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Đề Thi Thử HSG Lần 4

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
91 views9 pages

Đề Thi Thử HSG Lần 4

Uploaded by

Mai Linh Linh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO ĐỒNG NAI KỲ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH

SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH – LẦN 4


THPT NGÔ QUYỀN NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024
Name:………………………….. Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút.
Class:………… Ngày thi: 28/12/2023
ID:…………….. (Đề thi này gồm 9 trang, có 109 câu + 1 bài luận)
I. LISTENING (4.0 PTS)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU:
• Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1
Questions 1-10: Guillermo Quick had an experience that changed the way he thought about the environment.
You will hear an interview with him. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS or NUMBERS for each answer.
Guillermo was walking along a jungle path on his way to (1) ____________________ when he heard a loud noise.
At first he thought someone was trying (2) ____________________ him but then he realised the noise was coming
from the tops of the trees.
The trees were covered with (3) ____________________ and were impossible to climb.
Hard wooden shells were falling from the trees and they were (4) ____________________ which made the noise.
The shells were shaped (5) ____________________.
Guillermo returned to Spain and told (6) ____________________ about the shells. He had to find a way of collecting
500,000 shells in (7) ____________________.
He employed (8) ____________________ to help him collect the shells and eventually reached his target.
He uses the shells to make (9) ____________________.
He hopes that the proceeds from sales can be used to raise money for (10) ____________________.
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 2: Questions 11-20


Questions 11 and 12 Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facts are given about the school's extended hours childcare service?
A. It started recently.
B. More children attend after school than before school.
C. An average of 50 children attend in the mornings.
D. A child cannot attend both the before and after school sessions.
E. The maximum number of children who can attend is 70.
Questions 13-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
13. How much does childcare cost for a complete afternoon session per child?
A. £3.50 B. £5.70 C. £7.20
14. What does the manager say about food?
A. Children with allergies should bring their own food.
B. Children may bring healthy snacks with them.
C. Children are given a proper meal at 5 p.m.
15. What is different about arrangements in the school holidays?
A. Children from other schools can attend.
B. Older children can attend.
C. A greater number of children can attend.

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Your answer:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Questions 16-20
What information is given about each of the following activities on offer?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16- 20.
Information
A. has limited availability
B. is no longer available
C. is for over 8s only
D. requires help from parents
E. involves an additional fee
F. is a new activity
G. was requested by children
Activities
16. Spanish ……………
17. Music ……………
18. Painting ……………
19. Yoga ……………
20. Cooking ……………

Your answer:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. PHONETICS. (2 PTS)


QUESTIONS 21-25: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences. (1 PT)
21. A. maple B. staple C. massive D. breathtaking
22. A. boot B. book C. hook D. foot
23. A. drought B. southern C. scrounge D. ouch
24. A. choir B. chiropody C. cholera D. scholar
25. A. within B. worthy C. smooth D. plethora
Your answer:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

QUESTIONS 6-10: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress
position is different from that of the others in each of the following questions. (1 PT)
26. A. terrific B. childbearing C. tsunami D. enthusiast
27. A. advertise B. difficulty C. history D. introduce
28. A. ancestor B. admirable C. comparable D. interpret
29. A. colleague B. degree C. language D. subject
30. A. delicacy B. internship C. inventory D. interrupt
Your answer:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR. (4.5 PTS)


Questions 31-40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. (2 PTS)
31. It's surprising how few people can_________ between margarine and butter.
A. diagnose B. distinguish C. separate D. estimate

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32. The scheme sounds excellent in theory, but it's totally_________ in a country like this.
A. inaccessible B. impracticable C. insoluble D. impassable
33. This evidence should prove ________ that he was telling the truth.
A. once and for all B. now and then
C. over and above D. from time to time
34. In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to _________ this
in their treatment of the patients.
A. make up for B. go in for C. put up with D. set in for
35. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one_________ the most.
A. that influences farmers B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers
36. It is necessary that he _________ of his old parents.
A. takes care B. to take care C. take care D. took care
37. Mrs. Smith: “There's someone at the door.” - Mary: “_________ it.”
A. I answer B. I'm answering C. I answered D. I'll answer
38. Alex: “John has found a new girlfriend.” - Jan: “________”
A. So has he B. Oh, so he has C. Well, so does he D. He has so
39. It is still a good idea to know how to type. _________ many technological advances in typewriters and word
processors, a skilled operator remains indispensable.
A. In spite of B. Because of C. In case of D. In addition to
40. They ________ the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
A. couldn’t see B. might have seen
C. mustn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
Your answer:
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Questions 41-43: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions. (0.3 pt)
41. The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's unique beauty.
A. successful B. agreeable C. tasteful D. fitting
42. She had to return to work after her six months’ sick leave because she could not get by taking unpaid time off.
A. have a lot of time B. spend more time
C. earn more money D. have enough money
43. His empirical research marked a milestone in the field by virtue of its striking and significant findings.
A. in the face of B. at the mercy of C. on the strength of D. as a mean of
Section 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions. (0.2 pt)
44. The university committed to a dynamic, multidisciplinary research environment in addition to cutting-edge
research topics.
A. oft-studied B. tedious C. seminal D. antiquated
45. A.I. techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between medications that put patience in
jeopardy because of their serious side effect.
A. safe and sound B. in reality C. under control D. under pressure

