lOMoARcPSD|27174083

OPME003

Operations (Institute of Management Technology, Ghaziabad)

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1: A Project monitoring system involves all of the following except

a—Determining what data to collect

b—Determining how, when, and who will collect the data

c—Adjusting the data

d—Analysis of the data

2: The most common circumstance for project closure is

a—Premature completion with some features eliminated

b—Project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality

c—Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality

d—Project termination due to technical difficulties

3: Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?

a—Ratio/range analysis

b—Decision tree

c—Pert simulation

d—Pert

4: People working on prototype development needing time to interact with the design engineers after
the design is completed is a good example of

a-- Hidden interaction costs.

b—Things going wrong on a project

c—Normal condition not applying

d—Changes in project scope

5: A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk.

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a--Profile

b--Questionnaire

c--Research

d--Query

6: Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most of the costs are

a-- Materials

b-- Labor

c--Overhead

d-- Evenly spread over materials, labor, and overhead

7: Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact,
responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called

a---Management reserves

b—Change control

c---Contingency reserves

d—Risk register

8: ______ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection
criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria

a—Process review

b—Project overview

c—Analysis

d—Recommendation

9: which of the following is the most common method for shortening project time?

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a—Assigning additional staff and equipment

b—Subcontract of work

c—Schedule overtime

d—Reduce project scope

10: which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?

a—Risk response development

b—Risk assessment

c—Risk identification

d—Risk tracking

11: which one of the following best describes users

a--Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

b-- Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

c--Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

d--Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

12: which of the following statement best describes the use of an issue log

a—A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue

b-- A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status

c—A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues

d—A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to

13: The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed

a--Total slack

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b--Free slack

c--Critical float

d--Float pad

14: The optimum duration for a project is at the point where

a--The project changes from time-constrained to resource-constrained

b--Indirect costs are the lowest

c--Direct costs are the lowest

d-- Total project costs are the lowest

15: which of the following represents an activity on an aon project network

a-- An arrow

b-- A line

c-- A node

d—A line and node

16: All of the following are kinds of resource constraints except

a-- Materials

b-- People

c-- Equipment

d—Information

17: Organizational culture is best explained as organizational

a--Personality

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b--Hierarchy

c-- Reporting relationships

d-- Background

18: Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Have project accounts
been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered

a—Team

b—Vendors/contractors

c—Customers/users

d—Equipment and facilities

19: which one of the following statements best defines procurement

a-- A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.

b--A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.

c--The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.

d-The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

20: Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

a-- Management

b--Leadership

c--Monitoring

d--Corrective action

21: which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder

a—A party who is concerned about the project going ahead

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b—A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project

c—A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project

d—A party who has a financial stake in the organization managing the project

22: Technical risks are

a—Often the kind that can cause the project to be shut down

b—Problematic

c—Imposed duration dates

d—Can cause project to shut down and problematic

23: Mega Computers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams. The

managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis. The structure

being used is ________ organization.

a--Functional

b--Balanced matrix

c-- Weak matrix

d—Project

24: In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should be compared to:

a-- Budgets for the current year

b--Top management's targets

c--Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS

d-- Progress on similar past projects

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25: Information on the project type, size, number of staffs, and technology level would be included in
which section of the audit report?

a—Analysis

b—Recommendations

c—Classification of project

d—Lessons learned

26: the assessment of the external and internal environments is called ------- analysis

a—Swot analysis

b—Competitive

c—Industry

d—Market

27: Generally, the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing

a-- Earned value with the expected schedule value

b--Earned value with the actual cost

c— Actual costs with budgeted costs

d-- Both A & B

28: Resource leveling can provide

a--Lower peak demand

b--Reduced resource need over the life of the project

c--Reduced fluctuations in resource demand

d--All of these

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29: Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is called

a--Normal

b--Premature

c--Perpetual

d--Failed Project

30: Once a change has been repeated what is the next step in the change control process?

a—Evaluate the change

b—Advise the sponsor

c—Update the change log

d—Update the project plan

31: which one of the following best describes project management?

a--Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects

b-- Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

c--Utilizing team members who can work on a project full time.

d--Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle

32: Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource

a--Demands

b--Increases

c--Assumptions

d—Utilization

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33: Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager

a--to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

b--to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

c--to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

d--to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

34: The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically advanced
software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by.

a—Imposed project deadlines

b—Time to market

c—Unforeseen project delays

d—High overhead

35: Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used
typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.

a—Analysis

b—Recommendations

c—Classification of project

d—Lessons learned

36: Which of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organization

a-- It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

b-- It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specializes in managing change.

c--It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

d--It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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37: The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the

a—Analysis

b—Recommendations

c—Classification of project

d—Lessons learned

38: In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical correctness
are part of ______ related currencies

a—Task

b—Position

c—Inspiration

d—Relationship

39: What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called

a—A gantt chart

b—A critical path network

c—A product flow diagram

d—A pareto chart

40: Splitting an activity creates the following situation

a--More people working on the same activity

b--There are possible startup and shutdown costs

c—A resource may be moved from one activity to another and then back

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d—Both possibility of start up and shutdown costs and resource may be moved from one activity to

another and then back

41: In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the
creation of forecasts

a--Conceptualizing

b--Defining

c--Planning

d—Executing

42: Adverse weather, design flaws, and equipment breakdown can create negative slack. This is an
example of reducing project duration caused by:

a--Imposed project deadlines

b--Time to market

c--Unforeseen project delays

d-High overhead

43: which one of the following best describes benefit

a—A positive result of stakeholder management

b—The successful management of a project

c—An improvement resulting from project deliverables

d—The successful delivery of project reports and updates

44: A cost breakdown structure (cbs) shows costs assigned to

a--individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

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b--individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

c--individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

d--individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

45: The risk assesment from contain all of the following except

a—Likelihood of the risk event occurring

b—Potential impact of the risk event

c—Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event

d—Difficult of detecting the occurrence of the risk event

46: Which of the following is NOT one of the tips for alleviating communication problems of virtual
teams?

a—Include face -to-face time if at all possible

b—Keep team members informed on bow well the overall project is going

c—Share the pain

d—Establish clear norms and protocols for surfacing assumptions and conflicts

47: Which of the following is an advantage of functional project management organization

a—Maximum flexibility in the use of staff

b—Good integration across functional units

c—Shorter project duration

d—Strong motivation of project team members

48: which one of the following is a valid project key performance indicator (kpi)

a—Staff appraisals

b—Management buy in

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c—Milestone achievement

d—Master schedule

49: Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except

a--Getting delivery acceptance from the customer.

b--Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses.

c--Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid.

d--E-mailing the project team that the project is complete.

