11/8/24, 12:10 PM Mock Test 1_CPC_CLINICAL_UHC_EI

Mock Test 1_CPC_CLINICAL_UHC_EI

All questions are compulsory.
Each question carry one marks each.
Type- Multiple Choice Questions\
Duration- 4 Hrs.

Points: 84/100 Time: 03:35:48

Q1

Correct 1/1 Points

1. A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant

margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out
and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure
was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent
histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure?

11626

11626, 12004-51

11626, 12044-51

11626, 13132-51, 13133

Q2

Correct 1/1 Points

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2. A 30-year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected

ulcer with eschar on the right foot. Using sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided
all the way to down to the bone of the foot. The bone had to be minimally
trimmed because of a sharp point at the end of the metatarsal. After debriding the
area, there was minimal bleeding because of very poor circulation of the foot. It
seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some involvement and cultures
were taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings and then
wrapped. What CPT® code should be reported?

11043

11012

11044

11042

Q3

Incorrect 0/1 Points

3. A 64-year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on
a glass table. She lacerated her forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of
these lacerations was 6 cm. Her right arm and left leg had deep cuts measuring 5
cm on each extremity. Her right hand and right foot had a total of 3 cm
lacerations. The ED physician repaired the lacerations as follows: The forehead,
cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with the lacerations
being closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg were
repaired by layered closure, 6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures
on the skin. The hand and foot were closed with adhesive strips. Select the
appropriate procedure codes for this visit.

99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042-51

99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59

99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042-51

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99283-25, 12053, 12034-59

Q4

Correct 1/1 Points

4. PRE OP DIAGNOSIS: Left Breast Abnormal MMG or Palpable Mass; Other Disorders
of Breast PROCEDURE: Automated Stereotactic Biopsy Left Breast FINDINGS:
Lesion is located in the lateral region, just at or below the level of the nipple on the
90 degree lateral view. There is a subglandular implant in place. I discussed the
procedure with the patient today including risks, benefits and alternatives.
Specifically discussed was the fact that the implant would be displaced out of the
way during this biopsy procedure. Possibility of injury to the implant was discussed
with the patient. Patient has signed the consent form and wishes to proceed with
the biopsy. The patient was placed prone on the stereotactic table; the left breast
was then imaged from the inferior approach. The lesion of interest is in the
anterior portion of the breast away from the implant which was displaced back
toward the chest wall. After imaging was obtained and stereotactic guidance used
to target coordinates for the biopsy, the left breast was prepped with Betadine. 1%
lidocaine was injected subcutaneously for local anesthetic. Additional lidocaine
with epinephrine was then injected through the indwelling needle. The SenoRx
needle was then placed into the area of interest. Under stereotactic guidance we
obtained 9 core biopsy samples using vacuum and cutting technique. The
specimen radiograph confirmed representative sample of calcification was
removed. The tissue marking clip was deployed into the biopsy cavity successfully.
This was confirmed by final stereotactic digital image and confirmed by post core
biopsy mammogram left breast. The clip is visualized projecting over the lateral
anterior left breast in satisfactory position. No obvious calcium is visible on the
final post core biopsy image in the area of interest. The patient tolerated the
procedure well. There were no apparent complications. The biopsy site was
dressed with Steri-Strips, bandage and ice pack in the usual manner. The patient
did receive written and verbal post-biopsy instructions. The patient left our
department in good condition. IMPRESSION: 1. SUCCESSFUL STEREOTACTIC CORE
BIOPSY OF LEFT BREAST CALCIFICATIONS. 2. SUCCESSFUL DEPLOYMENT OF THE
TISSUE MARKING CLIP INTO THE BIOPSY CAVITY 3. PATIENT LEFT OUR
DEPARTMENT IN GOOD CONDITION TODAY WITH POST-BIOPSY INSTRUCTIONS.
4. PATHOLOGY REPORT IS PENDING; AN ADDENDUM WILL BE ISSUED AFTER WE
RECEIVE THE PATHOLOGY REPORT.
What is (are) the CPT® code(s)?
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19081

19283

19081, 19283

19100, 19283

Q5

Correct 1/1 Points

5. A 53-year-old male is in the dermatologist's office for removal of 2 lesions located

on his lower lip and nose. Lesions were identified and marked. The lower lip lesion
of 4 mm in size was shaved to the level of the superficial dermis. Utilizing a 3-mm
punch, a biopsy was taken of the left supratip nasal area. What are the CPT®
codes for these procedures?

40490, 11104-59

11310, 11104-59

17000, 17003

11440, 11105-59

Q6

Correct 1/1 Points

6. A 76-year-old has dermatochalasis on bilateral upper eyelids. A blepharoplasty will

be performed on the eyelids. A lower incision line was marked at approximately 5
mm above the lid margin along the crease. Then using a pinch test with forceps
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the amount of skin to be resected was determined and marked. An elliptical

incision was performed on the left eyelid and the skin was excised. In a similar
fashion the same procedure was performed on the right eye. The wounds were
closed with sutures. The correct CPT® code(s) is/are?

15822, 15823-51

15823-E1, E3

15822-E1, E3

15820-LT, 15820-RT

Q7

Correct 1/1 Points

7. Patient has basal cell carcinoma on his upper back. A map was prepared to
correspond to the area of skin where the excisions of the tumor will be performed
using Mohs micrographic surgery technique. There were three tissue blocks that
were prepared for cryostat, sectioned, and removed in the first stage. Then a
second stage had six tissue blocks which were also cut and stained for microscopic
examination. The entire base and margins of the excised pieces of tissue were
examined by the surgeon. No tumor was identified after the final stage of the
microscopically controlled surgery. What procedure codes are reported?

