INTERNSHIP QUESTIONS

AND

ANSWERS

COMPILED BY GYM

NAUTH

UNTH

LASUTH

FMC

NATIONAL HOSPITAL ABUJA

MILITARY HOSPITAL

etc

1
2018 MLS QUESTIONS FOR NATIONAL HOSPITAL ABUJA

1) What is the correct unit for glucose test results?

2) The main site of haemopoiesis in infants

3) All this are found in Buffy coat Except;

4) The most important stage in gram staining

5) Which of the following organism is motile

6) The white cell responsible for bacterial infection

7) A patient comes with a case of haemolytic uraemia, which of the micro-

organisms can cause this

8) Water that does not contain ion is called

9) What is the unit for MCV

10) Which blood group is the universal donor

11) Which of the following is not the rule of thumb

a. Taking acid to water

b. adding antisera to cells

c. Using microscope to observe agglutination

d. adding distilled water to cells

12. Whats is the thickness of the coverslip used in the histopathology lab.

a. 22x22mm

2
 b. 22x35mm

c. 22x60mm

d. 21x16mm

Ans: b

13. What is the volume of agar poured during sensitivity in a agar plate having a

thickness of 90cm.

14. Haemolysed blood is caused by ……………….

15. Which of the following is not among tissue processing

a. Dehydration

b. Clearing

c. Sectioning

d. mordanting

16. The concentration of normal saline

17. The following are polymorphonuclear except

a. Basophils

b. Lymphocytes

3
 c. Neutrophil

d. Eosinophils

18. If after carrying out a test and a patient ask if he or she has diabetes what will

be your answer

19. The normal temperature for a fridge in the lab

20. What is the most critical step in Gram staining

a. Primary staining

b. Mordanting

c. Decolourizing

d. Secondary staining.

ANSWERS

1. mg/dl or mmol/l

2. Marrow of the long bones

4
3. Red blood cells

4. Decolourization

5. E.coli, H.pylori, p.aeruginosa

6. Neutrophils

7. E. coli

8. Deionized water

9. Femto-litre

10.O negative

11.D

12.b

13.20ml

14.Vigorous shaking of the collected blood

15.D

16.0.85%

17.B.

18.Talk to your Doctor

19.40C

20.C

5
 HMB, DELTA Nov 8, 2017

MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENCE INTERSHIP QUESTION

1. What is Haematopoiesis

2. Hormone for Haematopoiesis

3. Organ responsible for the production of the Haematopoiesis

4. Immature WBC is called?

5. Optochin test is for……………………….

6. Glucose threshold in blood

7. Normal range for Urea

8. PCV is low and creatinine is high which organ is implicated

9. What is the possible sample for cholera

10.What part of the virus causes diseases

11.How many Chromosomes are present in male and female

12.Tissue processing involves

13.Types of sectioning

14.what are basic dyes used in diagnosis

15.Stain for MTB

16.Lipid profile parameters

17.LFT parameters

18.Pap smear is for……….

6
 19.what culture media is used for MTB

20.Causative organisms for UTI

21.Spectrophotometer works on the principle of

ANSWERS

1. The process of blood formation

2. Haematopoietin

3. Bone marrow

4. Blast cell

5. S. pneumonia

6. 180md/dl

7. 15-45mg/dl

8. Kidney

9. Stool

10.Nucleic acid component

11.46

12.fixation, dehydration, clearing, impregnation, embedding, sectioning and

mounting.

13.Frozen, paraffin and semithin sectioning

14.Dyes that stains the acidic component of a cell

15.Carbol fuschin
7
16.Triglycerides, total cholesterol, HDL, LDL

17.Bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, alanine transferase, aspartate transferase

18.Vagina and cervical swab

19.Lowestein-Jensen medium

20.Staphylococcus aureus, N.gonorrhea, Trichomonas vaginalis

21.Beer lambert law

8
FEDERAL MEDICAL CENTRE, OWERRI

2013 MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENTIST INTERNSHIP EXAMINATIONS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS: TIME ALLOWED 45 MINUTES

1) True or false

a) HIV virus is a member of Retroviridae. True

b) Mumps Virus vaccine is effective in controlling the disease. True

c) Herpes simplex virus is an RNA virus. False

d) The WHO/AFRO Accreditation based on ISO15189 criteria require a

minimum of five stars for a laboratory to be accreditated. True

e) Diazo reaction is employed in Glucose estimation. False

2) True or false

Typhoid infection is confirmed by

a) Identification of salmonella organism in specimen cultures. True

b) Widal test titre of above 1:80. True

c) Rapid salmonella antibody test strip. True

d) The presence of fever and constipation. True

e) when malaria parasites is also identified microscopically. false

3) True or false

a) Plasmodium ovale is the commonest specie in west Africa. F

9
b) P.falciparum is responsible for most malaria in the tropics. T

c) P.vivax causes malignant tertian malaria.F

d) P.malariae is responsible for the quartan type of malaria. T

e) P.ovale is the one that usually causes malaria in sicklers. F

4). The formula most suitable for isolation of Trichophyton rubum from nail

clippings is

a) S+C

b) BA+SDA

c) S+C+A

d) CLED + SA

e) none of the above

ANS: B

5. The following are tumour markers

a) PSA. True

b) CEA. True

c) Urea. False

10
 d) Alpha –feto protein. True

e) CK-MB. false

6. To prepare 4 M solution of NaOH the grams required in 200ml of solution

(GMW40) are

a) 32 grams

b) 200 grams

c) 80 grams

d) 20 grams

e) 10 grams

ANS: A

7) These tests results are not affected by pre-test fasting

a) Cholesterol. false

b) Glucose. false

c) Urea. True

d) Bilirubin. True

e) creatinine. True

11
8) The percentage strength of sodium hypochlorite solution recommended in

routine laboratory disinfection is

a) 5%

b) 10%

c) 15%

d) 20%

e) 25%

ANS: A

9) The bye products of RBC metabolism include

a) Uric acid

b) Urea

c) Bilirubin

d) C-reactive protein

e) Haemoglobin

Ans: C

12
10). List the 5 five components of E A-36 stain used in papanicoloau method

a. 0.5% Light green d. Saturated aqueous lithium carbonate

b. 0.5% Bismark Y in 95% alcohol e. 0.5% Eosin

c. Phosphotungstic acid

11). List the 10 stages of Tissue processing

a) Fixation f) sectioning

b) dehydration g) mounting

c) clearing h) staining

d) Impregnation i) decalcification(before dehydration if calcium is present)