50: which of the following is not true regarding scope creep

a—It is common late in projects

b—It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed

c—It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness

d—Project suppliers resent frequent changes

51: A key aspect of managing a project involves

a—Defining which operational systems to put in place

b—Identifying routine tasks

c—Ensuring on going operation are maintained

d—Planning to achieve defined objectives

52: Project closure can fall into all of the following categories except

a—Premature

b—Perpetual

c—Failed

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d—All of these are categories for project closure

53: A new holistic approach in new commercial product development effect is known as

a—Scrum

b—Specific project management

c—Traditional project management

d—Prioritized wbs

54: Cost slope can be determined by dividing the

a--Run by the rise

b--Rise by the run

c--Crash cost by the normal cost

d--Normal cost by the crash cost

55: All projects should be aligned with their organizations strategic plan, which includes the
organizations vision goals and objectives. Which of these is the definition of a vision statement?

a—Conveys a large sense of organizational purpose, and is both inspiring and guiding

b—Describes short- and long-term results along with measures to determine if they have been achieved

c—Includes the organization core purpose, core value, beliefs, culture, primary business and primary
customers

d—Is smart specific, measurable, achievable, results based and time specific

56: What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of which process:

a-- Sequence Activities

b-- Define Activities

c-- Develop Schedule

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d-- Control Schedule

57: The backward pass in project network calculations determines the

a-- Latest time's activities can begin

b-- Earliest time's activities can be finished

c--Critical path

d—Latest time activities can begin and critical path

58: An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

a--the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

b-- technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

c--lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

d-- the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

59: Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except

a--Track all changes that are to be implemented

b--Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally

c--Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget

d--All of these

60: Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She
estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management typically
insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that reduction.
Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation?

a--Padding estimates

b--Planning horizon

c--Project structure

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d--People

61: An earned value system used to monitor project progress includes comparison of

a--Actual costs versus budget

b--Schedule progress versus plan

c--Quality progress versus plan

d--Both A and B are correct

62: Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multi
project resources?

a—Overall schedule slippage

b—Inefficient resource utilization

c—Resource bottlenecks

d—All of these

63: The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to

a--Slowly rise

b--Drop sharply and then level out

c--Rise sharply and then level out

d--Remain about the same

64: When developing a new software package, the software must be designed, the code must be
written, and the code must be tested. This is an example of a ---------constraint

a—Physical

b—Technical

c—Resource

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d—Schedule

65: Most of the project manager's external communication comprises:

a-- Written documents

b-- Oral communication

c-- Tactile contact

d-- Informal contact

66: The Risk Management Plan, which is the outcome of the process Plan Risk Management includes all
except

a-- Methodology

b-- Roles and Responsibilities

c-- Budgeting

d-- Tracking

67: The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables
and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or
standards is called:

a-- Plan Quality Management

b-- Control Quality

c-- Perform Quality Assurance

d-- Both A & B

68: What is the term used for processes that are required to ensure timely and appropriate planning,
collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management , control monitoring, and the ultimate
disposition of project information?

a-- Project Communications Management

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b-- Project Scope Management

c--Project Procurement Management

d-- Project Integration Management

69: Approximately what percentage of the project manager''s time is spent in some form of
communication, such as: conferences, meetings, writing memos, reading and preparing reports, and
talking with project team members, upper management, and all other stalk holders?

a-- 10-20%

b-- 50-70%

c-- 75-90%

d-- 21-45%

70:- Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project
Scheduling technique:

a-- Critical Path Method

b-- Schedule Compression

c-- What-if Analysis

d-- Resource Leveling

71: which one of the following is true about for the project management plan

a—The project management plan is developed by the project manager and term and owned by the
sponsor

b—A draft of the project management plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the
business case

c—The project management plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager

d—the Project management plan is developed by the project manager and team owned by the project
manager

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72: During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of
what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain detailed
descriptions of work packages?

a-- Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

b-- Activity list

c-- Preliminary project scope statement

d-- Project scope management plan

73: Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

a-- The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

b-- Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase

c-- The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.

d-- All the above statements are correct.

74: Project Cost Control excludes?

a-- Bringing expected cost overruns within acceptable limits

b-- Establish the earned value management techniques

c-- Monitoring Cost Performance

d-- Informing appropriate stakeholders

75: The critical element in a project's communication system is the:

a-- Progress report

b-- Project directive

c-- Project manager

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d-- Customer

76: Root Cause Analysis relates to:

a-- Process Analysis

b-- Quality Audits

c-- Quality Control Measurements

d-- Performance Measurements

77: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing
changes to the cost baseline is called

a-- Determine Budget

b-- Control Costs

c-- Estimate Costs

d-- Plan Cost Management

78: The project manager is considering contracting some of the work of the project to a service bureau.
The service bureau has been used in the past by this project manager. The manager has several choices
of contracts that can be used to subcontract this work. Which of the following is not a type of contract
that the project manager might choose?

a-- Firm fixed price

b-- Make or buy

c-- Cost plus incentive fee

d-- Unit price

79: Which of the following has the greatest effect on product's reliability and maintenance
characteristic?

a-- quality

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b-- product design

c-- pricing

d-- a and b

80: The measure along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a
specific interest. Below that, the organization will accept the risk, and above this measure the
organization will not accept the risk. It is known as

a-- Risk Threshold

b-- Risk Appetite

c-- Risk Tolerance

d-- None

81: The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of communications are
there between these stakeholders?

a--9

b-- 8

c-- 45

d-- 36

82: A project manager's main responsibility in a project meant to create a product is: :

a-- Ensuring it is high grade

b-- Ensuring it is high quality

c-- Creating a product within allocated cost and schedule

d-- To pack exciting features in the product

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83: In PDM, which of the following relationships is rarely used:

a-- Finish-to-Start

b-- Start-to-Finish

c-- Start-to-Start

d-- Finish-to-Finish

84: A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team
randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:

a-- Inspection

b-- Statistical Sampling

c-- Flowcharting

d-- Control Charting

85: Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:

a-- Define Activities

b-- Sequence Activities

c-- Estimate Activity Resources

d-- Estimate Activity Durations

86: The contingency budget will:

a-- Reduce the probability of scope changes.

b-- Reduce the probability of cost overruns.

c-- Increase the probability of a cost overrun.

d-- Increase the probability of scope changes

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87: Omar, a project manager in a construction company is preparing for a meeting with the stakeholders
to update them about the status of the project after the monitoring and controlling of the project work.
For the information, Omar will access automated tools such as performance indicators, databases,
financials, or resourcing tools through:

a-- Project Management Information System

b-- Management Information System

c-- Organizational process Assets.

d-- Project Charter.

88: The total amount of risk that is calculated for a project is found by

a-- Multiplying the sum of each the risk times the amount at stake

b-- Calculating the cumulative sum of the probability for each risk and multiplying this value times the
consequence of occurrence of the risk events

c-- Cannot be calculated since all risks are not known

d-- The amount of project reserves available

89: When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see she has scheduled a
meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed of. The best approach would be to:

a-- avoid mentioning it to the team member but continue to watch her activities.

B-- notify your boss about the problem.

c-- address the concern with the team member's boss.

d-- address the concern with the team member.