17313, 17314, 17314

17313, 17315

17260, 17313, 17314

17313, 17314, 17315

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Q8

Correct 1/1 Points

8. A 52-year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has
finally gotten significantly larger and is beginning to bother her. She is brought to
the Operating Room for definitive excision. An incision was made directly overlying
the mass. The mass was down into the subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon
encountered a well encapsulated lipoma approximately 4 centimeters. This was
excised primarily bluntly with a few attachments divided with electrocautery. What
CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

21932, D17.39

21935, D17.1

21931, D17.1

21925, D17.9

Q9

Correct 1/1 Points

9. PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture.

TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of right scaphoid

fracture.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room;
anesthesia having been administered. The right upper extremity was prepped and
draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic
arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of
the right wrist. Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified
and very gently retracted. The interval between the second and third dorsal
compartment tendons was identified and entered. The respective tendons were
retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was visualized.
There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture site. A
0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from the proximal
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pole of the scaphoid distal ward. The guidewire was positioned appropriately and
then measured. A 25-mm Acutrak® drill bit was drilled to 25 mm. A 22.5-mm
screw was selected and inserted and rigid internal fixation was accomplished in
this fashion. This was visualized under the OEC imaging device in multiple
projections. The wound was irrigated and closed in layers. Sterile dressings were
then applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the operating room
in stable condition. What CPT® code is reported for this procedure?

25628-RT

25624-RT

25645-RT

25651-RT

Q 10

Correct 1/1 Points

10. An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral
medial distal femur hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used
to localize the growth plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was made
medially on both sides. This was taken down to the fascia, which was opened. The
periosteum was not opened. The Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was placed and
checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl
suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure
code is reported?

27470-50

27475-50

27477-50

27485-50

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Q 11

Correct 1/1 Points

11. A 42-year-old male has a frozen left shoulder. An arthroscope was inserted in the
posterior portal in the glenohumeral joint. The articular cartilage was normal
except for some minimal grade III-IV changes, about 5% of the humerus just
adjacent to the rotator cuff insertion of the supraspinatus. The biceps was
inflamed, not torn at all. The superior labrum was not torn at all, the labrum was
completely intact. The rotator cuff was completely intact. An anterior portal was
established high in the rotator interval. The rotator interval was very thick and
contracted. Adhesions were destroyed with electrocautery and the Bovie. The
superior glenohumeral ligament, the middle glenohumeral ligament and the
tendinous portion of the subscapularis were released. The arthroscope was placed
anteriorly, adhesions were destroyed and the shaver was used to debride some of
the posterior capsule and the posterior capsule was released in its posterosuperior
and then posteroinferior aspect. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

23450-LT

23466-LT

29805-LT, 29806-51-LT

29825-LT

Q 12

Correct 1/1 Points

12. After adequate anesthesia was obtained the patient was turned prone in a
kneeling position on the spinal table. A lower midline lumbar incision was made
and the soft tissues divided down to the spinous processes. The soft tissues were
stripped away from the lamina down to the facets and discectomies and
laminectomies were then carried out at L3-4, L4-5 and L5-S1. Interbody fusions

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were set up for the lower three levels using the Danek allografts and augmented
with structural autogenous bone from the iliac crest. The posterior instrumentation
of a 5.5 mm diameter titanium rod was then cut to the appropriate length and
bent to confirm to the normal lordotic curve. It was then slid immediately onto the
bone screws and at each level compression was carried out as each of the two
bolts were tightened so that the interbody fusions would be snug and as tight as
possible. Select the appropriate CPT® codes for this visit?

22612, 22614 x 2, 22842, 20938, 20930

22533, 22534 x 2, 22842

22630, 22632 x 2, 22842, 20938, 20930

22554, 22632 x 2, 22842

Q 13

Correct 1/1 Points

13. PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Displaced impacted Colles fracture, left distal radius
and ulna. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Displaced impacted Colles fracture, left
distal radius and ulna. OPERATIVE PROCEDURE: Reduction with application of an
external fixation system, left wrist fracture FINDINGS: The patient is a 46 year-old
right-hand-dominant female who fell off stairs 4 to 5 days ago sustaining an
impacted distal radius fracture with possible intraarticular component and an
associated ulnar styloid fracture. Today in surgery, fracture was reduced
anatomically and an external fixation system was applied. PROCEDURE: Under
satisfactory general anesthesia, the fracture was manipulated and C-arm images
were checked. The left upper extremity was prepped and draped in the usual
sterile orthopedic fashion. Two small incisions were made over the second
metacarpal and after removing soft tissues including tendinous structures out of
the way, drawing was carried out and blunt-tipped pins were placed for the EBI
external fixator. The frame was next placed and the site for the proximal pins was
chosen. Small incision was made. Subcutaneous tissues were carried out of the
way. The pin guide was placed and 2 holes were drilled and blunt-tipped pins
placed. Fixator was assembled. C-arm images were checked. Fracture reduction
appeared to be anatomic. Suturing was carried out where needed with 4-0 Vicryl

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interrupted subcutaneous and 4-0 nylon interrupted sutures. Sterile dressings were
applied. Vascular supply was noted to be satisfactory. Final frame tightening was
carried out. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

25600-LT, 20692-51

25605- LT, 20690-51

25606-LT

25607-LT

Q 14

Correct 1/1 Points

14. This is a 32-year-old female who presents today with sacroiliitis. On the physical
exam there was pain on palpation of the left and right sacroiliac joint and
fluoroscopic guidance was done for the needle positioning. Then 80 mg of Depo-
Medrol and 1 mL of bupivacaine at 0.5% was injected into the left and right
sacroiliac joint with a 22 gauge needle. The patient was able to walk from the exam
room without difficulty. Follow up will be as needed. What CPT® coding is
reported?

