FC0-U61: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+)

Certification

Practice Questions

First Edition
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Proposal Name : CompTIA IT Fundamentals

Document Edition : First

Document Release : 29th February 2024

Date

Reference : FC0-U61 (ITF+)

IPS Product Code : 20240302010301

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 Table of Contents

About The Certifications

Practice Questions

Answers

About Our Products

 AB OUT THE CERTIFICATIONS
This certification covers all the information you need to pass
the CompTIA ITF+ Exam which is FC0-U61. The course is
designed to take a practical approach to learning with real-
life examples and case studies.

Covers complete updated CompTIA ITF+ (FC0-U61)

blueprint
Summarized content
Case Study based approach
Practice Questions
100% pass guarantee
Mind maps
Exam tips
CompTIA Certifications

CompTIA certification helps to establish and build your IT

career. It benefits you in various ways, either seeking
certification to have a job in IT or want to upgrade your IT
career with a leading certification, that is, CompTIA
certification.
 Figure 1. CompTIA Certifications Pathway

About ITF+ Certification

The CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) FC0-U61 exam will

certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills
required to identify and explain the basics of:

Computing
IT infrastructure
Software development
Database use
In addition, candidates will demonstrate their knowledge of:

Installing software
Establishing basic network connectivity
Identifying/preventing basic security risks
Further, this exam will assess the candidate’s knowledge in
the areas of troubleshooting theory and preventive
maintenance of devices. This exam is intended for
candidates who are advanced end users, considering a
career in IT, and interested in pursuing professional-level
certifications, such as A+.

The purpose of this certification is to make you a better IT

Tech. All the essential principles for network security are
covered in this ITF+ certification.

About the CompTIA ITF+ Exam

Case study, short answer,

Exam Questions
repeated answer, MCQs

Number of
70-80
Questions

Time to Complete 60 minutes

Exam Fee 130 USD

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following

technical tasks:

IT Concepts and Terminology 17%

Infrastructure 22%
Applications and Software 18%
 Software Development 12%
Database Fundamentals 11%
Security 20%
How to become ITF+ certified?

Step 1: Choose a certification: Explore what is available

and choose an IT certification that will benefit you in
accomplishing your career target.

To study various IT career tracks and to choose the best

certification for yourself, you can use the “CompTIA Career
Roadmap.”

CompTIA has four core IT certifications: IT Fundamental,

A+, Network+, and Security+ which examine your
knowledge from entry to the expert level.

If you have the skills to secure a network & deter hackers

and want to become a highly efficient IT Security Tech,
CompTIA Security+ is the right type of certification.

Step 2: Learning & Training: Exam preparation can be

done through self-study with textbooks, practice exams, and
online classroom programs. However, this course provides
you with all the information and offers complete assessments
in one place to help you pass the CompTIA ITF+ Exam.

IPSpecialist provides full support to the candidates in order

for them to pass the exam.
Step 3: Familiarization with Exam: A great suggestion is
to first understand what you are training for. For that, we
are providing you not only the exam objectives but practice
questions too, in order to give you a thorough idea about
your final exam of certification.

Step 4: Register & Take Exam for Certification: After all

the learning process, the next step is to take your test.
Certification exams are offered at different locations all over
the world. To register for an exam, contact the authorized
test delivery partner of CompTIA, contact Pearson VUE.

The following are the steps for registration and scheduling

an exam:

1. Buy the exam voucher from here, “Buy a

certification exam voucher.”
2. Find and visit a testing center, “testing center.”
3. Create a Pearson VUE account & Schedule your
exam. Here is a link for that “Create a Pearson VUE
testing account and schedule your exam.”
4. You will receive a confirmation email having testing
information after the registration process.
5. You are ready for the test.
Step 5: Results: After you complete an exam at an
authorized testing center, you will get immediate, online
notification of your pass or fail status. If you have passed the
exam, a congratulatory email will be forwarded to you with
guidelines to access your record.
Make sure to keep a record of the email address you used
for the registration and score report with an exam
registration number. This information is required to log in to
your certification account.

Recommended Knowledge

Compare and contrast notational systems.

Compare and contrast fundamental data types and
their characteristics.
Illustrate the basics of computing and processing.
Explain the value of data and information.
Compare and contrast common units of measure.
Classify common types of input/output device
interfaces.
Given a scenario, set up and install common
peripheral devices to a laptop/PC.
Explain the purpose of common internal computing
components.
Compare and contrast common internet service
types.
Compare and contrast storage types.
Compare and contrast common computing devices
and their purposes.
Explain basic networking concepts.
Given a scenario, install, configure and secure a
basic wireless network.
Explain the purpose of operating systems.
Compare and contrast components of an operating
system.
Explain the purpose and proper use of software.
Explain methods of application architecture and
delivery models.
 Given a scenario, configure and use web browsers.
Compare and contrast general application concepts
and uses.
Compare and contrast programming language
categories.
Given a scenario, use programming organizational
techniques and interpret logic.
Explain the purpose and use of programming
concepts.
Explain database concepts and the purpose of a
database.
Compare and contrast various database structures.
Summarize methods used to interface with
databases.
Summarize confidentiality, integrity and availability
concerns.
Explain methods to secure devices and best
practices.
Summarize behavioral security concepts.
Compare and contrast authentication, authorization,
accounting, and non-repudiation concepts.
Explain password best practices.
Explain common uses of encryption.
Explain business continuity concepts.
All the required information is included in this course.

Domain Percentage

Domain 1 IT Concepts and

17%
Terminology

Domain 2 Infrastructure 22%

Domain 3 Application Software 18%

Domain 4 Software Development 12%

Domain 5 Database Fundamentals 11%

Domain 6 Security 20%

 PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. What is the most effective method for securing data on

a lost or stolen laptop?
A. Implementing a Host-based firewall
B. Using a Strong administrator password
C. Using an Anti-malware software
D. Implementing Full disk encryption

2. In which of the given scenarios is it reasonable to

anticipate some level of privacy?
A. Sharing a comment on a friend's social media page
B. Providing personal details on a school enrollment
website
C. Commenting on a video-sharing platform
D. Sending emails and pictures to a close family member

3. What data type should a developer use to store an

alphanumeric postal code in a variable?
A. Integer
B. String
C. Float
D. Boolean

4. Which of the following is most similar to machine

language?
A. Scripted language
B. Compiled language
C. Query language
D. Assembly language
5. What is the primary purpose of using a function in
programming?
A. To hold a list of numbers.
B. To be divided into reusable components.
C. To define needed constant values.
D. To define variables to hold different values.

6. Which option offers the fastest transfer rate when

transferring a file across the network?
A. 1001 Kbps
B. 110 Mbps
C. 1.22 Gbps
D. 123 Mbps

7. A technician has been tasked with assigning an IP

address to a newly acquired desktop computer. Which
of the following represents a suitable IP address for
the technician to assign?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 172.16.2.189
C. 192.168.257.1
D. 255.255.255.0

8. What is the most suitable computing device for a game

developer who requires a system with robust and
upgradeable specifications to accommodate the
demands of game engine software?
A. Laptop
B. Server
C. Game console
D. Workstation

9. A company needs multiple reports that analyze

interconnected information from sales, inventory,
marketing, and compensation data. What is the most
suitable location for storing this data?
A. Flat file
B. Word processor
C. Database
D. Network share

10. The computer user is downloading software from the

Internet and observes the following at the end of the
installation file: “¦x86.exe”. Which of the following
statements best conveys the meaning of “¦x86.exe” in
the installation file?
A. x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU
architecture
B. x86 supports an installation on a 32-bit and a 64-bit
CPU architecture
C. x86 only supports an installation on a 64-bit CPU
architecture
D. x86 supports an installation on a 16-bit CPU
architecture

11. Which of the following is employed for transmitting

messages through the SMTP protocol?
A. Document sharing software
B. Instant messaging software
C. Conferencing software
D. Email software

12. How can system configurations be optimized to

mitigate the risk of malware infections when browsing
the internet?
A. Enable private browsing
B. Clear browsing history upon program closure
C. Receive notifications upon completion of downloads
D. Set up prompts before downloading content

13. Which of the following exemplifies information that a

company would request employees to treat with care?
A. Customer date of birth
B. The Chief Executive Officer's (CEO) first and last
name
C. Customer service number
D. Company social media screen name

14. The sales department requires a customer list with

names, contact details, and sales records that multiple
individuals can edit simultaneously. Which of the
following applications is suitable for creating this list?
A. Database software
B. Word processing software
C. Conferencing software
D. Presentation software

15. A user, connects to the corporate Wi-Fi and attempts

to browse the Internet but can only access local
 (intranet) pages. Which of the following actions would
likely resolve the issue?
A. Renew the IP address
B. Configure the browser proxy settings
C. Clear the browser cache
D. Disable the pop-up blocker

16. Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality

issue?
A. Eavesdropping
B. Impersonating
C. Destructing
D. Altering

17. A software developer creates a software program and

documents step-by-step instructions on its usage. The
developer aims to prevent others from publishing this
document for public use. Which of the following is the
best option for the developer to use in protecting the
document?
A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Watermark
D. Copyright

18. Which of the following database concepts is most

appropriate to involve the utilization of a CSV file?
A. Data querying
B. Data reports
C. Data importing
D. Data persistence
19. A help desk technician faces a problem and wishes to
determine if a colleague has previously experienced
the same issue. What should the technician do first?
A. Consult the Knowledge Base
B. Search through local logs
C. Investigate potential theories
D. Interrogate users

20. Which of the following most accurately characterizes

the practice of supplying user credentials during
network login?
A. Output
B. Storage
C. Input
D. Processing

21. Which of the following enables communication

between wireless devices and a wired network?
A. Modem
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Access point

22. Which of the following computing devices is utilized to

distribute services to a group of clients centrally and
typically plays a role on a Local Area Network (LAN)?
A. Laptop
B. Workstation
C. Mobile phone
D. Server
23. Which term among the following refers to a database
element that corresponds to the unique identifier in
the parent table?
A. Attribute
B. Constraint
C. Foreign key
D. Primary Key

24. For which purpose is a relational database

management system most frequently employed among
the following?
A. Building flowcharts
B. Storing information
C. Generating reports
D. Creating diagrams

25. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes

an application operating within a typical operating
system?
A. Process
B. Thread
C. Function
D. Task

26. What is the most critical factor to consider before

allowing remote access to a server reachable from
both the company network and the Internet?
A. The type of computer used for the connection
B. The security measure employed to allow connections
C. The internet speeds provided by employees' home
ISPs
D. The geographical locations of the employees

27. What function of an operating system is performed by

the "shell"?
A. Memory management
B. File management
C. User interface
D. Device management

28. After confirming a hypothesis's validity during issue

diagnosis, what course of action should the technician
take next?
A. Execute the solution
B. Record acquired knowledge
C. Formulate an action plan
D. Validate the complete functionality of the system

29. Joe, a user, discovers that his password for a social

media site has been compromised. When he informs a
friend that his email and banking accounts are also
compromised, what is the most likely action Joe has
taken?
A. Reusing passwords
B. Snooping
C. Social engineering
D. Phishing
30. What is the primary element Joe, a developer, would
likely utilize to store a variable number that alters the
execution of his program?
A. Loop
B. Variable
C. Constant
D. Function

31. For creating a website, which language type would a

web developer be most inclined to use?
A. Interpreted
B. Query
C. Compiled
D. Assembly

32. A user encounters an error message while attempting

to access a website. To gather more information about
the issue, a technician poses questions to the user and
then accesses the same site using a local browser. In
this scenario, which of the following troubleshooting
steps is the technician employing by visiting the same
site?
A. Establish a plan of action
B. Gather information
C. Duplicate the problem
D. Find the root cause

33. Which of the subsequent software license models

permits a developer to alter the original code and
distribute their version of the application?
A. Proprietary software
B. Commercial software
C. Open-source software
D. Cross-platform software

34. The company president, has sought help in selecting a

suitable Internet connection for her residence, which
is situated in a remote area without access to existing
infrastructure. Which of the following types of Internet
services would be the most suitable in this scenario?
A. Fiber
B. DSL
C. Cable
D. Satellite

35. An administrator authorizes a user to retrieve data

from a database. Which of the following actions has
been executed?
A. Data correlation
B. Data manipulation
C. Data Control
D. Data definition

36. What concept is demonstrated when a company,

during a disaster recovery drill, chooses to recover
customer data before operational data?
A. Redundancy
B. Replication
C. Prioritization
D. Fault tolerance
 37. A technician is tasked with installing a wireless router
for a client that is capable of speeds up to 11 Mbps
and functions on the 2.4GHz band. In this scenario,
which of the following options should the technician
choose?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

38. The IT department has implemented a new password

policy for employees, stipulating the following:
● Passwords should not include common dictionary words
● Passwords must incorporate at least one special
character
● Passwords must differ from the previous six passwords
used
● Passwords must include at least one capital letter or
number
Which two of the following practices are being utilized?

A. Password lockout
B. Password complexity
C. Password expiration
D. Password history
E. Password length
F. Password age

39. A technician is setting up a new wireless network and

aims to safeguard it against unauthorized access. In
terms of security, which of the following protocols
would be the most secure?
A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2

40. Which of the following would be most effectively

managed as a flat file rather than being stored in a
database?
A. Contact list
B. Movie theater locations
C. Directions to doctor’s office
D. Store inventory

41. Which of the following elements in a relational

database is employed to guarantee that appropriate
values are inputted for a column?
A. Schema
B. Permissions
C. Constraint
D. Index

42. An end user's computer has been experiencing

difficulties in opening its word processing software,
and an IT technician has effectively resolved the issue.
What would be the technician's most appropriate
subsequent action?
A. Reboot the computer
B. Reach out to other users
C. Unplug the peripherals
D. Record the findings
43. What type of file in an operating system is the main
means of providing coordination of hardware
components?
A. Executable file
B. Configuration file
C. Device file
D. Library file

44. A technician is summoned to replace a display for a

workstation. What is the most probable connection
type that would be utilized to link the display to the
workstation?
A. USB
B. NFC
C. DSL
D. DVI

45. What is an example of an open source operating

system?
A. Windows
B. macOS
C. Linux
D. iOS

46. Which of the following intellectual property concepts

MOST aptly signifies a legally safeguarded slogan for
a business?
A. Contract
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
47. A desktop administrator has recently linked a printer
to a workstation, but the workstation is not detecting
the printer. What is the MOST probable requirement
for the printer to operate on the workstation?
A. Permission
B. Power source
C. USB cable
D. Driver

48. An employee is tasked with creating a report on a

student information system. To accomplish this, the
employee utilizes spreadsheet software and connects
to a remote database to retrieve data for the report.
What type of application architecture did the
employee employ?
A. Standalone application
B. Client-server application
C. Web application
D. Cloud application

49. A user is encountering issues with her IP-based

security camera at home following a rainstorm that
resulted in a power outage. The camera's LED light
indicates that it has power. What is the MOST
probable problem?
A. The power outage caused a malfunction in the camera
B. Ann is facing a compatibility issue with the camera
C. The camera requires a firmware update
D. Ann's Internet connection and wireless router are still
unavailable
50. A regulation mandates that new applicants submit a
retina scan to address potential legal queries about
the applicant's identity. Which of the following
concepts does this exemplify?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Accounting

51. What is the benefit of deploying an application to the

cloud?
A. Local storage of data is not necessary
B. Elimination of support requirements
C. Elimination of service needs
D. No necessity for internet access

52. A program must select between apples, oranges, or

bananas depending on an input. Which of the
following programming structures is MOST suitable to
use?
A. Variable
B. If Statement
C. Datatype
D. Comment

53. A UPS offers safeguards against:

A. Denial of service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Power outages
D. Wiretapping

54. To watch company training videos from a DVD, which

of the following components would fulfill this task?
A. Optical drive
B. Hard Disk Drive
C. Solid-State Drive
D. Flash drive

55. In transferring a file over the network, which of the

following would represent the HIGHEST transfer rate?
A. 1001 Kbps
B. 110 Mbps
C. 1.22 Gbps
D. 123 Mbps

56. What term is used to describe terminating a process

that is not responding to user input?
A. Hibernation
B. Synchronization
C. Interruption
D. Force Quit

57. Which of the following is a unique identifier for a

database record?
A. Foreign key
B. Public key
C. Primary key
D. Private key
58. A systems administrator intends to retrieve results for
a specific time range within a database. Which of the
following commands should the administrator use?
A. SELECT
B. INSERT
C. DELETE
D. UPDATE

59. Which of the following denotes a wireless

communication method that necessitates devices to be
within 4 cm(1.57 inches) proximity for information
transfer?
A. Infrared
B. NFC
C. Bluetooth
D. WiFi

60. Which of the following most accurately characterizes

a KiloByte?
A. A kilobyte is a unit of storage measurement
B. A kilobyte is a unit of throughput measurement
C. A kilobyte is a unit of power measurement
D. A kilobyte is a unit of processor speed measurement

61. The wireless access point installed recently has a

weaker broadcast signal than anticipated. Which of
the following measures would be most effective in
enhancing the signal strength?
A. Upgrade from 802.11b to 802.11g
B. Eliminate sources of electromagnetic interference
(EMI)
C. Activate WPA2-Enterprise
D. Utilize WiFi Protected Setup

62. Which of the following security issues poses a risk to

confidentiality?
A. Replay attack
B. Denial-of-Service attack
C. Service outage
D. Dumpster diving

63. A startup company has designed a logo and aims to

prevent any other entity from using it for any purpose.
Which two of the following measures should the
company employ for the BEST protection?
A. Patent
B. Copyright
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
D. Trademark
E. EULA (End User License Agreement)