90: Which of the following is not an activity attribute:

a-- Person responsible for the activity

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b-- Location where to perform the activity

c-- Time when to perform the activity

d-- Leads and Lags

91: The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed is known as:

a-- Planned Value

b-- Aggregated Planned Value

c-- Budget at Completion

d--Estimate at Completion

92: The inputs used in the process of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes all except

a-- Scope Baseline

b-- Risk Register

c-- Quality Management Plan

d-- Risk Management Plan

93: The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project
activities is known as

a-- Estimate Costs

b-- Determine Budget

c-- Both A & B

d-- None of the above

94: The processes involving planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and
controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget fall under

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a--Project Cost Management

b-- Project Management Process

c-- Project Scope Management

d-- Project Integration Management

95: The process under Process Risk Management that prioritizes risks for further analysis or action by
assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact is called

a-- Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis

b-- Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

c-- Plan Risk Management

d-- Plan Risk Responses

96: The tools and techniques used in the process of Determine Budget includes all but

a-- Cost Aggregation

b-- Cost of Quality

c-- Expert Judgement

d-- Historical Relationships

97: The name for the tool used in Perform Quality Assurance to represent decomposition hierarchies
such as the WBS (work breakdown structure), RBS (risk breakdown structure), and OBS (organizational
breakdown structure) is:

a-- Tree Diagrams

b-- Process decision program charts (PDPC)

c-- Affinity Diagrams

d-- Matrix Diagrams

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98: All of the following are the responsibility of a project manager EXCEPT?

a-- Maintain the confidentiality of customer confidential information.

b-- Determine the legality of company procedures.

c-- Ensure that a conflict of interest does not compromise the legitimate interest of the customer.

d-- Provide accurate and truthful representations in cost estimates

99: Trend Analysis is often performed using:

a-- Cause and Effect Diagram

b-- Run Chart

c-- Histogram

d-- Pareto Chart

100: A Pareto diagram can be best described as:

a-- Cause and Effect Diagram

b-- Scatter

c-- Bar Digram

d-- Histogram

101: Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

a-- Project Manager who created the WBS

b-- Project Team Members responsible for the work package

c-- Project Officer

d-- Project Stakeholder

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102: Work performance data, quality checklists, quality metrics, and the project management plan are:

a-- Inputs to control quality.

b-- Outputs from control quality.

c-- Inputs to perform quality assurance.

d-- Outputs of perform quality assurance.

103: Which of the following process is not included in project communication knowledge area?

a-- Control Communications

b-- Plan Communications Management

c-- Manage Communications

d-- Manage Stakeholder Expectations

104: At which stage, in a typical project do stakeholders have maximum influence?

a-- Initial stage

b-- Middle stage

c-- Final stage

d-- Shareholders have similar influence at all stages

105: Which of the following fit the category of external risks?

a-- Project delays, budget under-runs, movement of city utilities

b-- Regulatory, currency changes, taxation

c-- Natural disasters, regulatory, design

d-- Inflation, design, social impact

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106: A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example
of:

a-- ADM

b-- PDM

c-- A dependency with lag

d-- A dependency with lead

107: At which stage, does a typical project has maximum cost?

a-- Initial stage

b-- Middle stage

c-- Final stage

d-- Cost is same at all stages.

108: Which one of the following is not an input used in the process of Estimate Costs?

a-- Scope Baseline

b-- Human Resource Management plan

c-- Cost Management Plan

d-- Project Funding Requirements

109: A risk is defined as ____________ event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative
effect on one or more project______________.

a-- indefinite, probabilities

b-- uncertain, objectives

c-- sure, goals

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d-- definite, uncertainties

110: When is the risk and uncertainty in a project's life cycle at the highest?

a-- start

b-- design

c-- closing

d-- implementation

111: A project team has completed, and the customer has accepted, the completed project scope.
However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed.
What is the status of the project?

a-- The project is incomplete because the project needs to be re-planned.

b-- The project is incomplete until all the activities required for closing a project are completed.

c-- The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables.

d-- The project is complete because the project has reached the due date.

112: The float of an activity is determined by:

a-- performing a Monte Carlo analysis.

b-- the waiting time between activities.

c-- determining lag.

d-- determining the amount of time the activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path.

113: Process Analysis is a function of:

a-- Performance Analysis

b-- Quality Metrics

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c-- Process Improvement Plan

d-- Quality Improvement Plan

114: A new project that was initiated, involved new technology and had never been done before. What
type of contract would the owner want to issue to reduce or eliminate as much risk as possible?

a-- fixed price

b-- Cost plus fix fee

c-- Cost plus incentive fee

d-- Time and Material

115: The results of the Plan Communications Management Process should be reviewed regularly
throughout the project and revised as needed to ensure continued applicability. The statement is

a-- TRUE

b-- FALSE

c-- Incorrect as the plan cannot change without approval

d-- Not completely true as it is not possible to review the plan frequently

116: The process control charts are used:

a-- to determine whether a process is or not

b-- to detect the problem

c-- to reject the problem

d-- to determine the acceptability of the work product

117: Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

a-- Scope

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b-- Resources

c-- Team

d-- Budget

118: A Project Manager is preparing a Project Schedule network diagram. During the diagram
development, she removes a dependency between two tasks that was defined in an earlier stage. After
the network diagram is completed, she updates activity attributes for the two tasks. This is an example
of:

a-- Define Activities

b-- Sequence Activities

c-- Develop Schedule

d-- Lack of change control

119: You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently provides deliverables
late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to continue accepting late deliverables in
exchange for a decrease in project costs. This offer is an example of:

a-- confronting.

b—compromise

c-- smoothing.

d-- forcing.

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OPME003 - Answer Key

1 C 21 B 41 D 61 D 81 D 101 B
2 C 22 A 42 C 62 D 82 B 102 A
3 A 23 D 43 B 63 A 83 B 103 D
4 A 24 C 44 A 64 B 84 B 104 A
5 A 25 C 45 C 65 A 85 A 105 B
6 B 26 A 46 A 66 D 86 B 106 D
7 D 27 D 47 A 67 A 87 A 107 B
8 A 28 D 48 C 68 A 88 B 108 D
9 A 29 D 49 D 69 C 89 D 109 B
10 C 30 C 50 A 70 D 90 C 110 A
11 B 31 D 51 D 71 D 91 C 111 B
12 B 32 D 52 D 72 A 92 C 112 D
13 A 33 B 53 A 73 A 93 A 113 C
14 D 34 A 54 B 74 B 94 A 114 A
15 C 35 A 55 D 75 C 95 A 115 A
16 D 36 A 56 C 76 A 96 B 116 A
17 A 37 D 57 B 77 B 97 A 117 C
18 B 38 C 58 D 78 B 98 B 118 D
19 D 39 A 59 D 79 D 99 B 119 B
20 B 40 D 60 A 80 A 100 D

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Project Management OPME003

Service operations management (Institute of Management Technology, Ghaziabad)

Scan to open on Studocu

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OPME003- PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1: Who has the ultimate responsibility for Project Risk:
Ans: Project Manager

2: Which one of the following illustrates why effective Project Management is beneficial to an
organization
Ans: It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a PM.

3: Resource levelling can provide:

Ans: All of these

4: Which one of the following best describes users:

Ans: Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs

5: Which one of the following statements best defines procurement:

Ans: The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

6: Information on the project type, size, number of staffs, and technology level would be included in
which section of the audit report:
Ans: Classification of project

7: The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the:
Ans: Lessons learned

8: In an agile life cycle model:

Ans: The team is self-directed

9: Top-down estimates are most likely to occur during the ______ phase:
Ans: Concept

10: A key aspect of managing a project involves:

Ans: Planning to achieve defined objectives

11: Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact,
responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called:
Ans: Risk Register

12: Performance evaluation of project teams should:

Ans: Both provide the basis for individual development and basis for salary increase.

