Module 5 Reviewer
Module 5 Reviewer
1– POLICE INTELLIGENCE
__________1. It been defined as the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration of all available information , regarding the activities of criminal and other law violators for
the purpose of effecting arrest, and obtained evidence.
A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Military Intelligence
D. Police Intelligence
A. Anonymous Informant
B. Voluntary Informant
C. Informant
D. All of the Above
A. Interview
B. Information
C. Interrogation
D. Inquiry
A. Prosecution
B. Police
C. Court
D. Correction
A. Alias
B. Nickname
C. A.K.A
D. All of the Above
__________6.It refers to the story of using actual background data with minor adjustments to fill and of fit
the situation.
__________7. It provides security for (3) or more individuals appearing to be working together.
a. Intelligence craft
b. Intelligence skills
c. Intelligence tradecraft
d. Intelligence specialize
___________9.It is the method of obtaining information from another person, who is aware that he is
giving wanted information, although he may be ignorant of the true connection and purposes of the
interview.
a. Inquiry
b. Instrumentation
c. Interview
d. Interrogation
___________10. It refers to a complete and accurate awareness by his individual of his surroundings and
encompasses the use of all major senses. (Taking Notice)
a. Description
b. Surveillance
c. Perception
d. Observation
a. Casing
b. Reconnaissance
c. Surveillance
d. Observation
__________12. This type of information is usually gained by the person operating in the area of
performing the casing job.
a. Research
b. Hearsay
c. Prior information
d. Statement
__________13. It refers to the planned observance of a person, place or objects? The list of his/her
activities.
a. Casing
b. Reconnaissance
c. Surveillance
d. Observation
a. Lost
b. Made
c. Disclosed
d. Roping
__________15.it is applied to, if the subject is PNP personnel or HUT target and minimum of 8-man team
personnel.
a. Process surveillance
b. Personal surveillanvce
c. Counter intelligence surveillance
d. Progressive surveillance
___________16.Under the progressive surveillance, the following are the precautionary measures,
except?
a. Do not make an abrupt, unnatural moves from doorway to doorway, from the tree to tree or
behind automobiles, such actions are unnecessary and attract attention.
b. use theatrical disguise that are impractical, hard to maintain and easily detectable.
c. Never stare directly at the subject.
d. Never look directly at the subject eye, look slightly ahead on behind the subject or at his feet
___________17. t pertains to the method of acquiring desired information from a person who is unaware
that he is providing wanted information, and if made aware may not intend to give information.
a. Interrogation
b. Interview
c. Elicitation
d. None of the above
____________18.It is an investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and
adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.
a. Roping
b. Surveillance
c. Casing
d. Shadowing
____________20.It refers to a method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows
the person or vehicle.
a. Research
b. Casing
c. Undercover operations
d. Surveillance
____________21.A principle of intelligence that the information should be essential and pertinent to the
purpose at hand.
a. Selection
b. Continuity
c. Usefulness
d. Timeliness
a. Primary
b. Administrative
c. Auxiliary
d. Secondary
____________23.The procurement of information obtain without the knowledge of the subject or target.
a. Deception
b. Police intelligence
c. Covert intelligence
d. Sabotage
___________24.The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting
the surveillance is:
a. Rabbit
b. Traffic enforcement
c. Patrol
d. Surveillant
___________25. It is the act or practice of spying. The use of spy by a government in order to discover
the military or political secret of other nations.
a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. Sabotage
d. Subversion
1.2 COUNTER-INTELLIGENCE
1. It pertains to the counter intelligence measures that seek to conceal information from enemy.
a. Active measures
b. Passive measures
c. Defective measures
d. All of the above
2. The following are the principles of OPERATIONAL SECURITY. EXCEPT;
A. Carefully evaluate the risk which must be assumed to accomplish the mission.
B. Keep the true mission un-secret.
C. Consider every factor no matter how minor from the standpoint of its possible effect on the
mission.
D. The operational plan must be based upon actual knowledge of the environment in which the
operation will take place.
3. It refers to a person who stands between the intruder and the material being protected.
a. Human barrier
b. Physical barrier
c. Personnel barrier
d. Structural barrier
4. It refers to an act of practicing a spying and the use of spy by a government in order to discover
the military or political secret of other nations.
a. Sabotage
b. Subversion
c. Espionage
d. Insurrection
5. It is the information and materials whose unauthorized disclosure would endanger national
security, cause serious injury to the interest and prestige of a nation.
a. Top secret
b. Confidential
c. Secret
d. Restricted
6. It refers to an Information and material whose unauthorized disclosure would be prejudicial to the
interest or prestige of the nation or government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be an advantage to a foreign
nation.
a. Confidential
b. Restricted
c. Top secret
d. Secret
a. Field officer
b. Security officer
c. Chief of staff
d. Commanding officer
8. It includes the provisions of secure communication system and communication security operating
procedures.
a. Transmission security
b. Communication security
c. Cryptographic security
d. Computer security
9. He is the one who exercise communication security control over the various administrative and
operational phases of communication.
a. Signal officer
b. Communication expert
c. Communication personnel
d. Custodian officer
10. It refers to an information and material whose unauthorized disclosure would cause exceptionally
grave damage to the country.
a. Secret
b. Confidential
c. Restricted
d. Top secret
11. It refers to an information and material that require special protection other than that determined
to be top secret, secret or confidential.
a. Restricted
b. Top secret
c. Secret
d. Confidential
12. The lost security tag shall be reported immediately within ____ after the loss by the holder to the
security officer.
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
13. It refers to a certification issued by the authority that the person described has an access to
classified matter at the appropriate level on top secret, secret, confidential and restricted.
a. Police clearance
b. Directorate clearance
c. Local clearance
d. Security clearance
14. It refers to a clearance granted for a specific purpose upon completion of prescribed records
check or background investigation.
a. Police clearance
b. Directorate clearance
c. Local clearance
d. Security clearance
a. Espionage
b. Subversion
c. Rebellion
d. Sabotage
a. Sabotage
b. Rebellion
c. Subversion
d. Coup d’etat
17. It is the aspect of police intelligence relating to the aspect of police intelligence relating to all
security measures, both offensive (active) and defensive (passive) designed to ensure the
safeguarding of information, personnel, material and installation against espionage and
subversion by foreign nations and dissident groups or individuals that constitute threat to national
security.
a. Military intelligence
b. Police intelligence
c. Anti-counter intelligence
d. Counter intelligence
18. It is a system of barrier placed between the potential intruder and the material being protected.
a. Human barrier
b. Personnel barrier
c. Physical security
d. Physical barrier
19. It refers to the sum total of precautions taken to maintain the secrecy of the activity and protect
the identity of agents constitutes ____.
a. Communication security
b. Cryptographic security
c. Personnel security
d. Operational security
a. Maintain the actual appearance of normal and blend effectively with the environment
b. The operational plan must be as simple as possible.
c. Carefully evaluate the risk which must be assumed to accomplish the mission.
d. Always disseminate the mission no matter how if it is confidential in nature or not.