64. What is the MOST probable choice for representing

international text data?
A. ASCII
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Unicode
65. What is the last step in the standard troubleshooting
methodology?
A. Document the solution and cause
B. Formulate a new theory of cause
C. Conduct online research on the problem
D. Implement preventive measures

66. What is the program employed by a systems

administrator to directly interact with hardware,
managing storage, network, and virtual machines, an
instance of?
A. A storage area network
B. An embedded OS
C. Network-attached storage
D. A Type 1 hypervisor

67. Which two of the following Operating Systems can

execute a program without requiring file extensions?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. UNIX
D. Windows Server 2012
E. Android
F. Linux

68. What should a user configure on a laptop to ensure

that substantial personal and confidential data
remains inaccessible if the laptop is stolen?
A. Encryption
B. Compression
C. Permissions
D. Auditing

69. Which of the following languages is compiled?

A. Perl
B. JavaScript
C. Java
D. PowerShell

70. A user encounters an error when trying to print a

document to a wireless printer, with a message stating
the operation could not be completed. What action
should the user take to address this issue?
A. Confirm that both devices are connected to the LAN
B. Enable task schedulin
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations

71. What are the fundamental computing operations?

A. Input, process, output, and feedback
B. Input, output, storage, and feedback
C. Input, process, and output
D. Input, process, output, and storage

72. Which of the following is MOST likely to prevent

malware sent as a compromised file via email from
infecting a person’s computer?
A. Email previewing
B. Patching
C. Clearing browsing cache
D. Killing processes
73. A programmer needs to store output in a location that
can be accessed as quickly as possible, and the data
doesn't need to be persistent. Which of the following is
the BEST option for storing the data?
A. Flat file
B. Memory
C. Relational database
D. Solid-State Drive

74. Which of the following statements MOST accurately

characterizes binary?
A. A notational system is employed to signify an “on” or
“off” state
B. A notational system is utilized to indicate media
access control
C. A notational system is employed to represent Internet
protocol addressing
D. A notational system is utilized to represent a storage
unit of measurement

75. The Task Scheduler allows you to run a process

automatically in Windows. What is a widely used Linux
equivalent?
A. Kernel Dispatcher
B. System Monitor
C. Cron
D. Daemon Manager
76. Which of the following exemplifies Multi-Factor
Authentication?
A. Password and passphrase
B. Fingerprint and retina scan
C. Hardware tokens and smartphone
D. Smart card and PIN

77. A developer is formulating precise, sequential

instructions and conditional statements for a computer
program to solve problems. What is the developer
creating?
A. Algorithm
B. Software
C. Pseudocode
D. Flowchart

78. When sending and receiving Internet email, which of

the following network protocols are MOST likely to be
used? (Select TWO.)
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
E. ICMP
F. SFTP

79. A user has completed the initial setup wizard for the
Operating System. What would be the most critical
next step for the user to take?
A. Confirm Internet connectivity
B. Install productivity software
C. Install security software
D. Add additional user accounts

80. Which of the following technologies enables a user to

operate multiple Operating Systems simultaneously on
a single computer?
A. Telepresence
B. Cloud-based software
C. Virtualization software
D. Productivity software

81. A user wishes to update a driver to access additional

features. Where should the user find the most recent
version of the driver from an official source?
A. Manufacturer’s CD/DVD that accompanied the
computer
B. Manufacturer’s official website
C. Internet community support forums
D. Third-party support websites

82. What action should be taken to minimize physical

safety risks surrounding a recently installed
computer?
A. Ensure all connections are properly seated
B. Refrain from positioning other computers nearby
C. Secure loose cables using zip ties or Velcro straps
D. Connect all peripherals to the computer

83. A user with an outdated operating system frequently

accesses sensitive websites like banking, email, and
 corporate intranets using a web browser that has lost
patch support and is no longer updated. What action
will address this situation?
A. Remove all unused browser extensions and toolbars to
minimize risks.
B. Upgrade the user's account to an admin-level account
for enhanced overall security.
C. Switch to an alternative browser that receives regular
security updates.
D. Install several anti-malware and firewall products to
enhance the computing experience.

84. Which of the following connectors is MOST frequently

employed to link a computer to a network?
A. RJ-45
B. RJ-11
C. IDE
D. eSATA

85. A user is setting up a new scanner on a computer.

What is MOST likely to be installed to enable this
device to function?
A. License key
B. OS update
C. Firmware
D. Driver

86. Which of the following types of software is employed

to decrease the size of a file or folder?
A. Desktop publishing
B. Basic database
C. Compression
D. Anti-malware

87. Which of the following is employed alongside a touch

screen to enhance accuracy?
A. Touchpad
B. Stylus pen
C. Joystick
D. Trackball

88. Which of the following internal components is utilized

for temporary data storage in a workstation?
A. Power supply
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Hard drive

89. Which of the following is employed for the temporary

storage of program data that is erased when the
computer is turned off?
A. CPU
B. SSD
C. Hard drive
D. System memory

90. Which of the following is utilized for persistent data

storage over the long term?
A. SSD
B. ESD
C. PSU
D. RAM

91. Which two of the following are advisable measures to

take when generating a password?
A. Utilize personal identifiable information
B. Employ the same password across multiple systems
C. Use a phrase that is easy to recall
D. Utilize mixed case letters
E. Include special characters

92. Which of the following necessitates user interaction to

propagate?
A. Worm
B. Adware
C. Ransomware
D. Virus

93. Ann, a user with a new laptop, is experiencing

difficulty printing with her old printer. She confirmed
that the printer has connectivity to the laptop. What
should Ann examine next?
A. Printer manufacturer’s website
B. BIOS settings
C. Laptop vendor’s website
D. Power cord

94. Which three of the following devices might be

necessary for video conferencing?
A. Speakers
B. Touch screen
C. Microphone
D. Webcam
E. DVD drive
F. Projector

95. Which two of the following are the most rapid

methods to transmit a copy of a physical document to
a remote user?
A. Scan and email a copy of the document
B. Utilize document transcription software
C. Retype the document on the user’s computer
D. Fax a copy of the document to the user
E. Copy and mail the document to the user

96. Ann and Joe, both users, utilize the same computer
and log in with the same account. Ann is worried that
Joe might check her Internet activity. What can be put
in place to prevent both users from examining each
other’s Internet activity?
A. Encrypt the computer’s hard drive
B. Each user should use a different browser type
C. Use a password to protect the shared account
D. Configure the browser to clear history upon exit

97. What is the main function of a computer’s case fan?

A. To dissipate heat from internal components
B. To cool the CPU
C. To cool the video card
D. To improve airflow through the case
 98. A technician needs to connect a user’s computer to the
network. Which of the following device types would
the technician install?
A. Modem
B. Ethernet card
C. Graphics card
D. Daughterboard

99. A user intends to securely back up data for recovery in

case of a natural disaster. Which two of the following
is the BEST solution?
A. Back up to a NAS on-site
B. Back up to tape and send off-site
C. Use cloud-based backup
D. Encrypt all backup copies
E. Keep backup copies on multiple hard drives

100. Which of the following characterizes sleep mode for a

computer?
A. No energy usage with session data stored in RAM
B. Low energy usage with session data stored in RAM
C. Low energy usage with session data stored on the
HDD\SSD
D. No energy usage with session data stored on the
HDD\SSD

101. Which of the following connectors supports both high-

definition video and audio?
A. S-video
B. Component
C. HDMI
 D. DVI

102. Which of the following MOST accurately characterizes

malicious software that requires the end-user to pay a
fee or risk the destruction of their files?
A. Trojan
B. Virus
C. Spyware
D. Ransomware

103. Which of the following measures should be taken to

minimize the risk of sensitive passwords being
compromised while browsing the Internet?
A. Activate software firewalls to block unfamiliar ports
B. Deactivate autofill of forms and passwords
C. Activate screensavers and timeouts on the computer
D. Utilize ad-blocking software on the computer

104. A student wants to exchange contacts with another

student's mobile device. What would be the simplest
method to use?
A. Network-Attached Storage
B. Bluetooth sharing
C. Local hard drive
D. Peer-to-Peer network

105. When configuring a new desktop, what should be done

initially?
A. Configure user accounts
B. Plug in cables
 C. Install security software
D. Configure wireless network settings

106. Which of the following patching methods enables

vendor-controlled updates, minimizes user interaction,
and enhances the security of the operating system or
application?
A. Upgrading on a periodic basis
B. Frequent patching
C. Automatic updates
D. Patching scheduled daily

107. Which of the following is a rationale for considering

password complexity a best practice?
A. It makes passwords more challenging to crack
B. It motivates users to write down passwords to avoid
forgetting them
C. It compels users to develop typing skills
D. It dissuades users from using the same password
across different accounts

108. A user gets an email with a link. When they hover the
mouse over the link, the actual URL doesn't match the
text in the email body and seems to be a string of
random characters. What is the BEST action to take?
A. Send the email to a friend to seek advice
B. Respond to the sender to confirm whether it is safe to
open
C. Remove the email without clicking on the link
D. Open the link because there is malware protection
software installed on the computer
109. Which of the following elements functions as
temporary storage for computer operations?
A. System board
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Expansion card

110. Understanding computers all around us and having

knowledge of their functioning is referred to as
A. Computer Science
B. Technology Information
C. Digital Literacy
D. Computer Literacy

111. What are the four phases of the computing process?

A. Typing, calculating, speaking, and saving
B. Input, processing, output, and storage
C. Powering on the device, requesting information,
receiving information, and powering down the
device
D. Input, number crunching, output and printing

112. How does the device indicate that it has acknowledged

your processing request?
A. Input
B. Processing
C. Output
D. Storage
113. The capacity to incorporate applications into a general
computing device enhances its
A. Functionality
B. Value
C. Entertainment value
D. Complexity

114. What term denotes a collection of computers or other

network devices in close proximity that can exchange
information?
A. WAN
B. PC
C. LAN
D. Switch

115. Servers enabling access to applications not locally

installed for local users are referred to as
A. Online applications
B. LANs
C. The Internet
D. Remotely-accessed computer systems

116. Which of the following is NOT a dedicated computing

device?
A. Thermostat
B. Printer
C. iPhone
D. Point-of-Sale terminal
117. In modern computers, the CPU informs the
about the required clock speed, and the clock chip
then automatically adapts to match the CPU.
A. The address bus
B. The hard disk
C. The motherboard
D. RAM

118. Which kind of printer employs a fine powder-like

substance to produce images on paper?
A. Laser printer
B. Inkjet printer
C. Solid ink printer
D. LED printer

119. What part of the system memory setup is most user-

configurable?
A. ROM (Read-Only Memory)
B. Cache Memory
C. Virtual Memory
D. RAM (Random Access Memory)

120. Which of the following is a task that an operating

system does not perform?
A. Coordinate software applications
B. Interface between the user and the machine
C. Monitor system health
D. Coordinate hardware components
121. Which two of the following options represent wireless
networking technologies?
A. Bluetooth
B. RJ-45
C. NFC
D. DVI

122. Your friend Michael is configuring a wireless network

and seeks your advice on the most secure security
option to choose. What do you recommend?
A. WPA2
B. NAT
C. WPA
D. WEP

123. Which of the following is composed of columns and

rows containing numerical or text data?
A. Relational database
B. Document database
C. Key/value database
D. Database dump

124. Clarify the logic of the following statement: if the age

is less than 20, categorize as "Teen"; if the age is less
than 65, categorize as "Adult"; otherwise, categorize
as "Senior". For an individual aged 20, which category
will they belong to?
A. Child
B. Senior
C. Adult
D. Teen
125. Which device is considered a general-purpose
computing device?
A. Xbox One
B. Smartphone
C. Apple iPod
D. Digital watch

126. You want to choose the video connector that offers the
highest resolution. Which one should you select?
A. Component
B. DVI
C. VGA
D. HDMI

127. What does CPU stand for?

A. Central Processing Unit
B. Computer Processing Unit
C. Central Peripheral Unit
D. Central Power Unit

128. What is the purpose of RAM in a computer?

A. Long-term storage
B. Temporary storage
C. Permanent storage
D. Data input

129. Which type of software manages hardware resources

and provides a user interface?
 A. Application software
B. System software
C. Utility software
D. Network software

130. What is the purpose of an Operating System?

A. Manages hardware resources and provides user
interface
B. Runs specific applications
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

131. What does the acronym URL stand for?

A. Universal Resource Locator
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Unified Resource Locator
D. User Resource Locator

132. Which network device operates at Layer 2 of the OSI

model?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge

133. What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

A. Detects and removes viruses
B. Monitors network traffic and blocks unauthorized
access
C. Encrypts data transmissions
D. Manages IP addresses
134. Which file extension is commonly associated with a
compressed archive?
A. .txt
B. .zip
C. .exe
D. .docx

135. What is the purpose of an IP address?

A. Identifies a device on the internet, or a local network
B. Manages file storage
C. Executes computer programs
D. Controls peripheral devices

136. Which of the following is an example of an input

device?
A. Printer
B. Monitor
C. Keyboard
D. Speaker

137. What is the purpose of a DNS server?

A. Manages network security
B. Resolves domain names to IP addresses
C. Filters internet content
D. Allocates IP addresses dynamically

138. Which of the following is a type of malware that

disguises itself as legitimate software?
 A. Spyware
B. Adware
C. Trojan horse
D. Worm

139. What is the primary purpose of a router in a network?

A. Connects devices within a local network
B. Filters and forwards data between different networks
C. Amplifies network signals
D. Provides wireless connectivity

140. What is the function of antivirus software?

A. Detects and removes malicious software
B. Optimizes computer performance
C. Manages network traffic
D. Encrypts files and folders

141. Which programming language is commonly used for

creating dynamic web pages?
A. Java
B. PHP
C. C++
D. Python

142. What does the acronym HTML stand for?

A. Hypertext Markup Language
B. Hyperlink and Text Markup Language
C. High-Level Text Markup Language
D. Hypertext and Table Markup Language
143. What is the purpose of a Uninterruptible Power Supply
(UPS) for a computer?
A. Increases processing speed
B. Provides backup power during outages
C. Enhances network security
D. Filters internet content

144. Which type of backup makes a copy of all selected files

regardless of whether they have changed since the
last backup?
A. Incremental backup
B. Full backup
C. Differential backup
D. Mirror backup

145. What is the purpose of the Basic Input/Output System

(BIOS) in a computer?
A. Manages network connections
B. Executes application software
C. Boots the computer and initializes hardware
D. Provides storage for user data

146. Which of the following is a type of wireless

communication technology used for short-range data
exchange between devices?
A. GPS
B. NFC (Near Field Communication)
C. Bluetooth
D. Wi-Fi
147. What two things are configured on a disk to make
storage space on the disk available to the Windows
OS?
A. File system and partition table
B. BIOS settings and disk label
C. File permissions and disk encryption
D. Disk controller and disk cache

148. Which storage type retains data even when the power
is turned off?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Cache
D. HDD

149. What protection feature in Windows is designed to

prevent a script or software from making unauthorized
changes to the OS configuration?
A. User Account Control (UAC)
B. Windows Defender Firewall
C. Windows Update
D. BitLocker Drive Encryption

150. Which protocol is used for sending emails?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
151. Which data type provides for whole numbers only?
A. float
B. double
C. int
D. char

152. Which of the following is a programming language?

A. HTML
B. JPEG
C. Java
D. MP3

153. Which data representation format can encode the

widest range of characters?
A. ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. Binary
D. Unicode

154. What type of legal protection could be obtained for a

novel software algorithm?
A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Copyright
D. Trade secret

155. Which type of software provides security by detecting

and removing malicious programs?
A. Firewall
B. Antivirus
 C. Browser
D. Operating System

156. What data protection technology could you implement

in order to restrict the type of activity that users could
employ on digital products that they have purchased
or rented?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. Encryption
C. Firewall
D. Antivirus

157. Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud

computing?
A. Limited scalability
B. Localized data storage
C. On-demand resources
D. Fixed pricing

158. What is the purpose of spreadsheet software?

A. Edit images
B. Create and manipulate tables of numerical data
C. Play music
D. Connect to the internet

159. Which file format is commonly used for compressed

archives?
A. PDF
B. GIF
C. ZIP
 D. MP4

160. What is the purpose of a VPN?

A. Increase internet speed
B. Encrypt data transmission
C. Delete temporary files
D. Manage email accounts

161. What type of component provides persistent storage?

A. RAM (Random Access Memory)
B. CPU (Central Processing Unit)
C. SSD (Solid State Drive)
D. Cache Memory

162. What computer component is most restrictive in terms

of determining upgrade potential for a desktop
computer?
A. CPU (Central Processing Unit)
B. RAM (Random Access Memory)
C. Motherboard
D. Graphics Card

163. What is the purpose of a proxy server?

A. Increase internet speed
B. Block unauthorized access
C. Store files
D. Create websites
164. Which programming language is commonly used for
web development?
A. Python
B. Java
C. C++
D. HTML

165. What type of component provides a passive cooling

solution?
A. Fan
B. Heat Sink
C. Liquid Cooler
D. Thermal Paste

166. Which OSI layer is responsible for error detection and

correction?
A. Data Link
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Presentation

167. Which subnet mask is associated with the Class B IP

address range?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255

168. What is the purpose of a DHCP (Dynamic Host

Configuration Protocol) server in a network?
 A. Assigning IP Addresses
B. Filtering Web Content
C. Managing Routing Tables
D. Encrypting Data