13: Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of:

Ans: Start to Start lags

14: Which one of the following is not one of the steps in facilitating group decision making:
Ans: analyzing the situation

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15: All of the following are part of the agile project management model EXCEPT:
Ans: Design up front

16: A good project management system provides for defining the interface between the project team
and the organization in all the following areas except:
Ans: Development of project team members

17: Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network:

Ans: A node

18: Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is called:
Failed Project

19: Project costs are typically viewed from all of the following except:
Ans: Sunk

20: When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
Ans: The capability is now in place for the benefits to be realized

21: Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP):

Ans: PM (project manager)

22: The Chief Projects Officer's or PMO's responsibilities might include:

Ans: Ensuring enough resources are available to perform the project.

23: An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project
objectives is termed a:
Ans: Risk

24: Which each of these Agile principles: Test assumptions early and build working prototypes to solicit
customer feedback and refine product requirements:
Ans: Experimentation and adaptation

25: Which of the following is not considered a project indirect cost:

Ans: Equipment

26: Which of the following is NOT one of the tips for alleviating communication problems of virtual
teams:
Ans: Include face to face time if at all possible

27: A person who acts on behalf of customers to represent their interests is called a:
Ans: Product Owners
28: A portfolio can be defined as a:
Ans: a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organization

29: Which of the following would be considered the MOST effective project reward:
Ans: all expenses paid trip for members and their family

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30: The cost variance for a project is calculated by:

Ans: EV-AC

31: Mega Computers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams. The
managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis. The structure
being used is ________ organization:
Ans: Project

32: The project structure that is ranked as least effective is _______ organization:
Ans: functional

33: Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the work accomplished to
date:
Ans: EV/PV

34: Which structure shows the reporting relationships & communications channels for a project:
Ans: Work Breakdown Structures (WBS)

35: The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____ analysis:
Ans: Scenario

36: Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the risk management process
Ans: Analyzing the situations

37: An organization breakdown structure is used to identify:

Ans: the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

38: Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks:
Ans: Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed

39: Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization:

Ans: Maximum flexibility in the use of staff

40: The accuracy of an estimate should:

Ans: Increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

41: What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called:
Ans: A Gantt chart.

42: Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project:

Ans: Only for internal use

43: Which of the following is not true regarding scope creep:

Ans: It is when the cost of the project is more than expected

44: In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member's area
manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance:
Ans: Functional organization

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45: The optimum duration for a project is at the point where:

Ans: Total project costs are the lowest

46: Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except:
Ans: All of these

47: In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, being involved in a task that has a large
significance or having a chance to do something important and do it well are examples of ______ related
currencies:
Ans: Inspiration

48: Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

Ans: Leadership

49: A new holistic approach in new commercial product development efforts is known as:
Ans: Scrum

50: The approach that begins with a top-down estimate for the project and then refines estimates as the
project is implemented is known as ______ method:
Ans: Phase estimating

51: An Earned Value System used to monitor project progress includes comparison of:
Ans: Both actual cost versus budget & scheduled progress versus plan

52: In the scrum development process a specific feature is:

Ans: All of these

53: A project monitoring system involves all of the following except:

Ans: Adjusting the data

54: Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process
Ans: Evaluate the change

55: The main purpose of the project management plan is to:

Ans: Document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for
managing the project

56: Which of these is NOT part of the "technical dimension" of project management:
Ans: Problem solving

57: The most common circumstances for project closure is:

Ans: Project completion, meeting costs, schedule & quality

58: The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of budgeted amounts is
calculated by which of the following:
Ans: EV/BAC

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59: Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used
typically appear in the ______________ section of the final project report:
Ans: Analysis

60: The first step in facilitating group decision making is to:

Ans: Identify the problem.

61: The content of the final report typically includes the following topics:
Ans: All of these

62: Which one of the following best describes project success criteria:
Ans: Measures by which the success of the project is judged

63: A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:
Ans: Gate review

64: Organizational culture is best explained as organizational:

Ans: Personality

65: Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Ans: overall project duration.

66: Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure:
Ans: All of these

67. the content of the final report typically includes the following topics:
Ans: all of these

68 Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder

Ans: A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project

69 which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project
definition phase?
Ans: Costs

70 Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except:
Ans: All of these are categories for project closure

71Scope creep affects

Ans: All of these

72 Which of the following will calculate the estimated cost to complete the project?
Ans: (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)

73Which one of the following is true for the project management plan (pmp)?
Ans: The project management plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the
sponsor

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74Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Ans: To deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realized

75 Generally the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing

Ans: Both A and B are correct

76 Baseline project budgets are derived from:

Ans: Time-phasing the work packages

77Which one of the following best describes project management?

Ans: Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects

78 The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed
Ans: total slack

79Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
Ans: What do we want to become?

80All of the following are included in the risk identification process except
Ans: Competitors

82 Which one of the following is a valid project key performance indicator (kpi)?
Ans: Milestone achievement

83 All projects should be aligned with their organization's strategic plan, which includes the
organization's vision, goals and objectives. Which of these is the definition of a vision statement
Ans: Conveys a large sense of organizational purpose, and is both inspiring and guiding

84 The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

Ans: Identify project risks and then manage them appropriately

85 In mapping dependencies for a project, the project manager should:

Ans: Overestimate

86 The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically advanced
software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by:
Ans: Imposed project deadlines

87 Which of the following is not one of the distinguishing traits of character?

Ans: Hard work

88 Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multi
project resources?
Ans: All of these

89 The critical path in a project network is the

Ans: Longest path through the network

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90 Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except:

Ans: E-mail the project team that the project is complete.

91 Establishing a team identity is facilitated by:

Ans: All of these

92 Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand on resources is known as resource

Ans: Smoothing

93 Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Ans: Risk owner

94 Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?

Ans: Ratio/range analysis

95 The new perspective of project management emphasizes which of the following?

Ans: Managing project stakeholders

96 Adequate project controls have the advantage(s) of:

Ans: all of these

97 All of the following are kinds of resource constraints except

Ans: Information

98 A cost breakdown structure (cbs) shows costs assigned to:

Ans: individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

99 Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used
typically appear in the section of the final project report.
Ans: Analysis

100 The phases ofa project life cycle are

Ans: Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations

101 Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations A where most of the costs are
Ans: Labor

102 A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk
Ans: profile

103 Cost slope can be determined by dividing the

Ans: rise by the run

104 Under which heading of the wrap-up closure checklist should the question "have project accounts
been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered
Ans: Vendors/contractors

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105. Which of the following stages are likely to find status reports, many changes and the creation of
forecast?
Ans: Execution

106. Janet’s is forecasting how much money her departments needs to support a new project. She
estimates that two people and 25000 in expenses will cover her need…..?
Ans: Padding estimate

107. Bottom-up approach for estimating times and costs that uses cost from past projects that were
similar to the current project is known as?
Ans: Template Method

108.Configuration Management is best described as?

