KEY CHART for PSI KANMANI 2024 GK TEST SERIES by KPSC VERSE

TEST -1: KEY ANSWERS

Q. No Answer Q. No Answer Q. No Answer Q. No Answer Key
Key Key Key
1 B 26 C 51 D 76 D
2 B 27 D 52 B 77 A
3 C 28 A 53 C 78 A
4 B 29 C 54 A 79 A
5 D 30 A 55 D 80 B
6 D 31 A 56 A 81 C
7 C 32 C 57 C 82 C
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 B
9 C 34 C 59 D 84 D
10 A 35 B 60 B 85 B
11 A 36 C 61 D 86 C
12 B 37 A 62 B 87 C
13 C 38 C 63 D 88 B
14 C 39 B 64 D 89 A
15 B 40 D 65 A 90 A
16 D 41 D 66 B 91 C
17 B 42 C 67 D 92 C
18 B 43 D 68 D 93 D
19 C 44 D 69 B 94 D
20 A 45 A 70 C 95 D
21 B 46 A 71 D 96 A
22 C 47 B 72 B 97 A
23 D 48 D 73 B 98 D
24 D 49 B 74 B 99 D
25 B 50 A 75 C 100 B

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1. Match the following:

List I List II

A. 14th Finance commission I. Dr Vijay Kelkar

B. 13th Finance commission II. Dr. Y.V. Reddy
C. 16th Finance commission III. Shri. N.K. Singh
D. 15th Finance commission IV. Dr. Arvind Panagariya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A B C D

A. I II III IV
B. II I IV III
C. IV III II I
D. I III IV II

2. Which of the following is a tool used by central banks to control inflation?

A. Fiscal Policy
B. Monetary Policy
C. Trade Policy
D. Exchange Rate Policy

3. What is the term for the total market value of all final goods and services produced by a
country’s residents in a specific time period?

A. Gross National Product (GNP)

B. Net National Product (NNP)
C. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
D. Per Capita Income

4. In context with the macroeconomics, Philips Curve is a relationship between the rates of
___?

A. Unemployment and Exim trade

B. Unemployment and Demand
C. Unemployment and Poverty
D. Unemployment and Inflation

5. Pension Department has recently launched an online portal for government retirees.
what is the name of the portal?

A. Abhyukt portal
B. Vriddhi portal
C. Vikas portal
A. Bhavishya portal
6. NABARD provides refinance to which of the following types of financial
institutions:

1. Commercial Banks
2. Regional Rural Banks
3. State Cooperative Banks & Land Development Banks
4. Non-Banking Financial Companies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1, 2 & 3 only
D. All of the above

7. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the
following statements:

1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a
nurse, and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single
budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts
have better survival as compared to large setts
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

8. Among the following options, which of these is a capital receipt?

A. Tax received
B. Dividend received
C. Disinvestment
D. External grants

9. According to the 2024 World Happiness Report, what is the rank of India?

A. 136th
B. 120th
C. 126th
D. 116th
10. Recently, where was the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) meeting held?

A. Singapore
B. China
C. France
D. Indonesia

11. Which of the following constitutional provisions allows the Ministry of Home Affairs to
deploy armed forces for internal security?

A. Article 355
B. Article 356
C. Article 352
D. Article 365

12. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer code:

List-1 List - II

i. Article 55 a. The President shall hold office for a term of five years

ii. Article 56 b. Be eligible for re-election to that office as President

iii. Article 57 c. Qualifications for election to the office of the President

iv. Article 58 d. Manner of election of President

Codes:

I ii iii iv

A. d a c b
B. d a b c
C. a c d b
D. a c b d

13. The Government of India Act, 1935 is significant because it:

A. Established the first Indian Parliament

B. Introduced the concept of Fundamental Rights
C. Served as a model for the Constitution of India
D. Abolished the British Raj

14. The Constitution of India gives a right to audience in all courts of India, to whom among
the following?

A. President of India
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Attorney General of India
 D. Solicitor General of India

15. Which judgment emphasized the importance of the right to education?

A. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

B. Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
C. A.P. Venkateshwarlu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
D. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India

16. The correct chronological order of the formation of Haryana, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh
and Nagaland as full states of Indian Union is:

A. Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh-Nagaland
B. Nagaland-Arunachal Pradesh- Haryana-Sikkim
C. Nagaland-Haryana-Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim
D. Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh

17. Which of the following personalities commented, “The Constitution is a law which is made
by the people and for the people”?

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

18. Match the List - I with List - II and select the correct answer code:

List-1 List - II

i. Part XII a. Special Provisions relating to certain classes

ii. Part XIV b. Services under the Union and States

iii. Part XVI c. Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions

iv. Part XXI d. Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits

Codes:

I ii iii iv

A. d a c b
B. d b a c
C. d b c a
D. c a b d

19. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): A co-operative organization shall have voluntary and open membership

Reason (R): The main objective of a co-operative organization is to make profit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. Both A and R are false

20. Which of the following pair is INCORRECLTY matched?

A. Narasimhan Committee – Public Distribution System

B. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee – Panchayat Raj System
C. Raja Chellaiah Committee – Tax Reforms in India
D. Khusro Committee – Agricultural Credit System

21. Which of the following schemes introduced by the Government of India for survey and
mapping of villages with improved technology?

A. Gramodaya scheme
B. SVAMITVA scheme
C. E village scheme
D. E governance scheme

22. Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in which of the following years?

A. 2008
B. 2013
C. 2012
D. 2010

23. 1. 666, 333, 340, 170, ____, What number should fill the blank?

A. 73
B. 97
C. 108
D. 177

24. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

1. Gorblflur means fan belt

2. Pixngorbl means ceiling fan
3. Arthtusl means tile roof

Which word could mean "ceiling tile"?

A. Gorbltusl
B. Flurgorbl
C. Arthflur
D. Pixnarth
25. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row. E and F are in the centre. A and B are at the ends. C
is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of B?

A. A
B. D
C. E
D. F

26. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6

27. The average of 10 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than
zero?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 9

28. in which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress, Mahatma Gandhi was
presided?

A. Belgaum
B. Bombay
C. Madras
D. Lahore

29. Select the group of national level socialist leaders who entered the Kagodu Satyagraha?

A. Khadri Shamanna and Eshwarappa

B. Shanthaveri Gopala Gowda and Garuda Sharma
C. Ram Manohar Lohia and Jayaprakash Narayan
D. Ram Manohar Lohia and Shanthaveri Gopala Gowda

30. Who among the following was presided over the Mysore Tenancy and Agricultural Land
Laws Committee ?

A. B D Jatti
B. Kadidal Manjappa
C. S Nijalingappa
D. D Devraj Urs

31. With reference to Indian history, the founder of the Deva Samaj was
 A. Shiv Narayan Agnihotri
B. Ram Bajpai
C. Tulshiram
D. H N Kunzru

32. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. Iltutmish was the ruler during the invasion of Chengiz Khan

B. Muhammed bin Tughlaq was the ruler during the invasion of Tarmashirin
C. Firoz Tughlaq was the ruler during the invasion of Timur
D. Muhammed Shah was the ruler during the invasion of Nadir Shah

33. Who among the following was the leader of Eka movement in Uttar Pradesh?

A. Gauri Ballabh Pant

B. Madari Pasi
C. Baba Ram Chandra
D. None of the above

34. A clock is started at noon. By 15 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

A. 145°
B. 150°
C. 160°
D. 155°

35. A and B together have Rs. 1215. If of A's amount is equal to of B's amount, how much
amount does B have?

A. Rs. 460
B. Rs. 486
C. Rs. 550
D. Rs. 664

36. In one hour, a boat goes 12 km/hr along the stream and 6 km/hr against the stream. The
speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:

A. 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 9 km/hr
D. 8 km/hr

37. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth".
If the father's age is 40 years now, the son's age five years back was:

A. 15 years
B. 19 years
 C. 33 years
D. 38 years

38. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 855 in 4 years.
The sum is:

A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 695
D. Rs. 700

39. Look at this series: 52, 52, 40, 40, 28, 28, ... What number should come next?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 27
D. 53

40. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the
same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:

A. 300 kmph
B. 360 kmph
C. 600 kmph
D. 750 kmph

41. An error 1% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of
error in the calculated area of the square is:

A. 2%
B. 2.02%
C. 4%
D. 2.01%

42. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Travellers, Train and
aeroplane?

A.

B.
C.

D.
43. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14.
The larger of the two numbers is:
 A. 276
B. 299
C. 345
D. 308

44. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

International Org./Institution and headquarters

A. Centre for Space Science and Technology Education – Dehradun

B. Commonwealth Secretariat – New Delhi
C. International Solar Alliance – Gurugram
D. League of Arab States Mission – Mumbai

45. India is not a member in which of the following groups?

A. Asia – Pacific Economic Cooperation

B. Wassenaar Arrangement
C. Australia Group
D. East Asia Group (EAS)

46. Which of the following statements regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
is INCORRECT?

A. AIIB began operation in 2013

B. AIIB is a multilateral development bank whose mission is financing the infrastructure
for tomorrow
C. Its eighth annual meeting was held in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt in September 2023
D. All are correct

47. Which of the following group of countries are part of MERCOSER preferential Trade
Agreements (PTA)?

A. Brazil, Argentina, Mexico, Paraguay

B. Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay
C. Columbia, Argentina, Uruguay, Mexico
D. Brazil, Mexico, Equator, Paraguay

48. Which of the following institutions recently announced provision of providing ‘Currency
Swap Agreements’ facility to Maldives under the SAARC Currency Swap Framework?

