options (a), (b) and (c) can be
understood to be the synonyms of the asked word.
However, invigorate means to strengthen or provide a new energy to things which is exactly the
opposite of what is being discussed.
So, the best option is (d).
143. Answer: D

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Refer to the following lines from the second last paragraph:

It is not as if the government—both the Centre and the states, given education is a concurrent subject—
is oblivious. Some measures have been taken, but these have created more problems than
solutions. According to the Unesco report, in order to fulfill the requirements, the standards of hiring
teachers were lowered, which “effectively gave rise to large numbers of untrained and underpaid
contractual teachers in the system.
So, option (e) ie; statement (ii) is correct.
144. Answer: B
Options (A) and (C) - do not match the context of the sentence
Option (B) – it is mentioned in the passage ("Clay acts almost as an antidote to the overwhelm of the
digital world," says Jennifer Waverek, owner of Bklyn Clay. "It interrupts your compulsive email-
checking. Your mind has a single focus, so the practice can feel meditative or therapeutic).
145. Answer: C
Option (A) – social media is used to showcase crafts but potters humiliation is not mentioned in the
passage
Options (B) and (D) – social media was not accused or humiliated in the passage
Option (C) – it is mentioned in the passage (there is a major irony to the crafting trend: social media is
fuelling it. It has hooked a younger generation's interest in pottery in particular. Young amateur potters
showcase their work on social media, and the interest in it can be gaugedby the huge number of likes
on their Instagram pages).
146. Answer: C
Options (A), (B) and (D) are out of context
Option (C) – is mentioned in the passage (It has hooked a younger generation's interest in pottery in
particular. Young amateur potters showcase their work on social media, and the interest in it can be
gauged by the huge number of likes on their Instagram pages. "Social media has played a crucial role in
bringing craftsmanship to a new audience," says Pablo Fernández-Canivell, a self-taught ceramicist
based in Malaga, Spain. "Instagram is full of hypnotic videos of people making ceramics by hand, and
millennials, many of whom had never been near a real pottery wheel before, find the process of hand-
making ceramics very appealing)."
147. Answer: A
Options (B), (C) and (D) do not match with the context of the passage

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

Option (A) – it is mentioned in the passage (There is no way to speed up clay-drying or firing, there's no
'clay-microwave' – ceramics take as much time to make today as they did 2,000 years ago)."
148. Answer: C
Option (C) – clay drying or firing is not a technique but it is a process of making clay products.
Options (A) and (B) both are mentioned in the passage (Ceramics are a highly versatile medium,
allowing makers to learn myriad techniques, including hand-sculpted pots, slab pots (created by joining
pieces of flattened clay) and pots made by pinching or coiling clay or using plaster press moulds)
149. Answer: E
Meaning of “Gauged” – estimates or determines the amount, level or volume of something
150. Answer: B
From the context of the sentence we understand that people are practicing pottery because it gives
something to people when they end up their self-made pot by joining pieces.
Only “satisfaction” fits in the context of the sentence.
151. Answer: D
Being declared as a Living Being and having the status of a legal entity is one composite thing. The
question has been asked as to why has this been done so the reasons for the same that have been
given in the first paragraph should be marked as the answer. The first paragraph says that the legal
status is being provided to mother nature so that it can be preserved and conserved and also, the court
wishes that its health and well-being should be taken care of.
The statements in (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is a mere repetition of the question in a way. So, the
correct answer should be option (d).
152. Answer: B
The line where the phrase has been used discusses that Mother Nature has been given all those rights
that any legal entity or living being enjoys and those rights are equivalent to the ‘fundamental, legal and
constitutional rights.’
The word ‘parallel’ means existing side by side or happening at the same time or in a similar way and
cannot be taken as the answer as it won’t fit the context. Except would make the meaning incorrect.
Comprising of and including are both same and we have a better word to define the phrase that is
‘equivalent’ so these two options can also be cancelled.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
153. Answer: B