21. It includes all information concerning documents, cryptographic devices, developments, projects,
and materials falling in the top secret, secret, confidential or restricted.
a. Public information
b. Police information
c. Military information
d. B and C
22. Only organic vehicle to include personnel vehicle shall be allowed to park inside the compound.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe true
d. Maybe false
23. It takes place upon disclosure or identification in such a way as to destroy the effectiveness of the
collection effort.
a. Trade off
b. Compromise
c. Bargain
d. None
24. He comply with all security directives for classified matter in general and report violations of
security.
a. Communication officer
b. Communication personnel
c. Signal officer
d. All of the above
25. It is an information or material in any form or any nature, the safeguarding of which is necessary
in the interest of national security.
a. Unclassified matter
b. Classified matter
c. Confidential matter
d. Privacy in matter
26. It is any recorded information, regardless of its physical form or characteristics and includes but it
not limited to: written matter, whether handwritten, printed or typed.
a. Classified document
b. Document
c. Public document
d. Private document
a. Compartmentalization
b. Concealment
c. Cover
d. Compromise
28. He is responsible for the promulgation of additional directives as necessary to insure proper
COMSEC control and Report violations of COMSEC arising in other commands.
a. Communication officer
b. Commanding officer
c. Operational officer
d. All of the above
29. He exercise communication security control over the various administrative and operational
phases of communication.
a. Communications officer
b. Signal officer
c. Transmission officer
d. A and B
a. The C, PNP
b. AFP CHIEF OF STAFF
c. DEFENSE SECRETARY
d. DILG SECRETARY
PART II – INVESTIGATION
A. 18 x 10
B. 18 x 11
C. 18 x 12
D. 18 x 13
A. Team Leader
B. Marksman
C. Investigator / Recorder
D. Photographer
__________3. All investigators in any police unit must be a graduate of prescribed investigation
Course with a rank of at least _________pre requisite to assignment .
A. Patrolman
B. Police Corporal
C. Police Staff Sergeant
D. Police Master Sergeant
__________4.It refers to a formal meeting between two people for the purpose of exchanging
information .
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Inquiry
D. None of the Above
__________5. It refers to the asking of formal questions to obtain the truth through planned or
unplanned approaches and techniques .
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Inquiry
D. None of the Above
__________6. He is an individual who has personal knowledge from seeing or hearing something
about the incident.
A. Suspect
B. Criminal
C. Witness
D. Police officer
__________7.He is a person who may have planned, participated , committed or have guilty
knowledge of a crime.
A. Suspect
B. Person under Custodial Investigation
C. Criminal
D. Person Deprived of Liberty
A. Statement
B. Affidavit
C. Confession
D. Deception
__________9. It refers the physical, emotional or mental attempts to deceive the investigators.
A. Lying
B. Deception
C. Impression
D. None of the Above
A. Statement
B. Confession
C. Affidavit
D. Deception
__________11. A Forensic procedure performed by the trained personnel of the PNP through
scientific methods of investigation for the purpose of preserving the crime scene , gathering
information . What unit of the PNP incharge of the said task ?
A. Forensic Group
B. Crime Laboratory
C. SOCO
D. All of the Above
__________13. It is a form of legal evidence that can be used in a court of law to convict a
person of a crime and as a category of public presentation .
A. Documentary Evidence
B. Object Evidence
C. Evidence
D. Forensic Evidence
__________14.He is the one who first arrives at the Crime Scene and shall endeavor to protect
and secure the scene .
A. First Responder
B. Investigator
C. SOCO
D. First Person to Respond
__________15.It is commonly used when searching a large area looking for a large object .
A. Strip Search
B. Wheel Search
C. Spiral Search
D. Pat- down Search
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe True
D. It Depends
___________17. During Custodial Investigation the person arrested , detained shall at all times be
assisted by _______ preferably of his own choice .
A. His relatives
B. His medical doctor
C. His Counsel
D. All of the Above
__________18. The arresting officer must recite the ______ before he arrest a suspect.
___________19. If the person arrested cannot afford to provide a counsel of his own choice the
__________ will provide for him .
A. PAO
B. DOJ
C. Government
D. Counsel de officio
2. The CIDG shall assume the responsibility of pursuing the Investigation when the case is
not solved within _____ months and already classified as a cold case .
A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 7 months
D. 8 months
3. He shall issue orders organizing the District/PPO/CPO SITG , Indicating the ranks and
names of its personnel complements.
A. PNP Chief
B. Regional Director
C. Provincial Director
D. Provincial Commander
4. Every Special Investigation Task Group Shall have how many months to resolve a case
from the time it takes cognizance of the said case .
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 7 months
5. The following are the operational procedures to be undertaken by the SITG pertaining to
Investigators of all heinous / sensational crimes.
A. Investigation starts from the arrival of the first responder on the ground who shall
perform important tasks as enumerated in Rule 22.1 a
B. The OSCP shall be maintained for as long as necessary and skill only be deactivated
or transferred with the clearance and approval of the RD.
C. The Police Station which has no jurisdiction over the are shall be utilized as
alternate OSCP of the SITG.
D. The OSCP shall be utilized by the SITG to conduct on scene or on the ground
investigation .
6. He is a person below 18 years of age or older but are incapable of taking care of
themselves as defined under RA 7610.
A. Youth
B. Juvenile
C. Children
D. All of the Above
7. It is also known as “ Violence Against Women And their Children Act of 2002”
A. RA 9344
B. RA 4864
C. RA 9262
D. RA 603
8. When the Child is 15 years of age or below , he shall be immediately released to his
parents or guardian or nearest relative . This statement is _____
A. False
B. Partially False
C. True
D. Maybe True
9. What is the first case which used the battered woman syndrome as a defense ?
A. People of the Philippines Vs.Salvador
B. People of the Philippines Vs. Guillermo
C. People of the Philippines Vs. Genosa
D. People of the Philippines Vs. Camaso
12. In coordination with the PNP Women and Children Protection Desks ( WCPD ) and local
Social Welfare Development Office (LSWDO) shall conduct an investigation on all cases of
Child Abuse committed within their respective area of responsibility , consistent with
domestic laws, rules and regulations and international human rights . This Statement is
_____
A. Maybe True
B. True
C. Partially False
D. False
13. From the moment a child is taken into custody , the law enforcement officer shall :
EXCEPT
A. Properly identify himself as police officer and present the proper identification to the
child .
B. Explain to the Child , In simple language and in the dialect that he can understand ,
reason why he is being taken into custody and the offense he allegedly committed.
C. Employing unnecessary force or using any firearm, weapons, handcuffs or
instruments of force or restraint .
D. Refrain from subjecting the CICL to greater restraint than is necessary for his
apprehension .
14. The Child in Conflict with the Law shall be turnover to the custody to the LSWDO or
other accredited NGO’s Immediately but not later than , How many hours after
apprehension ?
A. 6 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 9 hours
15. The Investigation of the Child Abuse cases shall be assigned preferably to the members of
the WCPD or in their absence, who will take charge to handle the cases involving Child
Abuse?