e) embedding j) Microscopy

12.) Name the most appropriate staining method for the demonstration of

a) Ferric salt: Perl Prussian blue

b) Calcium: von Kossa

c) Neutral fat: Sudan B

d) Fungi: Gridley’s

13
e) AFB: Ziel-Nelson

13). List the 10 parameters tested in a urine sample using Combi-9 strip

a) Urobilinogen f)Nitrite

b) Glucose g) Bilirubin

c) Ketones h) pH

d) Protein i) Ascorbic acid

e) Blood j) Specific gravity

14. List 5 intestinal Nematodes of major medical importance

a) Ascaris lumbricoides

b) Necator americanus

c)Ancylostoma duodenale

d) Enterobius vermicularis

e)Trichuris trichuira

15. Mention the media for the isolation

a. Proteus mirabilis in urine sample Blood agar

14
b. Histoplasma capsulatum from sputum. Brain heart infusion

c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis from sputum Lowestein jenson media

d. Candida species from H.V.S .SDA (Sabrouad dextrose agar)

e. Vibrio cholera from stool sample. blood agar, citrate bile

16. True or false

HAART in HIV/AIDS Management targets the following

a) protein synthesis inhibition

b) Protease activation

c) CD4 cells synthesis inhibition

d) DNA synthesis inhibition

e) RNA synthesis activation

17. The anticoagulant used to prevent invitro glycolysis includes

a) Potassium chloride

b) Sodium carbonate

c) Sequestrene

d) Flouride

15
e) Heparine

ANS: D

18. The most acceptable method of Bio-waste disposal is

a) Disinfection

b) Washing with bleach

c) Burning in non-habited places

d) Incineration

e) Sorting

ANS: D

19. Write in full

a. DNA- Deoxyribonucleicacid

b. PSA- Prostate specific Antigen

c. ELISA- Enzyme linked immune-sorbent Assay

d. ESR- Erythrocyte sedimentation Rate

e. WHO- World health organisation

16
20. When a lab equipment explodes

a. report it to appropriate quarters without delay

b. ignore and disregard it

c. It is signal for repair of the equipment

d. regard it as occurrence in the laboratory and set up investigation committee

ANS: A

21. Universal precaution will do all but

a. protect the lab staff

b. protect the lab environment

c. protect the lab equipment

d. render biological specimens sterile

ANS: D

22. which of the following is true of HIV/AIDS?

a. Once HIV advances to AIDS, it kills within seven days

b. opportunistic infections are responsible for most of the deaths in HIV/AIDS

17
c. All blood-sucking vectors (insects) can transmit HIV/AIDS

d. All individual who have HIV have AIDS as well

ANS; B

23. Anti-retroviral drugs given as post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is best

within

a. 24 hours of incidence

b. 48 hours of incidence

c. 72 hours of incidence

d. 7 days of incidence

ANS: A

24. The quality management system of modern laboratory practice has

a. 24 quality essentials

b. 12 quality essentials

c. 10 quality essentials

d. 6 quality essentials

ANS: B

18
 FEDERAL MEDICAL CENTRE OWERRI

INTERNSHIP EXAM FOR MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENTISTS

DATE: 7/01/ 2019

INSTRUCTION: Circle the correct answer. Any wrong answer attracts negative

markings

1. The Nelson-Somogyi test measures …………………. a. Protein b. urea c.

Amylase d. Lipids

Ans: C

2. Which of the following methods is use for demonstrating Porphobilinogen

a. Acetate test b. Erlich test c. Nitroprusside test d. Fouchest test

Ans: B

3. Which of these is not an antigen base testing for HIV…………… a. Stat-pak

b. viral load c. western blotting d. Competitive ELISA

Ans: B

4. The characteristics peripheral blood morphologic feature for multiple

myeloma is …………

a. cytotoxic T-cells b. roleux formation c. spherocytes d. macrocytes

ANS: B
19
5. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as a. Amoeboid b. Jerky c.

falling leaf like d. Brownian.

ANS: A

6. Bombay phenotype (oh) individuals may have antibodies with the following

specificities except

a. Anti-A b. Anti-b c. Anti-AB d. Anti-O

ANS: D

7. Pernicious anaemia is primarily caused by ………………….

a. lack of intrinsic factor b. lack of vitamin B12 c. Sideroblastic effect d.

folate deficiency

ANS: B

8. The volume of CPDA anticoagulant in adult blood bag

is……………………..

a. 65ml b. 66ml c. 63ml d. 67ml

ANS: A

9. Which of the following is not PPE …………………..

a. Lab coat b. Hand gloves c. vanitan blind d. eye google

ANS: C

10.The following factors affect the rate of fixation except ………………….

a. Time b. temperature c. pressure d. Ph

20
 ANS: B

11.These are methods of autologous transfusion except……………….. a. blood

salvage b. acutenormovolaemichaemodilution c. predeposit donation d.

haemoglobin

ANS: A

12.The most important stage of tissue processing is …………..

a. sectioning b. staining c. dehydration d. embedding

ANS: A

13.One of these is not a component of Harris Alum ………………..

a. mercuric oxide b. potassium sulphate c. haematoxylin d. ferric acid

ANS: A

14.The most important equipment in the histopathology laboratory is

……………….

a. Automatic tissue processor b. microtome c. Floatation bath d. Embedding

ANS: A

15.Cut-up involves the following except………….. a. describing the gross

specimen b. weighing the gross specimen c. teasing the gross specimen d.

measuring the gross specimen

ANS: c

21
16.In polycythaemia vera, leucocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is

………………

a. elevated b. normal c. decreased d. slightly decrease

ANS: A

17.The following hormones increases blood glucose levels except………..

a. norepinephrine b. cortisol c. growth hormone d. oxytocin

ANS: D

18.………………. is an indicator of long term blood glucose levels and control

a. glycate haemoglobin b. methaemoglobin c. carboxylhaemoglobin d.

sulphaemoglobin

ANS: A

19.Beer-Lambert law is based on the following premises…… a. The incident

light is polychromatic b. The solvent absorption is significant c. The solute

concentration is within the given limit d. An optical interference is not

present

ANS: A

20.An example of a glycocalyx is a ………………….

a. capsule b. Pilli c. Fimbriae d. cell wall

ANS: D

22
21.The current algorithm for HIV testing in Nigeria is …….. a. serial b. parallel

c. viral laod d. CD4 count

ANS: A

22.An example of a transport medium is a. SIM medium b. stuart medium

c.Dolby medium d. nutrient broth.

