JEE Main 2024 – 2019

Chapter-wise PYQs
(Physics)

Priority B Chapters

Anup Gupta Sir

Founder of MathonGo, Quizrr & MARKS
An IIM A & NSIT alumnus
 Success in JEE isn’t just about how hard you study,
but how consistently you strive. Every concept learned,
every problem solved, brings you one step closer to
your dream. Stay focused, stay determined, and let
nothing hold you back!

Anup Gupta
 Important Instructions

This booklet contains JEE Main 2024 – 2019 PYQs of Priority B chapters of Physics.
To find the complete priority list, watch this video.

Answer key is present at the end of every chapter. Use the index page for easy
navigation.

Question numbers marked with * denotes that they’re out of syllabus. The ones which
are marked with ^ denotes that they’re out of syllabus but good to solve.

How to solve these questions effectively?

Take a printout of this booklet and start solving the PYQs in a separate notebook in
learning mode for the best results.

You can find solution of each question provided in this booklet on MARKS app.
Download the MARKS app using the following options:

For Android Users:

Click here to download the app from Google Play or Scan the QR code below:

For iOS, Desktop, Laptop Users:

Open Google Chrome and visit https://web.getmarks.app
 Index

If you’re using this as a digital PDF, you can click on the chapter names to directly go
to the respective chapter.

# Chapter Page

1 Mathematics in Physics 5 - 17

2 Units and Dimensions 18 - 31

3 Semiconductors 32 - 63

4 Motion in One Dimension 64 - 81

5 Wave Optics 82 - 95

6 Ray Optics 96 - 120

7 Alternating Current 121 - 141

8 Thermodynamics 142 - 162

9 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 163 - 178

 Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

→ and →b makes an angle cos

Q1. If a −1
(
5

9
) with each other, then |a → − →b| for |a
→ + →b| = √2|a →| = n|→b| The integer value
of n is ____ 09 Apr 2024 (M)

Q2. The resultant of two vectors A→ and B

→ is perpendicular to A→ and its magnitude is half that of B
→ . The angle
between vectors A→ and B→ is ______ ∘. 09 Apr 2024 (E)

Q3. Young's modulus is determined by the equation given by Y = 49000 m

l
dyn

cm
2
where M is the mass and l is the
extension of wire used in the experiment. Now error in Young modules (Y ) is estimated by taking data from
M − l plot in graph paper. The smallest scale divisions are 5 g and 0.02 cm along load axis and extension axis
respectively. If the value of M and l are 500 g and 2 cm respectively then percentage error of Y is :
08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 0.5% (2) 2%
(3) 0.02% (4) 0.2%

−
−
−→ →
Q4.
→
Three vectors OP, OQ and OR each of magnitude A are acting as shown in figure. The resultant
of the three vectors is A√x. The value of x is ________ .

08 Apr 2024 (M)

Q5. In an expression a × 10 ; b
08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) b is order of magnitude for a ≥ 5 (2) b is order of magnitude for a ≤ 5
(3) a is order of magnitude for b ≤ 5 (4) b is order of magnitude for 5 < a ≤ 10

Q6. For three vectors A→ = (−x^i − 6^j − 2k),

^ →
B = (−^
i + 4^
^ →
j + 3k) and C = (−8^
i −^
^
j + 3k) , if A→ ⋅ (B
→ × C)
→ = 0,
then value of x is _________ 06 Apr 2024 (M)

Q7. To find the spring constant (k) of a spring experimentally, a student commits 2% positive error in the
measurement of time and 1% negative error in measurement of mass. The percentage error in determining value
of k is : 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 5% (2) 1%
(3) 3% (4) 4%

→ and the resultant of (2Q

Q8. The angle between vector Q → + 2P→) and (2Q
→ − 2P→) is : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
→ →
(1) tan −1
(2Q−2P )
(2) 0 ∘

→
2Q+2P
→

(3) tan −1
(P/Q) (4) tan −1
(2Q/P)

Q9. Time periods of oscillation of the same simple pendulum measured using four different measuring clocks were
recorded as 4.62 s, 4.632 s, 4.6 s and 4.64 s. The arithmetic mean of these readings in correct significant figure
is : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 5 s (2) 4.623 s
(3) 4.6 s (4) 4.62 s

Q10. Two forces F̄ and F̄ are acting on a body. One force has magnitude thrice that of the other force and the
1 2

resultant of the two forces is equal to the force of larger magnitude. The angle between F→ and F→ is cos 1 2
−1
(
1

n
.
)

The value of |n| is _____. 04 Apr 2024 (M)

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Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q11. In an experiment to measure focal length (f ) of convex lens, the least counts of the measuring scales for the
position of object (u) and for the position of image (v) are Δu and Δv, respectively. The error in the
measurement of the focal length of the convex lens will be: 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 2f [ Δu

u
+
Δv

v
] (2) Δu

u
+
Δv

(3) f 2
[
Δu

u
2
+
Δv
2
v
] (4) f [ Δu

u
+
Δv

v
]

Q12. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I (Number) List - II (Signficant figure)
(A) 1001 (I) 3

(B) 010. 1 (II) 4

(C) 100. 100 (III) 5

(D) 0. 0010010 (IV) 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Q13. The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
r = (0 .35 ±0 .05) cm , R = (100 ± 10) ohm , l = (15 ± 0 .2) cm

The percentage error in resistivity of the material of the wire is :

01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) 25. 6% (2) 39 .9 %
(3) 37. 3% (4) 35 .6 %

Q14. If two vectors A

→ →
and B having equal magnitude R are inclined at an angle θ, then 31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) →
A − B
→
= √ 2R sin(
θ
)
(2) →
A + B
→
= 2R sin(
θ
)
2 2

(3) →
A + B
→
= 2R cos(
θ
)
(4) →
A − B
→
= 2R cos(
θ
)
2 2

Q15. If the percentage errors in measuring the length and the diameter of a wire are 0. 1% each. The percentage
error in measuring its resistance will be: 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 0. 2% (2) 0. 3%
(3) 0. 1% (4) 0. 144%

Q16. A vector has magnitude same as that of A

→ →
= 3ĵ + 4ĵ and is parallel to B = 4î + 3ĵ. The x and y components of

this vector in first quadrant are x and 3 respectively where x =____. 30 Jan 2024 (E)

Q17. The resistance R = V

I
, where V = (200 ± 5) V and I = (20 ± 0. 2) A , the percentage error in the
measurement of R is : 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 3. 5% (2) 7%
(3) 3% (4) 5. 5%

Q18. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on quantities a,

4 3

b, c by the relation Q = a b
2
c
. The percentage error
in a, b and c are 3%, 4% and 5% respectively. Then, the percentage error in Q is: 29 Jan 2024 (E)

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Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 66% (2) 43%

(3) 34% (4) 14%

Q19. A vector in x − y plane makes an angle of 30 with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of vector is 2√3.
o

The magnitude of x-component of the vector will be : 15 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) √3
1
(2) 6
(3) 2 (4) √3

Q20. A body of mass (5 ± 0. 5) kg is moving with a velocity of (20 ± 0. 4) m s −1

. Its kinetic energy will be
13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) (1000 ± 0. 14) J (2) (500 ± 0. 14) J
(3) (500 ± 140) J (4) (1000 ± 140) J

Q21. When vector A

→ →
= 2î + 3ĵ + 2k̂ is subtracted from vector B, it gives a vector equal to 2ĵ. Then the magnitude

→
of vector B will be: 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) √5 (2) 3
(3) √6 (4) √33
2 3

Q22. A physical quantity P is given as P =

a b
. The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are
c√ d

1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of quantity P will be
10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 13% (2) 16%
(3) 12% (4) 14%

Q23. Two forces having magnitude A and A

2
are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their resultant is:
08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) √ 5A

4
(2) √ 5A

(3) 5A

2
(4) √ 5A2

Q24. A cylindrical wire of mass (0. 4 ± 0. 01) g has length (8 ± 0. 04) cm and radius (6 ± 0. 03) mm . The
maximum error in its density will be 08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 3. 5% (2) 5%
(3) 1% (4) 4%

Q25. Two resistance are given as R1 = (10 ± 0. 5) Ω and R2 = (15 ± 0. 5) Ω. The percentage error in the
measurement of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is
06 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 6. 33 (2) 2. 33
(3) 5. 33 (4) 4. 33

Q26. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross-section is reduced by 4%. The
percentage change in resistance of the metallic wire is ________.
06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q27. A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m. The body completes one revolution in 4 s. At
the end of 3rd second, the displacement of body (in m) from its starting point is: 31 Jan 2023 (E)

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Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 30 (2) 15 π
(3) 5 π (4) 10√2

Q28. In an experiment of measuring the refractive index of a glass slab using travelling microscope in physics lab, a
student measures real thickness of the glass slab as 5. 25 mm and apparent thickness of the glass slab at
5. 00 mm . Travelling microscope has 20 divisions in one cm on main scale and 50 divisions on Vernier scale
is equal to 49 divisions on main scale. The estimated uncertainty in the measurement of refractive index of the
slab is x

10
× 10 , where x is ______
−3
29 Jan 2023 (E)

Q29. If → → → →
P = 3î + √ 3ĵ + 2k̂ and Q = 4î + √ 3ĵ + 2. 5k̂ then, the unit vector in the direction of P × Q is

x
(√ 3î + ĵ − 2√ 3k̂) . The value of x is 25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q30. If two vectors → →

P = î + 2mĵ + mk and Q = 4î − 2ĵ + mk are perpendicular to each other. Then, the value of
ˆ ˆ

m will be 24 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) −1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 1

Q31. Vectors aî + bĵ + k̂ and 2î − 3ĵ + 4k̂ are perpendicular to each other when 3a + 2b = 7, the ratio of a to b is
x

2
. The value of x is _____. 24 Jan 2023 (M)

Q32. If the projection of 2î + 4ĵ − 2k̂ on î + 2ĵ + αk̂ is zero. Then, the value of α will be 28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q33. In an experiment to find acceleration due to gravity (g) using simple pendulum, time period of 0. 5 s is
measured from time of 100 oscillation with a watch of 1 s resolution. If measured value of length is 10 cm

known to 1 mm accuracy. The accuracy in the determination of g is found to be x%. The value of x is
28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q34. A torque meter is calibrated to reference standards of mass, length and time each with 5% accuracy. After
calibration, the measured torque with this torque meter will have net accuracy of 27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 15% (2) 25%
(3) 75% (4) 5%

Q35. If A
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
→ →
= (2i + 3j − k) m and B = (i + 2j + 2k) m. The magnitude of component of vector A along vector B

will be _____ m. 26 Jul 2022 (E)

Q36. In an experiment of determine the Young's modulus of wire of a length exactly 1 m, the extension in the length
of the wire is measured as 0. 4 mm with an uncertainty of ±0. 02 mm when a load of 1 kg is applied. The
diameter of the wire is measured as 0. 4 mm with an uncertainty of ±0. 01 mm . The error in the measurement
of Young's modulus (ΔY) is found to be x × 10 10 −2
N m . The value of x is _____ . 26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q37. A person moved from A to B on a circular path as shown in figure. If the distance travelled by
him is 60 m, then the magnitude of displacement would be: (Given cos 135°= −0. 7)

25 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) 42 m (2) 47 m
(3) 19 m (4) 40 m

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Mathematics in Physics
Chapter Priority: Priority B

Q39. Two vectors A

→
A − B

(1) cos
(3) sin

(1) 7%
(3) 4%

Q41. A
→

(3) (

(3)
ˆ

ˆ
→

−1

2ΔA

ˆ
A + B
→

−1

A + B̂

Q44. For z = a

be 9. 8 m s
(

Physical Quantity
Mass (M)
Length of bar (L)
→

, then the angle between A and B will be

Breadth of bar (b)

Thickness of bar
Depression (δ)
3

x y

−2
)

percentage error in the measurement of its density will be

is a vector quantity such that

(1) A ⋅ A = 0
(3) A

Q42. If Z
→

(1) (
→ →

→
× A = 0

2ΔA

A
A B

C
2

+
3

3
3ΔB

2
ˆ
−

ˆ
A − B

ˆ
A − B̂
4ΔC

C
)

∣
Q38. The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for which current flows in an electrical
circuit are 1%, 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the detection of the dissipated heat
will be:
(1) 2
(3) 6

→
A
→

Q43. Which of the following relations is true for two unit vector A

(1) tan θ

cos θ

2
ˆ
=

respectively, then the percentage error for 'z' will be _____%.

→

, then the relative error in Z will be

3ΔB

B
+
4ΔC

C
)

Q45. A student determined Young's Modulus of elasticity using the formula

(2) 4
(4) 8

and B have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of A + B is equal to two times the magnitude of
→

(2) cos
(4) sin

(2) 3%
(4) 6%

(4) (

(2)
(4)
ˆ
ΔA

A
−1

−1

ˆ
A − B

ˆ
A − B̂
(
(

+
1

and B̂ making an angle θ to each other?

without any significant error, his observations are as following.

(d)
Least count of the Equipment used for measurement
1 g

1 mm

0. 1 mm

0. 01 mm

0. 01 mm

Then the fractional error in the measurement of Y is :

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)

Q40. A silver wire has a mass (0. 6 ± 0. 006)g, radius (0. 5 ± 0. 005) mm and length (4 ± 0. 04) cm. The maximum

ΔB

=
−

ˆ
C

ΔC

ˆ
A + B

ˆ
A + B̂

Y =
)
JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs

non-zero constant. Which of the following expression is true for A?

(2) A × A < 0
(4) A
→

(2) (
→

→
× A > 0

ΔA

A
→

+
ΔB

B
+
ΔC
)

tan θ

cos θ

, where 'a' is a constant. If percentage error in measurement of 'x' and 'y' are 4%and 12%,

M gL

4 bd
3
3

δ
.

Observed Value
2 kg

1 m

4 cm

0. 4 cm

5 mm
MathonGo

25 Jul 2022 (E)

29 Jun 2022 (M)

27 Jun 2022 (M)

25 Jun 2022 (M)

25 Jun 2022 (M)

25 Jun 2022 (M)

25 Jun 2022 (E)

The value of g is taken to

01 Sep 2021 (E)

9
 Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 0. 155 (2) 0. 0083

(3) 0. 083 (4) 0. 0155
−
−
→ → →
Q46.
→ → →
Statement I: If three forces F 1, F2 and F are represented by three sides of a triangle and F
3 1 + F2 = −F3, then
these three forces are concurrent forces and satisfy the condition for equilibrium.
−
−
−
→ → →
Statement II: A triangle made up of three forces F 1, F2 and F as its sides were taken in the same order,
3

satisfies the condition for translatory equilibrium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q47. Statement-I : Two forces (→ → → → → →

P + Q) and (P − Q) where P ⊥ Q, when act at an angle θ each other, the 1

magnitude of their resultant is √3(P 2 2

+ Q ), when they act at an angle θ , the magnitude of their resultant
2

becomes √2(P 2 2
+ Q ). This is possible only when θ 1
< θ2.

Statement-II : In the situation given above.

θ1 = 60° and θ
2
= 90°

In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

−
−
−
−
−→ → →
Q48.
→ →
The resultant of these forces OP , OQ, OR, OS and OT is approximately ______
N.

[Take √3 = 1. 7, √2 = 1. 4 Given ˆi and ˆj unit vectors along x, y axis]

27 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) −1. 5î − 15. 5ĵ (2) 9. 25î + 5ĵ
(3) ˆ ˆ
3i + 15j (4) 2. 5ˆi − 14. 5ˆj

Q49. The angle between vector (A)

→ → →
and (A − B) is:

26 Aug 2021 (E)

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 Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) tan −1
(
B cos θ

A−B sin θ
) (2) tan −1
(
√3 B

2 A−B
)

(3) tan −1
(
−
B

2
)
(4) tan −1
(
A

0.7B
)
√3
A−B
2

Q50. If the length of the pendulum in pendulum clock increases by 0. 1%, then the error in time per day is:
26 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 43. 2 s (2) 8. 64 s
(3) 86. 4 s (4) 4. 32 s

−
−
−→ → →
Q51.
The magnitude of vectors OA, OB and OC in the given figure are equal. The direction of
−
−
−→ → →
OA + OB − OC with x−axis will be:

26 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) −1
(√ 3−1+√ 2)
(2) −1
(1−√ 3−√ 2)

tan tan
(1+√ 3−√ 2) (1+√ 3+√ 2)

(3) −1
(√ 3−1+√ 2)
(4) −1
(1+√ 3−√ 2)

tan tan
(1−√ 3+√ 2) (1−√ 3−√ 2)

Q52. The acceleration due to gravity is found up to an accuracy of 4% on a planet. The energy supplied to a simple
pendulum of known mass m to undertake oscillations of time period T is being estimated. If time period is
measured to an accuracy of 3%, the accuracy to which E is known as ________% 26 Aug 2021 (E)
3

Q53. A physical quantity y is represented by the formula y = m 2

r
−4
g l
x −
2
If the percentage errors found in
y, m, r, l and g are 18, 1, 0. 5, 4 and p respectively, then find the value of x and p. 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 5 and ±2 (2) 4 and ±3
(3) 16

3
and ± 3

2
(4) 8 and ±2

Q54. Assertion A : If A, B, C, D are four points on a semi-circular arc with a centre at O such
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−→ → → → → → → → →
that AB = BC = CD . Then, AB + AC + AD = 4AO + OB + OC
−
−
−
−
−→ → → → →
Reason R : Polygon law of vector addition yields AB + BC + CD + AD = 2AO. In the
light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q55. Two vectors X

→ → → →
and Y have equal magnitude. The magnitude of (X − Y ) is n times the magnitude of
→
(X + Y )
→ →
. The angle between X and Y is :
→
25 Jul 2021 (E)

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Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) cos (2) cos

2 2
−1 −n −1 −1 n −1
( 2
) ( 2
)
n −1 −n −1

(3) cos (4) cos

2 2
−1 n +1 −1 n +1
( 2
) ( 2
)
−n −1 n −1

Q56. Match List I with List II.

List I List II

→ → →
(a) C − A − B = 0
(i)

→ → →
(b) A − C − B = 0 (ii)

→ → →
(c) B − A − C = 0
(iii)

→ → →
(d) A + B = −C
(iv)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (ii) (2) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
(3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) (4) (a) → (i), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii)

Q57. What will be the projection of vector A

→ →
= î + ĵ + k̂ on vector B = î + ĵ ?
22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) √2(î + ĵ + k̂) (2) 2(î + ĵ + k̂)
(3) √2(ˆi + ˆj) (4) (ˆi + ˆj)

Q58. Three students S1, S 2 and S3 perform an experiment for determining the acceleration due to gravity (g) using
a simple pendulum. They use different lengths of pendulum and record time for different number of
oscillations. The observations are as shown in the table.
Time
Length of pendulum Number of oscillations Total time for
Student No. period
(cm) (n) n oscillations
(s)

1. 64. 0 8 128. 0 16. 0

2. 64. 0 4 64. 0 16. 0

3. 20. 0 4 36. 0 9. 0

(Least count of length = 0. 1 m, least count for time = 0. 1 s)

If E1, E2 and E3 are the percentage errors in g for students 1, 2 and 3, respectively, then the minimum
percentage error is obtained by student no .

22 Jul 2021 (M)

Q59. Three particles P , Q

→
and R are moving along the vectors A = ˆi + ˆj,
→
ˆ ˆ
B = j + k
→
and C ˆ
, respectively.
ˆ
= −i + j

They strike on a point and start to move in different directions. Now particle P is moving normal to the plane

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Mathematics in Physics
Chapter Priority: Priority B

100
→

(1) √A
(3) √A

(1) 2%
(3) 5%
→

Q61. Two vectors →

= 0. 001 cm

(1) 0. 14%
(3) 9%
+ B

+ B

(
→

2
n +1
2

2
+ 2AB

then angle between P and Q is

(1) sin
(3) sin
−1

−1
(
n−1

n+1
2
n −1
)

)
→
→

→
→

and C. The angle between the direction of motion of P and Q is cos

Q60. If A

Q62. The time period of a simple pendulum is given by T

pendulum is 10 cm known to a 1

The value of x, to the nearest x, is ___ .

Q64. The resistance R = V

I
, where V
value of x to the nearest integer is ________.
→ →
and B are two vectors satisfying the relation A ⋅ B =

mm
→

Q65. In order to determine the Young's Modulus of a wire of radius 0. 2

resistance to the nearest integer is :

(1) 12. 5%
(3) 25%

Q67. If → → → → → →
→

= 2π√

∣
which contains vector A and B. Similarly particle Q is moving normal to the plane which contains vector A
→

(2) √A
(4) √A
→

(2) cos
(4) cos
→
A × B

−1

−1

g
+ B

+ B

= (20 ± 0. 2) A

) and length 1 m (measured using a scale of least count = 1

(measured using a scale of least count = 1 g ) was hanged to get the elongation of 0. 5
scale of least count 0. 001
by this experiment?
cm

(2) 0. 9%
(4) 1. 4%
n−1

n+1
2
n −1
2
n +1
→
2

cm
→
−1

)
(

+ √ 2AB

− √ 2AB

P and Q have equal magnitudes. If the magnitude of P + Q is n times the magnitude of P − Q,

)
1

√x
).

. Then the value of

2
JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs

Then the value of x is

The measured value of the length of the

accuracy. The time for 200 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be
second using a clock of 1s resolution. The percentage accuracy in the determination of g using this
pendulum is x. The value of x to the nearest integer is:-

Q63. The radius of a sphere is measured to be (7. 50 ± 0. 85)

= (50 ± 2) V and I
(2) 3%
(4) 4%

cm . Suppose the percentage error in its volume is x.

Q66. A wire of 1 Ω has a length of 1 m. It is stretched till its length increases by 25%. The percentage change in

(2) 76%
(4) 56%

P × Q = Q × P , the angle between P and Q is θ(0°< θ < 360°). The value of θ will be ___°.

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mm

). What will be the fractional error in the value of Young's Modulus determined
cm
→
A − B will be:
MathonGo

22 Jul 2021 (M)

20 Jul 2021 (M)

20 Jul 2021 (E)

18 Mar 2021 (M)

18 Mar 2021 (E)

. The percentage error in R is x %. The

16 Mar 2021 (M)

(measured using a scale of least count

), a weight of mass 1 kg

(measured using a

16 Mar 2021 (E)

26 Feb 2021 (E)

25 Feb 2021 (E)

13
 Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q68. In an octagon ABCDEF GH of equal side, what is the sum of

−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−→ → → → → → → →
AB + AC + AD + AE + AF + AG + AH , if, AO = 2î + 3ĵ − 4k̂

25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 16ˆi + 24ˆj − 32ˆ
k (2) 16ˆi − 24ˆj + 32ˆ
k

(3) 16ˆi + 24ˆj + 32ˆ

k (4) −16ˆi − 24ˆj + 32ˆ
k

Q69. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2π√

L
. Measured value of L is 1. 0 m from meter scale
g

having a minimum division of 1 mm and time of one complete oscillation is 1. 95 s measured from stopwatch
of 0. 01 s resolution. The percentage error in the determination of ′g′ will be: 24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 1. 03% (2) 1. 33%
(3) 1. 30% (4) 1. 13%

Q70. A particle moving in the xy-plane experiences a velocity dependent force →

F = k(υ î + υ ĵ) , where υ and υ
y x x y

→
→
are the x and y components of its velocity υ. If a is the acceleration of the particle, then which of the
following statements is true for the particle ? 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) quantity υ →
→
× a is constant in time (2) F arises due to a magnetic field
→

(3) kinetic energy of particle is constant in time (4) quantity→ →

υ. a is constant in time

Q71. The density of a solid metal sphere is diameter. The maximum error in the density of the sphere is ( x

100
)%. If
the relative errors in measuring the mass and the diameter are 6. 0% and 1. 5% respectively, the value of x is −
06 Sep 2020 (M)

Q72. A physical quantity z depends on four observables a,

2 2/3

b, c and d, as z =
a b

√cd
3
. The percentage of error in the
measurement of a, b, c and d are 2%, 1. 5%, 4% and 2. 5% respectively. The percentage of error in z is :
05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 12. 25% (2) 16. 5%
(3) 13. 5% (4) 14. 5%

Q73. For the four sets of three measured physical quantities as given below. Which of the following options is
correct?
(i) A1 = 24.36, B1 = 0.0724, C1 = 256.2 ; (ii) A 2
= 24.44, B2 = 16.082, C2 = 240.2 ; (iii)
A3 = 25.2, B3 = 19.2812, C3 = 236.183

(iv) A4 = 25, B4 = 236.191, C4 = 19.5 09 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) A 4
+ B4 + C4 < A1 + B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C2

(2) A 1
+ B1 + C1 = A2 + B2 + C2 = A3 + B3 + C3 = A4 + B4 + C4

(3) A 1
+ B1 + C1 < A2 + B2 + C2 = A3 + B3 + C3 < A4 + B4 + C4

(4) A 1
+ B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C2 < A4 + B4 + C4

Q74. A simple pendulum is being used to determine the value of gravitational acceleration g at a certain place. The
length of the pendulum is 25.0 cm and a stopwatch with 1 s resolution measures the time taken for 40

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−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
→ → → → Q78.
→ → → →

∣
Mathematics in Physics
Chapter Priority: Priority B

oscillations to be 50 s. The accuracy in g is:

(1) 5.40%
(3) 4.40%

Q75. The sum of two forces →

, ________

(3) 37.0 cm

(0.10 ± 0.01) m,

(1) 0.31
(3) 0.07

Let A1

(1) −112.5
(3) −106.5

10 km h

(1) 4.2 h
(3) 2.6 h
= 3,
2

. A
→

A2
→
P and Q is R such that

= 5 and A1 + A2

Q79. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity) →

= 5.
→
R =
(2) 3.40%
(4) 2.40%
→
P

(4) 37 cm

(2) 0.10
(4) 0.01

The value of (2A

v = 30î + 50ĵ
(2) −118.5
(4) −99.5

(2) 3.2 h

(4) 2.2 h
2

1
2

Q77. In the density measurement of a cube, the mass and edge length are measured as (10.00 ± 0.10) kg and
respectively. The error in the measurement of density is:
JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs

Q76. The area of a square is 5.29 cm . The area of 7 such squares taking into account the significant figures is:

(1) 37.03 cm 2
2

(2) 37.030 cm

+ 3A2 ) ∙ (3A1 − 2A2 )

km h
−1

Q80. In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of acceleration due to gravity (g), time taken for 20
oscillations is measures by using a watch of 1 second least count. The mean value of time taken comes out to
be 30 s. The length of the pendulum is measured by using a meter scale of least count 1 mm and the value
obtained is 55.0 cm. The percentage error in the determination of g is close to
(1) 0.2%
(3) 3.5%

Q81. A particle moves from the point (2.0^i + 4.0^j)m, at t = 0,

with an initial velocity (5.0^i + 4.0^j)ms
acceleration
^

(1) 15 m
(3) 5 m
^
(4.0i + 4.0j)ms
−2
.

from the origin at time 2 s?

−1
.

What is the distance of the particle

(2) 6.8%
(4) 0.7%

It is acted upon by a constant force which produces a constant

(2) 20√2 m
(4) 10√2 m

Q82. Two forces P and Q, of magnitude 2F and 3F , respectively, are at an angle θ with each other. If the force Q is
doubled, then their resultant also gets doubled. Then, the angle θ is:

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→
. Find the angle between resultant of 2P and Q and Q

is:
MathonGo

08 Jan 2020 (E)

07 Jan 2020 (E)

09 Apr 2019 (E)

09 Apr 2019 (M)

08 Apr 2019 (E)

where î points east and ĵ, north.

The ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of Ship A and is sailing towards the west at
−1
will be at the minimum distance from B in: 08 Apr 2019 (M)

08 Apr 2019 (E)

11 Jan 2019 (E)

10 Jan 2019 (E)

→

15
Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 120 °
(2) 60 °

(3) 30 °
(4) 90 °

Q83. The diameter and height of a cylinder are measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 0.1 cm and 34.2 ± 0.1 cm ,
respectively. What will be the value of its volume in appropriate significant figures? 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 4264 ± 81cm 3
(2) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm 3

(3) 4260 ± 80 cm 3
(4) 4300 ± 80 cm 3

Q84. In the cube of side 'a' shown in the figure, the vector from the central point of the face
ABOD to the central point of the face BEF O will be:

10 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 1

2
ˆ
a (k − î) (2) 1

2
ˆ
a(î − k)

(3) 1

2
ˆ ˆ
a(j − i) (4) 1

2
ˆ ˆ
a(j − k)

Q85. Two vectors A

→ → → →
and B have equal magnitudes. The magnitude of (A + B) is ' n ' times the magnitude of
→ →
(A − B)
→ →
. The angle between A and B is: 10 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) cos (2) sin

2
n −1 −1 n−1
−1
[ ] [ ]
2 n+1
n +1

(3) cos (4) sin

2
−1 n−1 −1 n −1
[ ] [ ]
n+1 2
n +1

Q86. A particle is moving with a velocity →

v = K(yi + xj), where K is a constant.
ˆ ˆ

The general equation for its path is: 09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) y 2
= x + constant (2) xy = constant
(3) y = x 2
+ constant (4) y 2
= x
2
+ constant

Q87. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The percentage change in its electrical resistance if its
volume remains unchanged is: 09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 2.5% (2) 1.0%
(3) 2.0% (4) 0.5%

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Mathematics in Physics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (3) 2. (150) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (2)
9. (3) 10. (6) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (4)
17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4)
25. (4) 26. (25) 27. (4) 28. (41) 29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (5)
33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (3)
41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (18) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2)
49. (2) 50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (14) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (34) 64. (5)
65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (180) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (1) 71. (1050) 72. (4)
73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (90) 76. (1) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (2)

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PC/desktop

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q1. The dimensional formula of latent heat is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) [ML 2
T
−2
] (2) [M 0
L
2
T
−2
]

(3) [MLT −2
] (4) [M ∘
LT
−2
]

Q2. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m and energy E is h/√2mE. The dimensional
formula for Planck's constant is : 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) [ML 2
T
−1
] (2) [ML −1
T
−2
]

(3) [MLT −2
] (4) [M 2
L
2
T
−2
]

Q3. If ϵ is the permittivity of free space and E is the electric field, then ϵ
0 0E
2
has the dimensions : 08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) [M −1
L
−3
T
4 2
A ] (2) [ML 2
T
−2
]

(3) [M ∘
L
−2
TA] (4) [ML −1
T
−2
]

Q4. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II

1 1 −2 −2
A. Torque I. [M L T A ]

2 1
B. Magnetic f ield II. [L A ]

1 −2 −1
C. Magnetic moment III. [M T A ]

1 2 −2
D. Permeability of f ree space IV. [M L T ]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Q5. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Dimensions of specific heat is [L 2 −2
T K
−1
] .
Statement (II) : Dimensions of gas constant is [ML 2
T
−1
K
−1
] .
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
06 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct

(2) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect
(3) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct
Q6. If G be the gravitational constant and u be the energy density then which of the following quantity have the
dimensions as that of the √uG : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) pressure gradient per unit mass (2) Gravitational potential
(3) Energy per unit mass (4) Force per unit mass

Q7. What is the dimensional formula of ab −1

in the equation (P + a
2
)(V − b) = RT , where letters have their
V

usual meaning. 05 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) [M −1
L
5
T ]
3
(2) [M 6
L
7
T ]
4

(3) [ML 2
T
−2
] (4) [M 0
L
3
T
−2
]

For solutions, download the MARKS App from Google Play or visit https://web.getmarks.app on Google Chrome 18
Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q8. The equation of stationary wave is: y = 2a sin ( 2πnt

λ
) cos (
2πx

λ
).

Which of the following is NOT correct : 04 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) The dimensions of n/λ is [T] (2) The dimensions of n is [LT −1
]

(3) The dimensions of x is [L] (4) The dimensions of nt is [L]

Q9. Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, determine which one is correct, where T is time period,
G is gravitational constant, M is mass, r is radius of orbit. 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) T (2) T
2 2 2
2 4π r 2 4π r
= = 2
GM GM
2 3

(3) T 2
=
4π r

GM
(4) T 2
= 4π r
2 3

Q10. The dimensional formula of angular impulse is : 01 Feb 2024 (M)

(1) [M L –2
T
–1
] (2) [M L 2
T
–2
]

(3) [M L T –1
] (4) [M L 2
T
–1
]

Q11. A force is represented by F , where x = distance and t = time. The dimensions of are :
2
2 b
= ax + bt 2
a

31 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) [M L 3
T
–3
] (2) [M LT –2
]

(3) [M L –1
T
–1
] (4) [M L 2
T
–3
]

Q12. Consider two physical quantities A and B related to each other as E =

B−x

At
where E, x and t have
dimensions of energy, length and time respectively. The dimension of AB is 31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) L −2
M T
1 0
(2) L 2
M
−1
T
1

(3) L −2
M
−1
T
1
(4) L 0
M
−1
T
1

Q13. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

2 −2
A. Coef f icient of viscosity I. [ML T ]

2 −1
B. Surf ace Tension II. [ML T ]

−1 −1
C. Angular momentum III. [ML T ]

0 −2
D. Rotational kinetic energy IV. [ML T ]

30 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q14. If mass is written as m = kc P

G
−1/2
h
1/2
, then the value of P will be : (Constants have their usual meaning
with k a dimensionless constant) 30 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 1

2
(2) 1

(3) 2 (4) − 1

Q15. The equation of state of a real gas is given by (P +

a
2
)(V − b) = RT , where P , V and T are
V

pressure, volume and temperature respectively and R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of a
2
b
is
similar to that of : 27 Jan 2024 (E)

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) P V (2) P
(3) RT (4) R

Q16. Given below are two statements:

Statement (I) : Planck's constant and angular momentum have the same dimensions.
Statement (II) : Linear momentum and moment of force have the same dimensions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q17. The speed of a wave produced in water is given by ν a

= λ g ρ
b c
. Where λ, g and ρ are wavelength of wave,
acceleration due to gravity and density of water respectively. The values of a, b and c respectively, are
15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 1, − 1, 0 (2) 1

2
, 0,
1

(3) 1, 1, 0 (4) 1

2
,
1

2
, 0

Q18. In the equation [X +

a

Y
2
][Y − b] = RT , X is pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant and T is
temperature. The physical quantity equivalent to the ratio a

b
is:
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Pressure gradient (2) Energy
(3) Impulse (4) Coefficient of viscosity

Q19. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
A Spring constant I [T
–1
]

B Angular speed II [M T
–2
]

C Angular momentum III [M L ]

2

D Moment of Inertia IV [M L T
2 –1
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q20. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Astronomical unit (Au), Parsec (Pc) and Light year (ly) are units for measuring astronomical
distances.
Statement II : Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
11 Apr 2023 (M)

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) Both Statements I and Statements II are incorrect

(2) Statements I is correct but Statements II is incorrect
(3) Both Statements I and Statements II are correct
(4) Statements I is incorrect but Statements II is correct

Q21. If force (F ), velocity (V ) and time (T ) are considered as fundamental physical quantity, then dimensional
formula of density will be : 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) F V
4
T
−6
(2) F V
−4
T
−2

(3) F 2
V
−2
T
6
(4) F V
−2
T
2

Q22. Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Torque I. M L
−2
T
−2

B. Stress II. M L
2
T
−2

C. Pressure gradient III. M L

−1
T
−1

Coefficient of
D. IV. M L
−1
T
−2

viscosity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q23. Dimension of 1

με
0 0
should be equal to 08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) L T −1
(2) T 2
L
−2

(3) L 2
T
−2
(4) T L −1

Q24. (P +
a
2
)(V − b) = RT represents the equation of state of some gases. Where P is the pressure, V is the
V

volume, T is the temperature and a, b, R are the constants. The physical quantity, which has dimensional
2

formula as that of b

a
, will be : 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) Bulk modulus (2) Modulus of rigidity
(3) Compressibility (4) Energy density

Q25. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational constant G and planck's constant h are chosen as fundamental
quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is: 01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) [h (2) h
1 1
1 1 1 −1
2
c 2
G ] c G

(3) [h (4) [h
1 1 1 1 1 1
− −
2
c 2
G 2
] 2
c 2
G 2
]

Q26. Match List I with List II

List I List II
A Angular momentum I [ML
2
T
−2
]

B Torque II [ML
−2
T
−2
]

C Stress III [ML

2
T
−1
]

D Pressure gradient IV [ML

−1
T
−2
]

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q27. If R, XL and XC represent resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance. Then which of the
following is dimensionless: 31 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) R X L XC (2) √XLXc
R

(3) R

XLXc
(4) R XL

Xc

Q28. Match List I with List II

List I List II
A Torque I kg m
–1
s
–2

B Energy density II kg m s
–1

C Pressure gradient III kg m

–2
s
–2

D Impulse IV kg m
2
s
–2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

30 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q29. Electric field in a certain region is given by →

E = (
A
î +
B
ĵ) . The SI unit of A and B are : 30 Jan 2023 (M)
2 3
x y

(1) N m 3
C
−1
; N m
2
C
−1
(2) N m 2
C
−1
; N m
3 −1
C

(3) N m 3
C; N m
2
C (4) N m 2
C; N m
3
C

Q30. Match List I with List II :

List-I (Physical Quantity) List-II (Dimensional Formula)
A Pressure gradient I 0
[M L T
2 −2
]

B Energy density II [M L
1 −1
T
−2
]

C Electric Field III [M L

1 −2
T
−2
]

D Latent heat IV 1
[M L T
1 −3
A
−1
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

29 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q31. The equation of a circle is given by x

2
+ y
2
= a , where
2
a is the radius. If the equation is modified to change
the origin other than (0, 0) , then find out the correct dimensions of A and B in a new equation:
2 t 2
2
(x − At) + (y − ) = a
B

The dimensions of t is given as [T −1

]

29 Jan 2023 (E)

For solutions, download the MARKS App from Google Play or visit https://web.getmarks.app on Google Chrome 22
Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A = [L
–1
T], B = [LT
–1
] (2) A = [LT], B = [L
–1
T
–1
]

(3) A = [L –1
T
–1
], B = [LT
–1
] (4) A = [L –1
T
–1
], B = [LT]

Q32. Match List I with List II

List - I List - II
A Surface tension I. kg m
−1
s
−1

B Pressure II. kg m s
−1

C Viscosity III. kg m
−1
s
−2

D Impulse IV. kg s
−2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q33. Match List I with List II

List List II
A Young's Modulus (Y ) I [ML
–1
T
–1
]

B Co-efficient of Viscosity (η) II [ML

2
T
–1
]

C Planck's Constant (h) III [ML

–1
T
–2
]

D Work Function (ϕ) IV [ML

2
T
–2
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q34. Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Planck's constant (h) I. [M
1
L
2
T
−2
]

B. Stopping potential (V s) II. [M

1
L
1
T
−1
]

C. Work function (ϕ) III. [M

1
L
2
T
−1
]

D. Momentum (p) IV. [M

1
L
2
T
−3
A
−1
]

24 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) A − III, B − I, C − II, D − IV (2) A − III, B − IV, C − I, D − II
(3) A − II, B − IV, C − III, D − I (4) A − I, B − III, C − IV, D − II

Q35. The frequency (ν) of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density (ρ) of liquid
and the surface tension (s) of the liquid as: ν a
= r ρ s
b c
. The values of a, b and c respectively are
24 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) (− 3

2
, −
1

2
,
1

2
) (2) (− 3

2
,
1

2
,
1

2
)

(3) ( 3

2
,
1

2
,−
1

2
) (4) ( 3

2
, −
1

2
,
1

2
)

Q36. Match List I with List II.