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

The second paragraph clearly mentions that the petitioner had appealed against the order due to which
he wasn’t allowed to retire as there was a case against him for allotting a ‘patta’ ie; land which was
classified as ‘Forest Land’.
Option (a) has not been mentioned in the passage. (c) is mentioned but as a defence that the petitioner
gave in defence of the trial that was going on against him. (d) is irrelevant as the court would not want to
do something unnecessarily and that there must have been reason behind the same. (e) gets cancelled
as we already have our answer in option (b).
Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
154. Answer: C
Out of the spellings given in the options above, the one that is given in the third option is wrong.
The correct spelling for the word in (C) should be ‘petitioner’ that is defined as a person who is asking
for action from a law court.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).
155. Answer: B
In the third paragraph, the author has indicated that the court has mentioned that any act that is
destructive in nature or involves ‘indiscriminate change’ ie; rampant and random change in the
environment should be taken seriously as an offence against mother nature as it disturbs the
ecosystem.
Only the second option goes parallel to this. The other options are not the reasons that have been given
in the passage so those can be ruled out.
156. Answer: B
The passage provides information about the Court’s decision to provide the status of a legal entity to
mother nature and the reason for doing so. The author has not criticized anyone or anything in the
passage. There is no caution issued as well. The author has given the passage in a neutral tone. So,
jovial which means very happy and optimistic that means being positive both cannot be fit for the tone.
Therefore, the best answer would be option (b).
157. Answer: C
The word cumulative as used in the passage means additional. Words in options (a), (b) and almost (c)
as well are similar which mean adding up or increasing in some way. So, these can be taken as
synonyms of the given word.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

We have been asked to find an antonym which should mean going down or decreasing. So, the correct
word for the same would be ‘diminishing.’
‘Stagnation’ can be defined as a period of no movement. Being stuck in the same position.
158. Answer: B
In the first paragraph, it has been mentioned in the last few lines that the government ‘presumes’ which
means assumes or believes that when it decides to privatise a certain entity, the private sector will
automatically take care of the staffing etc. But in the line following this idea, it has been mentioned that it
is a fantasy tale means something that is possible to happen only in the imagination and has not turned
into reality.
Option (a) is reverse of what is being discussed in the passage. (c) is vague as nothing like that has
been discussed and (d) has been given but it is not the answer to the question asked.
Therefore, the option that best describes the same is option (b).
159. Answer: C
It has been mentioned clearly in the second paragraph that Indian companies are increasingly using
technologies like Artificial Intelligence, IoT etc in order to lessen their dependence on the human
resource. It also says that the demand is going up rapidly which means all these things have been in the
market for a while now and saying that IoT is a new idea is wrong.
Therefore, the best is to go with option (c).
160. Answer: D
We can find the answer for this question in the third paragraph of the passage as it talks about one
more reason that unemployment condition in the country is not improving. It says, one more reason for
this as can be seen is ‘outsourcing’ and in that the author explains why the companies prefer to go for
outsourcing is that they feel that the labour issues that would otherwise take place in their premises can
now be shifted to the place where the outsourced work is being carried out. It is also mentioned that,
wherever human beings are required, they can hire them on a contract basis.
But, the third option is not being discussed in the same context. So, it can be eliminated.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (d).
161. Answer: A
The vaguest of the given options is (d) as it is something that has not been discussed anywhere in the
entire passage let alone the last paragraph.

