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PSC315118 Physical Sciences Assessment Report 2023

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
19 views31 pages

PSC315118 Physical Sciences Assessment Report 2023

Uploaded by

z53418018
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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2023 ASSESSMENT REPORT

PSC315118 – PHYSICAL SCIENCES


2023 Exam Marking Scheme
Section A - Criterion 4
Question Answer Marking Details

1a
Subatomic Particle Charge

Proton +1 or
Either relative charge
+1.6 × 10-19 C or absolute charge
accepted
Neutron 0
1 mark total

Electron -1 or 0.5 marks deducted for


+1.6 × 10-19 C each error

1b Electron Maximum
Shell number of
electrons

1 2 1 mark

2 8
1 mark

1c Protons are positively charged. As this was covered in


part a) it was not
Electrons are negatively charged. required in part c)
The electrons are attracted to the protons in the nucleus 1 mark
by an electrostatic force of attraction (EFoA), which
prevents them flying away. 1 mark

1d 2, 8, 6 1 mark

1e 2, 8, 8 1 mark

1f Cl-, K+, Ca2+, P3- Any two accepted

0.5 mark each

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Question Answer Marking Details

1g All elements in period 3 have the same number of Question is specific to


occupied electron shells. period 3, so this was
implied
As you move across the period the number of protons
or the nuclear charge increases. 1

Therefore, there is an increasing EFoA between the 1


nucleus and valence electrons.

Therefore, the radii of the atoms decreases moving No mention of


across the period. electron shielding is
required in PSC315118,
this is only required in
CHM41515

Comments for Question 1


This question was generally accessible for all students with the more successful students getting 8.5 and
above.
a. While the majority of students wrote positive, neutral and negative and these were accepted for
full marks, an indication of the magnitude as well as charge was desirable (e.g. +1, 0 -1). Some
students may have misunderstood the question, or were confused by the table, as they referred to
the generic model of an atom in the diagram above and gave a response of 7, 7, 7 (zero marks).
b. Responses were generally correct, although some students gave the total electrons (2, 10) so lost
a mark.
c. The more successful responses included the term electrostatic force and described where the
positive and negative charges were found in the atom. Students who stated that the protons were
attracted to the electrons orbiting them did not gain full marks.
d. Mostly well answered.
e. Also correct in most instances.
f. A common mistake was selecting O-2 Se-2 rather than ions with 2,8,8 structures or nominating Si-
4 which does not occur in nature.
g. Most responses earned at least part marks for this question but some claimed that electron
numbers increase across period 3, and attributed the decrease in size to the increasing negative
charge. These responses were penalised while the more successful answers described increased
electrostatic force as a result of the higher atomic charge which decreased atomic radii.

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Question Answer Marking Details

2a 60𝑚
27𝐶𝑜 → 60 0
27𝐶𝑜 + 0𝛾 2 marks
(1 mark deducted if m
was missing)

2b Gamma rays have no mass or charge and travel at high


speed (they are electromagnetic radiation). 1 mark
Therefore, they only weakly interact with matter and
can penetrate through thick pieces of metal. 0.5 mark

Beta negative particles are electrons, which have mass


and a -1 charge and travel slower than gamma rays. 1 mark
Therefore, they interact with matter more readily and
cannot penetrate through thick metal. 0.5 mark

2c Increase distance to source. 1 each for any two logical


methods.
Decrease time near source.
0.5 mark if only distance,
Coat the emitter with something that will block beta shielding or time were
particles (e.g. aluminium). stated without a method
of protection

2d Activity 100 50 25
(MBq)
1 mark
Half-lives 0 1 2
elapsed

Therefore, it will have enough activity for 2 × 5.25


years = 10.5 years. 1 mark

Comments for Question 2


Overall, students need to be reminded that “Explain why” questions require detailed reasons for the
phenomenon, and if differences are to be explained, both situations need to be covered in their answer.
a. Some responses did not include the metastable symbol, with a worrying number placing the
reaction arrow in the incorrect place.
b. This was a polarising question with some students just restating the question and quoting
memorised degrees of penetration rather than explaining why the particles had different
penetration properties. Solid responses compared the masses, speeds and ionisation properties of
the two types of radiation, then explained how interactions with the material they passed through
would impact their penetration.
c. The more successful students went into detail and described specific shielding examples and safe
working distances for gamma radiation. Reference to efficient work practices that minimised

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exposure time was also accepted, while only part marks were awarded for “protective clothing”
type answers.
d. As always, some students mapped the halving of activity, but included the initial count as one half-
life, so multiplied 5.25 by 3. Part marks were given for the working out.

Question Answer Marking Details

3a Each of two or more forms of the same element that 1 mark


contain the same number of protons but different
numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.

3b 59.2 40.8 1 mark


121.8 = × 120.9 + 𝑥
100 100

∴ 121.8 = 71.5728 + 0.408 𝑥

121.8 − 71.5728
∴𝑥=
0.408

∴ 𝑥 = 123.1

The mass of the second isotope of antimony is 123.1 2 marks


units.

Comments for Question 3:


a. Student’s responses needed to mention that the proton numbers remained the same while the
neutron numbers changed. Part marks were given if students only mentioned different mass
numbers.
Part marks were awarded if students were able to substitute correctly into relative atomic mass equation.
Many students did not have the transposing skills required to complete the calculation. Those who did
generally gained full marks.

Question Answer Marking Details

4a 239
94𝑃𝑢 → 235 4
92𝑈 + 2𝐻𝑒 2 marks

4b 1
0𝑛 + 239
94𝑃𝑢 → 100
42𝑀𝑜 +
137
52𝑇𝑒 + 3( 10𝑛 ) 1 mark

4c Alpha decay is a spontaneous process that


occurs in individual atoms. It does not lead to
a chain reaction because it does not generate
additional neutrons to trigger subsequent
decay events in neighbouring nuclei. Each alpha 1.5 marks
decay event is independent of others and with
a half-life of approx. 24000 years, there is a
very low activity and hence, low rate of energy

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Question Answer Marking Details

production. Therefore, alpha decay does not


lead to a huge energy release.