ANS: B

23.A microscope that has a total magnification of 1500x with the oil immersion

lens has an ocular of what power? a. 150x b. 1.5x c. 15x d. 30x

ANS; C

24.The specimens for an electron microscope is always a. stained with dyes b.

sliced into thin sections c. killed d. viewed directly

ANS: A

25.Sabin-Feldman dye test is used in the diagnosis of a. Toxoplasmosis b.

Ameobiasis c. cryptosporidiosis d. Trypanosomiasis.

ANS; A

23
 FEDERAL MEDICAL CENTRE YENAGOA

INTERNSHIP RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION

Precise answers please

1. a. Name 4 optical parts of a microscope

b. In African chagas disease what chemical is added and in what amount is

added to kill the T. cruzi in the blood bank.

2. a. What precursor cell differentiates acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

b. What is the full meaning of the following abbreviation

SOP

EDTA

2. a. What is IEOASs

b. How do you prepare a 1: 20 dilution of blood

4. a. Name three process of sterilization in the lab

b. Name two physiological role of blood

5. a. What is the diameter of a mature red blood cell

b. Name two laboratory features of a sickle cell disease blood film

24
6.a. Heinz Blood are common in what clinical case

b. Name 2 ion responsible of protein electrophoresis in genotyping

7a. HDN due to ABO incompatibility is caused by

b. Mention two routes of HIV transmission

8a. What is the full meaning of ELISA

b. what are oncogenes

9. a. A donor with blood group AB has which of the following antibodies

b. what is the minimum body weight of a potential blood donor

10. a why do you read medical laboratory science in one sentence

b. Name three symptoms of haemorrhagic fever caused by Ebola virus.

Answers

1. a. Eye piece lense, objective lense, the condenser, light source

b. Nitric oxide

2. a. lymphoblast

b. Standard operating procedure

Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid

25
 3. a. Integrated Environmental and Oceanographic Assessment system

b. 0.38ml of diluting fluid to 0.02ml of blood

4.a. By heat

By filtration

By radiation

b. Regulation & protective role

5. a. 8um

b. sickle shaped red cell & hypochromia

6. a. G6PD deficiency

b. cation & Anion

7. a. IgG antibody

b. Sex, blood transfusion

8.a. Enzyme linked Immunosorbent Assay

b. A gene capable of causing cancer

9.a. no antibody

b. 70kg

26
10. a. To understand the underlying causes of diseases and how to carry out

diagnosis of such diseases.

b. Fever

Diarrhoea

Nausea & Vomiting

27
 FMC Birninkudu May 4, 2017

Current Affairs

1. Mention the two public officers who was currently suspended

2. List the six geopolitical zones in Nigeria, giving two examples of each

3. Honorable minister of health of Nigeria

4. Who was the first black president of south Africa

5. Name of the state Governor

Professional questions

1. What is SOP

2. List 5 elements of SOP

3. Define universal precaution: practice in medicine recommended to minimize

the risk of exposure to bacteria and pathogens carried in patients blood or

body fluids

4. mention two important universal precaution: wear gloves, wear lab coats and

Google

5. what is PCV: packed cell volume

6. List two importance of PCV: diagnose anaemia, polycythemia or

dehydration

28
 Answers

1. SOP: Standard Operating Procedure

2. Elements of SOP

a. Title page

b. Table of Contents

c. Procedures

d. Quality Control/ Assurance

e. Reference

29
 FEDERAL MEDICAL CENTRE OWO

13/8/ 2018

MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENCE INTERNSHIP QUESTION

GENERAL PAPER

1. State five coastal states: California, Florida, south Carolina, north Carolina,

Virginia, New Jersey

2. Name two governor that were recently arrested for corruption

3. Give the full meaning of the following

ATM: automatic teller machine

NCDC: national center for disease control

HDMI: High Definition Multimedia Interface

UNESCO: United Nations educational, scientific and cultural organisation

Mention three opposition party in Ondo state

30
NNAMDI AZIKIWE UNIVERSITY TEACHING HOSPITAL

INTERN MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENTISTS INTERVIEW

QUESTION 9/10/14

Instruction: Answer all questions choosing only one most appropriate option.

