GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA

KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD

MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1 2024-25
II PUC - PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours. Max Marks: 70
No of questions: 45
General Instructions:
1. All parts A to D are compulsory. Part-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For Part – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solutions will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following
questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1. The S.I. unit of electric charge is
(A) coulomb metre (B) coulomb per metre (C) coulomb (D) per coulomb
2. The angle between equipotential surface and electric field is
(A) 90º (B) 0º (C) 180º (D) 45º
3. Statement-I: The resistivity of metals increases with increase in temperature.
Statement-II: Increasing the temperature of metals causes more frequent collisions of electrons.
(A) both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
(B) both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true but II is false.
(D) both I and II are false.
4. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting
(A) a low resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
(B) a low resistance in series with galvanometer.
(C) a high resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
(D) a high resistance in series with galvanometer.
5. When a bar magnet is suspended freely, it points in the direction of
(A) east-west (B) north-south
(C) northeast-southeast (D) northwest-southwest
6. The energy stored in an inductor of inductance L in establishing the current I in it is
(A) 𝐿𝐼 (B) 𝐿𝐼 (C) 𝐿𝐼 (D) 𝐿𝐼

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 1

7. The direction of current induced in the loop ‘abc’ shown in the figure is
(A) along ‘abc’ if I is increasing
(B) along ‘abc’ if I is decreasing
(C) along ‘acb’ if I is increasing
(D) along ‘acb’ if I is constant
8. An ideal step-up transformer decreases _______ .
(A) current (B) voltage (C) power (D) frequency
9. The displacement current is due to
(A) flow of electrons (B) flow of protons
(C) changing electric field (D) changing magnetic field
10. An object of finite height is placed in front of a concave mirror within its focus. It forms
(A) a real enlarged image (B) a real diminished image
(C) a virtual enlarged image (D) a virtual diminished image
11. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a pair of polaroids with their
pass-axes inclined at an angle of θ. The intensity of emergent light is equal to
(A) 𝐼 cos 𝜃 (B) 𝐼 cos 𝜃 (C) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 (D) cos 𝜃

12. Emission of electrons from a metal surface by heating it is called

(A) photoelectric emission (B) thermionic emission
(C) field emission (D) secondary emission
13. When alpha particles are passed through a thin gold foil, most of them go undeviated because
(A) most of the region in an atom is empty space
(B) alpha particles are positively charged particles
(C) alpha particles are heavier particles
(D) alpha particles move with high energy
14. Nuclei with same atomic number are called
(A) isotopes (B) isobars (C) isomers (D) isotones
15.The column-I is the list of materials and the column-II, the list of energy band gaps 𝐸 .
Identify the correct match.

Column-I Column-II
(i) conductors (a) 𝐸 < 3 𝑒𝑉
(ii) insulators (b) 𝐸 = 0 𝑒𝑉
(iii) semiconductors (c) 𝐸 > 3 𝑒𝑉

(A) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c) (B) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c)
(C) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b) (D) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a)

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL
the following questions: 5×1=5
(photon, polar, zero, infinite, phase, phasor)
16. A molecule possessing permanent dipole moment is called ____________ molecule.
17. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is _______________.
18. A rotating vector used to represent alternating quantities is called __________.
19. A wavefront is a surface of constant ___________.
20. In interaction with matter, light behaves as if it is made up of packet of energy called __________.

PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. State and explain Gauss’s law in electrostatics.
22. Define drift velocity and mobility of free electrons in conductors.
23. A long air-core solenoid of 1000 turns per unit length carries a current of 2 A. Calculate the magnetic
field at the mid-point on its axis.
24. Give the principle of AC generator. Why is a current induced in an AC generator called alternating
current?
25. Write any two uses of ultraviolet radiations.
26. Name the objective used in
a) refracting type telescope and
b) reflecting type telescope.
27. Write the two conditions for the total internal reflection to occur.
28. Name the majority and the minority charge carriers in n-type semiconductor.

PART – C

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15

29. Write any three properties of electric field lines.
30. Obtain the expression for the effective capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel.
31. What is Lorentz force? Write its expression and explain the terms.
32. Write any three differences between diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials.
33. Describe an experiment to demonstrate the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction using a bar
magnet and a coil.
34. Give any three results of experimental study of photoelectric effect.
35. Write the three postulates of Bohr’s atom model.
36. Find the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit, first in joule and then in MeV.
Given: 1𝑢 = 1.6605 × 10 𝑘𝑔, 𝑒 = 1.602 × 10 𝐶 and 𝑐 = 2.9979 × 10 𝑚 𝑠 .

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 3

 PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15

37. Derive the expression for the electric field at a point on the axis of an electric dipole.
38. Two cells of different emfs and different internal resistances are connected in series. Derive the
expression for effective emf and effective internal resistance of the combination.
39. Derive the expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current loop.
40. a) Two coherent waves of a constant phase difference undergo interference. Obtain the expression for
the resultant displacement. (3)
b) Write the conditions for constructive and destructive interference in terms of phase difference. (2)
41. What is a rectifier? Explain the working of a full-wave rectifier using a neat circuit diagram.
Draw its input-output waveforms.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. a) Calculate the potential at point P due to a charge of 400nC located 9 cm away.
b) Obtain the work done in moving a charge of 2nC from infinity to the point P. Does the answer
depend on the path along which the charge is moved?
43. In the following network, find the current I3.

44. An AC source of frequency 50Hz is connected in series with an inductor of 1H, a capacitor of 90µF and
a resistor of 100Ω. Does the current leads or lags the voltage? Calculate the phase difference between
the current and the voltage.
45. An equilateral prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident
on a face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is 40º. Find the refractive index of the material
of the prism. If the prism is placed in water of refractive index 1.33, find the new angle of minimum
deviation of a parallel beam of light.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 4

 PART – E
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
7) A circular conducting loop is placed in the plane of the paper to the right of a long straight
conductor carrying current I in the upward direction. The direction of current induced in the
loop is
(A) clockwise if I is increasing (B) clockwise if I is decreasing
(C) anti clockwise if I is increasing (D) anti clockwise if I is constant
43) In a Wheatstone bridge, AB = 10Ω , BC = 10Ω , CD = 5Ω and DA = 20Ω are connected in cyclic
order. A galvanometer of 2Ω is connected between B and D. A current of 1A enters at A and leaves the
network at C. Find the current through the galvanometer.

*****

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-2 2024-25
II PUC - PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours. Max Marks: 70
No of questions: 45
General Instructions:
1. All parts (A TO D) are compulsory. PART-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For Part – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solutions will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following
questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1
1. ‘The total electric flux through a closed surface in air is equal to times the total charge
0
enclosed by that surface’. This is the statement of
(A) Coulomb’s law in electrostatics (B) Gauss’s law in magnetism
(C) Gauss’s law in electrostatics (D) Ampere’s circuital law
2. The electric potential due to a negative point charge at a distance ‘r’ is
1 1
(A) positive and it varies as (B) positive and it varies as
r2 r
1 1
(C) negative and it varies as 2 (D) negative and it varies as
r r
3. Identify the WRONG statement from the following
(A) The drift speed acquired by free electrons per unit electric field is called mobility.
(B) The conductivity of semiconductors decreases with increase in temperature.
(C) The conductivity of conductors decreases with increase in temperature.
(D) Alloys are widely used in the construction of standard resistors.
4. The physical quantities related to magnetism are listed in column I and the dimensions are listed in
column II. Identify the correct match
Column I Column II
(i) Magnetic field (a) [MLT-2A-2]
(ii) Magnetic permeability (b) [L2 A]
(iii) Magnetic moment (c) [M T-2A-1]

(A) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a) (B) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a)
(C) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c) (D) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b)

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 1

5. The ferromagnetic material among the following is
(A) copper (B) nickel (C) lead (D) calcium
6. The following are the statements related to self-inductance:
(i) The self-inductance of a coil depends on its geometry and on the permeability of the medium
inside it.
(ii) The self-inductance is a measure of electrical inertia and opposes the change in current in the
coil.
(A) Both the statements are wrong (B) Only statement (i) is correct
(C) Both the statements are correct (D) Only statement (ii) is correct
7. In a transformer, NP and NS are the number of turns present in its primary and secondary coils
respectively. The transformer is said to be a step-up transformer if
(A) NP < NS (B) NP > NS (C) NP = NS (D) NP >> NS
8. The expression for displacement current id is
dE dE dE dE
(A) id =  02 (B) id = 0  0 (C) id = 0 (D) id =  0
dt dt dt dt
9. Identify the statement which is true for a compound microscope from the following.
(A) Its objective is a convex lens of greater aperture.
(B) Its eyepiece is a convex lens of smaller aperture.
(C) The image formed by its objective is real and inverted.
(D) Its eyepiece produces the final image, which is virtual and diminished.
10. Diffraction effect is exhibited by ________ .
(A) only sound waves (B) only light waves
(C) only matter waves (D) all types of waves
11. In photoelectric effect experiment if only the frequency of incident radiation is increased, then
(A) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases. (B) the stopping potential increases.
(C) the photoelectric current increases. (D) the photoelectric current decreases.
12. The impact parameter is minimum in alpha (α) - scattering experiment for the scattering angle of
(A) 1800 (B) 00 (C) 1200 (D) 900
13. The standing wave pattern of matter waves associated with an electron revolving in a stable orbit
is shown in the diagram. The principal quantum number (n) and radius (rn) of
the orbit are respectively
4 4
(A) 8 and (B) 4 and
 
2 2
(C) 8 and (D) 4 and
 
14. The radioactive decay in which very high energy photons are emitted is called __________.
(A) gamma decay (B) alpha decay (C) negative β decay (D) positive β decay
15. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(A) raises the potential barrier. (B) reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(C) lowers the potential barrier. (D) raises the width of depletion region.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL
the following questions: 5×1=5

(zero, paramagnetic, transverse, ac generator, one, diamagnetic)

16. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for ____________ materials.
17. The device which works on the principle of electromagnetic induction is _______________.
18. The power factor of an AC circuit containing pure resistor is __________.
19. The light waves are __________ in nature.
20. The charge of a photon is __________.
PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. ‘The charges are additive in nature’. Explain.
22. What is an equipotential surface? What will be the shape of equipotential surfaces corresponding to a
single point charge?
23. Give any two differences between current and current density.
24. A moving coil galvanometer gives a deflection of 10 divisions when 200 µA of current is passed
through it. Find the current sensitivity of the galvanometer.
25. State Faraday’s law and Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction.
26. Name the electromagnetic waves used for the following applications.
a) The radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
b) The remote switches of household electronic systems such as TV.
27. How is total energy of an electron revolving in an orbit of hydrogen atom related to the principal
quantum number of the orbit? What is the significance of the negative sign in the expression for total
energy of electron in a hydrogen atom?
28. What are intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors?
PART – C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15
29. What is an electric dipole? Define electric dipole moment. Give its direction.
30. What is a capacitor? Mention any two factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
depends.
31. Derive an expression for angular frequency of revolution for a charged particle moving perpendicular to
a uniform magnetic field.
32. Mention any three properties of magnetic field lines.
33. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long is falling with a speed of 5.0 m s–1, at right angles to a magnetic
field, 0.30 × 10–4 Wbm–2. Find the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 3

34. Derive the relation between radius of curvature and focal length in case of a concave mirror.
35. Give Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric effect and write Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
36. Define ‘binding energy’ and ‘mass defect’. Write the relation between them.
PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15
37. a) Obtain an expression for potential energy of an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field. (3)
b) Define energy density of a charged capacitor. How is the energy density related to electric field
present between the plates of capacitor? (2)
38. Derive an expression for effective emf and effective internal resistance of two cells of different emfs
and internal resistances connected in parallel.
39. Derive an expression for force per unit length on two infinitely long thin parallel straight conductors
carrying currents and hence define ‘ampere’.
40. a) What is a wavefront? (1)
b) Explain the refraction of a parallel plane wave through a thin prism with a neat diagram. (2)
b) Give any two differences between constructive and destructive interferences of light. (2)
41. What is a half-wave rectifier? Explain the working of a half-wave rectifier using neat circuit diagram.
Also draw input-output waveforms corresponding to it.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. Two point charges of +4 nC and +8 nC are placed at the points A and B respectively separated by a
distance 0.2 m in air. Find the magnitude of the resultant electric field at the midpoint ‘O’ of the line
joining A and B. What will be the magnitude of resultant electric field at ‘O’ if +4 nC is replaced by
another +8 nC charge?
43. Find the currents I1 and I2 in the given electrical network.

44. A series LCR circuit contains a pure inductor of inductance 5 H, a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF and
resistor of resistance 40 Ω. If the AC source of 200 V, 50 Hz is present in the circuit, find the
impedance. Also find the resonant frequency of the circuit.
45. An object is placed at a distance 0.3 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.2 m. Find the position and
nature of the image formed. Also find the distance through which the object should be moved to get an
image of linear magnification ‘-1’.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 4

 PART – E
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
13) The standing wave pattern of matter waves associated with an electron revolving in a stable
orbit is containing 4 complete waves. The principal quantum number (n) and radius (rn) of the
orbit are respectively
4 4 2 2
(A) 8 and (B) 4 and (C) 8 and (D) 4 and
   
43) The positive terminals of two cells of emfs 4 V and 2 V with internal resistances 2 Ω and 1 Ω are
connected by a uniform wire of resistance 12 Ω. Their negative terminals are connected by a second
uniform wire of resistance 8 Ω. The mid points of these two wires are connected by a third uniform
wire of resistance 10 Ω. Find the current through 4 V cell.
&&&&

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 3 2024 – 25
II PUC – PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 70 No. of questions : 45
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All PARTS (A to D) are compulsory. PART-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For PART – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solution will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1. The SI unit of surface charge density is __________ .
(A) C m–1 (B) C m–2 (C) C m–3 (D) kg m–3
2. The values of electric field (E) and electric potential (V) at any point on the equatorial plane of an electric
dipole are such that
(A) E = 0, V = 0 (B) E = 0, V ≠ 0 (C) E ≠ 0, V = 0 (D) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
3. If the potential difference across a capacitor is doubled, then the energy stored in it
(A) is doubled (B) is quadrupled (C) is halved (D) remains same
4. A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in the figure. A steady current I flows through
it. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The drift speed of electron is constant.
(B) The drift speed of electron increases while moving from A to B.
(C) The drift speed of electron decreases while moving from A to B.
(D) The drift speed of electron varies randomly.