20611

27096-50, 77012

27096-50

27096, 27096-51, 77012

Q 15
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Correct 1/1 Points

15. A CT scan identified moderate-sized right pleural effusion in a 50 year-old male.

This was estimated to be 800 cc in size and had an appearance of fluid on the CT
Scan. A needle is used to puncture through the chest tissues and enter the pleural
cavity to insert a guidewire under ultrasound guidance. A pigtail catheter is then
inserted at the length of the guidewire and secured by stitches. The catheter will
remain in the chest and is connected to drainage system to drain the accumulated
fluid. The CPT® code is:

32557

32555

32556

32550

Q 16

Correct 1/1 Points

16. The patient is a 59-year-old white male who underwent carotid endarterectomy for
symptomatic left carotid stenosis a year ago. A carotid CT angiogram showed a
recurrent 90% left internal carotid artery stenosis extending into the common
carotid artery. He is taken to the operating room for re-do left carotid
endarterectomy. The left neck was prepped and the previous incision was carefully
reopened. Using sharp dissection, the common carotid artery and its branches
were dissected free. The patient was systematically heparinized and after a few
minutes, clamps were applied to the common carotid artery and its branches. A
longitudinal arteriotomy was carried out with findings of extensive layering of
intimal hyperplasia with no evidence of recurrent atherosclerosis. A silastic
balloon-tip shunt was inserted first proximally and then distally, with restoration of
flow. Several layers of intima were removed and the endarterectomized surfaces
irrigated with heparinized saline. An oval Dacron patch was then sewn into place
with running 6-0 Prolene. Which CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

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35301

35301, 35390

35302

35311, 35390

Q 17

Correct 1/1 Points

17. A 79-year-old male with symptomatic bradycardia and syncope is taken to the
Operating Suite where an insertion of a DDD pacemaker will be performed. After
the anesthesiologist provided moderate sedation, the cardiologist performed a left
subclavian venipuncture was carried out. A guide wire was passed through the
needle, and the needle was withdrawn. A second subclavian venipuncture was
performed, a second guide wire was passed and the second needle was withdrawn.
An oblique incision in the deltopectoral area incorporating the wire exit sites. A
subcutaneous pocket was created with the cautery on the pectoralis fascia. An
introducer dilator was passed over the first wire and the wire and dilator were
withdrawn. A ventricular lead was passed through the introducer, and the
introducer was broken away in the routine fashion. A second introducer dilator was
passed over the second guide wire and the wire and dilator were withdrawn. An
atrial lead was passed through the introducer and the introducer was broken away
in the routine fashion. Each of the leads were sutured down to the chest wall with
two 2-0 silk sutures each, connected the leads to the generator, curled the leads,
and the generator was placed in the pocket. We assured hemostasis. We assured
good position with the fluoroscopy. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported by the
cardiologist?

33208

33212

33226

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33235, 71090-26

Q 18

Correct 1/1 Points

18. Patient has lung cancer in his upper right and middle lobes. Patient is in the
operating suite to have a video-assisted thorascopy surgery (VATS). A 10-mm-
zero-degree thoracoscope is inserted in the right pleural cavity through a port site
placed in the ninth and seventh intercostal spaces. Lung was deflated. The tumor is
in the right pleural. Both lobes were removed thorascopically. Port site closed. A
chest tube was placed to suction and patient was sent to recovery in stable
condition. Which CPT® code is reported for this procedure?

32482

32484

32670

32671

Q 19

Correct 1/1 Points

19. The patient is a 58-year-old white male, one month status post pneumonectomy.
He had a post pneumonectomy empyema treated with a tunneled cuffed pleural
catheter which has been draining the cavity for one month with clear drainage. He
has had no evidence of a block or pleural fistula. Therefore a planned return to
surgery results in the removal of the catheter. The correct CPT® code is:

32440-78

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32035-58

32036-79

32552-58

Q 20

Correct 1/1 Points

20. This 67-year-old man presented with a history of progressive shortness of breath.
He has had a diagnosis of a secundum atrioseptal defect for several years, and has
had atrial fibrillation intermittently over this period of time. He was in atrial
fibrillation when he came to the operating room, and with the patient cannulated
and on bypass, The right atrium was then opened. A large 3 x 5 cm defect was
noted at fossa ovalis, and this also included a second hole in the same general
area. Both of these holes were closed with a single pericardial patch. What CPT®
and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

33675, Q21.0

33647, Q21.1, R06.02

33645, Q21.2, R06.02

33641, Q21.1

Q 21

Correct 1/1 Points

21. The patient is a 51-year-old gentleman who has end-stage renal disease. He was in
the OR yesterday for a revision of his AV graft. The next day the patient had
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complications of the graft failing. The patient was back to the operating room
where an open thrombectomy was performed on both sides getting good back
bleeding, good inflow. Select the appropriate code for performing the procedure
in a post-operative period:

36831-76

36831

36831-78

36831-58

Q 22

Correct 1/1 Points

22. A 52-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for chronic cholecystitis for which
a laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be performed. A transverse infraumbilical
incision was made sharply dissecting to the subcutaneous tissue down to the fascia
using access under direct vision with a Vesi-Port and a scope was placed into the
abdomen. Three other ports were inserted under direct vision. The fundus of the
gallbladder was grasped through the lateral port, where multiple adhesions to the
gallbladder were taken down sharply and bluntly: The gallbladder appeared
chronically inflamed. Dissection was carried out to the right of this identifying a
small cystic duct and artery, was clipped twice proximally, once distally and
transected. The gallbladder was then taken down from the bed using
electrocautery, delivering it into an endo-bag and removing it from the abdominal
cavity with the umbilical port. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

47564, K81.2

47562, K81.1

47610, K81.2

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47600, K81.1

Q 23

Correct 1/1 Points

23. A 70-year-old female who has a history of recurrent ventral hernia was advised to
undergo laparoscopic evaluation and repair. An incision was made in the
epigastrium and dissection was carried down through the subcutaneous tissue.
Two 5-mm trocars were placed, one in the left upper quadrant and one in the left
lower quadrant and the laparoscope was inserted. Dissection was carried down to
the area of the hernia where a small defect was clearly visualized. There was some
omentum, which was adhered to the hernia and this was delivered back into the
peritoneal cavity. The mesh was tacked on to cover the defect. Total defect
repaired 2 cm. What procedure code(s) is (are) reported?

