B.

Increasing the density of the medium

Section A C. By changing the pH
(May 2013) D. Increasing the sample volume
Q.1 Mammalian cells in primary culture experience Heyflick limit after (May 2013)
50-60 cell generation time. However, in a rare situation or employing Q.10 For passive vaccination, which antibody type will be most
certain agents, cells can be induced to immortality. Which of the appropriate?
following genes/proteins have a major relationship with this? A. Polyclonal antibody B. Monoclonal antibody
A. Cdc2 B. Cyclin C. Humanized antibody D. Single chain antibody
C. P53 D. Proteasomes (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.11 Which of the following is the best method to determine the
Q.2 SNARE proteins are found in the membranes of all of the following phospholipid asymmetry in a plasma membrane?
compartments EXCEPT A. electron microscopy
A. Mitochondria B. Golgi complex B. fluorescence spectroscopy
C. Early endosome D. Endoplasmic reticulum C. lectin binding
(May 2013) D. Thin layer chromatography
Q.3 In the preparation of Golden rice, a few exogenous genes have been (May 2013)
used in order to achieve the production of Vitamin A through Q.12 Prosthetic groups such as iron-sulfur clusters and heme function
recombinant DNA technology. This is a true example of to
A. Metabolic repression B. Biochemical engineering A. Donate electrons to NADH
C. Metabolic extension D. Combinatorial biosynthesis B. Allow proteins to diffuse within the mitochondrial inner membrane
(May 2013) C. Both accept and donate electrons during electron transport
Q.4 All of the following enzymes are linked to reduction of NADH D. Transport protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane
except (May 2013)
A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Lactate dehydrogenase Q.13 APS (Ammonium persulphate) is used in SDS-PAGE for
C. Succinate dehydrogenase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase A. preventing oxidation B. cross-linking
(May 2013) C. its role as a catalyst D. free radical formation
Q.5 Which of the following are components of a phospholipid? (May 2013)
A. cholesterol, glycerol, fatty acids Q.14 Which of the following statements about the trp operon is not
B. fatty acids, phosphate group, glycerol correct?
C. glycerol, amino acids, phosphate group A. It is normally turned off if tryptophan is present.
D. phosphate group, cholesterol, monosaccharides B. Tryptophan acts as the corepressor.
(May 2013) C. The regulator gene product is inactive by itself.
Q.6 Which one of the following is a signaling receptor? D. Tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it.
A. mannose receptor B. toll-like receptor (May 2013)
C. scavenger receptor D. LPS receptor Q.15 Glucose labeled with 14C at C-6 is added to a solution containing
(May 2013) the enzymes and cofactors of the oxidative phase of the pentose
Q.7 Amino acid analysis of 1.0 mg of pure enzyme yielded 58.1 μg of phosphate pathway. The radioactive label will be observed at
leucine (MW = 131.2). What is the minimum MW of the enzyme based A. C5 of ribulose 5-phosphate
on leucine content? B. C3 of ribulose 5-phosphate
A. 2000 B. 2300 C. C1 of ribulose 5-phosphate
C. 2350 D. 2258 D. C4 of ribulose 5-phosphate
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.8 The first metabolic intermediate that is common to the aerobic Q.16 The molarity of 15 % NaCl is
metabolism of glucose and fatty acids is A. 2.56 B. 0.256
A. acetyl CoA B. aceto-acetyl CoA C. 25.6 D. 0.025
C. Pyruvate D. Citrate (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.17 Which one of the following antibiotics is used to demonstrate the
Q.9 While sedimenting a microparticle by centrifugation, instead of fresh protein synthesis in response to challenge by an inducer?
increasing the rpm (to attain the desired “g” force), what else can be A. Chloramphenicol B. Carbenicillin
done to attain the complete sedimentation? C. Rifampicin D. Tetracyclin
A. Decrease the density of the medium (May 2013)

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Q.18 Identify the mismatch A. Bollinger bodies B. Negri bodies
A. Alkaline phosphatase : remove phosphate group present at 5’ end of C. Roswell bodies D. Ketone bodies
DNA (May 2013)