5. A charged particle of charge q is moving in a uniform magnetic field. The angle between the velocity(v)
of the charged particle and magnetic field(B) is . The trajectory of the charged particle varies with
angle . Match the following table by choosing the appropriate trajectory traced by the charged particle
for different possible values of angle .
Angle Trajectory
(i)  = 0o
(a) circle
(ii)  = 45o (b) straight line
(iii)  = 90o (c) helix

(A) (i) – (a) , (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c) (B) (i) – (b) , (ii) – (c), (iii) – (a)
(C) (i) – (b) , (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c) (D) (i) – (c) , (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a)

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 1

6. Below are the two statements related to magnetic flux and magnetic field lines.
Statement-I : The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.
Statement-II: The number of magnetic field lines leaving the surface is balanced by the number of lines
entering it.
(A) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation for I.
(B) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is not the correct explanation for I.
(C) Statement I is wrong but the statement II is correct.
(D) Statement I is correct but the statement II is wrong.
7. The polarity of induced emf in a coil is given by _________
(A) Lenz’s law (B) Faraday’s law (C) Gauss’s law in magnetism (D) Ampere’s circuital law
8. In a transformer, the windings of the primary and secondary coils are wound one over the other to
reduce the energy loss due to _________
(A) flux leakage (B) resistance of the windings (C) eddy currents (D) hysteresis
9. The electromagnetic waves suitable for RADAR systems used in aircraft navigation are
(A) Gamma rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) Microwaves (D) Infrared waves
10. A ray of light is incident on glass-air interface at an angle greater than the critical angle for the pair
of media. Then the ray undergoes
(A) refraction only (B) partial reflection and partial refraction
(C) total internal reflection (D) grazes the surface at the interface of the two media.
11. To observe sustained interference pattern on a screen placed at a suitable distance in Young’s double
slit experiment, which of the following condition/s is/are necessary?
(a) Sources of light should be coherent.
(b) Sources of light should be narrow.
(c) Sources of light should be very close.
(A) only (a) (B) both (a) and (b) (C) both (b) and (c) (D) all (a), (b) and (c)
12. The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is independent of __________ of the particle.
(A) charge (B) mass (C) speed (D) momentum
13. For an electron revolving around the nucleus,
(A) kinetic energy and potential energy are positive, total energy is negative.
(B) kinetic energy is positive, potential energy and total energy are negative.
(C) potential energy is negative, kinetic energy and total energy are positive.
(D) kinetic energy and potential energy are negative, total energy is positive.
27 64
14. The ratio of nuclear densities of 13 Al is and 29 Cu
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 13 : 29 (D) 27 : 64
15. The energy band gap in conductor, insulator and semiconductor are respectively E1 , E2 and E3.
The relation between them is
(A) E1 = E2 = E3 (B) E1 < E2 < E3 (C) E1 > E2 > E3 (D) E1 < E3 < E2
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL of the
following questions: 5×1=5
(mutual induction, inductance, diffraction, magnification, quantisation, interference)
16. One of the basic properties of electric charge is ______________.
17. The ratio of the magnetic flux-linkage to the current in a coil is called ______________.
18. The principle of working of a transformer is ______________.
19. A microscope is used to produce large _____________ of small objects.
20. The phenomenon of bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is called ____________.

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 2

 PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. Name the two factors on which the resistance of a metallic wire depends.
22. When does a current carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field experience
(i) maximum force and (ii) minimum force?
23. Define “magnetisation of a sample”. How is it related to magnetic intensity?
24. A boy peddles a stationary bicycle. The pedals of the bicycle are attached to a coil of 100 turns, each turn of
area 0.20 m2. The coil rotates at 6 rotations per second and it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. Calculate the maximum value of emf generated in the coil.
25. What is displacement current? Give the expression for it.
26. Mention two uses of polaroids.
27. Write two limitations of Bohr’s atom model.
28. How can a semiconductor diode be forward biased? What happens to the width of the depletion region when
forward bias voltage is increased?
PART – C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15
29. Derive the expression for the torque on an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field.
30. Give three results of electrostatics of conductors.
31. State and explain Biot-Savart’s law with a suitable diagram.
32. Write the three differences between diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.
33. Derive the expression for motional emf induced in a straight conductor moving perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field.
34. A small candle is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
What is the nature of the image?
35. Using Huygen’s principle, show that the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence when a plane
wavefront is reflected by a plane surface.
36. Write the three features of nuclear force.
PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15
37. State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Derive an expression for the electric field at a point due to an infinitely
long thin uniformly charged straight wire using Gauss's law.
38. Arrive at the balance condition of Wheatstone bridge using Kirchhoff’s rules.
39. What is the principle behind the working of a moving coil galvanometer? With the help of a neat labelled
diagram, obtain the expression for the angular deflection produced in moving coil galvanometer.
40. Derive the expression for refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of angle of minimum deviation
and angle of the prism.
41. (a) Write three differences between intrinsic semiconductor and extrinsic semiconductor. (3)
(b) Draw the energy band diagrams of (i) n-type and (ii) p-type semiconductors at temperature T > 0 K (2)

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 3

VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. Three capacitors of capacitances 2F, 3F, 6F are connected in series.
(a) Determine the effective capacitance of the combination.
(b) Find the potential difference across 6F capacitor if the combination is connected to a 60 V supply.
43. For copper, the number density of free electrons is 8.5  1028 m–3 and resistivity is 1.7  10–8 Ω m.
Calculate the conductivity of copper and relaxation time of free electrons in copper.
Take the mass of electron = 9.1 10–31 kg and e = 1.6  10–19 C.
44. A resistor of 50 Ω, a pure inductor of 250mH and a capacitor are in series in a circuit containing an AC
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. In the circuit, current leads the voltage by 60o. Find the capacitance of the capacitor.
45. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential for the
photoelectrons emitted is found to be 0.96 V. When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on the same
photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is found to be 0.34 V. Calculate the Planck’s constant.
Given: speed of light in vacuum is 3  108 m s–1 and e = 1.6  10–19 C.

PART – E
(FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY)

4. A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area in which end A of the wire has smaller
area than that of end B. A steady current I flows through it. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(A) The drift speed of electron is constant.
(B) The drift speed of electron increases while moving from A to B.
(C) The drift speed of electron decreases while moving from A to B.
(D) The drift speed of electron varies randomly.

***********

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 4

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 1
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of question
paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. The role of CO2 in Kolbe’s reaction is
a) acts as catalyst b) act as nucleophile
c) act as weak electrophile d) act as strong electrophile.
2. In DNA, the linkage between different nitrogenous bases is
a) phosphate linkage b) glycosidic linkage
c) peptide linkage d) hydrogen bonding.
3. The complex PtCl2.4NH3Br2 is treated with excess of AgNO3 solution, two mole of AgBr is
precipitated. The primary and secondary valence of this complex is
a) 6 and 1 b) 6 and 2
c) 4 and 6 d) 3 and 6
4. Statement I: Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other.
Statement II: A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
5. The most stable manganese compound is
a) Mn2O7 b) MnF4 c) MnO2 d) MnSO4

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 6. Among the following alkyl benzenes which one will not give the benzoic acid on oxidation with
acidic KMnO4 solution.

a) b)

c) d)

7. An ambidentate ligand is
a) Cl– b) CN–
c) OH– c) NO +2
8. The Eo of Fe2+/Fe, Zn2+/Zn and Sn2+/Sn are –0.44 V, –0.76 V and –0.14 V respectively. Which
metal/s is/are act as sacrificial electrode to protect iron from rusting?
a) Both Zn and Sn b) Zn only
c) Sn Only d) neither Zn nor Sn.
9. The chemical name of phosgene is
a) chromyl chloride b) triphenylphosphine
c) phosphorusoxychloride d) carbonyl chloride.
10. In a solution containing non-volatile solute, the mole fraction of solvent is 0.9. The relative lowering
of vapour pressure is
a) 1 b) 0.1
c) 0.9 d) 1.1
11. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by
a) zero order kinetics b) half order kinetics
c) first order kinetics d) second order kinetics
12. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Glucocorticoids i) Responsible for development of secondary female characteristics.
B) Mineralocorticoids ii) Responsible for preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilised egg
C) Testosterone iii) Control carbohydrates metabolism
D) Estradiol iv) Responsible for development of secondary male characteristics.
v) Control level of excretion of water and salt by kidney.
a) A-(iv), B- (v), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
13. p-Aminoazobenzene is prepared from benzenediazonium chloride and aniline in
a) acidic medium b) basic medium
c) neutral medium d) both acidic and basic medium.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 14. The chemicals used to convert commercial alcohol into denatured alcohol are
a) CuSO4 and Pyrolidine b) Cu2S and Pyrolidine
c) CuSO4 and Pyridine d) Cu2S and Pyridine.
15. During osmosis, the solvent molecules are moving from
a) Hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution
c) Higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
d) Higher osmotic pressure solution to lower osmotic pressure solution.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(aldehydes, phenol, fluorobenzene, decreases, greater, benzene) 5×1= 05
16. The melting point of interstitial compound is ________ than the pure metal.
17. Benzenediazonium fluoroborate on heating decomposes to give_________
18. The simplest hydroxy derivative of benzene is _________
19. When a non-volatile solute is added to the pure solvent, the freezing point of solvent______
20. Ozonolysis of alkenes followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives ____
PART-B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Explain Swartz reaction with an example.
22. Write the reactions show that glucose contains a) five hydroxyl groups b) aldehyde group.
23. Define half-life period of a reaction. Write the relationship between half-life period and initial
concentration of zero order reaction.
24. Write the reactions involved in preparation of phenol from cumene.
25. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions in the reaction:
2I− + S2O82− ⎯⎯
→ I2 + 2SO42− .
Explain the catalytic action of catalyst iron (III) by using chemical reactions.
PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. Study of actinoids elements is more difficult? Give any three reasons.
27. For the complex, Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
a) What is coordination number of Co.
b) Identify the ligand present in this complex.
c) Does ionization isomer for the following compound exist?
28. A student of 2nd PU performs two trails of reactions between KI and KMnO4. In first trail student
add small amount of acid to reaction mixture and in second trail student forgot to add acid to reaction
mixture. Then student observed that different colour was obtained in first and second trail. Give
reason for above observation. Write the possible chemical reactions to both the trails.
29. Define Crystal field splitting. Sketch the energy level diagram for the crystal field splitting of d-
orbital in a tetrahedral complex.
30. What is the significance of synergic effect in metal carbonyls? How many bridged and non-bridged
CO (carbonyl) ligands are present in octacarbonyldicobalt (0) complex compound?

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. Direct measurement of conductivity of ionic solutions by Wheatstone bridge is not possible. Give
reasons. Suggest a remedy to resolve it.
32. For the reaction R(s) → P(g), the potential energy diagram is given below:

60

PE (KJ)
R
20

P
5

Time
By observing the above diagram, answer the following.
a) What is the value of activation energy of the reaction?
b) What is the value of ΔH of the reaction?
c) Draw potential energy diagram for the reaction P(g) → R(s).
33. State Faraday’s II law of electrolysis. Mention any two factors which determines the product of
electrolysis.
34. Name the two components present in binary solution. Which component determines the physical
state of binary solution?
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) How do you distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines by using Hinsberg’s
reagent with chemical equations involved?
b) Give the preparation of p-hydroxyazobenzene. (3+2)
36. a) Between methanal and ethanal, which would undergo aldol condensation? Write the
chemical reaction involved in it.
b) Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion,
carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why? (3+2)
37. a) What is peptide bond? Give an example for dipeptide.
b) What are oxidoreductase enzymes? Name the enzyme that catalyses hydrolysis of
maltose into glucose
c) Give any one main natural source of Vitamin K? (2+2+1)
38. a) Complete the following equation:
H CH3
i) HBr

H H

Na
ii) dry ether
Cl

iii) i.NaOH, 623K, 300 atm

+
ii. H

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 b) Explain Saytzeff rule with an example. (3+2)
39. a) Give the chemical equation for the Conversion of propanenitriles into corresponding ketones by
using phenyl magnesium bromide. Write the IUPAC name of the product.
b) Explain Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction with an example. (3+2)
40. a) Write the reaction involved in the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohol
to alkene.
b) Explain the preparation of anisole by Williamson synthesis. (3+2)
PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of half-life
(t1/2) of the reaction.
42. A 5% solution (w/w) of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in water has freezing point of 271 K. calculate the
freezing point depression constant. Given freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
43. The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L–1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol–1. Calculate its degree
of dissociation. Given  o(H+ ) = 349.6 S cm 2 mol −1 and  o(HCOO− ) = 54.6 S cm 2 mol−1 .

44. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg.
Calculate the mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
45. Two electrolytic cells A and B containing solutions of AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are
connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver
is deposited at the cathode of cell A. How long did the current flow and What mass of copper was
deposited? [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 and silver = 108].
(1.28  103 )K
46. The rate constant of a reaction is given by: log k = 13.25 − . Calculate the activation
T
energy and pre-exponential factor (A).