Ans: Creation, maintenance and….

109. An organization breakdown structure is used to identify?

Ans: Lines of communication and….

110. Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization?

Ans: Maximum flexibility in the use of staff

111. MegaComputers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams.
The managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis. The
structure being used is ________ organization.
Ans: Project

112. Elizabeth is considering how to structure a project team that will not directly disrupt ongoing
operations. The project needs to be done quickly and a high level of motivation will be needed in
order to do that. For this situation, the ______ organization would be the best choice.
Ans: Project

113. A project management system provides a framework for launching and implementing project
activities within a ______ organization.
Ans: Parent

114. In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the functional
managers?
Ans: Weak matrix

115. Matrix management violates the management principle of

Ans: Unity of command

116. The project structure that is ranked as least effective is _______ organization
Ans: Functional

117. From the list below, which is not a primary characteristic of organization culture?
Ans: History

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118. Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a matrix project management
structure?
Ans: The functional manager

119. The Macintosh development team at Apple is a good example of what kind of project
structure?
Ans: Project

120. The Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet classifies cultural characteristics into all of
the following except:
Ans: Ethics

121. Which of the following is not one of the typical forms of a project management office?
Ans: Command center

122. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which management
focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve those results?
Ans: Means versus end orientation

123. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project.
Ans: Completed

124. What is not a wrap-up closure activity?

Ans: Profit report

125. __________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future
projects.
Ans: Retrospectives

126. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is
considered to be ___________ closure.
Ans: Premature

127. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. This is considered to be
___________ closure.
Ans: Perpetual

128. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life
cycle as conditions change this is an example of:
Ans: Changed Priority

129. If a project has more than one activity that can begin when the project is to start a common start
node should be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Without a common start
node, each path is a
Ans: Dangler Path

130. Which of the following can be used without coordinating with managers of succeeding activities?
Ans: Free slack

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131. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?

Ans: A node

132. Bill is building a project network that involves testing a prototype. He must design the
prototype (activity 1), build the prototype (activity 2), and test the prototype (activity 3). Activity 1
is the predecessor for activity 2 and activity 2 is the predecessor for activity 3. If the prototype
fails testing, Bill must redesign the prototype; therefore, activity 3 is a predecessor for activity 1.
This is an example of
Ans: Looping

133. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the
Ans: Work packages

134. Which of the following is provided by both the project network and the work breakdown structure?
Ans: Activity duration

135. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the
following actions would the project manager take first?
Ans: Check to see which activities are on the critical path

136. Concurrent engineering, which has dramatically reduced the development time for new products,
relies on what kind of lag?
Ans: Start to start lags

137. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed
Ans: Parallel activity

138. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?
Ans: Either LS – ES or LF – EF

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1. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a project.

A. Completed

2. What is not a wrap-up closure activity?

A. Profit report

3. of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects.
A. Retrospectives

4. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics:

B. All the above are correct

5. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is
considered to be closure.

Premature

6. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. This is considered to be
closure.
A. Perpetual

7. Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is
called:
A. Failed Project

8. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its
project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of:
a. Changed Priority

9. Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except:

E-mail the project team that the project is complete.

10. Which is not part of the team portion of the Wrap-up closure checklist?
All are included.

11. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Has an in-
depth project review and evaluation interview with the customer been conducted?" be
answered.
a. Customer/Users

12. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Have project
accounts been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered.
Vendors/contractors

13. Releasing the project team typically occurs during the closure phase.
a. Gradually
14. In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a project
gone wrong when the is/are not consulted.
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End-users

15. Closing out is often messy and filled with untied ends.
a. Contracts
16. Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level would be
included in which section of the audit report?
a. Classification of project

17. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources
used typically appear in the section of the final project report.
a. Analysis
18. Items technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced would typically
appear in the section of the final project report.
a. Recommendations

19. The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is
the:
a. Lessons learned
20. Corrective actions that should take place (such as shifting to more resilient building
material) would typically appear in the section of the final project report.
a. Recommendations

21. In the Snapshot from Practice, the results of analyzing the Katrina hurricane resulted in a
new evaluation plan from:
a. The Red Cross
22. The most common circumstance for project closure is:
a. Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality

23. Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except:
a. All of these are categories for project closure

24. In the Research Highlight, Chaos: Software Projects, the criterion which was deemed the
most important for project success was
a. Proper planning

25. begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection criteria,
project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria.
a. Process Review
26. The typical mechanism for evaluation of teams is normally:
a. A survey completed by the team members

27. More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance
feedback process and replacing it with:
a. The 360-degree feedback
28. The project closure process includes all of the following except:
a. Conduct an audit

29. In organizations where projects are managed within a , the team member's
area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance.
a. Functional organization

30. Performance evaluations of project teams should:

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a. Both A and C are correct

31. is the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed
project. Normal

32. The project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated is known as
. premature
33. are usually easy to identify and easy for a review group to close down. Failed
project

34. Projects in process may need to be altered or canceled. Thus, a project may start with a high
priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change. This
is called .
changed priority

35. A schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted is a question that is
asked in the completion of the .
wrap-up closure checklist

36. The summary simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project
implementation is called the .
executive summary

37. Some organizations have project closure checklists of over wrap-up tasks!
100

38. The section of the final project report includes succinct, factual review
statements of the project such as, project mission and objectives, procedures and
systemsused, and organizational resources used.
Analysis

39. Perhaps are the most valuable contribution of the closure process.
lessons learned

40. The section of the final project report are often technical in nature and focus on
solutions to problems that surfaced.
Recommendations

41. A completed is a good example of the need to work out the details in
advance.
software program

42. A project closure is considered if it never seems to end due to constant "add-
ons" in attempt to improve the project outcome.
Perpetual

43. The purpose of is to assess how well the project team, team members, and
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project manager performed.

performance evaluation

44. The feedback approach gathers anonymous feedback solicited from others is
compared with the individual's self-evaluations, the individual may form a more realistic
picture of her strengths and weaknesses.
360-degree
45. In some , project managers conduct the performance reviews, while area
managers are responsible for pay reviews.
matrix organizations

46. Project managers should be giving team members feedback throughout the
project so that individual team members can have a pretty good idea how well they have
performed and how the manager feels before the formal meeting.
constantly
47. The of projects by characteristics allows prospective readers, teams, and
project managers to be selective in the search and use of report content.
Classification
48. The most common reason given for not creating lessons learned is .
lack of time

49. A is a methodology that analyzes a past project event to determine what worked and
what didn't, develops lessons learned, and creates an action plan that ensures lessons learned
are used to improve management of future projects.
retrospective

50. are binary; either you have reached requirements completion or you have not.
Milestones

51. The Standish Group International's market research on software projects, called Chaos
showed that percent of all software projects are cancelled before completion.
31

52. A is a guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project
activities that went well, what needs improvement, and development of a follow-up
actionplan with goals and accountability.
project facilitator

53. represent an analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life
cycle; they attempt to capture positive and negative project learning.
Lessons learned