On the other hand, nuclear fission is a process


where a heavy atomic nucleus, such as Pu-239,
splits into two or more smaller nuclei, along
with the release of energy and additional
neutrons. These released neutrons can then
go on to trigger the fission of other Pu-239
nuclei, creating a self-sustaining chain reaction. 1.5 marks
As the chain reaction accelerates, an
exponential increase in energy production
occurs.

Comments for Question 4:


Overall, students should be reminded that when answering longer questions it is a good idea to step out
their answer so that they can minimise repetition. Dot points that cover all required points gain more
marks than rambling explanations that are repetitious or miss points.
a. Generally well done.
b. Mostly correct, but some students failed to include the mass of the incident neutron, or multiply
the product neutron mass by 3, so their value for the mass of Te was incorrect.
The most common omission was that students did not talk about the difference in frequency of the two
reactions. With a chain reaction, many fission reactions in a short period produce much more energy than
an alpha that occurs with much less frequency due to a long half-life. Many students said more energy was
released from a single fission than an alpha decay when they actually produce similar amounts of energy.
The latter example gained no marks.

Question Answer Marking Details

5a 20 counts/minute -0.5 marks for not


including units.

5b 192
77𝐼𝑟 → 192
78𝑃𝑡 +
0
−1𝑒 2 marks

5c 24.0 ng When the sample is


weighed after the time,
the mass will be the
same as the daughter
isotope (platinum-192)
has the same mass
number as the iridium-
192.

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5d 130 1 mark for starting at 70
counts/min.
110
1 mark for approaching a

Counts (counts/min)
90 horizontal asymptote of
20 counts/min.
70
1 mark for shape (second
50
point at 73 days is
30 approximately 45
counts/min.
10

-10 0 200 400 600 800


Time (days)

Initial count rate for 24.0 ng sample = 120 counts/min

Background estimation = 20 counts/min

Therefore, initial count rate of 24.0 ng sample due to


iridium-192 = 100 counts/min.

Therefore, initial count rate of 12.0 ng sample due to


iridium-192 = 50 counts/min.

Hence, initial count rate of 12.0 ng sample = 70


counts/min (including background).

Comments for Question 5:


Overall, this was an “A” standard question with parts c) and d) being very challenging for most students.
a. Most students answered this correctly.
b. Some students were not able to structure this decay equation properly; those who identified the
correct charge and mass for Iridium-192 and placed the arrow in the correct place were almost all
able to balance the equation and gain full marks.
c. Only a handful of students understood the concept that mass is conserved with the majority
completing half-life calculations. This wasted time and gained no marks in a one-mark question.
d. Few students recognised that the background count needed to be subtracted before repeatedly
halving the activity of the sample, then adding 20cpm back on before plotting the graph. Part
marks were allocated for correct shapes and finishing the graph at 20cpm. Some students simply
halved all points on the graph in part a) though, and this was not given credit.

Part B – Criterion 5
In this criterion, there is a strong expectation that vector quantities will have direction and units correctly
reported. In many instances students had 0.5 marks deducted for each failure to report directions or units
correctly. The maximum that was deducted per paper however was 1 mark for inadequate reporting of
vector directions and 1 mark for inadequate reporting of units.

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Question Answer Marking Details

6a 45.0 -0.5 marks for no units


= 12.5 m s−1 North
3.6
-0.5 marks for no
direction

6b v 2 = u2 + 2as -1 mark for incorrect


significant figures (must
v 2 − u2 be 3).
∴a=
2s
12.52 − 02
∴a= = 0.501 m s −2
2 × 156

6c

v = u + at
v − u 12.5 − 0
∴t= = = 24.96 m s−1 1 mark
a 0.501
∴ t = 25.0 s

Or
1
s = ut + at 2
2

1
∴ 156 = 0 × t + × 0.501 × t 2
2

2 × 156
∴t=√ = 25.0 s
0.501

Or

𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡

12.5 = 0 + 0.501𝑡

𝑡 = 24.96 s

6d 1 1 mark
s = ut + at 2
2
1
∴ s = 12.5 × 30.0 + × 0 × 302
2
∴ s = 375 m

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Question Answer Marking Details

6e
375 m

1 mark for vector


diagram
156 m
𝜃 s

𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 = 𝑐 2

∴ 𝑠 = √1562 + 3752 = 406 𝑚


1 mark for magnitude
of displacement
𝑂 375
𝜃 = tan−1 = tan−1 = 67.4°
𝐴 156
Displacement is 406 m N67.4oE 1 mark for direction

6f s 406 0.5 marks for


vav = = = 7.38 m s−1
t 55 magnitude of velocity

Average velocity = 7.38 m s-1 N67.4oE


0.5 marks for including
direction
distance 156 + 375
speed = = = 9.65 m s −1 1 mark for speed
time 55
calculation

Comments for Question 6


a. Many students did not recognise this question only involved converting the units of the final
velocity given in the question and instead attempted to use equations of motion.
Those who were not able to complete part a) also found it difficult to complete calculations for
parts b) to d).
b. Reporting the answer to the correct number of significant figures proved to be problematic in
many responses – some of those who did correctly report the appropriate number of significant
figures made rounding errors, giving, for example, 0.500 rather than 0.501.
c. A variety of calculations were possible, with the simplest approach using 𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡
d. Most responses to this question were correct.
e. Most responses included a diagram that represented the situation; however, many did not include
arrows on the vectors or label the angle used to calculate direction.
Quite a few responses only demonstrated calculation of the magnitude of the displacement but
omitted the direction (angle) calculation.
f. This question was mostly answered well.
Some responses did not include the direction on the velocity, and the less successful responses
seemed to indicate that the question wasn’t fully read properly as only either a velocity or speed,
but not both, was provided.