PART – F
(For visually challenged students only)
32. Give any three factors which affect a rate of reaction. 3

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page5

 `GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 2
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hrs No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 × 1 = 15
1. Square planar complex of the type [MABXL] (where A, B, X, L are unidentate) shows
a) Two Cis and one Trans b) Two cis and Two trans
c) One Cis and two Trans d) one Cis and One Trans
2. Order of a reaction in which unit of rate of reaction and rate constant are same
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1/2 d) 2
3. Statement I: Tertiary alcohols heated with copper at 573 K yields 2-methyl propene.
Statement II: Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration when heated with Cu /573K.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is in correct and statement II is correct.
4. The tanks used by most of scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium of around
a) 88.3% b) 56.2%
c) 32.1% d) 11.7%
5. 1,2-dichloroethane is an example of
a) alkylene dihalides b) alkylidene halides
c) vinyl dihalides d) gem-dihalides.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 6. A galvanic cell has electrical potential of 1.1 V. If an opposing potential of 1.1V is applied to this cell,
what will happen to the cell reaction and current flowing through the cell?
a) The reaction stops and no current flows through the cell.
b) The reaction continuous but current flows in opposite direction.
c) The concentration of reactants becomes unity and current flows from cathode to anode.
d) The cell does not function as a galvanic cell and zinc is deposited on zinc plate
7. As the size of the aldehyde molecule increases, the odour becomes
a) more pungent b) more fragrant
c) less fragrant d) no change in the odour.
8. Sulphur containing amino acid is;
a) cysteine b) tyrosine
c) histidine d) proline
9. The C-O- bond angles of P, Q and R are found to be 111.7o, 109o, 108.9o respectively, compound P, Q
and R are
a) P = Phenol, Q = Methanol, R = Methoxy Methane.
b) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Methanol, R = Phenol.
c) P = Methanol, Q = Phenol, R = Methoxy Methane.
d) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Phenol, R = Methanol.
10. Compounds A and B react according to the following chemical equation 2A(g) + B(g) ⎯⎯
→ 2C(g)
concentration of either A or B were changed by keeping the concentrations of one of the reactants
constant and the rates were measured as a function of initial concentration. Following results were
obtained. Choose the correct option for the rate equation for this reaction.
Experiment Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration
trial [A] mol L-1 [B] mol L-1 of [C] mol L-1
1 0.40 0.40 0.10
2 0.40 0.80 0.40
3 0.80 0.40 0.20
a) Rate = k [A]2[B] b) Rate = k [A] [B] 2
c) Rate = k [A][B] d) Rate = k [A]2
11. The reagent useful for separation and purification of aldehydes is
a) silver nitrate solution b) sodium hydrogensulphite
c) Fehling’s solution d) sodium sulphate.
12. Match the following given in column I with Column II
Column -I Column - II
i) Chloramphenicol A) Malaria
ii) Chloroquine B) Anaesthetic
iii) Halothane C) Typhoid fever
iv) Thyroxine D) Goiter
a) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv -A b) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv -D
c) i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv -A d) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv -D

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 13. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

14. The magnitude of CFSE (crystal field splitting complex, ∆0) can be related to the configuration of d-
orbitals in a coordination entity is
a) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t32ge1g b) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t32ge1g
c) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t22ge2g d) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t42ge0g

15. The correct order of melting point is.

a) Cr > Mn > Fe b) Fe >Mn>Cr
c) Cr > Fe >Mn d) Mn> Fe >Cr
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(glycogen, starch, catalyst, cobalt, methanol, HNO2) 5 × 1 = 05
16. Storage polysaccharide present in animals is _____________
17. Vitamin B12 is a coordination compound of ___________metal
18. Primary aliphatic amines convert into aliphatic alcohols on reacting with ______________ solution.
19. The chemical name of wood spirit is ___________
20. Change in standard Gibbs free energy (∆G0) of a reaction is does not altered by the addition of ___.
PART-B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Draw a graph to show variation of vapour pressure of solvent and solution with respect to
temperature.
22. Explain the preparation of methoxyethane by Willamson’s synthesis. Give equation.
23. What are heteroleptic complexes? What is the co-ordination number in complex [Co(ox)2Cl2]+.
24. Chlorobenzene cannot be prepared by reacting phenol with SOCl2. Give reasons.
25. What are hormones? Name a hormone that mediate responses to external stimuli.
PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. When a chromite ore ‘A’ is fused with sodium carbonate in free excess of air and the product is
dissolved in water, a yellow solution of compound ‘B’ is obtained. After treatment of this yellow
solution with sulphuric acid compound ‘C’ can be crystallize from the solution. When compound ‘C’
is treated with KCl orange crystals of compound ‘D’ is crystallizes out. Write all the reactions
involved in the conversion of ‘A’ to ‘D’.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 27. Write the IUPAC name of [CoCl2(en)2]+1. Draw the geometrical isomers for this complex.
28. Fluorine has ability to stabilize most of transition metal in higher oxidation states. Give two reasons
with an example.
29. Write any three limitations of Valence bond Theory (VBT) of coordination compounds.
30. What is lanthanoid contraction? Name two elements of actinoids which exhibits +7 oxidation state in
their compounds.
V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. What is the effect of temperature on the rate constant of reaction? How can this temperature effect on
rate constant be represented quantitatively?
32. Plot a graph of molar conductivity v/s √c for strong and weak electrolytes in solution. For strong
electrolytes, write the equation that represent the variation of molar conductivity with dilution.
33. Write three reasons to justify that osmotic pressure method has the advantage over other colligative
methods for the measurement of molar mass of proteins and polymers.
34. During working of Leclanche cell, Write the anodic and cathodic reaction. What is the role of produced
ammonia during cell reaction?
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) Give any two differences between amylose and amylopectin.
b) Name any two main forces which stabilize the secondary and tertiary structures of
proteins.
c) Which vitamin deficiency causes the increased fragility of RBC’s and muscular
weakness. (2+2+1)
36. a) Write the mechanism for the addition of HCN to carbonyl compound in the presence of base.
b) Aromatic carboxylic acid does not undergo Friedel crafts reaction. Give reasons. (3+2)
37. a) Explain Hoffmann broamamide degradation reaction by taking butanamide as an example. Give
the IUPAC name of the product.
b) pKb of aniline is more than that of methanamine. Give reasons. (3+2)
38. a) How do you prepare phthalimide from aromatic dicarboxylic acid? Give equation.
b) Complete the following reaction:
CHO
Hot conc. NaOH
A+ B
(3+2)
+
39. a) An alkene X (C3H6) reacts with H2O/H to give compound Y, compound Y further undergo reaction
with CrO3-H2SO4 to produce compound Z. Write the IUPAC name of compounds X, Y and Z.
b) Which among the following compounds have lowest and highest pKa value? (3+2)
p-nitrophenol, phenol, ethanol and o-cresol.
40. a) Write any three differences between SN1 and SN2 reaction mechanisms.
b) Identify A and B in the given reaction
NH2 Br

NaNO 2 + HCl B
A
0-5oC
(3+2)

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Calculate the mass of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 78 g of acetic acid to
lower its melting point by 1.5°C. Given: Kf of acetic acid is 3.9 K kg mol-1.
42. Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid
components are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. Calculate the vapour pressure of a solution
containing of 26.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane.
43. The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L–1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and length
50 cm is 5.55 × 103 ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.
44. Calculate the Gibbs free energy change and equilibrium constant for the cell reaction
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I− ⎯⎯
→ 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 . Given E o(Fe3+ /Fe2+ ) = 0.77 V and Eo 1 −
= 0.54 V .
 I2 /I 
2 

45. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the
energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
46. A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.
(i) Write the differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of ‘B’ three times and decreasing the
concentration of ‘A’ by two times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are tripled?

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 3
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 1 × 15 = 15
1. The concentration term depends on temperature is
a) ppm b) mole fraction c) molality d) molarity
2. Identify the correct sequence of number of unpaired electrons of the following ions.
a) Ti+3> Cr3+> Fe3+> Ni2+ b) Fe3+> Ni2+> Ti+3> Cr3+
c) Fe3+ > Cr3+> Ni2+ > Ti+3 d) Fe3+ > Cr3+>Ti+3> Ni2+
3. Four haloalkane compounds represented by the letters M, N, O and P having boiling point are 24.2°C,
38°C, 3.56°C and 101.6°C respectively. Among the four compounds N most likely to be
a) CH3Cl b) CH3Br c) C2H5Br d) C3H7I
4. Glycine is an optically inactive α-amino acid due to
a) presence of asymmetric carbon atom b) absence of asymmetric carbon atom
c) α-carbon attached to 4 different groups d) its acidic nature.
5. Statement I: Cu displaces H2 gas from dilute acids.
Statement II: Cu2+ ions get reduced more easily than H+ ions
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
th
1
6. The radioactive substance reduced to of initial concentration in 20 min, then time taken to reduce to
4
th
1
of the initial concentration is
16
a) 60 min b) 120 min c) 40 min d) 15 min

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 7. The product/s formed when phenol is treated with excess of bromine water is/are
(i) o-bromophenol (ii) p- bromophenol (iii) picric acid (iv) 2,4,6- tribromophenol
a) only (iii) b) only (iv) c) both (i) and (ii) d) only (ii)
8. Which of the following observation is shown by 2–methylpropan-2-ol with Lucas reagent?
a) Turbidity will be observed after five minutes.
b) No turbidity will be observed at room temperature.
c) Turbidity will be observed immediately.
d) Turbidity will be observed at room temperature but will disappear after five minutes.
9. The transition metal present in red pigment of blood haemoglobin is
a) cobalt b) nickel c) iron d) copper.
10. The geometry of the complex Fe(CO)5 is
a) octahedral b) tetrahedral c) trigonal bipyramidal d) square pyramidal
11. Match the following given in List I with List II
List-I List-II
A) Gatterman-Koch reaction i) SnCl2, HCl/ H3O+
B) Stephen reaction ii) CrO2Cl2/ H3O+
C) Rosenmund reaction iii) CO, HCl/Anhyd.AlCl3
D) Etard reaction iv) H2/ Pd-BaSO4
a) A-(iv), B- (iii), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
12. An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces
Tollens’ reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-
benzenedicarboxylic acid. The organic compound is
a) 3-ethyl benzaldehyde b) 2-ethyl benzaldehyde
c) 4-ethyl benzaldehyde d) 2, 3-dimethyl benzaldehyde.
13. The following factor which does not affect the rate of reaction is
a) molecularity b) temperature
c) catalyst d) concentration of reactant
14. The correct order of basic strength in case of ethyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is
a) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2> NH3
b) (C2H5)3N> (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2> NH3
c) (C2H5)3N> C2H5NH2> (C2H5)2NH > NH3
d) NH3> (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
15. N-Ethylbenzenesulponamide soluble in alkali because
a) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is not acidic.
b) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is strongly acidic.
c) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is not acidic.
d) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is acidic.

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(SN2, instantaneous, phosphodiester, CHCl3, glycosidic, Yb2+,) 5 × 1 = 05
16. During Surgery, ____________ was used as anesthesia
17. The rate at a particular moment of time is expressed as ___________ rate of reaction.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 18. The diamagnetic lanthanoid ion is .
19. Williamson’s synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether involves ______ reaction for the attack of a
methoxide ion on methyl chloride.
20. Nucleotides are joined together by ________ linkage between 5 and 3 carbon atoms of pentose sugar.
PART–B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Name an important alloy, which contains maximum percentage of the lanthanoid metals. Mention one
of its use.
22. Explain Fittig’s reaction.
23. Write the expression to relate cryoscopic constant and change in enthalpy of fusion. Explain the terms involved
in it.
24. Give an example for female sex hormone and write its function.
25. Complete the following reaction and name the reaction.
OH

i. CHCl3, NaOH
A
ii. H+

PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. Using abbreviations of following ligands, identify the number of donor sites and write the formula of
each ligand. a) en b) EDTA c) PPh3
27. Write the equations for the preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore, what is the
colour of KMnO4 crystals?
28. Using Valence Bond Theory [VBT], explain geometry, hybridisation and magnetic property of [CoF6]3–
ion. [Atomic number of Cobalt is 27].
29. Give any three applications of coordination compounds.
30. Transition elements have higher enthalpy of atomization. Give two reasons. Among 3d and 4d series
of transition elements, which series has higher enthalpy of atomization?
V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. What does P and ZAB represent in the equation: Rate = PZABe− Ea /RT ? Name a factor on which Z depends.
32. Name the fuel cell used in Apollo space programme and write its anodic and cathodic reaction.
33. Give any three differences between ideal and non -ideal solutions.
34. Mention any three thermodynamic properties determined by using electrochemical cells.
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) Write the reactions involved in the conversion of toluene to m-nitrobenzoic acid.
b) The pKa values of acetic acid, benzoic acid and trifluoroacetic acid are 4.76, 4.19 and 0.23
respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order of acid strength. Justify the arrangement. (3+2)
36. a) Write the mechanism involved in the conversion of 2-bromo-2-methylpropane to
2-methylpropan-2-ol.
b)What are enantiomers? Name one physical property which differs enantiomers. (3+2)
37. a) Give the mechanism involved in the acid catalyzed hydration of C2H4 to C2H5OH. (3+2)
b) Name the enzyme involved in fermentation of glucose into ethanol and write its chemical equation.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 38. a) What does tertiary structure of proteins represent? Give its two major molecular shapes.
b) Write the Haworth structure of α – D – (+)- Glucopyranose. (3+2)
39. a) Identify the product A, B and C.
OH–/partial hydrolysis NaOH + Br2 NaNO2
CN A B C
H2O

b) Name any one biologically active amino compound used in the following:
(i) to increase blood pressure (containing secondary amino group)
(ii) as an anaesthetic in dentistry (a synthetic amino compound) (3+2)
40. An organic compound (X) with molecular formula C8H8O forms an orange-red precipitate with 2,4-
DNP reagent and gives yellow precipitate on heating with iodine in the presence of sodium
hydroxide. It neither reduces Tollens reagent nor does it decolourise bromine water. On oxidation
with chromic acid, ‘X’ gives a carboxylic acid (Y) having molecular formula C7H6O2. Identify the
compounds (X) and (Y) and write all the reactions involved. 5

PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Calculate the molality of 20%(w/v) aqueous solution of KI. Given density of aqueous solution of
KI = 1.2gcm–3. Molar mass of KI = 166gmol-1.
42. Vapour pressure of water at 293K is 17.535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 293K
when 25 g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water.
43. Calculate the emf of the following cell and state whether the cell is feasible or not?
Pt (s)| Br– (0.01M) | Br2 (l) || H+(0.03M) | H2 (g) (1bar) | Pt(s) Eo(½Br2|Br–) = 1.09V.
44. Calculate the limiting molar conductivity of Cl– by using the data Ʌo for
CaCl2 = 271.6 S cm2 mol–1 and λ0 for Ca2+ = 119.0 S cm2 mol–1.
45. The rate constant for a reaction is 60 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concentration of the reactant to its 1/16thvalue?
46. In the given reaction A→B, the rate constant k is 2.0 x 10–2 lit mol-1s-1, find initial rate of reaction
when [A] = 0.5 M at 298K.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
WEIGHTAGE FRAMEWORK FOR MQP 1: II PUC MATHEMATICS(35):2024-25
Chapter

Number PART PART PART

of PART A B C D
CONTENT PART E Total
Teaching 1 mark 2 3 5
hours mark mark mark
6 4
MCQ FB
mark mark
RELATIONS AND 9 9
1 FUNCTIONS 1 1 1

INVERSE
2 TRIGONOMETRIC 1 1 1
FUNCTIONS 6 6

MATRICES 9 9
3 1 1 1
DETERMINANTS 12 12
4 1 1 1 1
CONTINUITY AND 20 17
5 DIFFERENTIABILITY 2 1 1 1 1 1
APPLICATION OF 10 8
6 2 1 1 1
DERIVATIVES
INTEGRALS 22 18
7 2 1 1 1 1
APPLICATION OF 5 5
8 INTEGRALS 1
DIFFERENTIAL 10 8
9 1 1 1
EQUATIONS
VECTOR ALGEBRA 11 8
10 2 1 1 1
THREE D 8 6
11 1 1 1
GEOMETRY
LINEAR 7 6
12 ROGRAMMING 1
PROBABILITY 11 8
13 2 1 1 1

TOTAL 140 120

15 5 9 9 7 2 2
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
Model Question Paper -1
II P.U.C : MATHEMATICS (35): 2024-25
Time : 3 hours Max. Marks : 80

Instructions :

1) The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the
parts.