A. ADB
B. IBRD
C. IMF
D. RBI
49. Which organization developed the ‘Real Time Train Information System’ which was
installed by Indian Railways?

A. DADO
B. ISRO
C. BEL
D. HAL

50. Which of the following is the correct sequence of gasses found in the atmosphere in
decreasing order?

A. Neon, Helium, Krypton, Hydrogen

B. Helium, Krypton, Hydrogen Neon
C. Hydrogen, Neon, Helium, Krypton
D. Krypton, Hydrogen, Neon, Helium

51. The Montreal Protocol often heard in the news is related ?

A. To reduce the use of automobiles

B. Trading of carbon dioxide emissions
C. To reduce the emissions of greenhouse gasses
D. To reduce the production of ozone depleting agents like CFCs and halons

52. The micro-organism used to remove oil spills from the water bodies is

A. Azatobacter species
B. Pseudomonas putida
C. Nitrogen species
D. Lactobacillus species

53. Which of the following pair is INCORRECTLY matched?

1. Vienna Convention – Protection of Ozone layer

2. Stockholm Convention – Persistent Organic Pollutants
3. Rotterdam Convention – Climate Change
4. UN Framework Convention – Trade on Hazardous Waste

Select the correct code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

54. Which of the following aquatic environment lacks the limnetic zone?

A. Shallow Ponds
B. Lakes
 C. Oceans
D. None of the above

55. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched regarding Ramsar sites in India?

Ramsar site and location

1. Karikili Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu

2. Pichavaram Mangrove – Andhra Pradesh
3. Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve – Karnataka
4. Sandi Bird Sanctuary – Bihar

Choose the correct code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only

56. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

A. Restoration of damaged coral reefs

B. Development of building materials using plant residues
C. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
D. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

57. Which of the following is an example of detritivores?

A. Jellyfish
B. Vulture
C. Cockroach
D. Flies

58. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?

Cause and Effects

A. Carbon Dioxide – Green House Effect

B. Oxygen – Asphyxiation
C. Methane – Acid Rain
D. All are correctly matched

59. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. Typhoid fever is caused by bacterial infection

B. Cholera is caused by bacterial infection
C. Amoebic dysentery is caused by protozoal infection
D. Infectious hepatitis is caused by bacterial infection
60. Name the type of ecology that deals with individual species of ecology?

A. Synecology
B. Autecology
C. Community Ecology
D. Ecosystem ecology

61. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A. Vembanad lake is located in Kerala

B. Wular lake is located in Himachal Pradesh
C. Chilka lake is located in Odisha
D. Kolleru lake is located in Kerala

62. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Tiger Reserve and State

A. Sariska TR – Odisha
B. Buxa TR – West Bengal
C. Satkosia TR – Rajasthan
D. Mudumalai TR – Karnataka

63. On which of the following products, ISI mark can be seen?

A. Fruits and Vegetables

B. Clothing
C. Jewellery
D. Electrical Appliances

64. Which of the following earthquake waves are more destructive at the epicentre?

A. S Waves
B. P Waves
C. R Waves
D. L Waves

65. Match the following:

Types of Mountains and Examples

1. Volcanic – A. Adirondack of New York

2. Folded – B. Cotopaxi
3. Up warped (Domed) – C. Seirra Nevada of California
4. Fault Block – D. Himalayas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A. 4-C

 B. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A. 4-C
C. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A. 4-C
D. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A. 4-C

66. Kuki tribes often heard in the news are distributed in which of the following states?

A. Sikkim
B. Manipur
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Jammu and Kashmir

67. Red Sea do not have land borders with which of the following countries?

A. Egypt
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Yemen
D. Oman

68. Which of the following pair is INCORRECTLY matched?

Relief Feature and Agents of Denudation

A. Cirque – Glacier
B. Uvala – Underground water
C. Loess plain – Wind
D. Bajada – Sea waves

69. Which of the following statements INCORRECT regarding the Tropical Cyclones?

A. It is a system of low pressure occurring in tropical latitudes

B. It is a centre of high pressure surrounded by low pressure
C. In the Northern Hemisphere, it blows in clockwise direction and in Southern
Hemisphere it blows in anti-clockwise direction
D. All are correct

70. With reference to Varahi river, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It originates at “Hebbagilu” near Agumbe in Thirthahalli taluk in the district of

Shivamogga
2. It forms Kunchikal falls before joining the Arabian Sea

Select the correct answer using the following code:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
71. Which of the following pair is INCORRECTLY matched?

Buddhist Council, Headed by and Place

A. First Buddhist Council – Mahakasyapa – Rajagriha

B. Second Buddhist Council – Sabakami – Vaishali
C. Third Buddhist Council - Moggaliputta Tissa - Pataliputra
D. Fourth Buddhist Council – Vasumitra – Bodhgaya

72. The reason behind When the soap film or oil film on water is observed in daylight, it
exhibits beautiful colours is

A. Reflection
B. Interference
C. Diffraction
D. None of the above

73. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the speed of sound?

A. Speed of sound increases with increase in the density of the medium

B. Speed of sound increases with increase in the temperature of the medium
C. Speed of sound increases with increase in the pressure of the medium
D. All are correct

74. What is the full form of PRASAD scheme ?

A. Pilgrimage Regeneration and Spiritual Augmentation Density

B. Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive
C. Pilgrimage Regeneration and Spiritual Application Drive
D. Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Density

75. Which of the following pair is INCORRECTLY matched?

Vaccine type and used against

A. Inactivated vaccine – Hepatitis A

B. A live attenuated vaccine – Measles
C. Viral vector vaccine – Malaria
D. mRNA vaccine – COVID-19 infection

76. Choose the INCORRECTLY matched pair:

Term and related personality

A. Internet – Vint Cerf

B. Email – Ray Tomlinson
C. World Wide Web – Tim Berners-Lee
D. Internet of Things - Bob Kahn
77. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is set to develop Spatial Data Infrastructure
geoportal in which state /UT?

A. Ladakh
B. Diu and Daman
C. Karnataka
D. Sikkim

78. What is the full from of Karnataka’s AVGC-XR Policy 3.0 which was launched recently for a
period 2024-2029, to generate 30,000 new high-quality jobs?

A. Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality

B. Artificial, Visual Effects, Gaming, Cosmetics, and Virtual Reality
C. Artificial, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Visual Reality
D. Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Cosmetics, and Extended Reality

79. Karnataka Government recently launched Marusinchana Programme at a cost of Rs.10

crore to improve learning ability of students of

A. 6th and 7th standard who are lagging behind

B. 4th and 5th standard who are lagging behind
C. 9th and 10th standard who are lagging behind
D. 11th and 12th standard who are lagging behind

80. What is the insurance amount given by the Karnataka Government under Karnataka State
Gig Workers Insurance bill in case of accidental death ?

A. Rs. 10 lakhs
B. Rs. 4 lakhs
C. Rs. 5 lakhs
D. Rs. 8 lakhs

81. Which Indian state signed a Memorandum of understanding (MOU) with Flipkart to
support mango farmers?

A. Gujarat
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. West Bengal

82. Batagaika Crater is located in located in which country?

A. Ukraine
B. Kazakhstan
C. Russia
D. Japan
83. Nobel Prize 2023 in Chemistry is awarded for_________

A. Development of click chemistry and Bioorthogonal chemistry

B. Discovery and synthesis of quantum dots
C. Development of asymmetric organocatalysis
D. Development of a method for genome editing

84. Gudavi Bird Sanctuary is located in which district?

A. Udupi
B. Mandya
C. Mysuru
D. Shivamogga

85. What is the primary focus of Mission Vatsalya?

A. Environmental conservation
B. Child protection and welfare
C. Women empowerment
D. Infrastructure development

86. Sujini embroidery is a traditional craft from which Indian state?

A. Gujarat
B. West Bengal
C. Bihar
D. Rajasthan

87. Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the SHREYAS Scheme?

A. Enhancing employability of students

B. Bridging the gap between education and industry requirements
C. Providing international internships
D. Encouraging skill-based education in higher education

88. Recently, India gifted the Corvette INS Kirpan ________ to enhance that country’s naval
capabilities.

A. Laos
B. Vietnam
C. Malaysia
D. Myanmar

89. Which of the following team has won the Ranji Trophy 2023?

A. Mumbai
B. Vadodara
C. Karnataka
 D. Punjab

90. Which of the following country topped the medal Talley at the TOKYO OLYMPICS 2020?

A. USA
B. China
C. Japan
D. India

91. ………………. lifts the trophy after 54 long years of waiting by striking Meghalaya with a 3-2
win in the Grand Finale of the 76th edition of the National Football Championship.