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Question Answer Marking Details

7a Acceleration = slope of velocity~time graph


rise 11.1
∴a= =− = −3.7 m s −2 1 mark
run 3
Hence acceleration is 3.7 m s-2 downwards

7b 3 seconds 1 mark

7c Displacement is area under velocity~time graph


1 1
∴ s = bh = × 3 × 11.1 = 16.65 m
2 2
This is the displacement above the release height. 1 mark for calculation

Or
𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 + 2𝑎𝑠

02 = 11.12 + 2 × −3.7 × 𝑠

−11.12
𝑠=
2 × −3.7
𝑠 = 16.65 (above starting height)

Hence height above the ground = 16.65 + 1.5 = 18.15 = 1 mark for adding on
18.2 m. the release height

7d 1 mark for parabolic


18
3, 18.2 shape
Height above ground (m)

16
0.5 mark for axes titles
14
12 0.5 mark for point
10 labels
8
1 mark for maximum at
6 (3,18.2) and starting
4 and finishing at (0,1.5),
2
6, 1.5 (6,1.5)
0, 1.5
0
0 2 4 6 8

Time (s)

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Comments for Question 7
a. Most students were able to answer this question correctly.
b. Most students were able to answer this question correctly.
c. Many students forgot to add the initial height of the ball to their calculation of displacement.
Students could also answer this question using (suvat) equations of motion. However, it was very
common for students to miss making a = -3.7 m s-2 in the equation.
d. Students should ensure that they meet the question requirements (label all axes and important
points). A lot of errors were carried forward resulting in varying graph points due to mistakes in
the previous part of the question.

Question Answer Marking Details

8a Fg = mg = 6 × 9.81 = 58.9 N down. -0.5 for no direction

8b 0.5 marks for label

Normal force = 58.9 0.5 marks for


N magnitudes

Fg = 58.9 N

8c The weight force acting on block A is caused by a 2 marks for identifying


gravitational force of attraction down from the Earth. the force of the Block
Newton’s third law says every action has an equal an on the Earth as the
opposite reaction. action/reaction pair to
the weight force.
Therefore, the reaction force to this weight force is the
gravitational force of attraction upwards on the Earth
from the block A. 1.5 marks for
description of
Newton’s Third Law
AND outlining the
other Newton’s Third
Law pair relevant to
the situation: FBlock on
Surface = FSurface on Block

8d F = ma
F 12
∴ a = m = 6+12 = 0.667 m s−2 right 1 mark for rearranging
F=ma

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Question Answer Marking Details

1 mark for correctly


using the combined
mass of the blocks.

8e F = ma -0.5 for no direction

F = 12 × 0.667 = 8.00 N right

Comments for Question 8


a. Some responses indicated a confusion between mass and weight, stating that the weight was 6 kg;
a misconception.
b. Many responses did not satisfy the full requirements of the question and only stated force
magnitudes, or only labelled relevant forces on the diagram, not both.
This was also a common question for incorrect statement of units.
c. The weight force is simply the name given to the force that the Earth exerts on the Block. This is
the gravitational force, which always acts on both interacting objects. E.g. the Earth exerts a force
on the Moon while the Moon exerts an equal force on the Earth in the opposite direction.
Newton’s Third Law pairs always act on different objects.
The forces shown in the diagram in Q8b are not a Newton’s Third Law Pair because they act on
the same object. The weight force acts on the block. The normal reaction force also acts on the
block.
The Relevant Newton’s Third Law Pairs involved in the scenario are:
• The Earth exerts a force on the Block (the Weight Force) while the Block exerts an equal
force in the opposite direction on the Earth.
• The block exerts a force on the Surface while the Surface exerts an equal force in the opposite
direction (the normal force) on the Block.
d. This was a challenging question for most students.
A very common mistake was failing to use the combined mass.
e. A very common mistake was the use of the incorrect mass (6 kg or 18 kg instead of 12 kg).

Question Answer Marking Details

9a Vertical motion -0.5 for no direction

v 2 = u2 + 2as

∴ v = √u2 + 2as

∴ v = √02 + 2 × 9.81 × 0.20

v = 1.98 m s −1 downwards

9b Vertical motion 1 mark for time


calculation
v = u + at

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Question Answer Marking Details

v − u 1.98 − 0
∴t= = = 0.202 s
a 9.81 1 mark for initial
horizontal velocity

Direction not required.

Horizontal motion

1
s = ut + at 2
2
1
∴ 2.37 = u × 0.202 + × 0 × 0.2022
2
2.37
∴𝑢= = 11.7 m s−1
0.202
(right)

9c Note that the angle


11.7 determined here
depending on what trig
ratio was used due to
1.98 the rounded value of
11.9
𝜃 11.9 m/s given in the
question.

11.7
𝜃 = tan−1 = 80.4°
1.98 If the angle to the
Or horizontal was found
11.7 0.5 marks given
𝜃 = cos−1 = 80.4°
11.9
1.98
𝜃 = sin−1 = 79.5°
11.9
Comments for Question 9
a. Mostly well answered.
b. Many responses used 11.9 m s-1 as initial velocity, rather than identifying it as the resultant.
A simpler solution is to use Pythagoras:
𝑣 2 = 𝑣𝑥2 + 𝑣𝑦2
11.92 = 𝑣𝑥2 + 1.982
𝑣𝑥 = √11.92 − 1.982 = 11.73 m s−1
c. A very common mistake was to use the displacement vectors instead of the velocity vectors. The
responses indicated that many students struggled with this question and identification of the
correct angle.

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Question Answer Marking Details

10a Newton’s first law. An object will continue in its 1 mark for statement
current state of motion unless acted upon by an of Newton 1st Law
external unbalanced force.

In the case of JUICE, in space there is not air


1 mark for the
resistance, so its motion is only affected by
gravitational attraction to planets. Therefore, it absence of frictional
can continue its motion without needed to forces
continually use its engine.

