2023-2024 ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﺻﺤﺔ ﻧﻔﺴﯿﺔ وﻋﻘﻠﯿﺔ وزاري دور اول‬

NA academy
1. The nurse explains to a mental health care technician that a
client's obsessive-compulsive behaviors are related to an
unconscious conflict between id impulses and the superego (or
conscience). On which of the following theories does the nurse base
this statement?
A. Behavioral theory
B. Cognitive theory
C. Interpersonal theory
D. Psychoanalytic theory
E. None of the above
2. What role do psychiatric nurses primarily fulfill?
A. Administering anesthesia.
B. Assisting in surgeries
C. Operating imaging machines
D. Conducting laboratory tests.
E. Providing mental health care.
3. Which factors influence a person's mental health?
A. Environmental factors only
B. Interpersonal factors only
C. Biological factors only
D. Social/cultural factors only
E. Individual, interpersonal, and social/cultural factors
4. What is the World Health Organization's definition of health?
A. State of emotional well-being
B. Absence of disease only
C. State of mental wellness
D. State of complete physical wellness
E. State of complete physical, mental, and social wellness
5. What is assault in the context of intentional torts?
A. Making threats to physically harm a client.
B. Physically restraining a client without consent.
C. Causing physical harm to a client without justification.
D. Detaining a client without appropriate justification.
E. Unwarranted contact with a client resulting in harm or injury.
6. A significant change in the treatment of people with mental illness
occurred in the 1950s when.
A. community support services were established.
B. legislation dramatically changed civil commitment procedures.
C. the Patient's Bill of Rights was enacted.
D. psychotropic drugs became available for use.
E. All the above
7. Which of the following is NOT a component of mental health?
A. Satisfying interpersonal relationships.
B. Effective coping mechanisms
C. Behavioral stability
D. Emotional stability
E. Physical wellness
8. What is the primary purpose of the DSM-5?
A. To provide treatment recommendations for mental health disorders.
B. To standardize nomenclature and language for mental health professionals.
C. To assist in identifying the stigma associated with mental health disorders.
D. To understand the underlying causes of mental disorders.
E. To diagnose clients' mental health conditions.
Q 9- By definition, a cognitive disorder cannot be caused by
A-A psychiatric disorder
B. A medical disease
C- Substance intoxication or withdrawal
D-An infection
E. Metabolic or cerebral disturbance
Q 10-What was the primary focus of the moral treatment of the
mentally ill during the Enlightenment period?
A-Physical punishment
B- Isolation from society
C-Spiritual healing
D- Psychological counseling
E- Humane care and support
Q11-What does restraint involve?
A- Providing treatment without client' permission.
B- Applying physical force to restrict client’s freedom of movement without heir
permission.
C. Restricting &access to visitors
D- Using medications to control clients' behavior.
E- Administering electric shock therapy without consent.
Q12- The greatest good for the greatest number refers.
A-Deontology
B- Utilitarianism
C- Fidelity
D-Veracity
E·All of mentioned.
Q 13- What is the main focus of psychiatric-mental health nursing?
A-Providing physical care for patients
B- Promoting mental health of patients.
C- Providing spiritual care for patients.
D- Providing social care for patient.
E-All of the above
Q14-voices demanding that the client. take action, often to harm the
self or others, and are considered dangerous?
A- Visual hallucinations
B- Kinesthetic hallucinations
C- Command hallucinations
D- Tactile hallucinations
E- illusion
Q 15- What did Aristotle believe caused mental disorders according
to his theory?
A- Imbalances of blood, water, and yellow bile only
B- Imbalances of blood, water, and yellow and black bile
C- Imbalances in neurotransmitters
D- Excessive brain activity
E- imbalance in hormones
Q 16-How does the principle of fidelity manifest in the nurse-patient
relationship?
A- Upholding patient confidentiality
B- Promoting patient well-being.
C- Ensuring fair treatment for all patients.
D- Honoring commitments and agreements with patients
E- Advocating for patient rights and autonomy.
Q 17-The two key concepts in Sullivan's theory are interpersonal
relations and
A- Defense
B- Aggression
C- Anxiety
D- Conscious drive
E- Development task
Q 18-Which type of amino acid is glutamate?
A- Excitatory
B- Inhibitory
C- Neutral
D- non-essential
E- essential
Q19- Which ego defense mechanism involves Overachievement in
one area to offset real or perceived deficiencies in another area?
A- Projection
B- Compensation
C- Displacement
D-Denial
E. Rationalization
Q20-Abnormalities in the frontal lobes are associated with.