B. DNA Polymerase I : nick translation Q.32 Which one of the following cell types is the most characteristic
C. S1 endonucleases : cleaves only single strand DNA component of the early stages of acute inflammatory reaction?
D. DNase I : cleaves only double stranded DNA A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils
(May 2013) C. Basophils D. Monocytes
Q.19 Sciophytes are plants that prefer to grow in
A. Sun B. Shade
C. Cold temperature D. Water (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.33 Competitive inhibition of an enzyme by a competitive inhibitor
Q.20 Which one of the following is a micronutrient of plants? can be overcome by simply
A. Mn B. P A. decreasing the concentration of substrate
C. Ca D. Mg B. increasing the concentration of substrate
(May 2013) C. decreasing the temperature of reaction
Q.21 pHELLSGATE 12 is a/an D. increasing the temperature of reaction
A. BAC vector B. YAC vector (May 2013)
C. RNAi Vector D. Phagemid Q.34 Other than increase in capital cost, increasing the number of steps
(May 2013) in downstream processing of proteins enhances the final cost of the
Q.22 In protein ‘A’ glutamic acid is replaced by glutamine to make product because
protein ‘B’. Which technique can resolve these two proteins? A. loss in yield at each step is cumulative
A. Isoelectric focusing B. Pulse field electrophoresis B. loss in activity/function at each step is cumulative
C. SDS-PAGE D. Gel filtration C. difficulties in maintaining stringency at later stages of purification
(May 2013) D. increase in contamination of the product at each step is cumulative
Q.23 Genes related through descent from a common ancestral gene are (May 2013)
called Q.35 Even though many therapeutic proteins require only 95% purity,
A. Orthologous B. Homologous the final product is often tested for microscopic amounts of specific
C. Heterologous D. Paralogous contaminants. Such contaminants such as endotoxins in a
(May 2013) pharmaceutical protein product is an example of
Q.24 The Bohr effect in hemoglobin refers to A. Adventitious agent B. Neglected impurity
A. the effect of pH on hemoglobin and myoglobin C. Critical impurity D. Non-critical impurity
B. higher pH found in actively metabolizing tissues (May 2013)
C. increased affinity for O2 at lower Ph Q.36 Vortexing in a stirred tank reactor can be prevented by using
D. reduced affinity for O at lower pH A. axial flow impeller B. a turbine impeller
(May 2013) C. baffles in the reactor D. multiple impellers
Q.25 In a biological system, amplification of signal is a fundamental (May 2013)
regulatory principle. Which one of the following is NOT an Q.37 In which of the following reactions, is the unit of rate constant and
amplification system? rate of reaction the same?
A. Blood clotting A. 1st order reaction B. 2nd order reaction
B. Complement activation C. 3rd order reaction D. Zero order reaction
C. Transmembrane receptor-mediated gene expression (May 2013)
D. Ciliary movement in cochlea Q.38 In an enzymatic reaction, if the enzyme concentration is increased
(May 2013) from 1mg to 2 mg, which of the following statements is correct?
Q.26 The most pleiotropic colony-stimulating factor is A. Km and V max will remain constant
A. M-CSF B. G-CSF B. Km will change while Vmax will remain constant
C. IL-3 D. GM-CSF C. Km will remain constant but Vmax will be more
(May 2013) D. Km and Vmax will increase
Q.27 Which one of the following cells will migrate after injury in the (May 2013)
central nervous system? Q.39 Which one of the following receptors perceives blue light in
A. Microglia B. Oligodendrocytes plants?
C. Astrocytes D. Ependymal cells A. Cryptochrome B. Phytochrome
(May 2013) C. Phototropin D. Photopsin
Q.28 The pseudounipolar neurons are found in (May 2013)
A. Scarpa’s ganglion B. Dorsal root ganglion Q.40 Paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP) is caused by the consumption
C. Nodose ganglion D. Geniculate ganglion of molluscan shellfish contaminated with
(May 2013) A. Brevetoxins B. Domoic Acid
Q.29 The genetic map for three genes A, B and C is as follows: A-B = 10 C. Saxitoxins D. Okadaic acid
map units, B-C = 5 map units and A-C = 15 map units. In an individual (May 2013)
of genotype AbC/aBc, the percentage of gametes expected to be of ABC Q.41 The site of production of Gonad Inhibiting Hormone (GIH) in
is crustaceans is
A. 0.5 B. 5 A. Thoracic ganglion B. Sinus gland
C. 15 D. 50 C. X-organ D. Y-organ
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.30 Mendel’s law of segregation, as applied to the behavior of Q.42 The immunoglobulin isotype found both in cartilaginous and bony
chromosomes during cell division means that fishes is
A. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologous A. IgD B. IgM
chromosomes separate in meiosis C. IgE D. IgG
B. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when chromatids separate (May 2013)
in meiosis II Q.43 In Bhopal disaster by which hazardous substance the toxicity
C. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate effect get increased?
