DBT- LIFE SCIENCE 2017 IFAS

DBT 2017
(IFAS SOLVED PAPER)

1. For a single substrate reaction, doubling the substrate concentration increases the rate by 10 fold. The order
of the reaction is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Between 3 and 4

2. An enzyme reaction follows MichaelisMenten kinetics. What will be the reaction velocity at a substrate
concentration = Km/3?
(1) Vmax
(2) Vmax/3
(3)Vmax/2
(4)Vmax/4

3. What will be the required volumes of 1N HCl and 4N NaOH to prepare one litre solution of pH 7?
(1) 500 ml; 500 ml
(2) 800 ml; 200 ml
(3) 600 ml; 400 ml
(4) 200 ml; 800 ml

4. During a batch culture experiment, the following data was obtained

Time Substrate (g/l) Cell (g/l) Product (g/l)
(h)
2 40 1 2
8 20 5 7
What will be the product yield (g) per gram of substrate?
(1) 10
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.5
(4) 2 2

5. In a bacterial growth experiment, the concentration of cells increased from 10,000 cells/ml to 30,000 cells/ml
in 3 h during the exponential growth phase. The doubling time (h) of the bacteria is:
(1) 2.5
(2) 3.0
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.9

6. A 20mer DNA contains A, G and C only. In how many ways can this DNA sequence be constructed?
(1) 4 20
(2) 204
(3) 3 20
(4) 203

7. Match the Matrices in Group I with appropriate gradient elution condition from Group II
Group I Group II
1 DEAE-Sephacel P Isocratic gradient
2 Phenyl-Sepharose Q Increasing
concentrations of
sodium chloride
3 Chromatofocusing R Decreasing
concentrations of
ammonium

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sulphate
4 Sephadex-G100 S pH gradient
(1) 1-Q; 2-R; 3-S; 4-P
(2) 1-Q; 2-R; 3-P; 4-S
(3) 1-R; 2-Q; 3-P; 4-S
(4) 1-S; 2-P; 3-Q; 4-R

8. The activity of Enzyme X (total volume 5.3 ml) is 2.34 micromoles of product formed per min. The total
protein content of this solution is 0.8 mg. What is the specific activity?
(1) 2.93
(2) 1.87
(3) 18.2
(4) 15.5 3

9. Match the techniques in Group I with applications given in Group II

Group I Group II
1 Salting out P pI determination
2 Ultracentrifugation Q Protein precipitation
3 Dialysis R Sedimentation
coefficient
4 Isoelectric focusing S Removal of low
molecular
weight
impurities
(1) 1-Q; 2-R; 3-S; 4-P
(2) 1-P; 2-R; 3-Q; 4-S
(3) 1-S; 2-P; 3R-; 4-Q
(4) 1-Q; 2-S; 3-R; 4-P

10. What would be the number of protein molecules present in 1.0 mg of protein having a molecular weight of 25
kDa?
(1) 2.4×1015
(2) 2.4×1016
(3) 2.4×1017
(4) 2.4×1018

11. Calculate the ionic strength (M) of 50 ml of 0.75 % (w/v) NaCl solution?
(1) 0.128
(2) 0.256
(3) 7.8
(4) 0.064

12. A cell suspension (1.5×105 cells per ml) was treated with 1mM HgCl2 for 30 min. After treatment, the cell
suspension was diluted 10 fold and 100 microliter was plated which gave 5 colonies. Calculate the percentage
of cells that survived?
(1) 0.00033
(2) 3.3
(3) 0.033
(4) 0.33 4

13. Purification data for an enzyme is given below:

St Purification step Volume Total Total activity (micromoles per
e (ml) protein min)
p (mg)
I Cell-free extract 20 100 150
II Ni-NTA chromatography 4 10 120

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What is the fold-purification?
(1) 8
(2) 13.5
(3) 10.5
(4) 18

14. Competent cells prepared in your lab have a transformation efficiency of 108 cfu/µg of plasmid DNA. These
competent cells (100 µl) were transformed with 10 ng of plasmid DNA using heat shock method followed by
addition of 900 µl of LB medium. 100 µl of transformed cells were plated on antibiotic containing plates. The
number of colonies expected to be on the plate would be:
(1) 105
(2) 104
(3) 103
(4) 102

15. A disease has a prevalence of 1 in 1000 in the general population. A diagnostic kit for the disease has 10%
false positives and no false negative. In a general population, if a person tested with the kit gives a positive
result, the probability that he DOES NOT have the disease is approximately:
(1) 9%
(2) 90%
(3) 99%
(4) 99.9%

16. From the start point on the runaway to final take off, an aircraft takes 50 seconds. During this period it covers
a distance of 1 km. What is the acceleration (m/s2 ) during take-off?
(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.2 5

17. A ladder of 5 m length is standing against a wall. The distance between the wall and the base of the ladder is
4 m. If the top of ladder slips down by 0.5 m, the foot of the ladder will shift by:
(1) 0.25 m
(2) 0.33 m
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 0.6 m

18. A person jogs from his home to the playground at 6 km/h. He walks back from the playground to his home at
4 km/h. What is his average speed (km/h)?
(1) 4.25
(2) 4.8
(3) 5
(4) 5.25

19. Which one of the following numbers is equal to three times the sum of its digits?
(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 27

20. If 5 ml of 20% ethanol is mixed with 25 ml of 80% ethanol, the resulting solution will approximately be:
(1) 50% ethanol
(2) 70% ethanol
(3) 100% ethanol
(4) 80% ethanol

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21. When DNA is extracted from bacterial cells and analyzed for base composition, it is found that 38% of bases
are Cytosine (C). What percentage of bases is Adenine (A)?
(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 38
(4) 62

22. Equal volumes of cell suspensions of Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Streptococcus lactis and
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, all have the same OD600nm = 0.50. Which cell suspension would have the
minimum and maximum number of cells, respectively?
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Streptococcus lactis
(3) Escherichia coli and Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(4) Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Streptococcus lactis

23. A bag contains 4 red, 5 green and 7 yellow balls. If 2 balls are picked simultaneously in a random manner from
the bag, the probability of both being green is:
(1) 1/16
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/12
(4) 5/16

24. The spectroscopic method for detection of functional groups is:

(1) CD spectroscopy
(2) FTIR spectroscopy
(3) ESR spectroscopy
(4) UV-VISIBLE spectroscopy

25. Match the native microbial sources in Group I with the products in Group II Group I Group II M.
Leuconostocmesenteroides 1. Lysine N. Lactococcuslactis 2.Cheese O. Brevibacteriumbrevis 3.Dextran P.
Penicilliumroqueforti 4.Nisin
(1) M-2.N-1.O-4.P-3.
(2) M-1. N-2.O-3.P-4.
(3) M-3. N-4.O-1. P- 2.
(4) M-4. N-3.O-2.P-1.

26. Match the enzyme in Group I with the application/function in Group II Group I Group II M. Pectinase 1.
Lactose free milk products N. Papain 2.High Fructose Corn Syrup O. Glucose isomerase 3.Juice Clarification P.
β- Galactosidase 4. Meat tenderisation
(1) M-4. N-3.O-2.P-1.
(2) M-3. N-4.O-2.P-1.
(3) M-1. N-2.O-4. P- 3.
(4) M-2. N-1.O-3.P-4.