For solutions, download the MARKS App from Google Play or visit https://web.getmarks.app on Google Chrome 23
Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

List I List II
(A) Torque (I) Nms
−1

(B) Stress (II) Jkg

−1

(C) Latent Heat (III) Nm

(D) Power (IV) Nm

−2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) A − III, B − II, C − I, D − IV (2) A − III, B − IV, C − II, D − I

(3) A − IV, B − I, C − III, D − II (4) A − II, B − III, C − I, D − IV

Q37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Time period of oscillation of a liquid drop depends on surface tension (S), if density of the
3

liquid is ρ and radius of the drop is r, then T = K√

ρr
3
is dimensionally correct, where K is dimensionless.
S 2

Reason (R) : Using dimensional analysis we get R.H.S. having different dimension than that of time period. In
the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q38. The dimensions of (

2
B

μ0
) will be (if μ : permeability of free space and B :magnetic field)
0

28 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) [ML 2
T
−2
] (2) [MLT −2
]

(3) [ML −1
T
−2
] (4) [MLL −2
A
−1
]

Q39. Consider the efficiency of Carnot's engine is given by η = , where α and β are constants. If T is
αβ βx
loge
sin θ kT

temperature, k is Boltzman constant, θ is angular displacement and x has the dimensions of length. Then,
choose the incorrect option. 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) Dimensions of β is same as that of force. (2) Dimensions of α −1
x is same as that of energy.
(3) Dimensions of η −1
sin θ is same as that of αβ (4) Dimensions of α is same as that of β

Q40. An expression of energy density is given by u = α

β
sin(
αx

kt
, where α,
) β are constants, x is displacement, k is
Boltzmann constant and t is the temperature. The dimensions of β will be 27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) [ML 2
T
−2
θ
−1
] (2) [M 0
L T
2 −2
]

(3) [M 0
L T ]
0 0
(4) [M 0 2
L T ]
0

Q41. If momentum [P ], area [A] and time [T ] are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional formula for
coefficient of viscosity is 25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) [PA −1
T ]
0
(2) [PAT −1
]

(3) [PA −1
T] (4) [PA −1
T
−1
]

Q42. Which of the following physical quantities have the same dimensions? 25 Jul 2022 (M)

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) Electric displacement (→

D) and surface charge density

(2) Displacement current and electric field

(3) Current density and surface charge density
(4) Electric potential and energy

Q43. In van dar Wall equation [P +

a

V
2
][V − b] = RT ; P is pressure, V is volume, R is universal gas constant and
T is temperature. The ratio of constants a

b
is dimensionally equal to : 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) P

V
(2) V

(3) P V (4) P V 3

Q44. Assertion A: Product of Pressure (P ) and time (t) has the same dimension as that of coefficient of viscosity.
Reason: Coefficient of viscosity = Velocity
Force

gradient

28 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) Both A and R true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Q45. The SI unit of a physical quantity is Pascal ‐ sec. The dimensional formula of this quantity will be
27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) M L 2
T
−1
(2) M −1
L T
3 0

(3) M L −1
T
−1
(4) M L −1
T
−2

Q46. If L, C and R are the self inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, which of the following does not
have the dimension of time? 27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) √LC (2) L

(3) CR (4) L

Q47. An expression for a dimensionless quantity P is given by P =

α

β
loge(
kT

βx
; where α and β are constants, x is
)

distance; k is Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature. Then the dimensions of α will be
26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) [M 0
L
−1
T ]
0
(2) [ML 0
T
−2
]

(3) [MLT −2
] (4) [ML 2
T
−2
]

Q48. The dimension of mutual inductance is 26 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) ML 2
T
−2
A
−1
(2) ML 2
T
−2
A
−2

(3) ML 2
T
−3
A
−1
(4) ML 2
T
−3
A
−2

Q49. Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions: 24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Wave number and Rydberg's constant (2) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity
(3) Coercivity and Magnetisation (4) Specific heat capacity and Latent heat

Q50. Identify the pair of physical quantities that have same dimensions: 24 Jun 2022 (E)

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) Velocity gradient and decay constant (2) Angular frequency and angular momentum
(3) Wave number and Avogadro number (4) Wein's constant and Stephan's constant

Q51. Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
a Torque i MLT
−1

b Impulse ii MT
−2

c Tension iii ML
2
T
−2

d Surface Tension iv MLT

−2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Q52. Which of the following equations is dimensionally incorrect?

Where t = time, h = height, s = surface tension, θ = angle, ρ = density , a, r = radius, g = the acceleration due
to gravity, V = volume, p =pressure, W = work done, τ = torque, ϵ = permittivity, E = electric field, J =

current density, L =length.

31 Aug 2021 (M)
4

(1) W = τθ (2) V =
πpa

8ηL

(3) h = 2 scos θ

ρrg
(4) J = ϵ
∂E

∂t

Q53. If velocity [V ] time [T ] and force [F ] are chosen as the base quantities, the dimensions of the mass will be :
31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) [F V T −1
] (2) [F T −1
V
−1
]

(3) [F T 2
V] (4) [F T V −1
]

Q54. If E and H represents the intensity of electric field and magnetizing field respectively, then the unit of E

H
will
be:
27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) joule (2) ohm
(3) newton (4) mho

Q55. Match List-(I) with List-(II).

List-(I) List-(II)
a RH (Rydberg constant) i kg m
−1 −1
s

b h (Planck's constant) ii kg m
2
s
−1

c μB (Magnetic field energy density) iii m

−1

d η (coefficient of viscosity) iv kg m
−1 −2
s

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) (a) -( iv ), (b )-( ii ), (c )-( i ), (d )-( iii) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i)

(3) (a) − (iii), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (ii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv)

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q56. Which of the following is not a dimensionless quantity? 27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) Power factor (2) Quality factor
(3) Permeability of free space (μ 0) (4) Relative magnetic permeability (μ ) r

Q57. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken as the fundamental quantities. Then what will be the dimension
of density: 27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) [FL −4
T ]
2
(2) [FL −3 3
T ]

(3) [FL −3
T ]
2
(4) [FL −5 2
T ]

Q58. If E, L, M and G denote the quantities as energy, angular momentum, mass and constant of gravitation
respectively, then the dimensions of P in the formula P = EL M
2 −5
G
−2
are: 26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) [M 1
L
1
T
−2
] (2) [M 0
L
1
T ]
0

(3) [M −1
L
−1
T ]
2
(4) [M 0
L
0
T ]
0

Q59. Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II
a Magnetic induction i ML
2
T
−2
A
−1

b Magnetic flux ii M
0
L
−1
A

c Magnetic permeability iii MT

−2
A
−1

d Magnetization iv MLT
−2
A
−2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
26 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) (a) − (iii), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i) (2) (a) − (iii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (ii)

(3) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii) (4) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (iii)

Q60. Match List I with List II.

List-I List-II
a Capacitance, C i M
1
L
1
T
−3
A
−1

b Permittivity of free space, ε 0 ii M

−1
L
−3
T
4
A
2

c Permeability of free space, μ 0 iii M

−1
L
−2
T
4
A
2

d Electric field, E iv M L T
1 1 −2
A
−2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) (a ) → (iii ), ( b ) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)

(2) (a ) → (iii ), ( b ) → (iv ), ( c ) → (ii ), ( d ) → (i)

(3) (a ) → (iv ), ( b ) → (ii ), ( c ) → (iii ), ( d ) → (i)

(4) (a ) → (iv ), ( b ) → (iii ), ( c ) → (ii ), ( d ) → (i)

Q61. The force is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt . The
dimensional formula of AD

B
is:
25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) [M 0
L T
−1
] (2) [ML 2
T
−3
]

(3) [M 1
L
1
T
−2
] (4) [M 2
L
2
T
−3
]

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q62. If time (t), velocity (v), and angular momentum (l) are taken as the fundamental units. Then the dimension of
mass (m) in terms of t, v and l is: 20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) [t−1 1 −2
v l ] (2) [t
1 2 −1
v l ]

(3) [t−2
v
−1 1
l ] (4) [t
−1
v
−2 1
l ]

Q63. In a typical combustion engine the workdone by a gas molecule is given by W

2
−βx

= α βe
2
k T
, where x is the
displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature. If α and β are constants, dimensions of α
will be: 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) [MLT −2
] (2) [M 2
LT
−2
]

(3) [MLT −1
] (4) [M 0
LT ]
0

Q64. If C and V represent capacity and voltage respectively then what are the dimensions of λ where C/V = λ ?
26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) [M −2
L
−4
I
3 7
T ] (2) [M −2
L
−3
I
2
T ]
6

(3) [M −1
L
−3 −2
I T
−7
] (4) [M −3
L
−4
I
3
T ]
7

Q65. Match List - I with List - II :

List − I List − II

(a) h (Planck's constant) (i) [MLT

−1
]

(b) E (kinetic energy) (ii) [ML

2
T
−1
]

(c) V (electric potential) (iii) [ML

2
T
−2
]

(d) P (linear momentum) (iv) [ML

2
I
−1
T
−3
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

25 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) (2) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii)
(3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) (4) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
2

Q66. If e is the electronic charge, c is the speed of light in free space and h is Planck's constant, the quantity 1 |e|

4πε0 hc

has dimensions of : 25 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) [MLT 0
] (2) [M 0
L
0
T ]
0

(3) [MLT −1
] (4) [LC −1
]

Q67. The work done by a gas molecule in an isolated system is given by, W 2
= αβ e
−
x

αk T
, where x is the
displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature. α and β are constants. Then the
dimensions of β will be: 24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) [M 2
L T ]
2
(2) [ML 2
T
−2
]

(3) [MLT −2
] (4) [M 0
L T ]
0

Q68. The quantities x = 1

√μ0∈0
,y =
E

B
and z = l

CR
are defined where C-capacitance, R-Resistance, ℓ−length, E-
Electric field, B-magnetic field and∈ 0, μ0, − free space permittivity and permeability respectively. Then:
05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) x, y and z have the same dimension. (2) Only x and z have the same dimension
(3) Only x and y have the same dimension (4) Only y and z have the same dimension.

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q69. Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is (here K denotes the temperature): 04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) M LT –2
K (2) M LT –2
K
–2

(3) M LT –3
K (4) M LT –3
K
–1

Q70. A quantity x is given by (1F v 2

/W L
4
) in terms of moment of inertia I , force F , velocity v, work W and
length L. The dimensional formula for x is same as that of : 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) planck's constant (2) force constant
(3) energy density (4) coefficient of viscosity

Q71. Amount of solar energy received on the earth's surface per unit area per unit time is defined a solar constant.
Dimension of solar constant is: 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) ML 2
T
−2
(2) ML 0
T
−3

(3) M 2
L T
0 −1
(4) MLT −2

Q72. If speed V, area A and force F are chosen as fundamental units, then the dimension of Young's modulus will
be : 02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) FA 2
V
−1
(2) FA 2
V
−3

(3) FA 2
V
−2
(4) FA −1
V
0

Q73. If momentum(P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be the fundamental quantities then the dimensional
formula for energy is : 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) [P 2
AT
−2
] (2) [PA −1
T
−1
]

(3) [PA 1/2

T
−1
] (4) [P 1/2
AT
−1
]

Q74. A quantity f is given by f = √

5
hc
where c is speed of light, G univasal gravitational constant and h is the
G

Planck’s constant. Dimension of f is that of: 09 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) area (2) energy
(3) momentum (4) volume

Q75. The dimension of stopping potential V in photoelectric effect in units of Planck’s constant ‘ h ’, speed of light
0

‘ c ’ and Gravitational constant ‘ G ’ and ampere A is: 08 Jan 2020 (M)

1 2 1

(1) h 3
G 3
c 3
A
−1
(2) h 0
c G
5 −1
A
−1

2 1 4 3 1

(3) h −
3
−
c 3 G 3 A
−1
(4) h 2
G 2
c 3
A
−1

Q76. Given, B is magnetic field induction, and μ is the magnetic permeability of vacuum. The dimension of
2

0
B

2μ0
is:
07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) MLT −2
(2) ML 2
T
−1

(3) ML 2
T
−2
(4) ML −1
T
−2

Q77. Which of the following combinations has the dimension of electrical resistance (ϵ is the permittivity of 0

vacuum and μ is the permeability of vacuum)?

0 12 Apr 2019 (M)
ϵ
(1) 0

μ (2) √ ϵ 0

0
μ 0

μ
(3) ϵ
0
(4) √ μ 0

0
ϵ 0

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q78. In the formula X = 5YZ

2
, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic field, respectively. What
are the dimensions of Y in SI units? 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) [M −1
L
−2
T
4 2
A ] (2) [M −2
L
0
T
−4
A
−2
]

(3) [M −2
L
−2
T
6 3
A ] (4) [M −3
L
−2
T
8
A ]
4

Q79. If Surface tension (S), Moment of Inertia (I) and Planck's constant (h), were to be taken as the fundamental
units, the dimensional formula for linear momentum would be: 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) S 1/2
I
1/2
h
0
(2) S 1/2
I
3/2
h
−1

(3) S 3/2
I
1/2
h
0
(4) S 1/2
I
1/2
h
−1

Q80. In SI units, the dimensions of √ μϵ is: 0

08 Apr 2019 (M)
0

(1) AT M
2 −1
L
−1
(2) 2
A T M
3 −1
L
−2

(3) A −1
TML
3
(4) AT −3
ML
3/2

Q81. Let L, R, C and V represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and voltage, respectively. The dimension of
L

RCV
in SI units will be: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) [LT A] (2) [A −1
]

(3) [LT 2
] (4) [LA −2
]

Q82. The force of interaction between two atoms is given by F

2

= αβ exp (−
αkT
x
); where x is the distance, k is the
Boltzmann constant and T is temperature and α and β are two constants. The dimensions of β is:
11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) M 0
L
2
T
−4
(2) M 2
LT
−4

(3) MLT −2
(4) M 2
L
2
T
−2

Q83. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of Young's
modulus will be : 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) V −2
A
2
F
−2
(2) V −2
A
2
F
2

(3) V −4
A
−2
F (4) V −4
A
2
F

Q84. The density of a material in SI units is 128 kg m −3

. In certain units in which the unit of length is 25 cm and
the unit of mass is 50g, the numerical value of density of the material is: 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 410 (2) 16
(3) 40 (4) 640

Q85. Expression for time in terms of G (universal gravitational constant), h (Planck constant) and c (speed of light)
is proportional to: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) √ Gh
3
(2) √ hc
5

c G

(3) √ Gh
5
(4) √ c
3

c Gh

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Units and Dimensions JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (1)
9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (1)
17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3)
25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2)
33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1) 36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2)
49. (4) 50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (4) 64. (1)
65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (3) 71. (2) 72. (4)
73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (4) 78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (3)

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 Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q1. A light emitting diode (LED) is fabricated using GaAs semiconducting material whose band gap is 1.42eV. The
wavelength of light emitted from the LED is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 1400 nm (2) 650 nm
(3) 875 nm (4) 1243 nm

Q2. The I − V characteristics of an electronic device shown in the figure. The device is:

09 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) a diode which can be used as a rectifier (2) a zener diode which can be used as a voltage
regulator
(3) a transistor which can be used as an amplifier (4) a solar cell
Q3. In the truth table of the above circuit the value of X and Y are:

09 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 0,0 (2) 1,1
(3) 1,0 (4) 0,1

Q4. The output Y of following circuit for given inputs is:

08 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) Λ ⋅ B(Λ + B) (2) 0
–
A ⋅ B (3)
A ⋅ B (4)

Q5. A potential divider circuit is connected with a dc source of 20 V , a light emitting diode of
glow in voltage 1.8 V and a zener diode of breakdown voltage of 3.2 V. The length (PR) of
the resistive wire is 20 cm. The minimum length of PQ to just glow the LED is _____cm

08 Apr 2024 (E)

Q6. The correct truth table for the following logic circuit is :
06 Apr 2024 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A B Y (2) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0

0 1 1 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1

(3) A B Y (4) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0

0 1 1 0 1 0

1 0 0 1 0 0

1 1 0 1 1 1

Q7. The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is 6eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can create a hole
would be : Given hc = 1242eVnm. 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 414 nm (2) 103.5 nm
(3) 207 nm (4) 407 nm

Q8. Following gates section is connected in a complete suitable circuit. For

which of the following combination, bulb will glow (ON):

05 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1 (2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1

(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 0

Q9. The output (Y ) of logic circuit given below is 0 only when:

05 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) A = 1, B = 0 (2) A = 0, B = 1

(3) A = 0, B = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 1

Q10. Identify the logic gate given in the circuit:

04 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) NAND-gate (2) AND gate
(3) NOR gate (4) OR- gate

Q11. The value of net resistance of the network as shown in the given figure is :

04 Apr 2024 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 6Ω (2) (5/2)Ω

(3) (15/4)Ω (4) (30/11)Ω

Q12. Which of the diode circuit shows correct biasing used for the measurement of dynamic resistance of p-n
junction diode : 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q13. In the given circuit if the power rating of Zener

diode is 10 mW , the value of series resistance Rs

to regulate the input unregulated supply is:

01 Feb 2024 (M)

(1) 3

7
kΩ (2) 10 Ω
(3) 1 kΩ (4) 10 kΩ

Q14. Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only if the wavelength of incident light is less than 660 nm. The
band gap of photodiode is found to be ( X

8
) eV. The value of X is:
(Given h = 6. 6 × 10 −34
J s, e = 1. 6 × 10
−19
C )
01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 15 (2) 11
(3) 13 (4) 21

Q15. Identify the logic operation performed by the given circuit.

31 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) NAND (2) NOR
(3) OR (4) AND

Q16. The output of the given circuit diagram is

31 Jan 2024 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q17. A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10 V is used as a voltage regulator as shown in the
figure. The current through the Zener diode is

30 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) 50 mA (2) 0
(3) 30 mA (4) 20 mA

Q18. In the given circuit, the voltage across load resistance (R L) is:

30 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 8. 75 V (2) 9. 00 V

(3) 8. 50 V (4) 14. 00 V

Q19. In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3. 0 V. What
is the value of I ?
z

29 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) 3. 3 mA (2) 5. 5 mA

(3) 10 mA (4) 7 mA

Q20. The truth table for this given circuit is:

29 Jan 2024 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q21. Which of the following circuits is reverse - biased ? 27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q22. The truth table of the given circuit diagram is :

27 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) A B Y
(2) A B Y
(3) A B Y
(4) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1

1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0

Q23. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A and B given below will be,

13 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q24. For the following circuit and given inputs A and B, choose the correct option
for output ‵Y ′

13 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q25*. From the given transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE

configuration, the value of power gain of this configuration is

10 , for
x
RB = 10 kΩ , and RC = 1 kΩ . The value of x is
_____.

13 Apr 2023 (M)

Q26*. In an n-p-n common emitter (CE) transistor the collector current changes from 5 mA to 16 mA for the
change in base current from 100 μA and 200 μA, respectively. The current gain of transistor is _____.
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 110 (2) 210
(3) 0. 9 (4) 9

Q27. The logic performed by the circuit shown in figure is equivalent to

11 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) AND (2) NOR
(3) OR (4) NAND

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q28. The logic operations performed by the given digital circuit is equivalent to:

11 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) NOR (2) AND
(3) OR (4) NAND

Q29. A zener diode of power rating 1. 6 W is to be used as voltage regulator.

If the zener diode has a breakdown of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage
fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V The value of resistance Rs for safe
operation of diode will be

10 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) 10 Ω (2) 12 Ω
(3) 13. 3 Ω (4) 13 Ω

Q30. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25Ω in the below
circuit. Which of the following options is correct?

10 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) I1

I2
= 1 (2) I2

I3
= 1

(3) I1

I2
= 2 (4) I3

I4
= 1

Q31. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y is

08 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q32*. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE configuration

VCC = 1 V, RC = 1 kΩ, Rb = 100 kΩ and β = 100 . Value of base current
Ib is

08 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) I b = 1. 0 μA (2) I b = 0. 1 μA
(3) I b = 100 μA (4) I b = 10 μA

Q33. The resistivity (ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve represents the
correct behaviour?
06 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q34. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p − n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude if the junction
is forward biased.
Reason R: Diffusion current in a p − n junction is form the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward
biased.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Q35. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

06 Apr 2023 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) NAND (2) AND (3) NOR (4) OR

Q36. Match the List I with List II
List I List II
A Intrinsic Semiconductor I Fermi-level near valence band
B n-type semiconductor II Fermi-level at middle of valence and conduction band
C p-type semiconductor III Fermi-level near conduction band
D Metals IV Fermi-level inside conduction band
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) (A) → I, (B) → II, (C) → III, (D) → IV (2) (A) → II, (B) → I, (C) → III, (D) → IV
(3) (A) → II, (B) → III, (C) → I, (D) → IV (4) (A) → III, (B) → I, (C) → II, (D) → IV

Q37. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode: 01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple p-n junction diode in forward bias
(2) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias
(3) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias
(4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple p-n junction diode in reverse bias

Q38. The effect of increase in temperature on the number of electrons in conduction band (n ) and resistance of a
e

semiconductor will be as: 31 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) Both n and resistance decrease
e (2) Both n and resistance increase
e

(3) n increases, resistance decreases

e (4) n decreases, resistance increases
e

Q39*. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In a typical transistor, all three regions emitter, base and collector have same doping level.
Statement II : in a transistor, collector is the thickest and base is the thinnest segment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correct incorrect

Q40. The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as
shown below, is

30 Jan 2023 (M)

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 (3)

(1)

(3)

⎢⎥
Semiconductors
Chapter Priority: Priority B

(1)

Q41. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is given by

Truth table of the shown circuit is :

⎣
A

A
0

1
B

1
Y

1
⎤

B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.

C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased.
(2)

(4)

(2) ⎡A

(4) ⎡A
⎣

⎣
0

1
B

1
Y

0
⎤

Q42. Which of the following statement is not correct in the case of light emitting diodes?
A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.
JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
MathonGo

30 Jan 2023 (E)

D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or slightly less than the energy gap of the semiconductor used.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C and D
(3) C
(2) A
(4) B

Q43. For the given logic gates combination, the correct truth table will be

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29 Jan 2023 (M)

29 Jan 2023 (E)

41
Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A B X (2) A B X
0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 0
(3) A B X (4) A B X
0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1

Q44. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with Boron, it becomes P type and when doped by Arsenic it
becomes N-type semi conductor such that P-type has excess holes and N-type has excess electrons.
Statement II : When such P-type and N-type semi-conductors, are fused to make a junction, a current will
automatically flow which can be detected with an externally connected ammeter.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and statement II are correct (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Q45. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Photodiodes are used in forward bias usually for measuring the light intensity.
Reason R: For a p − n junction diode, at applied voltage V the current in the forward bias is more than the
current in the reverse bias for |Vz| > ±V ≥ |V0| where V0 is the threshold voltage and Vz is the breakdown
voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A is true but R is false

Q46. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse bias condition for light intensity measurement.
Reason R: The current in the forward bias is more than the current in the reverse bias for a p − n junction
diode.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
24 Jan 2023 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q47. The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit diagram is :

24 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) OR (2) NAND
(3) NOR (4) AND

Q48. If the potential barrier across a p − n junction is 0. 6 V. Then the electric field intensity, in the depletion region
having the width of 6 × 10 −6
, will be _____ ×10
m
5
N C
−1
29 Jul 2022 (M)

Q49. A 8V Zener diode along with a series resistance R is connected across a 20 V supply
(as shown in the figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA , then the minimum
value of R will be _____ Ω.

29 Jul 2022 (E)

Q50. Identify the solar cell characteristics from the following options : 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q51*. An n.p.n transistor with current gain β = 100 in common emitter configuration
is shown in figure. The output voltage of the amplifier will be

28 Jul 2022 (E)

(1) 0. 1 V (2) 1. 0 V
(3) 10 V (4) 100 V

Q52. A logic gate circuit has two inputs A and B and output Y . The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are shown
below. The logic gate circuit is
img src="images/e9c504d7-1da4-4703-aa00-baf2dbe5341b-image.png" style="width: 250px; height:
150px;"/> 27 Jul 2022 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) AND gate (2) OR gate

(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate

Q53*. For a constant collector-emitter voltage of 8 V, the collector current of a transistor reached to the value of
6 mA from 4 mA , whereas base current changed from 20 μA to 25 μA value. If transistor is in active state,
small signal current gain (current amplification factor) will be 27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 240 (2) 400
(3) 0. 0025 (4) 200

Q54*. The typical transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE configuration is shown in

figure. A load resistor of 2 kΩ is connected in the collector branch of the circuit
used. The input resistance of the transistor is 0. 50 kΩ . The voltage gain of the
transistor is

26 Jul 2022 (E)

Q55. In the circuit shown below, maximum Zener diode current will be _____ mA.

26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q56. The energy band gap of semiconducting material to produce violet (wavelength = 4000Å) LED is _____ eV.
(Round off to the nearest integer). 25 Jul 2022 (M)

Q57. Two ideal diodes are connected in the network as shown in figure. The equivalent
resistance between A and B is _____ Ω.

25 Jul 2022 (E)

Q58. In the circuit, the logical value of A = 1 or B = 1 when potential at A or B is 5 V and the
logical value of A = 0 or B = 0 when potential at A or B is 0V . The truth table of the
given circuit will be:

25 Jul 2022 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A B Y
(2) A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 0

1 0 0 1 0 1

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 1 1 1 1 1

(3) A B Y (4) A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 1

1 0 0 1 0 1

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 1 0 1 1 0

Q59*. A transistor is used in an amplifier circuit in common emitter mode. If the base current changes by 100 μA, it
brings a change of 10 mA in collector current. If the load resistance is 2 kΩ and input resistance is 1 kΩ, the
value of power gain is x × 10 . The value of x is _____ .
4
29 Jun 2022 (M)

Q60. A potential barrier of 0. 4 V exists across a p-n junction. An electron enters the junction from the n-side with a
speed of 6. 0 × 10 5 −1
m s . The speed with which electron enters the p side will be x

3
× 10
5
m s
−1
, then the
value of x is _____.: (Given mass of electron = 9 × 10 −31
, charge on electron = 1. 6 × 10
kg
−19
C .)
29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q61*. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : n − p − n transistor permits more current than a p − n − p transistor.
Reason R : Electrons have greater mobility as a charge carrier.
28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Both A and R true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Q62. For using a multimeter to identify diode from electrical components, choose the correct statement out of the
following about the diode 28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) It is two terminal device which conducts current in both directions.
(2) It is two terminal device which conducts current in one direction only
(3) It does not conduct current gives an initial deflection which decays to zero.
(4) It is three terminal device which conducts current in one direction only between central terminal and either
of the remaining two terminals

Q63. In the given circuit the input voltage Vin is shown in

figure. The cut-in voltage of p − n junction diode (D 1

or D ) is 0. 6 V. Which of the following output voltage

2

(V0) waveform across the diode is correct?

28 Jun 2022 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q64. A Zener of breakdown voltage VZ = 8 V and maximum

Zener current, IZM = 10 mA is subjected to an input voltage
Vi = 10 V with series resistance R = 100 Ω . In the given
circuit R represents the variable load resistance. The ratio of
L

maximum and minimum value of R is _____.

L

28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q65. In the following circuit, the correct relation between output (Y ) and
inputs A and B will be

28 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) Y = A ⋅ B (2) Y = A + B

(3) Y = A ⋅ B (4) Y = A + B

Q66. The cut-off voltage of the diodes (shown in figure) in forward bias is 0. 6 V . The
current through the resister of 40Ω is _____ mA.

27 Jun 2022 (E)

Q67. Identify the correct Logic Gate for the following output (Y ) of two inputs A

and B.

27 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q68*. For a transistor to act as a switch, it must be operated in 27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) Active region (2) Saturation and cut-off region
(3) Cutoff region only (4) Saturated region only

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q69*. The positive feedback is required by an amplifier to act as an oscillator. The feedback here means
26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) External input is necessary to sustain ac signal in output.
(2) A portion of the output power is returned back to the input.
(3) Feedback can be achieved by LR network.
(4) The base-collector junction must be forward biased.

Q70. The I − V characteristics of a p − n junction diode in forward bias is

shown in the figure. The ratio of dynamic resistance, corresponding to
forward bias voltage of 2 V and 4 V respective is

26 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 1 : 40 (4) 20 : 1

Q71. As per the given circuit, the value of current through the battery will be _____ A.

26 Jun 2022 (M)

Q72*. In an experiment of CE configuration of n − p − n transistor, the transfer

characteristics are observed as given in figure. If the input resistance is 200Ω and
output resistance is 60Ω, the voltage gain in this experiment will be _____.

25 Jun 2022 (E)

Q73. The photodiode is used to detect the optical signals. These diodes are preferably operated in reverse biased
mode because 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) fractional change in majority carriers produce higher forward bias current
(2) fractional change in majority carriers produce higher reverse bias current
(3) fractional change in minority carriers produce higher forward bias current
(4) fractional change in minority carriers produce higher reverse bias current

Q74. Identify the logic operation performed by the given circuit

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

25 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) AND gate (2) OR gate
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate

Q75. In the given circuit, the value of current IL will be _____ mA. (When
RL = 1 kΩ )

24 Jun 2022 (E)

Q76*. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 10 mV is added to the
base-emitter voltage, the base current changes by 10μA and the collector current changes by 1. 5 mA . The
load resistance is 5kΩ. The voltage gain of the transistor will be _____ . 24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q77. In the given figure, each diode has a forward bias resistance of 30 Ω and infinite
resistance in reverse bias. The current I will be :
1

01 Sep 2021 (E)

(1) 2. 0 A (2) 3. 75 A
(3) 2. 73 A (4) 2. 35 A

Q78. Statement I : To get a steady DC output from the pulsating voltage received from a full wave rectifier we can
connect a capacitor across the output parallel to the load R L.

Statement II : To get a steady DC output from the pulsating voltage received from a full wave rectifier we can
connect an inductor in series with R L.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
31 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q79. In the following logic circuit the sequence of the inputs A, B are
(0, 0), (0, 1), (1, 0) and (1, 1). The output Y for this sequence will be :

31 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 0, 1, 0, 1 (2) 0, 0, 1, 1
(3) 1, 1, 1, 0 (4) 1, 0, 1, 0

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q80. Choose the correct waveform that can represent the voltage across R of the
following circuit, assuming the diode is ideal one:

31 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q81. If VA and VB are the input voltages (either 5 V or 0 V ) and V0 is the output voltage then the two gates
represented in the following circuits (A) and (B) are :
31 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) OR and NOT Gate (2) AND and NOT Gate

(3) AND and OR Gate (4) NAND and NOR Gate

Q82*. For a transistor in CE mode to be used as an amplifier, it must be operated in: 27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) Cut-off region only (2) Saturation region only
(3) The active region only (4) Both cut-off and Saturation

Q83. A zener diode of power rating 2 W is to be used as a voltage regulator.

If the zener diode has a breakdown of 10 V and it has to regulate voltage
fluctuated between 6 V and 14 V , the value of Rs for safe operation
should be _____ Ω .

27 Aug 2021 (E)

Q84*. For a transistor α and β are given as α = IC

IE
and β = IC

IB
. Then the correct relation between α and β will be:
27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) α = (2) αβ = 1
1−β

(3) β = (4) α =
α β

1−α 1−β

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q85. A circuit is arranged as shown in figure. The output voltage Vo is equal to

__________ V.

27 Aug 2021 (M)

Q86. Statement I: By doping silicon semiconductors with pentavalent material, the electrons density increases.
Statement II: The n−type of semiconductor has a net negative charge.
In the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q87. For the given circuit, the power across zener diode is _____ mW.

26 Aug 2021 (E)

Q88. Identify the logic operation carried out by the given circuit:

26 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) OR (2) AND
(3) NAND (4) NOR

Q89. Four NOR gates are connected as shown in figure. The truth table for the
given figure is :

26 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) A B Y (2) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 1 1 0 1

1 1 0 1 1 0

(3) A B Y
(4) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1

Q90. Find the truth table for the function Y of A and B represented in the following
figure.

27 Jul 2021 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) A B Y (2) A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 1

0 1 1 0 1 0

1 0 0 1 0 1

1 1 0 1 1 1

(3) A B Y (4) A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 0

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 1

1 1 1 1 1 1

Q91*. A transistor is connected in common emitter circuit configuration, the collector supply voltage is 10 V and
the voltage drop across a resistor of 1000 Ω in the collector circuit is 0. 6 V. If the current gain factor (β) is
24, then the base current is ____μA. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) 27 Jul 2021 (M)

Q92. In a semiconductor, the number density of intrinsic charge carriers at 27°C is 1. 5 × 10 16

m
−3
. If the
semiconductor is doped with an impurity atom, the hole density increases to 4. 5 × 10 22
m
−3
. The electron
density in the doped semiconductor is _______×10 9
m
−3
25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q93. Identify the logic operation carried out.

25 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) OR (2) AND
(3) NOR (4) NAND

Q94. Consider a situation in which reverse biased current of a particular P − N junction increases when it is
exposed to a light of wavelength ≤ 621 nm. During this process, enhancement in carrier concentration takes
place due to generation of hole-electron pairs. The value of band gap is nearly. 22 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 2 eV (2) 4 eV

(3) 1 eV (4) 0. 5 eV

Q95. In a given circuit diagram, a 5 V zener diode along with a series

resistance is connected across a 50 V power supply. The minimum
value of the resistance required, if the maximum zener current is
90 mA will be Ω.

22 Jul 2021 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q96. For the forward biased diode characteristics shown in the figure,
the dynamic resistance at I D = 3 mA will be ________Ω.