Time: 11/2hr

1. False negative PPD test could be as a result of the following except

a. Anergy

b. Malnutrition

c. Overwhelming viral infection

d. Recent BCG vaccination

Ans: b

2. Which of the following is Gram negative bacillus

a. Neisseria meningitides

b. Klebsiella pneumonia

c. Staphylococcus epidermidis

31
 d. Mycobacterium kansari

Ans: b

3. Which of these is a fermenting organism

a. Salmonella

b. Shigella

c. Klebsiella

d. Staphylococcus

Ans: c

4. One of the following is not true concerning swarming motility in bacteria

a. It is exhibited by Proteus mirabilis

b. It is exhibited by Clostridium botulism

c. It is prevented by creating a ditch in the media plate

d. It can be prevented using Mac Conkey agar

Ans: b

5. Which of these is not a diagnostic test for M. tuberculosis

a. Culture on Lowestein-Jensen’s mdium

b. Ziel-Nelson staining

c. Gene xpert

d. Direct short course

Ans: d

32
6. Aetiology of Typhoid fever

a. Salmonella typhi

b. Salmonella paratyphi A

c. Salmonella paratyphi B

d. All of the above

7. The following are correctly matched Except

a. Meningitis inhalation

b. Tuberculosis droplet spread

c. Gas gangrene inoculation of species

d. Dranculiasis Inoculation

Ans: d

8. The following are associated with Helicobacter pylori except

a. Possesion of diseases

b. Gastronoma

c. Peptic ulcerative diseases

d. Bureditis lymphoma

Ans: d

9. The following are correct concerning cholera except

a. Vibrio Cholera is transmitted via ingestion

b. TCBS is used in the differential medium

33
 c. Pathogenesis involves an irreversible adenylate cyclase activation

d. Inhibition of reabsorption is a passive process

Ans: c

10.Which of these organism is used to monitor sterilization process

a. Listeria monocytogen

b. Legionella pneumophilla

c. Bacillus stearothermophilus

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Ans: c

11.Which is not true of fungi

a. Possess chitin cell wall

b. Fungi are prokaryotes

c. Fungi spores are resistant to heat, cold, acids and bases

d. Fungi can reproduce by hyphal extension

Ans: b

12.Choose the correct statement with respect to Gram staining reaction

a. Methylene blue is the primary stain

b. Lugol’s iodine acts as the mordant

c. alcohol is used as the decolourizer

d. Concentrated carbol fuschin is used as a counter stain

34
 Ans: d

13.In the life cycle of Trichinella spiralis, the host is

a. human, carmel

b. Horsefly, human

c. snail, rat

d. Pig, human, rats

Ans: d

14.The infective stage of T.cruzi is

a. Flagellate

b. Cyst

c. Promastigote

d. Mature oocyst

Ans; c

15.Hb is 81g/l and PCV is 0.34, what is the MCHC

a. 23.8g/l

b. 31.5g/l

c. 360g/l

d. 238g/l

e. none of the above

MCHC= Haemoglobin(g/dl) x 100

35
 PCV(%)

81g/l= 8.1g/dl 0.34L/L= 34%

8.1/34 X 100= 23.82%

Ans: A

16.Qualities of a good film include all except

a. Not too thick, nor too long

b. Free from lines and holes

c. Has jagged tail and uneven

d. Has a smooth tail

Ans: c

17.The quality management system of modern laboratory practice

a. 10

b. 15

c. 12

d. 24

Ans: c

18.What is the accreditation standard number

a. 1SO12345

b. ISO15189

c. ISO12345

36
 d. ISO10751

Ans: b

19. The following are components of quality essentials except

a. Safety

b. Dispatch

c. Assessment

d. formation and management

e. Customer satisfaction

Ans: b

Facilities and safety

Organisation

Personnel

Equipment

Purchasing and Inventory

Assessment

Occurrence management

Process management

Process control

Formation management

Documents and records

37
 Customer services

20. Concerning mycology studies, which is incorrect

a. Includes blood culture

b. Done using potato dextrose agar

c. Cultures should be discarded after a minimum of 5 days

d. 20% KOH is usually used

Ans: c

38
LASUTH 2018 INTERNSHIP QUESTION

1. What is Anaemia

Ans: A condition in which blood doesn’t have enough healthy red cells

2. Types of Anaemia

Ans: i. Iron deficiency anaemia

ii. Hemolytic anaemia

iii. Sickle cell anaemia

iv Vitamin deficiency anaemia

v. Bone marrow and stem cell problem

3. Define SOP

Standard Operating Procedure

4. What is blood donor procedure

 Pre-donation procedure e.g Hb estimation

 Donation

 Post-donation

39
5. Stain for malaria diagnosis

Giemsa

6. Explain Sterilization, Disinfectant and bacteriostatic

 Sterilization is the process of eliminating any form of life completely

 Disinfectant is a chemical substance that destroys bacteria completely

 Bacteriostatic is a substance that stops the reproduction of bacteria but

not necessary killing it.

7. What is fixation

Fixation is the process of preventing autolysis and putrefaction

8. Principle of oxidase, citrate and coagulase

Oxidase: The principle is based on the ability of a bacteria that produces

cytochrome c oxidase which oxidizes N,N,N,N tetramethyl p-

phenylenediamine

Citrate: The principle is based on the ability of an organism to utilize citrate

as a sole source of carbon for their metabolism with resulting alkalinity.

Coagulase: The principle is based on the ability of certain bacteria to

produce coagulase which react with coagulase reacting factor in the plasma.

9. Why do embalming

To prevent post-mortem changes

40
10.Types of Fixation, and examples of named fixation

Physical Fixation e.g by heat

Chemical fixation e.g by the use of fixatives (Immersion and Perfusion)

11.Test done to diagnose blood sugar, bilirubin, protein

Blood sugar: Glucose Oxidase

Bilirubin: Diazotized sulphanilic ( Jendrassik and Grof)

Protein: Biuret reaction

12.Types of protein

Ans: antibodies, enzyme, transport proteins, structural proteins, storage

proteins, contractile protein

41
 NAUTH INTERNSHIP QUESTION

Time allowed: 20 minutes

1. 20 mmol/L of glucose is equivalent to

a. 260mg/dl b. 1.11 mg/dl c. 400mg/dl d. 0.33mg/dl e. None

ANS: E

mmol/L=mg/dl x 10
m.w
2. Convert 0.9% w/v sodium chloride (NaCl) to mol/l

a. 0.25 mol/L b. 0.115mol/L c. 0,50mol/L d. 0.05mol/L e. None

ANS: E

3. Diagnostic enzymes include all except

a. Alkaline phosphatase b. Gamma glamyl transferase C. Amylase d.

Prostate specific antigen e. Aminoacyl synthethase

ANS: E

4. The anticoagulant for electrolyte sample collection is

42
 a. Fluoride oxalate b. EDTA c. Sodium Chloride d. Heparin d. none

ANS: D

5. 5% solution of sodium hydroxide is prepared by

a. Dissolving 5g of NaOH in distilled water and making up the final volume

to 1000ml

b. Dissolving 0.5g of NaOH in distilled water and making up the final

volume to 100ml

c. Dissolving 5g of NaOH in distilled water and making up the final

volume to 50ml

d. Dissolving 50g of NaOH in distilled water and making up the final

volume to 50ml

e. None

ANS: E

6. What optimum pH is recommended for Giemsa stain in identifying malaria

parasite especially the schuffner dots.

a. 7 b. 6.5 c. 7.2 d. 8.5 e. 9.0

ANS: C

7. MCHC is one of the red cell indices which is calculated by one of the

following formulae.

a. PCV/Hb (g/L) b. PCV/RBC c. Hb/PCV d. all e. None

43
 ANS; C

8. Parents of blood group O Rh D positive have chances of producing

offsprings of the following blood group except

a. O Rh-positive b. O Rh-negative c. O Rh-positive and O Rh-negative e.

