Jee Neet Physics Test 53 Atoms and Nuclai Q
Jee Neet Physics Test 53 Atoms and Nuclai Q
Time : 125 Mins PHYSICS TEST 53 ATOMS AND NUCLAI 1 Marks : 458
1. A sample of a radioactive element has a mass of 10 g at an instant t = 0. The approximate mass of this element
in the sample left after two mean lives is
a) 1.35 g b) 2.50 g c) 3.70 g d) 6.30 g
2. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the
mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after:
a) 60s b) 80s c) 20s d) 40s
27
3. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13 Al and 52 Te
125
is approximately:
a) 6: 10 b) 13: 52 c) 40: 177 d) 14: 73
4. An ionised H-molecule consists of an electron and two protons. The protons are separated by a small distance of
the order of angstrom. In the ground state,
a) the electron would not move in circular orbits b) the energy would be (2)4 times that of a H-atom
c) the molecule will soon decay in to a proton and a H-atom d) none of these
5. A 10 kg satellite circles earth once every 2 h in an orbit having a radius of 8000 km. Assuming that Bohr's angular
momentum postulate applies to a satellite just as it does to an electron in the hydrogen atom, then the quantum
number of the orbit of satellite is
a) 5.3 × 1040 b) 5.3 × 1045 c) 7.8 × 1048 d) 7.8 × 1050
6. Assertion: Isotopes of an element can be separated by using a mass spectrometer.
Reason: Separation of isotopes is possible because of difference in electron number of isotopes.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
7. In the question number 67, find the potential energy of electron (in Joule) in the given state.
a) -4.36 × 10-14 J b) -4.36 × 10-16 J c) -4.36 × 10-17 J d) -4.36 × 10-18 J
8. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively:
a) −3.4eV, −6.8eV b) 3.4eV, −6.8eV c) 3.4eV, 3.4eV d) −3.4eV, −3.4eV
9. According to second postulate of Bohr model, the angular momentum (Ln) of nth possible orbit of hydrogen atom
is given by
h nh 2πn 2π
a) 2πn
b) 2π
c) d)
h nh
10. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium
by :
a) √8 b) 4 c) 2 d) 8
11. Suppose we consider a large number of containers each contaming initially 10000 atoms of a radioactive material
with a half life of 1 year. After 1 year,
a) all the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material.
b)
all the containers will contain the same number of atoms of the material but that number will only be
approximately 5000.
c)
the containers will in general have different number of the atoms of the material but their average will be close
to 5000.
d) none of containers can have more than 5000 atoms.
12. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is
a) equal to one-fourth the circumference of the first orbit b) equal to half the circumference of first orbit
c) equal to twice the circumference of first orbit d) equal to the circumference of the first orbit.
13. In Rutherford scattering experiment, what will be the correct angle for a-scattering for an impact parameter, b =
0?
a) 90o b) 270o c) 0o d) 180o
14. For a nuclear fusion process, the suitable nuclei are:
a) any nuclei b) heavy nuclei c) light nuclei d) nuclei lying in the middle of the periodic table
15. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, its radius is ___________ .
a) Four times, its ground state radius b) Twice, its ground state radius c) Same as its ground state radius
d) Half of its ground state radius
16. Radioactive 60
27
C o is transformed into stable
60
28
N i by emitting two λ -rays of energies:
a) 1.33 MeV and 1.17 MeV in succession b) 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV in succession
c) 1.37 MeV and 1.13 MeV in succession d) 1.13 MeV and 1.37 MeV in succession
17. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment the number of scattered particles detected are maximum and
minimum at the scattering angles respectively at
a) 0° and 180° b) 180° and 0° c) 90° and 180° d) 45° and 90°
18. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as:
a) A2 b) A c) constant d) 1
A
u = 931.5 MeV / C2) and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV, then ___________ .
a) M (A, Z ) = Z Mp + (A − Z )Mn − BE/c2 b) M (A, Z ) = Z Mp + (A − Z )Mn + BE
c) M (A, Z ) = Z Mp + (A − Z )Mn − BE d) M (A, Z ) = Z Mp + (A − Z )Mn + BE/c2
21. O2 molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two atoms:
a) is not important because nuclear forces are short-ranged
b) is as important as electrostatic force for binding the two atoms
c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei
d) is not important because oxygen nucleus has equal number of neutrons and protons
22. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted
illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.15 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is