A. Kerala
B. Manipur
C. Karnataka
D. Gujrat

92. Choose the INCORRECTLY matched pair:

Grand slam and Winner

A. Australian Open 2023 Men's Singles: Novak Djokovic

B. French Open 2024 Men's Singles: Carlos Alcaraz
C. Wimbledon 2023 Women's Singles: Aryna Sabalenka
D. Australian Open 2024 Men’s Doubles: Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden

93. Which of the following cities recently awarded the UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network
(UCCN) for Music?

A. Srinagar
B. Kochi
C. Badami
D. Gwalior

94. Who among the personalities has been awarded the Bharat Ratna in the year 2024 ?

A. Nanaji Deshmukh
B. Bhupendra Kumar Hazarika
C. Pranab Mukherjee
D. M S Swaminathan

95. Who among the following has been chosen for the Padma Vibhushan 2023 from
Karnataka?

A. S L Bhyrappa
B. Sitaram Jindal
C. Nadoja Pindipapanahalli Munivenkatappa
D. S M Krishna
96. Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2021 was conferred on

A. Waheeda Rehman
B. Nikhil Mahajan
C. Asha Parekh
D. None of the above

97……………….. has been awarded with the Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion for
2024 by the World Health Organization (WHO).

A. NIMHANS, Bengaluru
B. AIIMS, New Delhi
C. AIIMS, Hyderabad
D. Jayadeva Institute of Cardiology, Bengaluru

98. Choose the INCORRECT pair:

Jnanpith awardee and work

A. Kuvempu - Shri Ramayana Darshanam

B. Da. Ra. Bendre- Naakutanti
C. Shivaram Karanth - Mookajjiya Kanasugalu
D. Maasti Venkatesh Iyengar - Comprehensive Contribution to Kannada Literature

99. Times magazine Person of the year 2023 was

A. Elon Musk
B. Volodymyr Zelensky
C. Vladimir Putin
D. Taylor Swift

100. The author of the books ‘ The India Way’ is

A. Amitabh Kant
B. S Jaishankar
C. Abdul Kalam
D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
1. Answer B

Explanation:

 As per provisions given in Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the President of
India can constitute the Finance Commission and give its recommendations on the
distribution of tax between the State Governments and Union Government and also
amongst the states themselves.
 14th Finance Commission (FFC) was appointed by the President on 2nd January, 2013
under the Chairmanship of Dr. Y.V. Reddy. It submitted its report on 15th December,
2014 covering all aspects of its mandate.
 The Thirteenth Finance Commission (FC-XIII) was constituted by the President under
Article 280 of the Constitution on 13 November 2007 to make recommendations for
the period 2010-15.
o Dr. Vijay Kelkar was appointed the Chairman of the Commission. Report of The
Thirteenth Finance Commission (2010–2015).
 15th Finance Commission (2017-2023): This Commission will be headed by Shri. N.K.
Singh, former Member of Parliament and former Secretary to the Government of
India.
 The Sixteenth Finance Commission (FC-XVI) was constituted on December 31 2023
with Dr. Arvind Panagariya as the Chairman.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

2. Answer: B

Explanation:

 Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to manage money supply
and interest rates to control inflation, stabilize the currency, and achieve sustainable
economic growth.

 Raising interest rates can reduce inflation by decreasing consumer spending and
business investment because borrowing becomes more expensive.

 Open market operations, like buying or selling government bonds, also help control
money supply and inflation.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Additional Information:

 Fiscal Policy involves government spending and tax policies to influence the economy
but is not directly used to control inflation.

 Trade Policy refers to regulations concerning trade between countries.

  Exchange Rate Policy involves managing the national currency value against other
currencies, which can affect trade balances but isn't a direct tool for inflation control.

3. Answer: C.

Explanation:

 GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services—that is, those that are
bought by the final user—produced in a country in a given period of time (say a quarter
or a year).

o It counts all of the output generated within the borders of a country.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Additional information:

 Gross National Product (GNP): Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of all
finished goods and services produced by a country's citizens in a given financial year,
irrespective of their location. GNP also measures the output generated by a country's
businesses located domestically or abroad.
 Net National Product (NNP): NNP is derived by subtracting depreciation (wear and
tear on capital goods) from GNP, giving a more accurate representation of what is
available for consumption and investment.
 Per Capita Income is the average income per person in a country and is calculated by
dividing the total national income by the population size.

4. Answer: B

Explanation:

 Phillips curve developed by A. W. Phillips says that the inflation and unemployment
have a stable and inverse relationship; which means that higher inflation is associated
with lower unemployment and vice versa.
 However, later it was proved that this curve is applicable only in the short-run, and in
long-run, inflationary policies would not decrease unemployment.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Additional information:

 Kuznets Curve is used to demonstrate the hypothesis that economic growth initially
leads to greater inequality, followed later by the reduction of inequality.
o The idea was first proposed by American economist Simon Kuznets.
 The Lorenz curve is a way of showing the distribution of income (or wealth) within an
economy.
o It was developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905 for representing wealth
distribution.
 o The Lorenz curve shows the cumulative share of income from different
sections of the population.
 The Gini-coefficient is a statistical measure of inequality that describes how equal or
unequal income or wealth is distributed among the population of a country.
o It was developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912.
o The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing
perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality.
o Values over 1 are theoretically possible due to negative income or wealth.
 The Laffer Curve states that if tax rates are increased above a certain level, then tax
revenues can actually fall because higher tax rates discourage people from working.
o The Curve was developed by economist Arthur Laffer to show the relationship
between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
o The curve is used to illustrate Laffer's argument that sometimes cutting tax
rates can increase total tax revenue.
 The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips.
o It states that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse
relationship.
o The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn
should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
 The Engel curve describes how the spending on a certain good varies with household
income.
o The shape of an Engel curve is impacted by demographic variables, such as age,
gender, and educational level, as well as other consumer characteristics.

5. Answer: D

Explanation:

 The Pension Department has launched an online portal called Bhavishya for tracking
pension payments and sanctions for government retirees.
 The portal is integrated with the pension processing and payment services of five
banks including State Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank, and
Canara Bank.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

6. Answer: D

Explanation:

 NABARD does not give direct loan to individuals but it gives loan to Commercial Banks,
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), State Cooperative Banks & Land Development Banks and
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) for further lending (refinance) to the
agriculture and rural sectors.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

About NABARD:

 It is a statutory body established in 1982 under Parliamentary act-National Bank for

Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981.
 HQ: Mumbai
 Structure of Governance:
o The Chairperson,
o 3 directors from amongst experts in
 rural economics,
 rural development,
 village and cottage industries,
 small-scale industries etc
o 3 directors from out of the directors of the Reserve Bank,
o 3 directors from amongst the officials of the Central Government,
o 4 directors from amongst the officials of the State Government,
 such number of directors elected in the prescribed manner, by
shareholders other than the Reserve Bank, the Central Government
and other institutions owned or controlled by the Central Government,
o The Managing Director.
 Objective: It has been constituted for “matters concerning policy, planning, and
operations in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural
areas in India“.

7. Answer C

Explanation:

Tissue Culture Technology

 Tissue culture is a technique in which fragments of plants are cultured and grown in a
laboratory.
 It provides a new way to rapidly produce and supply disease-free seed cane of existing
commercial varieties.
 It uses meristem to clone the mother plant.
 It also preserves genetic identity.
 The tissue culture technique, owing to its cumbersome outfit and physical limitation,
is turning out to be uneconomical.

Bud Chip Technology

 As a viable alternative of tissue culture, it reduces the mass and enables quick
multiplication of seeds.
  This method has proved to be more economical and convenient than the traditional
method of planting two to three bud setts.
 The returns are relatively better, with substantial savings on the seed material used for
planting. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 The researchers have found that the setts having two buds are giving germination
about 65 to 70% with better yield. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
 Large setts have better survival under bad weather but single budded setts also give
70% germination if protected with chemical treatment. Hence, statement 3 is not
correct.
 Tissue culture can be used to germinate and grow sugarcane settlings which can be
transplanted later in the field. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

8. Answer: C

Explanation:

 Capital receipts refer to those related to the capital transactions of an organization or

a government.
o Capital receipts are generally non-recurring, and a business or a government
can't record it as their regular source of income.
o In other words, they are cash inflows from capital gains generated from the
sale of investments or assets like buildings, land, or jewellery.
o The main goal of capital receipts is to increase an enterprise's revenue-
generating ability.
 Revenue receipts refer to the receipts of income which a company or government
makes from its day-to-day activities.
o It does not involve the creation of liabilities or the sale of assets.
 It is a function of the products and services which are offered in the
market.
 These revenues are recurring in nature as they are the products of the
daily business of a company or government.
 It is part of the profit-and-loss or income statement of a company.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

9. Answer: C

Explanation:

 India ranked 126 out of 143 countries, behind Libya, Iraq, Palestine, and Niger. Finland
is now the happiest country for the seventh successive year.
 Released by UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)
 The report considers six key factors: social support, income, health,
freedom, generosity, and the absence of corruption.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

10. Answer: A

Explanation:

 India has been placed in the “regular follow-up category” by the Financial Action Task
Force (FATF) after its plenary meeting in Singapore from June 26-28, 2024.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

About FATF:

 FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989
out of a G-7 meeting of developed nations in Paris.
 The FATF Plenary is the decision making body of the FATF.
 It meets three times per year.
 HQ: The FATF Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
 Members: As of today, it is a 39-member body representing most major financial
centres in all parts of the globe.
o India joined as a full member of FATF in 2010.
 Current President: T. Raja Kumar (Singapore) since July 2022

11. Answer: A

Explanation:

 The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) discharges multifarious responsibilities, the

important among them being - internal security, border management, Centre-State
relations, administration of Union Territories, management of Central Armed Police
Forces, disaster management, etc.
 Though in terms of Entries 1 and 2 of List II – ‘State List’ – in the Seventh Schedule to
the Constitution of India, ‘public order’ and ‘police’ are the responsibilities of States,
Article 355 of the Constitution enjoins the Union to protect every State against
 external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of
every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
 In pursuance of these obligations, the Ministry of Home Affairs continuously monitors
the internal security situation, issues appropriate advisories, shares intelligence
inputs, extends manpower and financial support, guidance and expertise to the State
Governments for maintenance of security, peace and harmony without encroaching
upon the constitutional rights of the States.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

12. Answer B

Explanation:

 Part V of the Constitution from Article 51 to 151 contains provisions for the
functioning of the Union Government.
o It establishes a parliamentary system of government at the Union level, an
independent judiciary, and effective separation of powers.
 Article 52: There shall be a President of India
 Article 53: The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President
 Article 54: The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college
consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected
members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
 Article 55: Manner of election of President
 Article 56: The President shall hold office for a term of five years
 Article 57: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall, subject to
the other provisions of this Constitution, be eligible for re-election to that office
 Article 58: Qualifications for election to the office of the President
 Article 59: Conditions of the office of the President
 Article 60: Oath to the office of President
 Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the President
 Article 62: Provisions related to the term and vacancy of the President

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

13. Answer C

Explanation:

 The Government of India Act, 1935, is significant because it provided a foundational

framework for the Indian Constitution.
 It aimed at establishment of federal polity in the country.
 Division of power between centre and provinces was introduced through 3 lists i.e
Federal, provincial and concurrent list.
  The Act maintained separate electorates for religious communities, including
Muslims, Sikhs, and others.
 The principle of dyarchy was abolished, and the governor became a constitutional
head with limited powers and introduced provincial autonomy, established a federal
structure dividing powers between the central and provincial governments.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

14. Answer C

Explanation:

 Article 76 in Part V of the constitution of India regulates the office of the attorney
general of India.
o The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge
of the Supreme Court to be attorney general of India.
 It shall be the duty of the attorney general to give advice to the Government of India
upon such legal matters.
 In the performance of his duties, the attorney general shall have the right of audience
in all courts in the territory of India.
 The attorney general shall hold office during the pleasure of the president.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

15. Answer B

Explanation:

 Originally Part IV of Indian Constitution, Article 45 and Article 39 (f) of DPSP, had a
provision for state funded as well as equitable and accessible education.
o The first official document on the Right to Education was Ramamurti
Committee Report in 1990.
 In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Unnikrishnan JP vs State of
Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a Fundamental right flowing from
Article 21.
o Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which encompassed insertion
of Article 21A.
 The 86th amendment to the constitution of India in 2002, provided Right to
Education as a fundamental right in part-III of the Constitution.
o The same amendment inserted Article 21A which made Right to Education a
fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
o The 86th amendment provided for a follow-up legislation for Right to
Education Bill 2008 and finally Right to Education Act 2009.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

16. Answer D

Explanation: The correct chronology of formation of given states is

 Nagaland on 1st December 1963.

 Haryana on 1st November 1966.
 Sikkim on 16th May 1975.
 Arunachal Pradesh on 20th Feb 1987.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

17. Answer B

Explanation:

 Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India and the President of the Constituent
Assembly, made this comment to emphasize the democratic essence of the Indian
Constitution.
 By saying, "The Constitution is a law which is made by the people and for the people,"
he highlighted that the Indian Constitution is a product of the collective will of the
people, formulated by their representatives in the Constituent Assembly.
 This statement underlines that the Constitution reflects the aspirations and rights of
the citizens, and its authority stems from the people themselves.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

18. Answer B

Explanation:

Parts and Subject Articles

Part I – The Union and its Territories 1–4

Part II – Citizenship 5 -11

Part III – Fundamental Rights 12 – 35

Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy 36 – 51

Part IV A – Fundamental Duties 51A

Part V – The Union 52 – 151

Part VI – The States 152 – 237

Part VII – The States in Part B of First Schedule 238 [Repealed]

Part VIII – The Union Territories 239 – 242

Part IX – The Panchayats 243 – 243O

Part IXA – The Municipalities 243P – 243ZG

Part IXB – The Co-operative Societies 243ZH – 243ZT

Part X – The Scheduled and Tribal Areas 244 – 244A

Part XI – Relation between the Union and the States 245 – 263

Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 264 – 300A

Part XIII – Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the territory of India 301 – 307

Part XIV – Services Under the Union and the States 308 – 323

Part XIVA – Tribunals 323A – 323B

Part XV – Elections 324 – 329A

Part XVI – Special provisions relating to certain classes 330 – 342

Part XVII – Official language 343 – 351

Part XVIII – Emergency Provisions 352 – 360

Part XIX – Miscellaneous 361 – 367

Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution 368

Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions 369 – 392

Part XXII – Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals 393 – 395

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

19. Answer C

Explanation:

 Recently, the Indian Prime Minister inaugurated the pilot project of World's Largest
Grain Storage Plan, which is currently launched in 11 Primary Agricultural Credit
Societies (PACS) across 11 states.
 Cooperatives are people-centred enterprises owned, controlled and run by and for
their members to realise their common economic, social, and cultural needs and
aspirations.
o The main objective is to provide support to the members and they joins a
cooperative society to earn profit.
 The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) highlighted the promotion of cooperatives for
comprehensive community development.
 Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002: Provides for the formation and
functioning of multi-state co-operatives.
 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011: Established the right to form
cooperative societies as a fundamental right (Article 19).
o Added a new Part IX-B to the Constitution titled "The Co-operative Societies"
(Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
o Fundamental Right: Article 19 (1) (c) as ‘Right to form cooperatives.’
o Directive Principle of State Policy: Art. 43-B “The state shall endeavour to
promote voluntary formation, democratic control, autonomous functioning
and professional management of cooperative societies”.
o Part IX-B: “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
o State List: State Subject under entry No.32 (7th schedule) of the of the
Constitution of India
o Empowered Parliament to enact laws governing multi-state cooperative
societies (MSCS) and delegated authority to state legislatures for other
cooperative societies.
 Establishment of Union Ministry of Cooperation (2021): Assumed responsibility for
cooperative affairs, previously overseen by the Ministry of Agriculture.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

20. Answer A

Explanation:
  The Narasimham-II Committee was tasked with the progress review of the
implementation of the banking reforms since 1992 with the aim of further
strengthening the financial institutions of India.
o It focussed on issues like size of banks and capital adequacy ratio among other
things.
 The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957 and recommended
decentralisation in the delegation of power and functions at divisional and sub-
divisional levels.
o Balwant Rai Mehta was the elected head of the committee and was also the
chief minister of Gujarat.
 The Government of India set up a high-powered committee in August 1991, under the
chairmanship of Dr Raja J Chelliah.
o The committee made recommendations for a comprehensive reform of the
system of central taxes.
o The Tax Reform Committee is also known as the Raja Chelliah Committee.
 The function of Khusro committee under the chairmanship of Prof. A.M. Khusro was
to examine the problems of agricultural and rural credits, measure the structural and
operational deficiencies and recommend major systematic improvements.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

21. Answer B

Explanation:

 SVAMITVA, a Central Sector Scheme of Ministry of Panchayati Raj was nation-wide

launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on National Panchayati Raj Day, 24th April
2021 after successful completion of pilot phase of scheme ( 2020-2021) in 9 states.
 Objective: Scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of
property in rural inhabited (“Abadi”) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone
technology and providing ‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners with issuance
of legal ownership cards (Property cards/Title deeds) to the property owners.
 The Scheme is implemented with the collaborative efforts of the Ministry of Panchayati
Raj, State Revenue Department, State Panchayati Raj Department and Survey of India.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

22. Answer C

Explanation:

 Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 2011-12.

 Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the
creation of capital assets.
  The concept of effective revenue deficit has been suggested by the Rengarajan
Committee on Public Expenditure.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

23. Answer: D

Explanation:

 This is an alternating division and addition series: First, divide by 2, and then add 8.
 666/2 = 333 then 333+7=340
 340/2 = 170 + 7 = 177

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

24. Answer D

Explanation:

 Gorbl means fan;

 Flur means belt;
 Pixn means ceiling;
 Arth means tile; and tusl means roof. Therefore, pixnarth is the correct choice.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

25. Answer: B

Explanation:

 The seating arrangement is as follows:

 B D E F C A
 Therefore, right of B is D.