54. An upbeat, festive celebration brings closure to the enjoyable experiences everyone has
had and the need to say good-bye is considered to be a .
Celebration

55. In a Perpetual project the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a
completed project.
FALSE
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56. In a Premature projects, the project may be completed early with some parts of the project
eliminated.
TRUE

57. Retrospectives of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and
future projects.
TRUE
58. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its
project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of change changed priority.
TRUE

59. Part of the content of the final report typically includes profit made on the project.
FALSE

60. The project manager's challenge is to keep the project team focused on the remaining
project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete.
TRUE

61. Implementing closedown includes getting delivery acceptance from the customer.
TRUE

62. Project Summary is the summary that simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to
the project implementation.
FALSE

63. Analysis examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes.
TRUE

64. The ideal scenario is to have the team member's next assignment ready when project
completion is announced.
TRUE

65. The maximum items on a checklist for closing a project are 50.
FALSE

66. Lessons learned from the Katrina disaster are not limited to the military. Almost every
agency and support group, such as individuals, communities, churches, and other groups, has
developed lessons learned from their project response experience.
TRUE

67. Evaluation of individuals implies measurement against all team members.

FALSE

68. Performance evaluations of project team members are typically well done because the
evaluations are conducted by the team member's home department.
FALSE
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69. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project such as
building a new facility or creating a customized information system.
TRUE

70. A project closure where the project is completed early with some parts of the project
eliminated would be classified as project failure.
FALSE

71. The key requirement in selection of the facilitator is one who is the end-user.
FALSE

72. Performance appraisals generally fulfill five important functions.

TRUE
73. Some organizations rely simply on an informal discussion between the project manager and
the project member while other organizations require project managers to submit written
evaluations that describe and assess an individual's performance on a project.
TRUE

74. A 360-degree performance evaluation includes feedback from peers, project managers,
subordinates, and even customers.
TRUE

75. Project managers should, when possible, draw comparisons to other team members when
conducting individual team member reviews.
FALSE
76. Retrospective methodology is one positive step toward ensuring lessons learned are
developed and implemented.
TRUE

Short Answer Questions

77. What are the six major activities implementing project closedown?

1. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer, 2. Shutting down resources and releasing to
new uses, 3. Reassigning project team members, 4. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid,
5. Delivering the project to the customer, 6. Creating a final report.

78. Identify the four areas of the project closure checklist.

1. Team, 2. Vendors/contactors, 3. Customers/users, 4. Equipment and facilities.

79. Identify the three major deliverables for project closure.

1. Wrapping up the project, 2. Evaluation of performance and management of the project.3.

Retrospectives.

80. How does the project managers meet the challenge to keep the project team focused on the
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remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete?

Communicating a closure and review plan and schedule early allows the project team to (1)
accept the psychological fact the project will end and (2) prepare to move on. The ideal
scenario is to have the team member's next assignment ready when project completion is
announced. Project managers need to be careful to maintain their enthusiasm for completing the
project and hold people accountable to deadlines, which are prone to slip during the waning
stages of the project.

81. Identify the five common parts to the final project report.

1. Executive Summary, 2. analysis of information gathered, 3. recommendations, 4. lessons

learned, and 5. appendix.

82. Identify and briefly describe the five most common classifications for the way that projects end.

1. normal; project ended as planned, 2. premature; project ended early with some parts
eliminated, 3. perpetual; project extend due to increases in scope, 4. failed; project could not be
completed, and 5. changed priority; shifts in organization priorities due to changes in market or
technology.

83. List the five, distinguishing characteristics to ensure Retrospectives methodology

embedded effectiveness and value?

1. Uses an independent facilitator. 2. Includes a minimum of three in-process learning gates

during the life project cycle. 3. Has an owner. 4. Develops a repository that is easy to use. 5.
Mandates a discipline that ensures retrospectives are used.

84. How does Norman Kerth define retrospective in his text Project Retrospectives?

A retrospective is a methodology that analyzes a past project event to determine what workedand
what didn't, develops lessons learned, and creates an action plan that ensures lessons learned are
used to improve management of future projects.

85. What guidelines should a project manager follow in conducting performance reviews?

1. Have the individual prepare a self-evaluation, 2. compare with standards not other people,
3. focus on specific behaviors rather than the individual, 4. be consistent and fair with all team
members, and 5. treat the review as a point in an ongoing process.

86. What is a 360-degree feedback and how is it used?

A 360-degree feedback is a performance evaluation technique that is gaining popularity in

project management. It solicits feedback from all the people that the team member's work
affects, e.g., project managers, peers, subordinates and customers.

87. In the Research Highlight "Measures of Team Performance," what was the major findingof
the research survey?

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1. too few teams (52%) received a collective evaluation of their performance and 2. of the
22% who said they did receive an evaluation, it lasted only approximately 20 minutes.

88. Explain what Lessons learned represent.

Lessons learned represent an analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle;
they attempt to capture positive and negative project learning. That is, "what worked and what
didn't?" Lessons learned (postmortems, post-project review, or whatever name you choose to
use) have long been part of project management.

88. Organizational culture is best explained as organizational

• Personality
89. A good project management system provides for defining the interface between the
projectteam and the organization in all the following areas except
Development of project team members
90. Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization?
• Maximum flexibility in the use of staff

91. MegaComputers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams.
The managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis.
Thestructure being used is organization.
Project
92. Elizabeth is considering how to structure a project team that will not directly disrupt ongoing
operations. The project needs to be done quickly and a high level of motivation will be
needed inorder to do that. For this situation, the organization would be the best choice.
Project
93. A project management system provides a framework for launching and implementing
project activities within a organization.
Parent

94. In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the
functionalmanagers?
• Weak matrix
95. Matrix management violates the management principle of
• Unity of command

The project structure that is ranked as least effective is organization.

• Functional

96.From the list below, which is not a primary characteristic of organization culture?
• History

97. Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a matrix project
management structure?
A) The functional manager

98. The Macintosh development team at Apple is a good example of what kind of
project structure?
• Project
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99.The Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet classifies cultural characteristics into all of
the following except:
Ethics

100. Which of the following is not one of the typical forms of a project management office?
• Command center

101. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which
management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve
those results?
Means versus end orientation
102. If a project has more than one activity that can begin when the project is to start a
common start node should be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network.
Without a common start node, each path is a
• Dangler Path
103. Which of the following can be used without coordinating with managers of
succeeding activities?
• Free slack
104. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?
• A node
105. Bill is building a project network that involves testing a prototype. He must design
the prototype (activity 1), build the prototype (activity 2), and test the prototype (activity
3). Activity 1 is the predecessor for activity 2 and activity 2 is the predecessor for
activity 3. If the prototype fails testing, Bill must redesign the prototype; therefore,
activity 3 is a predecessor for activity 1. This is an example of
• Looping
106. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the
• Work packages
107. Which of the following is provided by both the project network and the work
breakdown structure?
• Activity duration
108. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date,
which of thefollowing actions would the project manager take first?
• Check to see which activities are on the critical path
109. Concurrent engineering, which has dramatically reduced the development time for
new products, relies on what kind of lag?
• Start to start lags
110. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed

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• Parallel activity
111. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?
A. Either LS – ES or LF – EF

112. A Project monitoring system involves all of the following except

Adjusting the data
113. The most common circumstance for project closure is
Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality

114. Which of the following is not one of the probability

analysis tools? Ratio/range analysis

115. People working on prototype development needing time to

interact with the design engineers after the design is

completed is a good example of Hidden interaction costs

116. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk.
Profile
117. Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most of

the costs are Labor

118. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring,
impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called
Risk register

119. ____ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project,
selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope,
and acceptance criteria Process review
120.which of the following is the most common method for shortening project time?
Assigning additional staff and equipment
121.which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management

process?