27. Histone code implies which of the following?

(1) Combination of different histone proteins to form a nucleosome.
(2) Modification of histones.
(3) Different histone proteins present in different eukaryotic organisms.
(4) Different order of histone proteins in a given nucleosome.

28. The A260 of a plasmid solution after 100-fold dilution is 0.2. Given that A260 of 1.0 represents 50 µg/ml of
DNA and the total volume of isolated plasmid solution is 50 µl, what will be the concentration and amount
respectively of the isolated plasmid?
(1) 1.0 µg/µl and 50 µg
(2)1.0 mg/µl and 50 mg
(3) 10 µg/µl and 50 µg

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(4) 10 mg/µl and 50 mg

29. A gene was cloned into a unique HindIII restriction site present in the ampicillin resistance gene of a vector
that contains both ampicillin and kanamycin resistance genes. To select for only recombinant clones, the
transformation mixture should be plated on which of the following plates?
(1) Ampicillin containing plate
(2) Ampicillin plus Kanamycin containing plate
(3) Ampicillin containing plate followed by replica-plating on kanamycin containing plate
(4) Kanamycin containing plate followed by replica-plating on ampicillin containing plate

30. A student sequenced a DNA using Sanger’s method and obtained the following autoradiogram. The sequence
of DNA is:

(1) 5‟ CTTAG 3‟
(2) 5‟ GAATC 3‟
(3) 5‟ CTAAG 3‟
(4) 5‟ AATTG 3‟

31. From among the options given below, RNA polymerase II transcribes which one of the following?
(1) rRNA
(2) tRNA
(3) MicroRNA
(4) None of the given options

32. The melting curve of a DNA solution is represented below. It suggests that:

(1) The given DNA has one stretch with a biased base composition
(2) The given DNA has two stretches with a biased base composition
(3) The given DNA has three stretches with a biased base composition
(4) The given DNA has an unbiased base composition

33. The DNA binding domain of a transcription factor that is specifically required for the regulation of gene A is
exchanged with the DNA binding domain of another transcription factor that is required specifically for the
regulation of gene B. This chimeric transcription factor will regulate:
(1)Gene A only
(2) Gene B only
(3) Both Gene A and B
(4) Neither Gene A nor GeneB

34. Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells terminates at the stop codon because:
(1) mRNA synthesis stops at the stop codon.

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(2) The tRNA corresponding to the stop codon cannot bind to an amino acid.
(3) There is no naturally occurring tRNA with an anticodon corresponding to the stop codon.
(4) The conformation around stop codons prevents binding of aminoacyltRNA. 10

35. A DNA fragment was digested with a restriction enzyme X with the recognition sequence that
would cleave at the position of the arrow as shown. You want to clone this fragment in a vector which does
not contain the restriction site for X. Which one of the following enzymes will you use to digest the vector?
The sequence of the restriction site and position of cleavage for each enzyme is shown below:
(1) Restriction enzyme A:

(2) Restriction enzyme B:

(3) Restriction enzyme C:

(4) Restriction enzyme D:

36. Which one of the following is NOT important for regulation of the tryptophan operon by attenuation?
(1) Presence of two adjacent codons for tryptophan in the leader peptide sequence
(2) Coupled transcription-translation
(3) Concentration of tRNA charged with tryptophan
(4) The operator sequence of tryptophan operon 11

37. A plasmid DNA when digested with EcoRI gave a single band of 16 Kb. When the same plasmid was digested
with BamHI it gave two bands of 6Kb and 4 Kb. The plasmid has:
(1) Single site of EcoRI and 2 sites of BamHI
(2) Single site of EcoRI and 3 sites of BamHI
(3) Single site of EcoRI and 2 sites of BamHI
(4) 2 sites of EcoRI and 2 sites of BamHI

38. Myeloma cells fused with spleen cells in hybridoma technology are:
(1) Immortal and antibody producing cells
(2) Mortal and antibody producing cells
(3) Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase lacking cells
(4) Thymidine kinase lacking cells
39. Enzyme inactivation by suicide inhibitors should be:
(1) allosteric-site directed
(2)active-site directed
(3) regulatory-site directed
(4)both allosteric and regulatory-site directed

40. Resolution in adsorption chromatography is achieved at:

(1) Elution stage only
(2) Binding stage only
(3) Equilibration stage only
(4)Both binding and elution stage

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41. Protein kinases phosphorylate proteins at hydroxyl groups on amino acid side chains. Which one of the
following groups of amino acids contain side chain hydroxyl groups?
(1) Aspartate, glutamate and serine
(2) Serine, threonine and tyrosine
(3) Lysine, arginine and proline
(4) Threonine, phenylalanine and arginine

42. In a segment of a transcribed gene, the non-template strand of DNA has the following sequence
5‟..AGCTCACTG..3‟. What will be the corresponding 5‟ to 3‟ sequence in the RNA produced from this
segment of the gene?
(1) CAGUGAGCU
(2) AGCUCACUG
(3) CAGTGAGCT
(4) UCGAUGAC 12

43. If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is X, then the DNA content of the same cell
at metaphase of meiosis I would be:
(1) 2X
(2) 4X
(3) 0.5X
(4) X

44. The α-helix in a protein is primarily due to:

(1) Intermolecular hydrogen bond
(2) Intermolecular hydrogen bond
(3) van der Waals interaction between amino acids
(4) covalent interactions

45. Amino acids with asymmetric Cβ atoms are:

(1) Pro, Met
(3) Lys, Ile, Val
(2)Thr, Ile
(4)Cys, Ser, Met

46. The strength of the hydrogen bond represented by D-H...A (where D is the donor atom, H is the hydrogen
atom and A is the acceptor atom) depends on
(1)the D-H bond length and the nature of the D and A atoms.
(2)the nature of the D and A atoms and the D...A distance.
(3)the D...A distance and linearity of the angle DHA.
(4)the H...A distance, linearity of the angle DHA and the nature of the atoms D & A.

47. The van der Waals energy of a single water molecule is:
(1) 0
(2)-0.2 Kcal/mol
(3)-0.5 Kcal/mol
(4) 0.2 Kcal/mol 13

48. What is the minimum number of edges that meet at every branch node in a phylogenetic tree?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49. According to the Induced-fit theory, an agonist is defined as:

(1) A compound which produces an exothermic effect
(2) A compound which occupies the receptor for a longer period
(3) A compound that induces a specific conformational change in the macromolecule

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(4) A compound which hits the receptor center more often.

