OAUTHC SCHOOL OF NURSING

PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

OAUTCH ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

(2015, 2016, 2017, 2018 and 2019)
 OAUTHC SCHOOL OF NURSING PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSERS
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2015
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

INSTRUCTION:
Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.

2. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

3. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

SECTION A:
From the words lettered A D choose the word which best completes each of the following sentences,
1. The solution to the problem is happily ___________ (a) at hand (b) on hand (C) within hand (d) near hand

2. My grandmother told a story that made me ______ (a) laughing (b) laugh (c) laughed (d) to laugh

3. The principal with all the teachers and students ______ (a) has arrived (b)were arriving (c) have arrived (d) were to
arrive

4. The triplets love ____very much (a) each other (b) one another (c) the other (d) the others
5. The man asked if she her face (a) have run (b) had ran (c) have ran (d)had ran

6 Please_____ the light before you sleep (a) extinguish (b) put out (c) put off (d) switch off

7. The woman ____ the sharp knife from the baby in a subtle way (a) wrested (b) rested (c) wrestled (d) arrested

INSTRUCTION: After each of the sentences below a list of possible interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given. Choose
the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

8. The elders felt it was a forlorn hope and vehemently opposed It (a) a dangerous (b) a plan which would not favour the
elder (c) a planless course of action (d) a plan which had very little likelihood of success

9. The sword of Darnodee will be hanging over the council if that party gain control (a) the of justice (b) imminent danger
in the midst of
prosperity (c) the man‟s influence (d)the curse of God

10. Bisi stole a march on us by beating the gun at the race (a) gained an advantage (b) came last (c) came first (d)was
disqualified

11. Because the principal still refused his permission his staff finally took the bit between their teeth (a) carried placards (b)
got out of control (c) tore up the timetable (d) refused to go to work

12. I took time by the forelock and succeeded in getting a scholarship (a)used force (b) did a clever thing (c) acted promptly
(d) used a cunning means

13. I laughed up my sleeve as he told the tales of his exploits (a) was openly making fun of him (b) was very pleased (c)
laughed (d) was secretly amused
INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
expression as it is used in the sentence.

14. The rioters despoiled the main markets (a) looted (b) destroyed (c) burnt (d) desecrated

15. What happened last night was a novelty (a) a happy occurrence (b) a usual occurrence (c) an unusual occurrence (d) a sad
occurrence

16. Some people believe that it is ominous for the dog to bark at night (a) giving an evil (b) frighiful (c) sad (d) evil

17. In a section of the town many people were living in abject poverty (a) degraded (b) worthless (c) shameless (d)
objectionable

18. The contribution of the engineer was priceless (a) invaluable (b) worthless (c) nice (d) exorbitant

19. The young man surmounted all the oppressive measures to break his will (a) overcame (b)fought (c) renounced (d)
defeated

Read the passage below and answer question 20 24 that follows

The premise behind the question seems to be that if one does not unhesitatingly assert belief in evolution, then one must
necessarily believe that God created the world and everything in it in six 24-hour days. But limiting this question to a stark choice
between evolution and creationism does a disservice to the complexity of the interaction between science, faith and reason.
The heart of the issue is that we can not drive a wedge between faith and reason. I believe wholeheartedly that there can
not be any contradiction between the two. The scientific method, base on reason seeks to discover truths about the nature of the
created order and how it operates, whereas faith deals with spiritual truths. The truths of science and faith are complementary; they
deal with very different questions, but they do not contradict each other because the spiritual order and the material order were
created by the same God.
People of faith should be rational, using the gift of reason that God has given us. At the same time, reason itself cannot
answer every question. Faith seeks to purify reason so that we might be able to see more clearly, not less faith supplement the
scientific method by providing and understanding of values, meaning and purpose.
More than that, faith-not-science can help us understand the breadth of human suffering or the depth of human love. Faith
and science should go together, not be driven apart.
The question of evolution goes to the heart of this issue. If belief in evolution means simply assenting to microevolution,
small changes over time within a species, I am happy to say, as I have in the past, that I believe it to be true. If one the other hand,
it means assenting to an exclusively materialistic, deterministic vision of the world that holds no place for a guiding intelligence,
then I reject it.

20. In this passage, the writer seeks to (a) portray the superiority of science over faith (b) show the compatibility of faith and
science (c) show the complexity of evolution and creationism (d) show the contradictions of faith and reason

21. The writer‟s attitude to the subject of the passage could be described as (a) cynical (b) ambivalent (c) disapproving (d)
conciliatory

22. From the passage, which of the following does the writer support? (a)evolutionary changes within a small group of
organisms (b) the creation of the world in a six 24-hour day (c) without the scientific method, faith cannot be
practice (d) those who believe in creation cannot be good scientists

23. A possible title for this passage is (a) the absurdity of faith without reason (b) science, faith and reason (c) the
complementarily of evolution and creation (d) a deterministic vision of the world
24. Which of the following idea is NOT true according the passage? (a) both science and faith express various truths
(b) to believe in evolution is to deny the existence of God (c) the world could be better understood by bridging the gap
between reason and faith (d) both science and faith express various truths

INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
expression as it is used in the sentence.

25. Do you know that the ___ is different from the latter? (a) former (b) beginning (c) latest (d) later

26. While some animals are still extant, some are today (a) distant (b) intant (c) extinct (d) domestic

27. Your brother always speaks euphemistic words to address us but it is characteristic of your sister to speak _____ words
to us (a) few (b) rash (c) harsh (d) police

28. While some activities are enervating some other activities are ____ (a) invigorating (b) exacerbating (c) immunizing (d)
embarrassing

29. We expect the boy to show remorse for the offence he committed, but he remained ____ to the surprise of all (a)
indifferent (b) respectful (c) unrepentant (d) reserved

30. Whereas Bello‟s behaviour is erratic, Tito‟s manner of doing things is _____ (a) predictable (b) allergic (c) assertive (d)
eccentric
 GENERAL PAPER
INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D choose the appropriate answer.

1. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of waves? (a) diffraction (b) polarization (c) reflection (d)
refraction

2. The thermometric substance of an absolute thermometer is (a) platinum (b) mercury (c) alcohol (d) helium

3. Which one of the following has the highest specific heat capacity? (a) water (b) liquid hydrogen (c) copper (d) lead

4. Which of the following sources of energy is non-renewable? (a) tides (b) solar (c) ocean waves (d) biomass

5. What type of electromagnetic radiation can be used to take photographs in the haze? (a) radio waves (b) visible
rays (c) ultraviolet rays (d) infrared rays

6. The difference in mass number (A) of atoms of the same element is due to a difference in (a) proton number (b)
number of electrons (c) neutron number (d) proton and electron number

7. A man hears his echo from a nearby hill 2 seconds after he shouted. If the frequency of his voice is 250Hz and t e
wavelength is 1 .20m, how far away is the hill? (a)21 3m (b) 31 5m (c) 335m (d)340m

8. The colour of the positive column in a gas discharge tube is characteristic of the (a) gas and the coating in the tube
(b) pressure of the gas only (c)temperature of the gas only (d) pressure and potential difference

9. Which of the following pairs of particles each have the same number of electrons as argon? [Ar = 18] (a) Li and
F (b) Na and F (c) Na and F4 (d) and CL

10. A mixture of 0.20 mole of Ar 2.20mole of Na and 0.30 mole of He exerts a total pressure of 2.1 atmosphere. What
is the partial pressure of He in the mixture? (a) 0.70 atmosphere (b) 0.80 atmosphere (c) 0.90 atmosphere (d) 0.65
atmosphere

11. The poH of a solution is 12.23; calculate the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution (a) 1.52 x 10-2 (b) 1 .69 x
10-2 (c) 1.74 x 10-2 (d)1.87x 10-2

12 Which of the following is an artificial element? (a) plutonium (b) lanthanum (c) uranium (d) lutetium

13. One common fraction may be represented ironically by the equation Ba 2+ + So42+ BaSo4 this occurs during (a)
hydrolysis (b) synthesis (c)thermal association (d)double decomposition

14. White phosphorous s stored under water because it (a) is corrosive (b) is corrosive (c) reacts with carbon (iv)
oxide (d) is hydrolyzed by atmospheric moisture

15. When aluminum tetraxosulphate (iv) reacts with excess sodium hydroxide, the formula of one of the compounds
formed is (a)Al Na02 (b)Al (OH)3 (c) NaAl (OH)4 (d) Na3AlO3

16. An alloy of copper and tin used in electrical contracts is (a) brass (B) solder (c) bronze (d)type metal

17 Kerosene and petrol (gasoline) are (a) hydrocarbons with kerosene having bigger molecules (b) hydrocarbons with
petrol having bigger molecules (c) hydrocarbons with the same size molecules but of different shape (d)compounds of
carbon and hydrogen and sulphur for kerosene, but nitrogen for petrol

18. The preparation of ethoxyethane (C2H5OC2H5) form ethanol can be considered as (a) dehydration (b) oxidation
reactions (c) hydrolysis reactions (d) dehydrogenation reactions.
19. Which of the following gives the correct formula of the fatty acid present in palm oil? (a)CH3(CH2)14COOH
(b)CH3(CH2)16OOOH (c)CH3(CH2)15COOH (d)CH3(CH2)17COOH

20. Glycerol had the typical properties of (a) an acid (b) a base (c) an alcohol (d) an ester

21. A certain natural product contains the ester glycerol palmitate soap can be made from this by (a) passing over
activated charcoal (b) boiling with sodium hydroxide (c) mixing with hydrogen (d) heating with glycerine

22. Which of the following is NOT a thermosetting plastic? (a) terylene products (b) phenol methanol products (c)
carbomide methanol products (d) malemine methanol products

23. The trajectory of a projectile motion is (a) ellipsoidal (b) parabolic (c) parabolic (d) spherical

24. A body accelerates from rest with an acceleration of 8ms2 for 10 seconds. Calculate the distance converted in the 1
0th second (a) 76m (b) 97m (c) 324m (d)400m

25. Which of the following infection is unlikely to respond to antibiotics treatment? (a)tetanus (b) measles (C) typhoid
fever (d) ringworm

26. Pest can be controlled without the subsequent danger of polluting the ecosystem by (a) spraying the ecosystem with
pesticide (b) keeping the population of natural enemies constant (c) increasing the population of natural enemies of the pest (d)
eliminating the natural enemies of the pests

27. Autotrophs are also describes as (a) consumers (b) carnivores (c)producer (d) decomposers

28. Which of the following bones is NOT a component of the appendicular skeleton? (a) tibia (b) sacrum (c) radius (d)
humerus

29. If two parents are sickle cell carries then their genotypes would be(a) HbΛ HbΛ and HbΛ HbΛ (b) Hbs Hbs and Hbs
Hbs (c) HbΛ HbΛ and Hbs Hbs (d)HbΛ Hbs and HbΛ Hbs

30. Procaryotic cells are found in (a) monerons (b) algae (c) tracheophytes (d) spirogyra

31. The correct order of classification of human being is (a) animalia, chordate, vertebrata, mammalie, primate,
hominidate, homo and sapiens (b) animalia, vertebrata, mammalie, chordate, primate, homo, sapiens and hominidee (c)
chordate, animalia, vertebrata, mammalie, primate, hominidate, and sapiens (d) animalia, chordate, vertebrata, primate,
mammalian, homo and sapiens

32. Deficiency of sulphur causes (a) poor, weedy growth (b) extremely stunted growth (c) yellowing of leaves stems
become slender (d) weak, stunted growth

33. Vitamin K is important in the (a) formation of enzymes involved in synthesis of amino acid (b) formation of red
blood cells (c) synthesis of blood clothing factors (d) formation of co-enzymes involved in cellular respiration

34. The following are the components of nucleotides except (a) a five- carbon sugar (B) a six-carbon sugar (c) a
phosphate group (d) an organic nitrogen-containing

35. Which of the following inherited conditions usually shows incomplete dominance? (a) baldness (b) tongue rolling ability
(c) haemophilia (d) sickle cell anaemia

36. Which of the following is not a theory under Darwin‟s theory of organic evolution (a) over production (b)
struggle for existence (c) mutation (d) offspring show variations

37. Which of the following does not cause mutation? (a) x-rays (b) mutant (c) ultra-violet light (d) cosmic radiation
38. Which of the following organisms has homodont dentition? (a) a lizard (b) sheep (c) cat (d) man

39. Which of the following habitats cannot be used for the study of succession? (a) a pond (b) savanna grassland (c)
well cultivated land (d)abandoned farm land