26. Answer C

Explanation: According to the question,

 Selling Price (SP) = 6,

 Gain = 50%,
 Cost Price (CP) = x,
 Gain % = SP - CP/CP * 100,
 50 = 6-x/x * 100,
 50x = (6-x) * 100,
 50x = 600 - 100x,
 150x = 600.
 x = 600/150
 Therefore, x = 4.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

27. Answer D

Explanation:

 Average of 10 numbers = 0.
 Sum of 10 numbers (0 x 10) = 0.
 It is quite possible that 9 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is a then
10th number is (-a).

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

28. Answer A

Explanation:

 The 39th session of the Indian National Congress held at Belgaum (now called
Belagavi, Karnataka) in 1924 was the only Congress session presided over by
Mahatma Gandhi.
o Popular performance activities such as theatre and dramas played a crucial role
in motivating the volunteers who had assembled at the Congress Camp.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

29. Answer C

Explanation:

 In 1951, Kagodu a hamlet in Sagara Taluk of Shivamogga district witnessed an

important peasant uprising named Kagodu Satyagraha.
 “Lohia mara”, a peepal tree planted by the socialist leader Ram Manohar Lohia and
Jayaprakash Narayan who were in support to support the agitation, remains the only
symbol that reminds the village about the agitation.
 The satyagraha was started with the Kolagada jagala—a dispute over kolaga, a
container used to measure agriculture produce grown by tenant farmers. While the
landlords used a smaller kolaga (of three measures) to loan grains to the tenant
farmer, they used a bigger kolaga during the loan repayment.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

30. Answer A

Explanation:

 Basappa Danappa Jatti, the ex-Vice President of India, served as the Chairman of the
Land Reforms Committee in 1955. The recommendations of this committee were
implemented in 1957.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

31. Answer A

Explanation:

 Shiv Narayan Agnihotri (born 1850, near Kanpur, India—died 1929, Lahore [now in
Pakistan]) was the Hindu founder of a quasi-religious reform movement called Dev
Samaj (“Divine Society”).
 The Dev Samaj endeavours to eradicate from the hearts of the people, as far as
possible, such egoistic forces as vanity, hatred, self-will and selfishness and to evolve
such altruistic feelings as compassion, gratitude, reverence etc

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

32. Answer C

Explanation:

 Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq was the last sultan of the Tughlaq dynasty.
o It was during the reign of him Timur invaded India in 1398 A.D.
 Mongols under Chengiz Khan invaded India during the reign of Iltutmish 1211-36 but
did not enter deep in India as Iltutmish refused to give shelter to the Persian king
Khwarizm Shah whom Chengiz Khan was chasing.
 Mongol Khan Tarmashirin, the son of Duwa Khan, was the ruler of Chaghatai Khanate
from 1326 to 1334.
o Tarmashirin's invasion of India has been the subject of some controversy.
Ferishta, who places the invasion at the beginning of the reign of Muhammad
Tughlaq, portrays Muhammad Tughlaq as a coward.
 Muhammad Shah's reign was marked by rapid and irreversible decline of the Mughal
Empire that was exacerbated by Nader Shah's invasion of India and the sacking of
Delhi in 1739.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

33. Answer B

Explanation:

 Eka Movement or Unity Movement is a peasant movement that surfaced in Hardoi,

Bahraich and Sitapur during the end of 1921 by Madari Pasi as an offshoot of the Non-
Cooperation Movement.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

34. Answer C

Explanation: Given data is as follows

  Time: 5:20PM.
 Standard time 12:00PM.
 Angel traced by hours 12 hr =360°
 1 hr = 360°/12 = 30°
 60 minutes=30°
 One minutes = 1/2°
 12 PM to 5 PM there are 5 hr so 5*30°=150°
 For 20 minutes 1/2*20 =10°
 Total Degree= 160°

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

35. Answer: B

Explanation: Let A's amount be x and B's amount be y.

 Given:
 (4/15)x = (2/5)y.
 Solving this, we get x = (3/2)y,
 Also given: A + B = 1215.
 Substituting.
 x = (3/2)y in A + B = 1215, we get (3/2)y + y = 1215.
 Simplifying, we get (5/2)y = 1215,
 y = (1215 * 2)/5 = 486.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

36. Answer C

Explanation:

Downstream/Upstream:

 In water, the direction along the stream is called downstream. And, the direction
against the stream is called upstream.
 If the speed of a boat in still water is u km/hr and the speed of the stream is v km/hr,
then:
o Speed downstream = (u + v) km/hr.
o Speed upstream = (u - v) km/hr.
 If the speed downstream is a km/hr and the speed upstream is b km/hr, then:
o Speed in still water = ½ (a + b) km/hr.
o Rate of stream = ½ (a - b) km/hr.
 Therefore, Speed in still water =1/2(12 + 6) kmph = 9 kmph.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

37. Answer A

Explanation:

 Let the son's present age be x years. Then, (40 - x) = x

o 2x = 40.
o x = 20.
 Son's age 5 years back (20 - 5) = 15 years.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

38. Answer C

Explanation:

 S.I for 1 year = 855 - 815 = 40.

 S.I for 3 year = 40 * 3 = 120.
 S.I for 4 year = 40 * 4 = 160.

Now,

 Subtract the given amount of each simple interest amount

 A = 815 - 120 = 695.
 B = 855 - 160 = 695.
 Both are same, so;
 So, the answer is 695.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

39. Answer B

Explanation:

 As one can observe in this series, each number is repeated, then 12 is subtracted to
arrive at the next number.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

40. Answer D

Explanation: Give data is as follows

 S1 = 250kmph.
 T1 = 5 hours.
 T2 = 1 1/2 hours = 5/3 hours.
 D1=D2.

To Find: S2 =

 D = S x T.
  D1 = D2.
 So, S1 x T1 = S2 x T2.
 250 x 5 = S2 x 5/3.
 S2 = (250 x 5 x 3 )/5.

S2=750

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

41. Answer D

Explanation:

 The Original Length of one side is 10m, then area for this is 100m² &
 Length when 1% error is excess is 10+0.1, it means now the length of a side is 10.1m
and the area for this is 102.01m².

Now,

 The area due to error excess - Original area = 102.01 – 100 = 2.01.
 Also, we can assume the length of a side is 100m or whatever we want.

(Here, it is mentioned that the error excess of 1% so for that reason we add the value of the
error on the original side instead of subtracting.)

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

42. Answer C

Explanation:

 Aeroplane and Train are different from each other but some travellers travel by
aeroplane and some travel by train.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

43. Answer D

Explanation:

 Clearly, the numbers are (22 x 13) and (22 x 14).

 Larger number = (22 x 14) = 308.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

44. Answer D

Explanation:
  The Centre for Space Science and Technology Education in Asia and the Pacific
(CSSTEAP) was established in India in November 1995 with its headquarters in
Dehradun and is considered as the Centre of Excellence by UN-OOSA.
 In 1993, the Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative established its HQ in New Delhi.
 The International Solar Alliance (ISA) headquarters in Gurgaon.
 The Headquarters of the Arab League is located in the district of Cairo, Egypt.
o In India, its HQ is located in New Delhi.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

45. Answer A

Explanation:

 India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) as its 42nd Participating State on 8
December 2017.
o India's membership of the WA will facilitate high technology tie-ups with the
Indian industry and ease access to high-tech items for India's defence and
space programmes.
 The Australia Group is an informal arrangement to prevent assisting chemical and
biological weapon proliferation during exports or transshipments.
o In January 2018, India became the 43rd member of the Australia Group.
 The EAS has 18 members - the 10 ASEAN countries (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia,
Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) along with
Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the
United States.
 The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC) is a regional economic forum and was
formed in 1989. It has 21 members in its groups; however, India is not one of them.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

46. Answer A

Explanation:

 The AIIB was proposed by Chinese leader Xi Jinping to provide developing countries
with an alternative to Western lending institutions, like the World Bank and the
International Monetary Fund.
 It began operations in January 2016.
 AIIB is headquartered in Beijing, China.
 India is one of the founding members and the second largest shareholder in the Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) after China.
 Objectives: Promoting sustainable economic development, creating wealth, and
augmenting infrastructure connectivity in Asia by investing in the infrastructure &
other productive sectors.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

47. Answer B

Explanation:

 The Southern Common Market (MERCOSUR for its Spanish initials) is a regional
integration process, initially established by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay,
and subsequently joined by Venezuela and Bolivia* -the latter still complying with the
accession procedure.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

48. Answer D

Explanation:

 Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has signed an agreement to extend up to a
USD 200 million currency swap facility to Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) under
the SAARC Currency Swap Framework.
 Under this arrangement, central banks of SAARC member countries can enter into
bilateral agreements with the RBI.
o These agreements allow them to swap their currencies for Indian Rupees, US
dollars, or euros, according to the predetermined terms and conditions.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

49. Answer B

Explanation:
  Real-Time Train information System (RTIS) enables the Indian Railways to acquire the
positional and other vital information of Locomotives though Satellite and Mobile data
networks at a central Data Centre without any manual intervention from Loco Pilot or
station staff.
o The system involves the Loco Device installed on the Locomotive along with
Satellite MSS Hub and Data Centre at Railway data Centre, New Delhi.
 The project is executed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS). RTIS is
developed in collaboration with ISRO.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

50. Answer A

Explanation:

 Earth's atmosphere is composed of about 78 percent nitrogen, 21 percent oxygen, 0.9

percent argon, and 0.1 percent other gases.
o Trace amounts of carbon dioxide, methane, water vapor, and neon are some
of the other gases that make up the remaining 0.1 percent.
 The dry composition of the atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen. It also contains
small amounts of argon and carbon dioxide and trace amounts of other gases, such
as helium, neon, methane, krypton, and hydrogen in the decreasing order.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

51. Answer D

Explanation:

 The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark
multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption
of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).
 The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different
ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing
countries (referred to as “Article 5 countries”).
 The substances controlled by the treaty are listed in Annexes A (CFCs, halons), B (other
fully halogenated CFCs, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform), C (HCFCs), E (methyl
bromide), and F (HFCs).