A- Dementia
B- Alzheimer disease
C- Depression
D-Mania
E- anxiety disorders
Q21-What is the unconscious mind?
A- All of the things that are within our conscious awareness.
B- Memories and thoughts that we have suppressed.
C- Memories and thoughts that we can easily bring into awareness.
D- All of the things that are outside of our conscious awareness.
E-Memories and thoughts that is inaccessible due to brain damage.
Q22-Between which ages does conversion disorder usually occur?
A-5 and 20 years
B-10 and 35 years
C-20 and 45 years
D-25 and 50 years
E-30 and 55 years
Q23- Which term is defined as the transference of mental
experiences and states into bodily symptoms?
A- Conversion disorder
B-Pain disorder
C- Somatization
D-Illness anxiety disorder
E-Somatic symptom disorder
Q24-Where acetylcholine is primarily found in the nervous system?
A- Cerebral cortex
B- Spinal cord
C- Brain stem
D- Neuromuscular junction
E- Peripheral nerve
Q25- What behaviors can a nurse exhibit to help build a client's
trust in the therapeutic relationship?
A- Indifference and detachment
B- Inconsistency and dishonesty
C- Caring, interest, and understanding.
D- Avoid promises and commission.
E- Ignoring the client's concerns.
Q26-How can a nurse demonstrate genuine interest in a client
during interactions?
A- By displaying dishonest and artificial behavior.
B- By avoiding personal disclosures and maintaining professional distance.
C-By being open, honest, and displaying congruent behavior.
D- By providing unsolicited advice and reassurance.
E- By prioritizing personal experiences over the client's concerns.
Q 27- The primary purpose of a nurse-client contract in a
therapeutic relationship?
A- To outline responsibilities of both the nurse and client.
B- To ensure the client's compliance with treatment.
C- To enforce strict rules on the client.
D- To limit communication between the nurse and client.
E- To establish dominance over the client.
Q28-What is the purpose of the orientation phase in the nurse-client
relationship?
A- Identifying the client's problems.
B- Developing positive coping mechanisms.
C- Maintaining the relationship.
D- Evaluating progress and redefining goals.
E- Identifying the client's emotions.
Q 29- What does empathy mean in the context of a therapeutic
relationship?
A- Having the exact experiences as the client.
B- Understanding the client's thoughts and feelings.
C- Displaying congruent behavior.
D- Accepting the client regardless of behavior.
E- Accepting the relative regardless of behavior.
Q 30- What should the nurse do if he or she finds the client's
behavior unacceptable
A- Avoid the client and show annoyance.
B- Explore the possibility of conflict with a colleague.
C- Allow personal prejudices to hinder the relationship.
D- Encourage client dependency.
E- Encourage client independency.
Q31-Which of the following is Not a characteristic of the nurse-
client relationship?
A- The location of the relationship is limited to where nursing care is provided.
B- There is equal power between the nurse and the client.
C- The nurse is responsible for establishing and maintaining the relationship.
D- The nurse's behavior is regulated by a code of ethics and professional standards.
E- The nurse's behavior is solely regulated by the client's preferences.
Q 32- In a nurse-client relationship, which of the following best
describes the role of the nurse?
A- To establish a personal friendship with the client.
B- To maintain professional boundaries and confidentiality.
C- To share personal experiences and opinions with the client.
D- To prioritize the nurse's needs over the clients.
E- To ignore the client's preferences and concerns.
Q33-According to DSM-5 posttraumatic stress disorder exposure to
actual or threatened death. serious injury, or sexual violence in one
(or more) of the following way:
A- Directly experiencing the traumatic events.
B- Witnessing in person the event(s) as it (they) occurred to others.
C- Experiencing repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of the traumatic
event.
D- All of mentioned.
E- None of mentioned.
Q 34- How does dissociation function as a defense mechanism to
protect an individual's emotion self from the full effects of traumatic
events?
A- By suppressing memories of the traumatic event.
B- By creating a barrier between the individual and the painful situation.
C- By facilitating the mind to detach from the emotional impact of the trauma.
D- By enabling forgetfulness of the distressing memory.
E- All of mentioned.
35- According to utilitarianism the nurse uses the principle:
Q A- Ethics must be grounded in concern for the human good.
B- Treat others as moral equals and to recognize the equality of other persons.
C- The actions are bound by a sense of duty.
D- An ethical decision based on the end rather than the mean.
E- The duty to be honest or truthful.