50. A recombinant protein is found to be expressed very poorly in E.coli. It is hypothesized that the expression is
blocked at the translational step. The first experimental technique to test this is:
(1) PCR followed by sequencing
(2) Quantitative RT PCR
(3) Western Blot
(4) EMSA
Part B

51. There are 3 genes A, B and C that are functionally related. There is a point mutation in gene A due to which
gene B is not expressed resulting in a non-functional gene C product. What is the possible relationship
between these 3 genes?
(1) A is an enzyme, B and C are substrates of A
(2) A is transcription factor for B and B is needed for C to be functional.
(3) B is transcription factor for C and A
(4) C is enzyme that requires A and B as its substrate

52. Detectable serum antibody against a T-independent pathogen is a good indication that:
(1) A functional B-cell system exists
(2) A functional T-cell system exists
(3) The patient has immune suppression
(4) Both T and B cell systems are not functional

53. If a 1000 kb fragment of DNA has 10 evenly spaced and symmetric replication origins and DNA polymerase
moves at 1 kb per minute, how many minutes will it take to produce two daughter molecules ignoring the
potential problem at the end of the linear piece of DNA? Assume that the 10 origins are evenly spaced from
each other, none starting from the ends of the chromosome.
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 100

54. In an experiment, 4 different N-terminal blocked purified proteins were treated with glutaraldehyde,
individually. One of the proteins did not get modified. What may be the reason?
(1) The protein lacks histidine
(2) The protein lacks phenylalanine
(3) The protein lacks lysine
(4) The protein lacks arginine 15

55. Which of the following signatures (the stretch of amino acids) in a protein will target it to the nucleus?
(1)Arg-Glu-Glu-Trp-Glu-Cys
(2)Arg-Lys-Lys-Lys-Arg-Lys
(3)Trp-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Gly
(4)Phe-Pro-Pro-Arg-Tyr-Tyr

56. Which one of the following rearrangements is NOT permitted during somatic recombination in the heavy
chain and light chain immunoglobulin loci?
(1) DH:JH
(2) VL:JL
(3) VH:JH
(4) VH:DH

57. Junctional diversity in CDR3 during gene rearrangement results from the addition of:
(1) Switch region nucleotides
(2) P and N nucleotides
(3) V, D and J nucleotides
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(4) Recombination signal sequences

58. The function of negative selection of thymocytes in the thymus is to eliminate:

(1) Single-positive thymocytes
(2) Double-positive thymocytes
(3)Alloreactivethymocytes
(4)Autoreactivethymocytes

59. Antigen recognition by T cells in the absence of co-stimulation results in:

(1)Upregulation of B7.1
(2) T-cell apoptosis
(3) T-cell anergy
(4)Upregulation of B7.2 16

60. Mutation of homeotic genes often result in which one of the following developmental defects in Drosophila?
(1) Absence of a group of contiguous segments
(2) Transformation of one segment to another
(3)Tumor formation in imaginal discs
(4) Absence of every other segment along the antero-posterior axis

61. Which one of the following graphs represent the kinetics of ion transport through a membrane channel?

62. Transition type of gene mutation is caused when

(1) GC is replaced by TA
(2) CG is replaced by GC
(3) AT is replaced by CG
(4) AT is replaced by GC

63. Which one of the following is NOT enriched in eukaryotic promoters located in active chromatin?
(1) Acetylated histones
(2)DNAse I hypersensitive sites
(3) Methylated cytosine
(4) Bound TFIID

64. One of the reasons why non-substrate inducers (e.g. IPTG) are preferred over substrate inducers (e.g. lactose)
for induction of an inducible operon is because:
(1) They directly interact with the promoter sequences
(2) They directly interact with the repressor
(3) They directly interact with operator region
(4) They interact with the activation sequences and induce enhancers

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65. In humans, the enzyme having reverse transcriptase activity is:

(1)Ribonuclease P
(2)Ribonuclease D
(3)Recombinase
(4) Telomerase

66. To prepare a DNA probe of high specific activity for detecting a single copy gene in a Zoo-blot experiment,
which one of the following procedures would be preferred?
(1) 5‟ end labelling
(2) 3‟ end labelling
(3) In vitro transcription
(4) Random primer labelling

67. The function performed in the smooth ER is:

(1) Biosynthesis of secretory proteins
(2) Folding of membrane proteins
(3) Addition of N-linked sugars
(4) Detoxification of drugs

68. In human carcinomas, many proteins including most cytoskeletal proteins undergo modifications, thereby
making it difficult for a clinician to identify the origin of the cancer cells. In this context, which one of the
following can be relied upon for identification of the origin of cancer cells?
(1)microtubules 18
(2) F-actin
(3) G-actin
(4) Intermediate filament

69. Most organisms can regulate membrane fluidity by changing the lipid composition. If cells are transferred
from a warm environment to a cold one, it can be expected that:
(1) There will be a decrease in the proportion of 16-carbon fatty acids compared to 18-carbon fatty acids
(2) There will be an increase in the proportion of 16-carbon fatty acids compared to 18-carbon fatty acids
(3) There will be an increase in the proportion of saturated fatty acids
(4) Phospholipids will not be incorporated into the membrane

70. Glycosylation of membrane proteins and lipids is carried out by enzymes present in the lumen of endoplasmic
reticulum and Golgi. The glycosylated part of membrane proteins and lipids in the plasma membrane is likely
to be:
(1) Oriented towards the cytosol
(2) Exposed to the extracellular environment
(3) The glycosylated parts of the proteins are towards the cytoplasm but glycosylated lipids are exposed to the
extracellular environment
(4) The glycosylated parts of the lipids are towards the cytoplasm but glycosylated proteins are exposed to the
extracellular environment

71. Lysosomal storage diseases are a group of inherited diseases that are characterized by the accumulation of
specific substances or class of substances within the lysosomes. All of the following mechanisms can cause
lysosomal storage disease EXCEPT:
(1) Defects in the enzyme N-acetyl glucosamine phosphotransferase
(2) Defective or missing acid hydrolases
(3) Defects in the transport of lysosomal enzymes to the cell surface
(4) Defects in the transport proteins that transport proteins from Golgi to lysosomes

72. The gene encoding an enzyme A that functions in a metabolic pathway for conversion of metabolite „x‟ to „y‟
was knocked out but it still resulted in the formation of metabolite „y‟. From this it can be concluded that:
(1) Enzyme A is necessary but not sufficient for formation of „y‟
(2) Enzyme A is sufficient but not necessary for formation of „y‟

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(3) Enzyme A is neither necessary nor sufficient for formation of „y‟
(4) Enzyme A is both necessary and sufficient for formation of „y‟ 19

73. The following figure shows the electrophoretic migration of a secretory protein in SDSPAGE from the time of
its synthesis (0 min) to its secretion (90 min) from the cells.

Assuming that there was no problem in sample preparation and SDS-PAGE, the reason for a lower band at 30
min and a higher band at 60 and 90 min compared to that at 0 min could be due to:
(1) Changes in the rate of protein synthesis at various time points
(2) The protein was associated with other proteins at different time points resulting in change in its migration
(3) The protein underwent processing and posttranslational modifications as a function of time
(4) Small changes observed in the migration of the protein do not give enough information to derive a
meaningful conclusion

74. Four yeast mutants block membrane and secretory proteins in following compartments: Mutant A: Golgi
Mutant B: Endoplasmic reticulum Mutant C: Cytosol Mutant D: Secretory vesicles If two new mutants are
made that have combined defects of A+C and B+D, proteins of the new mutants will accumulate in:
(1) Golgi and ER, respectively
(2) Golgi and secretory vesicle, respectively
(3) Cytosol and ER, respectively
(4) Cytosol in both cases 20

75. Asynchronous animal cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry.
The histogram of cell count versus fluorescence intensity is shown below with or without treatment.