10b ∆𝑝 = 𝐹∆𝑡 1 mark

∴ ∆𝑝 = 425 × (350 × 60) = 8925000 N s

∴ ∆p ≈ 9 × 106 kg m s −1

10c u = 12.1 km s−1 = 12100 m s−1 1 mark for


conversions between
km/s and m/s

∆𝑝 = 𝑚𝑣 − 𝑚𝑢
As JUICE is slowing down, the change in 1 mark for
momentum is in the opposite direction to motion. interpreting the
change in momentum
to act opposite to
the motion of the
spacecraft

∴ −8925000 = 4180v − 4180 × 12100 1 mark for


calculation
−8925000 + 4180 × 12100
∴ v=
4180
= 9965 m s −1

9965 -0.5 for no final


∴ v= = 9.97 km s −1 statement addressing
1000
whether the
Therefore, JUICE will be succesfully slowed down spacecraft slows
to enter orbit. sufficiently

Comments for Question 10


a. Relatively few responses identified the lack of friction forces in space. Most were able to describe
Newton’s First Law adequately. An important point to make is that it is more correct to refer to
TASC Assessment Report 2023 – Physical Sciences (PSC315118)
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unbalanced or net forces rather than ‘opposing’ or ‘external’ forces when describing Newton’s
First Law.
b. Many responses failed to apply the correct formula relating force and change in momentum, with
confusion regarding momentum formulas present in criterion 6.
c. Many responses incorrectly converted km/s to m/s by dividing by 3.6.
The approach which involved calculating acceleration followed by final velocity was entirely valid.
The simplest approach to this question uses the change in momentum previously calculated to
determine the change in velocity:
Δ𝑝 = 𝑚Δ𝑣

−8.925 × 106 = 4180Δ𝑣

Δ𝑣 = −2135 m s−1

Δ𝑣 = 𝑣 − 𝑢

−2135 m s −1 = 𝑣 − 12100 m s −1

𝑣 = 9965 m s −1

Part C- Criterion 6
Question Answer Marking Details

11a p = mv = 0.156 × 38 = 5.93 kg m s −1 North 1 mark magnitude

0.5 mark units

0.5 mark direction

11b m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2 1 mark for formula


or relationship with
∴ m1 u1 − m1 v1 = m2 v2 − m2 u2 numbers

∴ m1 (u1 − v1 ) = m2 (v2 − u2 )
m1 (u1 − v1 )
∴ m2 =
(v2 − u2 )
mball (uball − vball )
∴ mbat =
(vbat − ubat )
Define south as positive
0.156((−38.0) − 42.4) 2 marks for
∴ mbat = calculation and
(21.0 − 28.0)
result
∴ mbat = 1.79 kg

11c Kinetic energy is not conserved 1mark

-0.5 if kinetic is
missing

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Comments for Question 11
a. Most responses calculated momentum correctly but failed to give a direction.
b. This question was poorly done by most students with many not able to complete the momentum
equation, and fewer able to solve it.
c. Many responses indicated that students did not know the definition of an inelastic collision.

Question Answer Marking Details

12a 1 1 1 mark
Ek = mv 2 = × 78.0 × 6.002 = 1.40 × 103 J
2 2

12b
80 m
∆ℎ 1 mark
5o

𝑂
sin 𝜃 = -0.5 mark for using
𝐻 tan 𝜃
∴ 𝑂 = 𝐻 sin 𝜃

∴ ∆ℎ = 80 × sin 5 = 6.97 𝑚

12c ∆Ep = mg∆h = 78 × 9.81 × 6.97 = 5.34 × 103 J 1 mark

12d 1 1 0.5 mark for using


∆Ek = mv 2 − mu2 3ms-1
2 2
1
∆Ek = × 78 × 32 − 1404
2 0.5 mark for
calculation
∆Ek = −1.05 × 103 J
Therefore, the rider lost 1053 J of kinetic energy whilst
moving up the hill

12e W = Fs = 6.10 × 80.0 = 488 J 1 mark

12f 𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = ∆𝐸𝑝 + 𝑊𝑜𝑟𝑘 + ∆𝐸𝑘 0.5 mark for using
each energy form
𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = 5335 + 488 + (−1053) = 4770 𝐽 (1.5)

∆𝐸 4770 1 mark for power


∴𝑃= = = 265 𝑊 calc.
𝑡 18
Hence the scooter is illegal.
0.5 mark for
analysing the legality
of the scooter

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Comments for Question 12
a. This calculation was generally well done.
b. About half the responses recognised the appropriate trig relationship and used sine of the angle,
but many used tan instead.
c. This calculation was generally well done.
d. This more challenging question was surprisingly well done.
e. This calculation was generally well done.
f. This question was poorly done – few students were able to assemble the various energy changes.

Question Answer Marking


Details

13a Ep = mg∆h = 2.00 × 9.81 × 0.100 = 1.96 J 1 mark

13b Ek = Ep = 1.96 J 1 mark

13c 1 1 mark
Ek = mv 2
2

2 × Ek 2 × 1.962
∴v= √ =√ = 1.40 m s −1
m 2.00

13d 1 mark for either


y-intercept

1 mark for shape

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Comments for Question 13
a. This calculation was generally well done.
b. This calculation was generally well done.
c. This calculation was generally well done.
d. Many students were able to sketch the appropriate graph but labelling the “y intercept” was
misunderstood by many.