36. Which of the following statements about gender differences in
the risk of developing posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is true?
A.The risk is lower in females in preschool-age populations
B. The risk is higher in females across the life span.
C.The risk is higher in males in elderly populations.
D. The risk is lower in middle-aged females than in middle-aged males.
F. The risk is higher in males across the life span.
37. Which of the following is an example of individual trauma or
stress
A.War
B. Terrorist attack
C. Abuse
D. Natural disaster
E. Non of them
38. What is the main characteristic of dissociative amnesia?
A. Sudden move to a new location with memory loss
B. Presence of two or more distinct identities
C. Feeling of being in a dream-like state.
D.Inability to recall important personal information.
E. Recurrent feeling of detachment from mental processes
39. Which term is used to describe the inability to identify emotions,
often seen in individuals with somatic symptom illnesses?
A. Hysteria
B. Somatization
C. Alexithymia
D. Stoicism
E. Internalization
40. In what setting is short-term hospital treatment most likely
offered to clients with dissocial disorders?
A. Primary care offices
B. Acute care settings
C. Community-based therapy
D. Long-term inpatient facilities
E. Outpatient clinics
41. Fear of spiders is an example of
A. Situational phobia
B. Animal phobia
C. Natural environmental phobia
D. Social phobia
E. Agoraphobia
42. Which neurotransmitter is believed to be dysfunctional in
anxiety disorders and found the body's natural antianxiety agent by
reducing
cell excitability?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Gama Amino Butyric Acid
D. Serotonin
E. Norepinephrine
43. Which anxiety theory explains that anxiety as being learned
through experience?
A. Genetic theory
B. Psychodynamic theory
C. Interpersonal theory
D. Behavioral theory
E. Neurochemical theory
44. One important issue in therapy for specific phobias is to address:
A.Ensure the individual never comes in contact with the phobic event or
situation
B. The phobic beliefs that sufferers hold about their phobic event or situation.
C. The individual has wide opportunity to talk about the phobic event or sit.
D. That any dreams about the phobic event or situation are analyzed.
E. C&D
45. Which level of anxiety is characterized by feeling something is
definitely nervousness/agitation, and difficulty concentrating?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. severe
D. Panic
E. Panic disorder
Q46-Which of the below physical symptoms are associated with
panic attack?
A- Heart palpitations
B- perspiring
C- Hyperventilating
D-A&C
E- all of them
Q47- Which of the following strategies is NOT recommended for
working with anxious client?
A- using short, simple, easy -to-understand sentence.
B- Remaining with the person to prevent worsening anxiety.
C- Speaking in low, calm, and soothing voice.
D- Leaving the person alone to allow him keep calm down.
E- Implicating the Short use of anxiolytic.
Q48- in moderate anxiety
A- Able as respond to direction.
B- Narrows the perceptual field to pay attention to particular details.
C-Selective in attentiveness occurs.
D- palpitating racing heartbeat, sweaty palms
E- All of the Options
Q49- When working with anxious clients, first and foremost step is
A-Assess the client level of anxiety.
B-Assess the client level of attention.
C-Focusing on client privacy.
D-Focusing on client safety.
E-Assess the client level of education.
Q50 The nurse is caring for a client with panic disorder. Which of
the following is most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a. Risk for injury
b. Risk for substance abuse
c. Risk for impaired thinking
d. Risk for sleep disturbance
e. Risk for social isolation
Q51- which anxiety disorder is characterized by a person becoming
severely anxious to the point of panic or incapacitation when placed
in social situations?
A- Agoraphobia
B- panic disorder
C-Specific phobia
D- Social anxiety disorder
E- Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
Q52-Agoraphobia is a disorder characte-rized by all, except
A. Visual hallucinations
B. Avoidance of situations in which it occurs.
C. Presence of panic symptoms
D. Avoidance of being outside alone
E- Fear of the marketplace
Q53- A physician describes a client as "malingering." The nurse
knows this means that the client is demonstrating which behavior?
A -Falsely claiming to have symptoms.
B-Experiencing symptoms that cannot be explained medically.
C-Experiencing symptoms that have a physiological basis.
D- is Seeking medication to ease pain of psychological origin.
E- all of above
Q 54-Sandy is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of
obsessive-compulsive disorder She has been washing her hands over
and over for many times every day. The admitting nurse locks the
bathroom door, and says, "When you need to use the bathroom,
please ask one of the staff." How is Sandy likely to respond to this
situation?
A- She has low self-esteem and is non-assertive, so Sandy will comply.