49591

49613

49616

49614

Q 24

Incorrect 0/1 Points

24. The patient is a 50-year-old gentleman who presented to the emergency room
with signs and symptoms of acute appendicitis with possible rupture. He has been
brought to the operating room. An infraumbilical incision was made which a 5-mm
VersaStep™ trocar was inserted. A 5-mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduced. A
second 5-mm trocar was placed suprapubically and a 12-mm trocar in the left
lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix using blunt dissection
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with no rupture noted. The base of the appendix was then divided and placed into
an Endo-catch bag and the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate
code for this procedure:

44970

44950

44960

44979

Q 25

Incorrect 0/1 Points

25. 55-year-old patient was admitted with massive gastric dilation. The endoscope was
inserted with a catheter placement. The endoscope is passed through the
cricopharyngeal muscle area without difficulty. Esophagus is normal, some chronic
reflux changes at the esophagogastric junction noted. Stomach significant
distention with what appears to be multiple encapsulated tablets in the stomach at
least 20 to 30 of these are noted. Some of these are partially dissolved. Endoscope
could not be engaged due to high grade narrowing in the pyloric channel, the
duodenum was not examined. It seems to be a high grade outlet obstruction with
a superimposed volvulus. A repeat examination is not planned at this time. What
code should be used for this procedure?

43246-52

43241-52

43235

43191

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Q 26

Correct 1/1 Points

26. The patient is a 78-year-old white female with morbid obesity that presented with
small bowel obstruction. She had surgery approximately one week ago and
underwent exploration, which required a small bowel resection of the terminal
ileum and anastomosis leaving her with a large inferior ventral hernia. Two days
ago she started having drainage from her wound which has become more serious.
She is now being taken back to the operating room. Reopening the original
incision with a scalpel, the intestine was examined and the anastomosis was
reopened , excised at both ends, and further excision of intestine. The fresh ends
were created to perform another end- to-end anastomosis. The correct procedure
code is:

44120-78

44126-79

44120-76

44202-58

Q 27

Correct 1/1 Points

27. PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula

POST OPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula
PROCEDURE: Hartmann procedure, which is a sigmoid resection with Hartmann
pouch and colostomy.
DESCRIPTION OF THE PROCEDURE: Patient was prepped and draped in the
supine position under general anesthesia. Prior to surgery patient was given 4.5
grams of Zosyn and Rocephin IV piggyback. A lower midline incision was made,
abdomen was entered. Upon entry into the abdomen, there was an inflammatory
mass in the pelvis and there was a large abscessed cavity, but no feces. The
abscess cavity was drained and irrigated out. The left colon was immobilized, taken
down the lateral perineal attachments. The sigmoid colon was mobilized. There
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was an inflammatory mass right at the area of the sigmoid colon consistent with a
divertiliculitis or perforation with infection. Proximal to this in the distal left colon,
the colon was divided using a GIA stapler with 3.5 mm staples. The sigmoid colon
was then mobilized using blunt dissection. The proximal rectum just distal to the
inflammatory mass was divided using a GIA stapler with 3.5 mm staples. The
mesentary of the sigmoid colon was then taken down and tied using two 0 Vicryl
ties. Irrigation was again performed and the sigmoid colon was removed with
inflammatory mass. The wall of the abscessed cavity that was next to the sigmoid
colon where the inflammatory mass was, showed no leakage of stool, no gross
perforation, most likely there is a small perforation in one of the diverticula in this
region. Irrigation was again performed throughout the abdomen until totally clear.
All excess fluid was removed. The distal descending colon was then brought out
through a separate incision in the lower left quadrant area and a large 10 mm 10
French JP drain was placed into the abscessed cavity. The sigmoid colon or the
colostomy site was sutured on the inside using interrupted 3-0 Vicryl to the
peritoneum and then two sheets of film were placed into the intra- abdominal
cavity. The fascia was closed using a running #1 double loop PDS suture and
intermittently a #2 nylon retention suture was placed. The colostomy was matured
using interrupted 3-0 chromic sutures. I palpated the colostomy; it was completely
patent with no obstructions. Dressings were applied. Colostomy bag was applied.
Which CPT® code is reported?

44140

44143

44160

44208

Q 28

Correct 1/1 Points

28. A 15 year-old female is to have a tonsillectomy performed for chronic tonsillitis

and hypertrophied tonsils. A McIver mouth gag was put in place and the tongue
was depressed. The nasopharynx was digitalized. No significant adenoid tissue was
felt. The tonsils were then removed bilaterally by dissection. The uvula was a huge

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size because of edema, a part of this was removed and the raw surface oversewn
with 3-0 chromic catgut. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

42821

42825, 42104-51

42826, 42106-51

42842

Q 29

Correct 1/1 Points

29. A 67-year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter

deficiency is having a cystoscopy performed with a placement of a sling. An
incision was made over the mid urethra dissected laterally to urethropelvic
ligament. Cystoscopy revealed no penetration of the bladder. The edges of the
sling were weaved around the junction of the urethra and brought up to the
suprapubic incision. A hemostat was then placed between the sling and the
urethra, ensuring no tension. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

57288

57287

57288, 52000-51

51992, 52000-51

Q 30

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Correct 1/1 Points

30. A 16-day-old male baby is in the OR for a repeat circumcision due to redundant
foreskin that caused circumferential scarring from the original circumcision.
Anesthetic was injected and an incision was made at base of the foreskin. Foreskin
was pulled back and the excess foreskin was taken off and the two raw skin
surfaces were sutured together to create a circumferential anastomosis. Select the
appropriate code for this surgery:

54150

54160

54163

54164

Q 31

Correct 1/1 Points

31. 5 year-old female has a history of post void dribbling. She was found to have
extensive labial adhesions, which have been unresponsive to topical medical
management. She is brought to the operating suite in a supine position. Under
general anesthesia the labia majora is retracted and the granulating chronic
adhesions were incised midline both anteriorly and posteriorly. The adherent
granulation tissue was excised on either side. What code should be used for this
procedure?