It can be concluded from the histogram that:

(1) The treatment inhibits the cells from entering the S-phase
(2) The treatment increases the proportion of G1 phase
(3) The treatment increases the proportion of G2/M phase
(4) The treatment increases the proportion of S phase

76. Which one of the following eIF2α kinases get activated during unfolded protein response (UPR) in mammalian
cells?
(1) PKR
(2) GCN2
(3) PERK
(4) HRI

77. E. coli RNA polymerase has six subunits two α, one β, one βᶦ, one ω and one σ. Which among these subunits
imparts specificity of transcription of a gene and how?

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(1) ω, by binding to -10 sequence
(2) σ, by binding to both -10 and -35 sequences
(3) β, by binding to -10 sequence
(4) Both σ and ω, by binding to -10 and -35 sequences

78. The use of guide RNA to bind to DNA and target the double strand break at a specific site is a feature of:
(1) Gene knockout by homologous recombination
(2) Gene knock down by RNAi
(3) Genome editing by CRISPR/Cas system
(4) Gene silencing by siRNA

79. Epidermolysisbullosa simplex (EBS) disease is caused by a mutation in which one of the following genes?
(1) β –tubulin
(2) Keratin
(3) Collagen
(4) Tau

80. The genes that have been used for reprograming somatic cells of an adult mammal to stem cells called
induced pluripotent stem cells (IPSC) are KLF4, SOX2, OCT4 and c-MYC. These code for:
(1) Transcription factors
(2) Both transcription factors and RNA binding proteins
(3) Chaperone proteins
(4) Growth factors

81. Following fertilization, zygote divides rapidly to form a large number of cells within a short time through a
process called cleavage. In some organisms like sea urchin the cells of the early embryos skip some stages of
cell cycle in order to achieve this. Which of the following steps may be skipped?
(1) G1
(2) G1 and G2
(3) S
(4) G0

82. Cell cycle regulatory genes (cdc) were originally discovered by Paul Nurse in yeasts using genetic approach
involving temperature sensitive mutant screening. Which of the following was used to identify cdc?
(1) Genome sequencing
(2) cDNA complementation assay
(3) RNAi method
(4) Homologous recombination

83. Bindin is a protein that is expressed in the tip of sperm head (acrosome) and is important for sperm-egg
interaction. Its distribution pattern changes during sperm maturation. Which one of the following methods
may be used to monitor the expression pattern of bindin in a simple light microscope? 22
(1) Phase contrast microscopy
(2)Normarski-contrast microscopy
(3)Immunocytochemistry
(4) Immunofluorescence

84. Which of the following mechanisms converts c-erbB (EGFR) to an oncogene?

(1) Point mutation
(2) Truncation
(3) Recombination
(4) Gene amplification

85. Midblastula transition (MBT) is a characteristic process that occurs in early embryogenesis of organisms (like
Amphibians) whose eggs are large. MBT refers to:
(1) Transition of structures from early embryonic to late embryonic
(2) Transition of gene expression from maternal to zygotic
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(3) Regulation of transition of primordial germ cells to Gonadal structure
(4) Epigenetic modification of gene regulation

86. Introns which are self-splicing and do not require any cofactor for their splicing, are present in the primary
transcripts of:
(1) miRNA
(2) Nuclear mRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) Mitochondrial mRNA

87. The phenomenon of transfer of traits from a man to his grandson through his daughter is known as:
(1) Sex influenced inheritance
(2) Criss-cross inheritance
(3) Y-linked inheritance
(4) Sex-limited inheritance

88. If the doubling time of a prokaryotic cell becomes progressively shorter, then it can be predicted that the
ribosome concentration will:
(1) remain constant
(2) decrease
(3) increase
(4) remain constant but their composition will be different

89. How many DNA molecules of 6 base pairs length are possible where the first base is a purine and the last base
is a pyrimidine?
(1) 32
(2) 256
(3) 4096
(4) 1024

90. A recombinant protein is expressed in E. coli under T7 promoter at 37oC. However no biological activity is
obtained in the cell lysate. If the same experiment is carried out at 25oC, the cell lysate shows a reasonable
biological activity. The most probable explanation for this is:
(1)lower temperature increases recombinant protein stability
(2)lower temperature increases rate of production of recombinant protein
(3) IPTG used for induction does not get degraded
(4)recombinant protein is properly folded at low temperature

91. IPTG is used as an inducer in the T7 expression system for recombinant protein expression in E.coli. This is
because of:
(1) availability of special E.coli cells which have the T7 RNA polymerase gene integrated into their genome under
a regulatable promoter
(2) T7 promoter is recognized by E.coli RNA polymerase
(3) High copy number of plasmid allows sequestration of E.coli RNA polymerase by T7 promoter
(4) IPTG facilitates binding of E.coli RNA polymerase to the T7 promoter.

92. Pyrosequencing derives its name from the fact that:

(1) the bases are detected by pyrolysis
(2) it detects pyrophosphate released during base incorporation
(3) it uses apyrase to detect the bases
(4) it generates a pyrogram as an output

93. Which of the following is a reason that geneticists use mtDNA to study the relatedness of animal
populations?
(1) mtDNA mutates at a slower rate than nuclear DNA
(2) mtDNA transmitted from mother to child, is free from recombination

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(3) All mitochondrial proteins are coded by mitochondrial genes
(4) There are only a few single nucleotide polymorphisms in the mtDNA

94. Lyophilization is a method used for preservation of microbes because:

(1)moisture is removed by sublimation
(2)moisture is removed by very slow evaporation
(3)ice crystals formed at low temperature improves cell viability
(4)removal of air during lyophilization prevents formation of free radicals 24

95. Stoichiometric matrices in metabolic pathways are used in:

(1) Gene regulatory network analysis
(2)Measuring robustness of a system
(3) Flux Balance Analysis
(4) Analysis of phenotypic characters from genome.

96. The main difference between domain and motif in protein structure is:
(1) Domain can remain stable, independent of the rest of the protein while motif cannot.
(2) Domain cannot remain stable, independent of the rest of the protein while motif can.
(3) Domain can be predicted but motif cannot be predicted.
(4) Both are synonyms and there is no difference

97. Select the best algorithm to do pairwise alignment when two proteins are very different in length
(1) Smith-Waterman
(2) Needleman-Wunsch
(3) dot-matrix
(4)ClustalW

98. From literature it is known that the length of an E. coli bacterium is 1 µm with a standard deviation of 0.1 µm.
After treatment with chemical “X” the mean length of 100 cells is 1.1 µm with a standard deviation of 0.1 µm.
What will you conclude from this experiment?
(1) Treatment with chemical “X” has increased the length with a statistical confidence of more than 99%
(2) The length has increased with statistical confidence of 67%
(3) Length has not increased and the observed difference is due to statistical error
(4) Length increased can be claimed with 95% statistical confidence.

99. Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to remove salt from a protein solution

(1) Ultrafiltration
(2) Ion exchange chromatography
(3) Gel filtration chromatography
(4) Dialysis

100. The jelly roll in protein structure is:

(1)made of eight alpha helices
(2)made of four alpha/beta motifs
(3)made of seven hydrophobic strands and an amphipathic helix
(4)formed from eight beta strands 25

101. Which one of the following is NOT a structure or structurally derived database?
(1) PDB
(2) PROSITE
(3) SCOP
(4) CATH

102. Which of the following is TRUE? In the threading approaches for prediction of protein structure, the
optimization is used for:
(1) Sequence to sequence alignment

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(2) Generation of profile by converting three-dimensional structure to onedimensional string
(3) Alignment of sequence to structure which minimizes energy of the target sequence in the template fold
(4) Alignment of target sequence to one-dimensional profile of a template fold

103. The statistical significance of the BLAST hit is obtained using:

(1)extreme value distribution
(2)normal distribution
(3) Poisson distribution
(4)random distribution

104. What is referred by the term k in the following energy expression E = ½ k (b-bo) 2 where b and bo refer to the
bond length and reference bond length respectively?
(1) van der Waals radius
(2)stretching constant for bond length variation
(3)torsional potential
(4)kinetic energy of an atom

105. The estimates of number of false positives from a BLAST search can be made using:
(1)Percent positives
(2)Percent identity
(3) E value
(4) Bit score

106. The length of Beta Hairpin motif is usually:

(1) 2 to 7 residues
(2) 12 to15 residues
(3) 22 to 25 residues
(4) 6 to 10 residues

107. A scoring function is used in which one of the following drug design technologies?
(1)QSAR
(2) Molecular docking
(3) Molecular dynamics
(4) Pharmacophore mapping

108. BLOSUM matrices are based on:

(1)mutations observed throughout a global alignment
(2)highly conserved regions in a series of alignments forbidden to contain gaps
(3)explicit evolutionary model
(4)alignment of same sequences containing highly mutable regions

109. ProDom is a comprehensive set of protein domain families automatically generated from:
(1)Pfam
(2)UniProt Knowledge Database
(3) Swiss-prot
(4)InterPro

110. Which one of the following methods used to find evolutionary trees is also referred as “the minimum
evolution method”?
(1) Distance Method
(2) Maximum Parsimony Method
(3) Fitch and Margoliash Method
(4) UPGMA Method

111. Z-score =
(1) (score of alignment– mean)/ (standard deviation)

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(2) (variance -score of alignment)/standard deviation
(3) (mean -score of alignment) /standard deviation
(4) (score of alignment – mean)/standard deviation 27

112. In a sequence logo of the type given below, the sizes of the letters are proportional to the:

(1)number of residues in the sequences

(2)information content of the respective residues
(3)frequencies of the respective residues in the sequences
(4)resolution of the output device(terminal/printer)

113. For a homology search program such as BLAST, which one of the following best describes the scoring pattern?
(1)identical residue = 10 pts, conservative substitution = 5 pts, gap = 0 pts
(2)identical residue = 10 pts, conservative substitution = 1 to 9 pts, gap = -3 pts
(3)identical residue = 10 pts, conservative substitution = 1 to 9 pts, gap = 0 pts
(4)identical residue = 10 pts, conservative substitution = 10 pts, gap = -3 pts

114. Given the results of a 'sequence versus fingerprint' search, which of the following would be considered the
best hit?
(1) Motifs:7 of 7 p-value:2.2e-08 & e-value:4.5e-05
(2) Motifs:8 of 8 p-value:2.2e-08 & e-value:4.5e-05
(3) Motifs:8 of 8 p-Value:2.2e-18 & e-value:4.5e-15
(4) Motifs:7 of 8 p-Value:2.2e-18 & e-value:4.5e-15

115. In a Multi-Locus Variable number tandem repeat Analysis (MLVA) for Salmonella enterica subspecies, three
tandem repeats loci have been identified inside yohM gene of S. typhimurium LT2, S.typhi CT18 and S.typhi
Ty2 strains. Motif lengths for the loci are 2,3 and 5 respectively. Motif AT and ATG are found to be repeated
by 13 and 5 times respectively in all the strains. Motif ATGTC is repeated 13 times in S. typhimurium LT2, 15
times S.typhi CT18 and 12 times S.typhi Ty2 strains. Which locus is Variable Number Tandem Repeat (VNTR)?
(1) AT
(2) ATG
(3) ATGTC
(4) GTCA

116. Of a population of cells undergoing meiosis, 1% of the cells undergo recombination between genes A and B.
What is the distance between the two genes?
(1) 0.25 cM
(2) 0.75 cM
(3) 0.50 cM
(4) 1.00 cM

117. Which one of the following combinations of marker genes and promoters CANNOT be used for selection of
transgenic plants under in vitro conditions?
(1)positive selection marker genes under the Agrobacterium-derived NOS promoter
(2)conditional negative selection marker genes under an inducible promoter
(3)positive selection marker genes under CaMV 35S promoter
(4)non-conditional negative selection marker genes under CaMV 35S promoter

118. Several experiments have shown leaky/deregulated expression of reporter genes viz., GUS from plant
promoters in Agrobacterium cells. Which one of the following approaches would be most useful in restricting
transgene expression in transformed plant cells and prevent their expression in Agrobacterium?
(1) Use of weak promoters to express the transgene

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(2) Use of 5‟ and 3‟ UTRs flanking the transgene
(3) Avoiding use of the polyA signal
(4) Use of intron(s) within the transgene sequence

119. A T0 transgenic plant showing two copies of T-DNA on Southern analysis, segregated in a 3:1 ratio for the
transgenic:non-transgenic phenotype among T1 progeny obtained by self-pollination. Which one of the
following statements best explains this observation?
(1) The T0 plant contains a single copy of the transgene.
(2) The T0 plant contains two linked copies of the transgene.
(3) The T0 plant contains two unlinked copies of the transgene.
(4) The T0 plant contains at least three copies of the transgene.

120. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) All the virulence genes of Agrobacterium tumefaciens are expressed in a constitutive manner.
(2) Opines are a source of iron for Agrobacterium cells.
(3) One Agrobacterium cell can generate only one T-DNA molecule for transfer into the host cell.
(4) Integration of T-DNA in the genome can mutate or modulate endogenous plant genes. 29

121. Which one of the following statements related to transgene silencing in plants is INCORRECT?
(1) Transgene silencing is usually accompanied by methylation of cytosine residues in „CG‟ and/or „CNG‟ sites.
(2) Events with multi-copy integrations of the T-DNA are more susceptible to transgene silencing.
(3) Transgene silencing always occurs in T0 individuals and never in subsequent generations.
(4) Transgene silencing may lead to silencing of endogenous plant gene homologs.

122. Two independent transgenic plants, one with single copy of gene A and another with single copy of gene B
were expressed under the same seed-specific promoter. In transgenic plants, seed formation on self-
pollination was similar to that of untransformed plants. When homozygous plants with gene A (male parent)
were crossed with homozygous plants with gene B (female parent), viable seed formation did not occur
although, pollen production was normal. What could be the possible reason for this observation?
(1) Product of gene A is lethal to the male gametophyte.
(2) Interaction between products of genes A and B is lethal to the zygote.
(3) Interaction between products of genes A and B is lethal to the male gametophyte.
(4) Product of gene B is lethal to the zygote.