B- She will likely become very angry and aggressive.
C- She will probably ask to be assigned to a different nurse.
D- She is likely to experience panic anxiety.
E- she becomes very anxious when in crowded places.
55. What is emphasized in mental health promotion regarding
anxiety?
A. Elimination of all anxiety symptoms
B. Recognition of positive events as stressors
C. Avoidance of stressful situations
D. Managing stress and anxiety effectively
E. ignoring the warning signs of anxiety.
56. If the patient have excessive fear of germs and repeatedly feel
need to check if the door is locked, he may have.
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Obsessive compulsive disorder
C. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D. panic disorder.
E. specific phobia
57. Fear of an open space is termed as?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Astraphobia
C. Social phobia
D. Monophobia
E. Claustrophobia
58. A 22 years old girl used hide her forehead by wearing a scarf because she
had wound scar.
A. Pain Disorder
B. Conversion Disorder.
C. Hypochondriasis disorder.
D. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
E. Autism spectrum disorder
59. Why should providers avoid prescribing narcotic analgesics to Clients with
somatic symptom illnesses?
A.They are ineffective in managing pain
B. They are expensive
C.They carry a risk for dependence or abuse
D.They can cause allergic reactions
E. They interact negatively with other medications
60. Which of the following behaviors are included in the obsessive-
compulsive spectrum approach?
A. Social anxiety and panic attacks
B. Self-soothing behaviors
C. Eating disorders such as anorexia and bulimia
D. Body dysmorphic disorder
E. Substance abuse and addiction
61. Which of the following is NOT listed as a common compulsion in OCD?
A. Touching, rubbing, or tapping objects.
B. Ordering items in a specific manner
C. Eating specific foods in exact quantities.
D. Washing and scrubbing excessively.
E. Ordering goods in a certain way.
62. Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) characterized by is:
A. A preoccupation with a slight defect in physical appearance
B. Minimal distress and interference with daily functioning
C. Blaming life problems on physical fitness.
D. Satisfaction with appearance after cosmetic surgery.
E. Not Satisfaction with appearance after cosmetic surge
63. How are obsessions and compulsions described in relation to personal,
social, and occupational functions?
A. They enhance personal satisfaction.
B. They have no impact on social relationships.
C. They rarely affect work performance.
D. They interfere with personal, social, and occupational functions.
E.-They have little influence on social connections.
Q 64- How can nurses assist OCD clients in their daily routines?
A- Allow unlimited time for activities.
B- Provide no structure for routines.
C- Assist in completing activities within agreed-upon time limits.
D- Discourage structured schedules.
E- Provide inadequate structure for routines.
Q65- When the client describes fear of leaving his apartment as well as the
desire to get out and meet others, it is called.
A- Ambivalence
B- Anhedonia
C- Agnosia
D-social phobia
E- Avolition
Q 66- How can family education and therapy benefit individuals with
schizophrenia?
A- Increase relapse rate
B-Neglect schizophrenia symptoms
C- Diminish negative effects and reduce relapse rate.
D- Promote isolation.
E- Promote social withdrawal.
Q 67- Which category of symptoms in schizophrenia includes delusions,
hallucinations, and disorganized thinking?
A- Positive or hard symptoms/signs
B-Negative or soft symptoms/signs
C- Neurological symptoms
D- Emotional symptoms
E-Cognitive symptoms
Q 68- The intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or
psychological symptoms; it is motivated by external incentive’s such as
avoiding work we called.
A- Fabricated or induced illness
B- Malingering
C-Factitious disorder
D-Ineffective Denial
E- Conversion disorder
Q 69- What do biologic theories of schizophrenia focus on?
A- Social and environmental factors
B-Genetic factors, neuroanatomic and neurochemical factors, and immunovirology
C- Psychological theories
D- Familial relationships and parenting
E- Neurological diseases and brain injuries
Q 70- Which brain regions are consistently found to have abnormal function
in individuals’ schizophrenia?
A- Occipital and parietal lobes
B- Frontal and temporal lobes
C- Brainstem and cerebellum
D- Hippocampus and amygdala
E- Basal ganglia and thalamus
Q71- Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A- Apathy
B- Racing thoughts
C- Grandiose delusional
D-Auditory hallucinations
E-depression
Q72-What is a major barrier to recovery and improved functioning in
schizophrenia?
A- Effective medication
B- Positive symptoms
C- Negative symptoms
D- Social support
E-Early diagnosis
Q 73- What is the average age of onset for schizophrenia in males?