58660

58740

57061

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56441

Q 32

Correct 1/1 Points

32. A 5-year-old male with a history of prematurity was found to have a chordee due
to congenital hypospadias. He presents for surgical management for a plastic
repair in straightening the abnormal curvature. Under general anesthesia, bands
were placed around the base of the penis and incisions were made degloving the
penis circumferentially. The foreskin was divided in Byers flaps and the penile skin
was reapproximated at the 12 o’clock position. Two Byers flaps were
reapproximated, recreating a mucosal collar which was then criss- crossed and
trimmed in the midline in order to accommodate median raphe reconstruction.
This was reconstructed with use of a horizontal mattress suture. The shaft skin was
then approximated to the mucosal collar with sutures correcting the defect. Which
CPT® code should be used?

54304

54340

54400

54440

Q 33

Incorrect 0/1 Points

33. A 22-year-old is 14 weeks pregnant and wants to terminate the pregnancy. She
has consented for a D&E. She was brought to the operating room where MAC
anesthesia was given. She was then placed in the dorsal lithotomy position and a
weighted speculum was placed into her posterior vaginal vault. Cervix was
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identified and dilated. A 6.5-cm suction catheter hooked up to a suction evacuator

was placed and products of conception were evacuated. A medium size curette
was then used to curette her endometrium. There was noted to be a small amount
of remaining products of conception in her left cornua. Once again the suction
evacuator was placed and the remaining products of conception were evacuated.
At this point she had a good endometrial curetting with no further products of
conception noted. Which CPT® code should be used?

59840

59841

59812

59851

Q 34

Correct 1/1 Points

34. A 37-year-old female has menorrhagia and wants permanent sterilization. The
patient was placed in Allen stirrups in the operating room. Under anesthesia the
cervix was dilated and the hysteroscope was advanced to the endometrium into
the uterine cavity. No polyps or fibroids were seen. The Novasure was used for
endometrial ablation. A knife was then used to make an incision in the right lower
quadrant and left lower quadrant with 5-mm trocars inserted under direct
visualization with no injury to any abdominal contents. Laparoscopic findings
revealed the uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes to be normal. The appendix was
normal as were the upper quadrants. Because of the patient's history of breast
cancer and desire for no further children, it was decided to take out both the tubes
and ovaries. This had been discussed with the patient prior to surgery. What are
the codes for these procedures?

58660, 58353-51

58661, 58563-51

58661, 58558-51

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58662, 58563-51

Q 35

Correct 1/1 Points

35. A 55-year-old female has a symptomatic rectocele. She had been admitted and
taken to the main OR. An incision is made in the vagina into the perineal body
(central tendon of the perineum). Dissection was carried underneath posterior
vaginal epithelium all the way over to the rectocele. Fascial tissue was brought
together with sutures creating a bridge and the rectocele had been reduced with
good support between the vagina and rectum. What procedure code should be
reported?

45560

57284

57250

57240

Q 36

Correct 1/1 Points

36. The patient is a 64 year-old female who is undergoing a removal of a previously

implanted Medtronic pain pump and catheter due to a possible infection. The back
was incised; dissection was carried down to the previously placed catheter. There
was evidence of infection with some fat necrosis in which cultures were taken. The
intrathecal portion of the catheter was removed. Next the pump pocket was
incised and the pump was dissected from the anterior fascia. A 7-mm Blake drain
was placed in the pump pocket through a stab incision and secured to the skin
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with interrupted Prolene. The pump pocket was copiously irrigated with saline and
closed in two layers. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this procedure?

62365, 62350-51, T85.898A, Z46.2

62360, 62355-51, T85.79XA

62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA

36590, I97.42, T85.898A

Q 37

Correct 1/1 Points

37. The patient is a 73-year-old gentleman who was noted to have progressive gait
instability over the past several months. Magnetic resonance imaging
demonstrated a ventriculomegaly. It was recommended that the patient proceed
forward with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement with Codman®
programmable valve. What is the correct code for this surgery?

62220

62223

62190

62192

Q 38

Correct 1/1 Points

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38. What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the
space in the wrist on the palmar side?

64704

64713

64721

64719

Q 39

Correct 1/1 Points

39. A 2-year-old male has a chalazion on both upper and lower lid of the right eye. He
was placed under general anesthesia. With a #11 blade the chalazion was incised
and a small curette was then used to retrieve any granulomatous material on both
lids. What CPT® code should be used for this procedure?

67801

67805

67800

67808

Q 40

Incorrect 0/1 Points

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40. MRI reveals patient has cervical stenosis. It was determined he should undergo
bilateral cervical laminectomy at C3 through C6 and fusion. The edges of the
laminectomy were then cleaned up with a Kerrison and foraminotomies were done
at C4, C5, and,C6. The stenosis is central; a facetectomy is performed by using a
burr. Nerve root canals were freed by additional resection of the facet, and
compression of the spinal cord was relieved by removal of a tissue overgrowth
around the foramen. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) used for this procedure?

63045-50, 63048-50

63020-50, 63035-50, 63035-50

63015-50

63045, 63048 x 2

Q 41

Correct 1/1 Points

41. An infant who has chronic otitis media in the right and left ears was placed under
general anesthesia and a radial incision was made in the posterior quadrant of the
left and right tympanic membranes. A large amount of mucoid effusion was
suctioned and then a ventilating tube was placed in both ears. What CPT® and
ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

69436-50, H65.33

69436-50, H66.43

69433-50, H65.113

69421-50, H65.33

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Q 42

Correct 1/1 Points

42. An 80-year-old patient is returning to the gynecologist’s office for pessary

cleaning. Patient offers no complaints. The nurse removes and cleans the pessary,
vagina is swabbed with betadine, and pessary replaced. For F/U in 4 months. What
CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this service?