Your answer:
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

QUESTIONS 45-54: Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the words given (2 PTS)
45. I'm a bit of a ________ (PERFECT), so I can spend all day agonising over which choice of two words to use.
46. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of ________ (POWER).
47. Why do they put so many _________ (ADD) in processed food?
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48. Your comments may well have done ________ (REPAIR) damage to management-union relations.
49. The police were expecting trouble at the football match, but in the end it was fairly _______ (EVENT).
50. Some analysts worry that violence on might ___________ (SENSE) children to violence in real life.
51. If one of our nurses has acted ___________ (NEGLECT), you can be assured we will take the strongest possible
action against him or her.
52. Liskeard and Callington are basically __________ (DISTANT) from here, so it'll take about the same time to
get to either of them.
53. I _______ (INTEND) dialled Bob's number instead of Ken's, so was surprised when Bob answered.
54. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (RESPECT) ______, are taking part in the competition.

Your answer:
45. 46. 47. 48. 49.
50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

IV. PROOF READING (QUESTIONS 55-64) (2 PTS)


Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines have a word which should not be there.
If the line has a word that should not be there, write the word at the end of the line and correct it. There is an
example at the beginning.
Line 1 In the western customs shake hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the head
Line 2 or a slight bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are
Line 3 often exchanged and you should be printed in your own language and on Chinese. Also, it is more
Line 4 respectful to present your card or a gift or any other article using both hands. The Chinese are
Line 5 enthusiasm applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small child. When a person
Line 6 is applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause by a "thank you",
Line 7 When walking in public places, direct eye look and staring is common in the larger cities, especially
Line 8 in those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. However, in smaller community, visitors may be the
Line 9 subject of much curiosity, and therefore you may notice some stares. Generally speaking, the China
Line 10 are not a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid touching or any prolonged form
Line 11 of body contact. Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hands, you may note people
Line 12 of the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a
Line 13 bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups boarding public buses or trains. In this case,
Line 14 apologies are neither offered or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than Westerners.

Example: Line 0: shake → shaking


55. Line ……..: …………………
56. Line ……..: …………………
57. Line ……..: …………………
58. Line ……..: …………………
59. Line ……..: …………………
60. Line ……..: …………………
61. Line ……..: …………………
62. Line ……..: …………………
63. Line ……..: …………………
64. Line ……..: …………………

V. READING. (6pts)
QUESTIONS 65 – 74. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet. (1 PT)
DIET AND EXERCISE
Many people seem to believe that there is a magic diet formula that will guarantee weight loss. [1] This is a
fallacy. Most fad diet, if followed conscientiously, will result in weight loss due to the reduction in calories. [2]
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However, they are nearly always too monotonous and sometimes too unhealthy to be followed in the long term. [3]
Worse, fad dieters who don't become physically active and learn to eat sensibly will eventually regain the weight
they lost, and often even more. [4]
Some of the most popular fad diet in recent years have been low-carbohydrate programs, which work by
making the body produce ketons. Ketons are normal and efficient source of energy for the human body. When the
intake of carbohydrate is severely restricted, body fats are broken down into fatty acids that can be used as fuel. The
fatty acids may be incompletely metabolised, yielding ketons. When your body is producing ketons, and using them
as fuel, this is called ketosis. Most diets based on ketosis do not limit the consumption of protein, fat, or total calories.
As a result, their fat content tends to be very high. Promoters claim that ketosis will lead to increased metabolism
of unwanted fat, even if the calories are not reduced. This is not entirely true; calorie reduction is likely to occur
because of the diet's lack of appealing foods. This is not conductive to forming sensible eating habits.
The major widely used low-carbohydrate diet is the one advocated by the late Robert Atkins M.D, of New
York City. Under the Atkins program, the dieter is permitted to eat unlimited amounts of non-carbohydrate foods
"when hungry". The American Medical Association and many individual experts have warned that the unlimited
intake of saturated fat under Atkins food plan can increase the dieter's risk of heart disease. In 2000, researchers at
the University of Kentucky did a computer analysis of a week's worth of sample menus and reported several alarming
findings: the diet contained 59% fat; it provided fewer servings of grains, vegetables, and fruits than recommended
by most nutritionists, and while it can produce short-term weight loss, long-term use is likely to increase the risk of
both cardiovascular disease and cancer. The weight loss usually doesn't last, either. As ketosis begins, weight will
be shed quickly, giving the misleading impression that significant fat reduction is taking place. In fact, most
of the weight loss is water rather than fat; the lost water is regained quickly when a normal diet is resumed. Appetite,
which is often reduced during ketosis, also returns.
Atkins advocated his diet for more than 30 years and claimed that more than 60,000 patients treated at his
centre had used his diet as their primary protocol for losing weight. Yet he never published any study in which
people who used this program were monitored over a period of several years. Besides the dubiousness of its effects
in the long term, the Atkins diet shares another shortcoming of all fad diets: inflexibility. People are different, with
different health problems and genetic characteristics, and no single diet is right for everyone.
An additional downside to the recent craze for low-carbohydrate diets is that it has encouraged food
companies to market low-carbohydrate foods for people who want to "watch their carbs". Most of these foods are
much higher in fat than the foods they are designed to replace. "Low carb" advertising is encouraging both dieters
and non-dieters to eat high-fat foods, which is exactly the opposite of medical and nutrition authorities have been
arguing for decades. Following a low-carbohydrate diet under medical supervision may make sense for some people,
but a population-wide increase in fat consumption would be a public health disaster.