Question Answer Marking


Details

14a R total = R1 + R 2 + R 3 0.5 calculation

R total = 24 + 16 + 8.0 = 48 Ω 0.5 units

14b V = IR 0.5 calculation

V 12 0.5 units
∴I= = = 0.25 A
R 48
1 mark for
14c
correct current
I + - direction
1 mark for
correct battery
polarity
(Errors in polarity
were carried
forward when
marking current
direction)

14d 1 1 1 1 mark for


= + communication of
𝑅𝑇 𝑅1 𝑅2
reasoning
1 1 1
∴ = − 1 mark for
𝑅2 𝑅𝑇 𝑅1 correct working
1 1 mark for
∴ 𝑅2 =
1 1 correct answer
𝑅𝑇 − 𝑅1 solution correct
with units
1
∴ 𝑅2 = = 192 Ω
1 1
48 − 64
Alternate equation

OR alternate solution (using total current) with algebra earned


full marks

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Question Answer Marking
Details

14e 1 mark for


correct voltmeter
placement

1 mark for
correct ammeter
placement

-0.5 marks if
words were used
rather than
device symbols

Comments for Question 14


a. Resistance calculation was generally well done.
b. Current was generally calculated well.
c. Less successful responses were unable to correctly label the battery polarity or give the direction
of conventional current.
d. Some responses were able to give the appropriate equation but not able to solve it. A very few
gave an alternative solution using data from the earlier series work (part a).
e. Reasonably well done, although a number of responses placed the ammeter in the main circuit
rather than the 64Ω branch. Resistance calculation was generally well done.

Question Answer Marking Details

15a Charging: 1 mark for charging

Light energy → electrical energy (by the solar panel)

Electrical energy → chemical potential energy (in the battery)


1 mark for usage
Usage:

Chemical potential energy → electrical energy

Electrical energy → sound and light -0.5 for each


Heat energy is produced in each step. missing
transformation

15b 𝑞 = 𝐼𝑡 = 3200 × 10−3 × (60 × 60) = 11520 1 mark for correct


working

1 mark for correct


answer

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15c 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒


𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 =
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛
0.5 marks for
11520 calculation
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑒 − = = 7.2 × 1022 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠
1.6 × 10−19 0.5 marks for
correct number of
electrons

15d ∆𝐸 1 mark for energy


𝑉= in joules
𝑞

∆E = Vq = 3.83 × 11520 = 44121.6 J

1 Watt hour = 3600 J


44121.6
∴ = 12.3 W h 1 mark for
3600 conversion to watt
hours

15e 12.256 1 mark


time = = 1.75 hours
7

Comments for Question 15


a. Energy transformations were generally poorly described with many responses calling sunlight
“heat” instead of solar energy, and many did not recognise the chemical potential energy of the
battery.
b. The successful approaches saw the need to use I = q/t and the fact that I = 3200 mA = 3.2 A in
order to be able to solve the question.
c. Less successful responses were commonly connected with failure to connect total charge to the
number of electrons, or an inability to use the calculator correctly.
Many responses stated a negative number of electrons; this was penalised.
d. This question was poorly done with a common mistake of not recognising that Wh is an energy
unit. Students tended to use power instead.
e. Few responses gave good reasoning for the answers they provided.

Part D - Criterion 7
In this Criterion, there is a need to read the questions carefully to ensure that the concepts of bonding
being assessed are fully addressed. Rote responses can be efficient for recall but must be tailored to meet
the question.

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16a Strontium hydroxide 1 mark each

Tin (II) nitrate -0.5 for not showing


the charge on the tin
ion.

16b 𝑆𝑛(𝑁𝑂3 )2 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑆𝑟(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑆𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑠) + 𝑆𝑟(𝑁𝑂3 )2 (𝑎𝑞) 1 mark for correctly
identifying
Or precipitation product.

𝑆𝑛2+ − 2+ −
(𝑎𝑞) + 2 𝑁𝑂3 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑆𝑟 (𝑎𝑞) + 2 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) +0.5 marks each for
→ 𝑆𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑠) + 2 𝑁𝑂3−(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑆𝑟 2+ balance and states
(𝑎𝑞)
-0.5 marks for non-
simplest ratio

16c 𝑆𝑛2+ −
(𝑎𝑞) + 2 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑆𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 (𝑠)
0.5 marks deducted
for full ionic equation
and for lack of (s)
state on precipitate

16d Ionic compounds have a structure consisting of a lattice of


alternating cations and anions held together by electrostatic
forces of attraction.

High Melting Point:

These forces are strong, and therefore require a large 1.5 marks for each
amount of energy to break. Therefore a high temperature is explanation
required to melt ionic compounds such as barium chloride.

Brittleness:

If a large force is applied to the ionic lattice, then like


charges can align, which will cause an electrostatic force of
repulsion between the like charges causing the crystal to
shatter.

(use of an arrow showing force – instead of a hammer – is


appropriate)

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Comments for Question 16:
a. Many responses omitted the valency/charge of the tin in tin(II) nitrate.
Another common error was the inclusion of prefixes in the naming of ionic compounds. This is
not necessary when valency/charge of the metal in an ionic compound is known.
b. Many responses failed to properly identify the precipitate as Sn(OH)2(s) . Combinations of the
stated solutions containing other than Sn2+ and OH- would fail to produce a precipitate.
c. There was the possibility of error carried forward (ECF) for this question, depending on the
response to the previous part of the question. However, a solid must still be the product; a net
ionic equation cannot have all species in aqueous states.
d. More successful responses commonly included a diagram to help explain the brittleness of barium
chloride. Unfortunately, the misuse of the terms intramolecular and intermolecular to explain the
properties of an ionic lattice were far too common. Neither exist in ionic compounds.

Question Answer Marking Details

17a 3 occupied electron shells -0.5 for not


mentioning occupied

17 b Most reactive Least reactive 1 mark for correct


order
Sodium, magnesium, aluminium

17c Metals tend to lose electrons to gain a stable electron 1 mark for stating
configuration. metals react by losing
electrons.
All three of these metals have three occupied electron
shells; the valence shell is the 3rd shell.
1 mark for stating
Aluminium has the highest nuclear charge (Z=13, the
number of protons in its nucleus) and hence the greatest aluminium has the
electrostatic force of attraction between its nucleus and highest nuclear
charge/greatest
valence electrons.
number of protons
Hence it has the lowest reactivity as it is the least likely to and sodium the
lose an electron. lowest.