99202, Z46.89

99211, Z46.89

99202, Z46.9

99212, Z46.9

Q 43

Correct 1/1 Points

43. Patient was in the ER complaining of constipation with nausea and vomiting when
taking Zovirax for his herpes zoster and Percocet for pain. His primary care
physician came to the ER and admitted him to the hospital for intravenous therapy
and management of this problem. His physician documented a detailed history,
comprehensive examination and a medical decision making of low complexity.
Which E/M service is reported?

99285

99284

99221

99222

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Q 44

Correct 1/1 Points

44. A 20-day-old infant was seen in the ER by the neonatologist admitting the baby to
NICU for cyanosis and rapid breathing. The neonatologist performed intubation,
ventilation management and a complete echocardiogram in the NICU and
provided a report for the echocardiography which did indicate congenital heart
disease. Select the correct codes for the physician service.

99468-25, 93303-26

99471-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26

99460-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26

99291-25, 93303-26

Q 45

Correct 1/1 Points

45. A 50-year-old patient is coming to see her primary care physician for
hypertension. The patient also discusses with her physician that the OBGYN office
had just told her that her Pap smear came back with an abnormal reading and is
worried because her aunt had passed away with cervical cancer. The physician
documents she spent 40 minutes face-to-face time with the patient, and 25
minutes of that time is giving counseling on the awareness, other screening
procedures and treatment if it turns out to be cervical cancer. What E/M code(s) is
(are) reported for this visit?

99215

99213, 99358

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99214, 99354

99213

Q 46

Correct 1/1 Points

46. A patient was admitted yesterday to the hospital for possible gallstones. The
following day the physician who admitted the patient performed a medically
appropriate history and exam and a medical decision making of low complexity.
The physician tells her the test results have come back positive for gallstones and
is recommending having a cholecystectomy. What code is reported for this
evaluation and management service for the following day?

99253

99221

99231

99234

Q 47

Correct 1/1 Points

47. A patient came in to the ER with wheezing and a rapid heart rate. The ER physician
did history and examination as well as medical decision of moderate complexity.
The patient has been given three nebulizer treatments. The ER physician continues
to examine the patient for asthma exacerbation and will order additional
treatments until the wheezing subsides. Select the appropriate code(s) for this visit.

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99284

99222

99284, 99219

99235

Q 48

Correct 1/1 Points

48. A 42-year-old with renal pelvis cancer receives general anesthesia for a
laparoscopic radical nephrectomy. The patient has controlled type 2 diabetes
otherwise no other co-morbidities. What is the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM code
for the anesthesia services?

00860-P1, C64.9, E11.9

00840-P3, C65.9, E11.9

00862-P2, C65.9, E11.9

00868-P2, C79.02, E11.9

Q 49

Correct 1/1 Points

49. A healthy 32-year-old with a closed distal radius fracture received monitored
anesthesia care for an ORIF of the distal radius. What is the code for the anesthesia
service?

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01830-P1

01860-QS-P1

01830-QS-P1

01860-QS-G9-P1

Q 50

Correct 1/1 Points

50. A 10-month-old child is taken to the operating room for removal of a laryngeal
mass. What is (are) the appropriate anesthesia code(s) to report?

00320

00326

00320, 99100

00326, 99100

Q 51

Correct 1/1 Points

51. A 50-year-old female had a left subcutaneous mastectomy for cancer. She now
returns for reconstruction which is done with a single TRAM flap. Right mastopexy
is done for asymmetry. Select the anesthesia code for this procedure.

00404

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00402

00406

00400

Q 52

Incorrect 0/1 Points

52. 56-year-old female is having a bilateral mammogram with computer aid detection
conducted as a screening because the patient has a family history of breast cancer.
She does not presently have signs or symptoms of breast disease. What
radiological services are reported?

77065 x 2

77065, 77066

77067

77066

Q 53

Correct 1/1 Points

53. A 63-year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient

facility for placement of a right and left ureteral stent along with an interpretation
of a retrograde pyelogram. What codes should be reported?

52332, 74425

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52332-50, 74420-26

52005, 74420

52005-50, 74425-26

Q 54

Incorrect 0/1 Points

54. A 35-year-old male sees his primary care physician complaining of fever with chills,
cough and congestion. The physician performs a chest X-ray taking lateral and AP
views in his office. The physician interprets the X-ray views and the patient is
diagnosed with walking pneumonia. Which CPT® code is reported for the chest X-
rays performed in the office and interpreted by the physician?

71046-26

71047-26

71046

71045-26-TC

Q 55

Incorrect 0/1 Points

55. This gentleman has localized prostate cancer and has chosen to have complete
transrectal ultrasonography performed for dosimetry purposes. Following
calculation of the planned transrectal ultrasound, guidance was provided for
percutaneous placement of 1-125 seeds. Select the appropriate codes for this
procedure.
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55920, 76965-26

55876, 76942-26

55860, 76873-26

55875, 76965-26

Q 56

Incorrect 0/1 Points

56. A 76-year-old female had a ground level fall when she tripped over her dog earlier
this evening in her apartment. The Emergency Department took X-rays of the left
wrist in oblique and lateral views which revealed a displaced distal radius fracture,
type I open left wrist. What radiological service and ICD-10-CM codes are
reported?

73100-26, S52.502B, W18.31XA, Y92.039

73110-26, S52.602A, W18.31XA, Y92.039

73115-26, S52.502A, W18.31XA, Y92.039

73100-26, S52.602B, W18.31XA, Y92.039

Q 57

Correct 1/1 Points

57. The patient is 15-weeks pregnant with twins coming back to her obstetrician to
have a transabdominal ultrasound performed to reassess anatomic abnormalities

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of both fetuses that were previously demonstrated in the last ultrasound. What
ultrasound code(s) is (are) reported?