None

ANS: E

9. The concentration of sodium chloride in normal saline for washing red cells

is

a. 8.5g/L b. 10.5g/L c. 7.5g/L d. 11.0g/dl e. None

ANS: A

10.Which of the following is not a characteristics of immune Antibodies

a. Ig G b. Molecular weight of about 140,000 c. Reacts at an optimum

temperature of 40c-250c d. Reacts incompletely in saline e. None

ANS: C They react at 370c

11.Concerning decalcification, a good decalcifying agent should

a. Remove calcium ion completely

b. Be reasonable slow

c. Impair subsequent histochemistry

d. do not contain acidic materials

e. Damage tissue and cells

44
 ANS; A

12.Which of the following have the correct order of tissue processing

a. Fixation, dehydration, clearing, impregnation. embedding

b. Fixation, clearing, embedding, sectioning, mounting

c. Clearing fixation, Blocking out

d. Dehydration, impregnation, clearing, embedding, sectioning

ANS: A

13.Concerning Haematoxylin

a. It is the less important dye in histopathology

b. It has staining properties, unless it is oxidized to haematin

c. The process of oxidation is called ripening

d. The end product of the artificial method last longr than the natural

e. It can stain tissue in the absence of a mordant

ANS: C

14.Which of the following staining techniques is correctly matched with the

tissue structure which it demonstates.

a. H&E tissue structure b. Perl Prussian blue neutal fat structure c. Ziel-

Nelson acidic bacilli d. Masson trichrome elastic fibres e. Weighert

Van Gieson collagen fibres

ANS; A,E

45
15.During staining, differentiation of tissue is done using 1% acid alcohol, The

proper constitution of 1% acid alcohol is

a. 1ml of conc Hcl + 99ml of 100% alcohol

b. 99ml of con HCL + 1ml of 70% alcohol

c. 1ml of conc HCL + 99mls of 100% alcohol

d. 99mls of conc HCL + 1ml of 70% alcohol

e. 1ml of conc HCL + 99ml of 70% alcohol

ANS; E

16.Each of the following is an appropriate medium for electrophoresis except

a. cellulose acetate b. Starch gel c. Ponceau S d. Paper e. None

ANS: C

17.Bences Jones proteinuria is identified by which finding?

a. Cryoprecipitation b. Precipitation at 50-60% with redissolving at 100 0c

c. Precipitation at 250c with redissolving at 370c d. Biuret reaction e.

All of the above

ANS: B

18.Which is the normal range for urine pH?

a. 6-8 b. 4-10 c. 7.4-7.8 d. 7.14 e. 5-15

ANS:A

19.What is the molarity of 25% NaOH

46
 a. 23M b. 6.25M c. 5.5M d. 4M e. 2.5 M

ANS: B

Molarity= mass concentration/ molar mass= 250/40

20.pH is defined as

a. –log10(H+) b. –log10(H+) c. log10(H+) d. –log10(OH+) e. None

ANS: A& B

21.The following can be used to confirm Staphylococcus aureus

a. Coagulase test-positive b. Catalase test negative c. DNASE agar-

negative d. None e. All

ANS: A

22.Gram staining reagents include the following except

a. Lugol iodine b. Strong carbol fuchin c. Acetone-alcohol decolourizer

d. Crystal Violet e. Safranin

ANS: B

23.Stool microscopy is used in the direction of the following except

a. Strongyloides stercoralis b. Entameoba histolytica c. Ecchinococcus

granulosus d. Ancylostoma duodenale e. Wucheria bancrofti

ANS:E

24.Which of these diseases are associated with mosquitoes

a. Bancrofti filariasis b. Loasis c. Onchocerciasis d. None e. All

47
 ANS: A

25.The following are gram negative bacilli

a. Staphylococcus aurus b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Klebsiella spp

d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Neissera meningitis

ANS: C

OAUTH

INTERNSHIP EXAMINATION

Specialization

Circle the correct option/options

Indicate true or false where necessary

Haematology/BGS

1. Qualities of a good film include all except

e. Not too thick, nor too long

f. Free from lines and holes

g. Has jagged tail and uneven

h. Has a smooth tail

Ans: c

2. In a serology lab, the following investigation are carried out, except

48
 a. Malaria parasite

b. Widal

c. Widal, VDRL & HCV

d. Pregnancy test

Ans: a

3. In Blood banking, the anticoagulant in the blood bag is called

a. PDP

b. CPD

c. ADP

d. CPDA

Ans: d & b &c

4. Anaemia can be defined as

a. Increase neutrophil count

b. Reduced haemoglobin count

c. Increased RBC count

d. Reduced RBC count

Ans: B&D

5. In the dilution of WBC for total differential count, the required volume of

blood is

a. 20mls

49
 b. 200mls

c. 2 litres

d. 20ul

Ans: d

6. a. EDTA: Ethylene Diamine Tetra Aceticacid

b. PCV: Packed cell Volume

7. Moral principles governing the appropriate conduct for a professional group

is called professional constitution. True/False Professional ethics

8. It is possible for Rh positive parents to give birth to Rh negative children

True/ False, False

9. Arrange these statements in alphabetical order, in our association with

HIV/AIDS clients

a. Testing for the virus in the client

b. Exist interview

c. Counselling

d. Documentation of results

C,B,A,D

10.Colour coded bins and liners are no importance in the laboratory

True/ False False

11.Standard operating procedures tells us

50
 a. How to do it

b. Produce the right result

c. At the right time

d. On the right specimen

e. All of the above

Ans: E

12.Clinical laboratory path of work flow and quality assurance includes

a. Pre-analytical, Analytical, Post analytical

b. The use of SOP in every procedure in the lab including hand washing

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

Ans: A

13.In the ethics of medical laboratory science, it is expected that results of tests

are issued before the confirmation of expiring date of the reagents.

True/False . False

14.Which of the following is not True

a. A fully completed request form should accompany each sample sent to

the laboratory

b. The nature and origin of the sample

c. The provisional diagnosis and the investigation required

51
 d. Prescription form

Ans: D

15.In store keeping, the most important cardinal rule is

a. FIFO

b. FEFO

c. None of the above

d. All of the above

Ans: b

16.Methods to prevent spread of the infection includes

a. Administrative methods

b. Environmental methods

c. Respiratory protection

d. Proper use of personal protective equipment

Ans: D

17.Regarding HIV testing

a. All patients including infants below 18 months should be tested with

rapid diagnostic kits

b. Pre and post counseling is usually done before test

c. RTKS test antibodies to the HIV

d. Patients confidentiality is extreme important

52
 Ans: B,C,D

18.Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

a. reduces the risk of HIV seroconversion in an exposed employee

b. to be effective must be taken after 5 days

c. might be indicated when the source patient is known to b HIV positive

d. When source patient is at a high risk of HIV

Ans: a, c., d

19.General and personal hygiene guidelines includes

a. washing of hands four times a day while working in the lab

b. No mouth pipettinng

c. Wear a buttoned lab coat all the time, never wear coat to home or lunch

d. Keep long hairs tired back

Ans; All of the above

20.In testing of HIV using RTKS the following results were obtained determine

(+), Unigold (-), start pak (-)

The final is positive True/ False False

21.In the above test, if there is no reaction in the control line, the results is

invalids regardless of the kits used. True/False True

22.When determine kit is not available, stat pak should be used as the first line

test kit. True/False FALSE

53
23.In Medical laboratory science, Quality management systems can be divided

into how many components

a. 6

b. 12

c. 10

d. 15

Ans: b

24.Quarantining expired laboratory commodities is a good laboratory practice.