20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q97. For the circuit shown below, calculate the value of I z :

20 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) 25 mA (2) 0. 15 A
(3) 0. 1 A (4) 0. 05 A

Q98. A zener diode having zener voltage 8 V and power dissipation rating of 0. 5 W is
connected across a potential divider arranged with maximum potential drop across zener
diode is as shown in the diagram. The value of protective resistance R is _____Ω.p

20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q99*. An npn transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier with a power gain of 10 . The input circuit
6

resistance is 100 Ω and the output load resistance is 10 kΩ. The common emitter
current gain β will be (Round off to the Nearest Integer) 18 Mar 2021 (M)

Q100*. The correct relation between α (ratio of collector current to emitter current) and β (ratio of collector current
to base current) of a transistor is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) β = α

1+α
(2) α = β

1−α

(3) β = (4) α =
1 β

1−α 1+β

Q101*. The typical output characteristics curve for a transistor working in the
common-emitter configuration is shown in the figure. The estimated
current gain from the figure is

18 Mar 2021 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q102. The output of the given combination gates represents:

17 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) XOR Gate (2) NAND Gate
(3) AND Gate (4) NOR Gate

Q103. Which one of the following will be the output of the given circuit?

17 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) NOR Gate (2) NAND Gate
(3) AND Gate (4) XOR Gate

Q104. The value of power dissipated across the zener diode (Vz = 15 V) connected in
the circuit as shown in the figure is x × 10
−1
W . The value of x to the nearest
integer is _______.

16 Mar 2021 (M)

Q105. In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively,
the output at Y would be x. The value of x is _________.

16 Mar 2021 (M)

Q106. The following logic gate is equivalent to:

16 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) NOR Gate (2) OR Gate
(3) AND Gate (4) NAND Gate

Q107. LED is constructed from Ga − As − P semiconducting material. The energy gap of this LED is 1. 9 eV .
Calculate the wavelength of light emitted and its colour. h = 6. 63 × 10 −34
J − s and c = 3 × 10 8 −1
m s

26 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 654 nm and red colour (2) 654 nm and orange colour
(3) 1046 nm and red colour (4) 1046 nm and blue colour

Q108. The circuit contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 Ω and with infinite
reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V , the current through the 120 Ω resistance
is _______ mA

26 Feb 2021 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q109. Draw the output signal Y in the given combination of gates.

26 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q110. The zener diode has a Vz = 30 V . The current passing through the diode
for the following circuit is___mA.

26 Feb 2021 (E)

Q111. For extrinsic semiconductors; when doping level is increased; 25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) Fermi-level of p and n- type semiconductors will not be affected.
(2) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductor will go upward and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductors will go
downward.
(3) Fermi-level of both p-type and n-type semiconductors will go upward for T > TF K and downward for
T < TF K, where T is Fermi temperature.
F

(4) Fermi-level of p- type semiconductors will go downward and Fermi-level of n- type semiconductor will
go upward.

Q112. A 5 V battery is connected across the points X and Y . Assume D1 and D2 to be normal
silicon diodes. Find the current supplied by the battery if the +ve terminal of the battery is
connected to point X.

25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) ~0. 86 A (2) ~0. 5 A
(3) ~1. 5 A (4) ~0. 43 A

Q113. The truth table for the following logic circuit is :

25 Feb 2021 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q114. In connection with the circuit drawn below, the value of current flowing through
2 kΩ resistor is______×10 −4
A.

24 Feb 2021 (M)

Q115. Zener breakdown occurs in a p − n junction having pand n both: 24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer. (2) heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.
(3) lightly doped and have wide depletion layer. (4) heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.

Q116*. If an emitter current is changed by 4 mA , the collector current changes by 3. 5 mA . The value of β will be:
24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 3.5 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.875 (4) 7

Q117. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : p − n junction diodes can be used to function as a transistor, simply by connecting two diodes,
back to back, which acts as the base terminal
Statement II: In the study of transistors, the amplification factor β indicates ratio of the collector current to
the base current.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q118. The logic circuit shown above is equivalent to :

24 Feb 2021 (E)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q119. Identify the correct output signal Y in the given combination of gates (as shown n) for
the given inputs A and B

06 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q120*. The output characteristics of a transistor is shown in the

figure. When VCE is 10V and IC = 4 .0 mA , then value of
β is
ac

06 Sep 2020 (E)

Q121. With increasing biasing voltage of a photo diode, the photocurrent magnitude: 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) remains constant
(2) increases initially and after attaining certain value, it decreases
(3) increases linearly
(4) increases initially and saturates finally

Q122. Two Zener diodes (A and B) having breakdown voltages of 6 V and 4 V respectively, are connected as
shown in the circuit below. The output voltage V variation with input voltage linearly increasing with time, is
0

given by (V input = 0V at t = )
0

05 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q123. Identify the operation performed by the circuit given below :

04 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) NAND (2) OR
(3) AND (4) NOT

Q124. Take the breakdown voltage of the zener diode used in

the given circuit as 6V . For the input voltage shown in
the figure below, the time variation of the output
voltage is: (Graphs drawn are schematic and not to the
scale)
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q125. If a semiconductor photo diode can detect a photon with a maximum wavelength of 400 , then its
nm

band gap energy is: Planck's constant h = 6. 63 × 10 −34

J. s

Speed of light c = 3 × 10 8 −1
m s 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 1. 1 eV (2) 2. 0 eV

(3) 1. 5 eV (4) 3. 1 eV

Q126. When a diode is forward biased, it has a voltage drop of 0. 5 V . the safe limit of current through the diode is
10 mA . If a battery of emf 1. 5 V is used in the circuit, the value of minimum resistance to be connected in
series with the diode so that the current does not exceed the safe limit is : 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 300 Ω (2) 50 Ω
(3) 100 Ω (4) 200 Ω

Q127. In the following, digital circuit, what will be the output a 'Z', when the input (A, B)

are (1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 1), (0, 1)

02 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 0, 0, 1, 0 (2) 1, 0, 1, 1
(3) 1, 1, 0, 1 (4) 0, 1, 0, 0

Q128. The current i in the network is

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

09 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.6 A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0 A

Q129. Both the diodes used in the circuit shown are assumed to be ideal and have
negligible resistance when these are forward biased. Built in potential in each
diode is 0.7V . For the input voltages shown in the figure, the voltage (in
Volts) at point A is ________

09 Jan 2020 (M)

Q130. In the circuit shown below, is working as a 8 V dc regulated voltage source. When
12 V is used as an input, the power dissipated (in mW ) in each diode is
(Considering both zener diodes are identical)

09 Jan 2020 (E)

Q131. Boolean relation at the output stage- Y for the following circuit is:

08 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) − −
(2) A + B
A + B

(3) A ∙ B (4) − −
A ∙ B

Q132. In the given circuit, value of Y is:

08 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) 0 (2) toggles between 0 and 1
(3) will not execute (4) 1

Q133. Which of the following gives a reversible operation? 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q134. In the figure, potential difference between A and B is:

07 Jan 2020 (E)

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 (3)

∣∣
Semiconductors
Chapter Priority: Priority B

(1) 10 V
(3) 15 V

Q135. The truth table for the circuit given in the figure is:

(1) A

Q136. Figure shows a

voltage

(1) 1.5 mA
(3) 7.5 mA

(1) 5 × 10
(3) 5 × 10

resistance is

(1) 6 × 10
(3) 10 4
B

= 6 V
Y

4
DC
(2) 5 V
(4) 0 V

(2)

(4)

. If the unregulated input voltage varies between

what is the maximum Zener current?

resistance 100 Ω and

, 2.5 × 10

4
, 5 × 10

2
100 Ω
6
6
100 kΩ

voltage and power gain, are respectively:

and the output load resistance is

A

(2) 3.5 mA
(4) 2.5 mA

Q137*. The transfer characteristic curve of a transistor, having input and output

(2) 2.5 × 10
(4) 5 × 10

Q138*. An NPN transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier, with a power gain of
10 kΩ

(2) 10
(4) 60
2
B

1
1

4
Y

voltage regulator circuit, with a Zener diode of breakdown

10 V

respectively, is shown in the figure. The

, 5 × 10
to 16 V,

, 2.5 × 10

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5
6
JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs

then

60 dB

. The common emitter current gain β is:

MathonGo

12 Apr 2019 (M)

12 Apr 2019 (E)

12 Apr 2019 (M)

. The input circuit

10 Apr 2019 (M)

59
Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q139. The figure represents a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode. The
breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 6 V and the load resistance is,
RL = 4 kΩ . The series resistance of the circuit is Ri = 1 kΩ . If the battery
voltage VB varies from 8 V to 16 V , what are the minimum and maximum
values of the current through Zener diode?
10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 0.5 mA; 6 mA (2) 1 mA; 8.5 mA

(3) 0.5 mA; 8.5 mA (4) 1.5 mA; 8.5 mA

Q140. The logic gate equivalent to the given logic circuit is:

09 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) NAND (2) AND
(3) NOR (4) OR

Q141*. An NPN transistor is used in common emitter configuration as an amplifier with 1 kΩ load resistance.
Signal voltage of 10 mV is applied across the base-emitter. This produces a 3 mA change in the collector
current and 15 μA change in the base current of the amplifier. The input resistance and voltage gain are:
09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 0.33 kΩ, 1.5 (2) 0.67 kΩ, 300

(3) 0.67 kΩ, 200 (4) 0.33 k Ω, 300

Q142. The reverse break down voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in the given circuit. The
current I through the Zener is:
z

08 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 10 mA (2) 7 mA

(3) 17 mA (4) 15 mA

Q143*. A common emitter amplifier circuit, built using an NPN transistor, is shown in
the figure. Its dc current gain is 250 , RC = 1 kΩ and VCC = 10 V . The
minimum base current for V CE
to reach saturation is

08 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 10 μA (2) 40 μA
(3) 7 μA (4) 100 μA

Q144. The output of the given logic circuit is:

12 Jan 2019 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) −
(2) −
AB AB

¯
(3) AB + AB (4) − −
AB + A B

Q145*. In the figure, given that VBB supply can vary from 0 to
5.0 V , VCC = 5 V , βdc = 200, RB = 100 kΩ, RC = 1 kΩ and
VBE = 1.0V. The minimum base current and the input voltage at
which the transistor will go to saturation, will be, respectively:

12 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 25 μA and 2.8 V (2) 20μA and 2.8V
(3) 25μA and 3.5V (4) 20μA and 3.5V

Q146. In the given circuit the current through Zener Diode is

close to:

11 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 0.0 mA (2) 6.7 mA
(3) 4.0 mA (4) 6.0 mA

Q147. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a
forward resistance of 50Ω . If the battery voltage is 6 V, the
current through the 100Ω resistance (in Amperes) is:

11 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 0.036 (2) 0.02
(3) 0.027 (4) 0.03

Q148. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is

10 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) zero. (2) 5 mA .
(3) 9 mA . (4) 14 mA .

Q149. To get output '1' at R, for the given logic gate circuit the input values must be:

10 Jan 2019 (M)

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) X = 1, Y = 1 (2) X = 0, Y = 0

(3) X = 0, Y = 1 (4) X = 1, Y = 0

Q150. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the
following figure if Ge diode connection are reversed, the value of V0

changes by: (assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown voltage)

09 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 0.8 V (2) 0.4 V
(3) 0.2 V (4) 0.6 V

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Semiconductors JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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97. (1) 98. (192) 99. (100) 100. (4) 101. (200) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (5)
105. (0) 106. (1) 107. (1) 108. (20) 109. (1) 110. (9) 111. (4) 112. (4)
113. (1) 114. (25) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (3) 118. (3) 119. (4) 120. (150)
121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (3)
129. (12) 130. (40) 131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (4) 134. (1) 135. (4) 136. (2)
137. (1) 138. (2) 139. (3) 140. (4) 141. (2) 142. (1) 143. (2) 144. (1)
145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (2) 148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (2)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q1. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed 6 m/s. The other half is covered in two
equal time intervals with speeds 9 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle during the
motion is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 10 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) 9.2 m/s (4) 8.8 m/s

Q2. Two cars are travelling towards each other at speed of 20 m s −1

each. When the cars are 300 m apart, both the
drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at the rate of 2 m s . The distance between them when they come to
−2

rest is : 09 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 200 m (2) 100 m
(3) 50 m (4) 25 m

Q3. A clock has 75 cm, 60 cm long second hand and minute hand respectively. In 30 minutes duration the tip of
second hand will travel x distance more than the tip of minute hand. The value of x in meter is nearly (Take
π = 3.14 ): 08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 140.5 (2) 118.9
(3) 139.4 (4) 220.0

Q4. A train starting from rest first accelerates uniformly up to a speed of 80 km/h for time t, then it moves with a
constant speed for time 3t. The average speed of the train for this duration of journey will be (in km/h ) :
06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 40 (2) 80
(3) 30 (4) 70

Q5. A particle moves in a straight line so that its displacement x at any time t is given by x 2
= 1 + t
2
. Its
acceleration at any time t is x −n
where n = ___________ 06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q6. A body projected vertically upwards with a certain speed from the top of a tower reaches the ground in t . If it is 1

projected vertically downwards from the same point with the same speed, it reaches the ground in t . Time 2

required to reach the ground, if it is dropped from the top of the tower, is : 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) √t 1t2 (2) √t 1 + t2

(3) √t 1 − t2 (4) √ t1

t2

Q7. A body moves on a frictionless plane starting from rest. If S is distance moved between t = n − 1 and t = n
n

and S is distance moved between t = n − 2 and t = n − 1, then the ratio is (1 − for n = 10. The
Sn−1 2
n−1 )
Sn x

value of x is ______. 05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q8. A body travels 102.5 m in n th

second and 115.0 m in (n + 2) th
second. The acceleration is : 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 6.25 m/s 2
(2) 12.5 m/s 2

(3) 9 m/s 2
(4) 5 m/s 2

Q9. A cyclist starts from the point P of a circular ground of radius 2 km and travels along its
circumference to the point S. The displacement of a cyclist is:

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

04 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) √8 km (2) 8 km
(3) 6 km (4) 4 km

Q10. A bus moving along a straight highway with speed of 72 km/h is brought to halt within 4s after applying the
brakes. The distance travelled by the bus during this time (Assume the retardation is uniform) is _____m.
04 Apr 2024 (E)

Q11. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x axis) under the action of a variable force. It's initial position
was 16 m right of origin. The variation of its position (x) with time (t) is given as x = –3t
3 2
+ 18t + 16t,

where x is in m and t is in s. The velocity of the particle when its acceleration becomes zero is _________
−1
m s .

01 Feb 2024 (M)

Q12. A particle initially at rest starts moving from reference point x = 0 along x-axis, with velocity v that varies as
v = 4√x m s
−1
. The acceleration of the particle is _____ m s . −2
01 Feb 2024 (E)

Q13. Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks towards north with 72 km h
−1
and train B is moving towards
south with speed 108 km h
−1
. Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity of ground with respect to B
are (in m s ): −1
01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) −30 and 50 (2) −50 and −30
(3) −50 and 30 (4) 50 and −30

Q14. The relation between time ‘t’ and distance ‘x’ is t = αx 2

+ βx , where α and β are constants. The relation
between acceleration (a) and velocity (v) is: 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) a = −2αv 3
(2) a = −5αv 5

(3) a = −3αv 2
(4) a = −4αv 4

Q15. A small steel ball is dropped into a long cylinder containing glycerine. Which one of the following is the
correct representation of the velocity time graph for the transit of the ball? 31 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q16. The displacement and the increase in the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval of t to (t + 1) s are
125 m and 50 m s , respectively. The distance travelled by the particle in (t + 2)
−1 th
s is ___________ m.
30 Jan 2024 (M)

Q17. A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position x as a function of time t is given as
x = (t
3
− 6t
2
+ 20t + 15) m . The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is:
29 Jan 2024 (E)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 4 m s −1
(2) 8 m s −1

(3) 10 m s −1
(4) 6 m s −1

Q18. A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration covers displacement S in first (p − 1) seconds and 1

S2 in first p seconds. The displacement S 1 + S2 will be made in time : 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) (2p + 1) s (2) √(2p 2
− 2p + 1) s

(3) (2p − 1) s (4) (2p 2

− 2p + 1) s

Q19. A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2 s. The distance of upper point
A from the starting point is _____m. Use (g = 10 m s −2
)

27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q20. Position of an ant ( in metres) moving in Y − Z plane is given by

S
2
S = 2t ĵ + 5k̂ (where t is in second). The
magnitude and direction of velocity of the ant at t = 1 s will be :
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 16 m s −1
in y-direction (2) 4 m s −1
in x-direction
(3) 9 m s −1
in z-direction (4) 4 m s −1
in y-direction

Q21. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity 5ˆi m s −1

and moves in x − y plane under action of a force
which produces a constant acceleration of (3ˆi + 2ˆj) m s . If the x-coordinate of the particle at that instant is
−2

84 m , then the speed of the particle at this time is √α m s . The value of α is _______.
−1
27 Jan 2024 (M)

Q22. A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third of its velocity after travelling 4 cm . It penetrates further
D × 10
−3
m before coming to rest. The value of D is : 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 32 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 4

Q23. The position of a particle related to time is given by x = (5t 2

− 4t + 5) m . The magnitude of velocity of the
particle at t = 2 s will be : 15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 06 m s −1
(2) 14 m s −1

(3) 10 m s −1
(4) 16 m s −1

Q24. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given by s = (2. 5)t . The instantaneous speed of the object at
2

t = 5 s will be : 13 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) 25 m s –1
(2) 5 m s –1

(3) 62. 5 m s –1
(4) 12. 5 m s –1

Q25. Two trains A and B of length l and 4l are travelling into a tunnel of length L in parallel tracks from opposite
directions with velocities 108 km h
−1
and 72 km h
−1
, respectively. If train A take 35 s less time than train B
to cross the tunnel then, length L of tunnel is: (Given L = 60 l)
13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 1200 m (2) 900 m
(3) 1800 m (4) 2700 m

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q26. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km h observes another train B moving in the opposite
−1

direction for 8 s. If the velocity of the train B is 54 km h , then length of train B is:
−1
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 120 m (2) 320 m
(3) 80 m (4) 200 m

Q27. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150 m s . The ratio of velocity after 3 s and 5 s
−1

is x+1

x
. The value of x is _____. {take, g = 10 m s }
−2
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 10 (2) −5
(3) 6 (4) 5

Q28. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : A truck and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying breaks which
provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distance.
Statement II : A car moving towards east takes a turn and moves towards north, the speed remains unchanged.
The acceleration of the car is zero.
In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Q29. Form the v − t graph shown, the ratio of distance to displacement in 25 s of motion
is:

11 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) 1 (2) 1

(3) 5

3
(4) 3

Q30. A person travels x distance with velocity v and then x distance with velocity v in the same direction. The
1 2

average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v1 and v will be
2
10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) v =
v1+v2

2
(2) 1

v
=
1

v1
+
1

v2

(3) v = v 1 + v2 (4) 2

v
=
1

v1
+
1

v2

Q31. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are
shown in figure.
(A) A lives closer to the school (B) B lives closer to the school
(C) A takes lesser time to reach home (D) A travels faster than B
(E) B travels faster than A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
10 Apr 2023 (M)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(3) (B) and (E) only (4) (A) and (E) only

Q32. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Area under velocity-time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given time.
Statement II: Area under acceleration-time graph is equal to the change in velocity in the given time.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Q33. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed π m s . Considering its
−1

motion from A to B, the magnitude of the average velocity is:

06 Apr 2023 (E)

(1) √3 m s −1
(2) π m s −1

(3) 1. 5√3 m s −1
(4) 2√3 m s −1

Q34. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10. 0 ms

−1
along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of
2. 0 m s
−2
. The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60. 0 m s −1
is _____.
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 25 s (2) 3 s
(3) 6 s (4) 30 s

Q35. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in SI units. Its
−n
loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is ( 10

x
) J. The value of n will be ________.
06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q36. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms

–1
, the driver must apply brakes at a distance of 500 m before
the station for the train to come to rest at the station. If the brakes were applied at half of this distance, the train
engine would cross the station with speed √x ms
−1
. The value of x is ______. (Assuming same retardation is
produced by brakes) 01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q37. An object moves with speed v1, v2 and v3 along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as shown in
figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3 AB , then average speed of the object will be :
01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) (v1+v2+v3)

3
(2) (v1v2v3)

3(v1v2+v2v3+v3v1)

(3) (4)
3v1v2v3 (v1+v2+v3)

v1v2+v2v3+v3v1 3v1v2v3

Q38. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km h

−1
and another 4 km with speed of 5 km h
−1
, then its average
speed is : 30 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 4. 25 km h
−1
(2) 3. 50 km h
−1

(3) 4. 00 km h
−1
(4) 3. 75 km h
−1

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q39. Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I (x-t graphs) Column-II (v-t graphs)

A I

B II

C III

D IV

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A- II B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A- I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A- II B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A- I, B-III. C-IV, D-II

Q40. A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m s −1

speed. The remaining part of the distance was travelled
with speed 10 m s −1
for half the time and with speed 15 m s
−1
for other half of the time. The mean speed of
the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is x

7
m s
−1
. The value of x is ______. 30 Jan 2023 (M)

Q41. A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a height of 9. 8 m. It rebounds to a height 5. 0 m. Ball comes in
contact with the floor for 0. 2 s. The average acceleration during contact is ______ m s . [Given g = 10 m s
−2 −2

] 29 Jan 2023 (M)

Q42. A car travels a distance of x with speed v and then same distance x with speed v in the same direction. The
1 2

average speed of the car is: 25 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) v1v2

2(v1+v2)
(2) v1+v2

(3) 2x

v1+v2
(4) 2v1v2

v1+v2

Q43. The distance travelled by a particle is related to time t as x = 4t

2
. The velocity of the particle at t = 5 s is
25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 40 m s –1
(2) 25 m s –1

(3) 20 m s –1
(4) 8 m s –1

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q44. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in

figure. The ratio of displacement and distance travelled by the body in
time 0 to 10 s is

24 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4

Q45. If t = √x + 4, then ( dx

dt
)
t=4
is: 29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 4 (2) Zero
(3) 8 (4) 16

Q46. A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height h. Find the ratio of
the times in which it is at height h

3
while going up and coming down respectively. 29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) √ 2−1
(2) √ 3−√ 2

√ 2+1 √ 3+√ 2

(3) √ 3−1
(4) 1

3
√ 3+1

Q47. A juggler throws balls vertically upwards with same initial velocity in air. When the first ball reaches its
highest position, he throws the next ball. Assuming the juggler throws n balls per second, the maximum height
the balls can reach is 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 2n
g
(2) g

(3) 2gn (4) 2n

g
2

Q48. A ball is released from a height h. If t and t be the time required to complete first half and second half of the
1 2

distance respectively. Then, choose the correct relation between t and t . 1 29 Jul 2022 (E)
2

(1) t 1 = (√ 2)t2 (2) t 1 = (√ 2 − 1)t2

(3) t 2 = (√ 2 + 1)t1 (4) t 2 = (√ 2 − 1)t1

Q49. A NCC parade is going at a uniform speed of 9 km h

−1
under a mango tree on which a monkey is sitting at a
height of 19. 6 m. At any particular instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet will receive the mango whose
distance from the tree at time of drop is :
(Given g = 9. 8 m s ) −2
28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(3) 19. 8 m (4) 24. 5 m

Q50. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 19. 6 m s −1

from the top of a tower. The ball strikes the
ground after 6 s. The height from the ground up to which the ball can rise will be ( k

5
) m . The value of k
is _____ (use g = 9. 8 m s ) −2
28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q51. The velocity of the bullet becomes one third after it penetrates 4 cm in a wooden block. Assuming that bullet
is facing a constant resistance during its motion in the block. The bullet stops completely after travelling at
(4 + x) cm inside the block. The value of x is 27 Jul 2022 (E)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) 2. 0 (2) 1. 0
(3) 0. 5 (4) 1. 5

Q52. A bullet is shot vertically downwards with an initial velocity of 100 m s −1

from a certain height. Within 10 s,
the bullet reaches the ground and instantaneously comes to rest due to the perfectly inelastic collision. The
velocity-time curve for total time t = 20 s will be : (Take g = 10 m s ) −2
27 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q53. A car is moving with speed of 150 km h

−1
and after applying the brake it will move 27 m before it stops. If
the same car is moving with a speed of one third the reported speed then it will stop after travelling _____ m
distance. 25 Jul 2022 (M)

Q54. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity is increasing at 5 m s −1
per meter. The acceleration
of the particle is _____ m s −2
at a point where its velocity is 20 m s . −1
25 Jul 2022 (E)

Q55. A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a distance of
10 m in t s, the distance travelled by the toy in the next t s will be: 29 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(3) 30 m (4) 40 m

Q56. Two balls A and B are placed at the top of 180 m tall tower. Ball A is released from the top at t = 0 s. Ball B
is thrown vertically down with an initial velocity u at t = 2 s. After a certain time, both balls meet 100 m
above the ground. Find the value of u in m s . [use g = 10 m s ]
−1 −2
29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 30

Q57. A car covers AB distance with first one-third at velocity v 1

−1
m s , second one-third
at v2 m s
−1
and last one-third at −1
v3 m s . If v3 = 3v1, v2 = 2v1 and v1 = 11 m s ,
−1

then the average velocity of the car is _____ m s

−1
.
28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q58. Velocity (v) and acceleration (a) in two systems of units 1 and 2 are related as v 2
=
n
2
m
v1 and a
2
=
a1

mn

respectively. Here m and n are constants. The relations for distance and time in two systems respectively are
28 Jun 2022 (E)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

3 2 4 2

(1) n

m
3
L1 = L2 and n

m
T 1 = T2 (2) L 1 =
n

m
2
L2 and T 1 =
n

m
T2

(3) L (4)
2

and T
4 2

and
4
n n n n
1
= L2 1
= 2
T2 L1 = L2 2
T 1 = T2
m m m m

Q59. When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height 4. 9 m above the water level, it hits the water with a velocity v
and then sinks to the bottom with the constant velocity v. It reaches the bottom of the lake 4. 0 s after it is
dropped. The approximate depth of the lake is 27 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 39. 2 m (2) 19. 6 m
(3) 73. 5 m (4) 29. 4 m

Q60. A ball of mass 0. 5 kg is dropped from the height of 10 m. The height, at which the magnitude of velocity
becomes equal to the magnitude of acceleration due to gravity, is _____ m. [Use g = 10 m s −2
]
26 Jun 2022 (M)

Q61. An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its maximum height, which of the following quantity becomes zero
? 26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Momentum (2) Potential energy
(3) Acceleration (4) Force

Q62. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation, he experiences weight loss ? 26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration
(2) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration
(3) When the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity
(4) When the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity

Q63. A ball is projected vertically upward with an initial velocity of 50 m s −1

at t = 0 s. At t = 2 s, another ball is
projected vertically upward with same velocity. At t =____s, second ball will meet the first ball
). 26 Jun 2022 (E)
−2
(g = 10 m s

Q64. Two buses P and Q start from a point at the same time and move in a straight line and their positions are
represented by x P (t) = αt + βt
2
and x
Q(t)
2
= ft − t . At what time, both the buses have same velocity ?
25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) (2)
α−f α+f

1+β 2(β−1)

(3) α+f

2(1+β)
(4) f −α

2(1+β)

Q65. From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in 6 s. A second ball
thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed reaches the ground in 1. 5 s. A third
ball released, from the rest from the same location, will reach the ground in _____ s. 24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q66. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The air resistance produces a constant
retarding force of 10 N throughout the motion. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent will be equal
to : [Use g = 10 m s ]. −2
24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) √2 : √3
(3) √3 : √2 (4) 2 : 3

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

Q67. An object of mass m is being moved with a constant velocity under the action of an applied
force of 2 N along a frictionless surface with following surface profile. The correct applied
force vs distance graph will be :
01 Sep 2021 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q68. A particle is moving with constant acceleration a. Following graph shows v

2

versus x (displacement) plot. The acceleration of the particle is _________ m s −2

.

31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q69. If the velocity of a body related to displacement x is given by v = √5000 + 24x m s −1

, then the acceleration
of the body is _________ m s −2
. 27 Aug 2021 (M)

Q70. Water drops are falling from a nozzle of a shower onto the floor from a height of 9. 8 m. The drops fall at a
regular interval of time. When the first drop strikes the floor, at that instant, the third drop begins to fall.
Locate the position of second drop from the floor when the first drop strikes the floor. 27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 2. 94 m (2) 4. 18 m
(3) 2. 45 m (4) 7. 35 m

Q71. Two spherical balls having equal masses with radius of 5 cm each are thrown upwards along the same vertical
direction at an interval of 3 s with the same initial velocity of 35 m s , then these balls collide at a height of
−1

_____m, (take g = 10 m s ) −2
26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q72. A particle of mass M originally at rest is subjected to a force whose direction is constant but magnitude varies
2
with time according to the relation F = F0[1 − (
t−T

T
) ] where F and T are constants. The force acts only for
0

the time interval 2 T . The velocity v of the particle after time 2 T is: 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 2 F0 T

M
(2) F0 T

2M

(3) 4 F0 T

3M
(4) F0 T

3M

Q73. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity so that it reaches a height h. Find the ratio of the two different times
of the ball reaching h

3
in both the directions. 27 Jul 2021 (M)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) √ 2−1
(2) 1

3
√ 2+1

(3) √ 3−√ 2
(4) √ 3−1

√ 3+√ 2 √ 3+1

Q74. The relation between time t and distance x for a moving body is given as t = mx 2
, where m and n are
+ nx

constants. The retardation of the motion is: (When v stands for velocity) 25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 2mv 3
(2) 2mnv 3

(3) 2nv 3
(4) 2n 2
v
3

Q75. The instantaneous velocity of a particle moving in a straight line is given as v = αt + βt , where α and β are
2

constants. The distance travelled by the particle between 1 s and 2 s is: 25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 3α + 7β (2) 3

2
α +
7

3
β

(3) α

2
+
β

3
(4) 3

2
α +
7

2
β

Q76. Water droplets are coming from an open tap at a particular rate. The spacing between a droplet observed at 4 th

second after its fall to the next droplet is 34. 3 m. At what rate the droplets are coming from the tap ? (Take
g = 9. 8 m s
−2
) 25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 3 drops/2 seconds (2) 2 drops/second
(3) 1 drop/second (4) 1 drop/7 seconds

Q77. A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform velocity of 10 m s . An object of finite mass is dropped from
−1

the balloon when it was at a height of 75 m from the ground level. The height of the balloon from the ground
when object strikes the ground was around: (takes the value of g as 10 m s ) −2
25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 300 m (2) 200 m
(3) 125 m (4) 250 m

Q78. A body at rest is moved along a horizontal straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance
moved by the body in time t is proportional to:
20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) t (2) t
3 1

2 2

(3) t (4) t
1 3

4 4

Q79. The velocity-displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure. The acceleration-
displacement graph of the same particle is represented by :

18 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q80. The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle moving with a constant acceleration can be represented by
: 18 Mar 2021 (M)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q81. The velocity of a particle is v = (v 0

2
+ gt + F t ) m s
−1
. Its position is x = 0 at t = 0 ; then its displacement
after time (t = 1 s) is : 17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) v (2) v
g F
0 + g + F 0 + +
2 3

(3) v (4) v
g
0 + + F 0 + 2g + 3F
2

Q82. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate β to
come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t seconds, the total distance travelled is: 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 4αβ

(α+β)
t
2
(2) 2αβ

(α+β)
t
2

(3) αβ

2(α+β)
t
2
(4) αβ

4(α+β)
t
2

Q83. A mosquito is moving with a velocity → ˆ ˆ ˆ

v = 0. 5t i + 3tj + 9k m s
2 −1
and accelerating in uniform conditions.
What will be the direction of mosquitoes after 2 s ?
16 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) tan −1
(
2

3
) from x-axis (2) tan −1
(
√ 85

6
) from y-axis
(3) tan −1
(
5

2
) from y-axis (4) tan −1
(
5

2
) from x-axis

Q84. A body of mass 2 kg moves under a force of (2ˆi + 3ˆj + 5ˆ

k)N It starts from rest and was at the origin initially.

After 4 s, its new coordinates are (8, b, 20). The value of b is ______.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q85. The velocity-displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the
figure. The acceleration-displacement graph of the bicycle's motion is best described by :

16 Mar 2021 (M)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q86. A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force F

→
ˆ ˆ
= (20i + 10j)N on a frictionless surface. If the box was
initially at rest, then _______ m is displacement along the x-axis after 10 s 26 Feb 2021 (M)

Q87. A scooter accelerates from rest for time t at constant rate a and then retards at constant rate a for time t and
1 1 2 2

comes to rest. The correct value of t1

t2
will be : 26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) a2

a1
(2) a1

a2

(3) a1+a2

a1
(4) a1+a2

a2

Q88. An engine of a train, moving with uniform acceleration, passes the signal-post with velocity u and the last
compartment with velocity v. The velocity with which middle point of the train passes the signal post is :
25 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) u+v

2
(2) √ v +u
2 2

(3) v−u

2
(4) √ v −u
2 2

Q89. A stone is dropped from the top of a building. When it crosses a point 5 m below the top, another stone starts
to fall from a point 25 m below the top. Both stones reach the bottom of building simultaneously. The height of
the building is : 25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 25 m (2) 45 m
(3) 35 m (4) 50 m

Q90. If the velocity-time graph has the shape AMB, what would be the shape of the
corresponding acceleration-time graph?

24 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q91. The velocity (v) and time (t) graph of a body in a straight line motion is
shown in the figure. The point S is at 4. 333 seconds. The total distance
covered by the body in 6 s is :
05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 37

3
m (2) 12m
(3) 11m (4) 49

4
m

Q92. A balloon is moving up in air vertically above a point A on the ground.

When it is a height h1, a girl standing at a distance d (point B) from A (see
figure) sees it at an angle 45° with respect to the vertical. When the balloon
climbs up a further height h2 , it is seen at an angle 60° with respect to the
vertical if the girl moves further by a distance 2. 464 d (point C). Then the
height h is (given tan 30°= 0. 5774):
2

05 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 1. 464 d (2) 0. 732 d
(3) 0 .464 d (4) d

Q93. A helicopter rises from rest on the ground vertically upwards with a constant acceleration g. A food packet is
dropped from the helicopter when it is at a height h. The time taken by the packet to reach the ground is close
to [g is the acceleration due to gravity]: 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2 h
(2) h
t = √( ) t = 1. 8√ ( )
3 g g

(3) h (4) t = √ 2h

t = 3. 4√ ( ) 3g
g

Q94. The speed verses time graph for a particle is shown in the figure. The distance travelled
(in m) by the particle during the time interval t = 0 to t = 5 s will be ______

04 Sep 2020 (E)

Q95. Starting from the origin at time t = 0, with initial velocity 5 ⌢

j ms , a particle moves in the x -y plane with a
−1

⌢ ⌢
constant acceleration of (10 i + 4 j )ms
−2
. At time t, its coordinates are (20 m, y 0
m) . The values of t and y
0

are, respectively: 04 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) 2 s and 18 m (2) 4 s and 52 m
(3) 2 s and 24 m (4) 5 s and 25 m

Q96. A tennis ball is released from a height h and after freely falling on a wooden floor it rebounds and reaches
height h/2. The velocity versus height of the ball during its motion may be represented graphically by: (graphs
are drawn schematically and on not to scale) 04 Sep 2020 (M)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q97. A small ball of mass m is thrown upward with velocity u from the ground. The ball experiences a resistive
force mkv where v is it speed. The maximum height attained by the ball is :
2
04 Sep 2020 (E)
2

(1) (2)
2
1 −1 ku 1 ku
tan ln(1 + )
2k g k 2g

(3) (4)
2
1 −1 ku 1 ku
2

tan ln(1 + )
k 2g 2k g

Q98. A particle is moving unidirectional on a horizontal plane under the action of a constant power supplying
energy source. The displacement (s) – time (t) graph that describes the motion of the particle is (graphs are
drawn schematically and are not to scale): 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q99. Train A and train B are running on parallel tracks in the opposite directions with speed of 36 km hour
−1
and
72 km hour
−1
, respectively. A person is walking in train A in the direction opposite to its motion with a
speed of 1. 8 km hour
−1
. Speed (in −1
m s ) of this person as observed from train B will be close to: (take the
distance between the tracks as negligible) 02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 29. 5 m s −1
(2) 28. 5 m s −1

(3) 31. 5 m s −1
(4) 30. 5 m s −1

Q100. The distance x covered by a paritcle in one dimensional motion varies with time t as x 2 2
= at + 2bt + c . If
the acceleration of the particle depends on x as x −n
, where n is an integer, the value of n is _________
09 Jan 2020 (M)

Q101. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field. If there is no other force on
the particle, the dependence of its speed v on the distance x travelled by it is correctly given by (graphs are
schematic and not drawn to scale) 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Motion In One Dimension JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q102. A particle is moving along the x -axis with its coordinate with time t given by x(t) = 10 + 8t − 3t . Another 2

particle is moving along the y -axis with its coordinate as a function of time given by y(t) = 5 − 8t . At 3

t = 1 s, the speed of the second particle as measured in the frame of the first particle is given as √v. Then
v(in m s
−1
) is ___________. 08 Jan 2020 (M)

Q103. A ball is dropped from the top of a 100 m high tower on a planet. In the last 1

2
s before hitting the ground, it
covers a distance of 19 m. Acceleration due to gravity (in m s −2
) near the surface on that planet is______
08 Jan 2020 (E)

Q104. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of 10 persons, with the average mass of each person being
68 kg . The mass of the elevator itself is 920 kg and it moves with a constant speed of 3 m/s . The frictional
force opposing the motion is 6000 N . If the elevator is moving up with its full capacity, the power delivered
by the motor to the elevator (g = 10m/s 2
) must be at least: 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 56300W (2) 62360W
(3) 48000W (4) 66000W

Q105. A particle is moving with speed v = b√x along positive x− axis. Calculate the speed of the particle at time
t = τ (assume that the particle is at origin at t = 0 ) 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) b (2)
2
2 b τ
τ
√2
2 2

(3) b τ

2
(4) b τ

Q106. A bullet of mass 20 g has an initial speed of 1 m s

−1
, just before it starts penetrating a mud wall of thickness
20 cm . If the wall offers a mean resistance of 2.5 × 10
−2
N, the speed of the bullet after emerging from the
other side of the wall is close to: 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 0.7 m s −1
(2) 0.3 m s −1

(3) 0.1 m s −1
(4) 0.4 m s −1

Q107. The position vector of a particle changes with time according to the relation → ˆ
r(t) = 15t i + (4 − 20t
2 2ˆ
)j.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1? 09 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 40 (2) 25
(3) 100 (4) 50

Q108. A ball is thrown vertically up (taken as +z − axis ) from the ground. The correct momentum-height (p − h)
diagram is: 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q109. The position of a particle as a function of time t, is given by x(t) = at + bt 2

− ct
3
where a, b and c are
constants. When the particles zero acceleration, then its velocity will be: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
2 2

(1) a + b

3c
(2) a + b

2c
2 2

(3) a + b

c
(4) a + b

4c

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Q110. A particle starts from origin O from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration along the positive .
x − axis

Identify all figures that correctly represent the motion qualitatively.