in meiosis I, or when chromatids separate in meiosis II if there is a A. Methylisocyanate B. Methylmercury
cross over between the gene and the centromere. C. Methanol D. Plyaromatic hydrocarbons
D. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when chromatids (May 2013)
separate in meiosis I, or when homologs separate in meiosis II if there Q.44 Which one of the following microorganisms can be effectively
is a cross over between the gene and the centromere. used as a biocontrol agent?
(May 2013) A. Bacillus thuringiensis B. Bacillus megaterium
Q.31 Which one of the following markers in brain is used for diagnosis C. Aspergillus niger D. Pseudomonas putida
of Rabies? (May 2013)

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Q.45 Which one of the following gases contributes most to the C. HPV D. Picornavirus
Greenhouse Effect? (May 2013)
A. Acetylene B. Carbon dioxide (CO2) Q. 60 Secondary metabolites are produced in which of the following
C. Carbon monoxide D. Nitrous oxide (N2O) stages?
(May 2013) A. Lag phase B. Log phase
Q.46 Which one of the following best represents the central dogma of C. Stationary phase D. Death phase
Bioinformatics? (May 2013)
A. Sequence-Structure-Function Q.61 Which one of the following amino acids has pKa value near
B. DNA-RNA-Proteins physiological pH?
C Motifs-domains-Superfamilies A. Histidine B. Arginine
D Data-Databanks-Data mining tools C. Lysine D. Serine
(May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.62 Somatic mutation of Immunoglobulin gene accounts for
Q.47 Multiple sequence alignments are NOT used to derive A. Allelic exclusion
A. Motifs B. Primers B. Class switching from IgM to IgG
C. PSSMs D. HMMs C. Affinity maturation
(May 2013) D. V(D)J recombination
Q.48 Which one of the following matrices can be used to identify (May 2013)
distantly related homologs? Q.63 Many microorganisms can’t use CO 2 as their sole source of carbon
A. BLOSUM90 B. BLOSUM62 as
C. BLOSUM45 D. BLOSUM80 A. CO2 is toxic for them
(May 2013) B. Reduction of CO2 is an energy expensive process
Q.49 Among the different amino acid side chains in proteins, which of C. Further reduction of CO 2 is not possible
the following pairs might form side chain-side chain hydrogen bonding D. CO2 is not a good source of carbon
interaction with each other? (May 2013)
A. Valine- Glutamic acid B. Alanine- Glycine Q.64 There are three groups of photosynthetic bacteria: the
C. Asparagine- Serine D. Proline- Lysine cyanobacteria, green bacteria and
(May 2013) A. Purple bacteria B. Red bacteria
Q.50 If a protein is known to bind Ca 2+ ions, which of the following side C. Blue green bacteria D. Violet bacteria
chains is likely to be involved in Ca2+ binding? (May 2013)
A. Aspartic acid B. Lysine Q.65 In human, the inherited autosomal recessive diseases Xeroderma
C. Proline D. Methionine pigmentosum is the result of a defect in the:
A. SOS repair B. Mismatch repair
Section B C. Repair in alkylated DNA D. Repair of UV damaged DNA
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.51 Which one of the following suggests the multimeric nature of p53? Q.66 Which one of the following methods requires multiple sets of