A. Police Officer
B. Police officer of the same gender
C. Patrolwoman Investigator
D. All of the Above
16. It refers to a formal written statement setting out the facts of your case.
A. Statement
B. Counter Affidavit
C. Affidavit
D. Complaint Affidavit
17. It refers to a sworn statement prepared by someone who wishes to file a legal complaint
.
A. Statement
B. Affidavit
C. Counter Affidavit
D. Complaint Affidavit
18. It is a system that links and bonds the police to the community and creates a stronger
and cohesive community interaction .
A. Police Policing
B. Policing System
C. Street Policing
D. Community Policing
19. Is a partnership between among other law enforcement agencies and the individuals and
organizations they serves to develop solutions to problems and increase trust in the
police ?
A. Community Partnership
B. Collaborative Partnership
C. Cooperative Partnership
D. Operative Partnership
20. This is the Organizational plan aims to generate community partnership and forge a
united front for the promotion of peace and order.
A. SAMBAYAN
B. KAPITBAHAYAN
C. BAYANIHAN
D. SANTINIG
21. This plan sets forth the concept of operation , guidelines and tasks of all PNP units/offices
for a deliberate , synchronized and concerted effort to inform the public of the activities ,
programs and accomplishments of the PNP.
A. SAMBAYAN
B. SANTINIG
C. BAYANIHAN
D. ALL of the Above
A. Press Representative
B. News Media Representatives
C. Media
D. Broadcaster
A. Press Conference
B. Command Conference
C. Press Release
D. News Release
24. officially – designated authority that acts as the mouthpiece of the PNP and usually
speaks in behalf of the Chief PNP ?
A. Chairperson
B. Spokeperson
C. Spokesman
D. ALL of the Above
_________ 1. It is a philosophy that promotes organizational strategies, which support the systematic use
of partnerships and problem-solving techniques, to proactively address the immediate
conditions that give rise to public safety issues such as crime, social disorder, and fear of
crime.
a. Community policing
b. Collaborative partnerships
c. Agency Management
d. Community Interaction
e. Organizational Work
_________ 2. The process of engaging in the proactive and systematic examination of identified
problems to develop and rigorously evaluate effective responses.
a. Problem Solving
b. Collaborative partnerships
c. Agency Management
d. Organizational Work
e. None of the above
_________ 3. These are the process of problem solving:
a. Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment
b. Analysis, Response, Review, Assignment
c. Identify, Review, Search, Solution
d. Search, Review, Analysis, Formula
e. None of the above
_________4. It is a system that links and bonds the police to the community and creates a stronger and
cohesive community interaction. Exchanges of information are fast due to established Police
Community Relations.
a. Community policing
b. Collaborative partnerships
c. Agency Management
d. Community Interaction
e. Organizational Work
_________ 5. The police seek and preserve public favor, not by catering to public opinion, but by
constantly demonstrating absolutely impartial service to the law, in complete independence
of policy, and without regard to the justice or injustice of the substance of individual laws.
a. The police must render impartial enforcement of the law.
b. Cooperation of the public decreases as the use of force increases.
c. The police are the public and the public are the police.
d. Police represents the law.
e. Physical force is used only as a last resort.
_________ 6. These are important Basic Principles of Community Policing, EXCEPT:
a. The police must render impartial enforcement of the law.
b. Cooperation of the public increases as the use of force decreases.
c. The police are the public and the public are the police.
d. Police represents the law.
e. Physical force is used only as a last resort.
_________ 7. It is an indispensable tool in bringing the police closer to the people. This requires the
police to be visible in the community and make its presence physically felt.
a. Community policing
b. Collaborative partnerships
c. Agency Management
d. Community Interaction
e. Organizational Work
__________ 8. It is a “walk and observe” duties to protect pedestrians, workers, houses, streets, offices,
etc., from being molested and burglarized by criminals.
a. “Standing and watch” duties
b. Beat Patrol Duties
c. Fixed and Mobile Checkpoints
d. Anti-Drug Councils and Movements
e. Traffic Direction and Control
__________ 9. Which of the following statements are referring to Community Interaction:
I. A police visibility or presence to neutralize or drive out a larger group of insurgents
or criminal gangs in the community.
II. Conduct peripheral visit and forge relationships with the people in the area by
conducting interpersonal dialogue, establish rapport and offer friendship.
III. The police seek and preserve public favor, not by catering to public opinion, but by
constantly demonstrating absolutely impartial service to the law, in complete
independence of policy, and without regard to the justice or injustice of the
substance of individual laws.
IV. Educate the people in the community about recent news that may capture their
interest and when reciprocated, volunteer other information about current events,
livelihood and important laws that may affect their lives.
a. I only
b. III and IV only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and IV only
e. All of the above
_________ 10. Which Important Basic Principles of Community Policing describes that the police should
always direct their actions strictly towards their functions and never appear to usurp the powers of the
Judiciary by avenging individuals or the state, or authoritatively judging guilt or punishing the guilty.
a. Principle No. 5. – The Police Must Render Impartial Enforcement Of The Law.
b. Principle No. 7. - The Police Are The Public And The Public Are The Police.
c. Principle No. 8. – Police Represents The Law.
d. Principle No. 2. - Police Must Be Respected By The Community.
e. Principle No. 3. – A Citizen’s Respect For Law Develops His Respect For The
Police.
3.2 COMMUNICATION PROGRAM
_________ 1. It is designed to unify and harmonize the efforts of all PCR units and to encourage broad
networking, coordination and integration of all related undertakings within the PNP, LGUs,
various sectoral groups and people’s organization.
a. Organizational Plan “SAMBAYAN”
b. Information Plan “SANTINIG”
c. LOI 22/09 “BAYANIHAN” (Barangay Peacekeeping Operations)
d. Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility
e. None of the above
_________ 2. This Plan sets forth the concept of operation, operational guidelines and tasks of all PNP
units/offices for a deliberate, synchronized, and concerted effort to inform the public of the
activities, programs and accomplishments of the PNP.
a. Organizational Plan “SAMBAYAN”
b. Information Plan “SANTINIG”
c. LOI 22/09 “BAYANIHAN” (Barangay Peacekeeping Operations)
d. Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility
e. None of the above
_________ 3. The Philippine National Police (PNP) recognizes the role of the Barangay Tanods, Bantay
Bayan, Civilian Volunteer Organizations, Barangay Auxiliaries, Non-Government
Organizations and other People’s Organization that can be utilized as Force Multipliers in
the fight against criminality, insurgency and terrorism. These organizations are also able
partners in the development of the community.
a. Organizational Plan “SAMBAYAN”
b. Information Plan “SANTINIG”
c. LOI 22/09 “BAYANIHAN” (Barangay Peacekeeping Operations)
d. Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility
e. None of the above
_________ 4. This focuses on two elements which play a major role in the peace and order effort: The
Police and the Public.