2) PART A has 15 MCQ’s ,5 Fill in the blanks of 1 mark each.

3) Use the graph sheet for question on linear programming in PART E.

4) For questions having figure/graph, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in separate section for visually challenged students.

PART A

I. Answer ALL the Multiple Choice Questions 151 = 15

1. Let the relation R in the set A = { x ∈ Z: 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}, given by

R={(a, b):|a-b| is multiple of 4}, then [3], the equivalence class containing 3 is
A) {1,5,9} B) 𝜙 C)A D) {3, 7,11}
2. If cot −1 𝑥= y, then
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(A) 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 𝜋 (B) 0 < 𝑦 < 𝜋 (C) − 2 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ (D ) - 2 < 𝑦 < 2 .
2

3. If 𝐴 = [𝑎𝑖𝑗 ] is a symmetric matrix of order 𝑚 × 𝑛 then

(A) m=n and 𝑎𝑖𝑗 =0 for i=j B) m=n and 𝑎𝑖𝑗 =𝑎𝑗𝑖 for all i,j
(C) 𝑎𝑖𝑗 =𝑎𝑗𝑖 for all i,j D) m=n and 𝑎𝑖𝑗 =−𝑎𝑗𝑖 for all i,j
3 𝑥 3 2
4. If | |=| | then the value of x is equal to
𝑥 1 4 1
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) ±2√2.

5. Statement 1: Left hand derivative of f(x) = | x | at x = 0 is -1.

Statement 2: Left hand derivative of f(x) at x = a is lim f (a − h)
h →0

A) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false.

B) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct
Explanation for Statement 1
C) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct
Explanation for Statement 1
D) Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is false.
 6. The derivative of log(secx+tanx) with respect to x is
1
A)secx B) tanx C) secx.tanx D) 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥+𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥

7. The absolute maximum value of the function f given by

f (x) = 𝑥 3 , x ∈ [-2, 2] is
A)-2 B)2 C)0 D)8

8. The point of inflection for the following graph is

𝜋 𝜋
A)− 2 B) C) 0 D) point of inflection does not exist
2

1 1
9. ∫ 𝑒 𝑥 (𝑥 − 𝑥 2 ) 𝑑𝑥 =

𝑒𝑥 𝑒𝑥 –𝑒 𝑥
A) 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑐 B) +𝑐 (C) +𝑐 (D) +𝑐
𝑥2 𝑥 𝑥

10.  x sin xdx =

A) −𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 B) 𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐

C) 𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 D) −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐

𝜋
11. The projection vector of the vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
AB on the directed line l, if angle 𝜃 = 2 will

be.

A) 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 vector. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

B) 𝐴𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
C) 𝐵𝐴 D) 𝑈𝑛𝑖𝑡 vector.

12. For the given figure, 𝑃⃗ − 𝑄

⃗ 𝑖𝑠

⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
A) 𝑂𝐶 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
B) 𝐶𝑂 C) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐴 D) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐵
13. The direction cosines of negative z-axis.
(A) -1 , -1 , 0 (B) 0 , 0 , −1 (C) 0 , 0 , 1 (D) 1 , 1 , 0
1
14. If P(A) = 2, P (B) = 0, then P (A|B) is
1
A) 0 B) C) 1 D) not defined
2

15. An urn contains 10 black and 5 white balls, 2 balls are drawn

one after the other without replacement, then the probability that both drawn

balls are black is

3 4 2 2
A) B) C) D)
7 9 3 9

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate answer from those
given in the bracket (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) 51=5

16. The number of points in R for which the function f(x) = |x|+ |x + 1| is
not differentiable, is_________
17. The value of 𝑖̂. (𝑗̂ × 𝑘̂) − 𝑗̂. (𝑘̂ × 𝑖̂) − 𝑘̂ . (𝑗̂ × 𝑖̂) is________
18. The sum of the order and degree of the differential equation.
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
2𝑥 2 (𝑑𝑥 2 ) − 3 (𝑑𝑥 ) + 𝑦 𝑖𝑠_______

19.The total revenue in rupees received from the sale of x unit of a

product is given by R(x)=2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5 ,The marginal revenue when x=2
is________
3 2 2
20. If P(A) = 𝑘, P(A∩ B) = 5 and P(B|A) = 3 , then k is _________

PART B

Answer any SIX questions: 6  2 = 12

1 1
21. Show that sin−1 (2x√1 − x 2 ) = 2sin−1 (x), − ≤ x ≤ .
√2 √2
22. Show that points A (a, b + c), B (b, c + a), C (c, a + b) are collinear
using determinants.
dy
23. Find , if 2 x + 3 y = sin x .
dx
24. Find the local maximum value of the function g ( x) = x 3 − 3x 

25. Evaluate  sin 3x cos 4 x dx 

𝑦𝑑𝑥−𝑥𝑑𝑦
26. Find the general solution of the differential equation = 0.
𝑦

27. Find |𝑥|, if for a unit vector 𝑎, (𝑥 − 𝑎 ) ∙ (𝑥 + 𝑎) = 15.

28. Find the equation of the line in vector form that passes through
the point with position vector 2 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 4 𝑘̂ and is in the direction 𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂.
29. Prove that if E and F are independent events, then so are the events E and 𝐹′.
PART C

Answer any SIX questions: 63 = 18.

30. Show that the relation R in the set of real numbers R defined as
R = ( a, b ) : a  b ,is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
4 12 33
31. Prove that cos−1 5 + cos −1 13 = cos−1 65 .

3 5 
32. Express   as the sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix.
1 −1
𝑑𝑦
33. Find if 𝑥 = 𝑎(cos 𝜃 + 𝜃 sin 𝜃) and y = 𝑎(sin 𝜃 − 𝜃 cos 𝜃).
𝑑𝑥

34. Find the intervals in which the function f(x)=(x-2)3(x+4)3 is

a) increasing b)decreasing.
x
35. Find  ( x + 1) ( x + 2) dx 
36. If 𝑎, 𝑏⃗ & 𝑐 are three vectors such that |𝑎| = 3, |𝑏⃗| = 4, |𝑐 | = 5 and each
vector is orthogonal to sum of the other two vectors then find |𝑎 + 𝑏⃗ + 𝑐|.
37. Find the distance between the lines 𝑟 = 6𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂ + 2 𝑘̂ + 𝜆 (𝑖̂ - 2 𝑗̂ +2 𝑘̂)
and 𝑟 = -4𝑖̂ - 𝑘̂+ 𝜇 (3𝑖
̂ -2 𝑗̂ -2 𝑘̂).
38. Bag I contains 4 Red and 4 Black balls, Bag II contains 2 Red and 6 Black
balls .One bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn is found to be Red.
What is the probability that bag I is selected?
PART D
Answer any FOUR questions: 5 4 = 20.
39. State whether the function f: R →R defined by f (x) = 3 – 4x
is one-one, onto or bijective. Justify your answer.

1 0 2 
40. If A =  0 2 1  , prove that A3 − 6 A2 + 7 A + 2 I = O .
 2 0 3 
41. Solve the following system of equations by matrix method:
2x + y -z =1; x + y =z and 2x + 3y + z = 11.
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
42. If 𝑦 = 3 cos(𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥) + 4 sin (𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥), prove that 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0.
dx

1
43. Find the integral of with respect to x and evaluate .
a −x
2 2
7 − x2
 𝑑𝑦
44. Solve the differential equation + y secx = tanx (0≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝜋/2).
𝑑𝑥

45. Find the area of the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 𝑎2 by the method of integration.

PART E
Answer the following questions:
46. Maximize and Minimise ; z = 3x + 9 y subject to constraints
x + 3 y  60, x + y  10, x  y, x  0, y  0 by graphical method.
OR

b b 3
1
Prove that 
a
f ( x) dx =  f (a + b − x) dx and hence evaluate
a

 1+ tan x
dx . 6
6

kx + 1, if x  5
47. Find the value of k so that the function f ( x ) =  , at x = 5 is a
3x − 5, if x  5

continuous function.
OR

2 3 1 −2
If A =[ ] and B =[ ] then verify that (𝐴𝐵)−1 = 𝐵 −1 𝐴−1.
1 −4 −1 3
4
PART F
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
8. The point of inflection of the function f(x)=sinx in the interval
  
− 2 , 2  is
 
𝜋 𝜋
A)− 2 B) C) 0 D) point of inflection does not exist
2

12. In a parallelogram OACB, ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝑂𝐴 = 𝑃⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑄
and 𝑂𝐵 ⃗ , then 𝑃⃗ − 𝑄
⃗ is

⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
A) 𝑂𝐶 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
B) 𝐶𝑂 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
C) 𝐵𝐴 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
D) 𝐴𝐵

*******
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
WEIGHTAGE FRAMEWORK FOR MQP 2: II PUC MATHEMATICS(35):2024-25
Chapter

Number PART PART PART

Of PART A B C D
CONTENT PART E Total
Teaching 1 mark 2 3 5
hours mark mark mark
6 4
MCQ FB
mark mark
9 9
RELATIONS AND
1 1 1 1
FUNCTIONS
INVERSE 6
2 TRIGONOMETRIC 6 2 1 1
FUNCTIONS
9 9
3 MATRICES 1 1 1
12 12
4 DETERMINANTS 1 1 1 1
20 17
CONTINUITY AND
5 2 1 1 1 1 1
DIFFERENTIABILITY
10 8
APPLICATION OF 1
6 2 1
DERIVATIVES
22 18
7 INTEGRALS 1 1 1 1 1 1
5 5
APPLICATION OF
8 1
INTEGRALS
DIFFERENTIAL 10 8
9 1 1 1
EQUATIONS
11 8
10 VECTOR ALGEBRA 2 1 1 1
8 6
THREE D
11 1 1 1
GEOMETRY
7 6
LINEAR
12 1
ROGRAMMING
11 8
13 PROBABILITY 2 1 1 1
120
TOTAL 140 15 5 9 9 7 2 2
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
Model Question Paper -2
II P.U.C MATHEMATICS (35):2024-25
Time : 3 hours Max. Marks : 80

Instructions :

1) The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the
parts.
2) PART A has 15 MCQ’s ,5 Fill in the blanks of 1 mark each.
3) Use the graph sheet for question on linear programming in PART E.
4) For questions having figure/graph, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in separate section for visually challenged students.

PART A
I. Answer ALL the Multiple Choice Questions 151 = 15
1. If a relation R on the set {1, 2, 3} is defined by R = {(1, 1)}, then R is
(A) symmetric but not transitive (B) transitive but not symmetric
(C) symmetric and transitive. (D) neither symmetric nor transitive.

2. sin ( tan−1 x), |x| < 1 is equal to

√1−x2 x 1 x
(A) (B) (C) (D) .
x √1−x2 1+x2 √1+x2

3. Match List I with List II

List I List II
a) Domain of sin−1 𝑥 i) (−∞ , ∞)
b) Domain of 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥 ii) [𝑜 , 𝜋]
c) Range of 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝑥 iii) [-1, 1]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) a-i , b-ii, c-iii B) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii D) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

𝟒. Statement 1: If A is a symmetric as well as a skew symmetric matrix, then A is

a null matrix
Statement 2: A is a symmetric matrix if AT = A and A is a skew symmetric
matrix if AT = – A.
A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is false.
C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement 1
D) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct
explanation for Statement 1
5. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 3, then | 𝐴−1 | =
2 1
A) 3 B) C) D) 12
3 3
6. For the figure given below, consider the following statements 1 and 2

Statement 1: The given function is differentiable at x = 1

Statement 2: The given function is continuous at x = 0

A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

C) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true

D) Both Statement 1 and 2 are false

𝒅𝒚
7. If 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 , then =
𝒅𝒙
1
(A) B) 𝑒 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 C) −1 D) 1.
𝑥
8. The function f given by f (x) = log(sinx) is increasing on
3π π 3π
(A) (0, π ) B) (π, ) C) ( 2 , π) D) ( 2 , 2π).
2
1
9. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑥√𝑥 2 −1

A) sec 𝑥 +C B) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1 𝑥 +C C) sec −1 𝑥 + 𝐶 D) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 + 𝐶

𝑑𝑦
10. A differential equation of the form 𝑑𝑥 = F (x, y) is said to be homogenous if
F(x, y) is a homogenous function of degree

A) 1 B) 2 C) 𝑛 D) 0.