169. In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term

"phishing" refer to?
A. Denial-of-Service Attacks
B. Malicious software installation
C. Social engineering attacks
D. Network intrusions

170. Which RAID level provides both mirroring and

striping?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

171. Which programming language is commonly used for

server-side web development?
A. JavaScript
B. Python
C. HTML
D. PHP

172. What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection

System (IDS) in a network?
A. Blocking Unauthorized Access
B. Encrypting Data
 C. Monitoring and Detecting Suspicious Activities
D. Allocating IP Addresses

173. What is the purpose of an Application Programming

Interface (API)?
A. Data Encryption
B. Interconnecting Software Components
C. Managing Hardware Resources
D. Monitoring Network Traffic

174. Which wireless authentication method is the most

secure?
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C. MAC Filtering
D. Open System Authentication

175. What is the purpose of Network Address Translation

(NAT) in networking?
A. Load Balancing
B. IP Address Translation
C. DNS Resolution
D. Data Encryption

176. Which file system is commonly used in Linux

distributions?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. Ext4
D. HFS+
177. Which TCP/IP protocol is used for secure
communication over the web?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. SMTP

178. In the context of cloud computing, what does SaaS

stand for?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Storage-as-a-Service
C. System-as-a-Service
D. Security-as-a-Service

179. What is the purpose of RAID 5 in data storage?

A. Data striping
B. Disk mirroring
C. Parity-based redundancy
D. Snapshot backup

180. Which of the following is an example of a public cloud

service model?
A. Private Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
D. On-Premises Server
181. What type of connector is commonly used for
connecting external devices to a computer?
A. Coaxial
B. Serial
C. USB
D. RJ-45

182. What is the difference between RAM and ROM?

A. RAM is volatile, while ROM is non-volatile
B. RAM is used for storing data, while ROM is used for
storing instructions
C. RAM is faster than ROM
D. There is no difference between RAM and ROM

183. What is the difference between wired and wireless

networks?
A. Wired networks are more reliable, while wireless
networks are more flexible
B. Wired networks are slower than wireless networks
C. Wired networks are more expensive than wireless
networks
D. Wired networks use cables, while wireless networks
use radio waves

184. What is the purpose of a cloud service?

A. To provide remote access to applications and data
B. To backup data
C. To protect data from viruses
D. To share files with other users

185. What is the difference between a server and a client?

 A. A server is a high-powered computer that provides
resources to other computers, while a client is a
smaller computer that requests resources from a
server
B. A server is a software program, while a client is a
hardware device
C. There is no difference between a server and a client
D. A server is a type of storage device, while a client is a
type of input device

186. What is the purpose of a domain name?

A. To identify a website on the Internet
B. To store website data
C. To secure a website
D. To track website visitors

187. What is the difference between a hub and a switch?

A. Hubs are faster than switches
B. Hubs are more secure than switches
C. Hubs transmit data to all devices connected to the
network, while switches transmit data only to the
intended recipient
D. Hubs are used in wired networks, while switches are
used in wireless networks

188. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?

A. Viruses require a host program to run, while worms do
not
B. Worms are more destructive than viruse
C. Viruses spread by attaching themselves to files, while
worms spread by exploiting vulnerabilities in software
 D. There is no difference between a virus and a worm

189. What is the purpose of a patch?

A. To update software with new features
B. To fix security vulnerabilities
C. To customize software settings
D. To uninstall software

190. What is the difference between physical security and

data security?
A. Physical security protects hardware, while data
security protects software.
B. Physical security protects data from unauthorized
access, while data security protects data from physical
damage.
C. Physical security protects buildings and equipment,
while data security protects information stored
electronically.
D. There is no difference between physical security and
data security.

191. What is the purpose of disaster recovery planning?

A. To improve system performance
B. To back up data
C. To recover from system failures
D. To comply with regulations

192. What is the difference between a backup and an

archive?
 A. Backups are stored on the same system as the original
data, while archives are stored on a separate system.
B. Backups are used for disaster recovery, while archives
are used for long-term storage.
C. Backups store the entire system, while archives store
only selected files.
D. There is no difference between a backup and an
archive.

193. What is the purpose of data encryption?

A. To compress data
B. To protect data from unauthorized access
C. To organize data
D. To remove duplicate data

194. In networking, what does the term "subnetting" refer

to?
A. Dividing a network into subnetworks
B. Encrypting network traffic
C. Configuring VLANs
D. Implementing Quality-of-Service

195. Which wireless security protocol is considered the

most vulnerable and should be avoided?
A. WPA3
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. WPA
196. What is the primary purpose of a Simple Network
Management Protocol (SNMP) agent?
A. Monitoring network devices
B. Encrypting network traffic
C. Blocking malicious websites
D. Authenticating users

197. Which command-line tool is used for network

troubleshooting by sending ICMP Echo Request
packets?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. ping
D. netstat

198. In the context of database management, what does the

term "Normalization" refer to?
A. Data encryption
B. Optimizing query performance
C. Structuring data to reduce redundancy
D. Indexing database tables

199. Which protocol is commonly used for securely

transferring files over a network?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. DHCP
200. What is the purpose of the TRACERT command in
Windows?
A. Displaying Active Network Connections
B. Tracing the Route to a Destination
C. Testing Network Bandwidth
D. Analyzing Network Packets

201. Which programming language is commonly used for

developing mobile applications for Android devices?
A. Swift
B. Java
C. Objective-C
D. Kotlin

202. What is the purpose of a load balancer in a network

infrastructure?
A. Ensuring data integrity
B. Distributing network traffic across servers
C. Encrypting data
D. Allocating ip addresses

203. Which type of attack involves flooding a network with

an excessive amount of traffic to make it unavailable
to users?
A. Spoofing Attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attack
C. Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) Attack
D. Buffer Overflow Attack
204. What is the purpose of a virtualization hypervisor in
cloud computing?
A. Managing network security
B. Allocating ip addresses
C. Hosting Virtual Machines
D. Caching Web Content

205. Which cryptographic algorithm is commonly used for

securing web communications through HTTPS?
A. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Rivest–Shamir–Adleman (RSA)
D. Message Digest Algorithm 5 (MD5)

206. In the context of IT security, what does the term

"biometrics" refer to?
A. Authentication based on physical characteristics
B. Encrypting data
C. Two-Factor Authentication
D. Digital Signatures

207. You are operating virtual machines on a sole physical

server. The server's operating system is exclusively
dedicated to virtualization and doesn't run any other
applications. What category of hypervisor does this
exemplify?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
208. Which one among these does not qualify as a
characteristic of a CPU?
A. Multicore
B. 64-bit processing
C. L1 cache
D. Double data Rate (DDR)

209. What oversees and regulates the velocity of a

motherboard's buses?
A. RAM
B. CPU
C. Chipset
D. L1 cache

210. Among these ports, which ones share identical

physical characteristics?
A. USB Type-A and USB Type-B
B. Thunderbolt and Mini DisplayPort
C. DisplayPort and FireWire
D. DVI and VGA

211. What type of drive is capable of reading CompactFlash

storage?
A. USB flash drive
B. Card reader
C. HDD
D. SDD

212. For a PC equipped with a 32-bit CPU, which operating

systems are compatible?
 A. 32-bit only
B. Both 32-bit and 64-bit
C. Neither 32-bit nor 64-bit
D. 64-bit only

213. What operating system setup employs data labels to

manage resource access?
A. Services
B. Scheduled tasks
C. Mandatory access control
D. EULA

214. What do you need to install before downloading and

installing extra software on a new PC?
A. Security software
B. Nothing
C. Updates to other applications
D. Drivers for hardware devices

215. What file attribute enhances the speed of searching

for content within files?
A. Archive
B. Indexed
C. Compressed
D. Encrypted

216. How does a cellular internet connection surpass the

advantages of wired and Wi-Fi connections?
A. Bandwidth
B. Mobility
 C. Number of concurrent connections
D. Security

217. What does turning off the Bluetooth adapter on a

laptop when it's not in use exemplify?
A. Dumpster diving
B. Cracking
C. Device hardening
D. Hardware theft prevention

218. What among the following would you consider

disabling to safeguard your privacy?
A. Autofill forms
B. Hyperlinks
C. Certificates
D. InPrivate browsing

219. Which category of contingency plan pertains

specifically to an IT system or service?
A. Business continuity
B. Incident response
C. Disaster recovery
D. Data restoration

220. In C programming for software development, if you

need to assess a single variable for a range of
potential values, what programming construct would
be appropriate for this task?
A. If
B. Select case
C. While
D. Switch
 ANSWERS

1. Answer: D
Explanation:

Option D involves encrypting the entire content of the

laptop's disk, rendering it unreadable without the correct
decryption key. In the context of a lost or stolen laptop, full
disk encryption ensures that even if the physical device falls
into the wrong hands, the data remains inaccessible without
the appropriate authentication. Therefore, D is the most
appropriate choice to safeguard data in such situations.

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encryption-
FDE#:~:text=Full%2Ddisk%20encryption%20(FDE)%20is%
20a%20security%20method%20for,OSes)%20to%20prevent
%20unauthorized%20access.

2. Answer: B
Explanation:

Submitting personal information on a school

enrollment site: Educational institutions typically have
privacy policies and security measures in place to protect
sensitive information. In this case, there is a reasonable
expectation of privacy, as schools are expected to handle
personal data confidentially and securely.

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privacy-information-privacy

3. Answer: B
Explanation:

String:

A string is a data type used to represent text. Postal codes,

which typically consist of letters, numbers, and sometimes
special characters, are best stored as strings. This allows for
the inclusion of alphanumeric characters in the variable.

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n/data-type

4. Answer: D
Explanation:
Machine language is the lowest-level programming language
that directly communicates with a computer's central
processing unit (CPU). Assembly language is a low-level
programming language that is closely related to machine
language, using mnemonic codes to represent machine-level
instructions. It provides a symbolic representation of the
machine code instructions, making it more human-readable
than raw machine code.

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code-machine-
language#:~:text=Machine%20code%2C%20also%20known
%20as,sequence%20of%20zeros%20and%20ones.

5. Answer: B
Explanation:

Functions in programming serve the primary purpose of

allowing code to be divided into reusable components. By
encapsulating specific tasks or operations within a function,
programmers can write modular and organized code that
can be easily reused throughout a program or in different
programs altogether. This modular approach promotes code
reusability, enhances readability, and simplifies maintenance
and debugging processes. Additionally, functions enable
developers to abstract complex operations, making the
overall codebase more manageable and scalable.

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ml.

6. Answer: C
Explanation:

The transfer rate is measured in bits per second (bps), and

the options provided have different units:

A. 1001 Kbps: 1001 Kilobits per second

B. 110 Mbps: 110 Megabits per second

C. 1.22 Gbps: 1.22 Gigabits per second

D. 123 Mbps: 123 Megabits per second

To compare these transfer rates, converting them to the

same unit is necessary. Let's convert them to gigabits per
second (Gbps) for a better comparison:

A. 1001 Kbps = 0.001001 Gbps

B. 110 Mbps = 0.11 Gbps

C. 1.22 Gbps = 1.22 Gbps

D. 123 Mbps = 0.123 Gbps

Among these, 1.22Gbps (Option C) is the highest transfer

rate, indicating the fastest speed for transferring a file
across the network.

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econd%20or%20Megabytes%20per%20second.

7. Answer: B
Explanation:

Among the provided options, a valid IP address that a

technician should assign to a new desktop computer is
172.16.2.189

A. 127.0.0.1: This is the loopback address, which is used to

test network connectivity on the local machine. It is not
typically assigned as the IP address for a desktop computer.

B. 172.16.2.189: This is a valid private IP address within the

Class B private address range (172.16.0.0 to
172.31.255.255). It can be assigned to a device within a
private network.
C. 192.168.257.1: This is not a valid IP address. The octet
"257" is beyond the valid range (0 to 255). The correct
format for each octet is a number between 0 and 255.

D. 255.255.255.0: This is not an IP address but rather a

subnet mask. It represents a subnet mask with 24 bits set to
1, indicating a subnet with 256 addresses ( - 2).

Therefore, the valid IP address to assign to the new desktop

computer is option B, 172.16.2.189.

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Internet-Protocol-Address

8. Answer: D
Explanation:

For a game developer requiring a computing device with

high-end specifications that can be upgraded, a workstation
is the option to buy.

A. Laptop: Laptops are portable and convenient, but they

often have limitations in terms of upgradability and may only
sometimes offer the highest-end specifications compared to
desktop counterparts.
B. Server: Servers are designed for network-based tasks,
and while they can have powerful configurations, they might
not be optimized for the specific needs of game
development, especially when it comes to graphics
processing.

C. Game consoles: Game consoles are specialized devices

designed for playing games rather than developing them.
They typically need to offer the customization and
upgradability required for game development.

D. Workstation: Workstations are high-performance

computers optimized for game development, 3D rendering,
and content creation. They often have powerful processors,
ample RAM, and advanced graphics cards. Workstations are
designed to handle resource-intensive applications and can
be customized and upgraded to meet evolving requirements.

Considering the need for high-end specifications and

upgradability, a workstation (Option D) is the most suitable
choice for a game developer. It provides the performance
and flexibility required for demanding tasks associated with
game development.

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 9. Answer: C
Explanation:

The best place to store data for analyzing related

information from sales, inventory, marketing, and
compensation data is a Database.

A database is designed to efficiently and systematically

store, organize, and retrieve large amounts of structured
data. It provides a structured way to manage and relate
different data types, making it ideal for scenarios where
information from multiple sources needs to be analyzed
together.

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on/database

10. Answer: A
Explanation:

The ".exe" extension indicates that the file is an executable

file for Windows operating systems. The "x86" prefix
indicates that the executable file is compiled for the x86
instruction set architecture. The x86 instruction set
architecture is a 32-bit architecture, so the "x86.exe" file can
only be installed on a 32-bit CPU.
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file-exe-file

11. Answer: D
Explanation:

SMTP is a protocol used for sending emails. Email software,

also known as email clients, is designed to send, receive, and
manage emails, and it uses protocols like SMTP to send
messages from the sender's email client to the recipient's
email server. Options A (Document sharing software), B
(Instant messaging software), and C (Conferencing
software) are not typically associated with the SMTP
protocol, as they serve different communication purposes.

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protocol-smtp/

12. Answer: D
Explanation:

Option D, is a security measure that allows users to be

notified and prompted for confirmation before any content is
downloaded from the internet. This setting can help prevent
unintentional downloads of malicious files or software. It
provides an additional layer of security by requiring user
consent before potentially harmful content is allowed onto
the system.

While other options such as turning on private browsing or

deleting browsing history may offer privacy benefits, they
are not specifically designed to prevent malware infections.
Option C, provides some notification but might not provide
the necessary control over potentially harmful downloads
that Option D does.

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tion_designer/cit911/config/cfg-browser.html

13. Answer: A
Explanation:

Customer date of birth is often considered sensitive personal

information. Protecting such details is crucial to maintaining
customer privacy and complying with data protection
regulations. Employees are typically instructed to handle
this information carefully, ensuring it is not improperly
accessed, shared, or used for unauthorized purposes.
While other options (B, C, and D) may also involve sensitive
information, the customer’s date of birth is particularly
sensitive due to its nature and the potential for misuse if
mishandled. Employee training and policies often emphasize
the importance of safeguarding such sensitive data.

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privacy-information-privacy

14. Answer: A
Explanation:

Database software is designed for storing, organizing, and

managing structured data. It provides a way to create tables
to store information and supports concurrent access by
multiple users. In the context of a customer list with names,
contact information, and sales records, a database allows for
efficient data management and simultaneous editing by
different users.

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basics
 15. Answer: B
Explanation:

When a user can only access local pages and not the external
internet while connected to corporate Wi-Fi, it suggests that
there may be a proxy server configured for internet access.
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the user's
device and the internet, and it may be configured to restrict
or filter internet access.

Renewing the IP address (Option A), clearing the browser

cache (Option C), and disabling the pop-up blocker (Option
D) are unlikely to address the specific issue described and
are not the most relevant actions in this context.

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e-chrome-no-
proxy/#:~:text=A%20proxy%20server%20is%20an,privacy%
20protections%20as%20a%20VPN.

16. Answer: A
Explanation:

Eavesdropping refers to the unauthorized interception or

monitoring of communication between two parties. It is a
confidentiality concern because it involves an attacker
gaining access to sensitive information without the
knowledge or consent of the parties involved in the
communication.

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definition/eavesdropping

17. Answer: D
Explanation:

The best option for protecting the document containing step-

by-step instructions for using the software, ensuring that it
is not published for public use by others, is to Copyright.

Copyright is the legal right that grants the creator of an

original work exclusive rights to its use and distribution. In
the context of a software developer writing step-by-step
instructions for using a software program, creating a
copyright for the document ensures that the developer has
exclusive rights to reproduce, distribute, and display the
document.

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 18. Answer: C
Explanation:

The database concept that would most likely use a CSV file is
data importing.

CSV (Comma-Separated Values) files are commonly used for

data importing, especially when transferring data between
different systems or applications. CSV is a simple and widely
supported file format that represents tabular data, with each
row representing a record and columns separated by
commas.

Options A, B, and D are less directly associated with the use

of CSV files:

A. Data querying: While CSV files can be queried, this option

does not specifically focus on the import aspect, which is
more central to the concept of data querying.

B. Data reports: CSV files can be used for storing data that is
used in reports, but the act of creating reports is not the
primary function of CSV files.