a. Organizational Plan “SAMBAYAN”
b. Information Plan “SANTINIG”
c. LOI 22/09 “BAYANIHAN” (Barangay Peacekeeping Operations)
d. Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility
e. None of the above
_________ 5. All of these are part of prevention to eliminate opportunity to commit crime, except:
a. Crime detection
b. Doctrine of Reciprocal Responsibility
c. Crime prevention
d. Emergency service
e. Order maintenance
_________ 6. In refusing to be a criminal, the public:
a. maintains good citizenship
b. builds strong family ties
c. strives for good quality of life
d. exemplifies moral uprightness
e. all of the above
_________ 7. In refusing to be a victim, the public joins:
a. neighborhood watch
b. emergency services or disaster coordinating efforts
c. civic actions
d. environmental protections
e. all of the above
__________8. The police on their own cannot effectively prevent and control crimes. The participation
and support of the citizenry in their anti-crime campaign is indispensable. The community must help in
eradicating the causes of criminality as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Poverty
b. Ignorance
c. Untidiness
d. Injustices/abuses
e. Soft state/indiscipline
___________9. In dissuading or discouraging intent, investigation effort must be effective to gain
information thru:
I. Interviews
II. Hearsay
III. Interrogation
IV. Report
V. Stories
a. I & IV
b. IV &V
c. I & III
d. II & III
e. I & V
___________10. The following are restrain activities aim to neutralize the perpetrators of crime or reduce
their propensity to commit zero crime, EXCEPT:
a. Manhunts
b. Case build-ups
c. Prosecution
d. Investigation
e. Accounting of Firearms
3.3 SOCIAL MEDIA PRACTICE
__________1. is the use of Internet-based social media sites to stay connected with friends, family,
colleagues, customers, or clients.
a. Social Media Practice
b. Multi-Media Relations
c. Multi-Media Practice
d. Social Media
e. Multi-Media
__________2. It aims to re-orient and further motivate every PNP personnel to be cognizant of the
importance of a good working relationship with the media as a vital component of the organization’s over-
all Police-Community Relations Program information.
a. Social Media Practice
b. Multi-Media Relations
c. Multi-Media Practice
d. Social Media
e. Multi-Media
__________3. A media representative duly recognized by the PNP, through its PIO, and allowed access
to gather news information about the PNP.
a. Public Information
b. News Media Representative
c. Accredited
d. News
e. Press Release
__________4. Information that may be of interest to the general public about policy, procedures and
events involving the PNP or such other newsworthy information.
a. Public Information
b. News Media Representative
c. Accredited
d. News
e. Press Release
__________5. An individual employed by agencies of the electronics or print media such as radio,
television station, newspaper, news magazine, or wires to gather information and report on a newsworthy
event.
a. Public Information
b. News Media Representative
c. Accredited
d. News
e. Press Release
__________6. It is the reporting of (current) events by the mass media.
a. Public Information
b. News Media Representative
c. Accredited
d. News
e. Press Release
__________6. It is the official statement issued by the PNP to the media.
a. Public Information
b. News Media Representative
c. Accredited
d. News
e. Press Release
__________7. A crucial or decisive point or situation in the course of anything. It could also mean as an
unstable condition, as in political, social, or economic affairs, involving an abrupt or decisive change.
a. Public Information Officer
b. Spokesperson
c. Community Policing
d. Limit of Disclosure
e. Crisis
__________8. An approach to law enforcement designed to prevent and reduce crime by increasing
interaction and cooperation between the PNP and the people.
a. Public Information Officer
b. Spokesperson
c. Community Policing
d. Limit of Disclosure
e. Crisis
__________9. It applies only to limits set by legal requirements.
a. Public Information Officer
b. Spokesperson
c. Community Policing
d. Limit of Disclosure
e. Crisis
__________10. The official authority that serves as a central source of information for release by the PNP
and responds to requests for information by the news media and the community.
a. Public Information Officer
b. Spokesperson
c. Community Policing
d. Limit of Disclosure
e. Crisis
__________11. The officially-designated authority that acts as the mouthpiece of the PNP and usually
speaks in behalf of the Chief, PNP.
a. Public Information Officer
b. Spokesperson
c. Community Policing
d. Limit of Disclosure
e. Crisis
__________12. Below statements are not true definition of emergency, except.
a. An unimportant situation or occurrence that happens unexpectedly and demands
immediate action.
b. A serious situation or occurrence that happens unexpectedly and demands
immediate action.
c. A serious situation or occurrence that happens expectedly and demands
immediate action.
d. An important situation or occurrence that happens unexpectedly and demands
long-term action.
e. An unimportant situation or occurrence that happens expectedly and demands
long-term action.
__________13. Refers to any information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons
collected and processed by a police unit/department.
a. Criminal Intelligence
b. Criminal Information
c. Criminal Identification
d. Criminal Investigation
e. Criminal Surveillance
__________14. Listed below are the duties of Public Information Officer (PIO), except.
a. Assist the news media particularly in covering routine news stories.
b. Be present at the scene of major incidents.
c. Prepare and distribute news releases.
d. Arrange for, and assist at, social media conferences.
e. Coordinate and authorize the announcement of information about victims,
witnesses and suspects and assist in crisis situations handled by his unit.
__________15. Listed below are the roles of Public Information Officer (PIO), except.
a. Know and engage the media.
b. Tell the story—good or bad, accurate and timely.
c. Ensure that all information provided to internal or external audience is accurate.
d. Take appropriate action to correct erroneous information that appears in any
medium.
e. Seek information classified in the interest of national security.
__________16. Arrange the Media Accreditation Process in chronological order.
I. Fill out the Media Personnel Information (MPI) form to be provided by the
PIO
II. Submit to the PIO a Certificate of Endorsement from his/her
editor/station manager
III. In the case of foreign media, an accreditation from the International
Press Center (IPC) must be presented to the PIO, while freelancers must
submit their letter of intent
a. I, II, III
b. II, I, III
c. II, III, I
d. III, I, II
e. III, II, I
__________17. It is the Policy of the PNP to cooperate fully with the media, as it may keep from the press
those regarded as active or classified such as “criminal information of intelligence value.”
a. Non-Intelligence Information
b. Non-Investigative Information
c. Intelligence Information
d. Investigative Information
e. None of the above
__________18. The PNP allows the release of information of a general nature which is not specific to an
on-going investigation.
a. Non-Intelligence Information
b. Non-Investigative Information
c. Intelligence Information
d. Investigative Information
e. None of the above
__________19. From the initial stage of a criminal investigation until the completion of trial or disposition
without trial, police personnel shall refer all requests for information to the Head of Office or his designee.
a. Non-Intelligence Information
b. Non-Investigative Information
c. Intelligence Information
d. Investigative Information
e. None of the above
__________20. Listed below are some of the Information that may be released in connection with an
investigation of an event or crime, except.
a. The type or nature of an event or crime
b. The location, date and time, injuries sustained, damages and the general
description of how the incident occurred.
c. The identity and approximate address of a victim with the exception of sex
crime victims, and in other cases where reprisals or intimidation may be
employed.
d. Requests for aid in locating evidence, a complainant or a suspect.
e. Numbers of officers or people not involved in an event or investigation, and
the length of the investigation
___________1. It refers to the ongoing and changing relationship between the police and
the communities they serve.
a. Police Community
b. Police Community Relations
c. Police Community Program
d. Community Program
e. None of the above
___________2. It designed to bridge the communication gap between the police and the public.
a. Public Information Program
b. Police Relations Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Psychological Program
e. None of the above
___________4. Designed to maintain harmony and mutual support between the police and
the community.
a. Public Information Program
b. Police Relations Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Psychological Program
e. None of the above
___________6. Statements below are the functions of Police Community Relations, except.
a. Providing expert care from birth to the end of life.
b. To develop the trust between police and citizens.
c. Gain trust so Police work becomes much effective
d. The people may feel safe because of trust.
e. All of the above.
