UPSC

Language Medium : English

Prelimnary Exam
Previous Year Questions
For Indian Polity & Governance
From 2011 to 2023
Q.1 :- What is the difference between 'vote-on-account and 'interim budget?
1. The provision of a 'vote-on-account is used by a regular government, while interim budget is
a provision used by a caretaker government.
2. A 'vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in government's budget while an ‘interim
budget' includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2 :- Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Q.3 :- When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha?
(a) The budget is modified and presented again
(b) The budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Q.4 :- The authorisation for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
must come from
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament of India
(c) the Prime Minister of India
(d) the Union Finance Minister

Q.5 :- All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts
for the conduct of government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Q.6 :- Consider the following
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Equal Access to Public Service
3. Right to Food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under 'Universal Declaration
of Human Rights'?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these

Q.7 :- India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available
to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting-up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statement(b) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Q.8 :- The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Q.9 :- What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief
Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) All of these
Q.10 :- Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down
in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) All of these

Q.11 :- In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part
of some members grant

Q.12 :- Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as
enshrined in the Constitution of India
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
2. Organising Village Panchayats.
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of these

Q.13 :- Consider the following statements

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election
disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of these
Q.14 :- Consider the following statements
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. 5th Schedule
4. 6th Schedule
5.7th Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) All of these

Q.15 :- Which of the following are the methods of parliamentary control over public
finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation
Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the government against
macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) All of the above

Q.16 :- Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by
the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a state and to change the name of a state
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create
one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of
Election Commissioners

Q.17 :- The distribution of powers between the centre and the states in the Indian
Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q.18 :- Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the a time of his/her election but has to
become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the
Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

Q.19 :- Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.
Court?
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a
State.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given beloze
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Q.20 :- In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for
intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India
declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by
the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges
against those who have violated the law while managing public finances
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain
judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.20 :- Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of inclusive
governance?
1. Permitting the non-banking financial companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts.
3. Increasing the government spending on public health.
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.21 :- In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act,
1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining
lease for any mineral in the scheduled areas.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.22 :- What will follow, if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the bill

Q.23 :- Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the
same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the
State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(C) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor
from his/her post
(d) In the case of the Union Territory having a legislative the Chief Minister is appointed by the
Lt Governor on the basis of majority support

Q.24 :- With reference to Indian History, the members of the Constituent Assembly from
the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Q.25 :- Consider the following statements

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the
Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution,
the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both land 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26 :- Consider the following statements

Attorney General of India can
1. take part in proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok Sabha.
3. speak in the Lok Sabha.
4. vote in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Q.27 :- Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

Q.28 :- The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing
international treaties
(a) with the consent of all the states
(b) with the consent of the majority of states
(c) with the consent of the states concerned
(d) without the consent of any state

Q.29 :- According to the Constitution of India, which of the are fundamental for the
governance of the following country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Q.30 :- The government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act
in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognise traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation

Q.31 :- Under the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining
the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tehsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Q.32 :- Consider the following statements
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
2. scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the government.
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these

Q.33 :- In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied
institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

Q.34 :- Consider the following statements

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

Q.35 :- Consider the following statements

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of
preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Q.36 :- Consider the following statements
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
house.
2. While the nominated members of the two houses of the Parliament have no voting right in
the presidential election, they have the Right to Vote in the election of the Vice-President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.37 :- Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman of Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these

Q.38 :- 'Economic Justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been
provided in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Q.39 :- Consider the following statements
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the
Government of India and for the allocation among ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name
of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.40 :- Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence motion in India.

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.41 :- The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre
and the states falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction

Q.42 :- The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission

Q.43 :- Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Q.44 :- With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under non-
plan expenditure?
1. Defence expenditure 2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

Q.45 :- Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eight Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Q.46 :- In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is

included in the
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) 9th Schedule
Q.47 :- Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) All of these

Q.48 :- Which of the following is/are the function(s) of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1 and 2
(d) All of these
Q.49 :- Consider the following statements
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of state authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the authority of the state in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.50 :- Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving Certain Bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of
India.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
Q.51 :- Consider the following statements
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.52 :- When a Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has
be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Q.53 :- Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State
Policy
1. The principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.54 :- There is a 'Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Q.55 :- Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Q.56 :- The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between state
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border states
Q.57 :- With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is
presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorisation
from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorisation from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.58 :- Consider the following statements

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.59 :- Consider the following statements

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative
Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the chairman of Legislative Council of that particular
state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.60 :- “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision
made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
Q.61 :- The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the
following?
1. People's participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilisation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.62 :- The ideal of Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Q.63 :- The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State
List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.