( a = acceleration, v = velocity, x = dispalcement, t = time)
08 Apr 2019 (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (A), (B), (D) (2) (A), (B), (C)

(3) (B), (C) (4) (A)

Q111. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and moves along the
positive axis. The graph of velocity with respect to time is shown in
x-

figure. What is the position of the particle at time t = 5s?

10 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 10 m (2) 9 m
(3) 6m (4) 3m

Q112. The position co-ordinates of a particle moving in a 3D coordinate system is given by x = a cos ωt,
y = a sin ωt and z = aωt. The speed of the particle is: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) √2 aω (2) aω
(3) 2aω (4) √3 aω

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (19) 8. (1)
9. (1) 10. (40) 11. (52) 12. (8) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (175)
17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (45) 20. (4) 21. (673) 22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (1)
25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4)
33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (200) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (50)
41. (120) 42. (4) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (4)
49. (1) 50. (392) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (100) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (18) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (5) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (6) 64. (4)
65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (12) 70. (4) 71. (50) 72. (3)
73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (3) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (2)
81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (12) 85. (1) 86. (500) 87. (1) 88. (2)
89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (1) 92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (20) 95. (1) 96. (3)
97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (1) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (580) 103. (8) 104. (4)
105. (3) 106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (3) 109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (2) 112. (1)

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Wave Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q1. In a Young's double slit experiment, the intensity at a point is (

th
1

4
) of the maximum intensity, the minimum
distance of the point from the central maximum is ________ μm. (Given :
λ = 600 nm, d = 1.0 mm, D = 1.0 m ) 09 Apr 2024 (M)

Q2. Monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used in Young's double slit experiment. An interference pattern
is obtained on a screen. When one of the slits is covered with a very thin glass plate (refractive index = 1.5 ),
the central maximum is shifted to a position previously occupied by the 4 th
bright fringe. The thickness of the
glass-plate is ______ μm. 09 Apr 2024 (E)

Q3. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm passes through single slit of 0.4 mm width.
Angular divergence corresponding to second order minima would be ______ ×10 −3
rad . 08 Apr 2024 (M)

Q4. Two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is located 1 m away from the slits. A light of wavelength 500 nm is
used. The width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the
single slit pattern is _____×10 −4
m 08 Apr 2024 (E)

Q5. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superimposed. The difference between
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam is xI. The value of x is _________.
06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q6. Light emerges out of a convex lens when a source of light kept at its focus. The shape of wavefront of the light
is : 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) both spherical and cylindrical (2) plane
(3) spherical (4) cylindrical

Q7. In Young's double slit experiment, carried out with light of wavelength 5000Å, the distance between the slits is
0.3 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at x = 0 cm. The value of x for
third maxima is _____mm. 05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q8. In a single slit experiment, a parallel beam of green light of wavelength 550 nm passes through a slit of width
0.20 mm . The transmitted light is collected on a screen 100 cm away. The distance of first order minima from
the central maximum will be x × 10 −5
m . The value of x is : 05 Apr 2024 (E)

Q9. The width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is 4 times that of the other slit. The ratio of
the maximum of the minimum intensity in the interference pattern is: 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

Q10. Two wavelengths λ and λ are used in Young's double slit experiment. λ
1 2 1 = 450 nm and λ 2 = 650 nm . The
minimum order of fringe produced by λ which overlaps with the fringe produced by λ is n. The value of n is
2 1

_____. 04 Apr 2024 (M)

o
Q11. A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 A is incident on the single slit of width 0. 01 mm . If the
diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the convex lens of focal length 20 cm , the linear width of the
central maximum is : 01 Feb 2024 (M)

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Wave Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) 60 mm (2) 24 mm

(3) 120 mm (4) 12 mm

∘
Q12. In Young's double slit experiment, monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 A is used. The slits are 1. 0 mm

apart and screen is placed at 1. 0 m away from slits. The distance from the centre of the screen where intensity
becomes half of the maximum intensity for the first time is ______ × 10
−6
m. 01 Feb 2024 (E)

Q13. A microwave of wavelength 2. 0 cm falls normally on a slit of width 4. 0 cm. The angular spread of the
central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained on a screen 1. 5 m away from the slit, will be:
01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 30º (2) 15º
(3) 60º (4) 45º

Q14. Two waves of intensity ratio 1 : 9 cross each other at a point. The resultant intensities at the point, when (a)
Waves are incoherent is I 1 (b) Waves are coherent is I and differ in phase by 60 . If
2
o I1

I2
=
10

x
, then x =
_________. 31 Jan 2024 (M)

Q15. When unpolarized light is incident at an angle of 60° on a transparent medium from air. The reflected ray is
completely polarized. The angle of refraction in the medium is
31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 90° (4) 45°

Q16. The diffraction pattern of a light of wavelength 400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0. 2 mm is focused on
the focal plane of a convex lens of focal length 100 cm . The width of the 1 st
secondary maxima will be :
30 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 2 mm (2) 2 cm

(3) 0. 02 mm (4) 0. 2 mm

Q17. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I is passed through a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B
0

which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A. The intensity of
emergent light is : 30 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) I0

4
(2) I 0

(3) I0

2
(4) I0

Q18. In Young's double slit experiment, light from two identical sources are superimposing on a screen. The path
difference between the two lights reaching at a point on the screen is 7λ

4
. The ratio of intensity of fringe at this
point with respect to the maximum intensity of the fringe is: 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 1

2
(2) 3

(3) 1

3
(4) 1

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Wave Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q19. In a double slit experiment shown in figure, when light of wavelength 400 nm is
used, dark fringe is observed at P . If D = 0. 2 m, the minimum distance between the
slits S and S is α
1 2 mm . Write the value of 10α to the nearest integer.

29 Jan 2024 (M)

o
Q20. In a single slit diffraction pattern, a light of wavelength 6000 A is used. The distance between the first and
third minima in the diffraction pattern is found to be 3 mm when the screen is placed 50 cm away from slits.
The width of the slit is ____×10 −4
.
m 29 Jan 2024 (E)
o
Q21. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 A is incident normally on a single narrow slit of
width 0. 001 mm . The light is focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its focal plane. The first minima
will be formed for the angle of diffraction of ______ (degree). 27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q22. When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids then the transmitted light intensity will be
maximum for a rotation of : 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 45°

Q23. A single slit of width a is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm . The value of a for
which first minimum appears at θ = 30 on the screen will be :
o
15 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 1. 2 μm (2) 3 μm
(3) 1. 8 μm (4) 0. 6 μm

Q24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2 : 1 . The ratio of the
maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is 13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 25 : 9

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

Q25. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment where phase
π π
difference between two waves of same amplitude are 3
and 2
, respectively are 10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

Q26. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m −2

passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the pass
axis of the last polaroids is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroids. If intensity of emerging
light is 3 W m , then the angle between pass axis of first two polaroids is _________°.
−2
10 Apr 2023 (M)

Q27. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slit experiment for the light of wavelength of 400 nm .
The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be: 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 4 mm (2) 2 mm

(3) 1. 33 mm (4) 3 mm

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o o
Q28. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 A and 5500 A is used to obtain interference pattern in
Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2. 5 mm and the distance between the plane
of slits and the screen is 150 cm . The least distance from the central fringe, where the bright fringes due to
both the wavelengths coincide, is n × 10 –5
. The value of n is _____.
m

06 Apr 2023 (E)

Q29. ‘n’ polarizing sheets are arranged such that each makes an angle 45° with the proceeding sheet. An
unpolarized light of intensity I is incident into this arrangement. The output intensity is found to be I

64
. The
value of n will be: 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4

Q30. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10 μm
and refractive index μ = 1. 2 is inserted infront of slit S . The experiment is conducted in air
1

(μ = 1) and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength λ = 500 nm . Due to the insertion of

the plate, central maxima is shifted by a distance of xβ 0 . β0 is the fringe-width before the
insertion of the plate. The value of the x is ______.
01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q31. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The beam of electrons shows wave nature and exhibit interference and diffraction.
Reason R : Davisson Germer Experimentally verified the wave nature of electrons.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
31 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A is correct but R is not correct
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Q32. Two polaroids A and B are placed in such a way that the pass-axis of polaroids are perpendicular to each
other. Now, another polaroid C is placed between A and B bisecting angle between them. If intensity of
unpolarised light is I then intensity of transmitted light after passing through polaroid B will be :
0

31 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) I0

4
(2) I0

(3) I0

8
(4) Zero

Q33. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600 nm are used in Young's double slit experiment to obtain
interference fringes on a screen placed 7 m away from plane of slits. If the two slits are separated by 0. 35 mm

, then shortest distance from the central bright maximum to the point where the bright fringes of the two
wavelength coincide will be ______ mm. 31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q34. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities at two points, for the path difference λ

4
and λ

3
(λ being the
wavelength of light used) are I and I respectively. If I denotes the intensity produced by each one of the
1 2 0

individual slits, then I 1 +I 2

I0
= ______ . 30 Jan 2023 (E)

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Q35. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are d distance apart and the
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs
of equal thickness 0. 1 mm but refractive index 1. 51 and 1. 55 are introduced in the
path of beam (λ = 4000 Å) from S and S respectively. The central bright fringe spot
1 2

will shift by ________ number of fringes.

30 Jan 2023 (M)

Q36. As shown in figures, three identical polaroids P1 , P2 and P3 are placed one after another. The pass axis of P2

and P3 are inclined at angle of 60 º and 90 º with respect to axis of P1 . The source S has an intensity of
256 W m
−2
. The intensity of light at point O is _____W m . −2

29 Jan 2023 (M)

Q37. Unpolarised light is incident on the boundary between two dielectric media, whose dielectric constants are 2. 8
(medium –1) and 6. 8 (medium – 2), respectively. To satisfy the condition, so that the reflected and refracted
1

rays are perpendicular to each other, the angle of incidence should be tan
−1
(1 +
10

θ
)
2
, the value of θ is
______. (Given for dielectric media, μ = 1) r

29 Jan 2023 (E)

Q38. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two slits are illuminated with
a light of wavelength 800 nm . The line joining A1 P is
perpendicular to A1 A2 as shown in the figure. If the first
minimum is detected at P , the value of slits separation a will be:
The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm .

29 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 0. 4 mm (2) 0. 5 mm

(3) 0. 2 mm (4) 0. 1 mm

Q39. In Young's double slits experiment, the position of 5th bright fringe from the central maximum is 5 cm . The
distance between slits and screen is 1 m and wavelength of used monochromatic light is 600 nm . The
separation between the slits is: 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 60 μm (2) 48 μm
(3) 12 μm (4) 36 μm

Q40. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : If the Brewster's angle for the light propagating from air to glass is θB , then Brewster's angle for
the light propagating from glass to air is π

2
− θB .

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Statement II : The Brewster's angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan
−1
, where
(μ g ) μg is the
refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are true. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q41. An unpolarised light beam of intensity 2I is passed through a polaroid P and then through another polaroid Q
0

which is oriented in such a way that its passing axis makes an angle of 30° relative to that of P . The intensity
of the emergent light is 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) I0

4
(2) I0

(3) 3I 0

4
(4) 3I 0

Q42. In a Young's double slit experiment, a laser light of 560 nm produces an interference pattern with consecutive
bright fringes' separation of 7. 2 mm . Now another light is used to produce an interference pattern with
consecutive bright fringes' separation of 8. 1 mm . The wavelength of second light is _____ nm.
28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q43. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase
difference between the two beams are π

2
and π

3
at points A and B respectively. The difference between the
resultant intensities at the two points is xI . The value of x will be _____ . 27 Jul 2022 (M)

Q44. Two coherent sources of light interfere. The intensity ratio of two sources is 1 : 4. For this interference pattern
if the value of I max +I min

I max −I min
is equal to 2α+1

β+3
, then α

β
will be 27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 1. 5 (2) 2
(3) 0. 5 (4) 1

Q45. In young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm . If the entire arrangement is placed in water of
refractive index 4

3
, then the fringe width becomes (in mm) 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 16 (2) 9
(3) 48 (4) 12

Q46. Using Young's double slit experiment, a monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å produces fringes of fringe
width 0. 5 mm . If another monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is used and the separation between the
slits is doubled, then the new fringe width will be 29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 0. 5 mm (2) 1. 0 mm

(3) 0. 6 mm (4) 0. 3 mm

Q47. In a double slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some distance
from the plane of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10 −2
m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is
3 × 10
−3
cm. If the distance between the slits is 1 mm , then the wavelength of the light will be____nm.
29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q48. In young's double slit experiment performed using a monochromatic light of wavelength λ, when a glass plate
(μ = 1. 5) of thickness xλ is introduced in the path of the one of the interfering beams, the intensity at the

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position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The value of x will be
28 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1. 5 (4) 0. 5

Q49. In a Young's double slit experiment, an angular width of the fringe is 0. 35° on a screen placed at 2 m away for
particular wavelength of 450 nm . The angular width of the fringe, when whole system is immersed in a
medium of refractive index 7

5
, is 1

α
. The value of α is _____ . 28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q50. In Young's double slit experiment the two slits are 0. 6 mm distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on
a screen at a distance 80 cm from the slits. The first dark fringe is observed on the screen directly opposite to
one of the slits. The wavelength of light will be _____ nm. 27 Jun 2022 (M)

Q51. A wave of frequency = 3

th
GHz , strikes a particle of size ( 1

100
) of λ, then this phenomenon is called as
26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Diffraction (2) Scattering
(3) Reflection (4) Refraction

Q52. A light whose electric field vectors are completely removed by using a good polaroid, allowed to incident on
the surface of the prism at Brewster's angle. Choose the most suitable option for the phenomenon related to the
prism. 25 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) Reflected and refracted rays will be perpendicular to each other.

(2) Wave will propagate along the surface of prism.
(3) No refraction, and there will be total reflection of light.
(4) No reflection. and there will be total transmission of light.
Q53. The two light beams having intensities I and 9I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase
difference between the beams is π

2
at point P and π at point Q. Then the difference between the resultant
intensities at P and Q will be : 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2I (2) 6I
(3) 5I (4) 7I

Q54. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio 4 : 1. And the ratio
I max +I min

I max −I min
is 5

x
. Then, the value of x will be equal to : 25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1

Q55. Sodium light of wavelengths 650 nm and 655 nm is used to study diffraction at a single slit of aperture
0. 5 mm . The distance between the slit and the screen is 2. 0 m. The separation between the positions of the
first maxima of diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases is _____ ×10 −5
m 24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q56. The width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is three times the other slit. If the
amplitude of the light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit-width, the ratio of minimum to maximum
intensity in the interference pattern is x : 4 where x is _______. 01 Sep 2021 (E)

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Q57. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0. 3 mm and the screen is 1. 5 m away from the
plane of slits. Distance between fourth bright fringes on both sides of central bright fringe is 2. 4 cm. The
frequency of light used is x × 10 14
Hz. 31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q58. The light waves from two coherent sources have same intensity I 1 = I2 = I0 . In interference pattern the
intensity of light at minima is zero. What will be the intensity of light at maxima? 27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) I 0 (2) 2I 0

(3) 4I 0 (4) 5I 0

Q59. White light is passed through a double slit and interference is observed on a screen 1. 5 m away. The
separation between the slits is 0. 3 mm. The first violet and red fringes are formed 2. 0 mm and 3. 5 mm

away from the central white fringes. The difference in wavelengths of red and violet light is (in nm).

26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q60. A source of light is placed in front of a screen. The intensity of light on the screen is I . Two Polaroids P and 1

P2 are so placed in between the source of light and screen that the intensity of light on the screen is I

2
. Then
the P , should be rotated by an angle of (degrees) so that the intensity of light on the screen becomes
2
3I

8
.
26 Aug 2021 (E)

Q61. In Young's double slit experiment, if the source of light changes from orange to blue then: 27 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.
(2) the distance between consecutive fringes will decrease.
(3) the distance between consecutive fringes will increase.
(4) the intensity of the minima will increase.

Q62. The difference in the number of waves when yellow light propagates through air and vacuum columns of the
same thickness is one. The thickness of the air column is _____ mm. [Refractive index of air = 1. 0003, the
wavelength of yellow light in vacuum = 6000 A]
∘
27 Jul 2021 (E)

Q63. In the Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits varies in time as d(t) = d 0 + a 0 sin ωt ;
where d 0, ω and a are constants. The difference between the largest fringe width and the smallest fringe
0

width obtained over time is given as: 25 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) 2λD(d 0 )
2
(d −a )
2
(2) 2λDa 0
2
( d −a )
2
0 0 0 0

(3) λD

d
2
a0 (4) λD

d 0 +a 0
0

Q64. In Young's double slit arrangement, slits are separated by a gap of 0. 5 mm , and the screen is placed at a
distance of 0. 5 m from them. The distance between the first and the third bright fringe formed when the slits
o

are illuminated by a monochromatic light of 5890 A is :- 18 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) 1178 × 10
–9
m (2) 1178 × 10
–6
m

(3) 1178 × 10
–12
m (4) 5890 × 10
–7
m

Q65. A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen is placed 10 m away.
The wavelength of light used is x nm. The value of x to the nearest integer is ______. 16 Mar 2021 (M)

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Q66. In a Young's double slit experiment two slits are separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed one meter away.
When a light of wavelength 500 nm is used, the fringe separation will be : 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 1 mm (2) 0. 50 mm

(3) 0. 75 mm (4) 0. 25 mm

Q67. Consider the diffraction pattern obtained from the sunlight incident on a pinhole of diameter 0. 1 μm. If the
diameter of the pinhole is slightly increased, it will affect the diffraction pattern such that 25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) its size increases, and intensity increases (2) its size decreases, and intensity decreases
(3) its size decreases, but intensity increases (4) its size increases, but intensity decreases

Q68. Two coherent light sources having intensity in the ratio 2x produce an interference pattern. The ratio I max −I min

I max +I min

will be 25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 2√ 2x

x+1
(2) √ 2x

2x+1

(3) 2√ 2x

2x+1
(4) √ 2x

x+1

Q69. In a Young's double slit experiment, the width of the one of the slit is three times the other slit. The amplitude
of the light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit-width. Find the ratio of the maximum to the minimum
intensity in the interference pattern. 24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

Q70. If the source of light used in a Young's double slit experiment is changed from red to violet: 24 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) consecutive fringe lines will come closer.
(2) the fringes will become brighter.
(3) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.
(4) the intensity of minima will increase.

Q71. An unpolarized light beam is incident on the polarizer of a polarization experiment and the intensity of light
beam emerging from the analyzer is measured as 100 Lumens. Now, if the analyzer is rotated around the
horizontal axis (direction of light) by 30° in clockwise direction, the intensity of emerging light will be
_______Lumens. 24 Feb 2021 (M)

Q72. In the figure below, P and Q are two equally intense coherent sources emitting
radiation of wavelength 20m. The separation between P and Q is 5m and the phase
of P is ahead of that of Q by 90°. A, B and C are three distinct point of observation,
each equidistant from the midpoint of PQ. The intensities of radiation at A, B, C will
be in the ratio :
06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 0 : 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1 : 0

Q73. A Young's double-slit experiment is performed using monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The intensity of
light at a point on the screen, where the path difference is λ, is K units. The intensity of light at a point where
λ
the path difference is 6
is given by nK

12
, where n is an integer. The value of n is 06 Sep 2020 (E)

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Q74. Two coherent sources of sound, S1 and S2 , produce sound waves of the same wavelength
λ = 1 m are in phase. S1 and S2 are placed 1. 5 m apart (see fig). A listener, located at L ,
directly in front of S , finds that the intensity is at a minimum when he is 2 m away from S .
2 2

The listener moves away from S1 , keeping the distance from S2 fixed. The adjacent
maximum of intensity is observed when the listener is at a distance d from S . Then d is: 1

05 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 12m (2) 5m
(3) 2m (4) 3m

Q75. Orange light of wavelength 6000 × 10

–10
m illuminates a single slit of width 0. 6 × 10 –4
. The maximum
m

possible number of diffraction minima produced on both sides of the central maximum is __________
04 Sep 2020 (E)

Q76. A beam of plane polarized light of large cross-sectional area and uniform intensity of 3 .3 W m
–2
falls
normally on a polarizer (cross-sectional area 3 × 10 –4
m
2
), which rotates about its axis with an angular speed
of 31 .4 rad s
−1
. The energy of light passing through the polarizer per revolution, is close to:
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 1 .0 ×10 −5
J (2) 1. 0 × 10 −4
J

(3) 1. 5 × 10 −4
J (4) 5. 0 × 10 −4
J

Q77. In a Young's double slit experiment, light of 500 nm is used to produce and interference pattern. When the
distance between the slits is 0. 05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the distance
screen is close to : 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 0. 17° (2) 0. 57°
(3) 1. 7° (4) 0. 07°

Q78. Two light waves having the same wavelength λ in vacuum are in phase initially. Then the first wave travels a
path L through a medium of refractive index n while the second wave travels a path of length L through a
1 1 2

medium of refractive index n . After this the phase difference between the two waves is:
2 03 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 2π

λ
(
L2

n1
−
L1

n2
) (2) 2π

λ
(
L1

n1
−
L2

n2
)

(3) 2π

λ
(n 1 L 1 − n 2 L 2 ) (4) 2π

λ
(n 2 L 1 − n 1 L 2 )

Q79. Interference fringes are observed on a screen by illuminating two thin slits 1 mm apart with a light source
(λ = 632. 8 nm) . The distance between the screen and the slits is 100 cm . If a bright fringe is observed on a
screen at distance of 1. 27 mm from the central bright fringe, then the path difference between the waves,
which are reaching this point from the slits is close to : 02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 1. 27μm (2) 2 . 87 nm
(3) 2 nm (4) 2. 05 μm

Q80. In a Young's double slit experiment,16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the screen when light of
wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm , the number of fringes observed
in the same segment of the screen would be : 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 24 (2) 30
(3) 18 (4) 28

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Q81. In a Young's double slit experiment 15 fringes are observed on a small portion of the screen when light of
wavelength 500 nm is used. Ten fringes are observed on the same section of the screen when another light
source of wavelength λ is used. Then the value of λ is (in nm ) __________. 09 Jan 2020 (E)

Q82. The aperture diameter of a telescope is 5m . The separation between the moon and the earth is 4 × 10 5
km .
With light of wavelength of 5500Å , the minimum separation between objects on the surface of moon, so that
they are just resolved, is close to: 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 60m (2) 20m
(3) 200m (4) 600m

Q83. In a double – slit experiment, at a certain point on the screen the path difference between the two interfering
waves is 1

8
th of a wavelength. The ratio of the intensity of light at that point to that at the center of a bright
fringe is: 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 0.853 (2) 0.672
(3) 0.568 (4) 0.760

Q84. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.15mm . In the experiment, a source of
light of wavelength 589nm is used and the interference pattern is observed on a screen kept 1.5m away. The
separation between the successive bright fringes on the screen is: 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 6.9mm (2) 3.9mm
(3) 5.9mm (4) 4.9mm

Q85. Visible light of wavelength 6000 × 10 −8

cm falls normally on a single slit and produces a diffraction pattern. It
is found that the second diffraction minimum is at 60 from the central maximum. If the first minimum is
o

produced at θ 1, then θ is close to

1 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 20 o
(2) 30 o

(3) 25 o
(4) 45 o

Q86. A polarizer - analyser set is adjusted such that the intensity of light coming out of the analyser is just 36% of
the original intensity. Assuming that the polarizer - analyser set does not absorb any light, the angle by which
the analyser needs to be rotated further, to reduce the output intensity to zero, is (sin −1
(
3

5
) = 37°)

07 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) 53 o
(2) 37 o

(3) 90 o
(4) 45 o

Q87. A system of three polarizers P 1

, P2 , P3 is set up such that the pass axis of P is crossed with respect to that of
3

P1 . The pass axis of P is inclined at 60 to the pass axis of P . When a beam of unpolarized light of intensity
2
o
3

Io is incident on P , the intensity of light transmitted by the three polarizers is I . The ratio (I
1 o
/I) equals
(nearly): 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 5.33 (2) 16.00
(3) 1.80 (4) 10.67

Q88. In a double slit experiment, when a thin film of thickness t having refractive index μ is introuduced in front of
one of the slits, the maximum at the centre of the fringe pattern shifts by one fringe width. The value of t is (λ
is the wavelength of the light used): 12 Apr 2019 (M)

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λ λ
(1) 2(μ−1)
(2) (2μ−1)
2λ λ
(3) (μ−1)
(4) (μ−1)

Q89. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the ratio of the slit's width is 4 : 1 . The ratio of the intensity of maxima
to minima, close to the central fringe on the screen, will be 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 25 : 9 (2) 9 : 1

(3) (√3 + 1) (4) 4

4
: 1
: 16

Q90. The figure shows a Young's double slit experimental setup. It is observed that when a thin
transparent sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ is put in front of one of the slits, the central
maximum gets shifted by a distance equal to n fringe width. If the wavelength of light used is λ
then t will be:
09 Apr 2019 (M)
λ λ
(1) a(
D

μ−1) (2) (
n

μ−1)
λ 2Dλ
(3) 2n

(μ−1)
(4) a(μ−1)

Q91. In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is a1

a2
=
1

3
. The ratio of maximum and
minimum intensities of fringes will be: 08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 4 (2) 9
(3) 2 (4) 18

Q92. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303 A) falls on a double slit having a separation of 19.44μm and a
width of 4.05μm. The number of bright fringes between the first and the second diffraction minima is
11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 9

Q93. In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen, betwen two interfering
waves is 1

8
th of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is
close to: 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 0.74 (2) 0.85
(3) 0.94 (4) 0.8

Q94. In a Young's double slit experiment slit separation 0.1 mm, one observes a bright fringe at angle 1

40
rad by
using light of wavelength λ . When the light of wavelength λ is used a bright fringe is seen at the same angle
1 2

in the same set up. Given that λ and λ are in visible range (380 nm to 740 nm), their values are:
1 2

10 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 400 nm, 500 nm (2) 380 nm, 525 nm

(3) 625 nm, 500 nm (4) 380 nm, 500 nm

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Q95. Consider a Young's double slit experiment as shown in figure.

What should be the slit separation d in terms of wavelength λ such
that the first minima occurs directly in front of the slit (S )? 1

10 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) λ
(2) λ

(5−√ 2) 2(√ 5−2)

(3) λ
(4) λ

√ 5−2
2(5−√ 2)

Q96. Two coherent sources produce waves of different intensities which interfere. After interference, the ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16. The intensity of the waves are in the ratio:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 25 : 9 (2) 16 : 9
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 4 : 1

Q97. In a young's double slit experiment, the slits are placed 0.320 mm apart. Light of wavelength λ = 500 nm is
incident on the slits. The total number of bright fringes that are observed in the angular range −30 o
≤ θ ≤ 30
o

is: 09 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 321 (2) 641
(3) 320 (4) 640

Q98. Consider a tank made of glass (refractive index 1.5 ) with a thick bottom. It is filled with a
liquid of refractive index μ. A student finds that, irrespective of what the incident angle i

(see figure) is for a beam of light entering the liquid, the light reflected from the liquid
glass interface is never completely polarized. For this to happen, the minimum value of μ

is:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 3

√5
(2) 4

(3) 5

√3
(4) √ 5

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (200) 2. (4) 3. (6) 4. (2) 5. (8) 6. (2) 7. (10) 8. (275)
9. (3) 10. (9) 11. (2) 12. (125) 13. (3) 14. (13) 15. (1) 16. (1)
17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (30) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4)
25. (4) 26. (30) 27. (4) 28. (462) 29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3)
33. (48) 34. (3) 35. (10) 36. (24) 37. (7) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (630) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (600) 48. (2)
49. (4) 50. (450) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (5) 58. (3) 59. (300) 60. (30) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (2)
65. (600) 66. (4) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (1) 71. (75) 72. (2)
73. (9) 74. (2) 75. (200) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (4)
81. (750) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (4)
89. (2) 90. (2) 91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (1)
97. (2) 98. (1)

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Q1. The following figure represents two biconvex lenses L1 and L2 having focal
length 10 cm and 15 cm respectively. The distance between L 1 &L 2 is :

09 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 10 cm (2) 35 cm
(3) 25 cm (4) 15 cm

Q2. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave lens, image is formed at the
centre of curvature of the lens on the other side.
Statement (II) : Concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q3. Critical angle of incidence for a pair of optical media is 45 . The refractive indices of first and second media are
∘

in the ratio: 08 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) 1 : √2 (2) √2 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

Q4. The position of the image formed by the combination of lenses is :

08 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 15 cm (right of second lens) (2) 30 cm (left of third lens)
(3) 15 cm (left of second lens) (4) 30 cm (right of third lens)

Q5. For the thin convex lens, the radii of curvature are at 15 cm and 30 cm respectively. The focal length the lens is
20 cm . The refractive index of the material is : 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.8
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.4

Q6. The refractive index of prism is μ = √3 and the ratio of the angle of minimum deviation to the angle of prism
is one. The value of angle of prism is _______. 06 Apr 2024 (M)

Q7. In finding out refractive index of glass slab the following observations were made through travelling
microscope 50 vernier scale division = 49MSD; 20 divisions on main scale in each cm
For mark on paper MSR = 8.45 cm, VC = 26
For mark on paper seen through slab MSR = 7.12 cm, V C = 41

For powder particle on the top surface of the glass slab MSR = 4.05 cm, VC = 1

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(MSR = Main Scale Reading, VC = Vernier Coincidence)

Refractive index of the glass slab is : 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 1.52 (2) 1.35
(3) 1.42 (4) 1.24

Q8. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the white light passed through a prism, the red light bends lesser than yellow and violet.
Statement II : The refractive indices are different for different wavelengths in dispersive medium. In the light of
the above statements, chose the correct answer from the options given below: 05 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q9. An effective power of a combination of 5 identical convex lenses which are kept in contact along the principal
axis is 25D. Focal length of each of the convex lens is : 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 20 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 500 cm (4) 25 cm

Q10. A light ray is incident on a glass slab of thickness 4√3 cm and refractive index √2 . The angle of incidence is
equal to the critical angle for the glass slab with air. The lateral displacement of ray after passing through glass
slab is _____ cm. ( Given sin 15 ∘
= 0.25) 04 Apr 2024 (E)

Q11. The distance between object and its 3 times magnified virtual image as produced by a convex lens is 20 cm.

The focal length of the lens used is ________ cm. 01 Feb 2024 (M)

Q12. Light from a point source in air falls on a convex curved surface of radius 20 cm and refractive index 1. 5. If
the source is located at 100 cm from the convex surface, the image will be formed at ______ cm from the
object. 31 Jan 2024 (E)

Q13. The refractive index of a prism with apex angle A is cot . The angle of minimum deviation is :
A

31 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) δ m = 180°−A (2) δ m = 180°−3A

(3) δ m = 180°−4A (4) δ m = 180°−2A

Q14. The distance between object and its two times magnified real image as produced by a convex lens is 45 cm .
The focal length of the lens used is ________cm. 30 Jan 2024 (M)

Q15. In an experiment to measure the focal length (f ) of a convex lens, the magnitude of
object distance(x) and the image distance(y) are measured with reference to the
focal point of the lens. The y − x plot is shown in figure. The focal length of the
lens is _____ cm.

30 Jan 2024 (E)

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Q16. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object. The object
distance is : 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) −45 cm (2) 45 cm

(3) −15 cm (4) 15 cm

Q17. If the distance between object and its two times magnified virtual image produced by a curved mirror is 15 cm

, the focal length of the mirror must be : 29 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 15 cm (2) −12 cm

(3) −10 cm (4) 10

3
cm

Q18. A biconvex lens of refractive index 1. 5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when immersed in a
liquid of refractive index 1. 6 will be: 29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) −16 cm (2) −160 cm

(3) +160 cm (4) +16 cm

Q19. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices 8

5
and 3

2
respectively are put in a beaker
as shown in the figure. The height of each column is 6 cm . A coin is placed at the
bottom of the beaker. For near normal vision, the apparent depth of the coin is α

4
cm

. The value of α is _______.

27 Jan 2024 (M)

Q20. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot( A

2
) , where A is the angle of prism then the angle of
minimum deviation will be 27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) π − 2 A (2) π

2
− 2 A

(3) π − A (4) π

2
− A

Q21. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an image of an extended source of light on a photoelectric cell. A
current I is produced. The lens is replaced by another convex lens having the same diameter but focal length
20 cm . The photoelectric current now is 27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) I

2
(2) 4I
(3) 2I (4) I

Q22. The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in an equilateral hollow prism is √2. The angle of minimum
deviation for the liquid will be _______°. 15 Apr 2023 (M)

Q23. A vessel of depth d is half filled with oil of refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with water of
refractive index n . The apparent depth of this vessel when viewed from above will be-
2

13 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) 2d(n 1 +n 2 )

n 1 +n 2
(2) d(n 1 +n 2 )

2n 1 n 2

(3) dn 1 n 2

2(n 1 +n 2 )
(4) dn 1 n 2

(n 1 +n 2 )

Q24. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the principal
axis. The power of each lens after cut is _____ D. 13 Apr 2023 (E)

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Q25. A fish rising vertically upward with a uniform velocity of 8 m s –1

, observes that a bird is
diving vertically downward towards the fish with the velocity of 12 m s
–1
. If the
refractive index of water is 4

3
, then the actual velocity of the diving bird to pick the fish,
will be______m s −1
.

13 Apr 2023 (M)

Q26. Two convex lenses of focal length 20 cm each are placed coaxially with a separation of 60 cm between them.
The image of the distant object formed by the combination is at _____ cm from the first lens.
12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q27. An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance of the bubble is 12 cm .
When viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as 4 . If the side of the
cm

ice cube is 24 cm , the refractive index of the ice cube is 12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 3

2
(2) 2

(3) 6

5
(4) 4

Q28. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of the
ray after reflection is: 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 120° (2) 110°
(3) 140° (4) 130°

Q29. The critical angle for a denser-rarer interface is 45°. The speed of light in rarer medium is 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
. The
speed of light in the denser medium is: 11 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 3. 12 × 10 7
m s
−1
(2) 5 × 10 7
m s
−1

(3) 2. 12 × 10 8
m s
−1
(4) √2 × 10 8
m s
−1

Q30. The radius of curvature of each surface of a convex lens having refractive index 1. 8 is 20 cm . The lens is now
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1. 5. The ratio of power of lens in air to its power in the liquid will be
x : 1 . The value of x is 11 Apr 2023 (M)

Q31. As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed at a height of 50 cm from the
bottom of tank containing water (μ = 4

3
. The height of water in the tank is
)

8 cm . A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the water tank. The distance
of image of the bulb formed by mirror from the bottom of the tank is
______ cm.