11. The projection of the vector 𝑎⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ on y-axis is

3 8 2
A) B) 3 C) D) .
√17 √17 √17
12. Unit vector in the direction of the vector 𝑎⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ is
̂
𝑖̂+𝑗̂ +2𝑘 ̂
𝑖̂+𝑗̂ +2𝑘 ̂
𝑖̂+𝑗̂ +2𝑘 ̂
𝑖̂+𝑗̂ +2𝑘
A) B) C) D)
√6 6 4 2
13. The equation of a line parallel to x-axis and passing through the origin is
x y z x y z
A) = = B) = =
0 1 1 1 0 0

x+5 y−2 z+3 x−5 y+2 z−3

C) = = D) = = .
0 1 0 0 0 1

14. If 𝑃(𝐴) = 0.4 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.25 then 𝑃(𝐴′ |𝐵) 𝑖𝑠
1 5 1 3
A) 2 B) 8 C) 4 D) 4.

15. If A and B are independent events with 𝑃(𝐴) = 0.3, 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.4 then 𝑃(𝐴 |𝐵)

A) 0.3 B) 0.4 C) 0.12 D) 0.7

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate answer from those
given in the bracket (-1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, ) 51 = 5
𝜋 1
16. The value of cos ( 3 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 (2)) =______________

17. The number of points at which f(x)=[x], where [x] is greatest integer function
is discontinuous in the interval (-2, 2) is __________
𝜋
𝑥 𝑥
18. ∫02 (𝑠𝑖𝑛2 2 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 2 ) 𝑑𝑥 =

19. If (2𝑎⃗ − 3𝑏⃗⃗) × (3𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗⃗) = 𝜆(𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗) , then the value of λ is _____
1
20. Probability of solving a specific problem independently by A and B are 2
1
and respectively. If both try to solve the problem then the probability that
3
𝑘
the problem is solved is 3, then the value of k is ________
PART B

Answer any SIX questions: 6  2=12

21. Find ‘k’ if area of the triangle with vertices (2,-6) , (5,4) and (k,4) is 35
square units.

4 𝑑𝑦
22. If 𝑥 = 4𝑡 , 𝑦 = , then find .
𝑡 𝑑𝑥

23. The radius of an air bubble is increasing at the rate of 0.5 cm/s. At what rate
is the volume of the bubble is increasing when the radius is 1 cm ?

24. Find the two numbers whose sum is 24 and product is as large as possible.
𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 −1
25. Evaluate: ∫ 𝑑𝑥 .
𝑥−1
𝑑𝑦
26. Find the general solution of the differential equation = √1 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 .
𝑑𝑥

27. Find the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are the vectors
3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂ and 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂.
x+3 y–1 z+ 3 x+1 y–4 z−5
28. Find the angle between the pair of lines 3
= = and = = .
5 4 1 1 2
29. A couple has two children. Find the probability that both children are males,
if it is known that at least one of the children is male.

PART C
Answer any SIX questions: 6  3 = 18
30. Let L be the set of all lines in a plane and R be the relation in L

defined as R = {(𝐿1 , 𝐿2 ) : 𝐿1 is perpendicular to 𝐿2 }. Show that R is symmetric

but neither reflexive nor transitive.
31. Solve: 2 tan−1(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥) = tan−1(2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥).
1 0 2 𝑥
32. Find ‘x’, if [𝑥 −5 −1] [0 2 1] [4] = 𝑂.
2 0 3 1
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
33. If 𝑦 = 3𝑒 2𝑥 + 2𝑒 3𝑥 , prove that − 5 𝑑𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 0.
𝑑𝑥 2

1
34. Find the intervals in which the function f is given by f(x) = 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 3 is

a) decreasing b) increasing.
3x − 2
35. Evaluate:  ( x + 1) ( x + 3) dx .
2

36. Show that the position vector of the point R, which divides the line
joining the points P and Q having the position vectors 𝑎⃗ and 𝑏⃗⃗
⃗⃗+𝑛𝑎⃗⃗
𝑚𝑏
internally in the ratio 𝑚: 𝑛 is .
𝑚+𝑛
37. Derive the equation of the line in space passing through a given point
and parallel to a given vector in the vector form.

38. A man is known to speak truth 3 out of 5 times. He throws a die and reports
that it is a six. Find the probability that it is actually a six.

PART D

Answer any FOUR questions: 4  5=20

𝑥−2
39. Consider the function f : A → B defined by f (x) = ( ). Is f one-one and
𝑥−3
onto? Justify your answer.
1
 
40. If A =  −4  and B =  −1 2 1 , verify that ( AB ) = BA .
 3 
1 −1 2 −2 0 1
41. Use the product (0 2 − 3) ( 9 2 − 3) to solve the system of equations
3 −2 4 6 1 −2

𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 1, 2𝑦 − 3𝑧 = 1, 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 4𝑧 = 9.

42. Find the values of a and b such that

5 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 𝑖𝑓 2 < 𝑥 < 10 is continuous function.

21 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 ≥ 10
1 1
43. Find the integral of √𝑥 2 +𝑎2
w.r.t x and hence evaluate ∫ √𝑥 2 +121
𝑑𝑥.
 𝑥2 𝑦2
44. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse + = 1 by integration
16 9
method.

45. Solve the differential equation ydx − ( x + 2y 2 ) dy = 0 .

PART E
Answer the following questions:

𝑏 𝑐 𝑏 2
46.Prove that ∫𝑎 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = ∫𝑎 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 + ∫𝑐 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 and hence evaluate ∫−1|𝑥 3 − 𝑥| 𝑑𝑥.

OR
Solve the following problem graphically: Maximize and minimize
𝑍 = 3𝑥 + 2𝑦, Subject to the constraints, 𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 10, 3𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 15, 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0. 6

5 6
47. Show that the matrix A =[ ] satisfies the equation 𝐴2 – 8A -9I = O, where
4 3
I is 2 × 2 identity matrix and O is 2 × 2 zero matrix. Using this equation,
find 𝐴−1.
OR

Differentiate (𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)𝑥 + sin−1 𝑥 w. r. t. 𝑥. 4

PART F
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
6. For the function f(x)=|x-1|, consider the following statements 1 and 2

Statement 1: The given function is differentiable at x=1

Statement 2: The given function is continuous at x=0

A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

C) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true

D) Both Statement 1 and 2 are false

***********
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
WEIGHTAGE FRAMEWORK FOR MQP 3: II PU MATHEMATICS (35):2024-25
Chapter

Number PART PART PART

of PART A B C D
CONTENT PART E Total
Teaching 1 mark 2 3 5
hours mark mark mark
6 4
MCQ FB
mark mark

RELATIONS AND 9 9
1 1 1 1
FUNCTIONS
INVERSE
2 6 2 2
TRIGONOMETRIC 6
FUNCTIONS
9 1 9
3 MATRICES 1 1 1
12 12
4 DETERMINANTS 1 1 1 1

CONTINUITY AND 20 17
5 2 1 1 1 1 1
DIFFERENTIABILITY
APPLICATION OF 10 8
6 2 1 1 1
DERIVATIVES
22 18
7 INTEGRALS 1 1 1 1 1 1

APPLICATION OF 5 5
8 1
INTEGRALS
DIFFERENTIAL 10 8
9 1 1 1
EQUATIONS
11 8
10 VECTOR ALGEBRA 2 2

THREE D 8 6
11 1 1 1
GEOMETRY
LINEAR 7 6
12 1
ROGRAMMING
11 8
13 PROBABILITY 1 1 2
120
TOTAL 140 15 5 9 9 7 2 2
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
Model Question Paper -3
II P.U.C MATHEMATICS (35):2024-25
Time : 3 hours Max. Marks : 80

Instructions :

1) The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the
parts.
2) PART A has 15 MCQ’s ,5 Fill in the blanks of 1 mark each.
3) Use the graph sheet for question on linear programming in PART E.
PART A

I. Answer ALL the Multiple Choice Questions 151 = 15

1. The element needed to be added to the relation R={(1,1), (1,3), (2,2),(3,3) } on

A = {1, 2, 3} so that the relation is neither symmetric nor transitive

A) (2, 3) B) (3, 1) C) (1, 2) D) (3, 2)

2. The graph of the function 𝑦 = cos−1 𝑥 is the mirror image of the graph of the
function y = cosx along the line
A) x = 0 B) y = x C) y = 1 D) y = 0

3. The value of tan−1 (√3) + sec −1 (−2) is equal to

2π π π
𝐴) π B) C) − 3 D)
3 3

4. If A and B are matrices of order 3 × 2 and 2 × 2 respectively, then which of the

following are defined
A) AB B) BA C) A2 D) A + B
5. A square matrix A is invertible if A is
A) Null matrix B) Singular matrix
C) skew symmetric matrix of order 3 D) Non-Singular matrix
𝑑𝑦
6. If 𝑦 = sin−1(𝑥√𝑥), then =
𝑑𝑥
1 2√𝑥 3√𝑥 −3√𝑥
A) B) C) D) .
√1−𝑥 3 3√1−𝑥 3 2√1−𝑥 3 2√1−𝑥 3
𝑑𝑦
7. If y = 𝑥 a + 𝑎x + 𝑎a for some fixed a > 0 and x > 0, then =
𝑑𝑥

(A) 𝑎𝑥 a−1 + 𝑎x loga + 𝑎𝑎a−1 B) 𝑎𝑥 a−1 + 𝑎x loga

C) 𝑎𝑥 a−1 + 𝑥𝑎x−1 + 𝑎𝑎a−1 D) 𝑎𝑥 a−1 + 𝑎x loga + 𝑎a .

8. Consider the following statements for the given function y=f(x) defined on an
interval I and c∈ I, at x = c
I. 𝑓 ′ (𝑐) = 0 and 𝑓"(𝑐) < 0 ⟹ f attains local maxima
II. 𝑓 ′ (𝑐) = 0 and 𝑓"(𝑐) > 0 ⟹ f attains local minima
III. 𝑓 ′ (𝑐) = 0 and 𝑓"(𝑐) = 0 ⟹ f attains both maxima and minima
A) I and II are true B) I and III are true
C) II and III are true D) all are false
9. If each side of a cube is x units, then the rate of change of its surface area

with respect to side is

A) 12x B) 6x C) 6x2 D) 3x2

1
10. Statement 1: The anti-derivative of (√1+𝑥 2 ) with respect to x is

𝑥 1
2
√1 + 𝑥 2 + 2 log|𝑥 + √1 + 𝑥 2 | + 𝐶.

𝑥 1
Statement 2: The derivative of √1 + 𝑥 2 + 2 log|𝑥 + √1 + 𝑥 2 | + 𝐶
2
1
with respect to x is √1+𝑥 2
.
A) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false.
B) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is correct
explanation for Statement 1
C) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement 1
D) Both statements are false.

3
d2 y dy 2 dy
11. The degree of the differential equation (dx2 ) + (dx) + sin (dx) + 1 = 0 is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) not defined

12. The position vector of a point which divides the join of points with position
vectors 3𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗⃗ and 𝑎⃗ + 𝑏⃗⃗ externally in the ratio 2 : 1 is
5𝑎⃗⃗
A) 3 B) 4𝑎⃗ − 𝑏⃗⃗ C) 4𝑏⃗⃗ − 𝑎⃗ D) 2𝑎⃗ +𝑏⃗⃗

𝜋 𝜋
13. If a vector 𝑎⃗ makes angles with with 𝑖̂ and with 𝑗̂ and an acute
3 4
angle 𝜃 with 𝑘̂, then θ is
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
A) 6 B) 4 C) D)
3 2

14. Find the angle between the lines whose direction ratios are a, b, c and
b – c, c – a, a – b is
A) 450 B) 300 C) 600 D) 900
 1 1
15. If A and B are two independent events such that 𝑃(𝐴) = 4 and 𝑃(𝐵) = 2
then P(neither A nor B)
1 3 7 1
A) B) C) D) .
3 8 8 2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate answer from those
𝟓 𝟑
given in the bracket (-2, 𝟐, 0, 1, 2, 𝟐 ) 51 = 5

16. The number of all possible orders of matrices with 13 elements is ____

𝑑2 𝑦
17. If y = 5 cos x – 3 sin x, then + 𝑦 =_____
𝑑𝑥 2

18. If the function f given by f (x) = 𝑥 2 + ax + 1 is increasing on [1, 2], then the
value of ‘a’ is greater than ____________
2

19. | x | dx =_________
1
20. If A and B are any two events such that P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B) =P(A), then
P(A|B) is________

PART B
Answer any SIX questions 6  2=12
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
21. Write the simplest form of tan−1 (√1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥) , 0 < 𝑥 < 𝜋.

3 24
22. Prove that 2 sin−1 5 = tan−1 .
7

𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 −𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 0
23. If F(x)= [ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 0], then show that F(x) F(y) = F(x + y).
0 0 1
24. Find the equation of line joining (1, 2) and (3, 6) using determinants.

25. Differentiate xsin x , x  0 with respect to x.

26. Find the intervals in which the function 𝑓 given by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 𝑒 −𝑥 is increasing.

27. Find  ( x 2 + 1) log x dx .

.
𝑑𝑦
28.Verify the function 𝑦 =mx is the solution of − 𝑦 = 0, x ≠ 0.
𝑑𝑥

29. Find the distance between the lines 𝑟⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂ - 4 𝑘̂ + 𝜆 (2𝑖̂ + 3 𝑗̂ + 6 𝑘̂)

and 𝑟⃗ = 3𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ - 5 𝑘̂ + 𝜇(2𝑖̂ + 3 𝑗̂ + 6 𝑘̂) .
 PART C

Answer any SIX questions 6  3= 18

30. Let f : X →Y be a function. Define a relation R in X given by

R = {(a, b): f(a) = f(b)}. Examine whether R is an equivalence relation or not.

𝑑𝑦
31. If 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 𝑦 + 𝑥𝑦 2 + 𝑦 3 = 81, then find .
𝑑𝑥
32. The length 𝑥 of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 3 cm/min and the
width 𝑦 is increasing at the rate of 2 cm/min. When 𝑥 = 10 cm and 𝑦 = 6 cm,
find the rate of change of the perimeter of the rectangle.
1
33. Find the integral of 2 with respect to x .
a + x2
34. If the vertices A, B and C of a triangle are (1, 2, 3), (−1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 2)
respectively, then find the angle ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶.
 1   1 
35. Find the area of the rectangle, whose vertices are A  -i + j + 4k  , B  i + j + 4k  ,
2  2   
 1   1 
C  i − j + 4k  and D  −i − j + 4k  .
 2   2 
36. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and
x−8 y+19 z−10 x−15 y – 29 z−5
perpendicular to the two lines: = = and = = .
3 −16 7 3 8 −5

37. An urn contains 5 red and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random, its colour
is noted and is returned to the urn. Moreover, 2 additional balls of the colour
drawn are put in the urn and then a ball is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the second ball is red.