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

52. Answer B

Explanation:

 Pseudomonas putida also called as oil guzzlers is a gram negative, rod shaped,
saprophytic bacterium which was patented by Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty, for the
ability of the bacterium to biodegrade oil.
o Putida is a widely used microbe for bioremediation due to its hydrocarbon
degradation potential and bio-safety.
o Successful clean-ups of oil contaminated sites employing P. putida along with
fertilizers have been reported.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

53. Answer C

Explanation:
  The Vienna Convention was the first convention of any kind to be signed by every
country involved, taking effect in 1988 and reaching universal ratification in 2009.
o This speaks to the enormity of ozone depletion at the time and the willingness
of countries around the world to work together to solve it.
 The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty that aims to protect human health and
the environment from the effects of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The
Convention entered into force on May 17, 2004.
 The Rotterdam Convention is an international treaty designed to facilitate informed
decision-making by countries with regard to trade in hazardous chemicals.
 The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was
adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference
with the climate system.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

54. Answer A

Explanation:

 Unlike the profundal zone, the limnetic zone is the layer that receives sufficient
sunlight, allowing for photosynthesis.
 For this reason, it is often simply referred to as the photic zone.
 The limnetic zone is the most photosynthetically-active zone of a lake since it is the
primary habitat for planktonic species.
 The limnetic zone is the open and well-lit area of a freestanding body of fresh water,
such as a lake or pond.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

55. Answer D

Explanation:
  Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced that on
the eve of World Wetlands Day 2nd February, 2024, India has increased its tally of
Ramsar sites to 80 from the existing 75 by designating five more wetlands as Ramsar
sites.
 Three of these sites, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary
and Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve are located in Karnataka whereas two,
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest are in Tamilnadu.
 Presently Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar Sites (16
sites) followed by Uttar Pradesh (10 sites).

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

56. Answer A

Explanation:

 Biorock technology is an innovative process originally invented in 1976 to produce

natural building materials in the sea. It is a unique method that allows coral reefs, and
other marine ecosystems including seagrass, salt marsh, mangrove, and oyster reefs
 to survive and recover from damage caused by excessive nutrients, climate change,
and physical destruction.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

57. Answer C

Explanation:

 Flies eat rotten things like dead animals, faces (poop), and garbage. As they crawl
around on that stuff, they pick up germs and spread them wherever they land.
 Flies are decomposers, living things (such as bacteria, fungus, or insect) that feed on
and break down plant and animal matter into simpler parts.
 Cockroaches are detritivores and proficient recyclers of nutrient in the ecosystem.
They efficiently digest lignocellulose in plant materials by the cellulases in their gut.
 Vultures, although often mistaken for detritivores due to their scavenging habits, are
actually scavengers because they consume the soft tissues of dead animals rather
than detritus.
 Jellyfish is carnivorous and Sea horse is also primarily a carnivorous animal.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

58. Answer C

Explanation:

 The greenhouse effect is the process through which heat is trapped near Earth's
surface by substances known as 'greenhouse gases.'
o Imagine these gases as a cozy blanket enveloping our planet, helping to
maintain a warmer temperature than it would have otherwise.
o In descending order, the gases that contribute most to the Earth's greenhouse
effect are: water vapour (H2O) carbon dioxide (CO2) nitrous oxide(N2O)
 Asphyxia, also known as suffocation or asphyxiation, happens when your body
doesn't get enough oxygen to keep you from passing out. It can be a life-threatening
situation.
 Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation
with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid that fall to the ground from the
atmosphere in wet or dry forms.
o This can include rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is acidic.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

59. Answer D

Explanation:
  Typhoid fever is a life-threatening infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella
Typhi. It is usually spread through contaminated food or water.
 Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by ingestion of food or water
contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Cholera remains a global threat to
public health and an indicator of inequity and lack of social development.
 Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica.
o It is transmitted in areas where poor sanitation allows contamination of
drinking water and food with faeces.
o In these areas, up to 40% of people with diarrhoea may have amoebic
dysentery.
 Hepatitis can be caused by: Immune cells in the body attacking the liver. Infections
from viruses (such as hepatitis A, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C), bacteria, or parasites.
Liver damage from alcohol or poison.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

60. Answer B

Explanation:

 Autecology is the study of individual organisms.

 The approach originally focused on the adaptiveness of an organism‫׳‬s physiology to
the environment but has since been expanded to include the study of the distribution
and dynamics of populations.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

61. Answer D

Explanation:

 Vembanad is the longest lake in India, as well as the largest in the state of Kerala.
o The lake has an area of 230 square kilometers and a maximum length of 96.5
km.
 Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water lakes in South Asia.
o It is located near Bandipora town in the Bandipora district of Jammu and
Kashmir.
o The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the
Jhelum River and stream Madhumati and Arin.
 Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia and second largest coastal
lagoon in the world, spread over the Puri, Khordha and Ganjam districts of Odisha
state.
 Kolleru Lake, lake in northeastern Andhra Pradesh state, southern India.
o It lies between the Godavari and Krishna river deltas near the city of Eluru.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

62. Answer B

Explanation:

 Presently, India accommodates a total of 55 Tiger Reserves (with the most recent
addition being the Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve).
 Karnataka:
o Nagarahole Tiger Reserve
o Dandeli-Anshi (Kali) Tiger Reserve
o Biligiri Ranganatha Temple Tiger Reserve
o Bhadra Tiger Reserve
o Bandipur Tiger Reserve
 Odisha:
o Similipal Tiger Reserve
o Satkosia Tiger Reserve
 Rajasthan:
o Sariska Tiger Reserve
o Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
o Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve
o Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve
o Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve
 Tamil Nadu:
o Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tiger Reserve
o Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
o Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
 West Bengal:
o Sunderbans Tiger Reserve
o Buxa Tiger Reserve

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

63. Answer D

Explanation:

 The ISI mark is mandatory for certain products to be sold in India, such as electrical
appliances including switches, electric motors, wiring cables, heaters, kitchen
appliances, etc., and other products like Portland cement, LPG valves, LPG cylinders,
automotive tyres, etc.
 AGMARK is a certification mark for agricultural produce, assuring that they conform
to a grade standard notified by Directorate of Marketing & Inspection (DMI), Ministry
 of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare under Agricultural Produce (Grading Marking) Act,
1937.
 The BIS Hallmark is a hallmarking system for gold as well as silver jewellery sold in
India, certifying the purity of the metal.
o It certifies that the piece of jewellery conforms to a set of standards laid by the
Bureau of Indian Standards, the national standards organization of India.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

64. Answer D

Explanation:

 Of the two types of surface waves

,
the L-waves are the most destructive.
 They can literally move the ground beneath a building faster than the building itself
can respond, effectively shearing the base off of the rest of the building.
 Love waves cause more damage than Rayleigh waves, but both are highly destructive
because they occur near the surface of the Earth.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

65. Answer A

Explanation:

 The Adirondack Mountains are a massif of mountains in Northeastern New York

which form a circular dome approximately 160 miles wide and covering about 5,000
square miles.
 Cotopaxi, volcanic peak, in the Cordillera Central of the Andes, central Ecuador.
 o Rising to 19,393 feet (5,911 metres), it is among the world's highest volcanoes.
 Vosges and Black Forest mountains in Europe and the Sierra Nevada in California are
Block Mountains.
o A block mountain is that which has been formed by the natural faults in the
earth's crust. They are basically of two types- tilted and lifted Block Mountains.
 The Himalaya Mountains are folded mountains: This means that tectonic plates under
the surface clashed together, moving the earth atop it upwards.
o Around 30-50 million years ago, the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Continental
Plates pushed up against each other causing the ground to shift and form the
Himalayas.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

66. Answer B

Explanation:

 Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh recently said that a committee comprising all
the tribal communities would be constituted to deliberate on demand for
deletion/inclusion of Chin-Kuki from the Scheduled Tribes list of the state.
 The Kuki people, or Kuki-Zo people, are an ethnic group in the Northeastern Indian
states of Manipur, Nagaland, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, as well as the
neighbouring countries of Bangladesh and Myanmar.
o The Kukis form one of the largest hill tribe communities in this region.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

67. Answer D

Explanation:
  The countries bordering the Red Sea are given by DESSEY (Djibouti, Egypt, Saudi
Arabia, Sudan, Eritrea, and Yemen).
 Connected to the Indian ocean in south through the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf
of Aden.
 In the north are the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading
to the Suez Canal).