11 Apr 2023 (E)

Q32. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image is formed by
the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by which the position
of image would be shifted, will be 10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 4 cm towards mirror (2) 8 cm towards mirror
(3) 8 cm away from mirror (4) 2 cm towards mirror

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Q33. A point object O is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex
lenses L1 and L2 with focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The
distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the object is placed 6 cm away
from lens L1 as shown in the figure. The distance between the object and
the image formed by the system of two lenses is _____ cm

10 Apr 2023 (E)

Q34. Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm. A point object O is placed at a
distance of 2 cm from mirror A. The distance of the second nearest image behind mirror A from
the mirror A is _______ cm.

08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q35. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to:

08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) reduce the problem of mechanical support (2) make chromatic aberration zero
(3) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube (4) remove spherical aberration

Q36. Two transparent media having refractive indices 1. 0 and 1. 5 are separated by a spherical refracting surface of
radius of curvature 30 cm . The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and a point object is
placed on the principal axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the surface. The distance
of image from the pole of the surface is cm. 08 Apr 2023 (E)

Q37. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength λ1 and frequency ν1 in air enters another medium. If the angle
of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45° and 30° respectively, then the wavelength λ2 and
frequency ν of the refracted wave are:
2

06 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) λ 2 = √ 2λ 1 , ν 2 = ν 1 (2) λ 2 = λ1 , ν2 =
1

√2
ν1

(3) λ 2 = λ 1 , ν 2 = √ 2ν 1 (4) λ 2 =
1

√2
λ1 , ν2 = ν1

Q38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The phase difference of two light waves change if they travel through different media having
same thickness, but different indices of refraction.
Reason R: The wavelengths of waves are different in different media.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

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Q39. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2. 15 m within water
when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30° with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled to a height of
1. 5 m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimeters is (n w =
4

3
) ________.

06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q40. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0. 2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical
bench. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens are placed at
80 cm mark and 1 m mark, respectively. The image of the object pin on the other side of lens coincides with
image pin that is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation of focal length is: 06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 0. 85 (2) 1. 70
(3) 1. 02 (4) 0. 51

Q41. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25 cm from the pole in front of a concave mirror having
radius of curvature 40 . The distance between images formed by the mirror is:
cm 01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm

(3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm

Q42. A thin cylindrical rod of length 10 cm is placed horizontally on the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal
length 20 . The rod is placed in a such a way that mid point of the rod is at 40
cm cm from the pole of mirror.
The length of the image formed by the mirror will be x

3
cm . The value of x is ______. 01 Feb 2023 (M)

Q43. In a medium the speed of light wave decreases to 0. 2 times to its speed in free space. The ratio of relative
permittivity to the refractive index of the medium is x : 1. The value of x is ______.
(Given speed of light in free space = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
and for the given medium μ r
= 1 )
31 Jan 2023 (M)

Q44. A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom of a bucket. If liquid with refractive index 5

3
is poured
inside the bucket, then microscope have to be raised by 30 cm to focus the object again. The height of the
liquid in the bucket is : 31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 75 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 18 cm (4) 12 cm

Q45. In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, image of an object placed at
40 cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at distance 120 cm from the pole of the mirror. These distances
are measured with a modified scale in which there are 20 small divisions in 1 cm . The value of error in
measurement of focal length of the mirror is K
1
cm . The value of K is ______. 30 Jan 2023 (M)

Q46. A person has been using spectacles of power −1. 0 diopter for distant vision and a separate reading glass of
power 2. 0 diopters. What is the least distance of distinct vision for this person: 30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 10 cm (2) 40 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 50 cm

Q47. A thin prism P with an angle 6° and made of glass of refractive index 1. 54 is combined with another prism
1

P2 made from glass of refractive index 1. 72 to produce dispersion without average deviation. The angle of
prism P is :
2 30 Jan 2023 (E)

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(1) 6° (2) 1. 3°

(3) 7. 8° (4) 4. 5°

Q48*. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better analysis and to improve its
resolving power he should. (Select the best option) 29 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) Increase the wave length of the light
(2) Increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
(3) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
(4) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens

Q49. The light rays from an object have been reflected towards an observer from a standard flat mirror, the image
observed by the observer are :- A. Real B. Erect C. Smaller in size than object D. Laterally inverted
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) B and D only (2) B and C only
(3) A and D only (4) A, C and D only

Q50. A ray of light is incident from air on a glass plate having thickness √3 cm and refractive index √2. The angle
of incidence of a ray is equal to the critical angle for glass-air interface. The lateral displacement of the ray
when it passes through the plate is ____ × 10 −2
cm . (given sin 15°= 0. 26 ) 25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q51. An object is placed on the principal axis of convex lens of focal length 10 cm as shown. A
plane mirror is placed on the other side of lens at a distance of 20 cm . The image produced
by the plane mirror is 5 cm inside the mirror. The distance of the object from the lens is
____ cm.
25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q52. A convex lens of refractive index 1. 5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The change in focal
length of the lens will be_____cm.
(Given refractive index of water= 4

3
)
24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q53. When a beam of white light is allowed to pass through convex lens parallel to principal axis, the different
colours of light converge at different point on the principle axis after refraction. This is called :
24 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) Scattering (2) Chromatic aberration
(3) Spherical aberration (4) Polarisation

Q54. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano-concave lens and a thin plano-
convex lens is used to image an object placed at infinity. The radius of curvature of both
the lenses is 30 cm and refraction index of the material for both the lenses is 1. 75. Both
the lenses are placed at distance of 40 cm from each other. Due to the combination, the
image of the object is formed at distance x = ______ cm, from concave lens.
24 Jan 2023 (M)

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Q55. Light enters from air into a given medium at an angle of 45° with interface of the air-medium surface. After
refraction, the light ray is deviated through an angle of 15° from its original direction. The refractive index of
the medium is : 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 1. 732 (2) 1. 333
(3) 1. 414 (4) 2. 732

Q56. The X − Y plane be taken as the boundary between two transparent media M and M . M in Z 1 2 1 ≥ 0 has a
refractive index of √2 and M with Z 2 < 0 has a refractive index of √3. A ray of light travelling in M along 1

→
the direction given by the vector A = 4√3i − 3√3j − 5k̂, is incident on the plane of separation. The value of
difference between the angle of incident in M and the angle of refraction in M will be _____ degree.
1 2

29 Jul 2022 (M)

Q57. As shown in the figure, after passing through the medium 1. The speed of light v2 in
medium 2 will be : (Given c = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
)

28 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) 1. 0 × 10 8
m s
−1
(2) 0. 5 × 10 8
m s
−1

(3) 1. 5 × 10 8
m s
−1
(4) 3. 0 × 10 8
m s
−1

Q58. In an experiment with a convex lens. The plot of the image distance (v ) against the object distance (μ )
′ ′

measured from the focus gives a curve v μ ′ ′

= 225 . If all the distances are measured in cm. The magnitude of
the focal length of the lens is _____ cm. 28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q59. In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope, the distance between objective and eye piece is 30 cm . The
focal length of the objective, when the angular magnification of the telescope is 2, will be: 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm

(3) 10 cm (4) 15 cm

Q60. An object 'O' is placed at a distance of 100 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature
200 cm as shown in the figure. The object starts moving towards the mirror at a speed 2 cm s
−1
.
The position of the image from the mirror after 10 s will be at _____ cm.
28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q61. The power of a lens (biconvex) is 1. 25 m −1

in particular medium. Refractive index of the lens is 1. 5 and radii
of curvature are 20 cm and 40 cm respectively. The refractive index of surrounding medium: 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 1. 0 (2) 9

(3) 3

2
(4) 4

Q62*. A microscope was initially placed in air (refractive index 1). It is then immersed in oil (refractive index 2).
For a light whose wavelength in air is λ, calculate the change of microscope's resolving power due to oil and
choose the correct option 27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) Resolving power will be 1

4
in the oil than it was in the air
(2) Resolving power will be twice in the oil than it was in the air.
(3) Resolving power will be four times in the oil than it was in the air.
(4) Resolving power will be 1

2
in the oil than it was in the air.

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Q63. A thin prism of angle 6° and refractive index for yellow light (n Y )1. 5 is combined
with another prism of angle 5° and n Y = 1. 55 . The combination produces no
°
dispersion. The net average deviation (δ) produced by the combination is (
1

x
) . The
value of x is _____ .

27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q64. Light travels in two media M and M with speeds 1. 5 × 10

1 2
8
m s
−1
and 2. 0 × 10 8
m s
−1
respectively. The
critical angle between them is 26 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) tan −1
(
3
) (2) tan −1
(
2

3
)
√7

(3) cos −1
(
3

4
) (4) sin −1
(
2

3
)

Q65. In the given figure, the face AC of the equilateral prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive
index n. For incident angle 60° at the side AC , the refracted light beam just grazes along
face AC . The refractive index of the liquid n =
√x

4
. The value of x is _____. (Given
refractive index of glass = 1. 5)
26 Jul 2022 (E)

Q66. The graph between 1

u
and 1

v
for a thin convex lens in order to determine
its focal length is plotted as shown in the figure. The refractive index of
lens is 1. 5 and its both the surfaces have same radius of curvatures R .
The value of R will be _____ cm.
(Where u = object distance, v = image distance)

26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q67. Which of the following statement is correct? 25 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) In primary rainbow, observer sees red colour on the top and violet on the bottom
(2) In primary rainbow, observer sees violet colour on the top and red on the bottom
(3) In primary rainbow, light wave suffers total internal reflection twice before coming out of water drops
(4) Primary rainbow is less bright than secondary rainbow.

Q68. Time taken by light to travel in two different materials A and B of refractive indices μ and μ of same A B

thickness is t and t respectively. If t

1 2 2 − t 1 = 5 × 10
−10
s and the ratio of μ to μ is 1 : 2. Then the
A B

thickness of material, in meter is: (Given v and v are velocities of light in A and B materials respectively).
A B

25 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) 5 × 10 −10
vA m (2) 5 × 10 −10
m

(3) 1. 5 × 10 10
m (4) 5 × 10 −10
vB m

Q69. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in front of convex mirror with principal axis coinciding each
other. The distance between the lens and mirror is 10 cm . A point object is placed on principal axis at a

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distance of 60 cm from the convex lens. The image formed by combination coincides the object itself. The
focal length of the convex mirror is _____ cm. 25 Jul 2022 (E)

Q70. For an object placed at a distance 2. 4 m from a lens, a sharp focused image is observed on a screen placed at a
distance 12 cm from the lens. A glass plate of refractive index 1. 5 and thickness 1 cm is introduced between
lens and screen such that the glass plate plane faces parallel to the screen. By what distance should the object
be shifted so that a sharp focused image is observed again on the screen? 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 0. 8 m (2) 3. 2 m
(3) 1. 2 m (4) 5. 6 m

Q71. The speed of light in media ′A′ and ′B′ are 2. 0 × 10

10
cm s
−1
and 1. 5 × 10
10
cm s
−1
respectively. A ray of
light enters from the medium B to A at an incident angle′θ′. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, then
29 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) θ = sin −1
(
4

3
) (2) θ > sin −1
(
2

3
)

(3) θ > sin −1

(
3

4
) (4) θ < sin −1
(
3

4
)

Q72. A parallel beam of light is allowed to fall on a transparent spherical globe of diameter 30 cm and refractive
index 1. 5. The distance from the centre of the globe at which beam of light can converge is _____ mm.
29 Jun 2022 (M)

Q73*. The aperture of the objective is 24. 4 cm . The resolving power of this telescope, if a light of wavelength
∘

2440 A is used to see the object will be 28 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) 8. 1 × 10 6
(2) 10. 0 × 10 7

(3) 8. 2 × 10 5
(4) 1. 0 × 10 −8

Q74. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot( A

2
). Then the
angle of minimum deviation will be 28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 180°−2A (2) 90°−A
(3) 180°+2A (4) 180°−3A

Q75. Consider a light ray travelling in air is incident into a medium of refractive index √2n. The incident angle is
twice that of refracting angle. Then, the angle of incidence will be 27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) sin −1
√n (2) cos −1
(
n
)
√2

(3) sin −1
(√ 2n) (4) 2 cos −1
(√
n

2
)

Q76. A convex lens has power P . It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further one
piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis (as
shown in figures). Choose the incorrect option for the reported pieces.

27 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) Power of L 1 =
P

2
(2) Power of L 2 =
P

(3) Power of L 3 =
P

2
(4) Power of L 1 = P

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Q77. A light ray is incident, at an incident angle θ1 , on the system of two plane mirrors M1

and M2 having an inclination angle 75° between them (as shown in figure). After
reflecting from mirror M1 it gets reflected back by the mirror M2 with an angle of
reflection 30°. The total deviation of the ray will be _____ degree.
26 Jun 2022 (M)

Q78. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of √7 m. The refractive index of
water is 4

3
. The area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out is xπ m . The 2

value of x is _____ . 26 Jun 2022 (E)

Q79. The difference of speed of light in the two media A and B(v A − vB ) is 2. 6 × 10 7
m s
−1
. If the refractive
index of medium B is 1. 47, then the ratio of refractive index of medium B to medium A is: (Given : speed of
light in vacuum c = 3 × 10 8
m s
−1
) 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 1. 303 (2) 1. 318
(3) 1. 13 (4) 0. 12

Q80. A light wave travelling linearly in a medium of dielectric constant 4, incidents on the horizontal interface
separating medium with air. The angle of incidence for which the total intensity of incident wave will be
reflected back into the same medium will be :
(Given : relative permeability of medium μ r = 1 ) 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 10° (2) 20°
(3) 30° (4) 60°

Q81. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 60° on the glass slab of refractive index √3. After refraction,
the light ray emerges out from other parallel faces and lateral shift between incident ray and emergent ray is
4√ 3 cm . The thickness of the glass slab is _____ cm. 24 Jun 2022 (E)

Q82. Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1. 5 are in contact with each
other. The space between the lenses is filled with a liquid of refractive index 1. 25. The focal length of the
combination is _____ cm. 24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q83. An object is placed at the focus of concave lens having focal length f . What is the magnification and distance
of the image from the optical centre of the lens? 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 1

4
,
f

4
(2) 1

2
,
f

(3) Very high, ∞ (4) 1, ∞

Q84. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 are at right angle to each other shown. A point source P is
placed at a and 2a meter away from M and M respectively. The shortest distance between the
1 2

images thus formed is: (Take √5 = 2. 3)

31 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 2. 3 a (2) 2√10a
(3) 4. 6a (4) 3a

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Q85. Cross-section view of a prism is the equilateral triangle ABC shown in the figure. The
minimum deviation is observed using this prism when the angle of incidence is equal to the
prism angle. The time taken by light to travel from P (midpoint of BC ) to A is _____
(Given, speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 10 and cos 30°= )
−10 8 −1 √3
×10 s. m s
2

31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q86. An object is placed beyond the centre of curvature C of the given concave mirror. If the distance of the object
is d from C and the distance of the image formed is d from C, the radius of curvature of this mirror is:
1 2

27 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 2 d1 d2

d 1 +d 2
(2) 2 d1 d2

d 1 −d 2

(3) d1 d2

d 1 +d 2
(4) d1 d2

d 1 −d 2

Q87. Find the distance of the image from object O, formed by the combination of lenses
in the figure:

27 Aug 2021 (M)

(1) 75 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) infinity (4) 20 cm

Q88. Curved surfaces of a plano-convex lens of refractive index μ1 and a plano-concave lens of refractive
index μ2 have equal radius of curvature as shown in figure. Find the ratio of radius of curvature to the
focal length of the combined lenses
27 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) μ 2 −μ 1
1
(2) μ 1 −μ 2
1

(3) μ 2
− μ1 (4) μ 1
− μ2

Q89. Car B overtakes another car A at a relative speed of 40 m s . How fast will the image of car B appear to
−1

move in the mirror of focal length 10 cm fitted in car A, when the car B is 1. 9 m away from the car A?
26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 0. 1 m s −1
(2) 0. 2 m s −1

(3) 40 m s −1
(4) 4 m s −1

Q90. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens. A

convex mirror of focal length 15 cm is placed on another side of
the lens at 8 cm as shown in the figure. The image of the object
coincides with the object. When the convex mirror is removed, a
real and inverted image is formed at a position. The distance of
the image from the object will be ___ cm

26 Aug 2021 (E)

Q91. The expected graphical representation of the variation of angle of deviation ' δ ' with angle of incidence 'i' in a
prism is : 27 Jul 2021 (E)

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Ray Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q92. A prism of refractive index n1 and another prism of refractive index n2 are stuck
together (as shown in the figure). n1 and n2 depend on λ, the wavelength of light,
−14 −14

according to the relation n 1 = 1. 2 +

10.8×10

λ
2
and n 2 = 1. 45 +
1.8×10

λ
2
. The
wavelength for which rays incident at any angle on the interface BC pass through
without bending at that interface will be ____ nm.
27 Jul 2021 (M)

Q93. A ray of laser of a wavelength 630 nm is incident at an angle of 30° at the diamond-air interface. It is going
from diamond to air. The refractive index of diamond is 2. 42 and that of air is 1. Choose the correct option.
25 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) Angle of refraction is 24. 41°. (2) Angle of refraction is 30°.
(3) Refraction is not possible. (4) Angle of refraction is 53. 4°.

Q94. A prism of refractive index μ and angle of prism A is placed in the position of minimum angle of deviation. If
minimum angle of deviation is also A, then in terms of refractive, 25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 2 cos (2) sin
−1 μ −1 μ
( ) ( )
2 2

(3) sin (4) cos −1 μ

−1 μ−1 ( )
(√ ) 2
2

Q95. A ray of light entering from air into a denser medium of refractive index 4

3
, as
shown in figure.
The light ray suffers total internal reflection at the adjacent surface as shown. The
maximum value of angle θ should be equal to:

25 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) sin −1 √7

3
(2) sin −1 √5

(3) sin −1 √7

4
(4) sin −1 √5

Q96. A ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i.

The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90° with each other. The angle of
reflection and refraction are respectively r and r . The critical angle is given by,
′

22 Jul 2021 (M)

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Ray Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) sin −1
(cot r) (2) tan −1
(sin i)

(3) sin −1 ′
(tanr ) (4) sin −1
(tan r)

Q97. A ray of light passing through a prism (μ = √3) suffers minimum deviation. It is found that the angle of
incidence is double the angle of refraction within the prism. Then, the angle of prism is (in degrees).
22 Jul 2021 (M)

Q98. Region I and II are separated by a spherical surface of radius 25 cm . An object is

kept in region I at a distance of 40 cm from the surface. The distance of the image
from the surface is:

20 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) 55. 44 cm (2) 9. 52 cm

(3) 18. 23 cm (4) 37. 58 cm

Q99. An object viewed from a near point distance of 25 cm , using a microscopic lens with magnification 6, gives an
unresolved image. A resolved image is observed at infinite distance with a total magnification double the
earlier using an eyepiece along with the given lens and a tube of length 0. 6 m, if the focal length of the
eyepiece is equal to ____ cm. 20 Jul 2021 (M)

Q100. Your friend is having eye sight problem. She is not able to see clearly a distant uniform window mesh and it
appears to her as nonuniform and distorted. The doctor diagnosed the problem as : 18 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) Astigmatism (2) Myopia with Astigmatism
(3) Presbyopia with Astigmatism (4) Myopia and hypermetropia

Q101. Three rays of light, namely red (R) , green (G) and blue (B) are incident on the face PQ

of a right angled prism P QR as shown in figure. The refractive indices of the material of
the prism for red, green and blue wavelength are 1. 27, 1. 42 and 1. 49 respectively. The
colour of the ray(s) emerging out of the face P R is :
18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) green (2) red
(3) blue and green (4) blue

Q102. The image of an object placed in air formed by a convex refracting surface is at a distance of 10 m behind the
rd

surface. The image is real and is at 2

3
of the distance of the object from the surface. The wavelength of light
inside the surface is 2

3
times the wavelength in air. The radius of the curved surface is x

13
m, the value of x
is ______ . 17 Mar 2021 (E)

Q103. The thickness at the centre of a plano convex lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If the speed of light in
the material of the lens is 2 × 10 8
m s
−1
. The focal length of the lens is ___________. 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 0. 30 cm (2) 15 cm

(3) 1. 5 cm (4) 30 cm

Q104. The refractive index of a converging lens is 1. 4. What will be the focal length of this lens if it is placed in a
medium of same refractive index ? (Assume the radii of curvature of the faces of lens are R and R 1 2

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Ray Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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respectively) 16 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) 1 (2) Infinite
(3) R1 R2

R 1 −R 2
(4) Zero

Q105. The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when

(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
(D) When angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) Statements (A),(B) and (C) are true (2) Only statement (D) is true
(3) Only statements (A) and (B) are true (4) Statements (B) and (C) are true

Q106. A deviation of 2° is produced in the yellow ray when prism of crown and flint glass are achromatically
combined. Taking dispersive powers of crown and flint glass are 0. 02 and 0. 03 respectively and refractive
index for yellow light for these glasses are 1. 5 and 1. 6 respectively. The refracting angles for crown glass
prism will be ________° (in degree)
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q107. A short straight object of height 100 cm lies before the central axis of a spherical mirror whose focal length
has absolute value |f | = 40 cm. The image of object produced by the mirror is of height 25 cm and has the
same orientation of the object. One may conclude from the information: 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) Image is real, same side of convex mirror.
(2) Image is virtual, opposite side of concave mirror.
(3) Image is real, same side of concave mirror.
(4) Image is virtual, opposite side of convex mirror.

Q108*. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : An electron microscope can achieve better resolving power than an optical microscope.
Reason R : The de Broglie's wavelength of the electrons emitted from an electron gun is much less than
wavelength of visible light.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false.

Q109. The incident ray, reflected ray and the outward drawn normal are denoted by the unitvectors → → →
a, band c

respectively. Then choose the correct relation for these vectors. 26 Feb 2021 (E)

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Ray Optics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1)→ → →
b = a + 2c
(2)→ → →
b = 2a + c

(3)→ → → →→
b = a − 2(a ⋅ c)c
(4)→ → →
b = a − c

Q110. A point source of light S , placed at a distance 60 cm infront of the centre of a

plane mirror of width 50 cm , hangs vertically on a wall. A man walks infront of
the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance 1. 2 m from it (see in
the figure). The distance between the extreme points where he can see the image
of the light source in the mirror is__cm
26 Feb 2021 (E)

Q111. Given below are two statements : one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion A: For a simple microscope, the angular size of the object equals the angular size of the image.
Reason R: Magnification is achieved as the small object can be kept much closer to the eye than 25 cm and
hence it subtends a large angle. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
26 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q112. The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or at 10 cm from the
lens. The focal length of convex lens is 25 Feb 2021 (M)

Q113. The focal length f is related to the radius of curvature r of the spherical convex mirror by: 24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) f = −
1

2
r (2) f = +
1

2
r

(3) f = r (4) f = −r

Q114. A point like object is placed at distance of 1m in front of a convex lens of focal length 0. 5m. A plane mirror
is placed at a distance of 2m behind the lens. The position and nature of the image formed by the system is
06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2. 6m from the mirror, real (2) 1m from the mirror, virtual
(3) 1m from the mirror, real (4) 2. 6m from the mirror, virtual

Q115. A double convex lens has power P and same radii of curvature r of both the surfaces. The radius of curvature
of a surface of a plano-convex lens made of the same material with power 1. 5 P is : 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 2R (2) R

(3) 3R

2
(4) R

Q116. A prism of angle A = 1° μ = 1. 5. A good estimate for the minimum angle of deviation (in degrees) is close
to N

10
. Value of N is … … …
05 Sep 2020 (E)

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Q117. For a concave lens of focal length f , the relation between object and image distance u and v, respectively,
from its pole can best be represented by (u = v is the reference line): 05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q118. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 1 cm and an eye piece of focal length
5 cm with a separation of 10 cm. The distance between an object and the objective lens, at which the strain
on the eye is minimum is n

40
cm. The value of n is....... 05 Sep 2020 (M)

Q119. In a compound microscope, the magnified virtual image is formed at a distance of 25 cm from the eye-piece.
The focal length of its objective lens is 1 cm. If the magnification is 100 and the tube length of the
microscope is 20 cm, then the focal length of the eye-piece lens (in cm) is ______ 04 Sep 2020 (M)

Q120. The distance between an object and a screen is 100 cm . A lens can produce real image of the object on the
screen for two different positions between the screen and the object. The distance between these two
positions is 40 cm . If the power of the lens is close to ( N

100
)D where N is an integer, the value of N
is _________ 04 Sep 2020 (E)

Q121. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror, the image is formed at a distance of
10 cm from the mirror. If the object is moved with a speed of 9 cm s
−1
, the speed (in cm s
−1
) with which
image moves at that instant is 03 Sep 2020 (E)

Q122. An observer can see through a small hole on the side of a jar (radius 15 cm ) at a point at
height of 15 cm from the bottom (see figure). The hole is at a height of 45 cm . When the
jar is filled with a liquid up to a height of 30 cm the same observer can see the edge at the
bottom of the jar. If the refractive index of the liquid is N

100
, where N is an integer, the value
of N is
03 Sep 2020 (M)

Q123. A spherical mirror is obtained as shown in the figure from a hollow glass sphere, if an
object is positioned in front of the mirror, what will be the nature and magnification of
the image of the object? (Figure down as schematic and not to scale)

02 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) Inverted, real and magnified (2) Erect, virtual and magnified
(3) Erect, virutual and unmagnified (4) Inverted, real and unmagnified

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Q124. A light ray enters a solid glass sphere of refractive index μ = √3 at an angle of incidence 60°. The ray is both
reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle (in degrees) between the reflected and
refracted rays at this surface is _____________.
02 Sep 2020 (E)

Q125. A vessel of depth 2h is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 2√2 and the upper half with another liquid
of refractive index √2 . The liquids are immiscible. The apparent depth of the inner surface of the bottom of
the vessel will be 09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) h

√2
(2) h

2(√ 2+1)

(3) h
(4) 3√ 2h

3√ 2 4

Q126. There is a small source of light at some depth below the surface of water (refractive index = 4

3
) in a tank of
large cross sectional surface area. Neglecting any reflection from the bottom and absorption by water,
percentage of light that emerges out of surface is (nearly): [Use the fact that surface area of a spherical cap of
height h and radius of curvature r is 2πrh ] 09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 21% (2) 34%
(3) 17% (4) 50%

Q127. The critical angle of a medium for a specific wavelength, if the medium has relative permittivity 3 and
relative permeability 4

3
for this wavelength, will be: 08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 15 o
(2) 30 o

(3) 45 o
(4) 60 o

Q128. A point object in air is in front of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens. The radius of curvature of the
curved surface is 30 cm and the refractive index of the lens material is 1.5, then the focal length of the lens
(in cm) is ___________. 08 Jan 2020 (M)

Q129. The magnifying power of a telescope with tube length 60cm is 5. What is the focal length of its eye piece?
08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 20cm (2) 40cm
(3) 30cm (4) 10cm

Q130. An object is gradually moving away from the focal point of a concave mirror along the axis of the mirror. The
graphical representation of the magnitude of linear magnification (m) versus distance of the object from the
mirror (x) is correctly given by
(Graphs are drawn schematically and are not to scale) 08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Q131. If we need a magnification of 375 from a compound microscope of tube length 150mm and an objective of
focal length 5mm, the focal length of the eye-piece, should be close to: 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 22mm (2) 2mm
(3) 4mm (4) 33mm

Q132. A thin lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5 ) of focal length f = 16cm is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.42 . If its focal length in liquid is f , then the ratio f /f is closest to the integer:
l l

07 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) 1 (2) 9
(3) 5 (4) 17

Q133. The value of numerical aperture of the objective lens of a microscope is 1.25. If light of wavelength 5000 Å is
used, the minimum separation between two points, to be seen as distinct, will be: 12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 0.48 μm (2) 0.24 μm
(3) 0.38 μm (4) 0.12 μm

Q134. A transparent cube of side d, made of a material of refractive index μ , is immersed in a 2

liquid of refractive index μ1 ( μ1 < μ2 ) . A ray is incident on the face AB at an angle θ

(shown in the figure). Total internal reflection takes place at the point E on the face BC.
. Then, θ must satisfy

12 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) (2) θ > sin −1 μ1
2
−1 μ
2 μ2
θ < sin √ − 1
2
μ
1

(3) θ < sin −1 μ1

μ2
(4) −1
μ
2

2
θ > sin √ − 1
2
μ
1

Q135. A concave mirror has radius of curvature of 40 cm. It is at the bottom of a glass that has water
filled up to 5 cm (see figure). If a small particle is floating on the surface of water, its image as
seen, from directly above the glass, is at a distance d from the surface of water. The value of d

is close to: (Refractive index of water = 1.33)

12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 13.4 cm (2) 8.8 cm
(3) 6.7 cm (4) 11.7 cm

Q136. A ray of light AO in vacuum is incident on a glass slab at angle 60° and
refracted at angle 30° along OB as shown in the figure. The optical path
length of light ray from A to B is:

10 Apr 2019 (M)

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(1) 2√ 3

a
+ 2b (2) 2a + 2b
(3) 2a + 2b

√3
(4) 2a + 2b

Q137. One plano-convex and one plano-concave lens of the same radius of curvature R but of different
materials are joined side by side as shown in the figure. If the refractive index of the material of 1 is
μ and that of 2 is μ , then the focal length of the combination is:
1 2

10 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 2−( μ
R

1− μ 2)
(2) 2( μ
R

1− μ 2)

(3) μ
2R

1
−μ 2
(4) μ 1
R

− μ 2

Q138. The graph shows how the magnification m produced by a thin lens varies with image
distance v. The focal length of the lens used is

10 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) b

c
(2) a

(3) (4)
2 2
b c b

a ac

Q139. Diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is 250 cm. For light of wavelength 600 nm coming from a
distant object, the limit of resolution of the telescope is close to: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 1.5 × 10 −7
rad (2) 3.0 × 10 −7
rad

(3) 2.0 × 10 −7
rad (4) 4.5 × 10 −7
rad

Q140. A concave mirror for face viewing has a focal length of 0.4 m. The distance at which you hold the mirror
from your face in order to see your image upright with a magnification of 5 is 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 1.60 m (2) 0.16 m
(3) 0.32 m (4) 0.24 m

Q141. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm produces images of the same magnification 2 when an object is kept at
two distances x and x 1 2 (x 1 > x2 ) from the lens. The ratio of x and x is: 1 2 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

Q142. A thin convex lens L (refractive index = 1.5 ) is placed on a plane mirror M. When a pin
is placed at A , such that OA = 18 cm, its real inverted image is formed at A itself, as
shown in figure. When liquid of refractive index μ is put between the lens and the mirror,
l

the pin has to be moved to A , such that OA ' '

= 27 cm, to get its inverted real image at A'
itself. The value of μ will be l

09 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 4

3
(2) √3
(3) 3

2
(4) √2

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Q143. Calculate the limit of resolution of a telescope objective having a diameter of 200 cm , if it has to detect light
of wavelength 500 nm coming from a star. 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 305 × 10 −9
radian (2) 610 × 10 −9
radian
(3) 152.5 × 10 −9
radian (4) 457.5 × 10 −9
radian

Q144. An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a convergent lens of focal length 20 cm. A
convergent mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 60 cm on the other side of the lens. The
position and size of the final image will be: 08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 40 cm from the convergent lens, twice the size of the object
(2) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the object
(3) 40 cm from the convergent lens, same size of the object
(4) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, same size of the object

Q145. In figure, the optical fiber is l = 2 m long and has a diameter of

d = 20 μm. If a ray of light is incident on one end of the fiber at
angle θ 1 = 40° , the number of reflections it makes before emerging
from the other end is close to: (refractive index of fiber is 1.31 ,
sin 40°= 0.64 and sin −1
0.49 = 30° ).
08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 55000 (2) 57000

(3) 45000 (4) 66000

Q146. A convex lens (of focal length 20 cm ) and a concave mirror, having their principal axes along the same lines,
are kept 80 cm apart from each other. The concave mirror is to the right of the convex lens. When an object is
kept at a distance of 30 cm to the left of the convex lens, its image remains at the same position even if the
concave mirror is removed. The maximum distance of the object for which this concave mirror, by itself
would produce a virtual image would be: 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 30 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) 10 cm

Q147. Formation of real image using a biconvex lens is shown below: If the whole set up
is immersed in water without disturbing the object and the screen positions, what
will one observe on the screen?
12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) Image disappears (2) Magnified image
(3) Erect real image (4) No change

Q148. A point source of light, S is placed at a distance L in front of the center of plane mirror of
width d which is hanging vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a
line parallel to the mirror, at a distance 2L as shown below. The distance over which the
man can see the image of the light source in the mirror is:
12 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 3d (2) 2d
(3) d (4) d

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Q149. What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination
shown in figure? (f 1, f2 are focal lengths)

12 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 40 cm from point B at right; real (2) 20

3
cm from point B at right, real
(3) 70 cm from point B at right; real (4) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual

Q150. A plano - convex lens (focal length f , refractive index μ , radius of curvature R) fits exactly into a plano -
2 2

concave lens (focal length f , refractive index μ , radius of curvature R). Their plane surfaces are parallel to
1 1

each other. Then, the focal length of the combination will be: 12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) R

μ2 − μ1
(2) f 1 − f2

(3) f (4)
2f 1 f 2
1 + f2
f 1 +f 2

Q151. A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. If 4% of light gets reflected and the
amplitude of the electric field of the incident light is 30 V

m
, then the amplitude of the electric field for the
wave propagating in the glass medium will be: 12 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 30 V

m
(2) 6 V

(3) 24 V

m
(4) 10 V

Q152. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain angle on an equilateral triangular prism and suffers minimum
deviation.
If the refractive index of the material of the prism is √3,
then the angle of incidence is : 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 90 ∘
(2) 30 ∘

(3) 60 ∘
(4) 45 ∘

Q153. An object is at a distance of 20 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.3 m. The lens forms an image of the
object. If the object moves away from the lens at a speed of 5 m/s the speed and direction of the image will
be 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 2.26 × 10 −3
m/s away from the lens (2) 0.92 × 10 −3
m/s away from the lens
(3) 3.22 × 10 −3
m/s towards the lens (4) 1.16 × 10 −3
m/s towards the lens

Q154. The variation of refractive index of a crown glass thin prism with
wavelength of the incident light is shown. Which of the following graphs
is the correct one, if D is the angle of minimum deviation?
m

11 Jan 2019 (M)

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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q155. A plano-convex lens of refractive index μ and focal length f is kept in contact with another plano-concave
1 1

lens of refractive index μ and focal length f . If the radius of curvature of their spherical faces is R each and
2 2

f 1 = 2f 2 , the μ and μ are related as:

1 2 10 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 2μ 2 − μ1 = 1 (2) 3μ 2 − 2μ 1 = 1

(3) μ 1 + μ2 = 3 (4) 2μ 1 − μ2 = 1

Q156. The eye can be regarded as a single refracting surface. The radius of curvature of this surface is equal to that
of the cornea (7 .8 mm) . This surface separates two media of refractive indices 1 and 1.34. Calculate the
distance from the refracting surface at which a parallel beam of light will come to focus. 10 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 4 .0 cm (2) 1 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 3.07 cm

Q157. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident on the first mirror (M 1) and
parallel to the second mirror (M 2) is finally reflected from the second mirror (M 2) and parallel to the first
mirror (M 1 ). The angle between the two mirrors will be: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 60 o
(2) 45 o

(3) 90 o
(4) 75 o

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Q158. A convex lens is put 10 cm from a light source and it makes a sharp image on a screen,
kept 10 cm from the lens. Now a glass block (refractive index 1.5) of 1.5 cm thickness is
placed in between the light source and the lens. To get the sharp image again, the screen is
shifted by a distance d. Then d is:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 0 (2) 0.55 cm away from the lens
(3) 0.55 cm towards the lens (4) 1.1 cm away from the lens

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (60) 7. (3) 8. (3)
9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (15) 12. (200) 13. (4) 14. (10) 15. (20) 16. (3)
17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (31) 20. (1) 21. (4) 22. (30) 23. (2) 24. (5)
25. (3) 26. (100) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (98) 32. (2)
33. (34) 34. (18) 35. (3) 36. (30) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (50) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (32) 43. (5) 44. (1) 45. (32) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2)
49. (1) 50. (52) 51. (30) 52. (54) 53. (2) 54. (120) 55. (3) 56. (15)
57. (1) 58. (15) 59. (1) 60. (400) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (1)
65. (27) 66. (10) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (10) 70. (2) 71. (3) 72. (225)
73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (210) 78. (9) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (12) 82. (10) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (5) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (4)
89. (1) 90. (50) 91. (2) 92. (600) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (4)
97. (60) 98. (4) 99. (25) 100. (2) 101. (2) 102. (30) 103. (4) 104. (2)
105. (1) 106. (12) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (3) 110. (150) 111. (4) 112. (15)
113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (4) 116. (5) 117. (1) 118. (50) 119. (6.25) 120. (476)
121. (1) 122. (158) 123. (4) 124. (90) 125. (4) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (60)
129. (4) 130. (3) 131. (1) 132. (2) 133. (2) 134. (1) 135. (2) 136. (2)
137. (4) 138. (1) 139. (2) 140. (3) 141. (4) 142. (1) 143. (1) 144. (3)
145. (2) 146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (1) 149. (3) 150. (1) 151. (3) 152. (3)
153. (4) 154. (1) 155. (4) 156. (4) 157. (1) 158. (2)

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Q1. A capacitor of reactance 4√3Ω and a resistor of resistance 4Ω are connected in series with an ac source of peak
value 8√2 V. The power dissipation in the circuit is ____ W. 09 Apr 2024 (E)

Q2. A LCR circuit is at resonance for a capacitor C , inductance L and resistance R. Now the value of resistance is
halved keeping all other parameters same. The current amplitude at resonance will be now: 08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) Zero (2) same
(3) halved (4) double

Q3. A coil of negligible resistance is connected in series with 90Ω resistor across 120 V, 60 Hz supply. A voltmeter
reads 36 V across resistance. Inductance of the coil is : 08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 0.286H (2) 0.76H
(3) 2.86H (4) 0.91H

Q4. An alternating emf E = 110√2 sin 100t volt is applied to a capacitor of 2μF, the rms value of current in the
circuit is _____mA, 08 Apr 2024 (E)

Q5. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In an LCR series circuit, current is maximum at resonance.
Statement II: Current in a purely resistive circuit can never be less than that in a series LCR circuit when
connected to same voltage source.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below: 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q6. For a given series LCR circuit it is found that maximum current is drawn when value of variable capacitance is
25nF . If resistance of 200Ω and 100mH inductor is being used in the given circuit. The frequency of ac source
is ______ ×10 3
. (given π
Hz
2
= 10 ) 06 Apr 2024 (E)

Q7. When a dc voltage of 100 V is applied to an inductor, a dc current of 5 A flows through it. When an ac voltage
of 200 V peak value is connected to inductor, its inductive reactance is found to be 20√3Ω. The power
dissipated in the circuit is _______ W. 06 Apr 2024 (M)

Q8. An ac source is connected in given series LCR circuit. The rms potential difference
across the capacitor of 20μF is _____V.