38. Three coins are tossed simultaneously. Consider the Event E ‘three heads or
three tails’, F ‘at least two heads and G ‘at most two heads’. Of the pairs (E,F),
(E, G) and (F, G), which are independent? Which are dependent?
PART D

Answer any FOUR questions 4  5 = 20

39. Let f : N →Y be a function defined as f (x) = 4x + 3, where,

Y = {y ∈ N: y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈ N}. Show that f is invertible. Find the
inverse of f.
 0 6 7 0 1 1  2
40. If A =  −6 0 8  , B = 1 0 2  and C =  −2  ,
   
 7 −8 0  1 2 0   3 
calculate AB, AC and A(B + C). Verify that A ( B + C ) = AB + AC .
41. Solve the following system of linear equations by matrix method:
3
2x + y + z = 1, x – 2y – z = and 3y – 5z = 9.
2

𝒅𝟐 𝒚
42. If x = a (cos t + t sin t) and y = a (sin t – t cos t), find .
𝒅𝒙𝟐

x4
43. Find  ( x −1)( x2 +1) dx .

44. Find the area of the region bounded by the line y = 3x + 2, the x-axis and
the ordinates x = –1 and x = 1 by integration method.

45. Find the equation of a curve passing through the origin given that the slope
of the tangent to the curve at any point (x, y) is equal to the sum of the
ordinates of the point.

PART E

Answer the following questions:

 a
2 f ( x ) dx,
46. (a) Prove that  f ( x ) dx =  0
a
if f(x) is even
−a 0, if f(x) is odd


2

 sin
7
and evaluate x dx
−
2

OR
Solve the following linear programming problem graphically:
Minimize and maximize 𝑍 = 𝑥 + 2𝑦, subject to constraints
𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≥ 100, 2𝑥 − 𝑦 ≤ 0, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 200 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0.

6
2 −1 1
47. If matrix A= [−1 2 −1] satisfying A3-6A2+9A-4I=O, then evaluate 𝐴−1.
1 −1 2

OR
𝑘 cos 𝑥 𝜋
, 𝐼𝑓 𝑥 ≠ 𝜋
𝜋−2𝑥 2
If 𝑓(𝑥) = { 𝜋 is continuous at 𝑥 = 2 , find k . 4
3, 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 =
2

*************
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESEMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 1 (2024 - 25)
II PU SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (36)
Duration: 3hr Max. Marks: 70
General Instruction:
 This Question paper consists of parts A, B, C, D and E
 Part – A consists of I and II and Part D consists of V and VI
 All the parts are compulsory
 The answers for Part – A, written in the first two pages of the answer booklet are only considered
for evaluation
 Part – E consists of questions for visually challenged students only
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 15 x 1 = 15
1. Statement I: Apomixis is the production of seeds from unfertilized ovules
Statement II: Embryos produced from apomictic seeds are not generally identical to the parent plant.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true
c) Statement I and statement II both are true
d) Statement I and statement II both are false
2. Choose the correct option from the table given below for the formation and dissolution of the labeled
part in the given diagram.

Formed by Dissolved
a) Primary oocyte before fertilisation
b) Primary oocyte after fertilisation
c) Secondary oocyte before fertilisation
d) Secondary oocyte after fertilisation
3. Out of the options given below choose the correct stage for transfer to the fallopian tube for successful
IVF results.
a) Embryo up to 8 blastomeres b) embryo up to 16 blastomeres
c) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres d) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres
4. 37.2% recombinant Drosophila progeny obtained in the T. H. Morgan’s dihybrid cross experiment with
the phenotypes red eye color, normal body and white eye color, miniature body is due to;
a) Loosely linked and shorter distance between genes
b) Tightly linked and shorter distance between genes
c) Loosely linked and longer distance between genes
d) Tightly linked and longer distance between genes
5. The number of nucleotide pairs present in the DNA of the primary oocyte of a new born in human
a) 3.3 x 109 b) 6.6 x 109 c) 13. 2 x 109 d) 3.3 x 107
6. The factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium are listed below;
i) Crossing over, Independent assortment
ii) Crossing over, Mutation,
iii) Genetic drift, Crossing over
iv) Independent assortment, Mutation
Choose the correct options:
a) i, ii and iii b) ii, iii and iv c) i, iii and iv d) i, ii, iii and iv
7. Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the spread of which of the
following diseases in humans?
a) AIDS b) Ascariasis c) Ringworm d) Amoebiasis
8. The human host cells in which the gametocytes of malarial parasite develop are
a) Thrombocytes b) Liver cells c) Erythrocytes d) Leucocytes
9. Which of the following water samples in the table given below will have a higher concentration of
organic matter?
Water Sample Level of pollution Value of BOD
a) High High
b) Low Low
c) Low High
d) High Low
10. The steps of Recombinant DNA technology are given below:
i) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host organism
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
iv) Obtaining the foreign product
v) Downstream processing
vi) Isolation of DNA
Choose the correct option for the sequential steps of Recombinant DNA technology.
a) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i b) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii c) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i d) vi, iii ii, i, iv,, v,
11. DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography is called
a) Template b) Probe c) Transcript d) Cistron
12. Jeeva was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions where the
resources sooner or later become limiting. Which of the following equations will represents the correct
growth in this case?
a) dN/dt = rN b) dN/dt = KN c) dN/dt = rN (K – N/K) d) dN/dt = rN (K +N/K)
13. Which of the following food chains is the major conduit for the energy flow in terrestrial and aquatic
ecosystems respectively?
Terrestrial Aquatic
a) Grazing Grazing
b) Detritus Detritus
c) Detritus Grazing
d) Grazing Detritus
14. Which of the following is not an example of in-situ conservation?
a) National park and seed bank
 b) National park and Zoological parks
c) Seed bank and sacred groove
d) Seed bank and Botanical gardens
15. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic
importance is
a) Biofortification b) Bioprocessing c) Bioprospecting d) Biodiversity

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given below: 5x1=5
(Competent cells, Bacteria, non-living molecule, vectors, Competent cells, Recombinant cells)
16. The interstitial space in seminiferous tubules consists of immunologically -------------
17. The version of biogenesis is accepted by majority, as the first form of life arose slowly through
evolutionary forces from ----------.
18. Filariasis pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through -----------
19. Swiss cheese with large holes is produced from ------------
20. The host cells which have the ability to incorporate foreign DNA within them are called ------------

PART - B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences wherever applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
21. Complete the tabular column given below with respect to the male gametophyte of angiosperms
Cells of the male gametophyte
Shape of nucleus of the cells
22. Mention the two medical grounds on which the pregnancies are subjected to termination.
23. Derive the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of a cross between AB blood group parents.
24. Which sequences of bases transcribed from DNA are found both in hnRNA and mRNA?
25. “Potato tubers and Sweet potato tubers are the result of convergent evolution”. Justify the statement.
26. What are biofertilizers? Mention its significance.
27. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.

PART - C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each wherever applicable: 5 x 3 = 15
28. Draw a labeled diagram of the fertilised female gametophyte and mention the ploidy of any one of the
products of double fertilization.
29. Parturition is induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Comment.
30. The popular and effective contraceptives include IUDs. Mention the types of IUDs with an example of
each.
31. Write the salient feature of the following human ancestors;
i) Dryopithecus ii) Ramapithecus iii) Australopithecus iv) Homo habilis
v) Neanderthal man vi) Homo erectus
32. Describe any three properties of Cancerous cells.
33. Complete the below given tabular column with appropriate answers.
Name of the Microbe Name of the Product Uses
A Lactic acid B
Methanogens C D
E F Treatment of bacterial diseases
34. Represent diagrammatically the pyramid of number in a Terrestrial ecosystem.
 PART – D
V. Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200–250 words each wherever applicable: 4x5 = 20
35. Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and encourage cross-
pollination. Comment.
36. Draw a labeled diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system.
37. Few autosome linked recessive gene blood diseases occur in human population. Among them some are
related to qualitative and quantitative problem of synthesizing blood proteins. Explain.
38. DNA replication is fast, accurate, energetically expensive, substrate and enzyme dependent, initiated
from specific site and cannot uncoil on its entire length. Explain the process of DNA replication
considering all these features.
39. Some drug bottles had their name labels missing in a drug store of a hospital. The staff needs to
identify the drugs with their actions still written on them. Analyse their actions listed below and
identify the name of each drug and also the source of each one of them.
DRUG EFFECT
Drug 1 Used by doctors as sedative and pain killer
Drug 2 Help patients to cope with insomnia and depression
Drug 3 Increases blood pressure and heart rate of consumer
Drug 4 Act as depressant and slows down body functions
Drug 5 Affects cardiovascular system of the body
40. Transgenic animals provide innumerable benefits to human beings. Justify the statement with common
reasons.
41. Explain the fascinating forms of interactions in;
a) Brood parasitism (3M)
b) Sexual deceit (2M)

VI. Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200–250 words each wherever applicable: 1 x 5= 5
42. Results of a Mendelian dihybrid cross are represented in the form of Punnett square.

Answer the following questions with respect to the results of a dihybrid cross.
a) Number of parental types progeny
b) Number of recombinant progeny
c) Number of homozygous recessive progeny
 d) Number of homozygous dominant progeny
e) Number of homozygous progeny for both the traits
f) Number of heterozygous progeny for both the traits
g) Number of pure line progeny
h) Number of homozygous progeny for single trait
i) Number of heterozygous progeny for single trait
j) Number of recessive progeny for single trait
43. Given below are sequences of nucleotides in a particular mRNA and amino acids coded by it;
5’- AUG UUU UUC GAG UUA GUG UAA-3’
met phe phe glu leu val
Write the properties of genetic code that can be correlated from the above given data
44. Given below are the diagrams of plasmids A and B, observe meticulously and answer the questions
that follows;

a) Which plasmid is/are you select for cloning and why? (1M)
b) What is insertional inactivation? (1M)
c) Will the number of culture plating you should make is same or different to select recombinant if
insertional inactivation is possible. Comment (3M)

PART – E
(FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY)
2. Choose the correct option for the formation and dissolution of the zona pellucida.
Formed by Dissolved
a) Primary oocyte before fertilisation
b) Primary oocyte after fertilisation
c) Secondary oocyte before fertilisation
d) Secondary oocyte after fertilisation
42. Represent schematically the results of incomplete dominance in snapdragon plant taking the flower
color character.
44. a) Mention the tools of genetic engineering. (2M)
b) What is insertional inactivation? Mention its significance. (2M)
c) What is a recombinant protein? (1M)

*************************************************
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 2 (2024-25)
II PU SUBJECT - BIOLOGY (36)
DURATION: 3 HOURS MAX. MARKS: 70
General instructions:
1. The question paper consists of parts -A, B, C, D and E.
2. Part-A consists of I & II and Part-D consists of V & VI.
3. All the parts are compulsory.
4. For part-A questions, only the first written answers will be considered for evaluation.
5. Part-E consists of questions for visually challenged students only.
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 15 x 1 = 15
1. Select the correct sequence of events in microsporogenesis
a) Sporogenous tissue →Microspore mother cell →Microspore tetrad →Microspores
b) Microspores →Microspore mother cell →Microspore tetrad → Sporogenous tissue
c) Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad →Microspores → Microspore mother cell
d) Microspores → Sporogenous tissue →Microspore tetrad → Microspore mother cell
2. Statement I: The process of release of sperms from the seminiferous tubule is called
spermatogenesis.
Statement II: The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called
spermiogensis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. The function of myometrium layer present in the uterine wall is to
a) Undergo cyclical changes during menstrual cycle. c) Give protection to the uterus.
b) Exhibit strong uterine contraction during parturition. d) Help in the implantation process.
4. The ________ hormone is secreted by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy.
a) Androgens b) Estrogens c) Relaxin d) Progestogens
5. Sperms produced by the seminiferous tubules are transported through accessory ducts. Which
duct should be tied and cut for male sterilization?
a) Vas deferens b) Vasa efferentia c) Rete testis d) Epididymis
6. Reasons for human population explosion are given below:
i) Rapid decline in maternal mortality rate. ii) Rapid decline in infant mortality rate.
iii) Rapid increase in death rate.
iv) Increase in the number of people in reproducible age.
Select the correct answer statements from the options given below:
a) i), ii) and iii) only c) i), ii) and iv) only
b) b) i) and ii) only d) iii) and iv) only
 7. In a dihybrid cross in pea plants, Mendel got 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. It denotes that
a) The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other.
b) It is a polygenic inheritance.
c) It is a multiple allelic inheritance.
d) The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
8. A DNA segment has a total of 1000 nucleotides, out of which 240 of them are adenine containing
nucleotides. How many pyrimidines bases this DNA segement possesses?
a) 480 b) 500 c) 760 d) 260
9. (p + q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 represents an equation used in:
a) Population genetics c) Molecular genetics
b) Mendelian genetics d) Biometrics
10. A farmer working in a field was bitten by poisonous snake. Doctor gave him an antivenom
treatment that contain preformed antibodies. This type of immunisation is known as
a) Autoimmunity c) Innate immunity
b) Passive immunisation d) Active immunisation
11. An agriculture labour was spraying some powder mixed with water onto fruit trees to get rid of
insect larvae. Which of the following biocontrol agent could have been used here?
a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Trichoderma c) Dragonflies d) Ladybird
12. Choose the correct sequence of polymerase chain reaction steps from the following:
a) Annealing →Denaturation → Extension b) Extension→ Annealing →Denaturation
c) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing d) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
13. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper
authorisation and compensatory payment is referred as
a) Biopiracy b) Biofortification c) Bioprospecting d) Bioprocessing
14. An example for ex situ conservation is
a) National parks b) Sacred groves c) Biosphere reserves d) Zoological parks
15. The graph given below shows species-area relationships.