___________7. Which of the following is/are not ways to build Police Community Relations?
a. Incorporating accountability and transparency.
b. Creating opportunities for educational exchanges such as “citizens’ police
academies”
c. Establishing regular neighborhood meetings
d. Maintaining communication and follow-up between these meetings
e. None of the above.
___________9. Community Relations will work toward building a positive, open relationship and
interdependence among all that care about this ____________.
a. Community’s well being
b. People’s well being
c. Person’s well being
d. Police’s well being
e. All of the above.
___________10. Which of the following are part of the Community Relations Strategies?
a. Engage the community in a participatory process.
b. Keep communication ongoing and consistent
c. Focus on strategic investments linked to the core business and shaped by the
community
d. Develop relationships with community leaders.
e. All of the above.
4.2 CRIMINOGENIC
_____________1. It means tending to cause crime or criminality.
a. Criminology
b. Crime cause
c. Criminogenic
d. Criminal
e. Crime
_____________2. The ______________has attempted to clarify the concept by reducing the variety of
mental states to four. Guilt is attributed to a person who acts “purposely,” “knowingly,” “recklessly,” or,
more rarely, “negligently.”
a. Model Penal Code
b. Criminal Psychology
c. Strain Theory
d. Classical Criminology
e. Cultural Criminology
_____________3. Which of the following statement/s is or are TRUE about CRIME?
I. It is generally agreed that the essential ingredients of any crime are (1) a
voluntary act or omission (actus reus), accompanied by (2) a certain state of
mind (mens rea).
II. Criminal liability for the result may not require that the harm done must have
been caused by the accused.
III. The test of causal relationship between conduct and result is that the event
would have happened the same way without direct participation of the offender.
IV. Criminal liability may also be predicated on a failure to act when the accused was
under a legal duty to act and was reasonably capable of doing so.
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I and IV
e. All of the above
_____________4. In most countries the law recognizes that a person who acts in ignorance of the facts
of his action should not be held criminally responsible. Thus, one who takes and carries away the goods
of another person, believing them to be his own, does not commit larceny, for he lacks the intent to steal.
In the Philippines, do the ignorance of the law may be an excused to be liable for a crime?
a. Definitely Yes
b. Most certainly not
c. Absolutely
d. Indeed
e. Certainly
_____________5. Intoxication is usually not treated as mental incapacity. ____________was especially
harsh; it held that the mental-disease defense was not applicable to persons who committed a crime while
drunk and that drunkenness might even be an aggravating circumstance.
a. German Law
b. Soviet Law
c. Anglo-American Law
d. Europian Law
e. Englisg Law
_____________6. The _______________ in Anglo-American law relates to situations in which a person,
confronted by the overwhelming pressure of natural forces, must make a choice between evils and
engages in conduct that would otherwise be considered criminal.
a. Doctrine of Necessity
b. Lethal Force
c. Non-lethal force
d. Miranda Doctrine
e. Classical Doctrine
_____________7. One who commits the act “with his own hand” is a ____________.
a. Accessory
b. Principal in the Second Degree
c. Principal in the First Degree
d. Participant
e. All of these
_____________8. It is usually described as an agreement between two or more persons to commit an
unlawful act or to accomplish a lawful end by unlawful means.
a. Proposal
b. Conspiracy
c. Misprision
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
____________9. It is the process through which crime analysts and researchers use location information
about crime events to detect spatial patterns in criminal activity.
a. Mapping system
b. Criminological system
c. Crime mapping
d. Mapping
e. Crime analysis
____________10. In what century where number of studies examined the distribution of crime in France
and England. Brantingham and Brantingham (1991a) provided an overview of some of the findings of the
main studies from this era.
a. Early 18th century
b. 18th century
c. Early 19th century
d. 19th century
e. 21st century
____________11. It refers to “the inability of local communities to realize the common values of their
residents or solve commonly experienced problems” (Bursik, 1988, p. 521).
a. Social disorganization theory
b. Routine Activity theory
c. Social learning theory
d. Labeling theory
e. Strain theory
______________12. It occurs where routine activities produce a convergence in space and time of the
three necessary conditions for crime to occur: (1) a suitable target, (2) a motivated offender, and (3) the
absence of capable guardians (Cohen & Felson, 1979).
a. Victimization
b. Criminal victimization
c. Victim precipitation
d. Victim facilitation
e. Criminal precipitation
______________13. According to this theory, offenders search for suitable targets primarily within this
awareness space by comparing potential targets against templates, or mental conceptualizations of the
characteristics of appropriate targets.
a. Routine Activity theory
b. Social learning theory
c. Strain theory
d. Social disorganization theory
e. Crime pattern theory
______________14. CPTED is?
a. Criminal Prevention Through Economic Design
b. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design
c. Crime Preventing Through Environment Design
d. Crime Presentation Through Economic Design
e. Crime Presentation Through Environmental Design
______________15. Who mapped crimes in France at the department level and found that crimes were
not distributed evenly across departments.
a. Plint, Glyde, and Mayhew.
b. Shaw and McKay
c. Park and Burgess
d. Weisburd & Lum
e. Guerry and Quetelet
______________16. Intoxication is usually not treated as mental incapacity.
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partially correct
d. Partially incorrect
e. Maybe
______________17. It is primarily concerned with understanding offender decision making.
a. rational choice perspective
b. irrational choice perspective
c. situational crime prevention
d. criminal choice perspective
e. lady’s choice perspective
______________18. It refers to the application of the rational choice perspective toward developing policy
recommendations to reduce crime.
a. rational choice perspective
b. irrational choice perspective
c. situational crime prevention
d. criminal choice perspective
e. lady’s choice perspective
______________19. It is currently very popular among police agencies because it provides a method to
coordinate interventions in emerging problem.
a. Hot-spot analysis
b. Crime analysis
c. Victim analysis
d. Criminal analysis
e. Map analysis
______________20. They suggested that prior crime policies that result in mass incarceration may also
impair community functioning, because in some communities this represents a substantial loss in the
social and human capital on which informal social control depends.
a. Plint, Glyde, and Mayhew.
b. Shaw and McKay
c. Park and Burgess
d. Weisburd & Lum
e. Rose and Clear
4.3 POLICE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURE
__________1. Each PNP operating units shall maintain an official ________ where all types of
operational and undercover dispatches shall be recorded containing the five “W”s and one “H” of an
information.