123. The range of transformation frequencies obtained in independent transformation experiments using four
different constructs with different combinations of promoters (Pr) and selection marker genes, is given
below:
Construct Transformation frequency
CaMV35S Pr – bar – 20% – 35%
nospolyA
NosPr – bar – 2% – 4%
nospolyA
CaMV35S Pr – NPTII – 46% – 49%
nospolyA
NosPr – NPTII – 24% – 28%
nospolyA

In the absence of any other factors, which one of the following statements is NOT acceptable as a logical
conclusion based on the above data?
(1) Use of stronger promoters for expression of selection marker genes can increase transformation
frequencies.
(2) Variations in expression levels between the NPTII and bar genes is not influenced by the nos poly A signal.
(3) Production of herbicide resistant plants at high frequency can be achieved with lower expression levels of
the transgene.
(4) Use of kanamycin as a selection marker appears to be more favorable for production of larger number of
transgenic plants. 30

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124. Callus-mediated regeneration is NOT preferred for micropropagation because:
(1)it takes longer time for regeneration.
(2)plant regeneration is problematic due to poor organogenesis
(3)it leads to generation of variants
(4)hardening of plants is difficult to achieve.

125. In a transgenic plant, the phenomenon of Co-suppression is due to:

(1) transgene integration within the endogenous gene
(2) transgene integration at a locus very close to the endogenous gene
(3) similarity between the transgene and endogenous gene sequences
(4) lack of similarity between the transgene and endogenous gene sequences

126. In inbred lines, gene and genotypic frequencies are maintained by growing them in isolation followed by:
(1)self-pollination
(2)self-pollination and selection
(3)pair-wise crossing
(4)random mating without selection

127. Homozygous plants from bi-parental mating for development of mapping populations can be obtained in a
short time by:
(1) development of RILs
(2) development of doubled haploids
(3) random mating in F2 followed by selfing in subsequent generations
(4) chromosome elimination technique

128. Which one of the following is NOT required for QTL analysis in association mapping?
(1) Phenotypic data from multi-location tria
(2) Polymorphic markers
(3) Genetic linkage map
(4) Diverse germplasm lines

129. Which one of the following hormones promote production of seedless grapes?
(1) IAA
(2) IBA
(3) BAP
(4) GA3 31

130. Which one of the following molecular markers is associated with bacterial blight resistance in rice?
(1)PiB
(2)Rar
(3) Xa21
(4) Pi9

131. Match the proteins in Group I with members in Group II

Group I Group II
1 Alkaline phosphatase P Extracellular
2 Focomponent of ATP Q Cytoplasm
synthase
3 Alcohol dehydrogenase R Inner membrane
4 Pectinase S Periplasm

(1) 1-S; 2-R; 3-Q; 4-P

(2) 1-P; 2-R; 3-Q; 4-S
(3) 1-R; 2-S; 3-P; 4-Q
(4) 1-Q; 2-P; 3-S; 4-R

132. Application of the herbicide, phosphoinothricin, results in death of plants due to accumulation of:
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(1) CO2
(2) NH3
(3) CN
(4) Cl2

133. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Agrobacterium VirE protein?
(1) Its synthesis is induced by VirG protein
(2) It contains a nuclear localization signal
(3) It protects T-DNA from being destroyed by plant defense mechanism
(4) It is a component of T-pilus

134. Transgenic potato plants with high amylose starch were developed by:
(1)suppression of starch branching enzymes
(2)over-expression of starch branching enzymes
(3) overexpression of ADP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
(4)suppression of granule-bound starch synthase

135. Developing cisgenic disease resistant apple is advantageous over conventional breeding because:
(1)genes cannot be transferred from sexually compatible species through pollination due to hybridization
barriers.
(2)there is no linkage drag.
(3)apple is vegetatively propagated and produces sterile seeds.
(4)cisgenes will not disrupt endogenous genes when introduced by Agrobacterium mediated transformation.

136. For development of selection marker-free transgenic plants by co-transformation using Agrobacterium, the
marker genes are:
(1)segregated out in T0 generation
(2)excised out in T0 generation
(3)segregated out in T1 generation
(4)excised out in T1 generation

137. Breakdown of Bt- mediated insect resistance in crops can be delayed by:
(1) Refugia strategy
(2) Cultivation of different Bt cotton varieties with same Bt gene
(3) Application of Bt Bio-pesticides
(4) application of systemic insecticides

138. Which one of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?

(1)Nanopore – DNA sequencing
(2)beta-carotene – golden rice
(3)bar gene – resistance to viruses
(4) Figwort Mosaic Virus – constitutive promoter

139. Which one of the following would produce androgenic haploids in anther culture?
(1) Anther wall
(2)Tapetal layer
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Young microspores

140. Male sterility in plants is induced by expression of the TA29-barnase-pA cassette in:
(1) Pollen mother cell
(2) Stamen
(3)Tapetum
(4) Pollen grain

141. Anchorage dependent CHO cells are grown by aeration using micro carrier beads. The maximum detrimental
effect of shear occurs due to agitation if the size (Kolmogorov scale) of eddies is:

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(1)lesser than the size of the beads
(2)equal to the size of beads
(3)larger than the size of beads
(4)independent of the size of beads

142. With progress in the growth of E. coli in a minimal medium (constant aeration and agitation), the dissolved
oxygen (DO) initially declined and then started to increase. If the DO again starts to decrease on addition of
glucose, then the most probable explanation is:
(1)growth is limited by glucose
(2)growth is limited by oxygen
(3)decrease in solubility of oxygen occurred due to glucose addition
(4)decrease in the number of cells takes place due to cell lysis

143. An organism obeys Andrews model for growth inhibition with Ks and Ki values of 0.01 g/l and 1.0 g/l
respectively. If the substrate is present at an initial concentration of 1.0g/l, the specific growth rate of the
culture upon entering log phase would be approximately:
(1) 1/5th of µmax
(2) 1/4th of µmax
(3) 1/3rd of µmax
(4) 1/2 of µmax

144. In a stirred tank reactor when the agitation rate is increased, the kL and kLa values will:
(1)increase and decrease respectively
(2)decrease and increase respectively
(3)both increase
(4) both decrease

145. Which one of the following is correct regarding cell damage in an agitated and sparged mammalian cell
bioreactor?
(1) High shear stress arising during mixing of the cell culture is the major cause of cell damage.
(2) Shear stress arising from the breakup of bubbles at the liquid surface is a major cause of cell damage.
(3) Shear stress between bubbles in the foam at the liquid surface is a major cause of cell damage
(4) Using agitator blades of a radial flow type with mirror finish reduces shear and hence cell damage

146. Which one of the statements given below is NOT true? Equilibrium constant (K) of a chemical reaction at a
specific temperature can be determined if the:
(1) ΔG0 of the reaction is known
(2) Equilibrium concentrations of reactants and products are known
(3) ΔH and ΔS of the reaction are known
(4) ΔH and initial concentrations of the reactants and products are known

147. If a big centrifuge with the bowl diameter of 1m rotates at 60 rpm, at what speed (rpm) does a smaller
centrifuge with a diameter of 0.5 m need to be operated for achieving the same separation factor?
(1) 85
(2) 120
(3) 30
(4) 42

148. What is the linear flow rate (superficial velocity in cm/h) in a chromatographic column of 1.0 cm inner
diameter with a bed porosity of 0.8 when the volumetric flow rate is 1 ml/min?
(1) 61.1
(2) 76.4
(3) 38.2
(4) 15.2