A-20-25 years
B-30-35 years
C-25-30 years
D-15-25 years
E-10-15 years
74. How is schizophrenia described in terms of illness type ?
A. A Single illness
B. Multiple illness types
C. Syndrome
D. Disease process
E. Illness cycle
75. What does schizoaffective disorder combine?
A. Psychotic and mood symptoms
B. Neurological and muscular symptoms
C. Cognitive and emotional symptoms
D. Motor and sensory symptoms
E. personality disorders and emotional symptoms
76. The term "schizoaffective disorder" is used when a patient exhibits
symptom of both schizophrenia and ……….
A. Social anxiety disorder
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. PTSD
E. Cyclothymic disorder
77. When the client exhibits an acute, reactive psychosis for less than 6
months, diagnosed as :
A. Schizophrenia
B. Schizophreniform disorder
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Brief psychotic disorder
E. Schizotypal personality disorder
78. What is a recommended intervention for managing hallucinations ?
in individuals with schizophrenia?
A. Isolating the individual to prevent stimulation.
B. Encouraging the individual to focus solely on the hallucinations.
C. Engaging the individual in reality-based activities.
D. Administering sedative medications immediately.
E. Ignoring the individual's hallucinations completely.
79. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with higher relapse rates
in clients with schizophrenia?
A. No adherence to medication
B. Persistent substance use
C. Caregiver support
D. Negative attitude toward treatment.
E. continuous addiction to drugs
80.The client saw a snakes on the ceiling." You see some cracks in the plaster.
he is experiencing a?
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
D. Derealization
E. phobia
81.Which disorder usually associate with elevated mood and exaggerated
behavior?
A. Anxiety disorder
B. Manic Disorders
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Phobic disorder
E. Acute stress disorder
82. How does Cyclothymic Disorder differ from bipolar disorder?
A. Involves severe manic and depressive episodes.
B. Onset typically in adulthood
C. Characterized by psychotic features.
D. Mild mood swings without loss of social or occupational
functioning
E. Rapid cycling between mania and depression
83. What is a key component of nursing care for individuals with mood
disorders?
A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Ignoring the patient's symptoms.
C. Encouraging physical inactivity.
D. Providing emotional support.
E. Conducting therapy sessions.
Q84. Which of the Following is NOT a mood disorder?
A-Seasonal affective disorder
B- bipolar disorder
C-Major depressive disorder
D-Schizophrenia
E- Extreme euphoria
Q85- The most common situation leading to Disinhibited Social Engagement
Disorder (DSED)
A-Grossly deficient parenting
B-Traumatic event exposure
C- Genetic predisposition
D-Sexual abuse
E- Severe illness
Q86- what is primary priority of nursing care when dealing with suicide or
suicidal ideation?
A- Providing medication management.
B-Ensuring physical comfort C-Respecting the client's privacy.
D. Addressing social activities.
E- Ensuring client safety.
Q87-What subtype of Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is characterized by
symptoms of insomnia, weight loss, and poor appetite lasting from late spring
or early summer until early fall?
A-Fall-onset SAD
B-Winter depression
C-Spring-onset SAD
D- Summer depression.
E- Reduction-onset SAD
Q 88- What is the primary focus of genetic theories regarding the etiology of
mood disorders?
A- Environmental factors
B-Neurochemical imbalances
C- Neuroendocrine influences
D- Genetic predisposition
E- Psychosocial stressors
Q89- What is the typical duration of an untreated episode of depression?
A- A few days
B-A few months
C- About 6 months
D- Over a year
E- Indefinite
Q 90- What is the term used to describe the process by which seizure activity
in a specific area of the brain is initially stimulated by reaching a threshold of
cumulative effects of stress, low amounts of electric impulses, or certain
chemicals?
A-Neurotransmitter cascade
B- Neurochemical sensitization
C- Neuroendocrine kindling
D- Catecholamine dysregulation
E- None of all option
Q91-Foods as bananas, cheese, and yogurt should be avoided when patient is
taking antidepressants (MAOIs) because this lead to?
A- Nausea
B- Low blood pressure
C- panic disorder
D-hypertensive crises.
E- obsessive compulsive disorder
Q 92- What term describes the mild, predictable mood disturbance that
occurs in the first several days after delivery?
A- Postpartum psychosis
B- Postpartum Depression
C- Maternity Melancholy
D- Maternity Blues
E- Newborn Nervousness
Q 93- Which of the following best describes Dysthymic Disorder?