a. Facebook page
b. Inter-Unit Coordination
c. Police Blotter
d. Diary
e. Record Book
__________2. These are basic requirements of police intervention operations; EXCEPT:
a. With a marked police vehicle
b. Preferably led by a Commissioned Officer
c. With Media
d. With personnel in proper police uniform
e. C only
__________3. It is the actual restraint of the person to be arrested or by his submission to the custody of
the person making the arrest.
a. Surrender
b. Arrest
c. Apprehension
d. Warrant
e. Search and Seizure
__________4. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest has been delivered for execution
shall cause the warrant to be executed within ____ days from receipt.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
e. 25
__________5. These are the duties of arresting officer in case of arrest without a warrant, EXCEPT:
a. The arresting officer shall inform the subject or suspect, in the dialect or language known
to him, why he is being arrested, and of his right to remain silent and to have a counsel of his own
choice, to be inform of his authority and the cause of the arrest, unless the person to be arrested
is then engaged in the commission of an offense or is pursued immediately after its commission
or after and escapes; or flees or forcibly resists before the officer has opportunity to so inform
him, or when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
b. The arrested person shall be delivered to the proper authorities without unnecessary
delay and within the time prescribed in article 125 of the Revised Penal Code.
c. The person arrested without a warrant shall be delivered to the nearest police station or
jail, and shall be the subject of inquest proceedings .
d. If the person arrested without a warrant waives his right to remain to silent under
the provisions of Art 125 of the Revised Penal Code and opts to give a statement and
present evidence for his defense, the arresting officer shall ensure that the waiver made
by the person arrested shall be in writing and without the presence of his counsel of
choice.
e. None of the above
__________6. ___________is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines,
signed by a judge and directed to peace officer, commanding him to search for any property described
therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Search Warrant
c. Writ of Habeas Corpus
d. Subpoena
e. Inquest Proceeding
__________7. First Responders – Any police who first arrives at the crime scene and shall endeavor to
protect and secure the same as follows:
I. Cordon off the crime scene with whatever available materials like ropes, straws, human
barricade, police line, if available, etc.
II. Evacuate injured persons to the nearest hospital;
III. Prepare to take the “dying declaration” of severely injured person, if any;
IV. Prevent entry/exit of persons within the condoned area; and
V. Prepare to brief the investigators of the situation upon their arrival.
a. i,ii,v,ix
b. i,ii,iii,iv
c. iii,vi,viii,ix
d. ii,iv,vi,viii
e. iv,viii,ix,xii
__________15. Which is not a protocol about civil aviation which safeguard against hijacking and acts of
unlawful interference to civil aviation?
a. The Chicago Convention
b. National Legislations: Republic Act 1105
c. Tokyo Convention
d. Hague Convention
e. Montreal Convention
___________16. Which of the following is/are the standard inspection/screening devices:
a. Walk-through (gate-type metal detector)
b. Hand-held metal detectors
c. X-Ray Device
d. Frisking
e. All of the above
___________17. Upon receipt of information regarding a bomb threat, the first responder shall not:
a. Determine the exact location of the establishment under threat
b. Instruct the security officer of the establishment to conduct a bomb search while
proceeding to the area.
c. Proceed gradually to the scene.
d. Alert Explosive Ordnance Demolition team (EODT) for bomb search mission for
emergency readiness before departure.
e. Notify higher Headquarters of development.
____________18. Upon arrival at the scene, if a suspected device is located/found, cause the
evacuation of at least _____ meters away, and maintain security for the protection of life and property.
a.100
b.200
c.300
d.400
e.500
____________19. Which among of these things shall not be done after an armed confrontation?
a.Secure the site of confrontation
b.Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger
c. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
d.Account for the killed, wounded and arrest persons for proper disposition
e. None of these
____________20. Which of the following is the property not subject to seizure?
a.Properties which are the subject of the offense
b. Objects that are hidden and not indicated in the warrant
c. Stolen embezzled proceeds, or fruits of the offense
d.Objects including weapons, equipment and other items used or intended to be used as
the means of committing an offense;
e.Objects that are illegal per se in plain view.
4.3.2 ___________1. The following are the CDM operational tasks, EXCEPT:
a. Isolate the area
b. Secure likely targets
c. Control crowds
d. Establish area control
e. Deneutralize special threats
____________2. In selecting an operational approach to a civil disturbance situation, the Ground
Commander and his personnel must adhere to what principle?
a. Medium necessary force
b. Minimum necessary force
c. Maximum necessary force
d. Light necessary force
e. None of the above
____________3. In situations requiring the use of baton/ truncheons, what part of the body should NOT
be targeted to avoid injury?
a.Arms
b.Knees
c. Torso
d. Legs
e. Thighs
____________4. The duties of PNP personnel in any demolition or ejectment activity shall be limited to:
a. Maintenance of peace and order
b. Protection of life and property
c. Enforcement of laws and legal orders
d. Both A and C
e. All of the above
____________5. Role of the PNP in the enforcement of a demolition and/or ejectment orders are the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Police assistance in the enforcement or implementation of a demolition or ejectment
order
b. The duties of PNP personnel in any demolition or ejectment activity shall be limited to
the maintenance of peace and order, protection of life and property, and enforcement of laws and
legal orders.
c. The PNP shall participate in the physical dismantling of any structure subject of
demolition.
d. The conduct of pre-demolition conference in cases where the affected families are
informal settlers shall be mandatory.
e. PNP personnel tasked to provide police assistance shall be in prescribed uniform
during the actual demolition.
___________6. What PNP Standard Operating procedure shall be activated immediately in a Hostage
situation?
__________7. In a hostage situation, there shall be only ONE Ground Commander. The statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Incorrect
e. Erroneous
___________8. What team shall be alerted if the negotiation fails?
a. Demolition Team
b. Negotiation Team
c. Assault Team
d. Crisis Incident Team
e. Ejection Team
___________9. It is a container filled with explosive, incendiary material, smoke, gas, or other destructive
substance, designed to explode.
a. Dynamite
b. Firework
c. Bomb
d. Explosives
e. Ammunition
___________10. Bomb may also be referred to as_________.
a. Ammunition
b. Grenade
c. Cannon
d. Improvised Explosives Device (IED)
e. Dynamite
___________11. Which of the following statements are true about basic facts to be remembered by the
First Responder/Police Investigator on bomb threat?