40. Which of the following statement is/are correct

i. One mole of sodium atoms contains 6.02 x 1023 atoms and weighs 23g
ii. One mole of magnesium atoms contains 6.02 x atoms and weighs 24g
iii. One mole of oxygen atoms contains 6.02 x 1023 atoms and weighs 16g (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iii (d) i, ii and iii
21. D
ENGLISH 22. A
GENERAL PAPER 23. C
1. A 24. B 17. B
2. B 25. A 18. A
3. A 26. C 19. A
4. B 27. C 20. B
5. D 28. A
6. B 29. C
7. A 30. A
8. B 31. A
9. B 32. C
10. A 33. C
11. B 34. B
12. C 35. A
13. D 36. C
14. A 37. B
15. C 38. A
16. D 39. C
40. D
 OAUTHC SCHOOL OF NURSING PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSERS
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2016

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

INSTRUCTION:
Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.
2. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper
3. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

From the options A D, choose the word that has the same sound as the one underlined.
1. Poor (a) more (b)tore (c) dour (d) door
2. Great (a)cake (b)break (c)team (d)beam
3. Clothe (a) cloth (b) tooth (c)wordy (d)forth
4. Sing (a) goose (b) game (c)banged (d)jungle
5. Machine (a) chancellor (b) bishop (c) character (d) measure

From the option A D provided, choose the one nearest in meaning to the underlined word(s)
6. Many tourists say this country has a bracing climate (a) harsh (b)invigorating (c) benevolent (d) same
7. After the race, some of the athlete felt completely done in (a) strained (b)satisfied (c) disappointed (d) exhausted
8. My sister‟s husband is very fastidious about his food (a) careful (b)hygienic (c) ravenous (d) particular
9. Because the student failed to obey the regulation restricting movement in the school compound, he was expelled.
(a) answer (b) observe (c) notice (d) understand
10. Peter‟s breathing soon became difficult in the thin air of the hills, and there had to be regular pauses for recreation (a)
rewarded (b) rest (c) recovery (d) restoration

From the words lettered. A D, choose the interpretation that gives the correct meaning of the idiom in the sentence or phrase
11. The teacher said that it was bad to cook the books. This means to (a) write good books for the public to read and enjoy
(b) falsify figures dishonesty (c) willfully destroy a document which contains vital information (d) publish books
as a means of living
12. He is in the first flight of footballers, this means he is (a) in the first team (b) always the first footballer to score a
goal (c) among the best footballers (d)the first footballer to run away from camp
13. To say that “a rolling stone gather no moss” means (a) an unsteady person is bound to encounter failure (b) a young
person cannot succeed easily in life (c) a person who runs every time cannot live long (d) it is not good to make a stone roll
14. Osazee scored a brilliant hat trick in the final match of the world cup
fiesta. This means that he, (a) won the prize for the best player (b)failed to score the winning goal (c) had a hat
on during the game (d)scored three successive goals in the match
15. The judge „had his hands tied” in the case in which his son was arraigned for a charge of murder. This means that
the judge (a) was withdrawn from the case (b) was handcuffed while the trial lasted (c) could not help convicting his son
(d)was conspicuously partial

In the following sentence, choose from the options A D that best completes the sentences.
16. Among the books in the library, he found ___ Bible. (a) an old family brown leather (b) an old brown leather family (c)
a brown leather old family (d) an old leather brown family
17. The poor man lived in ____ house. (a) an old mud-brick large broken down (b) a large old mud-brick broken down (c)
a large old broken
down mud-brick (d) a broken-down old large mud-brick
18. The man donated a ___ machine to our school (a) modern duplicating large red (b) modern large red duplicating (c)
large modern red duplicating (d) red duplicating large modern
19. The beauty pageant was won by a ____ girl (a) beautiful dark and tall (b)tall dark and beautiful (c) dark tall and
beautiful (d) beautiful tall and dark
20. The house___ the kidnappers were kept is being watched by the police (a)which (b)where (c) in where (d) of which
21. A respectable person should not___ on an agreement. (a) renege (b)disagree (c) honour (d) dispute
22. The little boy ___ to the occasion when he was asked to make a speech at his mother‟s funeral. (a) rose (b) lifted
(c) stood (d) fell
23. Do you know the story about the ___ (a) the president‟s of Nigeria plane (b) the president‟s plane of Nigeria (c)
the president of Nigeria‟s Plane (d)the plane of the president‟s of Nigeria

Read this passage carefully and then answer the question that follow:
There is always a hustle and bustle of people in a typical city, especially at closing period when shops and offices were
closing and workers were hurrying home, some in their private cars, others trying to catch a commercial vehicle, while those who
couldn‟t stand the rush to enter a bus or a cab jump on motorcycles popularly called okada. It was at the peak of that rush hour that
Oshoke arrived in Lagos.
Oshoke had never seen so many people on the streets or so many vehicles on the road, and so when he dropped at the
popular Yaba bus stop, he felt suddenly lost like a man lifted from the ground without any warning or explanation.
Another observation that stupefied him was not just the number of motorcycles that move like a swarm of ants, but the
way each rider appears to be oblivious of any other vehicle or human being around them, posing a grave danger to life.
In his stupor, somebody tapped his shoulder and all of a sudden, he left empty, the way a young woman feels when her
skirt unexpectedly falls in the middle of a busy street. But he managed to turn to meet the hard cold eyes of a man glaring at him,
„what is the problem?‟ the voice reminded him of a lions roar. As Oshoke later admitted it was a perfect voice with which to wake
a dead man.
Oshoke was later to learn from the stranger that the taxis had the worst drivers even though drivers generally in the cities
see every other driver as a rival on the road an enemy to be conquered. One minute they would be overtaking other cars, the next
stopping in the middle of the road to pick up fares without any signal to other drivers or road users of their intentions.
Pedestrians seemed always in danger of their lives as they tried to run across the road whenever there was a lull in the
traffic.

24. How did Oshoke feel as he arrived in Lagos (a) he was so elated that he felt he was walking on air (b) he became
so nervous at once (c) he was simply dazed (d) he was brimful of composure
25. Why was Oshoke bewildered? (a) he thought the stranger would attach him (b) be suddenly felt cold (c) the rowdiness of
Lagos (d) he was frightened because of the car and people in Lagos.
26. According to the passage, the commuters (a) were confused (b) were very wicked (c) were irrational (d) lack
discipline
27. According to the passage (a) passenger are always in danger of crossing the road (b) fares are always in danger of
being knocked down (c) people are always in danger crossing the road (d) people are always crossing the road.
28. From the passage, we can infer that all road users (a) need education (b) must be directed (c) need the right
orientation (d) need to be monitored by the police