Conversely, sodium (Z=11) will have a weaker electrostatic 1 mark for relating
force of attraction between its nucleus and valence the nuclear charge to
electrons, hence it will be the most reactive. the strength of the
electrostatic force of
attraction between
the nucleus and
valence electrons.

17d Metals have a structure consisting of a lattice of metallic 0.5 marks


cations surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons.

When one end of the metal is heated: 1 mark

• the ions in the lattice can begin vibrating


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Question Answer Marking Details

• the electrons gain kinetic energy.


As the electrons can readily move throughout the metal,
they transfer the (translational) kinetic energy (heat) 0.5 marks
throughout the metallic lattice.
Alternatively: As the ions vibrational energy is rapidly
transferred through the lattice, heat is readily conducted.

Comments for Question 17


This question was unfortunately the most poorly answered. It was most directly related to the properties
of metals with little extension or application to unknown/unusual contexts required.
a. Many responses omitted the key term occupied.
There are many, many shells in an atom but only some are occupied by electrons, these occupied
shells and the strength of their interaction with the nucleus dictate the chemistry.
b. Generally done well. However, the most common error was reversing the order or reactivity,
even though the question prompted most reactive to least reactive.
c. This question required responses that explained the trends in reactivity, rather than simply
describing them. Defining how metals react by losing electrons was a key element to successfully
relating how easy this loss is to the electrostatic attraction between valence shell electrons and
nuclear charge.
Students are discouraged in using uncommon abbreviations such as SDE, SODE.
d. Many responses discussed electrical conduction rather than heat conduction.
Conduction of heat relies on the transfer of kinetic energy (usually translational or vibrational).
Relating the rapid transfer to the delocalised electrons or vibrating ions in the lattice was
necessary to gain full marks. This last part of the answer was often omitted.

Question Answer Marking Details

18a Reactant: Cl2 1 mark each for


correct identification
Product: HCl of reactant and
product

18b Name: methyl propene 1 mark name

Or 2-methylpropene

1 mark for structural


formula

18c Each of two or more compounds with the same molecular 0.5 marks
formula, but

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a different arrangement of atoms in the molecule (different


structural formula) 0.5 marks

18d 2-chloro-2-methyl propane 1 mark for name

Or 2-chloromethylpropane

1 mark for structural


formula

18e Reaction B 1 mark

(This is a fast addition reaction to an alkene. Reaction A


would be a slow substitution reaction)

Comments for Question 18


Further attention to IUPAC nomenclature is encouraged, especially the correct use of dashes.

Students are also encouraged to always double-check the number of bonds on any given atom doesn’t
exceed its normal number of valence electrons (for example, the number of bonds around a carbon atom
should be four).
a. Elemental chlorine, Cl2, was the correct reactant. Many responses simply stated Cl.
”Chlorine gas” was accepted as this will be in the elemental form under normal laboratory
conditions. Usually if Cl was (incorrectly) stated as the reactant, H was (incorrectly) indicated as
the product, instead of the required HCl.
b. Many responses named methyl propane (the product) instead of the reactant (2-methylpropene).
Common errors also included too many bonds on a double bonded carbon atom and too many
bonds on hydrogen atoms.
c. It is simplest to state “same molecular formula” instead of describing this. Compounds with the
same empirical formula may not be isomers.
d. Many responses indicated that the instruction to draw an alternate isomeric product to Reaction
B, was missed, and instead an isomer of the reactant was identified.
e. This question was generally answered well with most responses correctly identifying reaction B as
the more rapid reaction (under laboratory conditions and in the absence of UV light).

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19a Intermolecular bonds:

Dimethyl ether, as a covalent molecular substance 1 mark


comprises of molecules which are held together by weak
intermolecular forces. When the substance boils, these
intermolecular forces break

Intramolecular bonds:

Dimethyl ether consists of atoms which are strongly bonded 1 mark


together through intramolecular covalent bonds. These
bonds are not broken in the boiling process.

19b 1 mark for central


atom possessing:

• 2 lone pairs
• 2 bonding
pairs
1 mark for correct
representation of
methyl groups on
either side of central
O atom.

19c Balanced Complete Combustion Equation : I mark

C2 H6 O + 𝟑O2 → 𝟐CO2 + 𝟑H2 O

Test: Bubble gas through limewater solution, if the solution I mark


turns cloudy, the gas is CO2.

19d Water is a polar molecule. 1 mark for stating


water is polar
(Water has a bent shape, and due to the presence of
hydrogen atoms bound to oxygen is polar).

The polar nature of water means that neighbouring 1 mark for discussing
molecules are attracted to each other through relatively strength of
strong intermolecular (hydrogen) bonds. intermolecular
(hydrogen) bonds
As these intermolecular hydrogen bonds are stronger than
the weaker (dispersion) forces between non-polar Diagram not
molecules, they take more energy to break and therefore required, but strongly
water has a higher BP/MP than other similar covalent encouraged.
compounds.

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Comments for Question 19
Students are encouraged to be mindful of question instructions to ‘Describe’, ‘With reference … explain’, etc.
a. The most successful responses demonstrated a clear understanding of the difference between
intermolecular (between the molecules) and intramolecular (within the molecules) bonds.
Either “Intermolecular bonds are broken”, or “bonds between the molecules are broken” was
accepted.
b. Many diagrams were a mix of electron dot diagram and Bohr model.
Less successful responses replaced bonding pairs with lines. This simply reproduced the structural
diagram provided in the introduction to the question.
c. No marks were deducted if a stoichiometric coefficient of “1” was provided for the C2H6O in the
combustion equation. A common mistake in balancing for O2(g) was failing to account for the O
atom in C2H6O.
Students were asked to describe a suitable test for the gases produced, not simply state the one
used; a common mistake.
d. Students are strongly encouraged to, where possible, use a suitably annotated diagram to assist in
explanations. The Physical Sciences course only requires students to understand water is a polar
molecule and therefore possesses stronger intermolecular bonding compared to non-polar
molecules. Greater bonding awareness is desirable but not assessable.