True

25.Stock on hand is the same as physical count. True

26.All specimen handled in the haematology lab is regarded as infectious. True

27.Haemovigilance should be part of blood transfusion policy of all hospital

carrying out blood transfusion services. True

28.The genotype AS is a carrier state. True

29.Transfusion reactions due to Duffy antigens are more severe than that due to

ABO antigens. False

30.All transfusion reactions should be documented and investigated. True.

54
UITH Internship Interview Questions Nov 4, 2017

MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENTIST

Microbiology specialty

1. 5 criteria for sample rejection in microbiology

Answer:

a. Improper sample received

b. sample collected in an unsterile container

c. Insufficient quantity for analysis

d. Samples that do not have all the required information

e. sample received greater than 24 hours from the time of collection

2. Define

CLSI: Clinical and Laboratory standard Institute

AAFB: Alcohol and Acid Fast bacilli

VDRL: Veneral Disease Research Laboratory

55
 ATCC: American Type Culture Collection

MCS: Microscopy Culture and Sensitivity

3. a. 5 equipments for quality control in microbiology

Answers:

i. Hot Air Oven for sterilization

ii. Autoclave

iii. Incubator

iv. Refrigerator

v. Electronic Analytical Balance

vi. Distilled water plant

vii. Homogeniser

b. 5 factors that can inhibit the bacterial growth on culture media

i. Nutrition concentration

ii. Temperature

iii. Ph

iv. Available water

v. Ion and salt concentration

4. State the procedures for gram staining

i. Staining with primary stain (Crystal Violet)

56
ii. Mordanting with Gram’s iodine

iii. Decolourization in 1% acid alcohol

iv. Counstaining with a secondary stain (Safranine Or Neutral Red)

rinse in water after each step

5. List 5 advantages each of closed and open system analysis

57
2015 UITH

Chemical pathology

List 5 advantages and disadvantages of closed and open system analysis

Haematology

1. List 5 standard precautions taken in the lab

2. List 5 quality control measures in haematology and blood bank

3. List 4 steps on how you will provide safe blood for neonates

4. List 4 criteria for sample rejection in haematology

58
UNTH 2016

Choose the best options

1. Which of the following may be present in both folate and vitamin B12

deficiency

a. Macrocytic red cells

b. Hypersegmented neutrophil

c. Red cell hypochromia

d. Thrombocytopenia

e. Ovalocytosis

Ans: A

2. Which of the following is true

a. Normal value for MCV is 50-70fl

b. Normal value for MCV is 50-60%

c. Normal value for MCHC is 60-75g/L

d. Normal value of MCH is 27-34pg

e. Normal value for MCH is 80-100pg

59
 Ans: D

3. Heinz bodies are found in

a. Alpha thalasaemia

b. Iron deficiency anaemia

c. G6PD

d. Unstable haemoglobinopathy

e. Lead poisoning

Ans: c

4. Which of the following is matched correctly

a. Ham test and paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

b. Coombs test and Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and warm type

antibody

c. Osmotic fragility and megalomaniac Anaemia

d. Perl stain and iron deficiency anaemia

e. Prussian blue stain and sideroblastic anaemia

Ans: a

5. Laboratory findings in chronic myelogenous leukaemia include

a. Leucopenia

b. Lymphocytosis

c. polycythaemia

60
 d. Basophilia

e. Myeloid left shift

Ans: e

6. A lipid profile comprises of

a. Total cholesterol

b. Fatty acid

c. Triglycerides

d. Phospholipids

e. Proteins

Ans: A,C

7. The accreditation standard for lab is

a. ISO 12345

b. ISO 15189

c. ISO 45001

d. ISO 9001

e. ISO 18155

Ans: b

8. Which of these specimen bottles contain anticoagulant

a. Fluoride oxalate bottle

b. Lithium heparin bottle

61
 c. serum bottle

d. EDTA bottle

e. universal bottle

Ans: A, b, d

9. Dipstick urinalysis can be used to test

a. Urine glucose

b. Urine specific gravity

c. Urine estrogen

d. Urine urobilinogen

e. Urine protein

Ans: A, B, D, E

10.sodium determination by flame photometer is falsely decreased by

a. Elevated chloride levels

b. Elevated lipid levels

c. Elevated protein levels

d. Decreased protein levels

e. Decreased albumin levels

Ans: c

62
 UNTH MLS INTERVIEW JAN 2018
MCQ. CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION

1. Concerning fixation which is optimal?

a. 100mls of 20%formalin in 10mls of tissue.
b. 180mls of 10% formalin plus 20cc of initial tissue volume
c. 270mls of 10% formalin plus 40mls of initial tissue volume.
d. 100mls of 20% formalin in 10mls of tissue
e. 385mls of 10% formalin plus initial 15mls of tissue.

Ans: b

2. Still on tissue processing, consider the following options

a. Clearing with xylene, dehyderation at room temperature, then wax impregnation
at room temperature
b. Dehyderation with graded alcohol, cleaning with xylene, and wax impregnation
at 60-62F
c. Dehyderation at room temperature with graded alcohol, clearing with xylene at
60Celcius, wax impregnation at 60-64Celcius
d. Cut up is to be unlabelled tissue cassettes
e. Dehyderation with graded alcohol at room temperature, clearing with xylene at
room temperature and wax impregnation at 60-62 celcius.