D. Data persistence: Data persistence generally refers to the

storage and retrieval of data, which can involve various file
formats, databases, or storage mechanisms. While CSV files
can be used for temporary data storage, they are not
typically considered the primary means of data persistence.
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topic=files-importing-data-by-using-csv-file

19. Answer: A
Explanation:

The first step a help desk technician should take to find out
if a colleague has encountered the same issue before is to
check the Knowledge Base.

A Knowledge Base is a repository of information that

contains solutions to common issues, troubleshooting steps,
and best practices. Checking the Knowledge Base is an
efficient way for a technician to leverage collective
knowledge and see if there are documented solutions or
information related to the specific issue.

Options B, C, and D are also valid steps in the

troubleshooting process, but checking the Knowledge Base
(Option A) is often the first step because it allows the
technician to benefit from the experience and insights of the
entire support team.

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base
 20. Answer: C
Explanation:

The best description of the practice of providing user

credentials when logging onto the network is input.

When a user provides their username and password to log

onto a network, they are inputting their credentials into the
system. Input refers to the data or information provided to a
computer or system, and in this context, user credentials
serve as input to authenticate and authorize the user's
access.

Options A, B, and D are not as directly related to the act of

providing user credentials during the login process.

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d/hardware/input-output-processing-storage

21. Answer: D
Explanation:

The component that allows wireless devices to communicate

with a wired network is the Access point.
An access point (AP) is a networking hardware device that
allows wireless devices to connect and communicate with a
wired network. It acts as a bridge between the wireless
network and the wired network infrastructure, enabling
wireless clients to access resources such as files, printers,
and internet connectivity.

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access-point-in-
networking.html#:~:text=An%20access%20point%20(AP)%
20is,both%20internet%20routers%20and%20firewalls.

22. Answer: D
Explanation:

A server is a specialized computer or software system

designed to provide services, resources, or data to other
computers (clients) in a network. Servers play a crucial role
in managing and distributing resources within a network
environment. They are designed to handle tasks such as file
storage, network printing, email services, web hosting, and
more.

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 23. Answer: C
Explanation:

A foreign key in a database is a field or a set of fields that

refers to the primary key in another table. It establishes a
link between two tables and enforces referential integrity,
ensuring that values in the foreign key match values in the
primary key of the referenced table.

Options A, B, and D are related to database concepts but

have distinct meanings:

A. Attribute: Characteristic or property of an entity, not

specifically associated with foreign keys.

B. Constraint: Rule or condition enforcing data integrity;

foreign keys are a type of constraint, but not all constraints
are foreign keys.

D. Schema: Collection of database objects organizing data,

not specifically tied to foreign keys.

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20a%20relational%20database.
 24. Answer: B
Explanation:

The primary purpose of a relational database management

system is to store, organize, and manage structured data.
RDBMSs use tables to store data in rows and columns, and
they allow for the establishment of relationships between
different tables. This structured approach to data storage
makes it efficient for querying, retrieving, and managing
large volumes of information.

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25. Answer: A
Explanation:

In the context of an operating system, a process is a program

in execution. It represents the entire runtime state of an
application, including its code, data, and system resources.
Each process has its own memory space and is managed by
the operating system's process scheduler.

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 26. Answer: B
Explanation:

When setting up remote access to a server, security is of

paramount importance. Ensuring a secure method of
allowing connections helps protect the server and the data it
contains from unauthorized access, data breaches, and other
security threats.

Options A, C, and D are also considerations still they are

generally secondary to security:

● While the quality of the computer may impact the user

experience, it is more critical than implementing secure
connections. Security measures should be in place
regardless of the device used.
● Internet speed is relevant for ensuring a smooth and
efficient remote connection, but it is more critical than
implementing secure access methods. Security should
take precedence.
● While the geographical location may affect factors such
as latency, it is less crucial than ensuring a secure
remote access method. Security considerations should
be addressed first.
In summary, security (Option B) is the top priority when
allowing remote access to a server to safeguard sensitive
information and prevent unauthorized access or data
breaches.
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ity

27. Answer: C
Explanation:

The "shell" in an operating system serves as the interface

between the user and the system's kernel. It provides a
command-line interface (CLI) or graphical user interface
(GUI) through which users can interact with the operating
system. The shell interprets user commands and executes
them, manages processes, handles input/output operations,
and facilitates communication between the user and the
system resources. Therefore, the primary function of the
shell is to provide a user interface, making option C the
correct answer. Options A, B, and D refer to other functions
of an operating system, such as memory management, file
management, and device management, respectively.

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28. Answer: C
Explanation:

Once the technician has confirmed the validity of a tested

theory, the next logical step is to establish a plan of action.
This involves determining the steps and procedures to
implement the solution based on the confirmed theory. The
action plan outlines how the solution will address the
identified issue.

Options A, B, and D are essential but are typically carried

out at subsequent stages:

● After establishing a plan of action, the technician

proceeds to implement the solution based on the plan.
● Documenting lessons learned is valuable for knowledge
management, but it is often done after the
troubleshooting process.
● Verifying full system functionality is an important step,
but it usually occurs after the solution is implemented
to ensure the issue has been successfully addressed.
Therefore, the immediate next step after confirming a tested
theory is establishing an action plan (Option C).

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29. Answer: A
Explanation:
Password reuse occurs when users use the same or similar
passwords across multiple accounts or services. In this
scenario, Joe's concern that his email and banking accounts
may be compromised suggests that he has used the same or
a similar password for multiple online services, including his
social media site.

Options B, C, and D represent different concepts:

● Snooping typically refers to unauthorized access or

monitoring of someone else's private information, which
is not evident in Joe's situation.
● While Joe's actions involve sharing information with a
friend, the scenario is more indicative of password
reuse than social engineering, which typically involves
manipulation or deception to gain confidential
information.
● Phishing involves attempting to trick individuals into
revealing sensitive information by posing as
trustworthy. Joe's situation does not align with a
phishing attack; rather, it indicates a concern about the
security of his accounts due to compromised passwords.
Therefore, the most likely scenario in Joe's case is password
reuse (Option A).

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30. Answer: B
Explanation:

In programming, a variable is a storage location (identified

by a memory address and a symbolic name) used to store
and manipulate data during the execution of a program.
Variables can hold values that may change throughout the
program's run. They provide a way for developers like Joe to
work with dynamic data, such as numbers that may be
updated or modified during the program's execution.

Options A, C, and D represent different programming

concepts:

● A loop is a control structure that repeats instructions

until a specific condition is met. It is not used for
storing data but rather for controlling the flow of
program execution.
● A constant is a value that does not change during the
program's execution. It is typically used for values that
should remain fixed throughout the program.
● A function is a named code block that performs a
specific task. While functions can work with variables,
they are not typically used to store dynamic data
directly.
Therefore, for storing a number that changes over the
duration of the program's run, Joe would most likely use a
variable (Option B).

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 31. Answer: A
Explanation:

Interpreted languages are well-suited for web development

because they can be executed directly by a web browser
without compilation. This allows developers to write code
and see the results quickly, making the development process
more agile.

Options B, C, and D represent different types of languages:

● Query languages are typically used for database

operations and querying data, not for general-purpose
web development.
● Compiled languages require a separate compilation step
before execution, which is uncommon in web
development. The compilation process generates
machine code that is executed by the computer.
● Assembly language is a low-level programming
language closely tied to a specific computer's CPU
architecture. It is not commonly used for web
development, typically involving higher-level languages.
Therefore, for creating a website, a web developer would
most likely use an interpreted language (Option A).
Examples include JavaScript, Python, and Ruby for client-
side development and languages like PHP, Python, or
Node.js for server-side development.

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32. Answer: C
Explanation:

By opening a browser locally and browsing the same

website, the technician attempts to duplicate the problem
experienced by the user. This step helps the technician
verify whether the issue is specific to the user's environment
or a more widespread problem.

Options A, B, and D represent different troubleshooting

steps:

● Option A step involves creating a plan outlining the

steps to be taken during troubleshooting. It is done
before executing specific actions.
● Option B step involves collecting relevant information
about the issue, including details about the error
message, the user's actions, and any other contextual
information.
● Option D step involves identifying the underlying cause
of the problem. While duplicating the problem can help
gather information and understand the symptoms,
finding the root cause often requires further
investigation.
Therefore, the technician uses the troubleshooting step of
duplicating the problem (Option C) to verify the reported
issue and gather additional information.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/post/CompTIA-
troubleshooting-steps-and-solving-common-computer-
problems

33. Answer: C
Explanation:

Open-source software is distributed with a license that

grants users the freedom to view, modify, and distribute the
source code. Developers can make changes to the original
code, create their versions, and distribute them. This
promotes collaboration and community-driven development.

Options A, B, and D represent different types of software and

licensing models:

● Proprietary software is closed-source and does not

allow users to view or modify the source code. Users
typically have limited rights and are restricted in
modifying or distributing the software.
● Commercial software refers to software that is sold for
profit. It does not necessarily dictate whether the
source code is open or closed.
● Cross-platform software is designed to run on multiple
operating systems or platforms. The cross-platform
nature is not inherently related to the ability to modify
and distribute the source code.
Therefore, the software license model that allows
modification and distribution of the source code is open-
source software (Option C).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/open-source

34. Answer: D
Explanation:

Satellite Internet is well-suited for remote locations where

traditional wired services like fiber, DSL, or cable are not
readily available. Satellite Internet relies on satellites in
orbit to provide connectivity, allowing users in remote areas
to access the Internet. It is beneficial in locations where
laying physical cables is impractical.

Options A, B, and C are more commonly available in areas

with existing infrastructure:

● Fiber-optic Internet is known for its high speed and

reliability still it is typically available in more densely
populated areas where fiber infrastructure has been
deployed.
● Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) requires existing
telephone lines and is generally available in areas with
telephone infrastructure.
● Cable Internet relies on cable television infrastructure
and is commonly available in urban and suburban areas
where cable networks are established.
Therefore, given the remote location without existing
infrastructure, Satellite (Option D) is the most suitable
choice for Internet connectivity.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/9261/satellite-
internet

35. Answer: C
Explanation:

In this scenario, the administrator has authorized a user to

retrieve data from a database. This action falls under the
category of data control, which involves managing access to
the data stored in the database. Data control ensures that
only authorized users have the appropriate permissions to
access, retrieve, modify, or delete data within the database.
By authorizing the user to retrieve data, the administrator is
exercising control over the data access permissions,
ensuring that the user has the necessary privileges to
perform the specific task of retrieving data from the
database. Therefore, the correct option is C. Data control.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

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Definition-Language-DDL
 36. Answer: C
Explanation:

Prioritization involves assigning importance or preference to

different tasks, components, or data sets. In this case, the
company identified customer data as a priority over
operational data during the disaster recovery exercise. This
ensures that critical customer information is recovered first,
reflecting a strategic decision based on business priorities.

Options A, B, and D represent different concepts:

● Redundancy involves creating backups or duplicates of

critical components to ensure availability in case of a
failure. While it relates to disaster recovery, it does not
address the recovery order.
● Replication involves creating and maintaining copies of
data or systems in real-time to ensure consistency. It is
related to redundancy but needs to address the priority
of recovery inherently.
● Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue
functioning in the presence of faults or failures. While it
relates to disaster recovery, it does not explicitly
address the prioritization of data recovery.
Therefore, the example of recovering customer data before
operational data reflects the concept of prioritization (Option
C).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://jumpcloud.com/blog/it-project-
prioritization#:~:text=IT%20project%20prioritization%20is
%20the,employee%20satisfaction%2C%20among%20other%
20benefits.

37. Answer: B
Explanation:

The 802.11b standard supports a maximum data rate of 11

Mbps and operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band. It was one
of the early Wi-Fi standards and is compatible with various
devices. While it has slower speeds compared to later
standards like 802.11g and 802.11n, it fits the specified
requirements for the client.

Options A, C, and D represent different Wi-Fi standards:

● 802.11a: Operates in the 5GHz band and supports

higher data rates but is not compatible with the 2.4GHz
band.
● 802.11g: Operates in the 2.4GHz band and supports
higher data rates than 802.11b.
● 802.11n: Operates in both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands
and supports higher data rates than 802.11b.
Since the client's requirement specifies support for speeds
up to 11Mbps and operation in the 2.4GHz band, the most
appropriate choice is 802.11b (Option B).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/504/ieee-80211b

38. Answer: B and D

Explanation:

Password complexity (Option B) involves setting

requirements for the structure and composition of
passwords, such as including special characters and
numbers and avoiding common dictionary words.

Password history (Option D) involves maintaining a record of

previous passwords used by a user to prevent the reuse of
the same passwords over a specified period.

Options A, C, E, and F are not directly addressed in the

described password policy:

● Password lockout (Option A): The policy does not

mention specific lockout criteria.
● Password expiration (Option C): The policy does not
specify a time frame for password expiration.
● Password length (Option E): The policy does not provide
minimum or maximum password length information.
● Password age (Option F): The policy does not specify a
password age or expiration duration.
Therefore, the practices employed are password complexity
(B) and password history (D).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://plurilock.com/answers/password-
complexity/#:~:text=Password%20complexity%20is%20a%2
0measure,the%20interest%20of%20better%20security.

39. Answer: D
Explanation:

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is currently considered the

most secure wireless encryption protocol. It uses the
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for data encryption
and protects against unauthorized access.

Options A, B, and C represent different wireless security

features:

● Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA): WPA is an earlier

version of the Wi-Fi security protocol. While it is more
secure than WEP, it is less robust than WPA2.
● Service Set Identifier (SSID): SSID is the name of a
wireless network. While it is a part of the network
configuration, it is not a security protocol.
● Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP): WEP is an older, less
secure wireless encryption protocol. It is vulnerable to
various security exploits and is no longer recommended.
Therefore, for the highest level of security, it is
recommended to use WPA2 (Option D) when securing a
wireless network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.gartner.com/en/information-
technology/glossary/wpa2-wi-fi-protected-access-
2#:~:text=Wi%2DFi%20Protected%20Access%202%20(WP
A2)%20is%20the%20final,the%20Wi%2DFi%20certification
%20process.

40. Answer: A
Explanation:

A flat file is a basic data storage format utilizing plain text

files with a structured layout, typically arranged in rows and
columns. It's ideal for managing simple and small-scale data
sets like contact lists, where each entry contains fields such
as name, phone number, and email. This format is efficient
for the storage and management of straightforward data that
doesn't necessitate complex database structures.

Options B, C, and D involve data that may have more

complex relationships or may require advanced querying
capabilities:

● Movie theater locations (Option B) may involve multiple

theaters, locations, showtimes, etc.
● Directions to a doctor's office (Option C) may involve
multiple addresses, locations, and other details.
● Store inventory (Option D) may have various product
details, quantities, pricing, and other attributes.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatamanagement/definiti
on/flat-
file#:~:text=A%20flat%20file%20consists%20of,data%20in
%20data%20warehousing%20projects.

41. Answer: C
Explanation:

A constraint in a relational database is a rule or condition

applied to a column or set of columns to ensure data
integrity. Constraints help enforce data accuracy and
consistency. In ensuring valid values for a column, the
specific type of constraint is often called a "check
constraint."

Options A, B, and D represent different concepts related to

relational databases:

● Schema: A schema is a logical container for database

objects, providing a way to organize and manage
database elements such as tables, views, and
procedures.
● Permissions: Permissions control the access and actions
that users or roles can perform on database objects.
While important for security, permissions are not
specifically related to ensuring valid values for a
column.
● Column: A column is a basic data storage unit in a
database table. While it contains the actual data, a
 constraint defines rules about what kind of data can be
stored in a column.
Therefore, a constraint (Option C) is the relational database
construct used to ensure valid values.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/constraints-on-relational-
database-
model/#:~:text=Relational%20database%20constraints%20
are%20rules,multi%2Dcolumn%20constraints%2C%20etc.

42. Answer: D
Explanation:

Recording findings is a vital aspect of IT support,

encompassing the documentation of issue details, resolution
steps, and pertinent information. Proper documentation
serves several purposes: it establishes a reference for future
occurrences of the issue, facilitates knowledge sharing
among IT personnel, assists in identifying patterns of issues
and potential systemic problems, and fulfills documentation
requirements for auditing and compliance purposes.

Options A, B, and C represent different actions that may not

be immediately necessary after solving the specific issue
described:

● Reboot the computer (Option A): While restarting might

 be a good practice in some cases, it is not the
immediate next step after solving the word processing
software issue.
● Reach out to other users (Option B): This is not the next
step in the resolution process unless there is reason to
believe the issue is widespread.
● Unplug the peripherals (Option C): If the word
processing software issue has been resolved,
disconnecting peripherals may not be necessary unless
there are specific reasons to do so.
Therefore, the technician's next step should be to document
the findings (Option D).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.futurelearn.com/info/courses/research-
project/0/steps/4053

43. Answer: C
Explanation:

Device files in an operating system serve as the main means

of providing coordination of hardware components. These
files represent physical or virtual devices such as disks,
printers, terminals, and more. They allow user programs and
system utilities to communicate with hardware devices
through standard input/output operations. By accessing
device files, the operating system can control and coordinate
the functioning of various hardware components. Therefore,
option C, "Device file," is the correct answer. Options A, B,
and D refer to other types of files commonly found in an
operating system but are not primarily responsible for
coordinating hardware components.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/understanding-the-
linux/0596005652/ch13s03.html

44. Answer: D
Explanation:

Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a common video interface

used to connect displays to workstations and other devices.
It provides a digital connection for transmitting high-quality
video signals. DVI connectors come in different variants,
including DVI-D (digital), DVI-A (analog), and DVI-I
(integrated digital and analog). DVI is commonly used for
connecting monitors, displays, and projectors to computers
and workstations.