Which of the following equation correctly represent the curve?

a) S = CAZ c) A= CSZ
b) Log S= log C + Z log A d) Log Z = log C + S log A
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the bracket. 5x1 = 5
(Primary productivity, Coelacanth, Secondary productivity, Glomus, Amniocentesis, Plasmid)
16. Statutory ban on ____________ is required to check increasing female foeticides.
17. A fish thought to be extinct and caught in South Africa in 1938 is __________.
18. An example for mycorrhiza forming fungi is _________.
19. Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria is known as ______.
20. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is referred as _______.
 PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable: 5x2 = 10
21. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
22. Write a short on sex determination method in birds.
23. Mention the levels where gene expression can be regulated in eukaryotes.
24. Write a short note on Neanderthal man.
25. Draw the structure of an antibody molecule.
26. Write the functions of genes cryIAb and cryIIAb.
27. Briefly explain the significance of David Tilman’s long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor
plots.
PART – C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable 5x3 =15
28. Draw a L.S. of grass embryo diagram and label the following parts:
a) Scutellum b) Coleoptile c) Shoot apex d) Radicle e) Root cap f) Coleorrhiza
29. In the figure given below, parts A and B show the level of hormones which influence the menstrual
cycle. Study the figure and answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the organs/glands which secrete the hormones represented in labelled parts A and B. (1M)
b) State the role of hormones secreted from part B on the uterus of human female during menstrual
cycle. (2M)
30. Suggest three simple principles through which we can prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
31. What is Adaptive Radiation? Give any two examples.
32. Name of the drugs, its source and nature is given in the table below. Find a, b and c.
Name of the drug Source plant Nature
a Papaver somniferum Depressant
Cannabinoids b Effects on cardiovascular system
Cocaine Erythroxylum cocoa c
33. How did an American Company Eli Lilly use the knowledge of rDNA technology to produce human
insulin?
34. An example for grazing food chain is given below:
Grass → Grasshopper → Birds → Man
Graphically represent this food chain through pyramid of energy and write different trophic levels
with their energy content.
PART- D
V. Answer any FOUR of the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable: 4x5= 20
35. Draw a neat labelled diagram of sectional view of the mammary gland.
36. Schematically represent the inheritance of flower colour in snapdragon and draw conclusions.
 37. Give reasons for the following:
a) A simple cut result in non-stop bleeding in haemophilia affected individuals.
b) Turner’s syndrome affected females are usually sterile.
c) In Morgan’s dihybrid cross experiments on Drosophila showed that flies having genes for yellow
body and white eyes exhibited less recombination.
d) Inheritance of skin colour in the humans shows different phenotypes.
e) Accumulation of phenylalanine in the body of phenylketonuria affected individuals.
38. Describe the steps involved in DNA fingerprinting technique.
39. Name the causative agents of the following diseases:
a) Malaria b) Filariasis c) Ascariasis d) Amoebiasis e) Pneumonia
40. a) With respect to the microbial products, its source and uses identify the a, b and c in the following
table: (3M)
Microbial product Source Use
Cyclosporin A a Immunosuppressant
b Monascus purpureus Blood cholesterol lowering agent
Streptokinase Streptococcus c
b) Define the BOD and flocs. (2M)
41. Mention the population interactions exist among the following:
a) Abingdon tortoise and goats
b) Tiger and deer
c) Sea-anemone and clown fish
d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit
e) Cuscuta growing on hedge plant
VI. Answer any ONE of the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable: 1x5 = 5
42. Picture of a mature angiosperm embryo sac is given below and answer the question that follows.

a) Which cells/nuclei of the embryo sac produce zygote and primary endosperm nucleus? (2M)
b) What is the ploidy of antipodal cells and primary endosperm nucleus? (2M)
c) Why the endosperm development precedes embryo development? (1M)
 43. Answer the following:
a) Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and terminator on the basis of the
hypothetical template strand given below. (3M)

b) Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with polarity. (2M)

44. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) What is EcoRI? (1M)

b) How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease? (2M)
c) How are ‘sticky ends’ formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called? (2M)

PART- E
(FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY)
15. In relation to species – area relationships, what is the expected ‘Z’ value for frugivorous birds and
mammals in the tropical forests of different continents? (1M)
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 1.15 d) 0.5
29. Define menopause. Mention the different phases of menstrual cycle. (3M)
42. Answer the following:
a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of typical anatropous ovule. (3M)
b) What is the ploidy of nucellus? Write the functions of integuments. (2M)
44. Describe the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology. (5M)
*****************
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESEMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 3 (2024 – 25)
II PU SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (36)
Duration: 3hr Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
This Question paper consists of parts A, B, C, D, E
Part – A consists of I and II and Part D consists of V and VI
All the parts are compulsory
The answers for Part – A written in the first two pages of the answer booklet are only
considered for evaluation
Part – E consists of questions for visually challenged students only

PART- A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 15 x 1=15
1. The Ploidy of Perisperm present in beet seed is
a) Haploid b) Diploid
c) Tetraploid d) Triploid
2. Some plants such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis and Commelina produce two types
of flowers namely
a) Chasmogamous and Xenogamous b) Cleistogamous and Geitonogamous
c) Geitonogamous and Xenogamous d) Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous
3. The correct sequence of embryonic development in angiosperm is
a) Zygote Globular Pro –embryo Heart shaped Mature embryo
b) Zygote Heart shaped Pro –embryo Globular Mature embryo
c) Zygote Pro –embryo Globular Heart shaped Mature embryo
d) Zygote Globular Heart shaped Pro –embryo Mature embryo
4. During pregnancy the foetus develops limbs and digits
a) After three weeks b) after eight weeks
c) After six weeks d) after nine weeks
5. In spermatogenesis, if FSH hormone is not secreted from the anterior pituitary
gland, which stage is affected
a) Formation of primary spermatocyte b) formation of spermatozoa
c) Formation of spermatid d) formation of secondary spermatocyte
6. To produce 2000 sperm and 400 ova, how many spermatogonia and oogonia are
required?
a) 500 spermatogonia and 200 oogonia b) 500 sper matogonia and 400 oogonia
b) 250 spermatogonia and 250 oogonia d) 250 spermatogonia and 400 oogonia
7. Which among the following sexually transmitted infection (STIs) are not curable
a) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, hepatitis-B
b) Chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis
c) Gonorrhea, HIV infection, chlamydiasis
d) Hepatitis –B, genital herpes and HIV infection
8. A pedigree chart is given below, identify the trait responsible for this inheritance pattern

a) Autosomal dominant trait b) Autosomal recessive trait

c) X- linked recessive trait d) X – linked dominant trait
9. In Lac –operon, if mutation occurs in the Z – gene
a) Transacetylase will not be synthesized
b) β- galactosidase will not be synthesized
c) Permease will not be synthesized
d) Lactose digestion will be rapid
10. Match the type of Man with their or igin periods and choose the correct answer
Column I Column II
A. Ramapithecus i) 1.5 mya
B. Australopithecines ii) 15 mya
C. Homo erectus iii ) 1, 00, 000 -40,000 years back
D. Neanderthal man iv) 2 mya
v) 3 mya
a) A-i, B -iv, C –iii, D-ii b) A –ii, B- iv, C-i, D – iii
c) A –iii, B- i, C-iv, D- v d) A- iv, B –ii, C –iii, D – v
11. Now a days diseases like dengue and chikungunya are widespread in different parts
of India, to prevent the spread of the disease which vector has to be eliminated
a) Culex b) Anapheles
c) Female anopheles d) Aedes
12. If a patient has undergone myocardial infraction leading to heart attack, to remove clots
from the blood vessels of patient, which enzyme is used by the doctor to treat the patient
a) Pectinase b) streptokinase
c) Protease d) lipase
13. A piece of alien DNA cannot multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism
due to
a) Lack of ori- site b) Denaturation
c) Renaturation d) Incompatibility
14. Hind II cuts DNA molecule by recognizing a specific recognition sequence of
a) 3 base pairs b) 6 base pairs
c) 8 base pairs d) 10 base pairs
15. Given below is a portion of DNA strand giving the bas e sequence on the opposite strand,
what is so special shown in it?
5’-----GAATTC------3’
3’-----CTTAAG------5’
a) Replication completed b) Deletion mutation
c) Start codon at the 5’ d) Palindromic sequence
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/ words from those given below (5x1=5)
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Adaptive radiation, Hormone releasing IUDs, RNA interference,
sacred groves, Bacteria)
16. ___________make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the
sperm.
17. The process of evolution of different species in a gi ven geographical area starting from a
point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called ___________
18. ______________is used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices, to produce ethanol.
19. The phenomenon of silencing of a spec ific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule
that binds to mRNA and prevents translation is ____________.
20. ______________ are the tracts of forest were set aside and all the trees and wildlife within
were venerated and given total protection.

PART -B
III. Answer any five the following questions in 3-5 sentences wherever applicable: 5 x 2 =10
21. What are emergency contraceptives? Write their hormonal combination.
22. List the measure to check the population growth rate.
23. What is haplo-diploid sex determination mechanism? Mention an animal which exhibits
this.
24. Write a note on the role of sigma factor and the rho factor in transcription in prokaryotes.
25. Mention the evolutionary significance of the following organisms.
a) Shrews b) Lobefi ns
26. Write the role of Cyanobacteria that act as biofertilisers.
27. ELISA is one of the methods of molecular diagnosis, what is the principle of this technique?
Name the disease which can be detected by this method.

PART –C
IV. Answer any five of the following question in 40-80 sentences wherever applicable: 5x3=15
28. Draw a labelled diagram of Transverse section of young anther.
29. During pregnancy the level of hormones are increase several fold in the maternal blood.
Name the hormones and write their importance.
30. Draw a labelled diagram of Miller’s experimental set up.
31. The use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic chemicals
and pesticides. Justify with an example.
32. What is Gene therapy? Write the steps involved in curing ADA deficiency by gene therapy.
33. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted. Give reasons.
34. There are many reasons for conserving biodiversity. Briefly explain the reason for
conserving biodiversity from the narro wly utilitarian point of view.

PART- D
V. Answer any four of the following questions in about 200 -250 words each, wherever
applicable: 4 x 5=20
35. Draw a neat labelled diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system.
36. a) Define aneuploidy. Give two examples of aneuploidy. (2M)
b) Mention the karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome of an affected individual and write its
symptoms. (3M)
 37.

a) Identify the polarity of X and Y in the above given diagram and how many more amino
acids are expected to be added to this elongating polypeptide chain (2M)
b) Which sequences of bases are generally found at the X and Y polarity? (1M)
c) Mention the anticodon for alanine and valine amino acids based on the diagram (1M)
d) What is the composition of the catalyst involved in the peptide bond formation in this
process? (1M)
38. List the salient features of Human Genome.
39. What are lymphoid organs? Write the functions of the following in response to
Immune system in our body.
a) Bone marrow b) Thymus c) Spleen d) Lymph nodes.
40. Explain different techniques which help in cancer detection and diagnosis.
41. a) Write three vector free techniques that can be utilized to transfer recombinant
DNA into a ready host cell. (3M)
b) Agrobacterium tumifaciens act as natural vector for cloning genes in plants. Substantiate.
(2M)

VI. Answer any one of the following questions in about 200 -250 words each, wherever
applicable: 1x5=5
42. Picture related to pollination is given below:

a) Will this pollination confirms fertilization? (2M)

b) What are the floral rewards provided by the plants to the insects to revisit? (1M)
c) Mention the characteristics of flower in this pollination other than floral rewards (2M)
43. Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing globin. Explain in detail with respect
to the chromosome, number of genes and alleles and the features.
44. a) Predators are ‘Prudent and conduits’ in Nature. Support your answer by giving reason.
(3M)
 b) To lessen the impact of predation, prey species have evolved different defensive
methods in plants and animals, support your answer by giving one example each for a plant
and an animal. (2M)

PART – E
(FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY)

8. Which of the following is not a recessive gene linked disorder (1M)

a) Myotonic dystrophy b) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Haemophilia d) Colourblindness
37. Explain the aminoacylation of tRNA and formation of initiation complex in translation. (5M)
42. What is pollination? Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers. (5M)

*************************************************
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1
Class : II PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Computer Science (41) Maximum marks : 70
Time : 03 Hrs. No. of Questions: 44
Instructions:
(a) The question paper has Five parts namely A,B,C,D and E.
(b) For Part-A questions, only the first written answers will be considered for
evaluation.
(c) For question having diagram alternate questions are given at the end of the
question paper in a separate section (Part-E) for visually challenged students.
PART – A
Answer ALL the questions, each question carries ONE mark. 20 x 1 = 20
I Select the correct answer from the choices given.
1. How many bits of data USB can transmit ?
(a) 127 bits (b) 12 megabits (c) 16 megabits (d) 128 bits

2. Dual of the expression X + 0 = X is

(a) 𝑋 · 1 = 𝑋 (b) 𝑋 · 0 = 𝑋 (c) X + 1 = X (d) X + 1 = 1

3. Given the logic diagram the output is

(a) 0 (b) 1, 0 (c) 1 (d) 0, 0

4. In one dimensional array if LB = 0 and UB = 10 then array size is

(a) 9 (b) -1 (c) 12 (d) 11

5. Identify the reason for the error in the following program segment
class temp
{
private : int x;
};

void main( )
{
temp t;
cout<<”enter the value of X”;
cin>> t.x;
}
(a) A non member function trying to access protected data member
(b) Member function trying to access private data member
(c) A non member function trying to access public data member
(d) The main function trying to access private data member

6. Assertion (A) : Very efficient code can be generated using inline function.
Reason (R) : Inline function has complex data structure.
(a) Both A and R are false (b) A is true and R is false
(c) A is false and R is true (d) Both A and R are true
7. The symbol used with destructor

(a) . (b) :: (c) ~ (d)

*
8. The combination of any two types of inheritance is called
(a) Single level inheritance (b) Hybrid inheritance
(c) Multiple inheritance (d) Hierarchical inheritance

9. Given int *ptr, x = 100; which is the correct way to assign address of x variable to the pointer
(a) ptr = x; (b) ptr = *x (c) ptr = &x (d) x = ptr;

10. Which of the following is the DBMS software ?

(a) HTML (b)XML (c) DHTML (d) MySQL

11. Identify the DML command

(a) INSERT (b) CREATE (c) DROP (d) ALTER

12. Correct expansion form of IP

(a) Intranet Protocol (b) Internet Protocol
(c) Interconnect Protocol (d) Information Protocol

13. An example for Half Duplex communication mode

(a) Walkie talkie (b) Television (c) Telephone (d) Mobile

14. The nonprofit organization created for the purpose of supporting free software movement
(a) OSI (b) W3C (c) FSF (d) GNU

15. Which one of the following is not a scripting language?

(a) Python (b) XML Script (c) PHP script (d) Java Script

II Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets.
(Secondary, oval, redundancy, datamining, relational, meta data )

16. Data about data is called ________________

17. Data duplication is called _______________

18. ______________ model organize the data in table form

19. The symbol is used to represent attribute in ER diagram is _____________

20. The candidate key which is not currently selected as primary key is called ________________ key
 PART-B

III Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries TWO marks: 4 x 2 =8

21. Prove involution law

22. Realize AND using NOR gate.
23. Mention any two features of parameterized constructor.
24. Differentiate between read( ) and write( )
25. Write any two features of Database System.
26. Explain any two logical operator in SQL.
27. Write the purpose of MAX() and MIN() group functions in SQL.