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

The last paragraph simply discusses that with the rapid advancement in technology, the needs of the
jobs today have changed drastically so much so that it has become impossible for few people
(especially from the poorer backgrounds) to achieve the same as due to lack of specialised education or
resources and the ones from the privileged backgrounds are at an advantage.
This idea can be reflected only in the first option. The second option need not necessarily be true so we
cannot mark the same. The third option is just an assumption and it is nowhere being discussed that the
companies are reserved in their approach towards hiring people from a certain background.
Therefore, the best answer should be option (a).
162. Answer: B
The trade unions and their issues have been referred to as the reasons why the companies are framing
certain labour policies. And, they are not the positive ones only as can be understood from the context
of the passage. It is therefore, the demon of the unions or the threat that the companies face due to the
trade unions and the labour issues that have been described.
Shadow is one of the dictionary synonyms of the word spectre but it won’t fit the usage of the word here
in the passage. So, we can eliminate the same. Multitude and variety are similar options but they are
unrelated to our given word. So, (d) and (e) can also be eliminated. Illusion is also wrong.
So, the correct answer would be option (b).
163. Answer: C
The passage revolves around the idea of inclusive growth as the way in which the author has described
that one sector is growing but the other sector keeps getting affected due to various reasons tells us
that the author is trying to make a point that whatever is visible, but an inclusive growth still seems to be
distant. The way in which the first line describes other areas than agriculture do not seem to be on a
rise. Similarly, the author also discusses the government’s attitude towards privatisation etc. to make his
point.
Of the given options, (a) can be refuted as no undue advantage is being discussed. (b) is partially
reflecting the idea discussed. (d) and (e) are certain aspects discussed in the passage and are not the
entire ideas in themselves.
Therefore, the best would be to go with option (c).
164. Answer: D
The fourth part of the given sentence has a sub-verb error in it. The verbs ‘empowers’ is singular which

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

in the sentence has been used for the word ‘reforms’ which is plural. A plural subject should take a
plural verb and therefore, ‘empower’ should be used.
‘Reforms empower’ is the correct usage.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
165. Answer: A
Consternation: anxiety, dismay
As we can infer from the lines, the EPI report created distress among the Ministers, thus option (a) will
be the correct choice.
Brusque – short and abrupt
Blandishment -a flattering or pleasant statement
Callous -not caring or disregarding for others
166. Answer: C
The word “Surmices” is misspelt, it should be “Surmises”.
Surmises: guess, suspect
The correct sentence is: Moreover, some of these indicators used for assessing performance
are extrapolated and based on surmises and unscientific methods.
167. Answer: B
In referring to the first paragraph, "The Government may have sound technical and/or statistical reasons
for rejecting the EPI 2022 Report but routine rejection, in the immaculate bureaucratese, of all studies
and reports that show the Government of India in a poor light, e.g., the US State Department report on
religious freedom, the World Bank’s report on Human Capital Index (HCI) or the WHO report on Covid
deaths, makes the next rejection sound even more hollow than the last one." From this we can infer that
the Government of India has rejected many reports, which brings it into a bad situation. Thus option (b)
will be the correct choice.
168. Answer: E
Let us check each option one by one:
In reference to the passage, “The EPI 2022 Report reveals that despite solemn promises, the latest
being at UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow (COP26), most countries have not done enough to
protect the environment.” From which we can infer that option (a) is true.
Again referring to the next line of the same passage, “To recapitulate: In the 2021 Glasgow Climate
Pact, the global community established a target of net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by mid-century

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Top Must Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 – (English Version)

and made commitments for more ambitious climate policies to achieve this aim.” which proves that
option (b) is true.
But if we check for option (c), in reference to the passage, “However, the EPI 2022 Report shows that
only a handful of countries, which included the top rankers, Denmark and the United Kingdom, are
currently slated to reach greenhouse gas neutrality by 2050. Many other nations like China, India, and
Russia are headed in exactly the opposite direction, with rapidly rising greenhouse gas emissions.” we
can infer that China, India, and Russia are not goings towards carbon neutrality, which makes this
option wrong.

169. Answer: E
The word “squandered” means to waste something in a foolish manner. So, all the options are the
synonyms of the give word.

170. Answer: A
The correct arrangement is:
The remarkable improvements in air quality and reductions in greenhouse gas emissions noticed during
the lockdown came at a terrible cost in terms of human health and economic well-being.

171. Answer: C
If we see the last line of the first paragraph, “The EPI 2022 Report was audited by the Joint Research
Centre of the European Commission" but in the option, it says the report was "developed" which is
wrong.
In referring to the first paragraph we can easily find out that option (b) is true. Similarly, options (a) & (d)
are from the second and third paragraphs respectively. Thus these are true.

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