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

68. Answer D

Explanation:

 A cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley formed by glacial erosion.

o Glaciers carve a set of distinctive, steep-walled, flat-bottomed valleys. U-
shaped valleys, fjords, and hanging valleys are examples of the kinds of valleys
glaciers can erode.
 Uvala is a large elongate sinkhole resulting from enlargement and coalescence of a
linear group of small sinkholes.
 A loess plain is a result of deposition in an aeolian environment.
o It is formed from clastic wind-blown sediments the size of silt and sand
particles which are loosely cemented by calcium carbonate.
o It is homogeneous, highly porous and covers approximately 10% of the earth's
surface.
 A bajada consists of a series of coalescing alluvial fans along a mountain front.
o These fan-shaped deposits form by the deposition of sediment within a
stream onto flat land at the base of a mountain.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

69. Answer B

Explanation:

 Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas confined to the area lying between
30°N and 30° S latitudes, in the atmosphere around which high-velocity winds blow.
 Horizontally, it extends up to 500-1,000 km and vertically from the surface to 12-14
km.

Condition for Formation for tropical cyclone: Heat, Air, and Forces:

 Temperature: Warm sea surface temperature above 27 degrees Celsius.

 Supply of Warm Air: Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can
release enormous latent heat.
 Coriolis force: Strong Coriolis force that can prevent the filling of low pressure at the
centre (absence of Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical
cyclones between 0°-5°°latitude).
 Unstable Condition: Catalyst for Cyclone Development
o Through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a
cyclone develops.
o Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of
latent heat.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

70. Answer C

Explanation:

 The Varaha river originates in the Western Ghats and flows into the Arabian Sea.
 It is originating at a place called “Hebbagilu” near Agumbe in Thirthahalli taluk in the
district of Shivamogga, from an elevation of 730 metres (2,400 ft) above mean sea
level.
 Kunchikal Falls cascades down rocky boulders and the total height of the falls is 455
meters (1,493 feet), according to the World Waterfall Database.
o Kunchikal Falls is formed by the Varahi river.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

71. Answer D

Explanation:

 There were four major Buddhist Councils that were organised to institutionalise and
shape the ideas and philosophy of Buddhist doctrines; the first one was immediately
held after the death of Buddha.
  Buddhist councils: Sequence Trick - RAVA PAKA (AKAK was playing in RajiV gandhi ParK)

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

72. Answer B

Explanation:

 It happens due to the interference of light reflected from the upper surface of the thin
film.
 Thin films such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful colours
when illuminated by white light.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

73. Answer B

Explanation:

 The greater the density of a medium, the slower the speed of sound.
o This observation is analogous to the fact that the frequency of a simple
harmonic motion is inversely proportional to m, the mass of the oscillating
object.
 Lowering the temperature of a substance makes the motion of the wave particles more
sluggish.
o The particles are more difficult to move and slower to return to their original
positions.
o Therefore, sound travels faster at higher temperatures and slower at lower
temperatures.
  The speed of sound is independent of pressure i.e. speed remains unchanged by the
increase or decrease of pressure.
o The speed of sound increases with the increase of the temperature of the
medium.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

74. Answer B

Explanation:

 Launched in 2014–2015, the scheme "Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual

Augmentation Drive (PRASAD)" is a Central Sector Scheme by the Ministry of
Tourism, Government of India.
 The scheme focuses on developing and identifying pilgrimage sites across India to
enrich the religious tourism experience.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

75. Answer C

Explanation:

 Viral vector vaccines use a modified version of a different virus as a vector to deliver
protection.
o There are several types of viral vectors that can be used to deliver nucleic acids
into the genetic makeup of cells including retrovirus, lentivirus, adenovirus,
adeno-associated virus and herpes simplex virus–each with its own
advantages and disadvantages for specific applications.
 mRNA vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that corresponds to a viral
protein, usually a small piece of a protein found on the virus’s outer membrane.
o Two of the vaccines currently in use to prevent the COVID-19 infection
(coronavirus disease) are mRNA vaccines.
o These are the Pfizer and Moderna vaccines.
 An inactivated vaccine is a vaccine consisting of virus particles, bacteria, or other
pathogens that have been grown in culture and then killed to destroy disease-
producing capacity.
o Examples of currently available live, attenuated vaccines against viral infections
include measles, mumps, rubella (MMR), cowpox, yellow fever, influenza
intranasal vaccine), and oral polio vaccine.
 A live, attenuated vaccine consists of live, whole bacterial cells or viruses that are
treated in such a way that their pathogenicity is reduced but their immunogenicity is
retained.
o Live virus vaccines use the weakened (attenuated) form of the virus.
 o The measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine and the varicella
(chickenpox) vaccine are examples.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

76. Answer D

Explanation:

 Vinton Gray Cerf is an American Internet pioneer and is recognized as one of "the
fathers of the Internet", sharing this title with TCP/IP co-developer Bob Kahn.
 Raymond Samuel Tomlinson was an American computer programmer who
implemented the first email program on the ARPANET system, the precursor to the
Internet, in 1971.
 Sir Timothy John Berners-Lee, also known as TimBL, is an English computer scientist
best known as the inventor of the World Wide Web, the HTML markup language, the
URL system, and HTTP.
 Bob Kahn is an American electrical engineer who, along with Vint Cerf, first proposed
the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the Internet Protocol (IP), the
fundamental communication protocols at the heart of the Internet. Robert Elliot
George Kahn.
 The term 'Internet of Things' was coined in 1999 by the computer scientist Kevin
Ashton.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

77. Answer A

Explanation:

 The Government of the Union Territory of Ladakh has approached the Indian Institute
of Remote Sensing (IIRS) for developing “Spatial Data Infrastructure geoportal 'Geo-
Ladakh' for UT-Ladakh.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

78. Answer A

Explanation:

 The Karnataka government recently unveiled operational guidelines for the

Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality (AVGC-XR) Policy
3.0 (2024-2029).
 The AVGC-XR Policy 3.0 offers a Rs 150 crore budget over five years and includes
incentives such as 50 percent reimbursement for skill development (up to Rs 7.5 lakh),
Rs 3,000 per employee per month for Provident Fund/ESI (up to Rs 12 lakh), and up
to 40 percent reimbursement for early-stage start-up costs.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

79. Answer A

Explanation:

 Karnataka Government recently launched Marusinchana Programme at a cost of

Rs.10 crore to improve learning ability of students of 6th and 7th standard who are
lagging behind.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

80. Answer B

Explanation:

 Karnataka government published the draft of the Karnataka Platform-based Gig

Workers (Social Security and Welfare) Bill, making it the second Indian State to initiate
such a move, the first being Rajasthan.
 The Bill seeks to regulate the social security and welfare of platform-based gig workers
in the State.

About Karnataka Platform-based Gig Workers (Social Security and Welfare) Bill:

 Insurance benefit for gig workers working in the state of Karnataka for the first time in
the country.
 Workers Eligible for Registration: Food delivery boys of Swiggy, Zomato etc., and all
unorganised
 Implementing agency: Labour Department
 Benefits:
o In case of accidental death- Rs.4.00 lakh inclusive of Accidental Insurance of
Rs.2.00 lakh and Life Insurance of Rs.2.00. lakhs.
o In case of permanent disability due to accident - upto Rs.2.00 lakhs.
o Reimbursement of hospital expenses for accident cases - upto Rs.1.00 lakhs.
o Life insurance Rs.2.00 lakhs.
o Criteria: 18 to 60 years of age.
o Should not be an income tax payer.
o Should not be a beneficiary of EPF and ESI.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

81. Answer: C

Explanation:

 The Karnataka State Mango Department and Marketing Corporation

Ltd.(KSMD&MCL) and Flipkart signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to
 support the mango farmers in this mango season to sell their produce through the
online platform of Flipkart.
 The Flipkart will provide the platform for the Mango Board Farmer Producer
Organizations, sellers, growers and traders by enrolling on the platform.
 Flipkart will provide training and capacity building on how to use the platform and the
other user interfaces.
 The fruits from the Bengaluru urban, Kolar, Haveri, Hubballi-Dharwad and Belgaum
will be available for the customers access through this platform.
 The varieties like Alphonso, Badami, Apoos, Banganapalli, Kesar, Neelam, Humam
Pasand, Sendur and Mallika will be available on the Flipkart platform in batches of 3kg.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

82. Answer: C

Explanation:

 It is also called the "gateway to the underworld," by some locals in Russia's Sakha
Republic.
 Location: It is located in Russia's Far East that forms the world's biggest permafrost
crater.
 It is a crater or megaslump, features a rounded cliff face that was first spotted on
satellite images in 1991 after a section of hillside collapsed in the Yana Uplands of
northern Yakutia in Russia.
 Scientists believe that the crater is the result of a melting permafrost land, which was
frozen during the Quaternary Ice Age 2.58 million years ago.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

83. Answer B

Explanation:
84. Answer: D
Explanation:
 It is located near Sorab, in Malenadu region of Karnataka on the banks of Gudavi
Lake and declared a sanctuary in 1986.
 It is a small seasonal lake and is filled with water mostly in the rainy season and used
for irrigating paddy fields on the eastern side of the Varada river.
 Vegetation: Moist Evergreen Deciduous type.
 Flora: Lilies, Azolla, and other water plants.
 Fauna: Around 190 species of local and migratory birds including white ibis, black-
headed ibis, egrets, cormorants, snake birds, spoonbills, herons, and ducks.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