10 V, the value of n is ____________ .
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
23. The first model of atom in 1898 was proposed by
a) Ernst Rutherford b) Albert Einstein c) J. J. Thomson d) Niels Bohr
24. Two H atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. The maximum amount by which their combined kinetic
energy is reduced is
a) 10.2 eV b) 20.4 eV c) 13.6 eV d) 27.2 eV
25. In an atom the ratio of radius of orbit of electron to the radius of nucleus is
a) 103 b) 104 c) 105 d) 106
26. Solar energy is mainly caused due to :
a) gravitational contraction b) burning of hydrogen in the oxygen c) fission of uranium present in the Sun
d) fusion of protons during synthesis of heavier elements
27. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 2 to the orbit n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength of the emitted
radiations is (R = Rydbery's constant)
16 16 16 16
a) R
b) 3R
c) 5R
d) 7R
28. Energy is absorbed in the hydrogen atom giving absorption spectra when transition takes place from
a) n = 1 → n' where n' > 1 b) n = 2 → 1 c) n' → n d) n → n' = ∞
29. The mass number of iron nucleus is 56, the nuclear density is
a) 2.29 x 1016kg m-3 b) 2.29 x 1017kg m-3 c) 2.29 x 1018kg m-3 d) 2.29 x 1015kg m-3
30. The ground state energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionise H-atom from its second excited state:
a) 1.51 eV b) 3.4 eV c) 13.6 eV d) 12.1 eV
31. Assertion: Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum has many lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission
spectrum, all the series are found.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertionand reason are true but reason is not the correct explanationof assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
32. In a hydrogen atom, the radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn, The graph between log(rn/rl) and logn will be
a) b) c)
d)
34. Plutonium decays with half life of 24000 years. If plutonium is stored for 72000 years, the fraction of it that
remains is
a) 1/8 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 1/2
35. In which of the following Bohr's orbit (n) a hydrogen atom emits the photons of lowest frequency?
a) n = 2 to n = 1 b) n = 4 to n = 2 c) n = 4 to n = 1 d) n = 4 to n = 3
36. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that
the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be:
(m is the mass of the electron, R, Rydberg constant and h Planck's constant)
24hR 25hR 25m 24m
a) 25m
b) 24m
c) 24hR
d) 25hR
37. The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones?
a) 34Se74 , 31 Ga71 b) 38 Sr84 , 38 Sr86 c) 42 Mo 92 , 40 Zr92 d) 20 Ca40 , 16 S
32
38. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is:
a) 1 b) 4 c) 0.5 d) 2
39. If the nuclear radius of 27A1 is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Ferm is:
a) 2.4 b) 1.2 c) 4.8 d) 3.6
4
be the energy of the nth level of H-atom. If all the H -atoms are in the ground state and
−me
40. Let En =
2 2 2
8ε n h
0
45. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is :
a) to control energy released in the reactor b) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
c) to cool the reactor d) to slow down the neutrons to thermal energies.
46. The gravitational force between a H -atom and another particle of mass m will be given by Newton's law: F =
M. m
G where ris in km and
2
r
B
c) M= mproton + melectron d) M = mproton + melectron− 2
(B=13.6eV)
C
55. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitation
energy is ______________ .
a) 3.4 eV b) 6.8 eV c) 10.2 eV d) 0
56. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is 0.3%, then energy released in fusion of 1 kg mass
a) 27 x 1010J b) 27 x 1011J c) 27 x 1012J d) 27 x 1013J
57. The value of ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom is
a) 3.4 eV b) 10.4 eV c) 12.09 eV d) 13.6 eV
62. The variation of decay rate of two radioactive samples A and B with time is shown in figure.
70. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. The kinetic energy of the electron in this state is
a) 2.18 x 10-14J b) 2.18 x 10-16J c) 2.18 x 10-18J d) 2.18 x 10-19J
71. Assertion: Atoms of each element are stable and emit characteristic spectrum.
Reason: The spectrum provides useful information about the atomic structure.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertionand reason are true but reason is not the correct explanationof assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false.
72. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which have their velocity ratio equal to 2: 1 What will be the ratio of
their nuclear size (nuclear radius)?
a) 21/3: 1 b) 1: 21/3 c) 31/2: 1 d) 1: 31/2
73. The Binding energy per nucleon of 73Li and 42He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear
reaction 3Li7+ lHl→2He4 + 3He4+ Q the value of energy Q released is :
a) 8.4 MeV b) 17.3 MeV c) 19.6 MeV d) - 2.4 MeV
74. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (H elium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be
[given K = 9 × 109 constant, Z=2 and h (Plank's Constant) = 6.6 × 10−34 J s−1 ]
a) 1.46 × 106 m/s b) 0.73 × 106 m/s c) 3.0 × 108 m/s d) 2.92 × 106 m/s
75. In a sample of radioactive material, what fraction of the initial number of active nuclei will remain undisintegrated
after half of the half life of the sample?
a) 1
b) 1
c) 1
d) √2 − 1
4 2√2 √2
76. In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the neutrons which come out in a fission process. The moderator
used have light nuclei. Heavy nuclei will not serve the purpose because
a) they will break up. b) elastic collision of neutrons with heavy nuclei will not slow them down.
c) the net weight of the reactor would be unbearably high.
d) substances with heavy nuclei do not occur in liquid or gaseous state at room temperature.