Question Answer Marking Details

20a The term allotrope refers to the different forms of a


chemical element that occur in the same physical state. The
different forms arise from the different ways atoms may be
bonded together.

20b As an abrasive:

E.g., to coat drill bits, saw blades, sandpaper etc

20c Lonsdaleite, like diamond is not expected to conduct 1 mark for saying no
electricity. and linking to
diamonds structure

Diamond, like lonsdaleite, is a covalent network in which 1 mark for saying


each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other atoms. diamond has 4
Therefore, there are no free electrons (or ions) which are covalent bonds per
free to move and conduct electricity. atom.

This is in contrast to graphite, which is a covalent layer 1 mark for discussing


lattice in which each carbon atom is covalently bonded to the delocalised
three other atoms in a 2D lattice, with one electron (per electron in graphite.
carbon atom) delocalised between the layers. These
delocalised electrons are free to move and conduct.

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Comments for Question 20
This question was a clear discriminator of students able to apply their understanding of covalent network
structures and properties to an unknown context.
a. Although the concept of allotropes is often associated in our course with carbon, it is not
exclusively limited to carbon.
b. Practical suggestions for applications of Lonsdaleite were awarded marks.
Constructing a building out of Lonsdaleite, for example, is not practical.
c. Many responses did not fully address the question by referring to the structures of diamond and
graphite as well as Lonsdaleite. Less successful responses tried to link the strength of Lonsdaleite
to the electrical conductivity of this allotrope, rather than consider its structure and the absence
of delocalised electrons (in contrast to graphite) to carry electrical current.

Part E - Criterion 8
In this section, there were numerous questions requiring fairly routine calculations followed by an
interpretation. This criterion proved very challenging for most candidates.

Question Answer Marking Details

21a M(C6 H12 O6 ) = 6 × 12.01 + 12 × 1.008 + 6 × 16.0 1 mark

∴ M(C6 H12 O6 ) = 180.16 g mol−1 -0.5 mark if


calculation has
only 4 sig fig
(180.2)

21b N 1 1 mark for finding


n(C6 H12 O6 ) = = = 1.66 × 10−24 mol the number of
NA 6.02 × 1023
moles
m
n=
M
∴ m(C6 H12 O6 ) = n × M 1 mark for mass
calc.
∴ m(C6 H12 O6 ) = 1.66 × 10−24 × 180.16 = 2.99 × 10−22 g

21 c ∴ m(C6 H12 O6 ) = n × M 1 mark

∴ m(C6 H12 O6 ) = 0.0277 × 180.16 = 4.99 g

21 d n 0.0277 0.5 mark for


c(C6 H12 O6 ) = = = 0.101 mol L−1 converting mL to
v 0.275
L

0.5 mark for


calculating
concentration

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Question Answer Marking Details

21e n(C6 H12 O6 ) in blood = c × v = 2.00 × 10−3 × 5.00 1 mark


= 0.0100 mol

n(C6 H12 O6 ) in IV = c × v = 0.101 × 0.275 = 0.0277 mol 1mark

∴ n(C6 H12 O6 ) after IV = 0.0277 + 0.0100 = 0.0377 mol


n 0.0377 1 mark
∴ c(C6 H12 O6 ) after IV = = = 7.18 × 10−3 mol L−1
v 5.275 1 mark
Therefore, the patient is now hyperglycaemic.

Comments for Question 21


There were obvious errors in calculator use for significant numbers of students. They need to know how
to use scientific notation, particularly in calculations involving division.
a. Few responses earned full marks as they were not showing an answer with sufficient accuracy (5
significant figures).
b. Marks were deducted if 180.2 was used instead of 180.16. Some students appeared to confuse a
mole with a molecule. They are not equivalent.
c. This calculation was generally well done.
d. When questions require "show that something equals approximately ..” students are required to
give more significant figures than the approximate amount. Many students rounded to 0.1 molL-1
and were penalised.
e. Most attempted responses were reasonably strong. A common error was failure to use the
quantity of glucose given in part d).

Question Answer Marking Details

22a mass of H2 O 1 mark


% H2 O = × 100
molar mass

5 × (2 × 1.008 + 16.0)
% H2 O = × 100 = 36.1 %
249.69

22b m(H2 O) = % H2 O × mass 1 mark

m(H2 O) = 0.361 × 5.00 = 1.80 g

22c m(CuSO4 ) = 5.00 − 1.80 = 3.20 g 1 mark for


determining the
m(H2 O)in CuSO4.x H2O = 1.80 − 0.72 = 1.08 g mass of CuSO4

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Question Answer Marking Details

3.20 1.08
∴ n(CuSO4 ) = = 0.0200 ∶ n(H2 O) = 1 mark for
159.6 18.016
= 0.0599 determining the
mass of water
0.0200 0.0599 remaining
∴ n(CuSO4 ) = ∶ n(H2 O) =
0.0200 0.0200
∴ n(CuSO4 ) = 1 ∶ n(H2 O) = 3
1 mark for
empirical formula
∴ CuSO4 . 3 H2 O calculation

Comments for Question 22


The majority of students attempted this question but could not solve it. There were many possible ways to
solve the question, but often responses were incomplete and did not clearly explain their logic.
a. Many students did not state that their solution was approximately equal to 35%
b. Some responses carried 35% into their calculations in this section, so gave inaccurate calculated
answers.
c. While there were a variety of ways to reach a correct solution, some using simple ratio
calculations, the majority of students found this question too challenging.