85. Answer: B

Explanation:

 Mission Vatsalya is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to achieve the objectives
of child protection and development under the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs).
 It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2021-22 as a
revamped version of the Integrated Child Protection Scheme (ICPS), which was started
in 2010.
 The mission covers all children in need of care and protection, such as orphans, street
children, abandoned children, children in conflict with the law, children affected by
natural disasters, children with disabilities, children with HIV/AIDS, etc.
 The mission also focuses on child rights, advocacy and awareness, along with
strengthening the juvenile justice system.
  To assist States and UTs in delivering the mandate of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

86. Answer: C

Explanation:

 Sujini and Khatwa Embroidery is famous as well as beautiful work of handicraft in

Bihar.
 Traditionally, Sujani is embroiled quilt made in Bihar by recycling a number of worn-
out saris and/or dhotis in a simple running stitch that gave the old cloth a new
structure while ornamenting it.
 Sujani was sometimes stitched in white, red and black, drawn from the borders of old
saris. The embroiderers outline and fill motifs in a circular manner with coloured
quilting stitches, while covering the background with white stitching.
 The circular stitching creates a dimensional distortion which renders a unique surface
character.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

87. Answer: C

Explanation:

 The SHREYAS scheme (Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and
Skills) initiated in 2014, encompasses four central sector sub-schemes aimed at
empowering Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) students
through education.
 Provide high-quality coaching to economically disadvantaged SC and OBC candidates.
 Prepare them for competitive and entrance exams for public and private sector jobs.
 Facilitate admissions to prestigious technical and professional higher education
institutions.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

88. Answer: B

Explanation:

 India gifted the Corvette INS Kirpan to Vietnam to enhance that country’s naval
capabilities.
 It is an indigenously-built in-service missile.
 It is a Khukri class missile corvette commissioned into the Navy on January 12, 1991.
 It has a displacement displacing capacity of close to 1,400 tonnes.
 It is capable of a speed of more than 25 knots.
 The Khukri class are equipped with Diesel Engines assembled in India.
  The ship is fitted with a medium-range gun, 30 mm close-range guns, chaff launchers,
and surface-to-surface missiles.
 It performs a wide variety of roles, including coastal and offshore patrol, coastal
security, surface warfare, anti-piracy, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief
(HADR) operations.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

89. Answer A

Explanation:

 The Ranji Trophy is a premier domestic first-class cricket championship played in India
and organized annually by the Board of Control for Cricket in India. The teams
representing regional and state cricket associations participate.

Trophy winners and Runners

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

90. Answer A

Explanation:

TOKYO OLYMPICS 2020

 New events: 3x3 basketball, freestyle BMX and mixed gender team events in a number
of existing sports, as well as the return of madison cycling for men and an introduction
of the same event for women.
 Medals Talley: The United States (113), China, Japan, UK, and Russia.
o Neeraj Chopra (87.58m) won the first ever Gold in athletics from India
o Indian weightlifter Mirabai Chanu has won a silver medal
 o PV Sindhu has won the second medal at the Olympics this year including the
Bronze she has won at the Tokyo Olympics 2020.
 She defeated China's He Bing Jiao
o Ravi Dahiya has won a Silver medal in Wrestling (Freestyle)
o Lovlina Borgohain - boxer. won a bronze medal at the 2020 Olympic Games in
the women's welterweight event.
o Bajrang Punia is the only Indian wrestler to have won three medals in the
World Wrestling Championships.
 Bronze medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2020
o Indian Men Hockey team defeated Germany in a 5-4 to clinch the bronze
medal at the Olympics after 41 years to be precise.
 Last medal was won by India at Moscow Olympic s in 1980.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

91. Answer C

Explanation:

 Karnataka lifts the trophy after 54 long years of waiting by striking Meghalaya with a
3-2 win in the Grand Finale of the 76th edition of the National Football Championship.
 Venue: Riyad, Saudi Arabia

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

92. Answer C

Explanation:

Grand Slam tennis tournament winners:

 Australian Open 2023:

o Men's Singles: Novak Djokovic (Serbia)
o Women's Singles: Aryna Sabalenka (Belarus)
 Australian Open 2024:
o Men’s Singles: Jannik Sinner (Italy) claimed his maiden Grand Slam title,
defeating Daniil Medvedev in a thrilling five-set Australian Open final in
Melbourne
o Women’s Singles: Aryna Sabalenka defeated Zheng Qinwen (China) in final to
win the coveted title.
o Men’s Doubles: Rohan Bopanna, aged 43, secured his first men’s doubles
Grand Slam title at the Australian Open with partner Matthew Ebden.
 They defeated Italians Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavassori.
 French Open 2023:
o Men's Singles: Novak Djokovic (Serbia)
o Women's Singles: Iga Świątek (Poland)
  French Open 2024:
o Men's Singles: Carlos Alcaraz won against Alexander Zverev.
 Wimbledon 2023:
o Men's Singles: Carlos Alcaraz (Spain)
o Women's Singles: Markéta Vondroušová (Czech Republic)
 US Open 2023:
o Men's Singles: Novak Djokovic (Serbia)
o Women's Singles: Coco Gauff (USA)

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

93. Answer D

Explanation:

UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network (UCCN):

 Created in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities

 It now includes 350 cities in over a hundred countries.
 The UCCN has seven creative fields: Crafts and folk art, Design, Film, Gastronomy,
Literature, Media arts and Music
 2023: Kozhikode as City of Literature and Gwalior as the City of Music
o Srinagar: Crafts and Folk Arts (2022)
o Mumbai: Film (2019)
o Hyderabad: Gastronomy/Food (2019)
o Chennai: Music (2017)
o Jaipur: Crafts and Folk Arts (2015)
o Varanasi: Music (2015)

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

94. Answer D

Explanation:

BHARAT RATNA 2019 and 2024

 Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the country.

 It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in
any field of human endeavour.
 The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the
President of India.
 No formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary.
 The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular
year.
 Government has conferred Bharat Ratna Award on 53 persons till date.
  On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the
President and a medallion.
o The award does not carry any monetary grant.
 In terms of Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or
suffix to the recipient's name.
 First recipients: C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan; and the C. V. Raman, in
1954.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

95. Answer D

Explanation:
PADMA awards 2023 and 2024

 Padma Vibhushan for exceptional and distinguished service;

o Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order; and
o Padma Shri for distinguished service.
 The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.
 Conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee
constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
o The nomination process is open to the public.
o Even self-nomination can be made.
 The Government of India instituted - Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in 1954.
 Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri vide Presidential Notification
issued on January 8, 1955.
 The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear
during any ceremonial/State functions etc., if the awardees so desire.
 The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and
to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120.
 The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the
awardees’ name.

Winners from Karnataka: Padma Vibhushan

S M Krishna Public Affairs 2023

Srinivas Varadhan (USA) Science & Engineering 2023

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

96. Answer A

Explanation:

 Union Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Thakur recently announced to

honor renowned actress Waheeda Rehman with the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime
Achievement Award for the year 2021.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

97. Answer A

Explanation:

Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion for 2024

 National Institute of Mental Health & Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS), Bengaluru has been
awarded with the Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion for 2024 by the World
Health Organization (WHO).
  Est: In 2019 by WHO

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

98. Answer D

Explanation:

Jnanpith Award 2023

 58th Jnanpith Award will be given to two writers, Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru
Rambhadracharya and Urdu poet and lyricist Gulzar, for 2023.
 It's given annually to an author for their "outstanding contribution towards
literature".
 The award was established in 1961 and first awarded in 1965.
 English and other Indian languages.
 Indian citizens only.
 It is not given posthumously.
 It is presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith.
 Awardees receive a cash prize of Rs 11 lakh, a statue of Vagdevi, and a citation,
honouring their literary achievements.

Jnanpith awards - Karnataka:

Kuvempu Shri Ramayana Darshanam 1967

Da. Ra.Bendre Naakutanti 1973
Shivaram Karanth Mookajjiya Kanasugalu 1977
Maasti Venkatesh Iyengar Chikkaveera Rajendra (Scripture) 1983
Girish Karnad A Comprehensive Contribution to Kannada 1998
Literature. Drama
V. K. Gokak Special Contribution 1990
U.R. Ananthamurthy A Comprehensive Contribution to Kannada 1994
Literature
Chandrashekar Kambar A Comprehensive Contribution to Kannada 2010
Literature
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

99. Answer D

Explanation:

Times magazine Person of the year

Year Winner
2021 Elon Musk - founder and CEO of SpaceX
2022 Volodymyr Zelensky - President of Ukraine since 2019
 The Spirit of Ukraine - It represents the "resilience of the
Ukrainian people
2023 Taylor Swift - Singer-songwriter whose 2023–2024 Eras Tour
became the highest-grossing concert tour of all time
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

100. Answer B

Explanation:

 S Jaishankar is the author of the book 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain
World.
 Why Bharat Matters is a 2024 non-fictional book written by Indian politician and
author S. Jaishankar , and published by Rupa Publications.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.