Options A, B, and C represent different technologies that are

not typically used for connecting displays:

● USB (Option A): USB is commonly used for connecting

peripherals, such as printers or external storage
devices, but it is not a standard display interface.
● NFC (Option B): NFC (Near Field Communication) is a
 wireless communication technology used for short-
range data exchange between devices. It is not used for
connecting displays.
● DSL (Option C): DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a
broadband technology used for internet connectivity. It
is not used for connecting displays to workstations.
Therefore, the most likely choice for connecting a display to
a workstation is DVI (Option D).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/digital-visual-interface-dvi/

45. Answer: C
Explanation:

Linux is a prime example of an open-source operating

system. Being open source means that its source code is
freely available for anyone to study, modify, and distribute.
This allows a community of developers worldwide to
collaborate, contribute improvements, and customize the
operating system to their needs. Linux is known for its
versatility, stability, and widespread adoption across various
platforms, including servers, desktops, embedded systems,
and mobile devices. Options A, B, and D (Windows, macOS,
and iOS, respectively) are proprietary operating systems,
meaning their source code is not freely available for public
modification and distribution, unlike Linux.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.redhat.com/en/topics/linux/what-is-
linux#:~:text=Linux%20is%20a%20free%2C%20open,so%2
0under%20the%20same%20license.

46. Answer: D
Explanation:

A trademark is a form of intellectual property that protects

symbols, names, slogans, and other distinctive identifiers
associated with goods or services. A legally protected
slogan, often considered a brand's tagline or marketing
phrase, is typically registered as a trademark to prevent
others from using it in a way that may confuse consumers.

Options A, B, and C represent different intellectual property

concepts:

● Contracts are legal agreements between parties, and

while they may involve intellectual property rights, they
are not the primary mechanism for protecting a slogan.
● Patents protect inventions and processes and are not
typically associated with protecting slogans.
● Copyright protects original works of authorship, such as
literary works, music, and artistic creations. While it
may protect some forms of creative expression, it is not
the primary mechanism for protecting short phrases or
slogans.
Therefore, the intellectual property concept that best
represents a legally protected slogan of a business is a
Trademark (Option D).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.wolterskluwer.com/en/expert-insights/what-is-
a-trademark

47. Answer: D
Explanation:

A driver is software that allows the operating system to

communicate with and control a specific hardware device,
such as a printer. When a new printer is connected to a
workstation, the operating system may not install the
necessary driver by default. Installing the correct printer
driver is crucial for the system to recognize, configure, and
interact with the printer.

Options A, B, and C represent different considerations

related to the printer setup:

● Permissions are related to access control and security

but are not directly linked to the workstation's initial
recognition of a new printer.
● While ink cartridges are essential for the physical
printing process, the question is about the initial
recognition of the printer by the workstation, which is
more closely related to the driver.
 ● The USB cable is necessary to connect the printer and
workstation physically. However, the initial recognition
issue is likely due to the absence of the required driver.
Therefore, the workstation MOST likely needs a Driver
(Option D) for the printer to function properly.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-
hardware/drivers/gettingstarted/what-is-a-driver-

48. Answer: B
Explanation:

In a client-server application architecture, the processing

tasks are divided between a client and a server. In this case,
the client is the spreadsheet software used by the employee,
and the server is the remote database from which the
employee pulls data. The client (spreadsheet software)
requests data or services from the server (remote database),
and the server responds to these requests.

Options A, C, and D represent different application

architectures:

● A standalone application is a software application that

runs on a single computer without requiring a network
connection. The employee connects to a remote
database in this scenario, suggesting a network-based
architecture.
 ● While a web application is accessed through a web
browser, the scenario involves a client connecting to a
remote database, which is more characteristic of a
client-server architecture.
● A cloud application is hosted and runs on cloud
infrastructure, but the specific scenario does not
provide information about whether the remote database
is hosted in the cloud.
Therefore, the type of application architecture the employee
uses is a Client-server application (Option B).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.britannica.com/technology/client-server-
architecture#:~:text=client%2Dserver%20architecture%2C
%20architecture%20of,the%20results%20the%20server%20
returns.

49. Answer: D
Explanation:

The LED light indicating that the camera has power suggests
that it is receiving power. However, for an IP-based security
camera to function, it needs to be connected to the Internet
and communicate with the wireless router. Suppose Ann's
Internet connection or wireless router is still down due to
the power interruption caused by the rainstorm. In that case,
the camera won't be able to connect to the network, and Ann
may experience difficulty accessing or using the camera.
Options A, B, and C represent different possibilities, yet they
are less likely based on the information provided:

● The power interruption (Option A) may have affected

the camera briefly, but if the LED light indicates power,
it's less likely to be the main issue.
● Compatibility problems (Option B) are less likely if the
camera was working before the power interruption.
● Firmware updates (Option C) are important for
maintaining device functionality, but they are less likely
to be the immediate cause of the issue, especially after
a power interruption.
Therefore, the MOST likely problem in this scenario is that
Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router are still down
(Option D).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://info.verkada.com/security-cameras/ip-camera/

50. Answer: B
Explanation:

The concept exemplified in the scenario where new

applicants are required to submit a retina scan is
"Authentication." Authentication refers to the process of
verifying the identity of a user or entity, typically using
credentials, biometric information, or other methods. In this
case, the retina scan serves as a biometric authentication
method, as it uniquely identifies individuals based on the
characteristics of their retina patterns. By requiring a retina
scan, the regulation aims to ensure that the applicant's
identity is accurately verified before proceeding with any
legal queries or transactions. This helps prevent
unauthorized access and ensures the integrity and security
of the identification process.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/nonre
pudiation

51. Answer: A
Explanation:

When an application is installed in the cloud, the data

associated with that application is typically stored in cloud-
based storage systems. This provides several advantages,
including:

- Accessibility: Data can be accessed from anywhere with

an internet connection.

- Scalability: Cloud storage can easily scale to

accommodate growing data.

- Redundancy: Cloud storage often includes built-in

redundancy and backup mechanisms.
- Collaboration: Cloud storage facilitates collaboration as
multiple users can access and modify data.

Options B, C, and D represent statements that are not

generally true for cloud-based applications:

● Support may still be required for cloud applications,

depending on the complexity and specific requirements
of the application.
● Cloud applications often require a service, relying on
cloud infrastructure and services.
● Cloud applications typically require Internet access to
function and access cloud-based resources.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.intraway.com/blog/benefits-challenges-
deploying-platforms-in-the-cloud/

52. Answer: B
Explanation:

The "if" statement is a control structure in programming that

allows executing a block of code based on a condition. In this
case, the program must select based on an input, and the "if"
statement is commonly used for conditional branching.
Here's how you can use an If Statement for this scenario:

You can prompt the user to enter their choice using the
input() function.
You can use an If Statement to check the value of the input.

If the input is "apples", "oranges", or "bananas", it prints the

corresponding message.

If the input is none of these options, it prints an "Invalid

choice" message.

This structure allows the program to dynamically choose

between options based on the user's input.

Options A, C, and D represent different programming

concepts:

● A variable is a storage location associated with a

symbolic name, but it is not a control structure for
making selections.
● Datatype refers to the type of data that a variable can
hold and is not a control structure.
● A comment is a piece of text in the code that the
compiler or interpreter ignores and is used for
providing explanations or documentation.
Therefore, for selecting based on an input, the "if" statement
(Option B) is the most suitable programming structure.

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53. Answer: C
Explanation:
A UPS device provides battery backup during power outages
or fluctuations. Its primary purpose is to ensure that
connected electronic devices, such as computers and
servers, continue to receive power even when the main
power source is interrupted. This helps prevent data loss,
system shutdowns, and potential damage to sensitive
electronic equipment during a power outage.

Options A, B, and D represent different security concepts:

● A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt

to disrupt the normal functioning of a service or
network.
●A replay attack involves the unauthorized
retransmission of data to gain unauthorized access.
● Wiretapping refers to the interception of
communications or data transmission over a network.
Therefore, the primary safeguard provided by a UPS is
against Power outages.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/definition/uni
nterruptible-power-supply

54. Answer: A
Explanation:

An optical drive is a hardware component that reads and

writes data to optical discs, such as DVDs. You would need
an optical drive on your computer or a standalone DVD
player to watch training videos from a DVD. The optical
drive uses a laser to read the data stored on the DVD and
play the video content.

While hard disk drives, solid-state drives, and flash drives

are used for storing data, they are not designed for playing
optical discs like DVDs. Therefore, the optical drive (Option
A) is appropriate for watching training videos from a DVD.

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55. Answer: C
Explanation:

Transfer rates are typically measured in bits per second

(bps) or a higher unit such as Kilobits per second (Kbps),
Megabits per second (Mbps), or Gigabits per second (Gbps).

1.22 Gbps is the highest transfer rate among these options,

representing 1.22 billion bits per second. The higher the
transfer rate, the faster data can be transmitted over the
network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchunifiedcommunications/
definition/data-transfer-rate

56. Answer: D
Explanation:

"Force Quit" is the term used to describe terminating a

process that is not responding to user input in an operating
system. When a program becomes unresponsive or "hangs,"
it may not close through normal means, such as clicking the
close button. In such cases, the user can initiate a force quit
command, which forcibly terminates the unresponsive
process, allowing the user to regain control of the system.
Options A, B, and C (Hibernation, Synchronization, and
Interruption, respectively) refer to other concepts related to
operating systems but do not specifically describe the action
of terminating an unresponsive process.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/force-quit

57. Answer: C
Explanation:

In a relational database, a primary key is a field or a

combination of fields that uniquely identifies each record in
a table. It must contain unique values; no two records in the
table can have the same primary key. The primary key is
used to establish relationships between tables, ensuring data
integrity and providing a way to identify and retrieve records
uniquely.

Options A, B, and D represent different concepts:

● A foreign key is a field in a table that refers to the

primary key in another table, establishing a relationship
between the two tables.
● A public key is part of a key pair used in public-key
cryptography for secure communication.
● A private key is the counterpart to a public key in a key
pair used in public-key cryptography.
Therefore, the value that uniquely identifies a database
record is the Primary key (Option C).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatamanagement/definiti
on/relational-database

58. Answer: A
Explanation: SELECT is the command used to retrieve data
from a database.

In this case, the administrator can use the SELECT

command with a WHERE clause to filter data based on the
desired time criteria.
Options B (INSERT), C (DELETE), and D (UPDATE) are used
for inserting, deleting, and updating data, respectively, but
they do not retrieve data in the same way as the SELECT
command.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_select.asp

59. Answer: B
Explanation:

NFC is a short-range wireless communication technology

that allows devices to exchange information within
proximity, typically within a few centimeters (around 6
inches) or less.

NFC is commonly used for various applications, including

contactless payments, data transfer between devices, and
smart card functionalities.

● Infrared (Option A) and Bluetooth (Option C) also

enable wireless communication, but NFC is specifically
designed for very short-range communication, making it
suitable for close-proximity interactions.
● WiFi (Option D) typically operates over longer ranges
and is not limited to a 6-inch proximity.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchmobilecomputing/definiti
on/Near-Field-Communication

60. Answer: A
Explanation:

A kilobyte (KB) is a unit of digital storage capacity. It

represents approximately 1,024 bytes. Kilobytes are
commonly used to measure the size of files, data, or memory
capacity in computing.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect because kilobytes are not

used to measure throughput, power, or processor speed.
Throughput is typically measured in bits per second (bps),
power in kilowatts (KW), and processor speed in kilohertz
(KHz) or gigahertz (GHz).

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te

61. Answer: B
Explanation:

Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can negatively impact

the strength and quality of wireless signals. Sources of EMI,
such as electronic devices, appliances, or other wireless
equipment, can disrupt the wireless communication signal.
By identifying and eliminating or minimizing sources of EMI
near the wireless access point, the wireless network's signal
strength and overall performance can be improved.

Options A, C, and D are not directly related to addressing

signal strength issues.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchmobilecomputing/definiti
on/electromagnetic-interference

62. Answer: A
Explanation:

A replay attack is a security attack where an unauthorized

user intercepts and retransmits data to gain unauthorized
access. In the context of confidentiality, a replay attack can
compromise sensitive information by intercepting and
replaying data that was originally transmitted in a secure
communication.

Options B, C, and D are not specifically associated with risks

to confidentiality:

● Denial-of-Service (Option B) and service outage (Option

C) are more related to availability, disrupting service
 access but not necessarily revealing confidential
information.
● Dumpster diving (Option D) involves physically
searching through discarded materials for information
but is not a network-based attack that directly
compromises confidentiality.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/replay-attack/

63. Answer: B and D

Explanation:

Copyright protects original works, including logos, granting

exclusive rights to reproduce, distribute, and display them.
Registering the logo strengthens legal protection.

Trademarks protect symbols, names, and slogans, identifying

and distinguishing goods or services. Registering the logo as
a trademark provides exclusive rights for its use in
connection with products or services.

Options A (Patent), C (NDA), and E (EULA) are not directly

applicable to logo protection.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/copyright.asp
 64. Answer: D
Explanation:

Unicode is a character encoding standard that includes

various characters from diverse writing systems worldwide.
It allows text representation in different languages and
scripts, making it suitable for internationalization.

ASCII (Option A) is a character encoding that primarily

represents text in the English language and does not support
international characters.

Octal (Option B) and Hexadecimal (Option C) are numbering

systems, not character encodings. They are often used in
computing to represent numbers in base-8 (octal) or base-16
(hexadecimal), but they are designed to handle something
other than international text.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/db2/11.5?topic=support-
unicode-character-
encoding#:~:text=The%20Unicode%20character%20encodi
ng%20standard,at%20www.unicode.org.

65. Answer: A
Explanation:
Documenting the solution and cause is the final step in the
troubleshooting process. It involves recording the steps
taken to resolve the issue, the solution implemented, and the
root cause of the problem. This documentation serves as a
reference for future troubleshooting, helps in knowledge
sharing, and contributes to the creation of a knowledge
base.

Options B, C, and D represent steps that may be performed

earlier in the troubleshooting process:

● Formulating a new theory of cause (Option B) may

occur if initial troubleshooting steps do not lead to a
resolution.
● Conducting online research on the problem (Option C)
is often an early step to gather information about the
issue.
● Implementing preventive measures (Option D) may be
part of the solution to avoid future occurrences of the
problem.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/troubleshooti
ng

66. Answer: D
Explanation:

A Type 1 hypervisor is a bare-metal hypervisor that runs

directly on the hardware without the need for an underlying
operating system. It provides virtualization capabilities,
allowing the management of multiple Virtual Machines
(VMs) and their associated resources, including storage and
network configurations.

Options A (storage area network), B (embedded OS), and C

(network-attached storage) are not specifically related to
hypervisors or the direct management of virtual machines.

● A storage area network (SAN) (Option A) typically

refers to a dedicated network for storage devices.
● An embedded OS (Option B) is an operating system
integrated into a device, often with a specific purpose.
● Network-attached storage (Option C) refers to a storage
device connected to a network for centralized data
access.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchitoperations/tip/Whats-
the-difference-between-Type-1-vs-Type-2-hypervisor

67. Answer: C and F

Explanation:

UNIX and Linux Operating Systems typically rely on the

file's content and permissions to determine its type and
executability rather than relying on file extensions. While
UNIX and Linux may execute files without relying on
extensions, file permissions and shebangs (#!) play a role in
determining whether a file can be executed.

In contrast, Windows operating systems (Options A, B, and

D) often use file extensions to identify the type of file and the
associated program to execute it.

Android (Option E) is built on the Linux kernel, and Linux-

based principles also apply to Android systems. However,
Android's application package files have the ".apk"
extension.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/linux-vs-unix/

68. Answer: A
Explanation:

Encryption is the process of converting data into a code to

prevent unauthorized access. Configuring encryption on a
laptop ensures that even if the laptop is stolen, the data on
the storage device remains unreadable without the
appropriate decryption key.

● Compression (Option B) is a technique used to reduce

the size of files but does not inherently secure or
protect data from unauthorized access.
● Permissions (Option C) control access to files and
folders but may not provide sufficient protection if the
 physical storage device is removed from the laptop.
● Auditing (Option D) involves tracking and logging
events but does not directly prevent access to data if
the laptop is stolen.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/encry
ption

69. Answer: C
Explanation:

Java is a compiled language. Java source code is first

compiled into bytecode, which is then executed by the Java
Virtual Machine (JVM).

Perl (Option A), JavaScript (Option B), and PowerShell

(Option D) are interpreted or scripting languages. They are
executed line by line or statement by statement without
requiring a separate compilation step.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_intro.asp

70. Answer: A
Explanation:
The error may be related to connectivity issues between the
user's device and the wireless printer. Confirming that both
devices are connected to the Local Area Network (LAN)
ensures they can communicate.

● Option B (Enable task scheduling) is unrelated to the

printing issue.
● Option C (Reset the proxy settings to their default
values) will not likely resolve a printing problem.
● Option D (Review the fault tolerance configurations) is
also irrelevant to printing to a wireless printer.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://medium.com/@askprinterexperts/printer-
connectivity-issues-51f3f2398277

71. Answer: D
Explanation:

Input: The process of entering data into the computer.