I. A threat is considered only a threat until something visible is found.
II. Determined bombers frequently give warnings of a possible explosion/incendiary attack
III. Threats are an excellent way to disrupt productivity without actually risking life, limb and/or
property
IV. The consequences of conviction for “threatening” are necessarily as serious as those that
could result from actual placement/initiation of a bomb.
a. I & III
b. II & IV
c. III & IV
d. I only
e. II & III
___________12. If a suspected device is discovered, cause the evacuation of people in the affected area
to a distance of:
a. 100 meters
b. 300 meters
c. 250 meters
d. 400 meters
e. 350 meters
____________13. It is the actual police intervention in a cybercrime incident where the acquisition of
matters of evidentiary value is traceable within the computer’s hardware, software, and its
network.
a. Electronic Response
b. Incident Response
c. Cybercrime Response Team
d. Cyber space Response
e. Cybercrime Response
_____________14. The following are the guidelines for the conduct of search and seizure when the
wireless telephone device was utilized in the commission of the crime.
a. If the device is “ON”, do not turn it “OFF”
b. If the device is “OFF”, leave it “OFF”
c. If the device is “ON”, turn it “OFF”
d. If the device is “OFF”, turn it “OPEN”
e. Both A and B
_____________15. In the absence of Anti-Cybercrime Group (ACG) upon the seizure electronic
equipment in the area, the equipment shall be turned over to?
a. Section 15
b. Section 21
c. Section 5
d. Section 11
e. Section 12
_____________19. What provision shall be observed during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other
public assemblies?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I & II
e. I, II & III
____________20. It is the PNP’s lead unit in the conduct of anti-kidnapping operations which operates in
close coordination with the local police units, other law enforcement agencies and the community.
a. Patrol officers
b. Traffic officers
c. Patrolman
d. All of the above
2. It refers to the “ backbone of the police service “
a. Investigation
b. Arresting
c. Patrol
d. Foot patrol
3. What is the most expensive type of patrol?
a. Beat patrol
b. Foot patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
d. Horse patrol
4. Which of the following is the duties and responsibilities of the Patrol Officers?
a. Practice defensive driving and do not follow traffic rules and regulations
b. Select routes which provides best visibility
c. Be familiar, as much as possible, with unknown persons residing in or frequenting the patrol
beat
d. When requiring a suspicious person or any individual for identification, take the wallet or bag
in which the cards/documents are placed.
8. When responding to street fight / brawls, the patrol member should call for ____ before
intervening?
a. Respond
b. Assistance
c. Back up
d. All of the above
a. In all cases, the driver of the mobile patrol should not avoid reckless driving.
b. Focus all effort to arrest criminals: however, priority shall be given to uninjured person.
c. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
d. All of the above
10. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, never attempt
to handle, move or lift the object. Instead contact the_____.
a. TOC
b. Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team
c. A and B
d. Investigator
11. When responding to calls from the owners of beerhouses, bars or inns or any other similar
establishments during night time, request the owner to put the light on first before entering the
establishments
12. The current anti criminality efforts of the PNP are contained in the, which provides direction and
focus on the core functions of the PNP which are crime prevention and public safety
13. Under what programs focused on police presence, intensified law enforcement operations and
police community partnership?
a. Crime patrol
b. Police visibility
c. Crime prevention
d. Police omnipresence
14. On what aspect the PNP implements and monitorsits programs through the implementation of
the following letters of instructions
15. It serves as the PNP’s Plan for a revitalized campaign against illegal drugs strengthen the support
mechanism of the PNP to PDEA.
16. It is the strategy of the PNP which revitalized, sustained pro active and holistic efforts with focus
on intensified law enforcement operations against kidnapping
a. Anti-kidnapping effort
b. Anti-kidnapping strategy
c. Anti-kidnapping program
d. All of the above
17. The FF. are the duties and responsibilities of the Patrol Officers. Except,
18. The best way patrol officers do in order to establish good relationship to people is _______.
a. Develop contacts by getting to know as many people as possible who can give factual
information
b. Establish good rapport with the people in your beat
c. Conduct home visitations
d. All of the above
a. Cesar Nazareno
b. Recaredo Sarmiento
c. Rafael Crame
d. Panfilo Lacson
21. The PNP ________, prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order, and ensure public
safety and internal security with the active support of the community.
22. It is the constitutional provision states “ there shall be one Police force which is civilian in
character and national in scope “
24. What law creates the Department of Interior and Local Government?
a. R.A 8551
b. R.A 6975
c. R.A 9708
d. R.A 4864
27. What law modified the rank classification system in the PNP?
a. R.A 11100
b. R.A 11200
c. R.A 11300
d. R.A 11400
28. Under the new rank classification of the PNP, What is the equivalent rank of the Army Corporal in
the PNP?
a. Patrolman/Patrolwoman
b. Police Corporal
c. Police Staff Sergeant
d. Police Master Sergeant
29. Who is the first Chief of Manila Police Department after American regime?
a. Lamberto Javalera
b. Rafael Crame
c. Antonio Torres
d. Cesar Nazareno
a. Henry T. Allen
b. Robert Peel
c. Rafael Crame
d. None of the above
31. it is the operation plan of the PNP Special Action Force that killed the Malaysian Bomber “
Marwan “ the Bin Laden of Southeast Asia
a. OPLAN Wolverine
b. OPLAN Exodus
c. OPLAN Gambit
d. Oplan Red Wings
33. Under the old rank classification of the PNP, What is the equivalent rank of Police Chief Inspector
to the Present rank?
a. Police Captain
b. Police Major
c. Police Lieutenant Colonel
d. Police Colonel
34. Who is the first Filipino Chief of Manila Police Department in 1936?
a. Beat patrol
b. Foot patrol
c. Fixed patrol
d. Motorcycle patrol
a. Bicycle patrol
b. Motorcycle patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
d. Horse patrol
a. Motorcycle patrol
b. Foot patrol
c. Horse patrol
d. Animal patrol
38. Patrol is typically the largest function in police agencies around the world.
39. The PNP ________, prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order, and ensure public
safety and internal security with the active support of the community.
4.5 PNP Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) in Managing Police Operations E-MPO (Enhanced
Managing Police Operation)
__________1. This campaign plan was further expanded through ___________that is targeted towards
reducing prevalent crimes and improving public safety in communities nationwide.
a. Managing Police Operations
b. Enhanced Managing Police Operations
c. PNP Operational Strategy
d. Anti-criminality campaign plan
e. Crime prevention campaign plan
__________2. Which of the following is not part of eight focus crimes.
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Illegal Gambling
d. Physical Injury
e. Robbery
__________3. It is essential to the success of PNP operations. They are aware of their problems; they
often know what is happening to their neighbors and they are more concerned about these things
because of the impact it may have on their lives.
a. Active community support
b. Awareness
c. Organization
d. Mobilization
e. Enlightenment
__________4. Through seminars, trainings and similar undertakings, linkages with government agencies,
non-government organizations and other people organizations will be developed and enhanced.
a. Active community support
b. Awareness
c. Organization
d. Mobilization
e. Enlightenment
__________5. This involves mobilizing allies within the various sectors of the community who will
constitute the united front to assist in the conduct of law enforcement and other public safety services.
a. Active community support
b. Awareness
c. Organization
d. Mobilization
e. Enlightenment
__________6. The PNP relentlessly implemented LOI 63/2010 dated November 27, 2010, which
integrates all existing programs on anti-criminality and police operations to form a united front against
criminality.
a. Police Integrated Patrol System
b. Police presence
c. Crime prevention
d. Patrulya ng Pulis
e. ‘KATATAGAN” 2017- 2022
__________7. LOI 45/2011 dated October 26, 2011 was implemented, directing all PNP units to deploy
uniformed personnel assigned to administrative functions to perform limited beat patrol duties, in addition
to their usual tasks, for maximum police presence as well as to intensify law enforcement operations, anti-
criminality campaigns, and public safety services.