A. It causes pyrimidine-pyrimidine cross linking primers to detect more than one organism targeting multiple loci from
B. Dominant negative mutants are available the genomic DNA?
C. p53 activates the genes A. ARDRA B. AFLP
D. Binds to single stranded DNA C. Multiplex PCR D. AP-PCR
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.52 Which of the following is also called the “suicide enzyme”? Q.67 The advantage of the Edman's reagent (phenyl isothiocyanate-
A. DNA glycosylase B. DNA photolyase PTH) over Sanger's reagent (fluorodinotrobenzene-FDNB) in peptide
C. Adenosine deaminase D. Exonuclease analysis is
(May 2013) A. complete oxidation of all disulfides
Q.53 IgG in patients with rheumatoid arthritis has abnormal B. complete denaturation
A. Top of Form Light chain sequence C. that the process can be repeated on the remaining peptide
B. Disufide bonds D. complete hydrolysis
C. Glycosylation D. Hinge regions (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.68 The transition state of a catalyzed reaction (ES?*) is a highly-
Q.54 Which one of the following pathogens does not use antigenic populated intermediate on the reaction pathway which is
variation as a major means of evading host defences? A. higher in energy than that of an uncatalyzed reaction
A. Top of Form Streptococcus pneumonia B. lower in energy than that of an uncatalyzed reaction
B. Influenza A C .lower in energy than the reaction substrate
C. HIV D. Trypanosomes D. bound very weakly to the catalyst
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.55 Warburg effect is characterised by Q.69 ETC has a potential to produce highly reactive free radicals that
A. Increased glycolysis B. Decreased glycolysis can damage the cells. Which one of the following is useful to prevent
C. Absence of glycolysis D. Malfunctional glycolysis oxidative damage in cells?
(May 2013) A. superoxide molecule B. glutathione peroxidase
Q.56 Amanita phalloides, which is responsible for the majority of fatal C. Antimycin A D. Rotenone
mushroom poisonings contains alpha-amanitin that specifically (May 2013)
inhibits Q.70 Gangliosides derived from glucosylceramide contain one or more
A. DNA Polymerase B. RNA Polymerase molecules of
C. Telomerase D. Topoisomerase A. Sialic acid B. Glycerol
(May 2013) C. Diacylglycerol D. Hyaluronic acid
Q.57 Phenylmethylsulfonyl fluoride (PMSF) is a/an (May 2013)
A. competive inhibitor of serine proteases Q.71 dUMP is converted to TMP by
B. non competive inhibitor of serine proteases A. Methylation B. Carboxylation
C. reversible inhibitor of serine proteases C. Deamination D. Decarboxylation
D. irreversible inhibitor of serine proteases (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.72 Esterification of cholesterol in plasma is catalyzed by
Q.58 Deficiency of HGPRT and Glucose-6-phosphatase leads to A. Lecithin: Cholesterol acyl transferase
A. Gaucher's disease B. Phenylketoneuria B. Acyl Co A: Cholesterol acyl transferase
C. Gout D. Alkaptonuria C. Succinyl CoA: Cholesterol acyl transferase
(May 2013) D. Malonyl CoA : Cholesterol acyl transferase
Q.59 Which is not an RNA virus? (May 2013)
A. Paramyxovirus B. HIV Q.73 What makes stem cells different from other cell types?

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A. Most of cell types can divide, but only stem cells can differentiate A. B cells B. T Cells
into a specific cell type C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages
B. Stem cells divide rapidly to develop a population of cells that will (May 2013)
differentiate into a set of cell types Q.84 Poly-L-leucine solution in dioxane is
C. Stem cell divide to give rise to a daughter stem cell an another cell A. α-helical B. Random coil
that divides and differentiates into only one cell type. C. β-sheet D. α-helix
D. Stem cell divides asymmetrically to give rise to a daughter cell which (May 2013)
remains as a stem cell and a second daughter cell that divides and Q.85 Which one of the following is best suited for hydrolyzing peptide
differentiates into one or more cell types. bonds on the carboxyl side of aromatic residues?
(May 2013) A. Chymotrypsin B. Trypsin
Q.74 Which is the correct hierarchy of gene activity in early Drosophila C. CNBr D. Performic acid
development? (May 2013)
A. Maternal, gap, pair-rule, segment polarity. Q.86 Which one of the following molecules has the highest diffusion
B. Gap, maternal, segment polarity, pair-rule. coefficient in plasma membrane?
C. Maternal, pair-rule, gap, segment polarity. A. F0-F1 ATPase B. Glycophorin
D. Gap, segment polarity, pair-rule, homeotic gene. C. ABC transporters D. Insulin receptor
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.75 The lineage of all adult somatic cells (cell lineage) has been Q.87 Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator (CFTR) Protein is a
documented in A. Sodium transporter B. Calcium antiporter
A. Drosophila melanogaster B. Arabidopsis thaliana C. Chloride transporter D. Potassium transporter
C. Caenorhabditis elegans D. Xenopus laevis
(May 2013)
Q.76 The Noble Prize in Physiology or Medicine ‘for the discovery that (May 2013)
mature cells can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent’ was Q.88 Which one of the following modifications targets a protein for
awarded to degradation?