Process: The manipulation and processing of data by the
computer's central processing unit (CPU).
Output: The presentation of the processed data or results to
the user.
Storage: The capability of storing data for future use or
reference.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.thecomputingteacher.com/csc/index.php/sa-
d/hardware/input-output-processing-storage

72. Answer: B
Explanation:

Patching involves keeping the operating system, software,

and applications up-to-date with the latest security updates
and patches.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.myrasecurity.com/en/knowledge-hub/patch/

73. Answer: B
Explanation:

Storing output in memory (RAM) is the best option for

situations where data needs to be accessed quickly and does
not need to be persistent. Memory provides extremely fast
access times compared to other storage options such as flat
files, relational databases, or solid-state drives (SSDs). While
flat files, relational databases, and SSDs can be used for
storing data, they typically involve slower access times
compared to memory. However, it is important to note that
data stored in memory is volatile and will be lost when the
system is powered off, so it is not suitable for data that
needs to be retained permanently.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://statmath.wu.ac.at/courses/data-
analysis/itdtHTML/node55.html

74. Answer: A
Explanation:

Binary is a base-2 numeral system that uses combinations of

0s and 1s to represent information. In computing, binary is
often used to represent the two states "on" (1) or "off" (0),
corresponding to electrical switches or bits in digital
storage.

Options B, C, and D do not accurately describe binary's

primary use and nature in computing.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/base-2-numeral-system/

75. Answer: C
Explanation:
In Linux, the widely used equivalent of the Task Scheduler in
Windows is called "Cron." Cron is a time-based job scheduler
that allows users to schedule tasks to run automatically at
specified intervals or times. Users can define scheduled
tasks, known as cron jobs, by editing the cron configuration
files or using the "crontab" command-line utility. Cron is
commonly used for automating system maintenance tasks,
running backups, generating reports, and various other
repetitive tasks in Linux-based operating systems. Options A,
B, and D do not represent equivalents to the Task Scheduler
in Linux; they refer to other concepts or tools related to
system management in Linux environments.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.freecodecamp.org/news/cron-jobs-in-linux/

76. Answer: D
Explanation:

Multi-Factor Authentication involves using two or more

authentication factors from different categories to enhance
security.

Option D combines something the user has (smart card) with

something the user knows (PIN), combining two factors for
authentication.
Options A, B, and C involve single factors or factors from the
same category and do not meet the criteria for Multi-Factor
Authentication.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/multif
actor-authentication-MFA

77. Answer: A
Explanation:

An algorithm is a step-by-step set of instructions or a set of

rules for solving a specific problem or accomplishing a
specific task.

● Software (Option B) is a broader term encompassing a

collection of programs, routines, and data that perform
specific functions on a computer.
● Pseudocode (Option C) is an informal high-level
description of the operating principle of a computer
program or other algorithm.
● Flowchart (Option D) is a visual representation of a
process or algorithm using different shapes and arrows
to depict the steps and control flow.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

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 78. Answer: A and B
Explanation:

SMTP sends outgoing emails from a client to a server or

between servers.

Email clients use POP3 to retrieve emails from a server.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), DHCP

(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), ICMP (Internet
Control Message Protocol), and SFTP (Secure File Transfer
Protocol) are not directly involved in sending and receiving
emails.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/SMTP-
Simple-Mail-Transfer-
Protocol#:~:text=SMTP%20(Simple%20Mail%20Transfer%2
0Protocol)%20is%20a%20TCP%2FIP,with%20SMTP%20for
%20sending%20email.

79. Answer: C
Explanation:

Installing security software is a crucial step to protect the

system from malware, viruses, and other security threats.

● Confirming Internet connectivity (Option A) is

important but can be addressed as part of the overall
 system setup.
● Installing productivity software (Option B) is a user-
specific choice and might be less critical after the initial
setup.
● Adding additional user accounts (Option D) is a user-
specific action and may not be the immediate priority
after the initial setup.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.healthit.gov/topic/privacy-security-and-
hipaa/how-can-you-protect-and-secure-health-information-
when-using-mobile-device/6-install-and-enable-security-
software

80. Answer: C
Explanation:

Virtualization software allows the creation and operation of

virtual machines, enabling the simultaneous running of
multiple operating systems on a single physical computer.

● Telepresence (Option A) refers to technologies that

allow a person to feel as if they were present, to give
the appearance of being present, or to have an effect
via telerobotics at a place other than their true location.
● Cloud-based software (Option B) refers to applications
hosted in the cloud and accessed over the Internet.
● Productivity software (Option D) generally includes
applications like word processors, spreadsheets, and
presentation software, but it doesn't inherently enable
the operation of multiple operating systems.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchitoperations/definition/vi
rtualization

81. Answer: B
Explanation:

The manufacturer's official website is the most reliable and

secure source for obtaining hardware components' latest
and official drivers.

The manufacturer’s CD/DVD (Option A) might contain

drivers, but they could be outdated, and it's recommended to
check the official website for the latest versions.

Internet community support forums (Option C) and third-

party support websites (Option D) may provide drivers, but
their authenticity and safety are not guaranteed and may
carry risks. Official sources are preferred for driver updates.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://helpcenter.trendmicro.com/en-us/article/tmka-
11234#:~:text=Update%20Drivers%20with%20Device%20
Manager,-
Device%20Manager%20provides&text=Here's%20how%20t
o%20use%20it,click%20Search%20automatically%20for%20
drivers.
 82. Answer: A
Explanation:

Ensuring all connections are properly seated helps prevent

loose or disconnected cables, reducing the risk of tripping
hazards and maintaining a safe environment.

While securing loose cables using zip ties or Velcro straps

(Option C) is also important for cable management, the
immediate concern for physical safety is to make sure all
connections are securely in place.

Refraining from positioning other computers nearby (Option

B) and connecting all peripherals to the computer (Option D)
are not directly related to physical safety but may have other
considerations for functionality and organization.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/physi
cal-security

83. Answer: C
Explanation:

Using an outdated and unsupported web browser poses

significant security risks, especially when accessing sensitive
websites. Switching to an alternative browser still receiving
regular security updates will help ensure a more secure
browsing experience.

● Removing unused browser extensions and toolbars

(Option A) is a good practice for security but does not
address the core issue of an outdated browser.
● Upgrading the user's account to an admin level (Option
B) is not a solution to the browser's lack of security
updates and may introduce other security risks.
● Installing several anti-malware and firewall products
(Option D) is important. Still, the primary concern in
this case is the outdated and unsupported browser,
which should be replaced with a more secure
alternative.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.bitsight.com/blog/outdated-software-
issues#:~:text=One%20of%20the%20most%20common,%2C
%20data%20breaches%2C%20and%20more

84. Answer: A
Explanation:

RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for networking

purposes, particularly for Ethernet connections.

● RJ-11 connectors (Option B) are typically used for

telephone lines.
● IDE (Option C) is a connector used for connecting
storage devices like hard drives.
eSATA (Option D) is a connector for external SATA
 ● (Serial ATA) storage devices.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.tutorialspoint.com/what-are-connectors

85. Answer: D
Explanation:

A driver is software that allows the operating system to

communicate with and control hardware devices, such as a
scanner.

● A license key (Option A) is typically associated with

software licensing and is not directly related to the
scanner's functionality.
● An OS update (Option B) may include new drivers or
improvements, but the driver is the primary component
needed for the scanner.
● Firmware (Option C) is software embedded in the
hardware itself and may not require separate
installation for basic functionality. Drivers, however,
facilitate communication with the operating system.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/scanner

86. Answer: C
Explanation:
Compression software is used to reduce the size of files or
folders, making them more manageable for storage, transfer,
or backup.

● Desktop publishing (Option A) is software used for

creating documents with advanced formatting and
layout.
● Basic database (Option B) refers to software used for
managing simple databases.
● Anti-malware (Option D) is software designed to protect
against and remove malicious software.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.bobology.com/public/What-is-File-
Compression.cfm

87. Answer: B
Explanation:

A stylus pen is often used with touch screens to provide

more precise input compared to using fingers alone.

● A touchpad (Option A) is a separate pointing device

commonly found on laptops but is not used in
conjunction with touch screens.
● A joystick (Option C) and a trackball (Option D) are
input devices but are not typically employed alongside
touch screens for accuracy. They are more commonly
used in gaming and traditional pointing devices.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2352/stylus

88. Answer: C
Explanation:

RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory

used for temporary data storage during the operation of a
computer.

● The power supply (Option A) provides electrical power

to the components of the computer.
● The CPU (Option B) is the central processing unit
responsible for executing instructions, but it does not
store data on a temporary basis.
● The hard drive (Option D) is a type of non-volatile
storage used for long-term data storage.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory

89. Answer: D
Explanation:

System memory, often referred to as RAM (Random Access

Memory), is used for temporary storage of program data
while the computer is running. It is volatile memory,
meaning the data is erased when the computer is turned off.
 ● CPU (Option A) is the central processing unit
responsible for executing instructions, not for data
storage.
● SSD (Option B) and hard drive (Option C) are non-
volatile storage devices used for long-term data storage,
and their data persists even when the computer is
powered off.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory

90. Answer: A
Explanation:

Solid-State Drive (SSD) is a type of non-volatile storage used

for long-term data storage. It retains data even when the
computer is turned off.

● ESD (Option B) stands for Electrostatic Discharge,

which is a discharge of static electricity and is not
related to data storage.
● PSU (Option C) stands for Power Supply Unit, which
provides electrical power to the components but is not
used for data storage.
● RAM (Option D) stands for Random Access Memory,
and it is a volatile memory used for temporary data
storage during the operation of a computer.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/SSD-
solid-state-drive

91. Answer: D and E

Explanation:

Utilizing mixed case letters (Option D) makes the password

more complex and harder to guess, and including special
characters (Option E) adds additional complexity to the
password, making it more secure.

● Using personal identifiable information (Option A) is not

advisable, as it can be easily guessed or obtained.
● Employing the same password across multiple systems
(Option B) is risky because if one account is
compromised, others become vulnerable.
● Using a phrase that is easy to recall (Option C) might
make the password vulnerable to guessing or dictionary
attacks.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.webwise.ie/uncategorized/creating-strong-
passwords/

92. Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware typically requires user interaction to
propagate. It often involves the user unknowingly
downloading or opening a malicious attachment or link,
which then initiates the ransomware attack.

● Viruses (Option D) can also require user interaction to

propagate, as they often rely on the user running an
infected program or opening an infected file.
● Worms (Option A) are self-replicating and can spread
without user interaction.
● Adware (Option B) may display unwanted ads but
usually doesn't require explicit user interaction to
propagate.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/ranso
mware

93. Answer: A
Explanation:

When encountering compatibility or printing issues,

checking the printer manufacturer’s website is a logical
step. The website may provide updated drivers or
troubleshooting guides specifically tailored to the printer
model and its compatibility with the latest operating
systems.

● BIOS settings (Option B) are generally not related to

printer compatibility.
 ● Checking the laptop vendor’s website (Option C) may
provide general information but may not address
printer-specific issues.
● Power cord issues (Option D) are unlikely to be the
cause of printing problems, especially if the printer has
connectivity to the laptop.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/fix-printer-
connection-and-printing-problems-in-windows-fb830bff-7702-
6349-33cd-9443fe987f73

94. Answer: A, C, and D

Explanation:

Speakers (Option A): Necessary for audio output to hear

participants in the video conference.

Microphone (Option C): Essential for audio input, allowing

the user to speak and be heard during the video conference.

Webcam (Option D): Required for video input, allowing

others to see the user during the video conference.

The other options are not typically necessary for video

conferencing.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://resources.owllabs.com/blog/video-conferencing
 95. Answer: A and D
Explanation:

Scan and email (Option A): This method allows for quick
digitalization of the document, and the user can receive it
instantly via email.

Fax (Option D): Faxing provides a relatively fast way to

transmit a physical document to a remote location, although
it involves sending a duplicate rather than a digital copy.

The other options are less rapid.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/file-transfer

96. Answer: D
Explanation:

Configuring the browser to clear history upon exit (Option

D) is a privacy measure that ensures the browsing history,
including visited websites, passwords, and other details, is
automatically deleted when the browser is closed. This way,
each user (Ann and Joe) would not be able to see the
Internet activity of the other user on the shared account.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.groovypost.com/howto/automatically-delete-
browsing-history-chrome/

97. Answer: D
Explanation:

The main function of a computer's case fan is to improve

airflow through the case (Option D). It helps dissipate heat
generated by various components inside the computer, such
as the CPU, GPU (video card), and other hardware
components. By moving air through the case, the fan helps
prevent overheating and ensures that components operate
within their temperature limits. While individual components
like the CPU and GPU may have their dedicated fans for
cooling, the case fan contributes to overall system
ventilation.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://sofasco.com/blogs/article/pc-cooling-a-guide-to-
configuring-computer-case-
fans#:~:text=Case%20fans%20play%20a%20pivotal,and%2
0warm%20air%20is%20expelled

98. Answer: B
Explanation:

To connect a user's computer to the network, a technician

would typically install an Ethernet card (Option B). An
Ethernet card, also known as a network interface card
(NIC), is a hardware component that allows a computer to
connect to a local area network (LAN) or the internet via an
Ethernet cable. It facilitates communication between the
computer and the network by providing the necessary
hardware interface for data transmission.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://edu.gcfglobal.org/en/computerbasics/connecting-to-
the-internet/1/

99. Answer: C and D

Explanation:

The most effective strategies for securely backing up data to

prepare for potential natural disasters include utilizing
cloud-based backup solutions and encrypting all backup
copies. Cloud-based backup services store data off-site in
secure data centers, reducing the risk of loss from local
disasters. These providers offer features such as data
encryption, versioning, and redundancy, enhancing data
security and facilitating recovery. Additionally, encrypting all
backup copies adds a further layer of protection,
safeguarding data from unauthorized access, even if the
physical storage medium is compromised. This encryption
measure not only bolsters security but also ensures privacy
for sensitive information.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definiti
on/natural-disaster-recovery

100. Answer: B
Explanation:

Sleep mode or standby mode for a computer is characterized

by low energy usage while keeping the session data stored in
RAM. In sleep mode, the computer reduces power
consumption by entering a low-power state, and the RAM
retains the active session data. This allows the computer to
quickly resume normal operation when awakened, as the
data in RAM is still intact. Sleep mode is an energy-saving
feature that provides a balance between power conservation
and quick accessibility.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.quora.com/How-does-RAM-work-in-sleep-mode-
and-hibernate-mode
 101. Answer: C
Explanation:

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) supports both

high-definition video and audio in a single cable. It is a
widely used interface for connecting devices such as TVs,
monitors, Blu-ray players, gaming consoles, and audio-visual
receivers. HDMI can carry both video and audio signals,
providing a convenient and high-quality connection for
multimedia content.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/HDMI#:~:tex
t=HDMI%20cables%20connect%20these%20devices,signals
%20over%20a%20single%20cable

102. Answer: D
Explanation:

Ransomware is malicious software that encrypts a user's

files and demands payment (usually in cryptocurrency) in
exchange for the decryption key. The user is typically
threatened with the permanent loss of their files if they do
not pay the ransom. Ransomware is designed to extort
money from victims by holding their data hostage.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/types-
of-malware

103. Answer: B
Explanation:

Deactivating autofill of forms and passwords minimizes the

risk of sensitive passwords being compromised while
browsing the Internet. Autofill features can inadvertently
expose passwords, particularly when multiple users access
the computer or if it falls into the wrong hands. Disabling
autofill gives users more control over when and where their
passwords are entered.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-
center/definitions/data-breach

104. Answer: B
Explanation:

Bluetooth sharing is a wireless communication method that

allows devices in close proximity to exchange data, such as
contacts, without the need for an internet connection. It is a
simple and convenient method for sharing information
between mobile devices.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/bluetooth/

105. Answer: B
Explanation:

When configuring a new desktop, the initial step is typically

to plug in the necessary cables to connect the desktop to
power, display, and any other peripherals. This ensures that
the desktop has the required physical connections before
proceeding with other configurations, such as user accounts,
security software, or network settings.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://techvera.com/how-to-set-up-and-configure-a-new-
computer/

106. Answer: C
Explanation:

Automatic updates enable vendor-controlled updates that

are applied automatically to the operating system or
applications. This approach minimizes user interaction and
enhances security by ensuring that the latest patches and
security updates are installed promptly.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchenterprisedesktop/defini
tion/patch-management

107. Answer: A
Explanation:

Password complexity is considered a best practice because it

makes passwords more challenging for attackers to crack.
Complex passwords typically include a combination of
uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special
characters, making them more resistant to brute-force and
dictionary attacks.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.pluralsight.com/blog/security-
professional/modern-password-guidelines

108. Answer: C
Explanation:

If the URL in the email doesn't match the displayed text and
appears to be a string of random characters, it could be a
phishing attempt or a malicious link. The best action is to err
on the side of caution and avoid clicking on the link.
Removing the email without clicking on the link helps
prevent potential security risks associated with malicious
URLs.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/phishi
ng

109. Answer: C
Explanation:

Random Access Memory (RAM) functions as temporary

storage for computer operations. It is used to store data and
machine code currently being used and processed by the
computer's CPU. Data in RAM is volatile, meaning it is lost
when the computer is powered off.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory

110. Answer: D
Explanation:

Understanding computers all around us and having

knowledge of their functioning is referred to as Computer
Literacy. Computer literacy involves the ability to use and
understand computers, software applications, and other
related technologies.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.igi-global.com/dictionary/native-or-novice/5049

111. Answer: B
Explanation:

The four phases of the computing process are Input,

Processing, Output, and Storage. These represent the
fundamental operations performed by a computer:

● Input: Entering data into the computer.