149. For a cell growth process, the units for yield, productivity and titre are:

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(1). gl-1 , gl-1 h -1 and gl-1
(2). gg-1 , gl-1 h -1 and g g -1 l -1 h -1
(3). gl-1 , gl-1 h -1 and gg-1
(4). gg-1 , gl-1 h -1 and gl-1

150. In a fermentor the impeller diameter is increased from 0.5 m to 1 m and the rpm is increased from 100 rpm to
400 rpm. Reynolds number will increase by?
(1). 16 fold
(2) 8 fold
(3). 2 fold
(4) 4 fold

151. Zymomonasmobilis is cultivated in a 60 l chemostat. The µmax and Ks values are 0.2 h1 and 0.5 g l-1
respectively. The flow rate (l h-1 ) required for a steady state substrate concentration of 0.5 g l-1 in the
reactor is:
(1) 6
(2) 9 35
(3) 4
(4) 12

152. Which one of the following statements is WRONG for conventional batch filtration of a mycelial fermentation
broth?
(1) Blockage of the membrane pores by cell debris
(2) The specific cake resistance remains constant
(3)compressible cake deposition on the membrane
(4)medium resistance remain constant

153. The reason for the choice of E. coli for the production of ethanol from lignocellulose is because it:
(1)grows efficiently in various hexoses and pentoses
(2)can be grown to high cell density
(3)can tolerate very high concentration of ethanol
(4)is a GRAS organism

154. Two organisms A and B with the same µmax and Yx/s are cultivated independently in batch culture. They
have Ks values of 1 g.l-1 and 3 g.l-1 respectively. Given that the initial substrate concentration was 5 g/l,
which of the following is TRUE after complete exhaustion of the substrate?
(1) Organism A will have lower average specific growth rate than B.
(2) Organism A will have higher average specific growth rate than B.
(3) Both the organisms would have same average specific growth rate.
(4) The final biomass achieved in B would be higher than in A.

155. Pseudomonas with the elemental composition of CH3O0.5N0.5 (MW = 30) is grown in a bioreactor to a final
cell mass of 30 g/l. The minimum concentration (g/l) of ammonia (NH3) (MW = 17) (as the sole nitrogen
source) required is:
(1) 17
(2) 8.5
(3) 14
(4) 15

156. To reduce the level of deactivation of media components for culturing Lactobacillus spp., a high temperature
and short time (HTST) regime is used for sterilization, PRIMARILY because:
(1) Deactivation energy of contaminants > Deactivation energy of medium components
(2) Deactivation energy of contaminants < Deactivation energy of medium components
(3) Deactivation energy of contaminants = Deactivation energy of medium components
(4)the time required for sterilization is reduced

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157. Acetobacteraceti converts alcohol to acetic acid according to the stoichiometric relation C2H5OH + O2
CH3COOH + H2O In a vigorously agitated and aerated reactor containing 20 g/l ethanol, the organism
produces 16 g/l acetic acid and 2 g/l was the residual ethanol concentration. What are the theoretical and
observed yields of acetic acid expressed in g/g ethanol?
(1) 60/46 and 16/18
(2) 50/46 and 18/16
(3) 46/60 and 18/16
(4) 26/60 and 16/18

158. A continuous stirred tank bioreactor produces 48 kg lysine.day-1 . If the volumetric productivity is 2 g.l-1 .h-1 ,
the volume of the reactor is:
(1) 1 m3
(2) 1.5 m 3
(3) 0.1 m 3
(4) 2 m 3

159. Aqueous Two Phase System (ATPS) is used to isolate a protease from a fermentation broth. The partition
coefficient (K) is 2.5. For 80 % recovery of protease in a single step, the volume ratios of upper and the lower
phases should be:
(1) 1.6:1
(2) 3.2:1
(3) 2.4:1
(4) 1.2:1

160. To have an overall yield of greater than 50% in a three step purification process for a food additive, the
minimum average step yield(%) necessary would be around:
(1) 95
(2) 80
(3) 50
(4) 20

161. In a fed batch process for the production of an antibiotic, the dissolved oxygen (DO) level was found to be
falling below 30%. If the DO level of 30% is to be maintained in the reactor (without altering the composition
of oxygen-air mixture, aeration rate and agitation) then we need to:
(1)increase the feed rate
(2)decrease the feed rate
(3)increase the concentration of feed
(4)decrease the volume of the broth by partial withdrawal

162. In a batch sterilization process if ∇overall ,∇heating &∇cooling are 32.2, 9.8 & 10.1 respectively, THEN the
holding time at 121ºC of the process is (given that the specific death rate (k) of microorganisms at 121ºC is
2.54 min-1 ):
(1) 4.84 min
(2) 6.75 min
(3) 2.96 min
(4) 9.25 min

163. To achieve complete separation of two pharmaceutical compounds (shown as two peaks in the
chromatogram), the relative separation (RS) should be:

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(1)< 1
(2) ≥ 1.5
(3)< 0.5
(4) = 0.8

164. The anticancer drug, Halichondrin – D is isolated from:

(1) Corals
(2) Gorgonians
(2) Sponges
(4) Sea anemone

165. Heparin is a:
(1) Glycosylated lipid
(2) Glycoprotein
(2) Lipopolysaccharide
(4) Sulphated polysaccharide

166. The only naturally transformable marine cyanobacteria is:

(1)Agmenellum sp.
(2)Spirulina sp.
(2)Oscillatoria sp.
(4)Nostoc sp.

167. Marine chemosynthesis is mainly based on:

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Sulphate
(4) Manganese nodules

168. Which one is a DNA replication blocking agent produced by sponges?

(1)Clathesine
(2)Spongosides
(3)Spongin
(4)Scleorin

169. Eutrophication in aquatic ecosystems is due to reduction of:

(1) Carbon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Sulphur
(4) Hydrogen

170. Halotolerant and halophilic microbes can be isolated from ------ and -------, respectively. P. Sea Q. River R. Lake
S. Estuary
(1) S and P
(2) P and S
(3) Q and P

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(4) R and S

171. Heavy metal pollutants like Cd and Hg inactivate enzymes by interacting with:
(1)cysteine
(2) glutamic acid
(3)lysine
(4)histidine 39

172. Which of the following class of enzymes initiates aerobic degradation of aromatic pollutants (like
naphthalene) in bacteria?
(1)Oxido-reductases
(2) Hydrolases
(3) Ligases
(4)Lyases

173. Which one of the following organisms is NOT able to perform light harvesting reaction?
(1)Azospirillum
(2)Chlamydomonas
(3)Rhodopseudomonas
(4)Halobacterium

174. In the soil environment, which one of the following factors is responsible for the biotic stress on the microbial
community?
(1) Nutrients
(2) Oxidation-reduction potential
(3) Moisture
(4)Microflora

175. Match the enzymes in Group I with their appropriate role in the environment from Group II
Group I Group II
1 Laccase P Xenobiotic detoxification
2 Catalse Q Nitrogen fixation
3 Nitrogenase R Lignin degradation
4 Cytochrome S Neutralization of toxic O2
p450 species
(1) 1-R; 2-S; 3-Q; 4-P
(2) 1-P; 2-R; 3-Q; 4-S
(3) 1-S; 2-P; 3-R; 4-Q
(4) 1-R; 2-Q; 3-S; 4-P