Ans: e

3. Concerning fixation

63
a. Cells and tissues are preserved physically and not chemically
b. Fixatives are the same no matter the procedure
c. It is the second step in tissue processing
d. Most act by denaturing and precipitating carbohyderates
e. An ideal fixative must be non-irritant and non-corrosive

Ans: e

4. Which statement is (are) correct concerning tissue embedding

a. It involves wax embedding at room temperature and freezing to solidify
b. Only fully processed wax embedded labelled cassettes are used
c. The final product is the labelled slide
d. Embedding trays are not recyclable

Ans: b

5. What happens at the reception of a histopathology laboratory

a. Samples are received and registered in the name of the patient
b. Samples are received and assigned a unique alpha numerical number
c. Samples for cytology are also fixed in formalin
d. Samples do not require properly filled laboratory forms to process
e. Samples are put for the first time in fixative there
Ans: a

6. The major objectives of medical laboratory sciences are the following

except
a. To carry out diagnosis
b. Monitoring treatment of diseases
c. To carry out research on diseases
d. Admitting and discharging of patients
e. Presentation of educative papers on recent outbreaks of disease

Ans: d

64
7. A facultative anaerobe can grow
a. Only in the absense of free oxygen
b. In the presence or absence of free oxygen
c. Only in the presence of light
d. None of the above conditions

Ans: b

8. During the lag phase of bacterial growth cycle

a. There is no increase in viable bacterial number
b. The rate of multiplication is exponential
c. There is a steady decline in population
d. Organisms initiate the synthesis of required enzymes
e. There is no growth

Ans: d

9. Different methods may be used to sterilize different materials except

a. Hot air oven for glass ware
b. Autoclave for media
c. Filtration for serum
d. Autoclave for surgical equipment
e. Freezer for left over foods

Ans: e

10. For bacterial organism to grow optimally on 35-40 celcius, , it must be a

a. Psychrophilicorganism
b. Thermophilic organism
c. Mesophilic organism
d. None of the above

Ans: c
65
11. Any of the following can prevent a prospective blood donor from donating
blood except
a. Low Hb
b. Positive HIV
c. Pregnancy
d. Age above 65years
e. Sex

Ans: e

12. Patients blood sample for crossmatching is collected in

a. EDTA bottle
b. Fluoride bottle
c. Plain bottle
d. Dextrose bottle
e. Saline bottle

Ans: a

13. To make a good thin blood film you need all these except
a. Slide
b. Spreader
c. Buffered distilled water
d. Normal saline
e. Leishman’s stain

Ans: d

14. The following anticoagulants can be used in haematology except

a. Sodium EDTA
b. Potasium EDTA
c. Sodium citrate

66
d. Fluoride oxalate
e. Heparin

Ans: d

15. A couple with ABO blood groups A and B can have offspring with the
following blood groups except
a. Blood group A
b. Blood group B
c. Blood group O
d. Blood group AB
e. Blood group BO

Ans: a&b

67
16. Personal protective equipment for lab staff includes
a. Head phones
b. Hand gloves
c. Rain coat
d. Socks
e. Umbrella

Ans: b

17. Liver function test for a jaundiced baby includes

a. Acid phosphatase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Lipase
e. Bilirubin

Ans: e

18. A lipid profile includes

a. Total cholesterol
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Glucose
d. Albumin
e. Proteins

Ans: a

19. Specimen bottle for measuring glucose contains which anticoagulant

a. Lithium heparin
b. Plain bottle
c. EDTA
d. Fluoride oxalate

68
e. Citrate

Ans: d

20. Specimen processing is done with which instrument

a. Spectrophotometer
b. Colorimeter
c. Centrifuge
d. Flame photometer
e. Blood gas analyser

Ans: c

69
 UPTH

MEDICAL LABORATORY INTERNSHIP QUESTION

Circle the correct option

1. The following are constituents of Harris Haematoxylin except

a. Haematoxylin

b. Acridine orange

c. Mercuric acid

d. Ammonium alum

Ans: b

2. The following are constituents of EA solution excepts

a. Eosin

b. Bsmarck brown

c. phosphotungstic acid

d. Tungstophosphoric acid

Ans: d

3. Cutting of fresh frozen section is possible using

a. Cold Stage

b. Ultramicrotome

c. Cryostat

70
 d. Circular edge

Ans: c

4. Aluminium oxide applied on the surface of plate glass used as hone in

a. Yellow stone

b. Natural stone

c. Abrasive

d. Oil remover

Ans: c

5. The place where grossed pathological samples are kept for teachings is the

a. Mortuary

b. Chambers

c. Morgue

d. Museum

6. Which electrolyte level will be adversely affected when haemolysed sample

is used for investigation in chemical pathology?

a. sodium

b. chloride

c. potassium

d. calcium

Ans: c

71
7. The following methods are used to test the mass density of solute except

a. Urinometr

b. Weighing techniques

c. Reagent strip test

d. Neutral test

Ans: d

8. A single collection of urine anytime,day or night in a clean container that is

detergent free is called

a. 24 hours specimen

b. midstream specimen

c. fasting specimen

d. single random specimen

Ans: d

9. Rotheras reagent is used to test for the presence of

a. Salicylates

b. glucose

c. ketone bodies

d. Bilirubin

Ans: c

10.The anticoagulant for electrolytes sample collection is

72
 a. Fluoride oxalate

b. EDTA

c. Lithium heparin

d. sodium citrate

Ans: c

11.Sources of hazard in clinical chemistry laboratory include the following

except

a. Broken glass

b. Pathogenic microorganism

c. Organised and spacious laboratory

d. Strong acids and bases

Ans: c

12.Members of protozoa may be motile by all of the following except

a. Pseudopodia

b. Flagella

c. Gliding by slime secretions

d. Cilia

e. All of the above

Ans: c

73
13.All of the following parasites belong to the nematodes except

a. Ascaris lumbricoides

b. Trichuiris trichiura

c. Ancylostoma spp

d. Fasciola hepatica

e. None of the above

Ans: d

14.Onchocerca volvulus is transmitted by one of the following

a. Glossina spp

b. Muca domestica

c. Phlebotomus

d. Simullium daminosum (black fly)