● Processing: Performing operations on the input data.
● Output: Displaying or presenting the results of
processing.
● Storage: Saving data for future use.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/information-
processing-
cycle#:~:text=The%20sequence%20of%20events%20in,acq
uisition%2C%20data%20entry%20and%20validation

112. Answer: C
Explanation:

The device indicates that it has acknowledged your

processing request through the output. In the computing
process, after the input is processed, the results are
presented or displayed as output. This could be in the form
of information on a screen, a printed document, or some
other visible or tangible representation of the processed
data.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.thecomputingteacher.com/csc/index.php/sa-
d/hardware/input-output-processing-storage

113. Answer: A
Explanation:

The incorporation of applications (apps) into a general

computing device enhances its functionality. Applications
add specific features, capabilities, or functions to the device,
expanding its utility and allowing users to perform various
tasks or activities.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.simplilearn.com/tutorials/programming-
tutorial/what-is-application-software
 114. Answer: C
Explanation:

LAN stands for Local Area Network, which refers to a

collection of computers or other network devices in close
proximity, typically within the same building or geographic
area. In a LAN, devices can exchange information and
resources easily.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/feature/7-
types-of-networks-and-their-use-
cases#:~:text=Local%20area%20network,in%20a%20large
%20company%20office

115. Answer: A
Explanation:

Servers that enable access to applications not locally

installed for local users are often referred to as "online
applications." These applications are hosted on remote
servers, and users can access them over a network, such as
the Internet or a LAN, without having to install the
applications on their local devices.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsoftwarequality/definitio
n/Web-application-Web-app

116. Answer: A
Explanation:

A thermostat is a device that controls the temperature of a

room or building. It is not a dedicated computing device
because it does not have a general-purpose processor and
operating system. It has a specialized processor and
firmware that are designed to perform a single task:
controlling the temperature.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://stigstud.files.wordpress.com/2009/11/2-8-dedicated-
computer-systems-_-student-notes.pdf

117. Answer: C
Explanation:

In modern computers, the motherboard plays a crucial role

in coordinating various components, including the CPU
(Central Processing Unit) and the clock chip responsible for
regulating the system's clock speed. The CPU communicates
with the motherboard to relay the required clock speed, and
the motherboard, in turn, instructs the clock chip to adjust
accordingly. This ensures that the system's clock speed
matches the requirements of the CPU, allowing for optimal
performance and synchronization of system operations.
Therefore, the motherboard is the component responsible
for facilitating communication between the CPU and the
clock chip, ensuring efficient operation of the computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/motherboard

118. Answer: A
Explanation:

A laser printer uses a fine powder-like substance called

toner to produce images on paper. The toner is attracted to a
charged image on a rotating drum and is then transferred
and fused onto the paper to create the final print.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/laser-printer

119. Answer: D
Explanation:
Among the given options, RAM (Random Access Memory) is
the most user-configurable part of the system memory setup.
RAM is volatile memory that temporarily stores data and
program instructions that are actively being used by the
CPU. Unlike ROM (Read-Only Memory), which typically
stores firmware and cannot be easily modified by users,
RAM allows users to adjust its configuration by adding or
removing modules (DIMMs) or adjusting settings in the
system BIOS/UEFI. Users can upgrade RAM capacity,
change memory timings, and adjust other parameters to
optimize system performance based on their needs. Options
A, B, and C (ROM, Cache Memory, and Virtual Memory,
respectively) may have some user-configurable aspects in
certain scenarios, but they are generally less configurable
compared to RAM.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory

120. Answer: A
Explanation:

Operating systems are responsible for managing hardware

resources, providing a user interface, and coordinating the
execution of software applications. However, they do not
directly coordinate software applications. Instead, they
provide an environment in which applications can
communicate and interact with each other.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/operating-
system-OS

121. Answer: A and C

Explanation:

Bluetooth and Near Field Communication (NFC) are both

wireless communication technologies.

1. Bluetooth: It is a wireless technology standard for

exchanging data over short distances. It is commonly used
for connecting devices such as smartphones, headphones,
and speakers to each other.

2. NFC (Near Field Communication): NFC is a set of

communication protocols that enable two electronic devices,
one of which is usually a portable device such as a
smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them
within 4 cm (1.6 inches) of each other.

Both Bluetooth and NFC provide wireless connectivity,

making them suitable options for short-range communication
between devices.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchmobilecomputing/definiti
on/wireless

122. Answer: A
Explanation:

WPA2 is an improved and more secure version compared to

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and provides strong
encryption for wireless networks. It is currently considered a
standard and secure choice for protecting Wi-Fi networks
from unauthorized access.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.gartner.com/en/information-
technology/glossary/wpa2-wi-fi-protected-access-
2#:~:text=Wi%2DFi%20Protected%20Access%202%20(WP
A2)%20is%20the%20final,the%20Wi%2DFi%20certification
%20process.

123. Answer: A
Explanation:

A relational database is composed of columns and rows

containing numerical or text data. It organizes data into
tables with rows representing records and columns
representing attributes or fields. The relationships between
tables are established based on common data elements,
providing a structured and efficient way to store and retrieve
information.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatamanagement/definiti
on/relational-database

124. Answer: C
Explanation:

For someone who is 20 years old, they would fall into the
category "Adult" based on the provided logic. The conditions
are checked in sequence, and once a condition is met, the
corresponding category is assigned. In this case, the first
condition checks if the age is less than 20, but since the
person is 20, this condition is not met. The next condition
checks if the age is less than 65, and since 20 is less than 65,
the category "Adult" is assigned.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_if.asp
 125. Answer: B
Explanation:

A general-purpose computing device can perform various

tasks and is not limited to specific functions. Among the
options provided, the smartphone is considered a general-
purpose computing device as it can run a variety of
applications and perform diverse tasks beyond its primary
functions.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/general-
purpose-
computer#:~:text=A%20general%2Dpurpose%20computer
%20is,examples%20of%20general%2Dpurpose%20computer
s.

126. Answer: D
Explanation:

To achieve the highest resolution, you should select HDMI

(High-Definition Multimedia Interface). HDMI supports both
high-definition video and audio, making it suitable for
delivering superior video quality.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/HDMI
 127. Answer: A
Explanation:

The CPU, or Central Processing Unit, is the primary

component responsible for executing instructions in a
computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/processor

128. Answer: B
Explanation:

RAM serves as temporary storage in a computer, holding

data and instructions that are actively being used or
processed by the CPU (Central Processing Unit). Unlike
long-term storage devices such as hard drives or SSDs (Solid
State Drives), RAM is volatile memory, meaning its contents
are lost when the computer is powered off. RAM is essential
for providing fast access to data and programs during the
computer's operation, enabling efficient execution of tasks
and programs.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory

129. Answer: B
Explanation:

System software manages hardware resources and provides

a user interface for interacting with the computer system. It
includes operating systems like Windows, macOS, and Linux,
which control the hardware resources of the computer and
provide a platform for running application software. System
software also includes device drivers that facilitate
communication between hardware devices and the operating
system, ensuring proper functionality. Additionally, system
software often includes utilities for system maintenance,
optimization, and security.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.simplilearn.com/tutorials/programming-
tutorial/what-is-system-
software#:~:text=System%20software%20is%20a%20progr
am,with%20a%20computer's%20operating%20system

130. Answer: C
Explanation:
An Operating System (OS) serves multiple purposes. It
manages hardware resources such as CPU, memory, and
peripherals to ensure efficient utilization. Additionally, the
OS provides a user interface, allowing users to interact with
the computer system and run various applications.
Therefore, both options A and B are correct.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/operating-
system-OS

131. Answer: B
Explanation:

The acronym "URL" stands for "Uniform Resource Locator."

A Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a web address that

specifies the location of a resource on the internet. It
typically consists of several components, including the
protocol (such as "http" or "https"), the domain name (or IP
address) of the server hosting the resource, and optionally,
the path to the specific resource on that server. URLs are
commonly used to access web pages, files, or other
resources on the World Wide Web.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/U
RL

132. Answer: B
Explanation:

Switch operates at Layer 2 and uses MAC addresses to

forward data within a local network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/sw
itch

133. Answer: B
Explanation:

A firewall is a network security device or software that

monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and decides
whether to allow or block specific traffic based on
predefined security rules. Its primary function is to protect a
network by controlling access to and from the network and
preventing unauthorized users or malicious software from
gaining access to the network resources. While firewalls may
have additional features such as intrusion detection and
prevention, their main purpose is to monitor and control
network traffic to enhance security.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/firew
all#:~:text=A%20firewall%20is%20a%20network,or%20a%2
0virtual%20private%20cloud.

134. Answer: B
Explanation:

.zip is a common file extension for compressed archives.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/zip-command-in-linux-with-
examples/

135. Answer: A
Explanation:

An IP (Internet Protocol) address is a unique numerical label

assigned to each device connected to a computer network
that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. The
primary purpose of an IP address is to identify and locate
devices on a network, enabling them to communicate with
each other over the internet or a local network. IP addresses
play a crucial role in routing data packets to their intended
destinations across networks.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/IP-address-
Internet-Protocol-Address

136. Answer: C
Explanation:

A keyboard is used to input data into the computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.javatpoint.com/input-devices

137. Answer: B
Explanation:

A DNS (Domain Name System) server is responsible for

translating domain names (such as www.example.com) into
IP addresses (such as 192.0.2.1) that computers use to
identify each other on a network. DNS servers play a crucial
role in facilitating communication over the internet by
allowing users to access websites and other resources using
easy-to-remember domain names rather than complex IP
addresses. When a user enters a domain name into a web
browser, the DNS server resolves that domain name to the
corresponding IP address, enabling the browser to locate
and connect to the desired website or server.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/do
main-name-system

138. Answer: C
Explanation:

A Trojan horse is malware that appears to be legitimate

software but carries a hidden malicious payload.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Troja
n-horse

139. Answer: B
Explanation:

Routers forward data between different networks,

facilitating communication between them.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/ro
uter#:~:text=A%20router%20is%20a%20physical,a%20com
mon%20type%20of%20gateway.

140. Answer: A
Explanation:

Antivirus software is designed to detect and remove

malicious software (malware) from a computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/antivi
rus-software

141. Answer: B
Explanation:

PHP is a server-side scripting language commonly used for

creating dynamic web pages.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/PHP-
Hypertext-
Preprocessor#:~:text=PHP%20(Hypertext%20Processor)%2
0is%20a,a%20limited%20degree%2C%20desktop%20applica
tions.

142. Answer: A
Explanation:

HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language and is used

for creating web pages.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/html-introduction/

143. Answer: B
Explanation:

A UPS provides a temporary power source during electrical

outages, preventing data loss and system shutdowns.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/definition/uni
nterruptible-power-supply

144. Answer: B
Explanation:
A full backup makes a copy of all selected files, regardless of
whether they have changed.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatabackup/definition/F
ull-
Backup#:~:text=A%20full%20backup%20is%20the,or%20ot
her%20data%20protection%20specialist.

145. Answer: C
Explanation:

The BIOS boots the computer and initializes essential

hardware components during the startup process.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/BIOS-basic-
input-output-
system#:~:text=BIOS%20(basic%20input%2Foutput%20sys
tem)%20is%20the%20program%20a,%2C%20keyboard%2C
%20mouse%20and%20printer.

146. Answer: B
Explanation:
Near Field Communication (NFC) is a wireless technology
used for short-range data exchange between devices.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://developer.android.com/develop/connectivity/nfc#:~:
text=Near%20Field%20Communication%20(NFC)%20is,Tag
s%20can%20range%20in%20complexity.

147. Answer: A
Explanation:

To make storage space on a disk available to the Windows

OS, two main configurations are required: the file system
and the partition table.

1. File system: This is the structure used to organize and

manage data on the disk. Windows supports various file
systems such as NTFS (New Technology File System),
FAT32 (File Allocation Table 32), and exFAT (Extended File
Allocation Table). The file system determines how data is
stored, accessed, and managed on the disk.

2. Partition table: The partition table defines the layout of

the disk and divides it into separate sections called
partitions. Each partition can then be formatted with a file
system to store data. Common partition table formats
include Master Boot Record (MBR) and GUID Partition Table
(GPT), with GPT being the newer and more flexible option.

Together, the file system and partition table configuration

enable the Windows OS to effectively manage and utilize
storage space on the disk. Options B, C, and D do not
accurately describe the configurations necessary for making
storage space available to the Windows OS.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://dongknows.com/disk-partition-and-file-system-
explained/

148. Answer: B
Explanation:

Read-Only Memory (ROM) retains data even when the power

is turned off, typically storing firmware and essential system
instructions.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

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memory-
ROM#:~:text=Read%2Donly%20memory%2C%20or%20RO
M,time%20it%20is%20turned%20on.
 149. Answer: A
Explanation:

User Account Control (UAC) is the protection feature in

Windows designed to prevent scripts or software from
making unauthorized changes to the operating system
configuration. UAC works by prompting users for permission
or an administrator password before allowing applications to
make changes that require elevated privileges. This helps
prevent malicious software from making unauthorized
modifications to system settings or files without the user's
knowledge or consent. Options B, C, and D (Windows
Defender Firewall, Windows Update, and BitLocker Drive
Encryption, respectively) are security features in Windows
but do not specifically address preventing unauthorized
changes to the OS configuration like UAC does.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-
us/windows/security/application-security/application-
control/user-account-
control/#:~:text=In%20this%20article&text=User%20Accou
nt%20Control%20(UAC)%20is,approve%20or%20deny%20th
e%20change.

150. Answer: B
Explanation:

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used for sending

emails.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/SMTP-
Simple-Mail-Transfer-
Protocol#:~:text=SMTP%20(Simple%20Mail%20Transfer%2
0Protocol)%20is%20a%20TCP%2FIP,with%20SMTP%20for
%20sending%20email.

151. Answer: C
Explanation:

The data type "int" stands for integer, which provides for
whole numbers only. In programming languages such as C,
C++, Java, and others, integers are used to represent whole
numbers without any fractional or decimal part. They can be
both positive and negative whole numbers within a specific
range defined by the programming language. Options A
(float) and B (double) are floating-point data types, which
can represent both whole numbers and numbers with
fractional parts. Option D (char) represents a single
character.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/informix-servers/14.10?
topic=types-integer-data-
type#:~:text=The%20INTEGER%20data%20type%20stores,
%2C%20quantities%2C%20and%20so%20on.

152. Answer: C
Explanation:

Java is a programming language commonly used for

developing applications and software.

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https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_intro.asp

153. Answer: D
Explanation:

Unicode is the data representation format that can encode

the widest range of characters. It is a universal character
encoding standard that aims to represent every character
from every language and symbol system in the world.
Unicode can encode characters from various writing
systems, including Latin, Cyrillic, Greek, Arabic, Chinese,
Japanese, and many others. It supports over a million
distinct characters by allocating a unique code point to each
character. Options A (ASCII), B (UTF-8), and C (Binary) are
also data representation formats, but they have limitations in
encoding characters compared to Unicode. ASCII, for
example, can only represent characters from the English
alphabet and a few symbols. UTF-8 is a variable-width
encoding scheme that can represent characters from
multiple languages but is more limited in scope compared to
Unicode. Binary is a base-2 numeral system that is not
specifically designed for encoding characters.

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https://www.csfieldguide.org.nz/en/chapters/data-
representation/text/#:~:text=Unicode%20is%20a%20charac
ter%20set,it%20is%20a%20character%20set.

154. Answer: A
Explanation:

A patent is the type of legal protection that could be

obtained for a novel software algorithm. A software
algorithm may be eligible for a patent if it meets certain
criteria, such as being novel, non-obvious, and useful. By
obtaining a patent for a software algorithm, the inventor
gains exclusive rights to use, make, sell, and distribute the
algorithm for a limited period, typically 20 years from the
date of filing. This protection allows the patent holder to
prevent others from using the patented algorithm without
permission. Options B (Trademark), C (Copyright), and D
(Trade secret) refer to other types of intellectual property
protection, but they are not specifically applicable to the
protection of a novel software algorithm. Trademarks protect
brand names, logos, and symbols; copyrights protect original
works of authorship, such as literary or artistic creations;
and trade secrets protect confidential and proprietary
information.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://patentpc.com/blog/how-to-protect-algorithms-using-
utility-patents/

155. Answer: B
Explanation:

Antivirus software is designed to detect and remove

malicious programs, such as viruses and malware.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/antivi
rus-software

156. Answer: A
Explanation:
Digital Rights Management (DRM) is the data protection
technology that could be implemented to restrict the type of
activity that users could employ on digital products they
have purchased or rented. DRM systems are used to control
access to digital content and enforce usage restrictions set
by content owners or distributors. By implementing DRM,
content providers can apply various restrictions, such as
limiting the number of devices on which the content can be
accessed, restricting copying or sharing of the content, and
enforcing expiration dates for rental content. Options B
(Encryption), C (Firewall), and D (Antivirus) are also data
protection technologies, but they are not specifically
designed for managing and enforcing usage restrictions on
digital products like DRM is. Encryption secures data by
encoding it so that only authorized parties can access it,
firewalls control network traffic, and antivirus software
protects against malware.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/digital-
rights-management-
drm#:~:text=Digital%20rights%20management%20(DRM)%
20is,it%20to%20a%20computer%20program.

157. Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud computing provides on-demand access to a shared
pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage,
networks, and applications, that can be rapidly provisioned
and released with minimal management effort or service
provider interaction. This scalability allows users to access
resources as needed, scaling them up or down according to
their requirements, rather than having to invest in and
manage physical infrastructure locally.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definitio
n/cloud-computing

158. Answer: B
Explanation:

Spreadsheet software, such as Microsoft Excel or Google

Sheets, is designed primarily for creating, organizing, and
manipulating tables of numerical data. Users can input data
into cells, perform calculations, create charts and graphs,
and analyze data using various built-in functions and
formulas. While modern spreadsheet software may have
additional features, such as basic image editing capabilities,
playing music, or connecting to the internet are not primary
functions of spreadsheet software.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/spreadsheet

159. Answer: C
Explanation:

The ZIP format is commonly used for compressed archives,

reducing file size for easier storage and transmission.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/zip-command-in-linux-with-
examples/

160. Answer: B
Explanation:

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) encrypts data transmitted

over a network, ensuring secure communication.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/vir
tual-private-network

161. Answer: C
Explanation:
Solid State Drives (SSDs) are the type of component that
provides persistent storage. Unlike RAM (Random Access
Memory), which is volatile and loses its data when power is
removed, SSDs retain data even when power is turned off.
SSDs use non-volatile memory chips to store data, allowing
them to serve as a reliable storage medium for saving files,
operating system installations, and other data that needs to
persist over time. Options A (RAM), B (CPU), and D (Cache
Memory) are all types of memory components, but they are
volatile and do not provide persistent storage like SSDs do.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/SSD-
solid-state-drive

162. Answer: C
Explanation:

The motherboard is the computer component that is most

restrictive in terms of determining upgrade potential for a
desktop computer. The motherboard serves as the main
circuit board of the computer, providing the platform for
connecting various components such as the CPU, RAM,
graphics card, storage devices, and more. The upgrade
potential of a desktop computer is often limited by the
compatibility of its components with the motherboard. If a
motherboard does not support newer CPUs, higher amounts
of RAM, faster storage interfaces, or advanced graphics
cards, it can severely restrict the upgrade options for the
system. While other components like the CPU, RAM, and
graphics card can also influence upgrade potential, the
motherboard's compatibility and support for newer
technologies play a central role in determining the overall
upgradeability of a desktop computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/motherboard
#:~:text=A%20motherboard%20is%20the%20main,especiall
y%20desktop%20and%20laptop%20PCs.

163. Answer: A
Explanation:

A proxy server can increase Internet speed by caching

frequently accessed content and reducing the load on the
network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/proxy-server

164. Answer: D
Explanation:

While HTML is not a programming language, it is commonly

used for structuring web content. For web development,
languages like JavaScript, CSS, and others are often used in
conjunction with HTML.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.w3schools.com/html/html_intro.asp

165. Answer: B
Explanation:

A heat sink is the type of component that provides a passive

cooling solution. A heat sink is a passive cooling device that
dissipates heat away from a component, such as a CPU or
GPU, by transferring it to the surrounding air. Heat sinks are
typically made of metal and feature a large surface area with
fins or other structures to increase heat dissipation. Unlike
fans or liquid coolers, which actively move air or liquid to
cool components, heat sinks rely solely on conduction and
convection to dissipate heat. While fans and liquid coolers
are also crucial components in cooling systems, heat sinks
provide a passive cooling solution that can effectively
dissipate heat in environments where active cooling methods
may not be feasible or desired.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.trentonsystems.com/blog/what-is-a-heat-sink

166. Answer: C
Explanation:

The Transport layer (Layer 4) is responsible for error

detection and correction, ensuring reliable end-to-end
communication.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/Tr
ansport-layer

167. Answer: B
Explanation:

In the IPv4 addressing scheme, Class B IP addresses are

defined by the range of addresses where the first two octets
(16 bits) represent the network portion of the address, and
the remaining two octets (16 bits) represent the host
portion. This allows for a significantly larger number of hosts
compared to Class A addresses.
The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 corresponds to a Class B
network because it indicates that the first two octets (16
bits) represent the network portion of the address, while the
last two octets (16 bits) represent the host portion. This
subnet mask allows for a maximum of 65,536 hosts on each
of the Class B networks. Therefore, option B (255.255.0.0) is
the correct choice for the subnet mask associated with the
Class B IP address range.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/IPv4-address-
class#:~:text=Class%20B%20IP%20addresses%2C%20wher
e,and%2016%20bits%20for%20hosts.

168. Answer: A
Explanation:

DHCP servers dynamically assign IP addresses to devices on

a network, simplifying network configuration.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/D
HCP

169. Answer: C
Explanation:

Phishing involves tricking individuals into disclosing

sensitive information by posing as a trustworthy entity.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/phishi
ng#:~:text=Phishing%20is%20a%20type%20of,messages%2
C%20to%20reveal%20sensitive%20information.

170. Answer: D
Explanation:

RAID 10 combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0)

for improved fault tolerance and performance.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAID-
10-redundant-array-of-independent-
disks#:~:text=RAID%2010%2C%20also%20known%20as,fu
nctional%2C%20data%20can%20be%20retrieved.

171. Answer: D
Explanation:
PHP is a server-side scripting language commonly used for
web development.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/PHP-
Hypertext-
Preprocessor#:~:text=PHP%20(Hypertext%20Processor)%2
0is%20a,a%20limited%20degree%2C%20desktop%20applica
tions.

172. Answer: C
Explanation:

IDS monitors network or system activities and alerts

administrators to potential security threats.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/intrusion-detection-system-
ids/

173. Answer: B
Explanation:

APIs allow different software components to communicate

and interact with each other.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchapparchitecture/definitio
n/application-program-interface-API

174. Answer: B
Explanation:

WPA is more secure than WEP and provides stronger

encryption for wireless networks.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchmobilecomputing/definiti
on/Wi-Fi-Protected-
Access#:~:text=Wi%2DFi%20Protected%20Access%20(WPA
)%20is%20a%20security%20standard,original%20Wi%2DFi
%20security%20standard.

175. Answer: B
Explanation:

NAT allows multiple devices on a local network to share a

single public IP address.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-
address-
translation#:~:text=What%20Is%20NAT%3F,as%20do%20
most%20home%20routers.

176. Answer: C
Explanation:

Ext4 is a widely used file system in Linux distributions.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://opensource.com/article/17/5/introduction-ext4-
filesystem

177. Answer: C
Explanation:

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is a secure

version of HTTP used for encrypted communication.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.cloudflare.com/en-gb/learning/ssl/what-is-
https/

178. Answer: A
Explanation:

SaaS delivers software applications over the internet,

eliminating the need for local installations.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definitio
n/Software-as-a-Service

179. Answer: C
Explanation:

RAID 5 uses parity information to provide fault tolerance in

case of a disk failure.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAID-
5-redundant-array-of-independent-disks

180. Answer: C
Explanation:

IaaS is a public cloud service model that provides virtualized

computing resources over the Internet.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definitio
n/Infrastructure-as-a-Service-IaaS

181. Answer: C
Explanation:

USB (Universal Serial Bus) is the most common type of

connector used for connecting external devices to a
computer, such as external hard drives, flash drives,
printers, and scanners.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.lifewire.com/what-is-a-usb-port-818166

182. Answer: A
Explanation:

Random Access Memory (RAM) is temporary storage that

loses its contents when the computer is turned off. Read-
Only Memory (ROM) is permanent storage that retains its
contents even when the computer is turned off.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/RAM-
random-access-memory
 183. Answer: D
Explanation:

Wired networks use physical cables such as Ethernet cables

to connect devices, while wireless networks use radio waves
to transmit data between devices.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/wired-and-wireless-
networking/

184. Answer: A
Explanation:

Cloud services provide users with access to applications and

data through the internet, eliminating the need for local
storage and software installations.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchitchannel/definition/clou
d-services

185. Answer: A
Explanation:
A server is a computer or software program that provides
services or resources to other computers on a network. It is
typically a high-powered computer with specialized
hardware and software designed to handle requests and
deliver data or services to clients. On the other hand, a client
is a computer or device that requests and consumes
resources or services from a server. Clients are usually
smaller and less powerful devices that rely on servers to
perform certain tasks or provide access to resources such as
files, applications, or websites. Therefore, option A
accurately describes the difference between a server and a
client.

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https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/server

186. Answer: A
Explanation:

A domain name is a unique and memorable address that

users can type into a web browser to access a website.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.cloudflare.com/en-
gb/learning/dns/glossary/what-is-a-domain-name/
 187. Answer: C
Explanation:

Hubs are simple devices that broadcast data to all connected

devices, while switches are more intelligent devices that
learn the MAC addresses of connected devices and transmit
data only to the intended recipient.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/hu
b

188. Answer: A
Explanation:

Viruses are malicious programs that require a host program

to run and replicate. Worms are self-replicating programs
that can spread through networks without requiring a host
program.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/virus

189. Answer: B
Explanation:
A patch is a software update that fixes security
vulnerabilities and other problems in software. It is
important to apply patches regularly to keep software
protected from attacks and ensure optimal performance.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchenterprisedesktop/defini
tion/patch

190. Answer: C
Explanation:

Physical security focuses on protecting hardware and

equipment from unauthorized access, theft, and physical
damage. Data security focuses on protecting information
stored electronically from unauthorized access, disclosure,
modification, and destruction.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/physi
cal-
security#:~:text=Physical%20security%20is%20the%20prot
ection,%2C%20theft%2C%20vandalism%20and%20terroris
m.
 191. Answer: C
Explanation:

Disaster recovery planning involves developing a plan to

ensure that critical business functions can be restored
quickly and efficiently in the event of a disaster or system
failure.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definiti
on/disaster-recovery-plan?offer=quizITF102020

192. Answer: B
Explanation:

Backups are copies of data created regularly for disaster

recovery purposes. Archives are copies of data that are no
longer needed for regular operations but may be needed for
historical or legal reasons.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatabackup/definition/ba
ckup

193. Answer: B
Explanation:

Data encryption is a process that transforms data into an

unreadable format, protecting it from unauthorized access
and ensuring its confidentiality.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/encry
ption

194. Answer: A

Explanation:

Subnetting involves breaking a larger network into smaller,

more manageable subnetworks.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/introduction-to-subnetting/

195. Answer: C

Explanation:

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is considered insecure and

easily susceptible to attacks.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Wired
-Equivalent-
Privacy#:~:text=Wired%20Equivalent%20Privacy%20(WEP)
%20is,expected%20of%20a%20wired%20LAN.

196. Answer: A

Explanation:

SNMP agents collect and report information about network

devices to a management system.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/S
NMP

197. Answer: C

Explanation:

The ping command is used to test the reachability of a host

on an Internet Protocol (IP) network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/aix/7.2?topic=p-ping-
command

198. Answer: C

Explanation:

Normalization is the process of organizing data in a database

to reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.simplilearn.com/tutorials/sql-tutorial/what-is-
normalization-in-sql

199. Answer: A

Explanation:

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files

over a network, and FTPS (FTP Secure) can provide a secure
version.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/ftp-file-transfer-
protocol.asp#:~:text=File%20transfer%20protocol%20(FTP)
%20is,order%20to%20execute%20FTP%20transfers.
200. Answer: B

Explanation:

TRACERT is used to trace the route that packets take to

reach a destination on a network.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-au/topic/how-to-use-
tracert-to-troubleshoot-tcp-ip-problems-in-windows-
e643d72b-2f4f-cdd6-09a0-
fd2989c7ca8e#:~:text=The%20TRACERT%20diagnostic%20
utility%20determines,%2DLive%20(TTL)%20values.

201. Answer: D

Explanation:

Kotlin is a modern programming language used for Android

app development alongside Java.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.w3schools.com/KOTLIN/index.php

202. Answer: B
Explanation:

Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across

multiple servers to optimize resource utilization and prevent
server overload.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/performance/what-is-
load-balancing/

203. Answer: B

Explanation:

A DoS attack aims to overwhelm a network, making it

inaccessible to legitimate users.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.cloudflare.com/en-
gb/learning/ddos/glossary/denial-of-service/

204. Answer: C

Explanation:

Hypervisors host and manage virtual machines, allowing

multiple operating systems to run on a single physical
machine.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/hypervisor/

205. Answer: B

Explanation:

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a widely used

cryptographic algorithm for securing web communications
through HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure). AES is
a symmetric encryption algorithm that provides strong
security and efficiency, making it suitable for securing
sensitive data transmitted over the internet. It is used to
encrypt the data transmitted between the web server and
the client's web browser to ensure confidentiality and
integrity of the communication. Therefore, option B, AES, is
the correct choice for securing web communications through
HTTPS.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/RSA

206. Answer: A
Explanation:

Biometrics involves using physical characteristics such as

fingerprints or facial features for user authentication.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/biom
etrics

207. Answer: A

Explanation:

A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a "bare-metal

hypervisor," runs directly on the hardware of the physical
server and does not require a host operating system. It is
designed specifically for virtualization and provides direct
control over the hardware resources of virtual machines.
This type of hypervisor is typically used in enterprise
environments where optimal performance and resource
utilization are critical.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchitoperations/tip/Whats-
the-difference-between-Type-1-vs-Type-2-hypervisor?
offer=quizITF102020
208. Answer: D

Explanation:

Double Data Rate (DDR) is not a feature of a CPU. DDR

refers to a type of synchronous dynamic random-access
memory used in computer systems, particularly in RAM
modules. It is not a characteristic of the Central Processing
Unit (CPU).

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/tip/Improve
ments-in-CPU-features-help-shape-selection?
offer=quizITF102020

209. Answer: C

Explanation:

The chipset manages and controls the speed of a

motherboard's buses. The chipset is a set of integrated
circuits that manages communication between the CPU,
memory, and peripheral devices. It plays a crucial role in
coordinating data flow and controlling the speed at which
data travels between different components on the
motherboard, including buses. The chipset includes
components such as the Northbridge and Southbridge, each
with specific responsibilities in managing data transfer
within the system.

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offer=quizITF102020

210. Answer: B

Explanation:

Thunderbolt and Mini DisplayPort share identical physical

characteristics. In fact, Thunderbolt ports are designed to be
compatible with Mini DisplayPort devices. Thunderbolt
technology is an interface that can carry both data and video
signals, and it uses the same physical connector as Mini
DisplayPort.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/input-output-
I-O?offer=quizITF102020

211. Answer: B

Explanation:
A card reader is a device that reads CompactFlash (CF)
storage. CompactFlash is a type of flash memory storage
commonly used in digital cameras and other portable
electronic devices. Card readers are designed to read
various types of memory cards, including CompactFlash
cards, and allow users to transfer data between the memory
card and a computer.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/Comp
actFlash-card?offer=quizITF102020

212. Answer: A

Explanation:

If you have a PC with a 32-bit CPU, it can only run 32-bit

operating systems. A 32-bit CPU is not compatible with 64-
bit operating systems. However, it's worth noting that some
32-bit operating systems may be able to run on a 64-bit CPU,
but the reverse is not true. If you have a 64-bit CPU, you
have the flexibility to run both 32-bit and 64-bit operating
systems.

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https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/operating-
system-OS?offer=quizITF102020
213. Answer: C

Explanation:

Mandatory access control (MAC) is an OS configuration that

uses data labels to control resource access. In a MAC
system, each resource (such as files, processes, or devices)
and each user or process is assigned a label. These labels
determine the level of access that a user or process has to a
particular resource. The access control decisions are
typically made by the operating system based on these
mandatory labels, and users or processes cannot override
these controls.

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atory-access-control-MAC?offer=quizITF102020

214. Answer: A

Explanation:

Before downloading and installing additional software on a

new PC, it's advisable to install security software. Security
software includes antivirus and anti-malware programs that
help protect your computer from potential threats and
malicious software. This is an important step to ensure the
security and integrity of your system before adding more
applications.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/buyershandboo
k/Assess-endpoint-security-tools-to-fulfill-organizational-
needs?offer=quizITF102020

215. Answer: B

Explanation:

Indexing is a file property that can significantly speed up

searches for content within files. When a file system is
indexed, the operating system creates a data structure (an
index) that contains information about the content and
location of files on the disk. This allows the operating system
to quickly locate files and their contents during searches.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchstorage/definition/file-
system?offer=quizITF102020

216. Answer: B
Explanation:

A cellular internet connection is superior to wired and WiFi

connections in terms of mobility. Cellular connections, such
as those provided by mobile networks (3G, 4G, 5G), allow
users to access the internet from almost anywhere, as long
as there is cellular network coverage. This level of mobility is
not achievable with traditional wired connections (e.g.,
Ethernet) or limited-range WiFi connections.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/ba
ndwidth?offer=quizITF102020

217. Answer: C

Explanation:

Disabling the Bluetooth adapter on a laptop when it is not in

use is an example of device hardening. Device hardening
involves implementing measures to enhance the security of a
device, making it more resistant to potential threats. In this
case, by disabling Bluetooth when not in use, the user is
minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of
unauthorized access or exploitation through the Bluetooth
interface.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/mobile-
security

218. Answer: A

Explanation:

To protect your privacy, consider disabling features like

autofill forms. Autofill features store and automatically
populate information, such as usernames, passwords, and
personal details, which can pose a privacy risk if misused or
if someone gains unauthorized access to your device.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/autofill?
offer=quizITF102020

219. Answer: C

Explanation:

Disaster recovery is a type of contingency plan that is

specific to an IT system or service. It involves the processes,
policies, and procedures to recover and restore IT systems
and data in the event of a disaster or major disruption. The
goal is to minimize downtime and data loss, ensuring that IT
services can be resumed as quickly as possible.
For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definiti
on/disaster-recovery-plan?offer=quizITF102020

220. Answer: D
Explanation:

In the C programming language, the "switch" statement is

used to test a single variable for multiple possible values. It
provides a convenient way to handle multiple cases
efficiently.

For further results, you can visit the given URL:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchwindowsserver/definitio
n/C?offer=quizITF102020
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