Risk identification
122. which one of the following best describes users
Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

123.which of the following statement best describes the use of an

issue log A summary of all the project issues, their analysis

and status
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124.The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed
Total slack
125.14: The optimum duration for a project is at the point where
Total project costs are the lowest
126. which of the following represents an activity on an aon project network Anode

127.All of the following are kinds of resource

constraints except

Information

128.Organizational culture is best explained as

organizational a Personality

129.Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Have project
accounts been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered

b— Vendors/contractors
Vendors/contractors
130.which one of the following statements best defines procurement
The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

131. Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

Leadership

132. which one of the following best describes a project

stakeholder

A party with an interest or role in the project or is

impacted by the project

133. Technical risks are

Often the kind that can cause the project to be shut down

134. Mega Computers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product

teams. The managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time

basis. The structure being used is organization.

d—Project

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135. In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should be

compared to:

c--Project network schedule derived from the

WBS/OBS

136. Information on the project type, size, number of staffs, and technology level would be
included in which section of the audit report?

c—Classification of project

137. the assessment of the external and internal environments is called analysis

a—Swot
analysis

138. Generally, the method for measuring accomplishments centers on

comparing

d-- Both A & B

139. Resource leveling can

provide d--All of these

140. Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team

is called

d--Failed Project

141. Once a change has been repeated what is the next step in the change control process?

c—Update the change log

142. which one of the following best describes project management?

d--Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle

143. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on

resource

d—Utilization
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144.Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager

b--to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

145. The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically
advanced software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project
duration caused by.

a—Imposed project deadlines

146. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization
resources used typically appear in the section of the final project report.

—Analysis

147. Which of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an
organization

a-- It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a project

manager.
148. The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is

the a—Analysis

d—Lessons learned

149. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical
correctness are part of _ related currencies

Inspiration

150. What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called

a—A gantt chart

151. Splitting an activity creates the following situation Both possibility of start up and shutdown
costs and resource may be moved from one activity to

another and then back

152. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes,
and the creation of forecasts

Executing

153. Adverse weather, design flaws, and equipment breakdown can create negative slack. This is
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an example of reducing project duration caused by:

c--Unforeseen project

delays

154. which one of the following best describes

benefit The successful management of a project

155. A cost breakdown structure (cbs) shows costs assigned to

a--individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

156. The risk assesment from contain all of the following

except

c—Who will detect the occurrence of the risk

event
157. Which of the following is NOT one of the tips for alleviating communication problems
of virtualteams?

a—Include face -to-face time if at all possible

158. Which of the following is an advantage of functional project management organization

a—Maximum flexibility in the use of staff

159. which one of the following is a valid project key performance indicator (kpi) a—Staff
appraisals c—Milestone achievement

160.Implementing closedown includes the following major activities

except

d--E-mailing the project team that the project is complete.

161. which of the following is not true regarding scope creep

a—It is common late in projects

162. A key aspect of managing a project involves

d—Planning to achieve defined objectives

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163. Project closure can fall into all of the following categories except

All of these are categories for project closure

164. A new holistic approach in new commercial product development effect is known as

a—Scrum

165. Cost slope can be determined by

dividing the

b--Rise by the run

166. All projects should be aligned with their organizations strategic plan, which includes
the organizations vision goals and objectives. Which of these is the definition of a vision
statement?

d—Is smart specific, measurable, achievable, results based and time specific

167. What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of which

process:

c-- Develop Schedule

168. The backward pass in project network calculations

determines the - Earliest time's activities can be finished

169. An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

d-- the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the

projects.

170. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the

following except

d--All of these
171. Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She
estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management
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typically insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that
reduction. Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation?

a--Padding

estimates

172. An earned value system used to monitor project progress includes

comparison of

d--Both A and B are correct

173. Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with
scheduling multiproject resources?

d—All of these

174. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to

a--Slowly rise
175. When developing a new software package, the software must be designed, the code
must be written, and the code must be tested. This is an example of a constraint

Technical

176. Most of the project manager's external communication comprises:

Written documents

177. The Risk Management Plan, which is the outcome of the process Plan Risk Management
includes all except

Tracking

178. The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its
deliverables and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality
requirements and/or standards is called:

Plan Quality Management

179. What is the term used for processes that are required to ensure timely and appropriate
planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management , control monitoring,
and the ultimate disposition of project information?

a-- Project Communications Management

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180. Approximately what percentage of the project manager''s time is spent in some form of
communication, such as: conferences, meetings, writing memos, reading and preparing reports,
and talking with project team members, upper management, and all other stalk holders?

75-90%

181. Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which

Project Scheduling technique:

d-- Resource Leveling

182. which one of the following is true about for the project management plan

the Project management plan is developed by the project manager and team owned by the project

manager

183. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not
sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents
contain detailed descriptions of work packages? Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

184. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a

project? a-- The cost associated at the beginning of the project is

highest.

185. Project Cost Control excludes?

Establish the earned value management techniques

186. The critical element in a project's communication system

is the: Project manager

187. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

Process Analysis

188. The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and
managing changes to the cost baseline is called

Control Costs

189. The project manager is considering contracting some of the work of the project to a service
bureau. The service bureau has been used in the past by this project manager. The manager has
several choices of contracts that can be used to subcontract this work. Which of the following is
not a type of contract that the project manager might choose?

Make or buy
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190. Which of the following has the greatest effect on product's reliability and maintenance
characteristic?
a and b (quality, product design)

191. The measure along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may
have a specific interest. Below that, the organization will accept the risk, and above this measure
the organization will not accept the risk. It is known as

Risk Threshold

192. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?

36

193. A project manager's main responsibility in a project meant to create a

product is: Ensuring it is high quality

194. In PDM, which of the following relationships is rarely used:

Start-to-Finish

195. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The
QA teamrandomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as
example of:

Statistical Sampling

196. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project

documents: - Define Activities

197. The contingency budget will: Reduce the probability of cost overruns.

198. Omar, a project manager in a construction company is preparing for a meeting with the
stakeholders to update them about the status of the project after the monitoring and controlling of
the project work. For the information, Omar will access automated tools such as performance
indicators, databases, financials, or resourcing tools through:

Project Management Information System

199. The total amount of risk that is calculated for a project is

found by Calculating the cumulative sum of the probability for

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each risk and multiplying this value times the consequence of

occurrence of the risk events

200. When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see she has
scheduled a meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed of. The best approach
would be to:

address the concern with the team member.