From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word or group of
words.
29. Girls these days dress provocatively but the culture requires ___ dressing (a) prodigious (b) preventive (c) modest
(d) productive
30. He did the work perfunctorily instead of (a) perfectly (b) carefully (c) permanently (d) especially
GENERAL PAPER
INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D choose the appropriate answer.
1. Which of the following best describes viruses? (a) they grow only inside living cells (b) they possess only
characteristics of living things (c)they can grow on dead cells (d)they cannot be crystallized.
2. Loss of nitrogen in the soil is caused by a process known as (a) putrefaction (b) nitrogen fixation (c)
denitrification (d) nitrification
3. Which of the following represents the Watson-Crick DNA base pair model? (a) G-T (b)T-C (c)T-A (d) G-A
4. The liver performs ll the following functions EXCEPT (a) regulation of heat (b) formation of cholesterol (c)
removal of red blood cells (d) synthesis of vitamins
5. All but ONE of the following are atmospheric pollutants (a) diesel (b) carbon II oxide (c) sulphur(IV) oxide (d)
hydrogen sulphide
6. On what part of the tongue do we perceive salty taste? (a) front (b) sides (c) back (d) sides and front
7. Maintenance of homeostasis in mammals is a function of all the following except (a) ovaries (b) skin (c) lungs (d)
kidneys
8. Biotechnology has helped to produce plants and animals of these desirable features, EXCEPT (a) greater resistance
to pest and diseases (b) higher susceptibility to infections (c) better nutritional value (d) early yielding varieties
9. Insects which undergo complete metamorphosis are those that (a) have the four distinct stages in their life cycle (b) do
not have the larval stage (c) have larva stage and pupa which resemble the adult (d) their eggs hatch to produce nymphs
10. The type of storage organ found in ginger is called (a) bulb (b) cutting (c)tuber (d) rhizome
11. The geotropic response of a seedling is detected with (a) clinostat (b) thermostat (c) a seech disc (d) an auxanometer
12. The substrate in cellular respiration is (a) sucrose (b) glucose (c) glycogen (d) adenosine diphosphate
13. Good example of roughage containing food material is (a) orange juice (b) corn flower (c) carrot (d) egg yolk
14. The World Health Organization defines good health as (a) a state of physical and mental well-being (b) the absence of
deformities (c) absence of diseases (d) a state of physical, mental and social well-being
15. The state at which chromosomes move towards the opposite poles during mitosis is (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c)
telophase (d) anaphase
16. Which of the following can sublime (a) water (b) ink (c) iodine (d)hydrogen
17. A certain compound on analysis gave 2.02g of carbon, 0.35g of hydrogen and 2.68g of oxygen. If the molecular
mass is 90, calculate the molecular mass (a) CH2O (b) C2H4O2 (c) C3H6O3 (d) C4H8O4
18. Isotopy is due to differences in the number of (a) atomic mass (b)molecular mass (c) protons (d) neutrons
19. Chlorine is a — (a) colourless gas (b) greenish liquid (C) yellow gas (d)greenish yellow gas
20. Calcium carbide reacts with water to form ethyne, what mass of calcium carbide (grams) would react to give
1.12dm3 of ethyne at STP?[Ca,40, C12, 11] (a)60g (b)64g (c)32g (d)32g
21. 5.3g of silver rioxpnitrate (V)was dissolved in 5Ocm-3 of water at 25°C. Calculate the solubility of the salt in
moldm3 [Ag = 108, n = 14, 0 = 16] (a) 0.3l2mol dm (b) 0.03lmol dm (c) 0.062mol dm3 (d) 0.623mo1 dm3
3 3

22. Which of the following decompositions are correct?

(a) Ag2CO3(s) Ag2O(2) + CO2(g)
(b) 2PbCO3(s) 2Pb(s) + 2C02(g)+ O2(g)
(c) 2NaNO3(s) 2NaNO2(S) + O2(g)
(d) Ag2CO3(s) AgO(S) + CO2(g)

23. In the reaction of aqueous solution of HCL and NaOH, the heat change is heat of (a) solution (b) neutralization (C)
formation (d) displacement
24. Which of the following gas is colourless and odourless? (a) NO2 (b) N2O (c) CO2 (d) a and c
25. The two hydrocarbon used as lower and upper standards for petrol are (a) isooctane and benzene (b) heptane and
acopenatane (c) heptane and 2,2,4 rimethlpentane (d) heptane and acopenatane
26. Benzene community undergoes ___ reactions (a) addition (b) climination (c) substitution (d) amendment

27. Under high pressure, real gasses delvate from compliance with gas laws because their molecules (a) experience
repulsive forces (b) have become more energetic (c) have become less energetic (d) collide inclastically
28. Which of the 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d has the lowest energy? (a) 3d (b)4s (c)4p (d)4d
29. One of the causes of algae growth in rivers is the presence of (a) heavy metals (b) pesticides (c) phosphates from
detergents (d) high particulate loading
30. Phenolphthalein solution at pH 2.5 is (a) yellow (b) pink (c) red (d) colourless
31. Which of the following is a vector quantity? (a) distance (b) speed (c) energy (d) weight
32. Calculate the work done by a bricklayer who lifted cement block of mass 10kg from the floor to a height of 2.5m
-2
(acceleration due to gravity 9.8ms (a)294.0J (b)215.0J (c)30.0J (d)25.0J
33. Find the potential energy of a diver of mass 75kg at a height of 10m above a swimming pool (acceleration due to
gravity = 9.8m2) (a)7.35KJ (b) 9.41 KJ (c) 8.82KJ (d) 0.75KJ
34. Determine the wavelength of fundamental note of a guitar string of length 65cm long (a) 65cm (b) 260cm (c)
195cm (d) 130cm
35. Find the combined resistance of two wires each of resistance 8-ohms when they are connected in parallel (a) 16-ohms
(b) 4-ohms (c) 20ohms (d) 12-ohms
36. A force of 300N was used to pull a load of mass 40kg at a steady speed up an inclined of length 6.2m and vertical height
3.5m. Determine the velocity ratio (a) 0.57 (b) 1.31(c) 1.57(d) 1.77
37. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about pressure (a) Unit of pressure is Nm1 (b) pressure in a liquid increases
with depth (c) pressure at any point in a liquid acts in all directions (d) pressure in the ratio of force acting normally per unit
area.
38. 120cm3 of gas was collected at 20°C and 745mm of mercury pressure. Find the volume of gas at standard temperature
and pressure (a)1605.7cm3 (b)917.8cm3(c)305.1cm3(d)109.6cm3
39. A metal of length 30cm is heated until its temperature rises by 60°C to a new length of 30.04cm. Calculate its
-5 -1
linear expansivity (a) 4.44 x 10 K (b) 22.22 x 10 K (c) 3.33 x 10 K (d) 1.52 x 10-5 K-1
-5 -1 -5 -1

40. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) molecules of a liquid are stationary (b) atoms combine to form
molecules (c) the molecules of matter are in constant motion (d) Brownian motion is an evidence of particle nature of matter.
41. Determine elastic constant of a spring if a force of 1 N stretches it by
2.7cm (a)0.4Nm1 (b)40.4Nm1 (c)37.0Nm1 (d)40.ONm1
42. Which of the following objects is NOT in stable equilibrium? (a) a car with wide base and low centre of gravity (b) a
ball in the middle of a bowl (c) a car with narrow base and high centre of gravity (d) a cone resting on its base
43. Which of the following is not true of boiling? (a) temperature is constant during boiling (b) occurs throughout the
entire volume of the liquid (c) takes place at all temperatures (d) it is change from liquid in vapour at the boiling point
44. A swimming pool viewed directly from above its surface appears to be
12m deep. Find the real depth. (refractive index of water (a) 16m (b)20m (c)10m (d)24m
45. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary coil and 400 turns in the secondary coil. Find the voltage in the secondary
coil when the primary coil is connected to a 2.20V main (a) 132V (b) 160V (c) 176V (d)182V

Answers
ENGLISH
1.C 18.B
9. B 26. A
2. A 19.B
10.D 27. C
3. B 20. B
11. B 28. C
4. B 21. A
12. C 29. C
5. D 22. A
13. A
6.B 23C
14.D
7. D 24. C
15. C
8. A 25. A
16. A
30. B
17. B
 OAUTHC SCHOOL OF NURSING PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSERS
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2017

Time Allowed: 1h 15mm

INSTRUCTION: Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.
2. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper
3. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

SECTION A: ENGLISH
INSTRUCTION: Choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined expression as it is used in the
sentence.
1. He has been inundated with work (a) over whelmed with (b) unhappy with (c) unconcerned about (d) interested in
2. The Vice Chancellor has approved a new allowance, an incentive for all the lecturers. (a) an advance (b) a
package (c) an encouragement (d) a reward
3. Although the speech was impromptu it was very well received (a) prepared (b) advertised (c) read out(d) not
prepared for
4. My appeal to the lecturer for help was futile (a) successful (b) accepted (c) without success (d) realistic
5. What happened last week at the meeting vindicated my earlier position (a) disagreed with (b) proved (c) dismissed (d)
voided
6. Tonia was accused of immodest dressing (a) loud (b) poor (c) indecent (d) costly
7. Let me tell you, David is one student with an impeccable character (a)faultless (b) bad (c) interesting (d) deviant

INSTRUCTION: Choose the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the underlined expression as it is used in the
sentence.
8. He was very discreet about the number of university entrance examinations he was written (a) secretive (b) open (c) sure
(c) uncertain
9. Ofure told the congregation that she married a doting man (a) a loving (b)a funny (c) uncaring man (d) nagging
10. My pastor preaches humility without matching it with action (a) salvation (b) pride (c) kindness (d) modesty
11. He gave a nebulous description of the university campus (a) clear (b)vague (c) short (d) detailed
12. I was intrigued by the manner in which the goal was scored (a) fascinated by (b) uninterested in (c) embarrassed
(d) disappointed by
INSTRUCTION: Choose the option which best completes each of the following sentences.
13. The President visited the town with a view to things for himself (a) see (b) seen (c) seeing (d) having seen
14. Jide and Kemi quarreled last week and haven‟t ____ yet (a) made it out (b) made up (c) made out(d) made it up
15. It‟s time we ____ away with poor leadership (a) do (b) done (c) did (d) have done
16. It was ____ on the evening news (a) broadcasted (b) being broadcasted (c) been broadcast (d) broadcast
17. The pepper was poorly ___ (a) ground (b) grinded (c) grounded (d) grind

Read the passage below and answer question I 5that follows

The tunes are familiar. Across our beautiful motherland, rascals are beating the drums of hooliganism and gangsterism. The
Armed Forces which is adept at this were again asked to pay an exemplary fine for brutality. This time they shifted their
criminality down South where the crime of their victim was for asking and innocuous question. The law lecturer at the gate of a
Navy Barrack asked a naval rating if guest at an expected wedding would be permitted to pack their cars along the road. The rating
perhaps felt insulted that a bloody civilian had the nerve to ask him a stupid question right at the barrack gate. He dragged the
lecturer out from his car and hit him with the butt of his gun. The man passed out but that was not the end of the ordeal, other
naval personnel poured out to hit and whip him with belts. When other citizens expressed fears that the man might be killed, they
were also attacked by the „gallant‟ men of the disciplined force. It is good that the Honourable Judge of the High Court has
awarded Nl5Omillion damages to the man. The Judge lamented that Nigerians are gradually becoming endangered species in their
own country.

18. What was the „offence‟ that led to the beating of the man? (a) he packed his car along the road (b) he drove as far
as the barrack gate (c) he asked the naval rating a question (d) he mocked the naval rating
19. „An innocuous question‟ in the passage means ___ (a) an offensive question (b) an upsetting question (c) an indirect
question (d) a question that is not intended to offend.
20. The man „passed out‟ means ___ (a) the man died (b) the man became unconscious (c)the man ran away (d) the man fell
down
21. From the passage the writer is ___ (a) happy with military-civilian relationship (b) unhappy with military-civilian
relationship (c) unhappy that civilian do not respect the military (d) happy that the military displays force when necessary
22. The message of the writer is that ___ (a) the Nigerian Navy is a gallant and discip!‟9ed force (b) the civilians often
deserve the treatment they get from the military (c) the Nigerian Navy is a force of hooligans and gangsters (d)the fine
handed down by the honourable judge was unnecessary.