05 Apr 2024 (M)

Q9. A series LCR circuit is subjected to an ac signal of 200 V, 50 Hz. If the voltage across the inductor
(L = 10mH) is 31.4 V, then the current in this circuit is _____ . 05 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 68 A (2) 63 A
(3) 10 A (4) 10 mA

Q10. In an ac circuit, the instantaneous current is zero, when the instantaneous voltage is maximum. In this case, the
source may be connected to :

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A. pure inductor. B. pure capacitor. C. pure resistor. D. combination of an inductor and capacitor.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) A, B and C only (2) A and B only
(3) B, C and D only (4) A, B and D only

Q11. A alternating current at any instant is given by i = [6 + √56 sin(100πt + π/3)] A. The rms value of the
current is ________ A. 04 Apr 2024 (M)

Q12. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer f rom the options given below: 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) A-I. B-IV, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV. B-I. C-II. D-III
(3) A-IV. B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-I. B-IV, C-III, D-II

Q13. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C = 200 pF . It is connected to 230 V ac supply with an angular
frequency 300 rad s
−1
. The rms value of conduction current in the circuit and displacement current in the
capacitor respectively are : 01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) 1 .38 μA and 1 .38 μA (2) 14 .3 μA and 143 μA
(3) 13 .8 μA and 138 μA (4) 13 .8 μA and 13 .8 μA

Q14. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works at 10 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is 240 V, then
the current in the secondary coil is: 01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 1. 59 A (2) 13. 33 A
(3) 1. 33 A (4) 15. 1 A

Q15. In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C . To keep the resonance frequency unchanged,
the new inductance should be : 01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) reduced by 1

4
L (2) increased by 2L
(3) reduced by 3

4
L (4) increased to 4L

Q16. An AC voltage V = 20 sin 200πt is applied to a series LCR circuit which drives a current
π 31 Jan 2024 (E)
π
I = 10 sin(200 t +
3
). The average power dissipated is:
(1) 21. 6 W (2) 200 W
(3) 173. 2 W (4) 50 W

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Q17. An alternating voltage V (t) = 220 sin 100πt volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 Ω. The time taken
for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is: 30 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 5 ms (2) 3. 3 ms

(3) 7. 2 ms (4) 2. 2 ms

Q18. A series LR circuit connected with an ac source E = (25 sin 1000t) V has a power factor of 1

√2
. If the source
of emf is changed to E = (20 sin 2000t) V , the new power factor of the circuit will be : 30 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) √2
1
(2) 1

√3

(3) √5
1
(4) 1

√7

Q19. Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220 V AC . Primary

and secondary turns of the transforms are 100 and 10 respectively.
Secondary coil of transformer is connected to two series
resistances as shown in figure. The output voltage (V 0) is :
30 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 7 V (2) 15 V
(3) 44 V (4) 22 V

Q20. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2. 3 kV to a step down transformer with its primary winding
having 3000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. The current in the primary of
the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90%. The winding of transformer is made of copper. The output
current of transformer is ____A. 30 Jan 2024 (E)

Q21. In an a.c. circuit, voltage and current are given by: V = 100 sin(100t) V and I = 100 sin(100t +
π

3
) mA

respectively. The average power dissipated in one cycle is : 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 5 W (2) 10 W
(3) 2. 5 W (4) 25 W

Q22. In the given figure, the charge stored in 6μF capacitor, when points A and B are
joined by a connecting wire is _______μC.

29 Jan 2024 (E)

Q23. A series LCR circuit with L =

−3
100

π
mH, C =
10

π
F and R = 10 Ω, is connected across an AC source of
220 V, 50 Hz supply. The power factor of the circuit would be ____. 27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q24. The primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The turn ratio of primary to secondary
winding is 10 : 1 . Load resistance connected to the secondary side is 46 Ω. The power consumed in it is:

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27 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) 12. 5 W (2) 10. 0 W
(3) 11. 5 W (4) 12. 0 W

Q25. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a capacitor or an inductor.
Statement II: An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high power due to its non-
zero power factor. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q26. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : When the frequency of an AC source in a series LCR circuit increases, the current in the circuit
first increases, attains a maximum value and then decreases.
Statement II : In a series LCR circuit, the value of power factor at resonance is one.
In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
12 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Q27. As per the given graph, choose the correct representation for curve A

and curve B
{Where XC = Reactance of pure capacitive circuit connected with
A.C. source
XL = Reactance of pure inductive circuit connected with A.C. source
R = Impedance of pure resistive circuit connected with A.C. source
Z = Impedance of the LCR series circuit }
11 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) A = X C, B = R (2) A = X L, B = R

(3) A = X L, B = Z (4) A = X C, B = XL

Q28. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor
connected in series with an AC source, when resonance occurs.
Statement II: Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase difference
between current and voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q29*. A series combination of resistor of resistance 100 Ω inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor of capacitance
6. 25 μF is connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be _____. 08 Apr 2023 (E)

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Q30. An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH inductor and a 1. 2 µF capacitor. If the maximum charge to the
capacitor is 2. 7 µC. The maximum current in the circuit will be ___ mA . 08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q31. A capacitor of capacitance 150. 0 μF is connected to an alternating source of emf given by

E = 36 sin(120πt) V . The maximum value of current in the circuit is approximately equal to:
06 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 2 A (2) √2 A
(3) 2√2 A (4) 1

√2
A

Q32. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies electrical
energy to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in the houses served
by the transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (R s ) required in the secondary circuit will be
_________mΩ.

06 Apr 2023 (M)

Q33. Match the List-I with List-II.

List I List II
A AC generator I Presence of both L and C
B Transformer II Electromagnetic Induction
C Resonance phenomenon to occur III Quality factor
D Sharpness of resonance IV Mutual Inductance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Q34. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source of 220 V, 50 Hz . The circuit contain a resistance R = 100 Ω
and an inductor of inductive reactance X L = 79. 6 Ω . The capacitance of the capacitor needed to maximize the
average rate at which energy is supplied will be ______ μF. 01 Feb 2023 (M)

Q35. An alternating voltage source V = 260 sin(628t) is connected across a pure inductor of 5 mH . Inductive
reactance in the circuit is: 31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 3. 14Ω (2) 6. 28Ω
(3) 0. 5Ω (4) 0. 318Ω

Q36. An inductor of 0. 5 mH , a capacitor of 20 μF and resistance of 20 Ω are connected in series with a 220 V ac
source. If the current is in phase with the emf, the amplitude of current of the circuit is √x A. The value of x
is- 31 Jan 2023 (M)

Q37. A series LCR circuit consists of R = 80 Ω. X L = 100 Ω , and X C = 40 Ω . The input voltage is
2500 cos(100πt) V . The amplitude of current, in the circuit, is _____ A . 31 Jan 2023 (E)

Q38. In the given circuit, rms value of current (I rms ) through the resistor R is :

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30 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) 2 A (2) 1

2
A

(3) 20 A (4) 2√2 A

Q39. As per the given figure, if dI

dt
= −1 A s
−1
, then the value of V AB at this
instant will be ______ V.

30 Jan 2023 (M)

Q40. In a series LR circuit with X L , power factor is P . If a capacitor of capacitance C with X

= R 1 C = XL is
added to the circuit the power factor becomes P . The ratio of P to P will be :
2 1 2 30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : √2
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

Q41. For the given figures, choose the correct options:

29 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than that in (a)
(2) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to that in figure (b)
(3) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that in (a)
(4) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)

Q42. An inductor of inductance 2 μH is connected in series with a resistance, a variable capacitor and an AC source
of frequency 7 kHz . The value of capacitance for which maximum current is drawn into the circuit is 1

x
F

, where the value of x is ______. (Take π = 22

7
)
29 Jan 2023 (E)

Q43. In an LC oscillator, if values of inductance and capacitance become twice and eight times, respectively, then
the resonant frequency of oscillator becomes x times its initial resonant frequency ω . The value of x is:
0

25 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 1
/4 (2) 16
(3) 1
/16 (4) 4

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Q44. An LCR series circuit of capacitance 62. 5 nF and resistance of 50 Ω, is connected to an A.C. source of
frequency 2. 0 kHz . For maximum value of amplitude of current in circuit, the value of inductance is ____mH
.(Take π 2
= 10) 25 Jan 2023 (M)

Q45. A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit contains a resistance
R = 80 Ω , an inductor of inductive reactance X L = 70 Ω , and a capacitor of capacitive reactance X C = 130 Ω

. The power factor of circuit is x

10
. The value of x is: 25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q46*. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the quality factor and
the band width is _____ s.

24 Jan 2023 (M)

Q47. Three identical resistors with resistance R = 12 Ω and two identical inductors
with sell inductance L = 5 mH are connected to an ideal battery with emf of
12 V as shown in figure. The current through the battery long after the switch
has been closed will be________A.

24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q48. An alternating emf E = 440 sin 100πt is applied to a circuit containing an inductance of √2

π
H . If an a.c.
ammeter is connected in the circuit, its reading will be : 29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 4. 4 A (2) 1. 55 A
(3) 2. 2 A (4) 3. 11 A

Q49. A circuit element X when connected to an AC supply of peak voltage 100 V gives a peak current of 5 A which
is in phase with the voltage. A second element Y when connected to the same AC supply also gives the same
value of peak current which lags behind the voltage by π

2
. If X and Y are connected in series to the same
supply, what will be the rms value of the current in ampere? 29 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 10

√2
(2) 5

√2

(3) 5√ 2 (4) 5

Q50. A capacitor of capacitance 500 μF is charged completely using a de supply of 100 V. It is now connected to an
inductor of inductance 50 mH to form an LC circuit. The maximum current in LC circuit will be _____ A.
29 Jul 2022 (E)

Q51. A coil of inductance 1 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a battery of 6 V. Determine approximately :
(a) The time elapsed before the current acquires half of its steady-state value
(b) The energy stored in the magnetic field associated with the coil at an instant 15 ms after the circuit is
−3

switched on. (Given ln 2 = 0. 693, e 2 = 0. 25 )

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29 Jul 2022 (M)

(1) t = 10 ms; U = 2 mJ (2) t = 10 ms; U = 1 mJ

(3) t = 7 ms; U = 1 mJ (4) t = 7 ms; U = 2 mJ

Q52. A transformer operating at primary voltage 8 kV and secondary voltage 160 V serves a load of 80 .
kW

Assuming the transformer to be ideal with purely resistive load and working on unity power factor, the loads in
the primary and secondary circuit would be 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 800 Ω and 1. 06 Ω (2) 10 Ω and 500 Ω
(3) 800 Ω and 0. 32 Ω (4) 1. 06 Ω and 500 Ω

Q53. The equation of current in a purely inductive circuit is 5 sin(49πt − 30°). If the inductance is 30 mH then the
equation for the voltage across the inductor, will be 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 1. 47 sin(49πt − 30°) (2) 1. 47 sin(49πt + 60°)
(3) 23. 1 sin(49πt − 30°) (4) 23. 1 sin(49πt + 60°)

Q54. The frequencies at which the current amplitude in an LCR series circuit becomes 1

√2
times its maximum
value, are 212 rad s
−1
and 232 rad s
−1
. The value of resistance in the circuit is R = 5 Ω. The self inductance
in the circuit is _____ mH. 28 Jul 2022 (M)

Q55. For the given circuit the current through battery of 6 V just after closing the switch 'S '
will be _____ A.

28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q56. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current of peak value 4 A flow through resistance of 3 Ω and 2 Ω
respectively. The ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in same interval of time will be :
27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3

Q57. To light, a 50 W, 100 V lamp is connected, in series with a capacitor of capacitance 50

π√x
μF , with
200 V, 50 Hz AC source. The value of x will be _____ . 27 Jul 2022 (M)

Q58. A series LCR circuit has L = 0. 01 H, R = 10 Ω and C = 1 μF and it is connected to ac voltage of amplitude
(V m ) 50 V . At frequency 60% lower than resonant frequency, the amplitude of current will be approximately
27 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 466 mA (2) 312 mA

(3) 238 mA (4) 196 mA

Q59. In a series LR circuit X L = R and power factor of the circuit is P . When capacitor with capacitance C such
1

that X L = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P . The ratio2

P1

P2
is 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 1

2
(2) 1

√2

(3) √3
(4) 2 : 1
√2

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Q60. The effective current I in the given circuit at very high frequencies
will be _____ A.

26 Jul 2022 (M)

Q61. To increase the resonant frequency in series LCR circuit, 25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) Source frequency should be increased
(2) Another resistance should be added in series with the first resistance.
(3) Another capacitor should be added in series with the first capacitor
(4) The source frequency should be decreased

Q62. When you walk through a metal detector carrying a metal object in your pocket, it raises an alarm. This
phenomenon works on 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) Electromagnetic induction (2) Resonance in ac circuits
(3) Mutual induction in ac circuits (4) interference of electromagnetic waves

Q63. The RMS value of conduction current in a parallel plate capacitor is 6. 9 μA. The capacity of this capacitor, if
it is connected to 230 V AC supply with an angular frequency of 600 rad s
−1
, will be 25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 5 pF (2) 50 pF
(3) 100 pF (4) 200 pF

Q64. An inductor of 0. 5 mH , a capacitor of 200 μF and a resistor of 2 Ω are connected in series with a 220 V ac
source. If the current is in phase with the emf, the frequency of ac source will be ______×10 2
Hz .
29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q65. For a series LCR circuit, I vs ω curve is shown

(a) To the left of ω , the circuit is mainly capacitive.
r

(b) To the left of ω , the circuit is mainly inductive.

r

(c) At ω , impedance of the circuit is equal to the resistance of the circuit.

r

(d) At ω , impedance of the circuit is 0.

r

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
29 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only

Q66. A telegraph line of length 100 km has a capacity of 0. 01 μF km

−1
and it carries an alternating current at 0. 5
kilo cycle per second. If minimum impedance is required, then the value of the inductance that needs to be
introduced in series is _____ mH. (If π = √10) 28 Jun 2022 (M)

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Q67. An AC source is connected to an inductance of 100 mH , a capacitance of 100 μF

and a resistance of 120 Ω as shown in figure. The time in which the resistance
having a thermal capacity 2 J ∘ −1
C will get heated by 16°C is _____ s.

28 Jun 2022 (M)

Q68. In the given circuit, the magnitude of VL and VC are twice that of VR . Given
that f = 50 Hz , the inductance of the coil is Kπ
1
mH . The value of K is
_____ .

28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q69. The current flowing through an ac circuit is given by I = 5 sin(120πt) A . How long will the current take to
reach the peak value starting from zero? 27 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 1

60
s (2) 60 s
(3) 1

120
s (4) 1

240
s

Q70. A 110 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected in the circuit (as shown in figure). The current
through the resistance 55 Ω, at resonance in the circuit, will be _____A.

26 Jun 2022 (M)

Q71. If wattless current flows in the AC circuit, then the circuit is : 25 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Purely Resistive circuit (2) Purely Inductive circuit
(3) LCR series circuit (4) RC series circuit only

Q72. A sinusoidal voltage V (t) = 210 sin 3000t volt is applied to a series LCR circuit in which
L = 10 mH, C = 25 μF and R = 100Ω. The phase difference (Φ) between the applied voltage and resultant
current will be 25 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) tan −1
(0. 17) (2) tan −1
(9. 46)

(3) tan −1
(0. 30) (4) tan −1
(13. 33)

Q73. Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
(A) AC generator (I) Detects the presence of current in the circuit
(B) Galvanometer (II) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Transformer (III) Works on the principle of resonance in AC circuit
(D) Metal detector (IV) Changes an alternating voltage for smaller or greater value

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25 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (III)
(2) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (III), (D) − (IV)
(3) (A) − (III), (B) − (IV), (C) − (II), (D) − (I)
(4) (A) − (III), (B) − (I), (C) − (II), (D) − (IV)

Q74. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance, capacitance and resistance are L = 100 mH ,
C = 100 μF and R = 10 Ω respectively. They are connected to an AC source of voltage
220 V and frequency of 50 Hz . The approximate value of current in the circuit will be
_____ A.
25 Jun 2022 (E)

Q75. A resistance of 40 Ω is connected to a source of alternating current rated 220 V, 50 Hz . Find the time taken by
the current to change from its maximum value to the rms value : 24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2. 5 ms (2) 1. 25 ms

(3) 2. 5 s (4) 0. 25 s

Q76. As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance 200 mH is connected to an AC

source of emf 220 Vand frequency 50 Hz . The instantaneous voltage of the source is
when the peak value of current is . The value of a is _____ .
√a
0 V A
π

24 Jun 2022 (M)

Q77. Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a capacitor and an
inductor.
Statement-II: In ac circuit, the average power delivered by the source never becomes zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q78. For the given circuit the current i through the battery when the key in closed and the
steady state has been reached is

01 Sep 2021 (E)

(1) 10 A (2) 6 A
(3) 25 A (4) 0 A

Q79. In an ac circuit, an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor are connected in series with X L = R = XC . Impedance
of this circuit is : 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) Zero (2) R
(3) R√2 (4) 2R 2

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Q80. At very high frequencies, the effective impedance of the given circuit will
be _________Ω.

31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q81. The alternating current is given by, i = {√ 42 sin(

2π

T
t) + 10} A . The R.M.S. value of this current is
__________ A.
27 Aug 2021 (M)

Q82. An AC circuit has an inductor and a resistor of resistance R in series, such that X L
. Now, a capacitor is
= 3R

added in series such that X C

. the ratio of the new power factor with the old power factor of the circuit is
= 2R

√5 : x . The value of x is 27 Aug 2021 (E)

Q83. A series LCR circuit driven by 300 V at a frequency of 50 Hz contains a resistance R = 3 kΩ, an inductor of
inductive reactance X L
= 250π Ω and an unknown capacitor. The value of capacitance to maximise the
average power should be _______ (take π 2
= 10) 26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 400 μF (2) 4 μF
(3) 40 μF (4) 25 μF

Q84. An inductor coil stores 64 J of magnetic field energy and dissipates energy at the rate of 640 W when a current
of 8 A is passed through it. If this coil is joined across an ideal battery, find the time constant of the circuit (in
s).
26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 0. 4 (2) 0. 2
(3) 0. 125 (4) 0. 8

Q85. In the given circuit the AC source has ω = 100 rad s

−1
. Considering the inductor
and capacitor to be ideal, what will be the current I flowing through the circuit?

26 Aug 2021 (E)

(1) 5. 9 A (2) 6 A
(3) 0. 94 A (4) 3. 16 A

Q86. A 0. 07 H inductor and a 12 Ω resistor are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz AC source. The approximate
current in the circuit and the phase angle between current and source voltage are respectively. [Take π as 22

7
]

27 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) 8. 8 A and tan −1
(
11

6
) (2) 88 A and tan −1
(
11

6
)

(3) 0. 88 A and tan −1

(
11

6
) (4) 8. 8 A and tan −1
(
11
6
)

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Q87. A 100Ω resistance, a 0. 1μF capacitor and an inductor are connected in series across a 250 V supply at variable
frequency. Calculate the value of inductance of inductor at which resonance will occur. Given that the resonant
frequency is 60 Hz . 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 0. 70H (2) 70. 3 mH
(3) 7. 03 × 10 −5
H (4) 70. 3 H

Q88. An inductor of 10 mH is connected to a 20 V battery through a resistor of 10 kΩ and a switch. After a long
time, when maximum current is set up in the circuit, the current is switched off. The current in the circuit after
1 μs is x

100
mA . Then x is equal to ______ . (Take e −1
= 0. 37 ) 25 Jul 2021 (M)

Q89. A 10 Ω resistance is connected across 220 V − 50 Hz AC supply. The time taken by the current to change
from its maximum value to the rms value is: 25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 2. 5 ms (2) 1. 5 ms

(3) 3. 0 ms (4) 4. 5 ms

Q90. Two circuits are shown in figure (a) and . At a frequency of _______
(b)

rad s
−1
the average power dissipated in one cycle will be the same in both the
circuits.

25 Jul 2021 (E)

Q91. In a circuit consisting of a capacitance and a generator with alternating emf,

E g = E go sinωt, V C and IC are the voltage and current. Correct phasor diagram for
such circuit is

22 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q92. Match List-I with List-II.

List - I List - II
(a) ωL >
1

ωC
(i) Current is in phase with emf
(b) ωL =
1

ωC
(ii) Current lags behind the applied emf
(c) ωL <
1

ωC
(iii) Maximum current occurs
(d) Resonant frequency (iv) Current leads the emf
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
22 Jul 2021 (M)

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(1) (a) - (ii) ; (b) - (i) ; (c) - (iv) ; (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (ii) ; (b) - (i) ; (c) - (iii) ; (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii) ; (b) - (i) ; (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iv) ; (b) - (iii) ; (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)

Q93. A series LCR circuit of R = 5 Ω, L = 20 mH and C = 0. 5 μF is connected across an AC supply of 250 V ,

having variable frequency. The power dissipated at resonance condition is ________×10 2
W. 20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q94. AC voltage V (t) = 20 sin ωt of frequency 50 Hz is applied to a parallel plate capacitor. The separation
between the plates is 2 mm and the area is 1 m . The amplitude of the oscillating displacement current for the
2

applied AC voltage is [Take ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10

−12
F m
−1
] 20 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) 21. 14 μA (2) 83. 37 μA
(3) 27. 79 μA (4) 55. 58 μA

Q95. In an LCR series circuit, an inductor 30 mH and a resistor 1 Ω are connected to an AC source of angular
frequency 300 rad s
−1
. The value of capacitance for which the current leads the voltage by 45° is
1

x
× 10
−3
F . Then the value of x is 20 Jul 2021 (M)

Q96. For a series LCR circuit with R = 100 Ω, L = 0. 5 mH and C = 0. 1 pF connected across 220 V − 50 Hz

AC supply, the phase angle between current and supplied voltage and the nature of the circuit is:
20 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 0°, resistive circuit (2) ≈ 90°, predominantly inductive circuit
(3) 0°, resonance circuit (4) ≈ 90°, predominantly capacitive circuit

Q97. An AC source rated 220 V, 50 Hz is connected to a resistor. The time taken by the current to change from its
maximum to the rms value is : 18 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 2. 5 ms (2) 25 ms

(3) 2. 5 s (4) 0. 25 ms

Q98. In a scries LCR resonance circuit, if we change the resistance only, from a lower to higher value :
18 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) The bandwidth of resonance circuit will increase.
(2) The resonance frequency will increase.
(3) The quality factor will increase.
(4) The quality factor and the resonance frequency will remain constant.

Q99. The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach 25% of its maximum value, when a solenoid of resistance R,
inductance L is connected to a battery, is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) L

R
ln5 (2) infinite
(3) L

R
ln2 (4) L

R
ln10

Q100. In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance (X L) is 10 Ω and the capacitive reactance (X C) is 4 Ω. The
resistance (R) in the circuit is 6 Ω. The power factor of the circuit is : 18 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) 1

2
(2) 1

2√ 2

(3) √2
1
(4) √3

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Q101. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is
halved ? 17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved.
(2) Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled..
(3) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved.
(4) Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled

Q102. An AC current is given by I = I 1 sinωt + I 2 cosωt.

A hot wire ammeter will give a reading: 17 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) √ I
2

1
−I
2

2
(2) √ I
2

1
+I
2

2 2

(3) I 1 +I 2

√2
(4) I 1 +I 2

2√ 2

Q103. Match List-I with List-II

List-i List-II
π
; current
Phase difference between current and voltage in a purely 2

a i leads
resistive AC circuit
voltage
Phase difference between current and
b ii zero
voltage in a pure inductive AC circuit
Phase difference between current and π
; current lags
c iii 2

voltage in a pure capacitive AC circuit voltage

Phase difference between current and
d iv tan −1 X C −X L
( )
voltage in an LCR series circuit R

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
17 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) (a) − (i), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (ii) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (iii), (d) − (i)
(3) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i) (4) (a )-( ii ) , (b) − (iii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv)

Q104. For the given circuit, comment on the type of transformer used :

16 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) Auxilliary transformer (2) Auto transformer
(3) Step-up transformer (4) Step down transformer

Q105. An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by a AC source

generating a square wave. The output wave pattern monitored by CRO

would look close to :

16 Mar 2021 (M)

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(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Q106. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250 V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which R = 8 Ω, L = 24 mH

and C = 60 μF . The value of power dissipated at resonant condition is x kW. The value of x to the nearest
integer is _______. 16 Mar 2021 (M)

Q107. An alternating current is given by the equation i = i 1 sin ωt + i 2 cos ωt . The rms current will be:
26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 1

√2
(i 1 + i 2 )
2
(2) 1

√2
(i 1 + i 2 )

(3) (4)
1 1
1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2
(i + i ) (i + i )
2 1 2 √2 1 2

Q108. In a series LCR resonant circuit, the quality factor is measured as 100. If the inductance is increased by two
fold and resistance is decreased by two fold, then the quality factor after this change will be _______
26 Feb 2021 (M)

Q109. Find the peak current and resonant frequency of the following circuit (as shown in
figure).

26 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) 2 A and 50 Hz (2) 0. 2 A and 100 Hz

(3) 2 A and 100 Hz (4) 0. 2 A and 50 Hz

Q110. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(a) Rectifier (i) Used either for stepping up or stepping down the A.C. voltage
(b) Stabilizer (ii) Used to convert A.C. voltage into D.C. voltage
(c) Transformer (iii) Used to remove any ripple in the rectified output voltage
Used for constant output voltage even when the input voltage
(d) Filter (iv)
or load current change
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) (a) − (ii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (iii) (2) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iv), (d) − (iii)

(3) (a) − (ii), (b) − (i), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv) (4) (a) − (iii), (b) − (iv), (c) − (i), (d) − (ii)

Q111. An L. C. R. circuit contains resistance of 110 Ω and a supply of 220 V at 300 rad s
−1
angular frequency. If
only capacitance is removed from the circuit, current lags behind the voltage by 45°. If on the other hand, the
only the inductor is removed the current leads by 45° with the applied voltage. The R. M . S. current flowing
in the circuit will be: 25 Feb 2021 (E)
(1) 2. 5 A (2) 2 A
(3) 1 A (4) 1. 5 A

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Q112. The angular frequency of alternating current in a L-C-R circuit is

100 rad s
−1
. The components connected are shown in the figure. Find
the value of inductance of the coil and capacity of condenser.

25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 1. 33 H and 150 μF (2) 0. 8 H and 150 μF
(3) 1. 33 H and 250 μF (4) 0. 8 H and 250 μF

Q113. The current (i) at time t = 0 and t = ∞ respectively for the given circuit is :

25 Feb 2021 (M)

(1) 5E

18
,
18E

55
(2) 5E

18
,
10E

33

(3) 10E

33
,
5E

18
(4) 18E

55
,
5E

18

Q114. A transmitting station releases waves of wavelength 960 m. A capacitor of 2. 56 μF is used in the resonant
circuit. The self-inductance of coil necessary for resonance is x × 10 −8
H . find x 25 Feb 2021 (M)

Q115. A series LCR circuit is designed to resonate at an angular frequency ω 0 = 10

5
rad s
−1
. The circuit draws
16 W power from 120 V source at resonance. The value of resistance R in the circuit is ________ Ω.
24 Feb 2021 (E)

Q116. A common transistor radio set requires 12 V (D. C. ) for its operation. The D. C. source is constructed by
using a transformer and a rectifier circuit, which are operated at 220 V (A. C. ) on standard domestic A. C.
supply. The number of turns of secondary coil are 24, then the number of turns of primary are
24 Feb 2021 (M)

Q117*. A resonance circuit having inductance and resistance 2 × 10 −4

H and 6. 28 Ω respectively oscillates at
10 MHz frequency. The value of quality factor of this resonator is_______. [π = 3. 14] 24 Feb 2021 (M)

Q118. The figure shows a circuit that contains four identical resistors with
resistance R = 2. 0 Ω, two identical inductors with inductance
L = 2. 0 mH and an ideal battery with E.M.F. E = 9 V. The current i just
after the switch S is closed will be:

24 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) 9 A (2) 3. 37 A
(3) 2. 25 A (4) 3. 0 A

Q119*. An AC circuit has R = 100Ω, C = 2μF and L = 80 mH, connected in series. The quality factor of the
circuit is : 06 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 2 (2) 0.5
(3) 20 (4) 400

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Q120. A part of a complete circuit is shown in the figure. At some instant, the
value of current I is 1A and it is decreasing at a rate of 10
2
As
−1
. The
value of the potential difference V p − VQ , (in volts) at that instant is-
06 Sep 2020 (M)

Q121. In a series LR circuit, power of 400 W is dissipated from a source of 250 V, 50 Hz . The power factor of the
circuit is 0. 8. In order to bring the power factor to unity, a capacitor of value C is added in series to the L
and R. Taking the value of C as ( n

3 π ) μF, then value of n is 06 Sep 2020 (E)

Q122. A series L − R circuit is connected to a battery of emf V . If the circuit is switched on at t = 0, then the time
at which the energy stored in the inductor reaches ( 1

n
) times of its maximum value, is : 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) L

R
ln(
√n
) (2) L

R
ln(
√ n+1
)
√ n−1 √ n−1

(3) L

R
ln(
√n
) (4) L

R
ln(
√n−1
)
√n+1 √n

Q123. A 750 Hz, 20 V(rms) source is connected to a resistance of 100 Ω, an inductance of 0. 1803 H and a
capacitance of 10 μF all in series. The time in which the resistance (heat capacity 2 J/°C ) will get heated
by 10°C. (assume no loss of heat to the surroundings) is close to : 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 418 s (2) 245 s
(3) 365 s (4) 348 s

Q124. Magnetic materials used for making permanent magnets (P) and magnets in a transformer (T) have different
properties of the following, which property best matches for the type of magnet required?
02 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) T : Large retentivity, small coercivity (2) P : small retentivity, large coercivity
(3) T : Large retentivity, large coercivity (4) P : large retentivity, large coercivity

Q125. In LC circuit the inductance L = 40 mH and capacitance C = 100 μF. If a voltage V (t) = 10sin(314t) is
applied to the circuit, the current in the circuit is given as: 09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 0.52 cos(314t) (2) 10 cos(314t)
(3) 5.2 cos(314t) (4) 0.52 sin(314t)

Q126. Two identical capacitors A and B, charged to the same potential 5V are
connected in two different circuits as shown below at time t = 0. If the
charge on capacitors A and B at time t = CR is QA and QB respectively,
then (Here e is the base of natural logarithm)
09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) Q A =
VC

e
, QB =
CV

2
(2) Q A = V C, Q B = CV

(3) Q A = V C, Q B =
VC

e
(4) Q A =
CV

2
, QB =
VC

Q127. As shown in the figure, a battery of emf ∈ is connected to an inductor L and

resistance R in series. The switch is closed at t = 0. The total charge that flows from
the battery, between t = 0 and t = t ( t is the time constant of the circuit) is:
c c

08 Jan 2020 (E)

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Alternating Current JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) ∈L

eR
2
(2) ∈L

R
2
(1 −
1

e
)

(3) ∈L

R
2
(4) ∈R

eL
2

Q128. A LCR circuit behaves like a clamped harmonic oscillator. Comparing it with a physical spring-mass damped
oscillator having damping constant ' b '
, the correct equivalence would be: 07 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) L ↔ m, C ↔ k, R ↔ b (2) L ↔ 1

b
,C ↔
1

m
,R ↔
1

(3) L ↔ k, C ↔ b, R ↔ m (4) L ↔ m, C ↔
1

k
,R ↔ b

Q129. An emf of 20 V is applied at time t = 0 to a circuit containing in series 10 mH inductor and 5 Ω resistor. The
ratio of the currents at time t = ∞ and at t = 40 s is close to: (Take e 2
= 7.389 ) 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 1.06 (2) 1.15
(3) 1.46 (4) 0.84

Q130. Consider the LR circuit shown in the figure. If the switch S is closed at t = 0 then
the amount of charge that passes through the battery between t = 0 and t = L

R
is:

12 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 7.3 EL

R
2
(2) EL

7.3R
2

(3) 2.7 EL

R
2
(4) EL

2.7R
2

Q131. A transformer consisting of 300 turns in the primary and 150 turns in the secondary gives output power of
2.2 kW . If the current in the secondary coil is 10 A , then the input voltage and current in the primary coil
are: 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 440 V and 20 A (2) 220 V and 20 A
(3) 440 V and 5 A (4) 220 V and 10 A

Q132. An alternating voltage V (t) = 220 sin(100πt) volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 Ω . The time
taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is: 08 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 7.21 ms (2) 5. 25 ms

(3) 2.24 ms (4) 3.33 ms

Q133. A 20 H inductor coil is connected to a 10 Ω resistance in series as shown in figure.

The time at which rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance is
equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor, is:

08 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 1

2
ln 2 (2) 2 ln 2
(3) 2

ln 2
(4) ln 2

Q134. A circuit connected to an ac source of emf e = e 0

sin(100t) with t in seconds, gives a phase difference of π

between the emf e and current i . Which of the following circuits will exhibit this? 08 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) RC circuit with R = 1 kΩ and C = 1 μF (2) RL circuit with R = 1 kΩ and L = 1 mH
(3) RL circuit with R = 1 kΩ and L = 10 mH (4) RC circuit with R = 1 kΩ and C = 10 μF

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Q135. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance R = 5Ω and
an inductance with L = 2 mH . An ideal battery of 15V is connected in the circuit. What
will be the current through the battery long after the switch is closed?