A. Sir John B. Gurdon, Shinya Yamanaka A. Fernesylation B. Ubiquitination
B. Sydney Brenner, H. Robert Horvitz, John E. Sulston C. Sumoylation D. Palmitoylation
C. Edward B. Lewis, Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard, Eric F. Wieschaus (May 2013)
D. Elizabeth H. Blackburn, Carol W. Greider, Jack W. Szostak Q.89 Regulation of blood glucose level is by
(May 2013) A. Opposing effects of insulin and glucagon
Q.77 With reference to spontaneous mutations, one of the questions B. Additive effect of insulin and glucagon
asked by geneticists was whether spontaneous mutations are induced C. Independent of glucagon
in response to external stimuli or whether variants are present at a low D. Only by insulin
frequency in most populations. In order to answer this, “fluctuation (May 2013)
test” was carried out by Q.90 Which of the proteins or polysaccharides to which fibronectins
A. Salvador Luria and Max Delbrück are capable of binding is a normal plasma membrane component?
B. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod A. Collagen B. Fibrin
C. Thomas Hunt Morgan D. Seymour Benzer C. Heparan sulfate D. Integrin
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.78 Which one of the following experimental designs is most suited to Q.91 The observation that plasma membrane proteins mix after cell
answer whether a newly discovered transposable element in yeast, fusion provides evidence for
transposes through an mRNA intermediate? A. Rotational movement of plasma membrane proteins
A. Sequence the transcriptome of the yeast cell to see the presence of a B. The bilayer structure of biomolecules
corresponding mRNA. C. The fluid mosaic model
B. Introduce an intron which can be spliced out, in the transposable D. Interactions of plasma membrane proteins of two different cell types
element and test the presence or absence of the intron at a newly (May 2013)
transposed site. Q.92 The treatment of hepatocytes in in vitro culture with Ricin leads
C. Block transcription and then test whether transposition occurs. to
D. Using a suitable bioinformatics tool predict whether an mRNA A. Inhibition of endocytosis
intermediate can be formed. B. Inhibition of translation
(May 2013) C. Inhibition of Transcription
Q.79 With reference to lac operon which one of the following D. Inhibition of signal transduction
merodiploids will show a constitutive expression of β-galactosidase? (May 2013)
A. I-O+Z+Y-/ F' I+ O+Z-Y+ B. I-OCZ+Y- / F' I+O+Z-Y+ Q.93 In a gel filtration chromatography
C. I-O+Z+Y- / F' I+OCZ-Y+ D. I-OCZ-Y- / F' I+O+Z+Y+ A. The large protein will be eluted first
(May 2013) B. The small protein will be eluted first
Q.80 In what way are the homeotic genes of flowering plants similar to C. Both large and small will elute at the same time
those of Drosophila? D. The small protein with high charge will be eluted first
A. They encode for transcription factors of the homeobox class (May 2013)
B. They encode for transcription factors of the MADS-box type Q.94 Two dimensional gel electrophoresis is a technique for separating
C. Mutations in the homeotic genes cause transformation of one organ proteins
to other A. Based on charge
D. The gene in flowering plants have evolved from the same lineage as B. Based on mass
those in Drosophila. C. Based on both charge and mass
(May 2013) D. Based on its pI value
Q.81 Integrin signaling promotes cell migration by inducing changes in (May 2013)
the Q.95 Exact mass and sequence of proteins and peptides can be
A. Lateral diffusion rate of integral membrane proteins measured by
B. Flip-Flop rate of phospholipids A. MALDI-TOF B. Proton NMR
C. Cytoskeletal organization C. X-Ray D. Mass spectroscopy
D. Membrane raft (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.96 Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain
Q.82 Photon capturing prosthetic group moiety of chlorophyll molecule molecules to
is known as A. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength
A. Mn Porphyrin B. Mg Porphyrin B. Absorb light of many different wavelengths
C. Fe Porphyrin D. Mo Porphyrin C. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer
(May 2013) wavelength
Q.83 Opsonization process is involved with

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D. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter (May 2013)
wavelength Q.108 An enzyme has an activation energy of 10,700 cal/mole. How
(May 2013) many times faster (approximately) will the reaction proceed at 37 oC
Q.97 An IgG and an IgM samples (against human red blood cell surface compared to 15 oC?