e. None of the above

Ans: D

15.Gardia lamblia is an

a. Intestinal flagellates

b. Blood fluke

c. tissue flagellates

d. liver fluke

e. None of the above

74
 Ans: a

16.Treponema pallidum haemagglutination assay is specific for

a. Enteric fever

b. syphilis

c. Lassa fever

d. Rheumatic fever

e. ebola virus

Ans: b

17.Germ tube test is used to identify

a. Candida albicans

b. Trichonomas vaginalis

c. Crylococcus neoformans

d. Trichophylon specie

e. none of the above

Ans: a

18.Haemoglobin determination are of great importance in the diagnosis

a. Anaemia

b. Bleeding time

c. Clotting time

d. Platelet count

75
 e. iron metabolism

Ans: a

19.G6PD is an enzyme found in

a. White blood cell

b. Platelet

c. monocytes

d. red blood cell

e. lymphocytes

Ans: d

20.Mature red blood cell has an average life span of

a. 4 months

b. 2 months

c. 3 months

d. 1 months

e. 5 months

21.Calcium plays an important role in

a. Anaemia

b. ESR

c. coagulation

d. Leucopoiesis

76
 e. Platelet aggregation

Ans: c

22.Stains used in haematology include all except

a. Leishman stain

b. Giesmsa stain

c. New methylene blue

d. Wright stain

e. Crystal violet stain

Ans: e

23.Which of the following anticoagulant is the best for the storage of blood for

transfusion

a. CPDA

b. EDTA

c. ACD

d. CPD

e. None of the above

Ans: a

24.The following are important infectious agent that can be transmitted in

transferred blood except

a. HIV

77
 b. Hepatitis

c. Treponema palladium

d. Plasmodium species

e. Human lymphotrophic virus

Ans: e

25.Which test is carried out to detect patient sensitization invitro

a. Indirect coombs test

b. Direct Coombs test

c. Antibody titration

d. Khan test

e. Coombo test

Ans: B

26.Two criteria for selecting and testing of ABO grouping sera are

a. Titre and avidity

b. Potency and durability

c. Specificity and haemolysis

d. Titre and agglutination

e. None of the above

Ans: A

27.Fouchet’s test can be used to estimate the presence of …………. in urine

78
 a. Urobilinogen

b. Ketones

c. Bilirubin

d. amylase

e. reducing substance

Ans; c

28.The most numerous white blood cell in the peripheral blood of the adult is

a. Lymphocytes

b. Neutrophils

c. Platelets

d. RBC

e. Monocytes

Ans: b

29.Which piece of equipment is use to store chemicals

a. buiret

b. evaporating dish

c. beaker

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Ans: c

79
30.Who is the most important person in the laboratory

a. Scientist

b. Doctor

c. Patient

d. Chemical pathologist

e. Microbiologist

Ans: c

80
 MILITARY HOSPITAL

1. Who is the governor of borno state? Kashim Shettima

2. Who gave Nigeria it's name? Flora Louise Shaw

3. Who founded the first political party in Nigeria? Herbert Macaulay in 1923

4. What country is kilimanjaro in? volcano in Tanzania

5. What countries are mount everest in.......and....... Nepal and China

6. What is the longest river in the world? River nile

7. What is the longest river in Africa? River nile

8. Who designed the Nigeria flag? Taiwo Akinwumi

9. Who is the chief of army staff? Lt Gen Tukur Yusuf Buratai

10. Who is chief of defence staff? Abayomi Gabriel Olonisakin

11. Name 4 states affected by the boko haram insurgency? Borno, Yobe, Kano, bauchi, kaduna

12. In what year did sawyer bring ebola into Nigeria? 2014

13. Who was the 1st female vice chancellor in Nigeria? Grace Alele-williams (Dec 16, 1932)

14. Who is the director medical of NARHY? Ikechukwu Okeke

15. Who was the 1st military head of state? Aguyi Ironsi

16. When is democracy day? May 29

17. How many states did their gobernotorial election this year? 29

81
18. What states are yet to do their gobernotorial election? 7

19. What is the biggest city in the world? Tokyo

20. What is the smallest continent in the world? Australia

21. Who won the 2019 AFCON? Algeria

22. Where is the headquarters of FIFA located? Zurich, Switzerland

23. Who is the deputy senate president? Ovie Omo Agege

24. Who is the IGP of police? Mohammed Adamu

25. Who is the governor of CBN? Godwin Emefiele

26. Who is the director general of UN? Michael Moller

27. What is the capital of central Africa? Bangui

28. Who was the former governor of Gambia who was dethroned by ECOWAS? Yahya Abdul Aziz Jemus

Junkung Jammeh

29. Who was the 1st executive president of Nigeria? Shehu Shagari 1979

30. When did Nigeria become a Republic nation? 1963

31. When was the 1st executive election in Nigeria? 1979

32. When did the last presidential election hold in Nigeria? 2019

33. When was President Donald Trump sworn in? Jan 20 2017

82
34. Name the 6 geopolitical zones in Nigeria: South east, south west, south south, north east, north

central, north west.

35. What is the full meaning of:

a. ECOWAS: Economic community of west African state

b. USAID: United State Agency for International Development

c. UNICEF: United National International Children Emergency fund

d. NAFDAC: National Agency for food and drug administration and control

36. Name 5 countries that have been banned by Donald Trump 4rm entering USA. Syria, Somalia,

Yemen, Libya, North Korea, Venezuele, Iran

37. Name 3 countries that share border with Nigeria: Cameroun, Niger, Benin, Chad

38. What does the Eagle on the Nigerian coat of arms signify? Strength

39. What do the horses on the Nigerian coat of arms signify? Dignity

40. Who is the president of West African Union? Paul Kagame

41. Who is the chief justice of Nigeria? Walter Samuel Nkanu Onnoghen

42. When was the last centenary celebrated in Nigeria? 2014

43. In what year was HIV first discovered in Nigeria? 1986

44. What was the 1st capital of Nigeria? Calabar

45. Where was the 1st story building built in Nigeria? Lagos

83
46. How many house of rep members are there? 360

47. Universal Adult suffrage means ? Right to vote of any Citizen regardless of income, race, ethnicity,

weath

48. Presidential Election in Nigeria was held when? 23rd feb 2019

49. Nigeria has how many local government areas? 774

50. Former President……………………………….. of Gambia was forced into Ecowas intervention force on 30 th

January 2017. Jammeh

Medical laboratory question

What is the meaning of TAT?... Turn around Time

🦜. Name four specie of malaria parasites?.. Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium

malariae, Plasmodium Ovale. Others include Plasmodium knowlesi

🦜. Name three anticoagulant used in blood bank... CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose), ACD (Acid

phosphate dextrose), CPD-A (Citrate phosphate dextrose-adenine)

🦜. Name three specimen bottles used in clinical chemistry?... Sodium fluoride oxalate, lithium heparin,

Plain Container

🦜. Which of the blood group is a universal recipient..? AB

84
🦜. Who discovered ABO blood group...? Landsteiner

🦜. The time between the breakdown of a machine and the repair of a machine is called..? Mean time of

repair

🦜. What is the meaning of cled...? Cysteine Lactose electrolyte deficient agar

🦜. What is the meaning of QMS...? Quality Management System

🦜. Mention six things found in a first aid box.....? cotton wool, methylated spirit, plaster, bandages,

sterile gloves, safety pin

🦜. Which of the following is a decalcifying agent...? Perenyl fluid, formic acid, nitric acid,

🦜. Name four methods of cross matching...?

Saline, albumin, gel and the antihuman globulin (AHG) method

85