PART-C

IV Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries THREE marks: 4 x 3 = 12

28. Write a note on Cache memory

29. What is primitive data structure? Explain any two operations on primitive data structure.
30. Define array of pointer. Give suitable example.
31. Write the purpose of seek directions in C++ data file handling
32. Differentiate between manual and electronic data processing
33. Identify the type of e-commerce in the following cases
i. Buying of goods by the distributer from the manufacturer
ii. Buying of goods from Amazon web site
iii. Buying of used car from a owner

34. Write HTML code to create the following table.

Number of classes held 120
Number of classes attended 100

PART-D
V Answer any FOUR questions, each question carries Five marks: 4 x 5 = 20

35. Write an algorithm for enqueue operation.

36. Explain the operations on stack.
37. Mention any three advantages and two disadvantages of OOP.
38. What is function overloading? Explain the need for function overloading.
39. Write the rules for constructor.
40. What is inheritance? Explain Hierarchical and Multiple inheritance
41. Explain different network topologies.
VI Answer any TWO questions, each question carries FIVE marks 2 x 5 = 10

42. Given the Boolean function F(A,B,C, D) =∑(0,2,6,7,8,9,10,11,13 ),

Reduce it using K-map.

43. Define a class time with following members and conditions

i. Data members : hour, minute, seconds
ii. Member functions: getdata() and output()
iii. Define member functions inside the class to input and output hour, minute
and seconds.

44. Write the SQL query for the following questions based on given employee table

Empid Name Age Salary

101 AAA 35 25000
102 BBB 28 18000
103 CCC 30 10000

i) Develop the table with above fields

ii) Display the structure of the table
iii) Find total number of employees
iv) Find the sum of all employee’s salary
v) Display all employee records with age>=15

PART-E

VII (For Visually Challenged Students only)

3. What is the output of the two input NAND gate for the inputs X = 1 and Y =0?

(a) 0 (b) 1, 0 (c) 1 (d) 1, 1

*************
 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-2
Class : II PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Computer Science (41) Maximum marks : 70
Time : 03 Hrs. No. of Questions: 44
Instructions:
(a) The question paper has Five parts namely A,B,C,D and E.
(b) For Part-A questions, only the first written answers will be considered for
evaluation.
(c) For question having diagram alternate questions are given at the end of the
question paper in a separate section (Part-E) for visually challenged students.
PART – A

Answer ALL the questions, each question carries ONE mark. 20 x 1 = 20

I Select the correct answer from the choices given.
1. Which one of the following transfers eight bits of data at a time?
(a) Serial port (b) Parallel port (c) PS/2 (d) USB

2. Idempotent law states that

(a) 𝑋 ∙ 𝑋 = 𝑋 (b) 𝑋 ∙ 0 = 0 (c) X + 1 = 1 (d) 𝑋 = 𝑋

3. Given the logic diagram the output is

(a) 1, 0 (b) 1, 1 (c) 0 (d) 1

4. Statement (A): Array is collection homogenous elements

Statement (B): Array is an example for non-linear data structure

(a) Bothe A and B are True (b) A is False and B is True

(c) A is True and B is False (d) Bothe A and B are False

5. Identify the syntax error in the following program segment

class box
{
private : int x
};

void main( )
{
box b;
}
(a) Error due to semicolon missing after class definition
(b) Error due to semicolon missing at the data member declaration line
(c) Error due to missing public access specifier
(d) Error due to missing protected access specifier
6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to function overloading?
i) Functions name are same
ii) Number of arguments are same
iii) Number of arguments are different
iv) Data types of arguments are different

(a) i) and ii) are correct (b) i), ii) and iii) are correct
(c) i), iii) and iv) are correct (d) ii) and iv) are correct

7. Which constructor does not accept any argument?

(a) Default (b) Parameterized (c) Copy (d) Overloaded

8. Another name of derived class

(a) Main class (b) Super class (c) Base class (d) Sub class

9. Which one of the following is unsupported C++ expression with respect to pointer ptr ?
(a) ptr + 80 (b) ptr++ (c) ptr - 100 (d) ptr * 100;

10. Each column of a table is identified by distinct header called

(a) Record (b) Domain (c) Attribute (d) Tuple

11. Which one of the following command belongs to DQL?

(a) SELECT (b) CREATE (c) DROP (d) UPDATE

12. Correct expansion form of TCP

(a) Transmission Control Program (b) Transfer Control Program
(c) Transfer Control Protocol (d) Transmission Control Protocol

13. An example for Full Duplex communication mode

(a) Radio (b) Television (c) Telephone (d) Walkie talkie

14. Which one of the following is not a web browser

(a) Internet Explorer (b) Netscape Navigator (c) Google Chrome (d) Telnet

15. Who invented the HTML?

(a) Richard Stallman (b) Tim Berners Lee (c) Bruce Perens (d) Erics Raymond

II Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets.
(Diamond, Information, Oracle, Graph, Foreign, Tree )

16. Processed data is called as ______________

17. _______________ an example for DBMS software
18. Hierarchical data model organizes the data in ______________ like structure
19. The _____________ symbol is used to represent relation in ER diagram
20. A _______________ key is a field in the relational table, that matches the primary key column of
another table
 PART-B
III Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries TWO marks: 4 x 2 =8

21. Prove algebraically that 𝑋𝑌 + 𝑋𝑌 = 𝑋

22. Realize OR gate using NOR gate.
23. What is constructor? Give an example.
24. Differentiate between put() and get() functions
25. List any two applications of Databases.
26. Explain any two arithmetic operators in SQL.
27. Compare DELETE and DROP command in SQL.

PART-C
IV Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries THREE marks: 4 x 3 = 12

28. Explain the characteristics of motherboard.

29. What is non-primitive data structure? Give any two examples.
30. What is a pointer? Explain pointer declaration with syntax and example.
31. Write the basic operations performed on binary files in C++
32. Explain three levels of data abstraction.
33. Define i) Proprietary Software ii) WWW iii) e-commerce
34. Write HTML tags
i) To produce link from one web page to another web page
ii) To insert image in a web page
iii) To add background colour to webpage

PART-D
V Answer any FOUR questions, each question carries FIVE marks: 4 x 5 = 20

35. Write an algorithm to perform insertion sort method to sort elements.

36. Explain the operations performed on queue.
37. Write the applications of OOP.
38. What are the characteristics of friend function?
39. Explain destructor with syntax and example.
40. What is inheritance? Explain single level and multilevel inheritance.
41. Give the measures for preventing computer virus.
VI Answer any TWO questions, each question carries FIVE marks 2 x 5 = 10

42. Given the Boolean function F(A,B,C, D) =∑(0,1,3,4,5,7,12,13,15), Reduce it using K-map.
43. Define a class named rectangle with following criteria
1) Data members : length, breadth
2) Member functions: input() and output()
3) Define member functions outside the class to input and output length and breadth of
a rectangle

44. Using given SQL table write the appropriate SQL query

Reg. no. Name DOB Marks

40001 MMMM 15-06-2008 501
40002 NNNN 24-04-2008 325
40003 YYYY 10-07-2009 410
i) To develop the table with above fields
ii) To find total number of students
iii) To find highest marks
iv) To find lowest marks
v) To display all students information

PART-E

VII (For Visually Challenged Students only)

3. What is the output of the two input AND gate for the inputs X = 1 and Y =1 ?

(a) 1 (b) 1, 1 (c) 0 (d) 0, 1

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 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-3
Class : II PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Computer Science (41) Maximum marks : 70
Time : 03 Hrs. No. of Questions: 44
Instructions:
(a) The question paper has Five parts namely A,B,C,D and E.
(b) For Part-A questions, only the first written answers will be considered for
evaluation.
(c) For question having diagram alternate questions are given at the end of the
question paper in a separate section (Part-E) for visually challenged students.

PART – A

Answer ALL the questions, each question carries ONE mark. 20 x 1 = 20

I Select the correct answer from the choices given.
1. Where L1 cache is located?
(a) CPU (b) Memory (c) BIOS (d) Bus

2. Which law is also called as double inversion rule

(a) Complementarity (b) Idempotence (c) Commutative (d) Involution

3. Given the logic diagram the output is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1, 0 (d) 1,1

4. Assertion (A): A Stack is a LIFO data structure
Reason (R): Addition and Deletion of items takes place at same end
(a) A is True and R is correct explanation
(b) A is False and R is correct explanation
(c) A is True and R is False
(d) A is False and R is also False
5. Examine the following C++ program segment, identify the error
class example
{
private : int x;
}

void main( )
{
example p;
}
(a) error due to incorrect object declaration
(b) error due to semicolon missing after class definition
(c) error due missing of public access specifier
(d) error due to invalid initialization of object
6. Statement (A): Friend function is a non member function
Statement (B): It has full access right to the private and protected members of the class

(a) A is True and B is False (b) A is False and B is True

(c) Both A and B are true (d) Both A and B are False

7. Zero argument constructor is

(a) default (b) parameterized (c) copy (d) overloaded

8. if a class is derived from more than one base class then it is called as
(a) Single level inheritance (b) Hierarchical Inheritance
(c) Multiple Inheritance (d) Multilevel Inheritance

9. Which one of the following is valid C++ expression with respect to pointers ptr1 and ptr2 ?

(a) ptr1 + ptr2 (b) ptr1 * ptr2 (c) ptr1 + 5 (d) ptr1 / 8

10. Each row of a table is called

(a) Attribute (b) Record (c) Domain (d) Field

11. Which one of the following command belongs to DDL in SQL?

(a) INSERT (b) CREATE (c) DELETE (d) GRANT

12. Correct expansion form of HTTP

(a) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (b) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(c) Hyper Transfer Transmission Protocol (d) Hyper Transmission Text Protocol

13. An example for simplex communication mode

(a) Walkie talkie (b) Telephone (c) Radio (d) Mobile

14. It refers to the software whose source code is available to customers and it can be modified and
redistributed without any limitations
(a) Proprietary Software (b) Open Source Software

(c) Shareware (d) Free Software Foundation

15. Which of the following is not a text resizing tag

(a) <BIG> (b) <H1> (c) <SMALL> (d) <TR>

II Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets.
(DBMS, Diamond, Data mining, Data, rectangle, Network)

16. The collection of raw facts is called ______________

17. _______________ is a software that allows creation, definition and manipulation of database
18. _______________________data model organizes the data in a graph like structure
19. The _____________ symbol is used to represent entity in ER diagram
20. _______________ is concerned with the analysis and picking out relevant information
 PART-B

III Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries TWO marks: 4 x 2 =8

21. Prove algebraically that X(X+Y) = X

22. Realize OR gate using NAND gate.
23. What is destructor? Write the symbol used for destructor.
24. Differentiate between text and binary files
25. Mention any two DBMS users.
26. Give the difference between char and varchar data types in SQL.
27. Write the syntax and example of INSERT command in SQL

PART-C

IV Answer any FOUR questions. Each question carries THREE marks: 4 x 3 = 12

28. What is UPS? Explain its types.

29. Write the memory representation of row-major matrix elements.
30. What is dynamic memory allocation? Mention the operators used to allocate and deallocate
memory space dynamically.
31. Explain any three file opening modes in data file handling.
32. Write the advantages of random access method file organization.
33. What is e-commerce? Explain any two types of e-commerce
34. Write the HTML tags .
i) To add background colour to webpage
ii) To add a single line break in a web page
iii) To underline the text of the web page

PART-D

V Answer any FOUR questions, each question carries FIVE marks: 4 x 5 = 20

35. Write an algorithm to insert an element in to array.

36. Give any five applications of queue.
37. Define i) Class ii) Object iii) Data abstraction iv) Encapsulation v) Polymorphism
38. What is inline function? Explain with suitable example.
39. Illustrate how to invoke parameterized constructor implicitly
40. Write the advantages of inheritance.
41. Explain network security protection methods.
VI Answer any TWO questions, each question carries FIVE marks 2 x 5 = 10

42. Given the Boolean function F(A,B,C, D) =∑(0,1,2,3,5,8,9,10,11,13), Reduce it using K-map.
43. Define a class named sum with following conditions
i) Data members: X and Y
ii) Member functions: input() and output()
iii) Define member functions outside the class to input and output X and Y values
44. Using given SQL table of electricity bill, write the appropriate SQL query

RRNumber Name Billdate Units Amount

R0001 FFFF 05-08-2024 210 1470
R0002 GGGG 04-08-2024 300 2100
R0003 HHHH 05-08-2024 260 1820

i) To develop the table with above fields

ii) To display the structure of a table
iii) To find total number of customers
iv) To find the total units consumed by all the customers
v) To display all customers records

PART-E

VII (For Visually Challenged Students only)

3. What is the output of the two input NOR gate for the inputs X = 0 and Y =1 ?

(a) 1,1 (b) 1, 0 (c) 0 (d) 1

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