2
77. The inverse square law in electrostatics is ∣∣F ⃗∣∣ for the force between an electron and a proton. The
e
=
2
(4πε0 ).r
dependence of ∣∣F ⃗∣∣ can be understood in quantum theory as being due to the fact that the 'particle' of light
1
( )
r
energy (eV) of a H-atom if mp were 10-6 times the mass of an electron. (rB = Bohr's radius)
a) 18.6 λ rB b) -27.2 c) 27.2 λ rB d) -λ rB
78. The ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is
_____________ .
3 7 9 5
a) 23
b) 29
c) 31
d) 27
86. Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen whose nucleus triton contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton. Free neutrons decay
into p +¯e 3
+ v . If one of the neutrons in triton decays, it would transform into He nucleus. This does not happen.
¯
¯ ¯
¯¯
This is because
a) Triton energy is less than that of a He3nucleus.
b) the electron created in the beta decay process cannot remain in the nucleus.
c)
both the neutrons in triton have a decay simultaneously resulting in a nucleus with 3 protons, which is not a He3
nucleus.
d) because free neutrons decay due to external perturbations which is absent in a triton nucleus.
87. Assertion: There occurs a chain reaction when uranium is bombarded with slow neutrons.
Reason: When uranium is bombarded with slow neutrons more neutrons are produced.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
88. The wavelength of radiation emitted is λ0 when an electron jumps from the third to second orbit of hydrogen
atom. For the electron jumping from the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the wavelength of
radiation emitted will be
a) (16/25)λ0 b) (20/27)λ0 c) (27/20)λ0 d) (25/16)λ0
89. When a uranium isotop 235
92
U is bombareded with a neutron, it generates
89
36
Kr, three neutrons and:
a) 103
36
Kr b) 144
56
Ba c) 91
40
Zr d) 101
36
Kr
90. A fraction f1 of a radioactive sample decays in one mean life, and a fraction f2 decays in one half life. Then
a) f1>f2 b) f12 c) f1=f2 d) either of (a), (b) or (c) depending on the values of the mean life and half life.
91. Which of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?
a) Plutonium b) Cadmium c) Heavy water d) Uranium
92. According to Bohr's theory, the wave number of last line of Balmer series is (R = 1.1 × 107 m-1)
a) 5.5 × 105 m-1 b) 4.4 ×107 m-1 c) 2.75 × 106 m-1 d) 2.75 × 108 m-1
93. When an electron jumps from L to K shell :
a) Energy is absorbed b) Energy is released c) Energy is sometimes absorbed and sometimes released
d) Energy is neither absorbed nor released
94. The decay constant, for a given radioactive sample, is 0.3465 day-1. What percentage of this sample will get
decayed in a period of 4 days?
a) 100% b) 50% c) 75% d) 10%
95. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state:
a) PE decreases and KE increases b) PE increases and KE decreases c) Both KE and PE decrease
d) Absorption spectrum
96. The fission properties of 239
94
P u are very similar to those of
235
92
U . The average energy released per fission
100. A sample has 4 x 1016 radioactive nuclei of half life 10 days. The number of atoms decaying in 30 days is:
a) 3.9 x 1016 b) 5 X 1015 c) 1016 d) 3.5 x 1016
101. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 h emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible
safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source is
a) 128 h b) 24 h c) 6 h d) 12 h
102. In a Geiger-Marsden experiment. Find the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV a-particle
before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction. (Z for gold nucleus = 79)
a) 10 fm b) 20 fm c) 30 fm d) 40 fm
103. Assertion: Bohr's postulate states that the electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate.
Reason: According to classical physics, all moving electrons radiate.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertionand reason are true but reason is not the correct explanationof assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If both assertion and reason are false.
104. If E is the energy of nth orbit of hydrogen atom the energy of nth orbit of He atom will be
a) E b) 2E c) 3E d) 4E
105. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of
charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is
a) Directly proportional to Z1 Z2 b) Inversely proportional to Z1 c) Directly proportional to mass M1
d) Directly proportional to M1 × M2
106. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En, then the energy in nth orbit of single ionised helium atom will be
_____________ .
a) 4En b) En/4 c) 2En d) En/2
107. A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron and:
a) a beta particle b) an alpha particle c) an anti-neutrino d) a neutrino
o
108. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of hydrogen is 6561 A , the wavelength of the second line of
the series should be
o o o o
120. The half life of radium is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after
_____________ .
a) 3200 years b) 4800 years c) 6400 years d) 2400 years
∘
121. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of 1 = 975 A . Numbér of spectral lines
in the resulting spectrum emitted will be _____________ .
a) 3 b) 2 c) 6 d) 10
122. The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about:
a) 1015 b) 101 c) 105 d) 1010
123. In Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first four lines with different wavelength Hα 'Hβ ,H γ and H8 are
obtained. Which line has maximum
frequency out of these?
a) Hα b) Hβ c) Hγ d) H8
124. How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the fusion
reaction as 21 H +21 H →32 H e + n + 3.27MeV
a) 2.4 x 106 years b) 7.4 x 104 years c) 1.6 x 106 years d) 4.9 x 104 years
125. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes. Initially, the
samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes the ratio of remaining 'numbers of A and B
nuclei is :
a) 1: 16 b) 4: 1 c) 1: 4 d) 1: 1