201. Which of the following is not an

activity attribute:

Time when to perform the activity

202. The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed is

known as: Budget at Completion

203. The inputs used in the process of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes

all except Quality Management Plan

204. The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete
project activities is known as Estimate Costs

205. The processes involving planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and
controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget fall under

Project Cost Management

206. The process under Process Risk Management that prioritizes risks for further analysis or
action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact is called

Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis

207. The tools and techniques used in the process of Determine Budget

includes all but Cost of Quality

208. The name for the tool used in Perform Quality Assurance to represent decomposition
hierarchies such as the WBS (work breakdown structure), RBS (risk breakdown structure), and
OBS (organizational breakdown structure) is:Tree Diagrams

209.All of the following are the responsibility of a project manager

EXCEPT? Determine the legality of company procedures.

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210. Trend Analysis is often performed using: Run Chart

211. A Pareto diagram can be best described as:Histogram

212. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the

following: Project Team Members responsible for the work package

213. : Work performance data, quality checklists, quality metrics, and the project management

plan are: Inputs to control quality.

214. Which of the following process is not included in project communication

knowledge area? Manage Stakeholder Expectations

215. At which stage, in a typical project do stakeholders have maximum

influence? Initial stage

216. Which of the following fit the category of external risks?

Regulatory, currency changes, taxation
217. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an
example of: A dependency with lead
218. At which stage, does a typical project has maximum

cost? Middle stage

219. Which one of the following is not an input used in the process of Estimate

Costs? Project Funding Requirements

220. A risk is defined as event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or

negative effect on one or more project .uncertain, objectives

221. When is the risk and uncertainty in a project's life cycle at the

highest ? Start

222. A project team has completed, and the customer has accepted, the completed project scope.
However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been
completed. What is the status of the project?

The project is incomplete until all the activities required for closing a project are

completed.
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223. The float of an activity is determined by:

determining the amount of time the activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path.

224. Process Analysis is a function of: Process Improvement Plan

225. A new project that was initiated, involved new technology and had never been done before.
What type of contract would the owner want to issue to reduce or eliminate as much risk as
possible? fixed price

226. The results of the Plan Communications Management Process should be reviewed regularly
throughout the project and revised as needed to ensure continued applicability. The statement is
TRUE

227. The process control charts are used: to determine whether a process is or not

228. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project? Team

229. A Project Manager is preparing a Project Schedule network diagram. During the diagram
development, she removes a dependency between two tasks that was defined in an earlier stage.
After the network diagram is completed, she updates activity attributes for the two tasks. This is
an example of:Lack of change control

230. You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently provides
deliverables late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to continue accepting late
deliverables in exchange for a decrease in project costs. This offer is an example of: compromise

231. Which of the following is not project management goal?

d) Avoiding customer complaints

232. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

b) False

233. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

Testing

234. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

Project Management Life Cycle

235. A 66.6% risk is considered as

high

236. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing
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the costs of a software development project?

d) all of the mentioned

237. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

b) project

238. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
a) Internship management

239. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

b) Process analysis

240. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured
and the external quality attribute.

b) False

MCQ ON PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

c. Team

2. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

3. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?

d. 36

4. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?

b. email

5. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What
term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?

C. Management Contingency Reserve

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6. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

D. There is no cost variance

7. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan that
is useful in HR Planning process:

C. Activity Resource requirements

8. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track
project costs :

C. Resource Breakdown Structure

9. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

10. Process Analysis is a function of:

C. Process Improvement Plan

11. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

A. Process Analysis

12. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings.

The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be
described as example of:

B. Statistical Sampling

13. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project documents
available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What is this
document called?

d. Risk Breakdown Structure.

14. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and
impact?

c. Perform Qualitative risk analysis

15. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

B. Project Team Members responsible for the work package

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16. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:

A. Define Activities

17. Which of the following may generate a milestone list:

A. Define Activities

18. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is
an example of:

A. Finish-to-Start

19. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading
computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

A. Purchase Order

20. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors
to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project
Management is in progress.

A. Conduct Procurements

21. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group

C. Monitoring and Control

MCQ ON PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be

communicated to:

b. the project stakeholders.

2. Which one of the following statements is true?

c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and
meet stakeholder expectations.

3. Project risk management is best described as:

d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

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4. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

a. A major problem that requires formal escalation.

5. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

a. overall project duration.

6. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product
Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

8. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

c. Milestone achievement.

10. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life
cycle.

11. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

c. The project manager.

12. Which one of the following best describes users?

b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs..

13. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?

b. Quality.

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15. Which one of the following statements is true?

c. Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?

d. Leadership.

17. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

18. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

c. fitness for purpose of deliverables.

19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.

20. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

b. Influencing resources.

21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated.

22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

c. The scope of the project.

23. Project reporting can best be defined as:

a. informing stakeholders about the project.

24. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

25. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the:

c. business case.

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26. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

.27. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

28. Which of the following best describes a project environment?

c. The context within which a project is undertaken.

29. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

c. A unique transient endeavor undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

30. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why,
when and how is called the:

a. communication management plan.

31. An important aim of a post-project review is to:

b. capture learning and document it for future usage.

32. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is
called:

a. quality assurance.

33. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

b. It facilitates the risk appetite.

34. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?

d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.

35. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control
process?

a. Evaluate the change.

36. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

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37. An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

38. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

39. Comparative estimating uses:

c. historic data from similar projects.

40. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

41. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing

the project.

42. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

c. Project sponsor.

43. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

d. the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realized.

44. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial
to an organization?

a. It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

45. A key aspect of managing a project involves:

d. planning to achieve defined objectives.

46. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

47. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is
known as a:

a. gate review.
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48. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

49. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

50. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar

called?

a. A Gantt chart.

51. Configuration management is best described as:

d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

52. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

53. The accuracy of an estimate should:

b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

54. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

55. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the
project manager.

56. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

d. The project manager.

57. The phases of a project life cycle are:

b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

58. A portfolio can best be defined as:

a. a group of projects and programs carried out within an organization.

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59. Which one of the following best describes project management?

d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

60. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels
for a project?

b. Organizational Breakdown Structure.

Read More: [MCQ on DESIGN OF MECHANICAL SYSTEMS]

1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project.

(A) Project

2-Resources refers to

(D) All of the above

3-Developing a technology is an example of

(B) Project

4-The project life cycle consists of

(D) All of the above

5-Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.

(C) Tracking project expenditure

6-Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order

Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery

(A) 3-2-1-4

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7-Design phase consist of

(C) Both (A) and (B)

8-Project performance consists of

(C) Quality

9-Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

10-Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____
progress stage.

(D) 80 to 95%

11-The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____ .

(B) Normal distribution curve.

12-In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___ .

(C) Low

13-The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub

process placed in different stage called the

(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

14-Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar
nature whose costs are known.

(D) Analogy

15-Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.

(C) Bottom-up

16-Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management

(D) All of the above

17-Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.

(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

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18-“Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need” is

(B) Planning process

19-Controlling the changes in the project may affect

(D) All of the above

20-Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process

(A) Change Management System (CMS)

(B) Configuration Management (CM)

(C) Both (A) and (B)

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