12 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 5.5 A (2) 6 A
(3) 3 A (4) 7.5 A

Q136. In the above circuit, C = √3

μF , R = 20 Ω, L =
2
2 H and R = 10 Ω. Current in
√3

10
1

L-R path is I and in C-R path it is I . The voltage of AC source is given by,
1 1 2 2

V = 200√ 2 sin (100 t) volts. The phase difference between I and I is: 1 2

12 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 60 o
(2) 0 o

(3) 30 o
(4) 150 o

Q137. In the circuit shown, the switch S1 is closed at time t = 0 and the switch S2 is
kept open. At some later time (t 0 ), the switch S1 is opened and S2 is closed.
the behaviour of the current I as a function of time ' t ' is given by:

11 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q138. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its primary windings
having 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. If the current in the primary of
the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90 %, the output current would be: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 35 A (2) 25 A
(3) 50 A (4) 45 A

Q139. A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 mH), a capacitor (120 μF) and a resistor (60 Ω) is driven by
an AC source of 24 V/50 Hz. The energy dissipated in the circuit in 60 s is: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 5.17 × 10 2
J (2) 3.39 × 10 3
J

(3) 2.26 × 10 3
J (4) 5.65 × 10 2
J

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ANSWER KEYS
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (22) 5. (3) 6. (10) 7. (250) 8. (50)
9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (8) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4)
17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (45) 21. (3) 22. (36) 23. (1) 24. (3)
25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (9) 31. (1) 32. (240)
33. (3) 34. (40) 35. (1) 36. (242) 37. (25) 38. (1) 39. (30) 40. (2)
41. (1) 42. (3872) 43. (1) 44. (100) 45. (8) 46. (10) 47. (3) 48. (3)
49. (4) 50. (10) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (250) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (44) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (5)
65. (3) 66. (100) 67. (15) 68. (0) 69. (4) 70. (0) 71. (2) 72. (1)
73. (1) 74. (22) 75. (1) 76. (242) 77. (3) 78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (2)
81. (11) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (74)
89. (1) 90. (500) 91. (3) 92. (1) 93. (125) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (4)
97. (1) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (3)
105. (3) 106. (4) 107. (4) 108. (282.84) 109. (4) 110. (1) 111. (2) 112. (4)
113. (2) 114. (10) 115. (900) 116. (440) 117. (2000) 118. (3) 119. (1) 120. (33)
121. (400) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (1) 126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (4)
129. (1) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (2) 134. (4) 135. (2) 136. (4)
137. (1) 138. (4) 139. (1)

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Q1. The volume of an ideal gas (γ = 1.5) is changed adiabatically from 5 litres to 4 litres. The ratio of initial
pressure to final pressure is: 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) 16

25
(2) 4

(3) 8
(4) 2

5√ 5 √5

Q2. A sample of 1 mole gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. If adiabatic constant
for the gas is γ =
3

2
, then the work done by the gas in the process is: 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) R

T
[2 − √ 2] (2) T

R
[2 + √ 2]

(3) RT [2 − √2] (4) RT[2 + √2]

Q3. A real gas within a closed chamber at ∘

27 C undergoes the cyclic
process as shown in figure. The gas obeys PV
3
= RT equation
for the path A to B . The net work done in the complete cycle is
(assuming R = 8 J/molK):

09 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 20 J (2) 205 J
(3) −20 J (4) 225 J

Q4. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 100 J of work in an isobaric expansion. The heat given to the gas is :
08 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 250 J (2) 150 J
(3) 350 J (4) 490 J

Q5. Two different adiabatic paths for the same gas intersect two isothermal curves as shown
in P-V diagram. The relation between the ratio Va

Vd
and the ratio Vb

Vc
is:

08 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) (2)
Va Vb Va Vb
≠ =
Vd Vc Vd Vc
−1 2
(3) Va
= (
Vb
)
(4) Va
= (
Vb
)
Vd Vc Vd Vc

Q6. A total of 48 J heat is given to one mole of helium kept in a cylinder. The temperature of helium increases by
∘
2 C . The work done by the gas is:
Given, R = 8.3 J K −1
mol
−1
. 06 Apr 2024 (E)

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(1) 24.9 J (2) 72.9 J (3) 48 J (4) 23.1 J

Q7. The heat absorbed by a system in going through the given cyclic process is :

05 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) 19.6 J (2) 61.6 J
(3) 616 J (4) 431.2 J

Q8. A sample of gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. Adiabatic constant for the gas
is γ = 3/2 . The work done by the gas in the process is:
(μ = 1 mole) 04 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) RT [1 − 2√ 2] (2) RT [√ 2 − 2]

(3) RT [2 − √ 2] (4) RT [2√2 − 1]

Q9. P-T diagram of an ideal gas having three different densities ρ1 , ρ2 , ρ3 (in three different
cases) is shown in the figure. Which of the following is correct :

04 Apr 2024 (M)

(1) ρ 1 > ρ2 (2) ρ 2 < ρ3

(3) ρ 1 = ρ2 = ρ3 (4) ρ 1 < ρ2

Q10. A diatomic gas (γ = 1. 4) does 200 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas in the
process is : 01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 850 J (2) 800 J
(3) 600 J (4) 700 J
3

Q11. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related as P V 2

= K (Constant). The work done when the gas is
taken from state A(P 1, V1 , T1 ) to state B(P 2, V2 , T2 ) is : 01 Feb 2024 (M)
(1) 2(P 1 V1 − P2 V2 ) (2) 2(P 2 V2 − P1 V1 )

(3) 2(√P 1 V1 − √P 2 V 2 ) (4) 2(P 2

√V 2 − P 1 √V 1 )

Q12. The given figure represents two isobaric processes for the same mass of an ideal gas, then

31 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) P 2
≥ P1 (2) P 2
> P1

(3) P 1
= P2 (4) P 1
> P2

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Q13. Choose the correct statement for processes A & B shown in figure.

30 Jan 2024 (E)

(1) P V γ
= k for process B and P V = k for process A.
(2) P V = k for process B and A.
γ−1

(3) P

T
γ
= k for process B and T = k for process A.
γ

(4) P
T
γ−1
= k for process A and P V = k for process B.

Q14. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state A to an

intermediate state B by a linear process as shown in the figure. Its
volume is then reduced to the original value from B to C by an
isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from A to B and
B to C would be :

29 Jan 2024 (M)

(1) 33800 J (2) 2200 J
(3) 600 J (4) 800 J

Q15. 0. 08 kg air is heated at constant volume through 5°C. The specific heat of air at constant volume is
0. 17 kcal kg
−1
°C
−1
and 1 J = 4. 18 joule cal
−1
. The change in its internal energy is approximately.
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) 318 J (2) 298 J
(3) 284 J (4) 142 J

Q16. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature. The ratio of
Cp

Cv
for the gas is : 27 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 5

3
(2) 3

(3) 7

5
(4) 9

Q17. A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in
the process is :

15 Apr 2023 (M)

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(1) 200 J (2) 300 J

(3) 100 J (4) Zero

Q18. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are P and 0 V0 . The final pressure of the gas when the gas is
suddenly compressed to volume V0

4
will be:
(Given γ= ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume.)
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) P 0 (4)
γ
(2) 4P 0
1

(3) P 0 (4) P 0 (4)

γ

Q19*. An engine operating between the boiling and freezing points of water will have
A. Efficiency more than 27%.
B. Efficiency less than the efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the same two temperatures.
C. Efficiency equal to 27%. D. Efficiency less than 27%.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
12 Apr 2023 (M)

(1) B, C and D only (2) A and B only (3) B and D only (4) B and C only
Q20. The thermodynamic process, in which internal energy of the system remains constant is 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Isochoric (2) Adiabatic
(3) Isothermal (4) Isobaric

Q21. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the following statement is NOT true?
10 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system (2) There is no change in the internal energy
(3) The temperature of the gas increases (4) The change in the internal energy is equal to the
work done on the gas

Q22. Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P ), Volume (V ) and
Temperature (T ). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to 1

8
of its original volume while the gas in B is
compressed adiabatically to 1

8
of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A
is 10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 8 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4)
3
1
2
8

Q23. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase.
Statement II: If positive work is done by a system in a thermodynamic process, its volume must increase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q24*. Work done by a Carnot engine operating between temperatures 127°C and 27°C is 2 kJ. The amount of heat
transferred to the engine by the reservoir is: 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 8 kJ (2) 2. 67 kJ

(3) 2 kJ (4) 4 kJ

Q25. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The
rate at which internal energy of the system increases is
06 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 600 W (2) 800 W
(3) 500 W (4) 1200 W

Q26. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure versus temperature graphs
are plotted while keeping them at constant volume, as shown in the
figure. The temperature corresponding to the point ′K′ is:

01 Feb 2023 (E)

(1) −273°C (2) −100°C
(3) –373°C (4) −40°C

Q27. A sample of gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. The work done by the gas in
the process is given, (given γ =
3

2
): 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) W = T R[√ 2 − 2] (2) W =
T

R
[√ 2 − 2]

(3) W =
R

T
[2 − √ 2] (4) W = RT [2 − √ 2]

Q28*. A Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs has efficiency 1

3
. When the temperature of cold reservoir
raised by x, its efficiency decreases to 1

6
. The value of x, if the temperature of hot reservoir is 99° C , will be
01 Feb 2023 (E)
(1) 16. 5 K (2) 33 K
(3) 66 K (4) 62 K

Q29. The pressure of a gas changes linearly with volume from A to B as shown in
figure. If no heat is supplied to or extracted from the gas then change in the
internal energy of the gas will be

31 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 6 J (2) Zero
(3) −4. 5 J (4) 4. 5 J

Q30. The correct relation between γ and temperature T is : 31 Jan 2023 (M)
CP
=
CV

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(1) γ ∝
1

√T
(2) γ ∝ T
0

(3) γ ∝
1

T
(4) γ ∝ T

Q31. Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure. Each gas
molecule rotates around an internal axis but do not oscillate. The increase in the internal energy of the gas will
be: 31 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) 525 J (2) 441 J
(3) 572 J (4) 735 J

Q32. A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that its volume changes from 08 litres to 27 litres. If the ratio of
final pressure of the gas to initial pressure of the gas is . Then the ratio of will be. 31 Jan 2023 (E)
16 Cp

81 Cv

(1) 4

3
(2) 3

(3) 1

2
(4) 3

Q33. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease.
B. Internal energy of the gas will increase.
C. Internal energy of the gas will not change.
D. The gas will do positive work. E. The gas will do negative work.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) A and E only (2) B and D only
(3) C and E only (4) C and D only

Q34*. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be highest at –273 °C temperature of cold reservoir.
Reason R : The efficiency of Carnot’s engine depends not only on temperature of cold reservoir but it
depends on the temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as η = (1 − T2

T1
)

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
30 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q35. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : If dQ and dW represent the heat supplied to the system and the work done on the system
respectively. Then according to the first law of thermodynamics dQ = dU − dW .
Reason R : First law of thermodynamics is based on law of conservation of energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :
29 Jan 2023 (M)

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(1) A is correct but R is not correct

(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Q36. A bicycle tyre is filled with air having pressure of 270 kPa at 27°C. The approximate pressure of the air in the
tyre when the temperature increases to 36°C is 29 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 270 kPa (2) 262 kPa

(3) 278 kPa (4) 360 kPa

Q37. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
Isothermal
A I Work done by the gas decreases internal energy
Process
B Adiabatic Process II No change in internal energy
The heat absorbed goes partly to increase internal energy and partly to do
C Isochoric Process III
work
D Isobaric Process IV No work is done on or by the gas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
25 Jan 2023 (E)
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q38*. A Carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes heat from a source at 600 K. In order to increase the efficiency to
70% , keeping the temperature of sink same, the new temperature of the source will be: 25 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 360 K (2) 1000 K
(3) 900 K (4) 300 K

Q39. 1 g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3 × 10 5

Pa pressure. If 10% of the heat supplied is used for increasing
the volume by 1600 cm
3
during this phase change, then the increase in internal energy in the process will be :
24 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 4320 J (2) 432000 J
(3) 4800 J (4) 4. 32 × 10 8
J

Q40. In an Isothermal change, the change in pressure and volume of a gas can be represented for three different
temperature; T 3 > T2 > T1 as: 24 Jan 2023 (E)

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(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q41. The pressure P1 and density d1 of diatomic gas (γ =

7

5
) changes suddenly to P 2 (> P 1 ) and d2 respectively
during an adiabatic process. The temperature of the gas increases and becomes____times of its initial
temperature. (given d2

d1
= 32 )
29 Jul 2022 (M)

Q42. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state D to an intermediate

state E by the linear process shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to
the original volume from E to F by an isobaric process. The total work done
by the gas from D to E to F will be

29 Jul 2022 (E)

(1) −450 J (2) 450 J
(3) 900 J (4) 1350 J

Q43. At a certain temperature, the degrees of freedom per molecule for gas is 8. The gas performs 150 J of work
when it expands under constant pressure. The amount of heat absorbed by the gas will be _____ J.
28 Jul 2022 (E)

Q44*. A Carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the temperature of sink is reduced by 40°C, its efficiency increases
by 30%. The temperature of the source will be : 28 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 166. 7 K (2) 255. 1 K
(3) 266. 7 K (4) 367. 7 K

Q45*. In 1
st
case, Carnot engine operates between temperatures 300 K and 100 K . In 2
nd
case, as
shown in the figure, a combination of two engines is used. The efficiency of this combination
(in 2 nd
case) will be:

27 Jul 2022 (E)

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(1) same as the 1 st

case
(2) always greater than the 1 st
case
(3) always less than the 1 st
case
(4) may increase or decrease with respect to the 1 st
case

Q46*. Read the following statements :

A . When small temperature difference between a liquid and its surrounding is doubled the rate of loss of heat
of the liquid becomes twice.
B . Two bodies P and Q having equal surface areas are maintained at temperature 10°C and 20°C. The
thermal radiation emitted in a given time by P and Q are in the ratio 1 : 1. 15
C . A carnot Engine working between 100 K and 400 K has an efficiency of 75%
D . When small temperature difference between a liquid and its surrounding is quadrupled, the rate of loss of
heat of the liquid becomes twice.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) A, B, C only (2) A, B only
(3) A, C only (4) B, C, D only

Q47. 7 mole of certain monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a temperature increase of 40 K at constant pressure. The
increase in the internal energy of the gas in this process is (Given R = 8. 3 J K −1
mol
−1
) 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 5810 J (2) 3486 J
(3) 11620 J (4) 6972 J

Q48. A monoatomic gas at pressure P and volume V is suddenly compressed to one eighth of its original volume.
The final pressure at constant entropy will be 26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) P (2) 8P
(3) 32P (4) 64P

Q49*. Let η is the efficiency of an engine at T

1 1 = 447°C and T 2 = 147°C while η is the efficiency at
2

and T . The ratio will be 25 Jul 2022 (E)

η1
T 1 = 947°C 2 = 47°C
η2

(1) 0. 41 (2) 0. 56
(3) 0. 73 (4) 0. 70

Q50. A certain amount of gas of volume V at 27°C temperature and pressure 2 × 10 7

N m
−2
expands isothermally
until its volume gets doubled. Later it expands adiabatically until its volume gets redoubled. The final pressure
of the gas will be (Use γ = 1. 5 ) 25 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 3. 536 × 10 5
Pa (2) 3. 536 × 10 6
Pa

(3) 1. 25 × 10 6
Pa (4) 1. 25 × 10 5
Pa

Q51. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V to V in three different ways. 1 2

The work done by the gas is W if the process is purely isothermal, W , if the process is purely adiabatic and
1 2

W3 if the process is purely isobaric. Then, choose the correct option 29 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) W 2 < W1 < W3 (2) W 1 < W2 < W3

(3) W 2 < W3 < W1 (4) W 3 < W1 < W2

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Q52*. 300 calories of heat is given to a heat engine, and it rejects 225 calories of heat. If source temperature is
227°C , then the temperature of sink will be _____ ∘
C. 29 Jun 2022 (M)

Q53. The total internal energy of two mole monoatomic ideal gas at temperature T = 300 K will be _____ J. (Given
R = 8. 31 J mol
−1
)
⋅ K 28 Jun 2022 (M)

Q54. Statement - I : When μ amount of an ideal gas undergoes adiabatic change from state (P 1 , V 1 , T 1 ) to state
, then work done is W , where γ and R = universal gas constant.
μR(T 2 −T 1 ) CP
(P 2 , V 2 , T 2 ) = =
1−γ CV

Statement - II : In the above case, when work is done on the gas, the temperature of the gas would rise.
28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true. (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false. (4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

Q55. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process ABCA as shown in figure. It
absorbs, 40 J of heat during the part AB, no heat during BC and rejects 60 J of heat during CA.
A work of 50 J is done on the gas during the part BC . The internal energy of the gas at A is
1560 J . The work done by the gas during the part CA is
28 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(3) −30 J (4) −60 J

Q56. For a perfect gas, two pressures P and P are shown in figure. The graph shows
1 2

27 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) P 1
> P2 (2) P 1
< P2

(3) P 1
= P2 (4) Insufficient data to draw any conclusion
Q57. A diatomic gas (γ = 1. 4) does 400 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas in the
process is _____ J. 27 Jun 2022 (E)

Q58*. In a carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir is 527°C and that of sink is 200 K. If the workdone by the
engine when it transfers heat from reservoir to sink is 12000 kJ , the quantity of heat absorbed by the engine
from reservoir is _____ ×10 6
J . 27 Jun 2022 (M)

Q59*. The efficiency of a Carnot's engine, working between steam point and ice point, will be 26 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 26. 81% (2) 37. 81%
(3) 47. 81% (4) 57. 81%

Q60. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats 1. 4. Vessel
is moving with speed v and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surrounding and vessel

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temperature of the gas increases by :

(R = universal gas constant) 26 Jun 2022 (M)
2 2

(1) Mv

7R
(2) Mv

5R

(3) 2 (4) 7
2 2
Mv Mv

7R 5R

Q61*. A heat engine operates with the cold reservoir at temperature 324 K . The minimum temperature of the hot
reservoir, if the heat engine takes 300 J heat from the hot reservoir and delivers 180 J heat to the cold
reservoir per cycle, is _____ K .
26 Jun 2022 (E)

Q62*. A Carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an efficiency of 25%. By how many degrees should the
temperature of the source be changed to increase the efficiency by 100% of the original efficiency ?
24 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) Increases by 18°C (2) Increases by 200°C
(3) Increases by 120°C (4) Increases by 73°C

Q63*. A Carnot engine takes 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at 727°C and gives heat to a sink at 127°C. The
work done by the engine is 24 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) 3 × 10 6
J (2) Zero
(3) 8. 4 × 10 6
J (4) 12. 6 × 10 6
J

Q64. The temperature of 3. 00 mol of an ideal diatomic gas is increased by 40. 0°C without changing the pressure
of the gas. The molecules in the gas rotate but do not oscillate. If the ratio of change in internal energy of the
gas to the amount of workdone by the gas is x

10
. Then the value of x (round off to the nearest integer) is
_________.

(GivenR = 8. 31 J mol
−1
K
−1
)

01 Sep 2021 (E)

Q65. A sample of gas with γ = 1. 5 is taken through an adiabatic process in which the volume is compressed from
1200 cm
3
to 300 3
cm . If the initial pressure is 200 kPa. The absolute value of the workdone by the gas in the
process = ________ J. 31 Aug 2021 (E)

Q66*. A reversible engine has an efficiency of 1

4
. If the temperature of the sink is reduced by 58°C, its efficiency
becomes double. Calculate the temperature of the sink: 31 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 180. 4°C (2) 382°C
(3) 174 K (4) 280°C

Q67*. A heat engine operates between a cold reservoir at temperature T 2 = 400 K and a hot reservoir at temperature
T1 . It takes 300 J of heat from the hot reservoir and delivers 240 J of heat to the cold reservoir in a cycle. The
minimum temperature of the hot reservoir has to be 27 Aug 2021 (E)

Q68. An electric appliance supplies 6000 J min

−1
, heat to the system. If the system delivers a power of 90 W. How
long it would take to increase the internal energy by 2. 5 × 10 3
?
J 26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 2. 5 × 10 1
s (2) 2. 5 × 10 2
s

(3) 2. 4 × 10 3
s (4) 4. 1 × 10 1
s

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Q69*. A refrigerator consumes an average 35 W power to operate between temperature −10°C to 25°C. If there is
no loss of energy then how much average heat per second does it transfer? 26 Aug 2021 (E)
(1) 350 J s −1
(2) 298 J s −1

(3) 263 J s −1
(4) 35 J s −1

Q70*. Two Carnot engines A and B operate in series such that engine A absorbs heat at T and rejects heat to a sink 1

at temperature T. Engine B absorbs half of the heat rejected by Engine A and rejects heat to the sink at T . 3

When workdone in both the cases is equal, to value of T is : 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 2

3
T1 +
3

2
T3 (2) 1

3
T1 +
2

3
T3

(3) 3

2
T1 +
1

3
T3 (4) 2

3
T1 +
1

3
T3

Q71. In the reported figure, there is a cyclic process ABCDA on a sample of 1 mol of
a diatomic gas. The temperature of the gas during the process A → B and
C → D are T1 and T2 ( T 1
> T2 ) respectively. Choose the correct option out of
the following for work done if processes BC and DA are adiabatic.

27 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) W AB
= W DC (2) W AD
= W BC

(3) W BC
+ W DA > 0 (4) W AB
< W CD

Q72. One mole of an ideal gas is taken through an adiabatic process where the temperature rises from 27°C to 37°C
. If the ideal gas is composed of polyatomic molecule that has 4 vibrational modes, which of the following is
true? [R = 8. 314 J mol
−1
k
−1
] 27 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) work done by the gas is close to 332 J (2) work done on the gas is close to 582 J
(3) work done by the gas is close to 582 J (4) work done on the gas is close to 332 J

Q73. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston.
1

The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T by releasing the piston suddenly. If l and l are
2 1 2

the lengths of the gas column, before and after the expansion respectively, then the value of T1

T 2
will be:
25 Jul 2021 (M)
2 2

(1) l1 3 (2) l2 3

( ) ( )
l2 l1

(3) ( l2

l1
) (4) l1

l2

Q74*. A heat engine has an efficiency of 1

6
. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency get
doubled. The temperature of the source is : 25 Jul 2021 (E)
(1) 124°C (2) 37°C
(3) 62°C (4) 99°C

Q75. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 4 moles of a rigid diatomic gas from 0 °C to 50 °C
when no work is done is (R is the universal gas constant) 20 Jul 2021 (M)

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(1) 250R (2) 750R

(3) 175R (4) 500R

Q76. One mole of an ideal gas at 27 °C is taken from A to B as shown in the given P V
indicator diagram. The work done by the system will be _______ ×10
−1
J.

[Given, R = 8. 3 J mole
−1
K, ln 2 = 0. 6931 ] (Round off to the nearest integer)

20 Jul 2021 (E)

Q77. In the reported figure, heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process
is ______πJ.

20 Jul 2021 (M)

Q78. Which of the following graphs represent the behaviour of an ideal gas? Symbols have their usual meaning.
20 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q79. The entropy of any system is given by, S = α 2

β ln[
μ kR
2
+ 3] where α and β are the constants. μ, J , k and R
Jβ

are number of moles, mechanical equivalent of heat, Boltzmann's constant and gas constant, respectively.
[Take S =
dQ

T
] Choose the incorrect option from the following: 20 Jul 2021 (M)
(1) α and J have the same dimensions. (2) S, β, k and μR have the same dimensions.
(3) S and α have different dimensions. (4) α and k have the same dimensions.

Q80. The P − V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system going under cyclic process as
shown in figure. The work done during an adiabatic process CD is (use γ = 1. 4) :

18 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) –500 J (2) –400 J
(3) 400 J (4) 200 J

Q81. An ideal gas in a cylinder is separated by a piston in such a way that the entropy of one part is S and that of 1

the other part is S . Given that S

2 1 > S2 . If the piston is removed then the total entropy of the system will be:

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18 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) S 1 × S2 (2) S 1 − S2

(3) S1

S2
(4) S 1 + S2

Q82. Which one is the correct option for the two different thermodynamic processes ?
17 Mar 2021 (E)

(1) (c) and (a) (2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) only (4) (b) and (c)

Q83*. A Carnot's engine working between 400 K and 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle. The amount of
heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle is: 17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 3200 J (2) 1800 J
(3) 1600 J (4) 2400 J

Q84. In thermodynamics, heat and work are : 16 Mar 2021 (M)

(1) Path functions (2) Intensive thermodynamic state variables
(3) Extensive thermodynamic state variables (4) Point functions

Q85*. For an ideal heat engine, the temperature of the source is 127°C. In order to have 60% efficiency the
temperature of the sink should be ____ ∘
C. (Round off to the nearest integer) 16 Mar 2021 (E)

Q86. 1 mole of rigid diatomic gas performs a work of Q

5
when heat Q is supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of
the gas during this transformation is xR

8
. The value of x is
[R universal gas constant] 26 Feb 2021 (E)

Q87. The volume V of a given mass of monoatomic gas changes with temperature T according to the relation
2

V = KT 3
. The workdone when temperature changes by 90 K will be xR. The value of x is [R universal gas
constant] 26 Feb 2021 (E)

Q88. Thermodynamic process is shown below on a P − V diagram for one mole of an

ideal gas. If V 2 = 2V 1 , then the ratio of temperature T2

T1
is :

25 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) √2 (2) 1

√2

(3) 1

2
(4) 2

Q89*. A reversible heat engine converts one-fourth of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink is
reduced by 52 K, its efficiency is doubled. The temperature in Kelvin of the source will be ___ .
25 Feb 2021 (E)

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Q90. In a certain thermodynamical process, the pressure of a gas depends on its volume as kV . The work done 3

when the temperature changes from 100 °C to 300 °C will be xnR where n denotes number of moles of a gas
find x ; 25 Feb 2021 (M)

Q91. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(a) Isothermal (i) Pressure constant
(b) Isochoric (ii) Temperature constant
(c) Adiabatic (iii) Volume constant
(d) Isobaric (iv) Heat content is constant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) (2) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)
(3) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv) (4) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)

Q92. If one mole of an ideal gas at (P 1 , V 1 ) is allowed to expand reversibly and

isothermally (A to B ) its pressure is reduced to one-half of the original pressure (see
figure). This is followed by a constant volume cooling till its pressure is reduced to
one-fourth of the initial value (B → C). Then it is restored to its initial state by a
reversible adiabatic compression (C to A). The net workdone by the gas is equal to:

24 Feb 2021 (E)

(1) 0 (2) RT ln(2)
(3) − RT

2(γ−1)
(4) RT [ln(2) −
1

2(γ−1)
]

Q93. n mole of a perfect gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA (see figure) consisting of
the following processes.
A → B : Isothermal expansion at temperature T so that the volume is doubled from
V1 to V 2 = 2V 1 and pressure changes from P to P 1 2

B → C : Isobaric compression at pressure P to initial volume V

2 1.

C → A : Isochoric change leading to change of pressure from P to P 2 1

Total work done in the complete cycle ABCA is:

24 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) nRT (ln 2 − 1

2
) (2) nRT ln 2
(3) nRT (ln 2 + 1

2
) (4) 0

Q94. Initially a gas of diatomic molecules is contained in a cylinder of volume V at a pressure P and temperature
1 1

250 K . Assuming that 25% of the molecules get dissociated causing a change in number of moles. The
pressure of the resulting gas at temperature 2000 K, when contained in a volume 2V is given by P . The 1 2

ratio P 2 /P 1 is - 06 Sep 2020 (M)

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Q95*. An engine operates by taking a monatomic ideal gas through the cycle shown in the figure.
The percentage efficiency of the engine is close to

06 Sep 2020 (E)

Q96. Three different processes that can occur in an ideal monoatomic gas are shown in the P

vs V diagram. The paths are labelled as A → B, A → C and A → D . The change in

internal energies during these process are taken as E AB , E AC and E AD and the work
done as W AB , W AC and W AD . The correct relation between these parameters are:

05 Sep 2020 (M)

(1) E AB = E AC < E AD , W AB > 0, W AC = 0, W AD < 0

(2) E AB = E AC = E AD , W AB > 0, W AC = 0, W AD < 0

(3) E AB < E AC < E AD , W AB > 0, W AC > W AD

(4) E AB > E AC > E AD , W AB < W AC < W AD

Q97. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32n times its initial value. The final pressure of
the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is: 05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 32 (2) 326
(3) 128 (4) 1

32

Q98. Match the thermodynamics processes taking place in a system with the correct conditions. In the table : ΔQ is
the heat supplied, ΔW is the work done and ΔU is change in internal energy of the system.
Process Condition
(I) Adiabatic (A) ΔW = 0

(II) Isothermal (B) ΔQ = 0

(III) Isochoric (C) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔW ≠ 0, ΔQ ≠ 0

(IV) Isobaric (D) ΔU = 0

04 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) (I) - (A), (II) - (B), (III) - (D), (IV) - (D) (2) (I) - (B), (II) - (A), (III) - (D), (IV) - (C)
(3) (I) - (A), (II) - (A), (III) - (B), (IV) - (C) (4) (I) - (B), (II) - (D), (III) - (A), (IV) - (C)

Q99. The change in the magnitude of the volume of an ideal gas when a small additional pressure ΔP is applied at a
constant temperature, is the same as the change when the temperature is reduced by a small quantity ΔT at
constant pressure. The initial temperature and pressure of the gas were 300 K and 2 atm respectively. If
|ΔT| = C|ΔP| then value of C in (K/ atm) is 04 Sep 2020 (E)

Q100. A balloon filled with helium (32°C and 1 .7 atm) bursts. Immediately after wards the expansion of helium
can be considered as : 03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) irreversible isothermal (2) irreversible adiabatic
(3) reversible adiabatic (4) reversible isothermal

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Q101*. If minimum possible work is done by a refrigerator in converting 100 grams of water at 0 °C to ice, how
much heat (in calories) is released to the surroundings at temperature 27 °C (Latent heat of ice
= 80 Cal / gram ) to the nearest integer? 03 Sep 2020 (E)

Q102*. A heat engine is involved with exchange of heat of 1915 J, –40 J, + 125 J and –Q J, during one cycle
achieving and efficiency of 50. 0%. The value of Q is: 02 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) 640 J (2) 40 J
(3) 980 J (4) 400 J

Q103. An engine takes in 5 moles of air at 20 °C and 1 atm , and compresses it adiabatically to 1/10 th
of the
original volume. Assuming air to be a diatomic ideal gas made up of rigid molecules, the change in its
internal energy during this process comes out to be XkJ. The value of X to the nearest integer is:
02 Sep 2020 (M)

Q104. Which of the following is an equivalent cyclic process corresponding to the thermodynamic
cyclic given in the figure? Where, 1 → 2 is adiabatic. (Graphs are schematic and are not to
scale)
09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q105. Starting at temperature 300K, one mole of an ideal diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) is first compressed adiabatically
from volume V to V
1 2 =
V1

16
. It is then allowed to expand isobarically to volume 2V . If all the processes are
2

the quasi-static then the final temperature of the gas (in o

K ) is (to the nearest integer) ___________.
09 Jan 2020 (E)

Q106. A thermodynamic cycle xyzx is shown on a V - T diagram. The P - V diagram that best
describes this cycle is: (Diagrams are schematic and not to scale)

08 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Q107*. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of 1

10
is being used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the
refrigerator is 10 J, the amount of heat absorbed from the reservoir at a lower temperature is
08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 99 J (2) 100 J
(3) 1 J (4) 90 J

Q108*. A Carnot engine operates between two reservoirs of temperatures 900K and 300K . The engine performs
1200J of work per cycle. The heat energy (in J ) delivered by the engine to the low temperature reservoir, in
a cycle, is _____________ 07 Jan 2020 (M)

Q109. A litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically to a volume of 3 litres. If γ = 1.40, the work done by air is:
(3
1.4
= 4.6555) [Take air to be an ideal gas] 07 Jan 2020 (M)

(1) 60.7J (2) 90.5J (3) 100.8J (4) 48J

Q110. Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently, the mean collision time
between the gas molecule changes from τ to τ . If 1 2
CP

Cv
= γ for this gas then a good estimate for τ2

τ1
is given
by 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 2 (2) 1

2
γ γ+1

(3) ( 1

2
) (4) ( 1
)
2

Q111*. Two ideal Carnot engines operate in cascade (all heat given up by one engine is used by the other engine to
produce work) between temperatures, T and T . The temperature of the hot reservoir of the first engine is
1 2

T1 and the temperature of the cold reservoir of the second engine is T . T is temperature of the sink of first 2

engine which is also the source for the second engine. How is T related to T and T , if both the engines 1 2

perform equal amount of work? 07 Jan 2020 (E)

(1) T = 2T 1 T 2

T 1 +T 2
(2) T = T 1 +T 2

2
(3) T = √T 1 T2 (4) T = 0
Q112*. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 1

6
. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62 ℃ , its efficiency
is doubled. The temperatures of the source and the sink are, respectively, 12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 124 ℃, 62 ℃ (2) 37 ℃, 99 ℃
(3) 99 ℃, 37 ℃ (4) 62 ℃, 124 ℃

Q113. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process abca as shown in the figure.
The change in the internal energy of the gas along the path ca is −180 J. The gas absorbs
250 J of heat along the path ab and 60 J along the path bc . The work done by the gas along
the path abc is:
12 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 130 J (2) 100 J
(3) 120 J (4) 140 J

Q114. A cylinder with fixed capacity of 67.2 litre contains helium gas at STP. The amount of heat needed to raise
the temperature of the gas by 20°C is: [Given that R = 8.31 J mol −1
K
−1
] 10 Apr 2019 (M)

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(1) 748 J (2) 700 J (3) 350 J (4) 374 J

Q115. n moles of an ideal gas with constant volume heat capacity C undergo an isobaric expansion by certain
v

volume. The ratio of the work done in the process, to the heat supplied is: 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 4nR

C v +nR
(2) 4nR

C v −nR

(3) nR

C v +nR
(4) nR

C v −nR

Q116. One mole of an ideal gas passes through a process where pressure and volume obey the relation
2

P = P o [1 −
1

2
(
Vo

V
) ] . Here P and V are constants. Calculate the change in the temperature of the gas if
o o

its volume changes from V to o 2V o . 10 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) 1

4
P0 V0

R
(2) 5

4
P0 V0

(3) 1

2
P0 V0

R
(4) 3

4
P0 V0

Q117. Following figure shows two processes A and B for a gas. If ΔQ A and ΔQ B are the amount of
heat absorbed by the system in two cases, and ΔU A and ΔU B are changes in internal energies,
respectively, then:
09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) ΔQ A
< Δ QB ; Δ UA < Δ UB (2) ΔQ A
= Δ QB ; Δ UA = Δ UB

(3) ΔQ A
> Δ QB ; Δ UA = Δ UB (4) ΔQ A
> Δ QB ; Δ UA > Δ UB

Q118. The given diagram shows four processes i.e., isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic. The
correct assignment of the processes, in the same order is given by:

08 Apr 2019 (E)

(1) a d b c (2) d a b c
(3) a d c b (4) d a c b

Q119. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, the work done is:

12 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 10 J (2) 5 J
(3) 1 J (4) 30 J

Q120. A vertical closed cylinder is separated into two parts by a frictionless piston of mass m and of negligible
thickness. The piston is free to move along the length of the cylinder. The length of the cylinder above piston
is l , and that below the piston is l , such that l
1 2 1 > l2 . Each part of the cylinder contains n moles of an ideal
gas at equal temperature T . If the piston is stationary, its mass m will be given by: (R is universal gas
constant and g is the acceleration due to gravity) 12 Jan 2019 (E)

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Thermodynamics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

(1) RT

ng
[
l 1 −3l 2

l1 l2
] (2) nRT

g
[
l 1 −l 2

l1 l2
]

(3) nRT

g
[
1

I2
+
I1
1
] (4) RT

gl
[
2l 1 +l 2

l1 l2
]

Q121. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room temperature. The relation between
temperature and volume for this process is TV x
= constant, then x is: 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 3

5
(2) 2

(3) 2

3
(4) 5

Q122. In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied according to the
relation VT = K, where K is a constant. In this process the temperature of the gas is increased by ΔT. The
amount of heat absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant): 11 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 1

2
RΔT (2) 1

2
KRΔT

(3) 3

2
RΔT (4) 2 K

3
ΔT

Q123. Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of 1 atm from 20° C to 90° C. Work
done by the gas is(Gas constant,R = 8.21 J mol
−1
K
−1
) 10 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 73 J (2) 581 J (3) 291 J (4) 146 J

Q124*. Three Carnot engines operate in series between a heat source at a temperature T1 and a heat
sink at temperature T4 (see figure). There are two other reservoirs at temperature T2 and T3 ,

as shown, with T 1 > T2 > T3 > T4 . The three engines are equally efficient if:

10 Jan 2019 (M)

1 1 1

(1) T (2) T
1
2 3 2 3 2
2 3
2 = (T 1 T ) ; T 3 = (T T4 ) 2 = (T 1 T 4 ) ; T 3 = (T T4 )
4 1 1
1 1 1 1

(3) T 2 = (T
2
1
T4 )
3
; T 3 = (T 1 T
2
)
3
(4) T 2 = (T
3
T4 )
4
; T 3 = (T 1 T
3
)
3

4 1 4

Q125. A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB. When path ACB is
used 60 J of heat flows into the system and 30 J of work is done by the system. If the path
ADB is used then work done by the system is 10 J , the heat flows into the system in the path
ADB is:
09 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 100 J (2) 20 J
(3) 40 J (4) 80 J

Q126*. Two carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The first one, A, receives heat at T 1
(= 600K) and
rejects to a reservoir at temperature T . The second engine B receives heat rejected by the first engine and,
2

in turn, rejects to a heat reservoir at T 3

(= 400K). Calculate the temperature T if the work outputs of the 2

two engines are equal: 09 Jan 2019 (E)

(1) 500 K (2) 400 K
(3) 300 K (4) 600 K

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Thermodynamics JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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ANSWER KEYS
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (2)
17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1)
25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (1)
33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (4)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (750) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (3)
49. (2) 50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (102) 53. (7479) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (1400) 58. (16) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (540) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (25)
65. (480) 66. (3) 67. (500) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (4) 71. (2) 72. (2)
73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (17258) 77. (100) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1)
81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (1) 85. (-113) 86. (25) 87. (60) 88. (1)
89. (208) 90. (50) 91. (1) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (5) 95. (19) 96. (2)
97. (3) 98. (4) 99. (150) 100. (2) 101. (8791) 102. (3) 103. (46) 104. (3)
105. (1819) 106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (600) 109. (2) 110. (4) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (2) 119. (1) 120. (2)
121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (3) 126. (1)

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Mechanical Properties of Fluids JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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Q1. A sphere of relative density σ and diameter D has concentric cavity of diameter d. The ratio of D

d
, if it just
floats on water in a tank is : 09 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) ( σ−2

σ+2
)
1/3
(2) ( σ−1
σ
)
1/3

(3) ( (4) (
1/3 1/3
σ−1 σ+1
) )
σ σ−1

Q2. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. The ratio
between the volume of the first and the second bubble is: 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 27 (4) 1 : 81

Q3. A spherical ball of radius 1 × 10 −4

m and density 10 5
kg/m
3
falls freely under gravity through a distance h
before entering a tank of water, If after entering in water the velocity of the ball does not change, then the value
of h is approximately:
(The coefficient of viscosity of water is 9.8 × 10 −6
N s/m
2
) 09 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 2296 m (2) 2518 m
(3) 2249 m (4) 2396 m

Q4. Correct Bernoulli's equation is (symbols have their usual meaning) : 08 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) P + mgh +
1

2
mv
2
= constant (2) P + ρgh +
1

2
ρv
2
= constant
(3) P + ρgh + ρv
2
= constant (4) P +
1

2
ρgh +
1

2
ρv
2
= constant

Q5. A cube of ice floats partly in water and partly in kerosene oil. The ratio of volume of
ice immersed in water to that in kerosene oil (specific gravity of Kerosene oil = 0.8 ,
specific gravity of ice = 0.9)

08 Apr 2024 (E)

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 8 : 9 (4) 9 : 10

Q6. A liquid column of height 0.04 cm balances excess pressure of a soap bubble of certain radius. If density of
liquid is 8 × 10 3
kg m
−3
and surface tension of soap solution is 0.28Nm , then diameter of the soap bubble is
−1

_____ cm. (if g = 10 m s −2

) 08 Apr 2024 (M)

Q7. Small water droplets of radius 0.01 mm are formed in the upper atmosphere and falling with a terminal velocity
of 10 cm/s. Due to condensation, if 8 such droplets are coalesced and formed a larger drop, the new terminal
velocity will be _____cm/s. 08 Apr 2024 (E)

Q8. Pressure inside a soap bubble is greater than the pressure outside by an amount :
(given : R = Radius of bubble S = Surface tension of bubble) 06 Apr 2024 (E)
(1) 2S

R
(2) 4R

(3) S

R
(4) 4 S

Q9. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small droplets of water. The ratio of surface energy of 1000 droplets to
that of energy of big drop is 10

x
. The value of x is __________ 06 Apr 2024 (M)

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Q10. A small ball of mass m and density ρ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density ρ . After sometime, the ball falls
0

with constant velocity. The viscous force on the ball is : 06 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) mg (1 − ρρ 0) (2) mg (1 + ρ

ρ0
)

(3) mg ( ρ0

ρ
− 1) (4) mg(1 − ρ0

ρ
)
∇

Q11. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the capillary. The
contact angle may be 0 . ∘

Statement II : The contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a property of the material of the solid and
liquid as well.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below. 05 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

Q12. A hydraulic press containing water has two arms with diameters as
mentioned in the figure. A force of 10 N is applied on the surface of water
in the thinner arm. The force required to be applied on the surface of water
in the thicker arm to maintain equilibrium of water is _____N.