Q.64 :- Consider the following statements

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder
period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.65 :- Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.66 :- Consider the following statements

1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.67 :- With reference to the 'Gram Nyayalaya Act', which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.68 :- Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an
Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.69 :- Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief

Q.70 :- Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Q.71 :- The main advantages of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Q.72 :- In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship
between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Q.73 :- The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the
following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Q.74 :- The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of
Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.75 :- With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but
only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time
in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.76 :- One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology

Q.77 :- Which principles among the following was added to the Directive Principles of
State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to management of industries
workers.

Q.78 :- Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Right are claims of the state against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the constitution of a state.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the state.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Q.79 :- Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy

Q.80 :- Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy
constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function
2. Executive function
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.81 :- Consider the following statements :

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50%
of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.82 :- Right to Vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right

Q.83 :- Consider the following statements :

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both
general elections and bye-elections.
3. Elections Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political
parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.84 :- In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive
orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented
to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different
cases.

Q.85 :- Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation
of the President's rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.86 :- Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against exploitation in the
Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.87 :- Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle
underlying the cabinet form of government:
(a) An arrangement for minimising the criticism against the government whose responsibilities
are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the government whose responsibilities are
increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the
government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the government whose hold over the
people is in a state of decline
Q.88 :- Which one of the following is not a feature of
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating Indian federating units.

Q.89 :- For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filled by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Q.90 :- With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT
Act)', consider the following statements :
1. A property transaction is not treated as benami transaction if the owner of the property is not
aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any
appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Q.91 :- Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court
during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during
his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.92 :- Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.93 :- Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be
a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.94 :- Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between
law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Q.95 :- In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary
Power was given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Q.96 :- With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of
the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2

Q.97 :- Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the
above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Q.98 :- With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by
the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such
delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

Q.99 :- Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.100 :- Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and
no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.101 :- Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot
be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.102 :- If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of
the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Q.103 :- Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.104 :- The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Q.105 :- Consider the following statements:

(1) The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review
(2) Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution of India as
being violative of the independence of the judiciary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.106 :- Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and
proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are
given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the
motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total
membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House
present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.107 :- Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the
person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Q.108 :- With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or

provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the
constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot
be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by
the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a
Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the
Union Legislature.

Q.109 :- With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement
of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok
Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.109 :- In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Q.110 :- Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent
person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political
links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Q.110 :- Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q.111 :- With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally
invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme
Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.112 :- Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions

Q.113 :- With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health,
education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried
forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every
year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.114 :- Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporated

against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality

Q.115 :- In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice

Q.116 :- Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before
the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid
document is presented because this is mandated by
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Q.117 :- A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government

Q.118 :- Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the
Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.119 :- In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the
following
type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Q.120 :- A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion
of a fixed term

Q.121 :- Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule
Q.122 :- Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism,
fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties
and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.123 :- In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic
appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Q.124 :- The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Q.125 :- With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q.126 :- Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a
minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that
State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from
contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.127 :- Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she
thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not
mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q.128 :- In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Q.129 :- Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare

Q.130 :- What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right

Q.131 :- What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Q.132 :- Constitutional government means

(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Q.133 :- Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of
India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.134 :- With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such
accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate
the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.135 :- With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner
because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.136 :- At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Q.137 :- A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an

unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law
violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44

Q.138 :- Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates
that it is federal in character?
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
(c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law

Q.139 :- Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external
control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern
them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of
sustenance.
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with
their own culture, tradition and government.
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible
to the central authority and an independent judiciary.
Q.140 :- With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice
of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.141 :- With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Q.142 :- Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a
liberal democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers

Q.143 :- We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does
our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of
the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the
Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.144 :- With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be
designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the

Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s
charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.145 :- Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election
from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many
constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies
vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Q.146 :- ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
Q.147 :- Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was
passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for
contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

Q.148 :- With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.149 :- Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory
for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by
a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.150 :- Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister,
Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall
not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.151 :- Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q.152 :- With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six
months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a
defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.153 :- Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation
when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.154 :- With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public
duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo
Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.155 :- With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following
statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting
of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker
is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Q.156 :- If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Q.157 :- In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law' mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

Q.158 :- Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and
regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
2. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept
the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q.159 :- Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the
'Constitution' of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

Q.160 :- In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely
believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment

Q.161 :- Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.162 :- Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all
acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the
date of decision become invalid.
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some
Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits
within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q.163 :- With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider
the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject
the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the
Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q.164 :- With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order
of the President.
2. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
3. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order
of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.165 :- Consider the following statements:
1. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation
policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article
335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
2. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of
administration'.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q.166 :- With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance
of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home
Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q.167 :- Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India
According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
1. Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400 mm.
2. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Q.168 :- Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
1. Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote
constitutional values among citizens.
2. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of
India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q.169 :- Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q.170 :- Consider the following statements in the context interventions being undertaken
under Anaemin Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and
pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on
malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.171 :- Consider the following statements:
1. Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with
limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
2. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are
primarily responsible for organising health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q.172 :- Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being
held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the
police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q.173 :- Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of
States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of
that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh
because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is
greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.174 :- Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of
the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five