INSTRUCTION: After each of the sentences below, a list of possible interpretations of all or, part of the sentence is given. Choose
the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

23. The problem with Fatai is that he has a finger in every pie. This means that ___ (a) Fatai love eating all kind of pies (b)
Fatai is involved in too many activities (c) Fatai prepares good pies (d) Fatai steals things
24. Peter‟s grandmother has kicked the bucket. This means that ___ (a) Peter‟s grandmother is dead (b) Peter‟s
grandmother is on admission in a hospital (c) Peter‟s grandmother is very strong (d) Peter‟s grandmother has retired from work.
25. I had a night out with Dickson. This means that ___ (a) Dickson and I spent the night reading (b) Dickson and I had an
evening of fun and enjoyment (c) Dickson and I were awake all night (d) Dickson and I quarreled all night.
26. I am going for a work out this evening. This means that ___ (a) I am planning to steal this evening (b) I am going back
to my office for work this evening (c) I am going for physical exercise this evening (d) I am going to visit a friend this
evening.
27. Regarding admission into UCH, I resign myself of fate. This means that ____ (a) I am prepared for whatever
happens (b) I am prepared to consult fortune tellers (c) lam prepared to contest the outcome (d) I depend on what my pastor
tells me.
28. Michael took the English language examination for granted. This means that _____ (a) he assumed the
examination would be easy (b) he expected the examination would be difficult (c) he did not worry about the outcome of
the examination (d) he know he was going to fail the examination.
29. I can say that our State Governor is angling for a second from his party. This means that ____ (a) the governor is
rejecting a second term (b) the governor is indirectly asking for a second term (c) the governor is being asked to run
for a second term by his party against his will (d)the governor is angry over a second term issue.
30. Moses has been booted out of his job by his employers. This means that ____ (a) Moses has been transferred by
his employers to another location (b) Moses has been promoted by his employers (c) Moses has been sacked by his
employers (d) Moses has been commended by his employers.
SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER
1. Which of the structures listed below is peculiar to the axis vertebra? (a) Centrum (b) Prezygapophysis (c) Lateral spine
(d) Odontoid
2. A plant which has a horizontal underground steam is a ___ (a) Rhizome (b) Creeper (c)Tuber (d) Bulb
3. Epigeal germination can be found in ___ (a) groundnut (b) sorghum (c)millet (d) maize
4. The mammalian organ which acts both as a digestive an as an endocrine organ is the ___ (a) liver (b) pancreas (c)
spleen (d) adrenal gland
5. Which of the following does a virus have in common animal cell? (a)Glycogen (b) Starch (c) Nucleus (d) DNA
6. Spirogyra, Euglena and Chiamydomonas share many characteristics except___ (a) growth (b) mobility (c)
reproduction (d) irritability
7. Parastic forms are not found among ___ (a) molluscs (b) nematodes (c)annelids (d) plathyhelminthes
8. A good example of dipiobastic organism is ___ (a) hydra (b) insect (c) roundworm (d) amoeba
9. What is the number of an ent if its atom contains 10 protons, 10 electrons and 12 net ) 32 (b) 22(c) 20(d) 10
10. The loss of water crystallization to the atmosphere by some crystalline salts is known as (a) efflorescence (b)
effervescence (c) deliquescence (d) phobrescence

11. Carbon is often de n the exhaust pipe of cars because of the ___ (a)Dehydrogenation of petrol (b) incomplete
combustion (c) Presence of additives (d) Presence of carbon in petrol

12. Plastics are polymers whose production techniques involve all except (a)high pressure (b) low pressure (c) salting (d)
high temperature

13. Which of the following gases is produced when ammonium trioxonitrate (V) is heated with sodium hydroxide?
(a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (c)Nitrogen (IV) oxide (d) Hydrogen

14. How many grammes of HCl wifl be required to react with 10g of NaOH (H = 1, Cl = 35.5. Na=23, 0 = 16)? (a)
9.125g (b) 4.6g (c)10.lg(d)18.4g

15. The bond formed between H2O and H to form the hydroxonim ion is ___ (a) co-ordinate covalency (b)
electrovalent (c) covalent (d) ionic

16. Common salt is dissolve in water and the mixture is evaporated. The vapour given off is condensed. The condensed
vapour is a ___ (a) solute (b) suspension (c) solvent (d) solution

17. When some substances are heated, the change directly in gases without appearing in the liquid state. An example is___
(a) copper(b) iodine (c)sodium (d) sulphur

18. What is the IUPAC name of the compound KMnO4? (a) Potassium manganate (b) Potassium tetraoxo manganate
(VII) (c) Potassium trioxomanganate (IV) (d) Potassium Oxomanganate (IV)

19. Which of the following is the dimension of pressure? (a) MLT 2 (b) ML- 1T2 (c)ML-3 (d)ML-2T-2

20. Which of the following statements is or are correct about a car moving round a circular track at a uniform speed? (i) its
velocity is uniform (ii) it undergoes an acceleration (iii) The friction between its tyres and the ground provides necessary
centripetal force (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) only (c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only

21. A body initially at rest is accelerated at a rate of 0.2ms2 for 5s under a constant force of 50N, the work done on the body
is ___ (a) 50J (b) 2.5J (c) 125J (d) 250J
22. The formation of clouds result directly from ___ (a) vaporization (b)fusion (c) condensation (d) sublimation

23. Replenishing soil nutrients involves one of the following (a) leaching (b)cover crooping (c) bush burning (d) Grazing

24. For a wire of a specific material, which of the following will give the lowest resistance in a circuit‟? (a) A short, thick
wire (b) A short, thin wire (c)Along thin wire (d)Along thick wire

25. A change in temperature of 45cC is equivalent to a change in temperature on the Kelvin scale of ___ (a) 25K (b)
318K (c) 45K (d) 81K

26. A disease that cause abortion in cattle at the first stage of pregnancy is ___ (a) milk fever (b) brucellosis (b)pneumonia
(d) foot and mouth disease

27. Which of the following instruments is used to measure relative humidity? (a) Barometer (b) Hydrometer (c)
Manometer (d) Hygrometer

28. Which of these statements is correct about cathode rays? They are fast moving ____ (a) atoms (b) protons (c) neutrons
(d) electrons

29. On a day when humid, is very high, evaporation from a water pond will be ___ (a) r‟ D)slow(c)zero (d)fast

30. The cells that surrounded the stomata are called ____ (a) stomata cells (b)epidermal cells (c) guard cells (d) pilliferous
layer

31. On the induction of new students in a certain school, 800 students turned up at the open emony, 600 students
turned up for the novelty match and that a total of 1234 students altogether in the school. How many students
attended ceremonies if a student attended at least one of the functions? (a)1400 (b) 1660 (c) 140 (d) 166

32. In how many ways can a committee of 5 comprising of 3 males and 2 females be formed from 6 males and 4 females?
(a) 20 ways (b) 6 ways (c) 12 ways (d) 120 ways