76815

76816, 76816-59

76801, 76802

76805, 76810

Q 58

Correct 1/1 Points

58. During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of
a large piece of tumor and sent it to pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery
pinkish tan tissue measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire specimen is
submitted in one block and also a gross and microscopic examination was
performed on the tissue. The frozen section and the pathology report are sent
back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a medulloblastoma. What CPT®
code(s) will the pathologist report?

80500

88331-26, 88307-26

80504

88331-26, 88332-26, 88304-26

Q 59

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Correct 1/1 Points

59. Physician orders a basic and comprehensive metabolic panel. Select the code(s) on
how this is reported.

80053, 80047

80053

80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450

80053, 82330

Q 60

Correct 1/1 Points

60. An 18-year-old female with a history of depression comes into the ER in a coma.
The ER physician orders a drug screen on antidepressants, phenothiazines, and
benzodiazepines. The lab performs a screening for single drug class using an
immunoassay in a random access chemistry analyzer. Presence of antidepressants
is found and a drug confirmation is performed to identify the particular
antidepressant. What correct CPT® codes are reported?

80307, 80338

80305, 80338

80306 x 3, 80332

Option 4

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Q 61

Correct 1/1 Points

61. A patient uses Topiramate to control his seizures. He comes in every two months
to have a therapeutic drug testing performed to assess serum plasma levels of this
medication. What lab code(s) is (are) reported for this testing?

80305

80375

80201

80306, 80375

Q 62

Correct 1/1 Points

62. Patient that is a borderline diabetic has been sent to the laboratory to have an oral
glucose tolerance test. Patient drank the glucose and five blood specimens were
taken every 30 to 60 minutes up to three hours to determine how quickly the
glucose is cleared from the blood. What code(s) is (are) reported for this test?

82947 x 5

82946

80422

82951, 82952 x 2

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Q 63

Correct 1/1 Points

63. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has been admitted. The admitting
physician orders a blood gas for oxygen saturation only. The admitting physician
performs the arterial puncture drawing blood for a blood gas reading on oxygen
saturation only. The physician draws it again in an hour to measure how much
oxygen the blood is carrying. Select the codes for the blood gas testing.

82805, 82805-51

82810, 82810-91

82803, 82803-51

82805, 82805-90

Q 64

Correct 1/1 Points

64. A 4-year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the
pediatrician’s office by the nurse. The first vaccination administered is the Polio
vaccine intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3)
administered in the nose. The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by
subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are reported for the administration and
vaccines?

90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2

90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1

90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474

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90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473

Q 65

Correct 1/1 Points

65. A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his
nephrologist after just placing a catheter into the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The
physician is evaluating the dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make
sure the volume of dialysate and the concentration of electrolytes and glucose are
correctly prescribed for this patient. What code should be reported for this service?

90935

90937

90947

90945

Q 66

Correct 1/1 Points

66. An established patient had a comprehensive exam in which she has been
diagnosed with dry eye syndrome in both eyes. The ophthalmologist measures the
cornea for placement of the soft contact lens for treatment of this syndrome. What
codes are reported by the ophthalmologist?

92014-25, 92071-50

99214-25, 92072-50

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92014-25, 92325-50

92014-25, 92310-50

Q 67

Correct 1/1 Points

67. A patient who is a singer has been hoarse for a few months following an upper
respiratory infection. She is in a voice laboratory to have a laryngeal function study
performed by an otolaryngologist. She starts off with the acoustic testing first.
Before she moves on to the aerodynamic testing she complains of throat pain and
is rescheduled to come back to have the other test performed. What CPT® code is
reported?

92520

92700

92520-52

92614-52

Q 68

Incorrect 0/1 Points

68. A cancer patient is coming in to have a chemotherapy infusion. The physician

notes the patient is dehydrated and will first administer a hydration infusion. The
infusion time was 1 hour and 30 minutes. Select the code(s) that is (are) reported
for this encounter?

96360

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96360, 96361

96365, 96366

96422

Q 69

Incorrect 0/1 Points

69. A patient that has multiple sclerosis has been seeing a therapist for four visits.
Today’s visit the therapist will be performing a comprehensive reevaluation to
determine the extent of progress. There was a revised plan assessing the changes
in the patient's functional status. Initial profile was updated to reflect changes that
affect future goals along with a revised plan of care. A total care of 30 minutes
were spent in this re-evaluation. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be
reported?

97168, Z51.89, G35

97164, Z56.89, G35

97167, G35

97163, Z56.9, G35

Q 70

Correct 1/1 Points

70. What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?

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Entropion is the inward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the outward turning of
the eyelid.

Entropion is facial droop and ectropion is a facial spasm.

Entropion is the outward turning of the hands and ectropion is the inward turning of the
hands.

Entropion inward turning of the feet and ectropion is the outward turning of the feet due
to muscle disorder.

Q 71

Correct 1/1 Points

71. An arteriovenous anastomosis is used to increase blood flow in hemodialysis.

Which one of the following describes a direct arteriovenous anastomosis?

Insertion of a cannula

A section of artery and a neighboring vein are joined

A donor’s vein is used to connect an artery and a vein

Radical hysterectomy not otherwise specified

Q 72

Correct 1/1 Points

72. Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:

Surgical approaches

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Hernias

Organs found in the digestive system

Cardiac catheterizations

Q 73

Correct 1/1 Points

73. Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?

Skull

Shoulder

Pelvis

Leg

Q 74

Correct 1/1 Points

74. When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle,
where is this muscle located?

Foot

Upper Arm

Upper Leg

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Hand

Q 75

Correct 1/1 Points

75. What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow?

Chondromatosis

Osteochondritis

Costochondritis

Osteomyelitis

Q 76

Correct 1/1 Points

76. The root word trich/o means:

Hair

Sebum

Eyelid

Trachea

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Q 77

Correct 1/1 Points

77. A patient is having pyeloplasty performed to treat an uretero-pelvic junction

obstruction. What is being performed?