antigen) were treated with β-mercaptoethanol independently and tried A. 5 times B. 10 times
for agglutinating human red blood cells with a view to checking the C. 4 times D. 8 times
hemagglutination titer of the two samples. Which one of the following (May 2013)
results is correct in this context? Q.109 Identify the small protein (167 amino acids) that is produced in
A. The titre of IgM was found to be drastically decreased in comparison adipocytes and acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to curtail
with that of IgG remaining unaltered. appetite
B. The titre of IgG was found to be drastically decreased in comparison A. LDL B. Lutenizing hormone
to that of IgM C. HDL D. Leptin
C. Both IgG and IgM exhibited the same titre (May 2013)
D. β-mercaptoethanol was unable to craft any chemical change on IgG Q.110 A TLC run of rat liver phospholipids is sprayed with ninhydrin,
and IgM and the colour is allowed to develop. Which phospholipids can be
(May 2013) detected in this way?
Q.98 A lectin can bind to plasma membrane vesicles if it is A. DP PC B. DS PC
A. Right side out C. PS D. Lecithin
B. Inside out (May 2013)
C. Both right side out and inside out Q.111 N-ethylmaleimide (NEM) is known to selectively inhibit
D. Digested with protease bacterial lactose transporters. Which amino acid of the transporter is
(May 2013) responsible for this inhibition?
Q.99 Membrane asymmetry can be regulated by A. Cysteine B. Cystine
A. ABC transporters C. Methionine D. Arginine
B. Flippase (May 2013)
C. Glycosylation of integral membrane proteins Q.112 Highest turnover number of an enzymatic reaction so far known
D. F1-ATPase is exhibited by
(May 2013) A. Aspartate transcarbamylase
Q.100 What is the activated reactant in the biosynthesis of B. ATPase
phosphatidylinositol from inositol? C. Lysozyme
A. CDP-ethanolamine B. CDP-diacylglycerol D. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Geranyl-pyrophosphate D. UDP-inositol (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.113 The chemical nature of covalent linkage in a disaccharide is
Q.101 Best method in tracking the synthesis and maturation of a known as
protein in a living cell is A. Ester B. Ether
A. Making a fusion protein with an appropriate epitope C. Amide D. Diester
B. Making a specific and high affinity monoclonal antibody (May 2013)
C. Making a specific and high affinity polyclonal antibody Q.114 Cancer cells have an unique property to exhibit uncontrolled
D. Making a fusion protein with GFP division. This is primarily due to
(May 2013) A. Activation of glucose transporters
Q.102 Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP) is a B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
powerful technique for calculating C. Inhibition of DNA replication
A. The diffusion coefficient of membrane lipids and proteins D. Loss of contact inhibition
B. The rate of synthesis of membrane proteins (May 2013)
C. The distance between a lipid and a membrane protein Q.115 To evaluate cytotoxic potential of any anti-cancer drug, which is
D. The extent of signal transduction in membrane upon ligand-receptor the molecule of choice?
interactions A. 3H Thymidine B. 3H Uridine
(May 2013) C. 3H Cytosine D. 3H Guanosine
Q.103 Treatment of the inside-out vesicles with an uncoupler like DNP (May 2013)
that allows protons to freely move across the vesicle membrane would Q.116 A monoclonal antibody binds to G-actin but NOT to F-actin. What
be expected to does this tell you about the epitope recognized by the antibody?
A. Increase ATP synthesis B. Inhibit ATP synthesis A. F-actin does not has the epitope against the antibody
C. Increase O2 consumption D. Inhibit electron transport B. In F-actin enough number of epitopes are not there
(May 2013) C. In F-actin the epitope is glycosylated and not able to bind
Q.104 The concept of “magic bullet” proposed long back for targeted D. The epitope is likely to be a structure that is buried when G-actin
anti-cancer drug delivery is not a reality till today because polymerizes to F-actin
A. Of multi drug resistance of cancer cells (May 2013)
B. Efficient drug has not being designed Q.117 Glutathione is
C. Of the lack of appropriate development of anti-cancer antibody A. L-Glu-Cys-Gly B. L--Glu-Met-Gly
D. Of the lack of avidin-biotin type high affinity of anti-cancer antibody C. D-Glu-Cys-Ala D. D-Glu-Cys-Ala
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.105 One of the major reasons of the failure of somatic gene therapy Q.118 Which one of the following amino acids is optically inactive?