a. Police Integrated Patrol System
b. Police presence
c. Crime prevention
d. Patrulya ng Pulis
e. ‘KATATAGAN” 2017- 2022
__________8. This PNP Internal Security Operations Campaign Plan was developed to complement the
AFP Development Support and Security Plan “KAPAYAPAAN” 2017-2022.. It intends to develop the PNP
capability against threat groups; enhance legal offensive against insurgents; promote public safety and
order; and adhere to the rule of law, human rights and social justice.
a. Police Integrated Patrol System
b. Police presence
c. Crime prevention
d. Patrulya ng Pulis
e. ‘KATATAGAN” 2017- 2022
__________9. Program for reductions of the eight focus crimes were sustained with the intensified police
presence wherein a total of 6,661,855 foot and mobile patrol operations were conducted with 78,151,204
man-hours of foot patrols and 40,049,265 man-hours of mobile patrols were spent.
a. Regular Law Enforcement Police Presence
b. Focused Law Enforcement
c. Law Enforcement Operation
d. Law Enforcement
e. All of the above
__________10. Aggressive police operations and other police interventions led to the arrest of lawless
elements that somehow reduced the number of crimes that they may have committed.
a. Regular Law Enforcement Police Presence
b. Focused Law Enforcement
c. Law Enforcement Operation
d. Law Enforcement
e. All of the above
__________11. A comprehensive approach that aims to totally eliminate crimes committed by motorcycle
riding criminals/suspects. It likewise ensures the safety and security of motorcycle and prevents the use
of impounded/stolen motorcycles for criminal activities.
a. Campaign against Motorcycle Suspects
b. Campaign Plan “Clean Rider”
c. Campaign against Car napping
d. Campaign against Illegal Drugs
e. All of the above
__________12. Which of the following is not part of the MAJOR programs and project of the PNP
Operation Programs?
a. Campaign against Motorcycle Suspects
b. Campaign Plan “Clean Rider”
c. Campaign against Car napping
d. Campaign against Illegal Drugs
e. Campaign against Traffic Violators
__________13. This is organized in the regional, provincial and highly urbanized city (HUC) levels.
Meetings are regularly conducted to promote interoperability and maintain the highest level of
coordination between and among PNP and AFP territorial units.
a. Joint Peace and Security Coordinating Center (JPSCC)Campaign Plan
“Clean Rider”
b. Campaign against Communist Terrorist Groups (CTGs)
c. Ending Local Communists Armed Conflict (ELCAC)
d. Campaign against Local Terrorist Groups (LTGs)
e. None of the above
__________14. It is the whole-of-nation approach to attain inclusive and sustainable peace.
a. Joint Peace and Security Coordinating Center (JPSCC)
b. Campaign against Communist Terrorist Groups (CTGs)
c. Ending Local Communists Armed Conflict (ELCAC)
d. Campaign against Local Terrorist Groups (LTGs)
e. None of the above
__________15. The PNP figured in seven government-initiated encounters that resulted in the capture of
six, one wounded, death of 25 during police operations, and the confiscation of 70 small and light
weapons (SALW).
a. Joint Peace and Security Coordinating Center (JPSCC)
b. Campaign against Communist Terrorist Groups (CTGs)
c. Ending Local Communists Armed Conflict (ELCAC)
d. Campaign against Local Terrorist Groups (LTGs)
e. None of the above
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
____________1. It refers to the movement of persons, goods & vehicles either powered by animals or
animal-drawn vehicles, or by combustion system from one place to another for the purpose of safe travel.
a. Traffic Management
b. Traffic Way
c. Traffic
d. Traffic Unit
e. Traffic Patrol
____________2. It refers to the movement of persons, goods & vehicles either powered by animals or
animal-drawn vehicles, or by combustion system from one place to another for the purpose of safe travel.
a. Traffic Management
b. Traffic Way
c. Traffic
d. Traffic Unit
e. Traffic Patrol
____________3. The observation of road conditions, the behavior of the drivers and road users for the
purpose of traffic supervision, law enforcement and providing authorized traffic connected services to
the public.
a. Traffic Management
b. Traffic Way
c. Traffic
d. Traffic Unit
e. Traffic Patrol
____________4. An element of traffic, a person using traffic way for travel or transportation; vehicle,
pedal cyclist, and pedestrians.
a. Traffic Management
b. Traffic Way
c. Traffic
d. Traffic Unit
e. Traffic Patrol
____________5. The entire width between property lines or other boundary lines of every way or place of
which any part is open to the public for the purpose of vehicular travel as a matter of right custom.
a. Traffic Management
b. Traffic Way
c. Traffic
d. Traffic Unit
e. Traffic Patrol
____________6. What are the two primary goals of Traffic Law Enforcement?
a. I and II
b. I and IV
c. II and IV
d. II and II
____________8. These are motorist and pedestrian beliefs that will also foster an attitude of sustained
compliance, except.
a. Traffic laws are intended to ensure safe and expeditious highway travel.
b. Law enforcement officers, through patrol activity, are omnipresent.
c. Police action is certain when offenses formatted, especially when rotations rather
than warnings are issued for violations.
d. Appropriate penalties will be levied by the courts for traffic offenses. (It is not the
severity. of punishment, but the certainty of punishment that is effective.)
e. Traffic laws are unequitable and unfair.
____________9. The fact that a violator promptly apprehended and appropriately punished can have an
effect on the development of an attitude of sustained compliance.
a. Reputational effect
b. Direct effect
c. Observational /symbolic effect
d. Indirect effect
e. Negligence effect
____________10. The fact that an individual may witness the apprehension of a traffic violator (or read or
hear about the apprehension and punishment of a violator) serves as a reminder of the possible
consequences of violating traffic laws.
a. Reputational effect
b. Direct effect
c. Observational /symbolic effect
d. Indirect effect
e. Negligence effect
____________11. The TLE program attains a high degree of effectiveness, a community-wide, general
belief may be fostered (through word of mouth or publicity) that the commission of a traffic violation is a
risky action.
a. Reputational effect
b. Direct effect
c. Observational /symbolic effect
d. Indirect effect
e. Negligence effect
____________12. Act imposing a tax on privately owned passenger automobiles, motorcycles and
scooters, and a science stamp tax, to constitute a special science fund defining the programs, projects,
and activities of science agencies to be financed there from and for other purposes.
a. R.A 4136
b. R.A 8749
c. PD No. 96
d. PD No. 612
e. P.D 1729
____________13. Requiring compulsory insurance for all types of vehicles against third party liability as
an additional pre-requisite for registration by the LTO. P.D 1686.
a. R.A 4136
b. R.A 8749
c. PD No. 96
d. PD No. 612
e. P.D 1729
____________14. Authorizing the Bureau of Land Transportation to dispose of impounded motor vehicles
unclaimed by owners for a certain period of time. P.D 1730.
a. R.A 4136
b. R.A 8749
c. PD No. 96
d. PD No. 612
e. P.D 1729