A- Characterized by severe manic episodes.
B- Involves persistent anger and temper outbursts.
C- Symptoms include exaggerated self-esteem and grandiosity.
D- Chronic, mild mood disturbance milder than major depression
E- Rapid alternation between mania and depression
94. How do psychosocial theorists explain the difference in somatization
between women and men?
A. Men are more likely to express emotions verbally.
B. Men are more likely to seek medical treatment.
C. Women are more likely to internalize stress and frustration.
D. Women experience alexithymia more frequently.
E. Men receive more psychiatric treatment.
95. What is a compulsion, a behavior related to obsessions in OCD ?
A. tendency to avoid to perform certain situation because he/she
fears of negative
B. A preference toward symmetry
C. Repetitive behavior or mental acts that the person feels driven to
perform in obsession.
D. Allowing intrusive thoughts to persist.
E. Avoiding environment.
96. Why is psychotherapy not considered useful during acute manic stages of
bipolar disorder?
A. The person's attention span is brief.
B. Psychotherapy exacerbates manic symptoms.
C. Individuals in manic stages have insight.
D. Psychotherapy interferes with the effectiveness of lithium.
E. None of all option
97. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of stimulant
withdrawal?
A. Increased energy and alertness
B. Marked dysphoria and fatigue.
C. Reduced appetite and weight loss
D. Improved concentration and focus
E. Enhanced mood and euphoria
98. What is emphasized as an important aspect of client and family education
regarding substance abuse?
A. Encouraging controlled substance use.
B. Promoting self-medication with substances.
C. Dispelling myths about substance abuse
D. Advocating for substance dependence
E. Ignoring signs of relapse.
99. What term describes the recurrence of former levels of substance use after
a period of abstinence?
A. Remission
B. Relapse
C. Abstinence
D. Tolerance
E. Recovery
100. The client tells the nurse that she has a drink every morning to calm her
nerves and stop her tremors. The nurse realizes the client is at risk for:
A. an anxiety disorder
B. a neurologic disorder.
C. physical dependence
D. psychological addiction
E. Detoxication
101. In Alcoholism Symptoms of withdrawal usually begin…………. after
cessation or marked reduction of alcohol intake
A. 4 to 12 hours
B. 24-28 hours
C. 1 day
D. 1 week
E. 1 month
102. In addition to genetic links, what other factor is thought to play a rule
the alcoholism?
A. Environmental factors
B. Psychological factors
C. Cultural factors
D. Casting ready
E. Non of them
103. What increases the risk of infectious diseases such as HIV and hepatitis
among alcohol dependent individuals?
A. Regular medical check-ups.
B. Engaging in alternative activities.
C. Relationship with family and friends
D. Extended substance use, especially intravenous drug use
E. Controlled drinking
104. Which medication is commonly used for managing alcohol withdrawal
symptoms?
A. Acamprosate
B. Methadone
C. Disulfiram
D. Chlordiazepoxide
E. Naltrexone
105. Which of the following is NOT considered a cognitive ability essential for
daily tasks?
A. Reasoning
B. Motor skills
C. Perception
D. Attention
E. Memory
106. Which coping strategy involves emotion-focused techniques for managing
symptoms?
A. Problem-solving strategies
B. Role-playing
C. Deep breathing and guided imagery
D. Decatastrophizing
E. Limiting time spent on physical complaints.
107. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with
Alzheimer’s disease who has frequent episodes of emotional lability ?
A. Attempt humor to alter the client's mood.
B. Explore reasons for the client's altered mood.
C. Reduce environmental stimuli to redirect the client's attention.
D. Use logic to point out reality aspects.
E. Complete explanations with multiple details
108. What is a recommended nursing intervention for promoting client safety
in dementia care?
A. Encourage the client to engage in complex tasks independently.
B. Provide minimal assistance with self-care activities.
C. Identify environmental triggers and help the client avoid them.
D. Increase environmental stimulation to enhance cognitive function.
E. Discourage routine habits to introduce new activities.
109. Which cognitive deficit is evident when clients lose the ability to
identify familiar or name of objects?
A. Agnosia
B. Apraxia
C. Aphasia
D. Aphasia
E. Delusion
110. What is a key aspect of structuring the environment and
routine for individuals with dementia?
A. Impose new routines and habits on the client.
B. Monitor environmental stimulation and maintain high levels at all times.
C. Encourage irregular bathing and dressing schedules.
D. Discourage following a regular routine.
E. Encourage the client to follow regular routine and habits.