33. Which of the following is not an exterior angle of a regular polygon? (a)24° (b)18° (c)15° (d)180°
34. If the square root of x2 + 9 =x+ 1, solve for x. (a)5 (b)4 (c)3 (d)1
35. Simplify3/5÷ (217x419) (a)415 (b)7110 (c)617 (d)2116
36. Which of these animals is radically symmetrical? (a) Squid (b) Snail (c)Hydra (d) Earthworm
37. A food substance was treated with a few drops of Sudan II solution and red colouration was obtained. The food
contained ___ (a) starch (b)vitamins (c) protein (d) fat
38. Members of the phylum protozoa use the contractile vacuole to ____ (a)reproduce (b) remove excess food (c) digest
food (d) remove excess water
39. The primary and secondary hosts of Bilharzia are ___ dog(b) man and snail (c)fish and snail (d) snail and dog (a) man
and
40. Which of the following statements is true of blood group and blood transfusion? (a) Group B can donate to Group B
only (b) Group AB can donate to all (c)Group A can donate to Group A only (d)Group AB is the universal recipient
ANSWER - ENGLISH ANSWERS - GENERAL PAPER
1. A
16. D
2. C
17. A 1. D
3. D 16. C 31. D
18. C 2. A
4. C 17. B 32. -
19. D 3. -
5. B 18. -
20. B 4. B 33. D
6. C 19. B 34. B
21. B 5. D
7. A 20. -
22. C 6. B 35. B
8. B 21. C
23. B 7. A 36. C
9. C 22. C
24. A 8. A 37. D
10. B 23. B
25. B 9. - 38. D
11. D 24. A
26. C 10. A 39. B
12. B 25. B
27. A 11. B 40. D
13. C 26. B
28. C 12. B
14. D 27. D
29. B 13. B
15. C 28. D
30. C 14. -
29. B
15. A
30. C
 OAUTHC SCHOOL OF NURSING PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSERS
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2018
Time allowed: lHr l5mins
INSTRUCTIONS
Read the following instructions carefully
1. Use HB pencil to shade your answers. Ensure that any shading in error is thoroughly erased.
2. Candidates should ensure the Question paper type given to them in the appropriate space in the answer sheet.
3. The use of calculators and/or similar devices is not allowed.
SECTION 1: ENGLISH
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
This book consists of lectures given by me at Cambridge. Though they have been largely written, I have kept a good deal
of their original lecture form, as being (I hope) rather less formal and less dogmatic. For to dogmatism, those who write on
language seem for some reason, particularly prone; and I should like to make it clear at once that, if at times I have put my views
strongly, I do not forget that such matters of taste must remain mere matters of opinion. In addition, I have included a good many
specimen passages from various authors. Perhaps I have quoted too much. But a book on style without abundant examples seems
to me as ineffectual as a book on art, or biology, without abundant illustrations. Many of these passages are in French. That may
be Gallomania on my part: and I must apologize if they trouble some readers. But some ability to read French prose does seem to
me most desirable to anyone who would write well in English. I have tried to choose pieces not too difficult in syntax or
vocabulary. And in these days less than ever can we afford to be insular.
1. Our understanding of the last sentence is that we (a) can now afford to be insular (b) can be insular in the future (c)
cannot afford to be insular (d)must never be insular.
2. To write English well, the author says it is helpful to (a) be able to write French fairly well (b) be able to read French
fairly well (c) know French thoroughly (d) be able to read English well.
3. According to the author (in this preface) the book is (a) the original version of his Cambridge lectures (b) a revised
version of his Cambridge lectures (c) an imitation of his Cambridge lectures (d) a negation of his Cambridge lectures.
4. The author says that writers on language are (a) inclined to be dogmatic (b) opposed to dogmatism (c) unlikely to be
dogmatic (d) resolved to be dogmatic.
5. In the author‟s opinion, a book on style (a) can do with few examples (b)need not have any examples (c) is a book on art
(d) will be ineffectual with sufficient examples.
Each of the following sentences has a list of options A D following it. Choose which option best interprets the sentence.
6. Ade told George that if he were as rich as him, he would have travelled overseas. This means that (a) Ade is not as rich as
George therefore he did not travel overseas. (b) Ade is not as rich as George but he travelled overseas (c) Ade is not rich,
therefore, he stole to travel (d) George is rich but did not travel overseas.
7. Had her father not died, Edo would have left for London. This implies that Ede (a) went to London after the death of her
father (b) did not go to London because her father died (c) would like to go to London when her father dies (d)would like
to go to London after father dies.
8. Would you have helped him if he had asked you? This implies that (a) he did not ask so you didn‟t help him (b) he asked
you (c) he asked you and you helped (d) he asked you but you didn‟t help.
9. If Musa applies for scholarship, he will be able to go to law school. This means that Musa (a) is attending law school (b)
has the opportunity of attending law school (c) could not attend law school (d)has applied fora scholarship to attend law
school.
10. Had Mr. Opoku not changed his manager, his business would not have been ruined. This tells us that (a) Mr. Opoku
changed his manager and his business was not ruined (b) the new manager ruined Mr. Opoku‟s business (C) the new
manager almost ruined Mr. Opoku‟s business (d Mr. Opoku changed his manager after his business had been ruined.
Select the best option (from A D) to complete each of the following sentences.
11. At the height of the storm, the savages tried to —the angry gods by offering sacrifices. (a) instigate (b) appall (c) vilify
(d) propitiate
12. You should paragraph in order to make your essay more (a) delete... succinct (b) en1arge... .redundant (c) remove...
.discursive (d) revise ……abstrus
13. Only the fear of immediate vents the country from launching an attack. (a) reprisal (b) urrender (c) truce (d) surveillance.
14. A diligent scholar, she devoted herself to the completion of the book. (a)assiduously (b) ingenuously (c) theoretically
(d)voluminously
15. He was to success, painting not for the sake of fame or monetary reward but for the sheer love of art. (a) indifferent to (b)
destined for (C) avid (d)enamored of.
16. When the news of his the enemy was known, he was hanged in an effigy. (a) contempt for (b) enmity toward (c) collusion
with (d) conspiracy against.

In each of the following sentences there is one word underlined and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the
word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
17. The testimony of the witness was so vague that it was difficult to learn details of the case. (a) real (b)true (c)factual (d)
specific.
18. The man‟s speech is rather verbose it needs to be more (a) detailed (b) concise (c) reduced (d) interesting
19. Obiora was a notorious hunter who defied the king‟s orders not to hunt near the city. (a) illustrious (b) brave (c)
anonymous (d) intelligent
20. Although Paul had been accused of the crime, he was later (a) discharged (b) released (c) exonerated (d) dismissed.
21. False modesty is really a form of (a) arrogance (b) humility (c)extravagance (d) incompetence
22. Although I have forgotten the title of the book, I the story very well. (a) can recognize (b) can construct (c) can recollect
(d) can review.
23. Cameras were once as unwieldy as are now (a) attractive (b) cheap (c)compact (d) efficient.

In Questions 24 27 choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined.