176. Which one of the following types of mutation would usually NOT be detected in a molecular diagnostic test
that is based on sequencing each exon of a gene individually from a male suspected of having an X-linked
disorder?
(1) Missense mutation
(2) Nonsense mutation
(3) Deletion of an exon
(4) Inversion of a part of the gene

177. A couple came for counselling following three first-trimester miscarriages and underwent chromosomal
analysis. The man was found to have pericentric inversion with the karyotype 46, XY, inv8(p12q22). Which
one of the following would be a correct conclusion?
(1) This is a normal variant, likely of no significance
(2) This is an abnormal chromosome that would cause congenital anomalies if transmitted to a child.
(3) This rearrangement might lead to chromosomal imbalance in an offspring and could explain multiple
miscarriages.
(4) This rearrangement might cause dicentric or acentric chromosomes in an offspring, which would probably
not be compatible with survival.
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178. Unequal crossing over between two Alu repeats can lead to an LDL receptor gene with an internal deletion or
duplication. Based on this information, which of the following must be true?
(1) The LDL receptor gene contains one and only one Alu repeat sequence.
(2) The LDL receptor gene does not contain Alu repeat sequences.
(3) The genome contains only one copy of the Alu repeat sequence.
(4) The LDL receptor gene contains at least two Alu repeat sequences

179. Linkage analysis is performed in a large family with an autosomal dominant hemolyticanemia, using a
polymorphic marker within the β-globin locus. The LOD score at q=0 is negative infinity. The LOD score at
q=0.01 is -4.5. You conclude that the disorder in this family is:
(1)not due to a -globin gene mutation
(2)due to a -globin gene mutation
(3)an acquired disorder, due to a somatic gene mutation
(4)due to a mutation in a gene on chromosome 11, 10 cMcentromeric of -globin

180. In Li-Fraumeni syndrome most frequent mutation occurs in:

(1)p53
(2) RB
(2) BRCA1
(4) PTEN

181. Which one of the following promoters is most efficient for transgene expression in mammary gland of
livestock?
(1) Beta-casein
(2) Prolactin
(3)Uromodulin
(4) Immunoglobulin

182. Epinephrine is used along with local anaesthetic because of its:

(1) α-adrenergic receptor agonist properties
(2)β2 adrenergic receptor agonist properties
(3)β1 adrenergic receptor agonist propertie
(4)nicotinic receptor agonist properties

183. Founder effects and bottlenecks are:

(1)expected only in large populations
(2)mechanisms that increase genetic variation in a population
(3)two different modes of natural selection
(4)forms of genetic drift

184. In commercial farms, embryos are routinely recovered by non-surgical methods. On which day are the
embryos recovered from the donor cow after the onset of estrus?
(1) 21
(2) 7
(3) 14
(4) 5

185. Human mesenchymal stem cells:

(1) Can differentiate into only one type of cell
(2) Can differentiate into few types of cells
(3) Can differentiate into all types of cells
(4) Do not differentiate at all

186. Vectors are important in transmission of diseases. Match group 1 with group 2.
Group 1 Group 2

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1 Louse A West Nile Fever
2 Tick B Scrub Typhus
3 Mite C Lyme disease
4 Mosquito D Epidemic Typhus
(1) 1-D; 2-C; 3-B; 4-A
(2) 1-A, 2-B; 3-C; 4-D
(3) 1-B; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A
(4) 1-C, 2-D; 3-A; 4-B

187. Which one of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

(1) GABA
(2) Glutamate
(3) Acetylcholine
(4) Dopamine

188. Huntington‟s disease is clinically characterized by chorea (abnormal involuntary movements). Which part of
the brain is responsible for this phenotype?
(1) Basal Ganglia
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Brain stem

189. α-Amanitin is a fungal toxin which inhibits eukaryotic RNA polymerases. The three eukaryotic RNA
polymerases show differential sensitivity to this toxin. Which one of the following order (higher to lower) is
correct with respect to sensitivity towards α-amanitin?
(1) RNA POL III > RNA POL II > RNA POL I
(2) RNA POL II > RNA POL III > RNA POL I
(3) RNA POL I > RNA POL III > RNA POL II
(4) RNA POL II > RNA POL I > RNA POL III

190. A primary cell culture can be transformed into a cell line by all EXCEPT:
(1) Simian Virus 40
(2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Human Papillomavirus
(4)Epstein-Barr Virus

191. In a randomly breeding population, an autosomal recessive condition affects 1 newborn in 10,000. The
expected frequency of carriers will be nearly:
(1) 1 in 25
(2) 1 in 50
(3) 1 in 100
(4) 1 in 1,000

192. Assessment of the extent of DNA double strand breaks in cultured human cells, following exposure to ionizing
radiation, can be done by quantitation of :
(1) acetylated histones H3 and H4
(2) methylated histones H3 and H4
(3)ubiquitylated histone H2A.X
(4)phosphorylated histone H2A.X

193. There are reports of more than 100 mutations at different sites of Factor IX that manifests Haemophilia B.
This is an example of:
(1)clinical heterogeneity
(2)allelic heterogeneity
(3)protein heterogeneity
(4) locus heterogeneity

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194. Specificity factor which activates ubiquitin ligase activity of APC/C during separation of sister chromatids is:
(1) CDC10
(2) CDC20
(3) CDH1
(4) CDC45A

195. In a diploid organism, loss of function mutations produce dominant phenotypes when there is:
(1)pleiotropy
(2) epistasis
(3)multipleallelism
(4)haploinsufficiency

196. In Mendel‟sdihybrid cross experiment, if the two selected traits were on the same chromosome (linked) and
assuming that there is no recombination, what would be the expected genotypic ratio in the F 2 generation?
(1) 1:2:1
(2) 9:3:3:1
(3) 1:3
(4) 1:1

197. Huntington disease is caused by:

(1) Expanded dinucleotide repeats sequence in coding region
(2) Expanded trinucleotide repeats in non-coding region
(3) Expanded trinucleotide sequence in coding sequence
(4) Expanded dinucleotide sequence in non-coding sequence

198. The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a very rare human disease. What is the most likely mode of
inheritance for the disease trait and what is the probability that the second child of III-2 and III-3 will be a son
and will also have the disease?

(1) Sex-linked recessive; 0.5

(2) Autosomal recessive; 0.25
(3) Autosomal dominant: 0.75
(4) Autosomal dominant; 0.25

199. Microscopic evaluation of a post-mortem brain exhibits hyperchromatic areas when stained with glial
fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). This suggests activation of:
(1)astrocytes
(2)oligodendrocytes
(3) Microglia
(4) neurons

200. Parasite numbers in the blood of a patient with Trypanosomabrucci (Sleeping sickness) shows the following
pattern:

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Parasites isolated from population 1 and 2 were found to be antigeneciallynoncross reactive. The parasite
distribution seen may be due to:
(1) Change in gene expression
(2) Loss of antigenic epitopes
(3) Post-translational modification of antigen
(4) Antigenic switching

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