65. What is the topic of the passage?


A. How to succeed with the Atkins Diet
B. Weight loss through carbohydrate reduction
C. Problems with fad diets
D. The dangers of a high-fat diet.
66. Which is the best place for the following sentence?
"In order to lose weight you must eat less, or exercise more, or do both"
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
67. It can be inferred from the passage that the author thinks fad diets in general ______.
A. are always bad for you because they contain too much fat.
B. can be unhealthy in the long term and have too little variety.
C. are effective and safe if used under a doctor's supervision .
D. usually result in long-term weight loss.
68. Which of the following is an effect of ketosis?
A. Long-term weight loss B. Loss of water from the body
C. Increase in appetite D. Greater energy
69. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. diets B. ketons C. calories D. ketosis
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70. The word “conscientiously” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. consciously B. scientifically C. correctly D. severely
71. The phrase “is not conductive to” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. does not prevent B. makes easier
C. is not consistent with D. does not encourage
72. It can be inferred that the author's biggest objection to the Atkins diet is that ______.
A. it has led to "low-carb" advertising B. (s)he believes it causes cancer
C. it leads to higher fat consumption D. it has not been thoroughly studied
73. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. downside B. craze C. diet D. food
74. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in the passage?
A. Ketosis causes weight loss at first, leading people to wrongly believe that they are losing fat.
B. Ketosis causes the rapid loss of fat at first, which leads to a false belief that the loss will be permanent.
C. The process of ketosis quickly misleads people into thinking that they are losing weight.
D. Ketosis causes rapid weight loss, but only in the early days of the diet.
Your answer:
65. 66. 67. 68. 69.
70. 71. 72. 73. 74.

QUESTIONS 75 – 89. Read the following passage and do as followed (1.5 PTS)
Questions 75-81: The following reading passage has seven paragraphs, A—G. Choose the correct heading for
paragraphs A—G from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i—x, in boxes 75-81.
List of Headings
i The biological clock
ii Why dying is beneficial
iii The ageing process of men and women
iv Prolonging your life
v Limitations of life span
vi Modes of development of different species
vii A stable life span despite improvements
viii Energy consumption
ix Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms
x Repair of genetic material

75. Paragraph A..................


76. Paragraph B..................
77. Paragraph C..................
78. Paragraph D..................
79. Paragraph E..................
80. Paragraph F..................
81. Paragraph G..................

HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK?


A Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as 'biologically' obvious. 'Nothing lives for ever!' However, in
this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products which are subjected to natural wear and
tear during use. This leads to the result that at some time or other the object stops working and is unusable ('death'
in the biological sense). But are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living
organisms really similar or comparable

B Our 'dead' products are 'static', closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the object and
which, in the natural course of things, is wom down and becomes 'older'. Ageing in this case must occur according
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to the laws of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although the same law holds for a living organism, the
result of this law is not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew
itself it could actually become older without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic system through which new
material continuously flows. Destruction of old material and formation of new material are thus in permanent
dynamic equilibrium. The material of which the organism is formed changes continuously. Thus our bodies
continuously exchange old substance for new, just like a spring which more or less maintains its form and movement,
but in which the water molecules are always different.

C Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses many mechanisms
for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span,
ageing, and then death are basic characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to recognise: in nature, the existent
organisms either adapt or are regularly replaced by new types. Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations)
these have new characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better
adaptation to the environmental conditions. Immortality would disturb this system — it needs room for new and
better life. This is the basic problem of evolution.

D Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span between
different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For example, the average duration of
human life has hardly changed in thousands of years. Although more and more people attain an advanced age as a
result of developments in medical care and better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most remains 80 years.
A further argument against the simple wear and tear theory is the observation that the time within which organisms
age lies between a few days (even a few hours for unicellular organisms) and several thousand years, as with
mammoth trees.

E If a life span is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the existence
of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the ageing process and which finally determines
death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like the life span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed
mathematical relationship to the body mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is 'inverted': the larger
the organism the lower its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on
average within the systematic unit, for all other organisms (plants, animals, unicellular organisms).

F Animals which behave 'frugally' with energy become particularly old, for example, crocodiles and tortoises.
Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to 'experience life' and so they attain a
high life span in captivity. Animals which save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much
longer than those which are always active. The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low consumption
of food (hunger diet). They then may live twice as long as their well fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about
10 per cent) older than men. If you examine the metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male
metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male life span. That means that they live life 'energetically' — more
intensively, but not for as long.

G It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme high performance
sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly do not prolong life. Relaxation
lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep and in general an equable and balanced personality. Each of as can
develop his or her own 'energy saving programme' with a little self-observation, critical self-control and, above all,
logical consistency. Experience will show that to live in this way not only increases the life span but is also very
healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten.

Questions 82-85: Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
• Objects age in accordance with principles of 82 ....................... and of 83 ...................................
• Through mutations, organisms can 84 ...................... better to the environment
• 85 ..................... would pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution
Page 7
Questions 85-89: Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage?
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

86. The wear and tear theory applies to both artificial objects and biological systems.
87. In principle, it is possible for a biological system to become older without ageing.
88. Within seven years, about 90 per cent of a human body is replaced as new.
89. Conserving energy may help to extend a human's life.

Your answers
75. 76. 77. 78. 79.
80. 81. 82. 83. 84.
85. 86. 87. 88. 89.

VI. CLOZE TEST (QUESTIONS 90 – 99): Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best
fits each space (1 PT).
Childhood is the time when there are (90) ______ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has good
parents, he is fed, looked after and loved, (91) ______ he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life
be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (92) ______, life is always presenting new things to
the child - things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well-known. A child finds pleasure
playing in the rain, or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. (93) ______, a child has
his pain. He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or
being punished (94) ______ what he has done wrong. His life is therefore not perfectly happy.
When a young man starts to (95) ______ his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of school and
parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (96) ______ to pay for
his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing
about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the
laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of troubles and has good health, he
can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (97) ______ in his job and of building up for himself
his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be unhappy.
With old age (98) ______ wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The old can have the joy
of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and
perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (99) ______ the
battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight.
90. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few
91. A. whenever B. wherever C. whatever D. whosoever
92. A. short B. term C. reality D. addition
93. A. However B. But C. Therefore D. Moreover
94. A. because B. for C. at D. by
95. A. take B. have C. create D. earn
96. A. other B. another C. others D. someone
97. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments
98. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come
99. A. out B. across C. through D. back

Your answer:
90. 91. 92. 93. 94.
95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

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VII. WRITING (4 PTS)
Part 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2 PTS)
QUESTIONS 100 – 104: Rewrite each sentence in such a way that it means almost the same as the one printed
before it. Use the word in brackets without making any change to it.
100: My husband always makes spontaneous decisions concerning his travel plans. (IMPULSE)
→ My husband always acts ___________________________________________________________________.
101. I thought very hard but couldn’t remember the answer. (BRAIN)
→ I racked _________________________________________________________________________________.
102. I wish the principal would stop criticizing my work. (FAULT)
→ I would __________________________________________________________________________________.
103: I am afraid that our problems are only just beginning. (ICEBERG)
→ I am afraid our problems are just the _________________________________________________________.
104. This license is valid until April 30th, 2024. (EXPIRY)
→ The _____________________________________________________________________________________.
QUESTIONS 105 – 109: Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first
one
105. I think that you’ve drawn up some excellent plans. I must congratulate you.
→ I must congratulate________________________________________________________________________.
106. Such a research project has never been carried out before.
→ Never before _____________________________________________________________________________.
107. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.
→ The old lady was __________________________________________________________________________.
108. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
→ Without _________________________________________________________________________________.
109. Something must be done to solve this problem.
→Urgent __________________________________________________________________________________.

Part 2: Essay writing (2 PTS)

Not more than 250 words, write an essay on how you will be able to prepare yourself for living in a diverse
and more global society.

Use specific explanations and examples to support your answer.

Page 9

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