24. Had she known he was a highway robber, she would not have married him. This means (a) she married him before she
knew he was a robber (b) she knew he was a robber when she married him (c) she did not marry him because he was a
robber (d) she refused to marry the man when she knew he was a robber.
25. The ingenious scheme of the robber broke down because if the efficiency of the police. Ingenious here means (a)
suspicious (b) ambitious (c) deceitful (d) clever.
26. Jide is being forced to go to Lagos tomorrow. This means that Jide (a) will go to Lagos (b) must go to Lagos (c) wishes to
go to Lagos (d) is going to Lagos.
27. It is sheer fantasy to believe that there could ever be a miscalculation by any nation that has atomic weapons. Fantasy
here means (a) dream (b) hope (c) nonsense (d)joke
In Questions 28 30 select the wrongly select word.
28. (a) quiet (b) believe (c) proceed (d) precede
29. (a) disappointed (b) embarrassed (c) equipped (d) rhythm
30. (a) occurrence (b) surprise (C) personnel (d) possess
Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate of options A D
31. I am disappointed the way you conducted yourself at the party. (a)by (b)for (c)dueto (d)at
32. When we were coming back from the picnic last Friday, there on Eko Bridge. (a) were many traffics (b) was much traffic
(c) were plenty traffic (d)were lots of traffic
33. I have refused to give him my pen because I don‟t want him to it again. (a)loss (b)loose (c)lose (d)lost.
Choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one underlined in the given word.
34. Jewel (a)fluent (b) dare (c)wear (d)few.
35. After (a)black (b)about (c)Last (d)baker
36. Done (a) gone (b) dove (c) born (d) burn\
37. Clerk (a)have (b)back (c)search (d)palm
38. Steak(a)tape (b)stick (c)peak (d)hard
ANSWERS
1. C 21. A
2. D
22. D
3. A
4. C 23.
5. D 24. A
6. A
7. B
25. D
8. A 26. B
9. D
27. A
10. B
11. D 28. B
12. A 29. B
13. B
14. B
30. A
15. C 31. A
16. B
32. D
17. C
18. B 33. D
19. B 34 A
20. C
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. B
 SECTION 2: GENERAL PAPER

1. A-Rattusrattus b-Agamaagama c-Buforegularis d-Tilapia zilli. The order of evolutionary advancement of the
above vertebrates is (a) d, c,b,a.(b)d,b,a,c. (c)c,b,a,d.(d)b,c,d,a.
2. Which of the following is likely to have a higher concentration of mitochondria? (a) white blood cell (b) egg cell (c)
sperm cell (d) red blood cell.
3. Which of these diseases is not caused by virus? (a) Maize rust (b)Rinder pest (c) Newcastle (d) Cassava mosaic.
4. Metabolic production carried out in the (a) kidney (b)pancreas (c) liver (d) s
5. If a nursing mother „L producing enough milk, her hormonal system is probably deficient in (a) Prolactin (b) Oestrogen
(c) Insulin (d)Thyroxine
6. Nervous control differs from hormonal control in that the former (a) is a slower process 1‟„ involves only
chemical reaction (c) produce shortter des (d) has no specific pathway
7. The two key cations involved in the action potential of nervous transmissions are (a) mg2+ (b) Na and Fe2+ (C) Na
and K (d) Na and mg2+
8. A boy who is fond of swimming in a pond finds himself passing urine with traces of blood. He is likely to •have
contacted (a) Onchocerciasis (b) Poliomyelitis (c)Tetanus (d) Schistosomiasis
9. The presence of a large number of mitochondria in a cell indicates that (a)it has little cytoplasmic content (b) the cell is
dormant (c) the cell is very active (d)the respiration is poor
10. If the cerebellum of a person is slightly damaged, which of the following will be impaired? (a) vision (b) walking
(C) digestion (d) breathing
11. Herbs differ from shrubs because they (a) are only perennials (b) useful to herbalists (c) do not produce fruits (d)
do not become woody
12. Which of the following represents the evolutionary sequence in these plants? (i) mango plant (ii) mosses (iii) spirogyra
(iv) ferns (v)whistling pine (a) iii, ii, iv, v and I (b) iii, iv, v, i and ii (C) ii, iv, I, iii and y (d)iv, ii, iii, v and i
13. By which process does oxygen pass from the alveoli of the lungs into the blood? (a) excretion (b) osmosis (c)
diffusion (d) transpiration
14. The aspects of growth in living organisms include all the following processes. except (a) reversible increase in size
(b) increase in dry weight (c) increase in number of cells (d) irreversible increase in length
15. Which of these excretory products is not to be found in mammals? (a)carbon dioxide (b) mineral salt (c) ammonia
(d) urea
16. Which of the following organism is a producer (a) yeast (b) fungus (c)rhizopus (d) spirogyra
17. Changes in energy flow. between organisms in a habitat can be represented by p (a) pyramid of biomass (b)flow
chair (c) food web (d) pyramid of energy
18. Important abiotic factors which affect all plants and animals in the habitat are (a) rainfall and relative humidity (b)
temperature and rain fall (c)salinity and relative humidity (d) temperature and turbidity
19. Which of the following factors may not affect living organisms in an aquatic habitat? (a) light (b)turbidity (c).pH
(d)humidity
20. The accepted concept for the theory of Natural selection does not include (a) tendency for organism to
overproduce (b) struggle for existence (c)survival of the fittest (d) use and disuse of body parts
21. Which of the following pair of structure does not perform the similar function (a) lungs and spiracles (b) root hair and
mammalian hairs (c) feathers and scales (d) contractile vacuole and kidney
22. Which of the following is not an evidence of evolution? (a) anatomy (b)genetics (c) behavior (d) fossils
23. Find the variance of the numbers K, K÷1, K+2. (a) 2/3 (b) 1 (c) K+1 (d)(K+1)2
24. Find the positive value of x if the standard deviation of the numberl,x+1, 2x+1 is V (a)1 (b)12 (c)3 (d)4
25. If x=7 = M + N what is 3n-4m
(x+3)(x-4) x+3 x-4 (a)7 (b)5 (c)8 (d)6
26. Calculate sin (A+B) if sin A =3/5 and cos B-5/1 3 where both A and B are acute (a) 33/65 (b)48/65 (15/65 (d63165
27. Find tan x given that tan (x+45)=2 (a>4 (b) 1/3 (c)2/3 (d)
28. Express5x-12 impartial fraction (a)_3.— (- (X-2)(X-3) (cjf @).23+.3
29. Evaluate 6(2x +3)dx (a) 18 (b)50 (c) 12 (d)36