Surgical repair of the bladder

Removal of the kidney

Cutting into the ureter

Surgical reconstruction of the renal pelvis

Q 78

Correct 1/1 Points

78. A 44-year-old had a history of adenocarcinoma of the cervix on a conization in

March 20XX who has been followed with twice-yearly endocervical curettages and
Pap smears that were all negative for two years, per the recommendation of a GYN
oncologist. Her Pap smear results from the last visit noted atypical glandular cells.
In light of this, she underwent a colposcopy and the biopsy of the normal-
appearing cervix on colposcopy was benign. The endocervical curettage was
benign endocervical glands, and the endometrial sampling was benign
endometrium. In light of the fact that she had had previous atypical glandular cells
that led to diagnosis of adenocarcinoma and the concerns that this may have
recurred, she had been recommended for a cone biopsy and fractional dilatation
and curettage, which she is undergoing today. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be
reported?

R87.619, C53.9

C55

R87.619, Z85.41

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Z12.4, Z85.41

Q 79

Correct 1/1 Points

79. Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and
shortness of breath. The physician takes a chest X-ray which indicates the patient
has double pneumonia. Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit.

J18.9, R05.9, R06.2

R05.9, R06.2, J18.9

J18.9

J15.9

Q 80

Correct 1/1 Points

80. What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that
was correctly prescribed and properly administered?

T40.2X1A, R00.1

T40.2X3A, R00.1

R00.1, T40.2X5A

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R00.1, T40.2X2A

Q 81

Correct 1/1 Points

81. Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A):

These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.

These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.

Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.

The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the
pregnancy.

Q 82

Incorrect 0/1 Points

82. A 27-year-old was frying chicken when an explosion of the oil had occurred and
she sustained second-degree burns on her face (5%), third degree burns on both
hands (5%). There was a total of 10 percent of the body surface that was burned.
Select which ICD-10-CM codes are reported.

T20.20XA, T23.301A, T23.302A, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G3

T23.301A, T23.302A, T20.20XA, T31.11, X10.2XXA, Y93.G3

T23.301A, T23.302A, T20.20XA, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G3

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T23.601A, T23.602A, T20.60XA, T31.10, X10.2XXA, Y93.G3

Q 83

Correct 1/1 Points

83. A 66-year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for
a colorectal cancer screening. The screening is performed via barium enema. What
HCPCS Level II code is reported for this procedure?

G0104

G0105

G0120

G0121

Q 84

Correct 1/1 Points

84. Patient with corneal degeneration is having a cornea transplant. The donor cornea
had been previously prepared by punching a central corneal button with a
guillotine punch. This had been stored in Optisol GS. It was gently rinsed with BSS
Plus solution and was then transferred to the patient’s eye on a Paton spatula and
sutured with 12 interrupted 10-0 nylon sutures. Select the HCPCS Level II code for
the corneal tissue.

V2790

V2785

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V2628

V2799

Q 85

Correct 1/1 Points

85. The patient presents to the office for an injection. Joint prepped using sterile
technique. Muscle group location: gluteus maximus. Sterilely injected with 40 mg
of Kenalog-10, 2 cc Marcaine and 2 cc lidocaine 2%. Sterile bandage applied.
Choose the HCPCS Level II code for this treatment.

J3301 x 4

J3301

J3300 x 40

J3300

Q 86

Correct 1/1 Points

86. What is PHI?

Physician-health care interchange

Private health insurance

Protected health information

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Provider identified incident-to

Q 87

Correct 1/1 Points

87. Which of the following is an example of electronic data?

A digital X-ray

An explanation of benefits

An advance beneficiary notice

A written prescription

Q 88

Correct 1/1 Points

88. Which health plan does NOT fall under HIPAA?

Medicaid

Medicare

Workers’ compensation

Private plans

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Q 89

Correct 1/1 Points

89. What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package?

Typical postoperative follow-up care

One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure

Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the
initial procedure

Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area

Q 90

Correct 1/1 Points

90. Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?

If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default
type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported.

The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.

When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from cate‐
gory E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code.

Q 91

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Correct 1/1 Points

91. Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00-
Y99)?

All external cause codes do not require a seventh character.

Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause.

Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not stated.

External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code

Q 92

Correct 1/1 Points

92. Which place of service code is reported on the physician’s claim for a surgical
procedure performed in an ASC?

21

22

24

11

Q 93

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Correct 1/1 Points

93. If a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) converts to a non ST elevation

myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) due to thrombolytic therapy, how is it reported,
according to ICD-10-CM guidelines?

As unspecified AMI

As a subendocardial AMI

As STEMI

As a NSTEMI

Q 94

Correct 1/1 Points

94. When coding for a surgical service, which of the following is not included in the
global surgical package?

Digital Block

General anesthesia

Talking with the family

E/M encounter on the date immediately prior to a major procedure

Q 95

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Correct 1/1 Points

95. Which statement is false regarding the instructions for use of the CPT code book?

Special report should accompany the use of an unlisted code

Main body of category I section consists of six sections with each section divided into sub‐
section and subcategories

Instructions listed in the parenthetical notes typically indicate that a code should not be
reported with other code(s) and will prevent errors of highest probability but are not all
inclusive

A code with a # before it is a new code

Q 96

Incorrect 0/1 Points

96. SCENARIO 1

70450

70460

70450-26

70470

Q 97

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Incorrect 0/1 Points

97. SCENARIO 2

99283

99202

99212

99381

Q 98

Correct 1/1 Points

98. SCENARIO 3

93005

93010

93000

93000-26

Q 99

Incorrect 0/1 Points

99. SCENARIO 4

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99243

99244

99203

99213

Q 100

Incorrect 0/1 Points

100. SCENARIO 5

99291

99292

99291, 99292

99291-25

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