Question Answer Marking Details

23a n(AgNO3 ) = c × v = 0.500 × 0.856 = 0.428 mol 0.5 mark for


converting mL to
L

0.5 mark for


calculation

23b n(Ag + ) = 0.428 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 mark for


determining the
n(Cl− ) = 0.428 𝑚𝑜𝑙 number of mol of
chloride ions
∴ 𝑐(𝐶𝑙 − ) = 0.0428 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 × 35.45 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 = 1.52 𝑔 𝐿−1

𝑛 0.428 1 mark for


∴ 𝑐(𝐶𝑙 − ) = = = 0.0428 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 concentration in
𝑣 10
mol/L
∴ 𝑐(𝐶𝑙 − ) = 0.0428 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 × 35.45 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 = 1.52 𝑔 𝐿−1

∴ 𝑐(𝐶𝑙 − ) = 1.52 𝑔 𝐿−1 × 1000 = 1520 𝑚𝑔 𝐿−1 1 mark for


converting to
Therefore, this cannot legally be discharged as it is above the legal mg/L
limit of 1400 mg L-1

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Comments for Question 23
Many responses indicated that students found the context of the question confusing.
a. Many responses rounded their calculation to 0.4 mole rather than showing the correct number
of significant figures.
b. While responses were reasonable here, it is evident that many students do not understand the
correct way to respond to "show that” questions. Some students used the values given for AgCl
or AgNO3 without explaining the 1:1 ratio to the Cl- concentration.

Question Answer Marking Details

24a A diprotic acid is an acid that can donate two protons (or hydrogen 1 mark
ions) per molecule in an aqueous solution.

24b Thiosulfuric acid is a weak acid. This means that it will only partially 1 mark for weak
ionise in solution. acids partially
ionise

Sulfuric acid is a strong acid. Therefore, it will ionise to a greater 1 mark for strong
extent. acids fully ionise

As pH is proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in 1 mark for


solutions, (and a low pH corresponds with high concentration), relating pH to
thiosulfuric acid will have a higher pH then sulfuric acid. concentration of
hydrogen ions

24c i. 0.5 mark for


correct
H2 S2 O3 (aq) + 2NaHCO3 (aq) → Na2 S2 O3 (aq) + 2H2 O (l) + 2CO2 (g) compounds

0.5 mark for


states

1mark for
balanced equation

24d n(KOH) = cv = 0.4153 × 0.0212 = 8.80 × 10−3 mol 1 mark for mol
calculation

n(KOH) 8.80 × 10−3 1 mark for


n(H2 S2 O3 ) in 20 mL aliquot = = applying the
2 2
stoichiometric
∴ n(H2 S2 O3 ) in 20mL aliquot = 4.40 × 10−3 mol ratio

n 4.40 × 10−3
∴ c(H2 S2 O3 ) dilute = = = 0.220 mol L−1
v 0.0200 1 mark for
calculating
concentration

1 mark for sig figs

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Question Answer Marking Details

24e 10 mL of the thiosulfuric acid from the bottle was diluted to 100 mL. 1 mark

∴ c(H2 S2 O3 ) bottle = 10 × 0.220 mol L−1

∴ c(H2 S2 O3 ) bottle = 2.20 mol L−1

Comments for Question 24


There were obvious errors in calculator use for significant numbers of students. They need to know how
to use scientific notation, particularly in calculations involving division.
a. Many responses indicated that the term “diprotic” was not well understood. Some responses
discussed 2 Hydrogen atoms rather than H+ ions or protons. Referencing atoms was penalised.
b. Few responses achieved full marks as they did not demonstrate understanding of the pH scale, or
could not explain the difference between strong and weak acids in terms of dissociation and the
number of available protons.
c. Reference to the information sheet should have reminded students that the products of a reaction
between an acid and a hydrogen carbonate will include water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2);
the formula for the salt will hence be more easily determined. Sodium thiosulfate was rarely given
as a product.
d. A number of responses used the dilution formula C1V1 = C2V2 when it is not appropriate in
titrations, especially with diprotic acids. Other students reversed the mole ratios and multiplied
rather than dividing the calculated amount of KOH. Some students mixed up volumes in their
calculations – clear setting out is required to avoid this.
A value of 0.22 molL-1 was commonly stated, however this is only correct to 2 significant figures,
not the required 3 significant figures.
e. This section was poorly done, with weaker responses failing to multiply the concentration in d) by
the dilution factor. Using C1V1 = C2V2 was appropriate, but rarely applied, here.
Examiners strongly recommend that students use a sense of “reasonableness” when thinking
about their responses. If a solution has been diluted 10 times, the original solution must have been
10 times more concentrated.

Question Answer Marking


Details

25a No. 0.5 mark for


No

A Bronsted-Lowry base will accept a proton in a reaction with an acid 1.5 mark for
such as hydrochloric acid. This is not occurring in this reaction, therefore, definition of
it is not reacting as a Bronsted-Lowry base. Bronsted-
Lowry base

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Question Answer Marking
Details

25b m 0.249 1 mark


n(H2 ) = = = 0.124 mol
M 2.016

From the stoichiometric ratio in the equation:

∴ n(X) = n(H2 ) = 0.124 mol 0.5 marks

m m
n= ∴ M=
M n 1 mark
3.00
∴ M(X) = = 24.3
0.124

Therefore, X is likely to be magnesium 0.5 marks

25c n(MgCl2 ) = n(Mg) = 0.124 mol 1 mark for


molar mass
M(MgCl2 ) = 24.31 + 2 × 35.45 = 95.21 g mol−1 calculation of
MgCl2

∴ m(MgCl2 ) = n × M 1 mark for


mass
∴ m(MgCl2 ) = 0.124 × 95.21 = 11.8 g calculation

Comments for Question 25


This question was generally well answered by those students who attempted the last page of the last
section of the exam.
a. The Bronsted-Lowry definition of a base was frequently not given, or well explained, in this
question which required a response including "donated to” or “accepted by” to gain full marks.
b. This section was reasonably well answered, with most attempted responses able to apply the
mole ratio and determine the charge on the element X.
c. If the response to part b) was correct, this part was generally correctly answered. Markers carried
errors in b) forward to this section.

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