05 Apr 2024 (E)

Q13. Mercury is filled in a tube of radius 2 cm up to a height of 30 cm. The force exerted by mercury on the bottom
of the tube is _____ N. (Given, atmospheric pressure = 10 5
Nm
−2
, density of mercury = 1.36 × 10 4
kg m
−3
,

Missing \left or extra \right 04 Apr 2024 (E)

Q14. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : When speed of liquid is zero everywhere, pressure difference at
any two points depends on equation P 1
− P 2 = ρg (h 2 − h 1 ) .
Statement II : In ventury tube shown 2gh = v 2
1
− v
2
2

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below.
04 Apr 2024 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q15. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The contact angle between a solid and a liquid is a property of the material of the solid and liquid
as well.
Statement II : The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend on the inner radius of the tube.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 04 Apr 2024 (E)

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Mechanical Properties of Fluids JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
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(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q16. A soap bubble is blown to a diameter of 7 cm.36960erg of work is done in blowing it further. If surface tension
of soap solution is 40dyne/cm then the new radius is______ cm Take (π = 22

7
) 04 Apr 2024 (M)

Q17. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 40 m . If the speed of the 2

air is 180 km h
−1
over the lower wing surface and 252 km h
−1
over the upper wing surface, the mass of the
plane is ________kg. (Take air density to be 1 kg m
–3
and g = 10 m s ) –2
01 Feb 2024 (M)

Q18. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small droplets of water. The surface energy will become :
01 Feb 2024 (E)
(1) 100 times (2) 10 times
(3) 100
1
th (4) 1

10
th

Q19. A small spherical ball of radius r, falling through a viscous medium of negligible density has terminal velocity
v. Another ball of the same mass but of radius 2r, falling through the same viscous medium will have terminal
velocity: 31 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) v

2
(2) v

(3) 4v (4) 2v

Q20. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small identical drops of water. If E be the total surface energy of 1

1000 small drops of water and E be the surface energy of single big drop of water, the E : E is x :
2 1 2
1 , where
x = ________. 30 Jan 2024 (E)

Q21. A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27 identical liquid drops. If the surface tension is T , then the
work done in the process will be : 29 Jan 2024 (E)
(1) 8πR 2
T (2) 3πR 2
T

(3) 1

8
πR T
2
(4) 4πR 2
T

Q22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary
rise will be smaller in hot water.
Statement II : If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary
rise will be smaller in cold water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below
29 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q23. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower surfaces of
the wings are 70 m s −1
and 65 m s −1
respectively. If the wing area is 2 m , the lift of the wing is _______N.
2

(Given density of air = 1. 2 kg m

−3
) 29 Jan 2024 (M)

Q24. The reading of pressure metre attached with a closed pipe is 4. 5 × 10 4

N m
−2
. On opening the valve, water
starts flowing and the reading of pressure metre falls to 2. 0 × 10 4
N m
−2
. The velocity of water is found to be

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√ V m s −1 . The value of V is _________. 27 Jan 2024 (E)

Q25. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.
Statement (II) : Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble impurities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
27 Jan 2024 (M)
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q26. There is an air bubble of radius 1. 0 mm in a liquid of surface tension 0. 075 N m –1

and density 1000 kg m
–3

at a depth of 10 cm below the free surface. The amount by which the pressure inside the bubble is greater
than the atmospheric pressure is _______ P a(g = 10 m s −2
.
) 15 Apr 2023 (M)

Q27. The figure shows a liquid of given density flowing steadily in horizontal tube of
varying cross-section. Cross-sectional areas at A is 1. 5 cm ,
2
and B is 25 mm ,
2

if the speed of liquid at B is 60 cm s

−1
then (P A –P B ) is ____ (Given PA and
PB are liquid pressures at A and B points. Density ρ = 1000 kg m
−3
. A and B

are on the axis of tube)

13 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 135 P a (2) 27 P a
(3) 175 P a (4) 36 P a

Q28. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5 ± 0. 1) mm having a particular density is falling through a liquid
of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its terminal velocity is 4%.
Reason R : The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is inversely proportional to
its radius. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
13 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Q29. Glycerin of density 1. 25 × 10

3
kg m
–3
is flowing through the conical section of pipe. The area of cross-
section of the pipe at its ends are 10 cm
2
and 5 cm
2
and pressure drop across its length is 3 N m . The rate of –2

flow of glycerine through the pipe is x × 10 –5

m
3
s
–1
. The value of x is _____.
12 Apr 2023 (M)

Q30. 64 identical drops each charged upto potential of 10 mV are combined to form a bigger drop. The potential of
the bigger drop will be _____ mV. 12 Apr 2023 (M)

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Q31. The surface tension of soap solution is 3. 5 × 10

−2
N m
−1
. The amount of work done required to increase the
radius of soap bubble from 10 cm to 20 cm is _____×10 −4
J . (take π = 22

7
) 11 Apr 2023 (E)

Q32. Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm s
−1
. If the drops coalesce, the
new velocity is:- 11 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 16 cm s
−1
(2) 40 cm s
−1

(3) 5 cm s
−1
(4) 10 cm s
−1

Q33. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.
Statement II: The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
10 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Q34. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of
cross section 2. 0 cm
2
. The area of cross section at the outlet is 10 mm
2
. If the piston
is pushed at a speed of 4 cm s
−1
, the speed of outgoing fluid is _____ cm s
−1

10 Apr 2023 (E)

Q35. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass 5000 . The area of cross section of the
kg

cylinder carrying load is 250 cm

2
. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is [Assume
g = 10 m s
−2
] 08 Apr 2023 (E)
(1) 20 × 10 6
Pa (2) 2 × 10 5
Pa

(3) 200 × 10 6
Pa (4) 2 × 10 6
Pa

Q36. An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750 kg m
−3
at the rate of
0. 35 cm s
−1
. The co-efficient of viscosity of the solution (neglect density of air) is ________ Pas (given,
g = 10 m s
−2
). 08 Apr 2023 (M)

Q37. An air bubble of volume 1 cm

3
rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep to the surface at a temperature of
12°C. The atmospheric pressure is 1 × 10
5
Pa, the density of water is 1000 kg m
−3
and g = 10 m s −2
.

There is no difference of the temperature of water at the depth of 40 m and on the surface. The volume of air
bubble when it reaches the surface will be 08 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) 2 cm
3
(2) 3 cm
3

(3) 4 cm
3
(4) 5 cm
3

Q38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal’s principle
is observed.
Reason R: A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished to
every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
06 Apr 2023 (E)

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(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Q39. A small ball of mass M and density ρ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density ρ0 . After some time, the ball
falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball?
06 Apr 2023 (M)
(1) F = M g(1 +
ρ0

ρ
) (2) F = M g(1 +
ρ

ρ0
)

(3) F = M g(1 −
ρ0

ρ
) (4) F = M g(1 ± ρρ 0 )

Q40. The surface of water in a water tank of cross section area 750 cm
2
on the top of a house is h m. above the tap
level. The speed of water coming out through the tap of cross section area 500 mm
2
is 30 cm s
−1
. At that
instant, dh

dt
is x × 10 −3
m s
−1
. The value of x will be ______. 01 Feb 2023 (E)

Q41. A mercury drop of radius 10 –3

m is broken into 125 equal size droplets. Surface tension of mercury is
0. 45 N m
–1
. The gain in surface energy is: 01 Feb 2023 (M)
(1) 2. 26 × 10
–5
J (2) 28 × 10
–5
J

(3) 17. 5 × 10
–5
J (4) 5 × 10
–5
J

Q42. If 1000 droplets of water of surface tension 0. 07 N m

−1
. having same radius 1 mm each, combine to from a
single drop. In the process the released surface energy is _____ (Take π = 22

7
)

31 Jan 2023 (M)

(1) 7. 92 × 10 −6
J (2) 7. 92 × 10 −4
J

(3) 9. 68 × 10 −4
J (4) 8. 8 × 10 −5
J

Q43. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A vertically is,
5 cm . If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B of surface tension and density double the
values of liquid A, the height of liquid column raised in liquid B would be ______ m. 30 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 0. 20 (2) 0. 5
(3) 0. 05 (4) 0. 10

Q44. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2. 0 × 10 −2

N m
−1
. Work done to increase the radius of soap bubble from
3. 5 cm to 7 cm will be : [Take π = 22

7
] 29 Jan 2023 (M)
(1) 0. 72 × 10 −4
J (2) 5. 76 × 10 −4
J

(3) 18. 48 × 10 −4
J (4) 9. 24 × 10 −4
J

Q45. A metal block of base area 0. 20 m

2
is placed on a table, as shown in figure. A
liquid film of thickness 0. 25 mm is inserted between the block and the table. The
block is pushed by a horizontal force of 0. 1 N and moves with a constant speed.
If the viscosity of the liquid is 5. 0 × 10
–3
Pl, the speed of block is ______
×10
−3
m s
−1
.
29 Jan 2023 (E)

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Q46. A fully loaded boeing aircraft has a mass of 5. 4 × 10

5
kg . Its total wing area is 500 m
2
. It is in level flight
with a speed of 1080 km h
−1
. If the density of air ρ is 1. 2 kg m
–3
, the fractional increase in the speed of the
air on the upper surface of the wing relative to the lower surface in percentage will be (g = 10 m s ) −2

29 Jan 2023 (E)

(1) 16 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10

Q47. A spherical drop of liquid splits into 1000 identical spherical drops. If u is the surface energy of the original
i

uf
drop and u is the total surface energy of the resulting drops, the (ignoring evaporation),
f
ui
= (
10

x
. Then
)

value of x is ______: 25 Jan 2023 (E)

Q48. A spherical ball of radius 1 mm and density 10. 5 g cc

−1
is dropped in glycerine of coefficient of viscosity
9. 8 poise and density 1. 5 g cc
−1
. Viscous force on the ball when it attains constant velocity is 3696 × 10 −x
N

. The value of x is
(Given, g = 9. 8 m s −2
and π= 22

7
)
24 Jan 2023 (E)

Q49. The velocity of a small ball of mass 0. 3 g and density 8 g cc

−1
when dropped in a container filled with
glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is 1. 3 g cc
−1
, then the value of viscous
force acting on the ball will be x × 10 −4
N , the value of x is _____. [use g = 10 m s ] −2

29 Jul 2022 (E)

Q50. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Clothes containing oil or grease stains cannot be cleaned by water wash.
Reason (R) : Because the angle of contact between the oil/ grease and water is obtuse. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
29 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is true but (R) is true

Q51. A pressure-pump has a horizontal tube of cross-sectional area 10 cm

2
for the outflow of water at a speed of
20 m s
−1
. The force exerted on the vertical wall just in front of the tube which stops water horizontally
flowing out of the tube, is: [given : density of water = 1000 kg m
−3
] 28 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 300 N (2) 500 N
(3) 250 N (4) 400 N

Q52. The diameter of an air bubble which was initially 2 mm , rises steadily through a solution of density
1750 kg/m
3
at the rate of 0.35 cm/s. Coefficient of viscosity of the solution is ______ (Assume mass of the
bubble to be negligible) (Answer in Poise to the nearest integer) 28 Jul 2022 (M)

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Q53. Consider a cylindrical tank of radius 1 m is filled with water. The top surface of water is at
15 m from the bottom of the cylinder. There is a hole on the wall of cylinder at a height of 5 m
from the bottom. A force of 5 × 10
5
N is applied an the top surface of water using a piston.
The speed of efflux from the hole will be: (given atmospheric pressure P A = 1. 01 × 10
5
Pa,
density of water ρ w = 1000 kg m
−3
and gravitational acceleration g = 10 m s ) −2

28 Jul 2022 (E)

(1) 11. 6 m s −1
(2) 10. 8 m s −1

(3) 17. 8 m s −1
(4) 14. 4 m s −1

Q54. Two cylindrical vessels of equal cross-sectional area 16 cm

2
contain water upto heights 100 cm and 150 cm

respectively. The vessels are interconnected so that the water levels in them become equal. The work done by
the force of gravity during the process, is [Take density of water = 10 3
kg m
−3
and g = 10 ms
−2
]
27 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 0. 25 J (2) 1 J
(3) 8 J (4) 12 J

Q55. A spherical soap bubble of radius 3 cm is formed inside another spherical soap bubble of radius 6 cm . If the
internal pressure of the smaller bubble of radius 3 cm in the above system is equal to the internal pressure of
the another single soap bubble of radius r cm . The value of r is _____ 27 Jul 2022 (E)

Q56. A water drop of radius 1 cm is broken into 729 equal droplets. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne cm
−1
,
then the gain in surface energy upto first decimal place will be [Given π = 3. 14]
26 Jul 2022 (M)
(1) 8. 5 × 10 −4
J (2) 8. 2 × 10 −4
J

(3) 7. 5 × 10 −4
J (4) 5. 3 × 10 −4
J

Q57. A drop of liquid of density ρ is floating half immersed in a liquid of density σ and surface tension
7. 5 × 10
−4
N cm
−1
. The radius of drop in cm will be : (Take : g = 10 ms
−2
) 25 Jul 2022 (E)
(1) 15

√ 2ρ−σ
(2) √ρ−σ
15

(3) 3

2√ρ−σ
(4) 3

20√ 2ρ−σ

Q58. A small spherical ball of radius 0. 1 mm and density 10 4

kg m
−3
falls freely under gravity through a distance
h before entering a tank of water. If, after entering the water the velocity of ball does not change and it
continue to fall with same constant velocity inside water, then the value of h will be ____ m. (Given
g = 10 m s
−2
, viscosity of water = 1. 0 × 10 −5
‐
N s m
−2
). 29 Jun 2022 (E)

Q59. A water drop of radius 1μm falls in a situation where the effect of buoyant force is negligible. Co-efficient of
viscosity of air is 1. 8 × 10
−5
N s m
−2
and its density is negligible as compared to that of water 10
6
g m
−3
.
Terminal velocity of the water drop is
(Take acceleration due to gravity = 10 m s ) −2

28 Jun 2022 (E)

(1) 145. 4 × 10 −6
m s
−1
(2) 123. 4 × 10 −6
m s
−1

(3) 118. 0 × 10 −6
m s
−1
(4) 132. 6 × 10 −6
m s
−1

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Q60. A liquid of density 750 kg m

−3
flows smoothly through a horizontal pipe that tapers in cross-sectional area
from A 1 = 1. 2 × 10
−2
m
2
to A 2 =
A1

2
. The pressure difference between the wide and narrow sections of the
pipe is 4500 Pa . The rate of flow of liquid is _____ ×10 −3
m
3
s
−1
. 28 Jun 2022 (E)

Q61. A water drop of diameter 2 cm is broken into 64 equal droplets. The surface tension of water is 0. 075 N m . −1

In this process the gain in surface energy will be 28 Jun 2022 (M)
(1) 2. 8 × 10 −4
J (2) 1. 5 × 10 −3
J

(3) 1. 9 × 10 −4
J (4) 9. 4 × 10 −5
J

Q62. The velocity of a small ball of mass m and density d , when dropped in a container filled with glycerine,
1

becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d , then the viscous force acting on the ball, 2

will be 27 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) mg(1 − d1

d2
) (2) mg(1 − d2

d1
)

(3) mg( d1

d2
− 1) (4) mg( d2

d1
− 1)

Q63. The area of cross-section of a large tank is 0. 5 m

2
. It has a narrow opening near the bottom having area of
cross-section 1 cm
2
. A load of 25 kg is applied on the water at the top in the tank. Neglecting the speed of
water in the tank, the velocity of the water, coming out of the opening at the time when the height of water
level in the tank is 40 cm above the bottom, will be _____ cm s
−1
. [Take g = 10 m s ] −2

27 Jun 2022 (M)

Q64*. If p is the density and η is coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows with a speed v in the pipe of diameter
d, the correct formula for Reynolds number R is e
26 Jun 2022 (E)
(1) R e
=
πd

ρv
(2) R e
=
ρv

ηd

(3) R e
=
ρvd

η
(4) R e
=
η

ρνd

Q65. An ideal fluid of density 800 kg m

−3
, flows smoothly through a bent pipe (as
shown in figure) that tapers in cross-sectional area from a to a

2
. The pressure
difference between the wide and narrow sections of pipe is 4100 Pa . At wider
section, the velocity of fluid is for x =_____. (Given g = 10 m s )
√x −1 −2
m s
6

26 Jun 2022 (M)

Q66. The terminal velocity (v ) of the spherical rain drop depends on the radius (r) of the spherical rain drop as
t

25 Jun 2022 (M)

(1) r (2) r 2

(3) 1

r
(4) 1

r
2

Q67. The velocity of upper layer of water in a river is 36 km h

−1
. Shearing stress between horizontal layers of
water is 10 −3
N m
−2
. Depth of the river is _____ m. (Co-efficient of viscosity of water is 10 −2
)
Pa s

25 Jun 2022 (M)

Q68. A glass tumbler having inner depth of 17. 5 cm is kept on a table. A student starts pouring water (μ = 4

3
) into
it while looking at the surface of water from the above. When he feels that the tumbler is half filled, he stops
pouring water. Up to what height, the tumbler is actually filled ? 01 Sep 2021 (E)

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(1) 10 cm (2) 11. 7 cm

(3) 7. 5 cm (4) 8. 75 cm

Q69. In Millikan's oil drop experiment, what is viscous force acting on an uncharged drop of radius 2. 0 × 10 −5
m

and density 1. 2 × 10 3
kg m
−3
? Take viscosity of liquid = 1. 8 × 10 −5
N s m
−2
. (Neglect buoyancy due to
air). 27 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 5. 8 × 10 −10
N (2) 3. 9 × 10 −10
N

(3) 1. 8 × 10 −10
N (4) 3. 8 × 10 −11
N

Q70. A soap bubble of the radius 3 cm is formed inside another soap bubble of radius, 6 cm . The radius of an
equivalent soap bubble that has the same excess pressure as inside the smaller bubble with respect to the
atmospheric pressure is____cm. 26 Aug 2021 (M)

Q71. Two narrow bores of diameter 5. 0 mm and 8. 0 mm are joined together to form a U −shaped tube open at
both ends. If this U −tube contains water, what is the difference in the level of two limbs of the tube. [Take
surface tension of water T = 7. 3 × 10
−2
N m
−1
, angle of contact = 0, g = 10 m s
−2
and density of water
= 1. 0 × 10
3
kg m
−3
] 26 Aug 2021 (M)
(1) 5. 34 mm (2) 3. 62 mm

(3) 2. 19 mm (4) 4. 97 mm

Q72. A light cylindrical vessel is kept on a horizontal surface. Area of the base is A. A hole of
cross-sectional area a is made just at its bottom side. The minimum coefficient of friction
necessary to prevent sliding the vessel due to the impact force of the emerging liquid is

27 Jul 2021 (M)

(1) A

2a
(2) None of these
(3) 2a

A
(4) a

Q73. The water is filled up to a height of 12 m in a tank having vertical sidewalls. A hole is made in one of the walls
at a depth h below the water level. The value of h for which the emerging stream of water strikes the ground at
the maximum range is _____ m. 27 Jul 2021 (E)

Q74. A raindrop with radius R = 0. 2 mm falls from a cloud at a height h = 2000 m above the ground. Assume that
the drop is spherical throughout its fall and the force of buoyance may be neglected, then the terminal speed
attained by the raindrop is : [Density of water f w = 1000 kg m
−3
and Density of air
f a = 1. 2 kg m
−3
, g = 10 m/s
2
Coefficient of viscosity of air = 1. 8 × 10 −5
N s m
−2
]

27 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) 250. 6 m s −1
(2) 43. 56 m s −1

(3) 4. 94 m s −1
(4) 14. 4 m s −1

Q75. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r and r in vacuum combine under isothermal conditions. The resulting
1 2

bubble has a radius equal to: 25 Jul 2021 (E)

(1) r1 r2

r 1 +r 2
(2) √r 1 r2

(3) √r 2
+ r
2 (4) r 1 +r 2

2
1 2

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Q76. Two small drops of mercury each of radius R coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio of total surface
energy before and after the change is 20 Jul 2021 (E)
1 1

(1) 2 3
: 1 (2) 1 : 2 3

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

Q77. Consider a water tank as shown in the figure. It's cross-sectional area is 0. 4 m
2
. The tank
has an opening B near the bottom whose cross-section area is 1 cm
2
. A load of 24 kg is
applied on the water at the top when the height of the water level is 40 cm above the bottom,
the velocity of water coming out the opening B is v m s
−1
. The value of v, to the nearest
integer, is ___.[Take the value of g to be 10 m s ] −2

18 Mar 2021 (E)

Q78. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b(b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface is:
17 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) ab

b−a
(2) a+b

ab

(3) b−a

ab
(4) ab

a+b

Q79. Suppose you have taken a dilute solution of oleic acid in such a way that its concentration becomes 0. 01 cm
3

of oleic acid per cm of the solution. Then you make a thin film of this solution (monomolecular thickness) of
3

area 4 cm
2
by considering 100 spherical drops of radius ( 40π
3
)
3
× 10
−3
cm. Then the thickness of oleic acid
layer will be x × 10 −14
m. Where x is ________ . 17 Mar 2021 (E)

Q80. The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 × 10 5

Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is doubled, the percentage
increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be: (Assume that atmospheric pressure is 1 × 10 5
Pa

density of water is 10 3
kg m
−3
, g = 10 ms
−2
) 16 Mar 2021 (M)
(1) 200

3
% (2) 200

5
%

(3) 5

200
% (4) 3

200
%

Q81*. What will be the nature of flow of water from a circular tap, when its flow rate increased from
0. 18 L (min)
−1
to 0. 48 L (min) −1
? The radius of the tap and viscosity of water are 0. 5 cm and 10 −3
Pa s ,
respectively. (Density of water : 10 3
kg m
−3
)
16 Mar 2021 (E)
(1) Unsteady to steady flow (2) Remains steady flow
(3) Remains turbulent flow (4) Steady flow to unsteady flow

Q82. A large number of water drops, each of radius r, combine to have a drop of radius R. If the surface tension is T
and mechanical equivalent of heat is J , the rise in heat energy per unit volume will be: 26 Feb 2021 (M)
(1) 2T

rJ
(2) 3T

rJ

(3) 2T

J
(
1

r
−
1

R
) (4) 3T

J
(
1

r
−
1

R
)

Q83. A hydraulic press can lift 100 kg when a mass m is placed on the smaller piston. It can lift kg when the
diameter of the larger piston is increased by 4 times and that of the smaller piston is decreased by 4 times
keeping the same mass m on the smaller piston. 24 Feb 2021 (M)

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Q84. A fluid is flowing through a horizontal pipe of varying cross-section, with v ms

−1
at a point where the
pressure is P Pascal. At another point where pressure P

2
Pascal its speed is V ms
−1
. If the density of the fluid
is ρ kg − m −3
and the flow is streamline, then V is equal to 06 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) √ P
+ υ (2) √ 2P
+ υ 2
ρ ρ

(3) √ P
+ υ 2 (4) √ P
+ υ 2
2 ρ ρ

Q85. A hollow spherical shell at outer radius R floats just submerged under the water surface. The inner radius of
the shell is r . If the specific gravity of the shell material is 27

8
with respect to water, the value of r is:
05 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 8

9
R (2) 4

9
R

(3) 2

3
R (4) 1

3
R

Q86. In an experiment to verify Stokes law, a small spherical ball of radius r and density ρ falls under gravity
through a distance h in air before entering a tank of water. If the terminal velocity of the ball inside water is
same as its velocity just before entering the water surface, then the value of h is proportional to: (ignore
viscosity of air) 05 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) r 4
(2) r
(3) r 3
(4) r 2

Q87. Two identical cylindrical vessels are kept on the ground and each contain the same liquid of density d. The
area of the base of both vessels is S but the height of liquid in one vessel is x and in the other x . When both 1 2

cylinders are connected through a pipe of negligible volume very close to the bottom, the liquid flows from
one vessel to the other until it comes to equilibrium at a new height. The change in energy of the system in the
process is : 04 Sep 2020 (E)
(1) gdS(x 2
2
+ x )
2
1
(2) gdS(x 2 + x1 )
2

(3) 3

4
gdS(x 2 − x 1 )
2
(4) 1

4
gdS(x 2 − x 1 )
2

Q88. A air bubble of radius 1 cm in water has an upward acceleration of 9.8 cm s . The density of water is –2

1 gm cm
–3
and water offers negligible drag force on the bubble. The mass of the bubble is (g =
2
980 cm/s ) .
04 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 4.51 gm (2) 3. 15 gm
(3) 4.15 gm (4) 1.52 gm

Q89. When a long glass capillary tube of radius 0. 015 cm is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of 15 cm

within it. If the contact angle between the liquid and glass to close to 0°, the surface tension of the liquid, in
milliNewton m −1
, is [ρ (liqued)
= 900 kg m
−3
, g = 10 m s
−2
] (Given answer in closed integer)
03 Sep 2020 (M)

Q90. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1. 01 and 1. 02 atmosphere, respectively. The ratio of their volumes is :
03 Sep 2020 (M)
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 0. 8 : 1
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

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Q91. A capillary tube made of glass of radius 0. 15 mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with methylene iodide
(surface tension = 0. 05 N m
−1
, density = 667 kg m
−3
) which rises to height h in the tube. It is observed
that the two tangents drawn from observed that the two tangents drawn from liquid-glass interfaces (from opp.
sides of the capillary) make an angle of 60º with one another. Then h is close to (g = 10 m s ) −2

02 Sep 2020 (E)

(1) 0. 049 m (2) 0. 087 m
(3) 0. 137 m (4) 0. 172 m

Q92. Water flows m a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by
700 N m
−2
between A and B where the area of cross section are 40 cm
2
and 2
20 cm ,

respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube. (density of water
= 1000 kgm
−3
)
09 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 3020cm 3
/s (2) 2720cm 3
/s

(3) 2420cm 3
/s (4) 1810cm 3
/s

Q93. A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immersed in a liquid of density ρ and surface
tension T . The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface tension applies an upward force on the
droplet): 09 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) r = √ 2T
(2) r = √ T

3(d+ρ)g (d−ρ)g

(3) r = √ T
(4) r = √ 3T

(d+ρ)g (2d−ρ)g

Q94. A leak proof cylinder of length 1 m, made of a metal which has very low coefficient of expansion is floating
vertically in water at 0 o
C such that its height above the water surface is 20 cm. When the temperature of water
is increased to 4 o
C, the height of the cylinder above the water surface becomes 21 cm. The density of water at
T = 4 C,
o
relative to the density at T = 0 C
o
is close to: 08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) 1.26 (2) 1.04
(3) 1.01 (4) 1.03

Q95. Two liquids of densities ρ and ρ 1 2

(ρ 2 = 2ρ 1 ) are filled up behind a square wall of side 10m as
shown in figure. Each liquid has a height of 5m. The ratio of the forces due to these liquids
exerted on upper part MN to that at the lower part NO is (Assume that the liquids are not
mixing):
08 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 1

3
(2) 2

(3) 1

2
(4) 1

Q96. Consider a solid sphere of radius R and mass density ρ(r) = ρ

2

0 (1 −
r

R
2
), 0 < r ≤ R. The minimum density
of a liquid in which it will float is: 08 Jan 2020 (M)
(1) ρ0

3
(2) ρ0

(3) (4)
2ρ 0 2ρ 0

5 3

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Q97. An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a pipe of non-uniform diameter. The maximum and minimum
diameters of the pipes are 6.4cm and 4.8cm , respectively. The ratio of the minimum and the maximum
velocities of fluid in this pipe is: 07 Jan 2020 (E)
(1) 9

16
(2) √3

(3) 3

4
(4) 81

256

Q98. A solid sphere, of radius R acquires a terminal velocity v when falling (due to gravity) through a viscous fluid
1

having a coefficient of viscosity η. The sphere is broken into 27 identical solid spheres. If each of these
spheres acquires a terminal velocity, v , when falling through the same fluid, the ratio (
2
v1

v2
) equals:
12 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 1

9
(2) 27
(3) 1

27
(4) 9

Q99. A submarine experiences a pressure of 5.05 × 10 6

Pa at a depth of d in a sea. When it goes further to a depth
1

of d2 , it experiences a pressure of 8.08 × 10

6
Pa . Then d 2 − d1 is approximately (density of water
= 10
3
kg/m
3
and acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms
−2
): 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 600 m (2) 500 m
(3) 300 m (4) 400 m

Q100. A cubical block of side 0.5 m floats on water with 30% of its volume under water. What is the maximum
weight that can be put on the block without fully submerging it under water?
[Take, density of water = 10
3
kg/m
3
] 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 87.5 kg (2) 65.4 kg
(3) 30.1 kg (4) 46.3 kg

Q101. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 ms
−1
. The cross − sectional
area of the tap is 10
−4
m
2
. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and that the
flow is streamlined. The cross − sectional area of the stream, 0.15 m below the tap would be: (Take
g = 10 ms
−2
) 10 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 1 × 10 −5
m
2
(2) 5 × 10 −4
m
2

(3) 2 × 10 −5
m
2
(4) 5 × 10 −5
m
2

Q102. The ratio of surface tensions of mercury and water is given to be 7.5, while the ratio of their densities is 13.6
. Their contact angles, with glass, are close to 135° and 0°, respectively. If it is observed that mercury gets
depressed by an amount h in a capillary tube of radius r , while water rises by the same amount h in a
1

capillary tube of radius r , then the ratio2

r1

r2
is close to 10 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 3

5
(2) 2

(3) 4

5
(4) 2

Q103. If 'M' is the mass of water that rises in a capillary tube of radius 'r' , then mass of water which will rise in a
capillary tube of radius '2r' is: 09 Apr 2019 (M)
(1) 4 M (2) 2 M
(3) M

2
(4) M

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Q104. A wooden block floating in a bucket of water has 4

5
of its volume submerged. When certain amount of an oil
is poured into the bucket, it is found that the block is just under the oil surface with half of its volume under
water and half in oil. The density of oil relative to that of water is: 09 Apr 2019 (E)
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.7
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.6

Q105*. Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds
number for the flow is of the order of: (density of water = 100 kg/m , coefficient of viscosity of water
3

= 1 mPa s) 08 Apr 2019 (M)

(1) 10
2
(2) 10 4

(3) 10 3
(4) 10 6

Q106. A soap bubble, blown by a mechanical pump at the mouth of a tube increases in volume with time at a
constant rate. The graph that correctly depicts the time dependence of pressure inside the bubble is given by:
12 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q107. A liquid of density ρ is coming out of a hose pipe of radius a with horizontal speed v and hits a mesh. 50% of
the liquid passes through the mesh unaffected. 25% looses all of its momentum and 25% comes back with the
same speed. The resultant pressure on the mesh will be: 11 Jan 2019 (M)
(1) 1

4
ρv
2
(2) 3

4
ρv
2

(3) 1

2
ρv
2
(4) ρv 2

Q108. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at the rate of 10 −4 3
m s
−1
. Water is also leaking out of a hole of
area 1 cm at its bottom. If the height of the water in the tank remains steady then this height is:
2

10 Jan 2019 (M)

(1) 5.1 cm (2) 1.7 cm
(3) 2.9 cm (4) 4 cm

Q109. The top of a water tank is open to air and its water level is maintained. It is giving out 0.74 m water per 3

minute through a circular opening of 2 cm radius in its wall. The depth of the centre of the opening from the
level of water in the tank is close to: 09 Jan 2019 (E)
(1) 2.9 m (2) 4.8 m
(3) 6.0 m (4) 9.6 m

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Mechanical Properties of Fluids JEE Main 2024 - 2019 PYQs
Chapter Priority: Priority B MathonGo

ANSWER KEYS
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (7) 7. (40) 8. (4)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (1000) 13. (177) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (7)
17. (9600) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (10) 21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (810) 24. (50)
25. (2) 26. (1150) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (160) 31. (264) 32. (2)
33. (4) 34. (80) 35. (4) 36. (10) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (25) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (7)
49. (25) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (11) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (20) 59. (2) 60. (24) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (300) 64. (3)
65. (363) 66. (2) 67. (100) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (2) 71. (3) 72. (3)
73. (6) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (3) 78. (1) 79. (25) 80. (1)
81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (25600) 84. (4) 85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (3)
89. (101) 90. (3) 91. (2) 92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (3)
97. (1) 98. (4) 99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (4)
105. (2) 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (2)

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