protocol can be assigned to A. Glycine B. Methionine
A. Lack of appropriate gene delivery system C. Phenylalanine D. Glutamine
B. Lack of technique in site specific integration of foreign gene into the (May 2013)
chromosome of target cells Q.119 Protein responsible for transport of O2 from alveoli to the tissue
C. Low level expression of foreign genes in target cells is
D. High level expression of foreign genes in target cells A. Leghaemoglobin B. Oxyhaemoglobin
(May 2013) C. Haemoglobin D. Carbaminohaemoglobin
Q.106 SRP selectively recognizes ER signal sequences on newly
synthesized proteins. This is an outcome of Q.120 Process of formation of ATP from ADP during photosynthesis is
A. Hydrogen bonding B. Hydrophobic interactions referred to as
C. Ionic interactions D. Formation of covalent intermediate A. Photophosphorylation B. Photorespiration
(May 2013) C. Phosphorylation D. oxidative phosphorylation
Q.107 In the active site of Transaldolase, which amino acid forms the (May 2013)
Schiff base? Q.121 Glycogen and cellulose are
A. Arginine B. Methionine A. Helical and β-sheet structure, respectively.
C. Lysine D Glutamine B. Helical structures but with different degree of helicity.

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C. β-sheet structures. Q.130 Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of hypersensitive
D. Helical but glycogen is extensively branched molecule. response observed in plants during the attack of invading microbes?
(May 2013) A. Cells immediately surrounding the infection site die rapidly.
Q.122 Topoisomerase I does not require ATP even though it does B. Often preceded by rapid accumulation of reactive oxygen species.
cleavage and ligation of DNA. This is because C. Results in increase in net photosynthesis rate.
A. It uses GTP as energy D. A rapid spike of nitric oxide production accompanies the oxidative
B. It conserves the energy liberated during cleavage by binding with burst in the infected leaves.
tryptophan of an enzyme and reused (May 2013)
C. This reaction does not require energy Q.131 Plants carrying a transgene for glyphosate resistance will
D. It conserves the energy liberated during cleavage by binding with survive a field application of glyphosate that kills weeds. Which of the
tyrosine of an enzyme and reused following enzyme is inhibited by glyphosate?
(May 2013) A. Phosphoglycerate
Q.123 A synthetic mRNA of repeating sequence 5'- B. Phosphoglycolatephosphatase
CACACACACACACACAC... is used for a cell-free protein synthesizing C. Enolpyruvateshikimate -3 – phosphate synthase
system like the one used by Nirenberg. If we assume that protein D. Glycolatedehydrogenase
synthesis can begin without the need for an initiator codon, what (May 2013)
product or products would you expect to occur after protein synthesis? Q.132 A haploid sperm from one species and a haploid egg from
A. one protein, consisting of a single amino acid another species may form a diploid interspecies hybrid. Meiosis in
B. two proteins, each with an alternating sequence of two different these plants generally fails but can lead to rare duplicated gametes
amino acids called
C. one protein, with an alternating sequence of three different amino A. Aneuploid B. Autopolyploid
acids C. Heteropolyploid D. Allopolyploid
D. one protein, with an alternating sequence of two different amino (May 2013)
acids Q.133 Genes essential for embryo organization have been identified by
(May 2013) mutant analysis. Which one of the following mutants shows reduction
Q.124 You have obtained a sample of DNA, and you transcribe mRNA or inhibition of cotyledons and shoot apical meristem?
from this DNA and purify it. You then separate the two strands of the A. FACKEL B. GNOM
DNA and analyze the base composition (%) of each strand and of the C. MONOPTEROS D. GURKE
mRNA. You obtain the data shown in table below. Which strand of the (May 2013)
DNA is the coding strand, serving as a template for mRNA synthesis? Q.134 Which one of the following is true for the polymer-trapping
model of sugar diffusion in plant cells?
A. should be less concentrated in the mesophyll than in intermediary
cells.
B. Sucrose should be more concentrated in the mesophyll than in the
intermediary cells.
C. Sucrose concentration should be equal in mesophyll and
intermediary cells.
D. Sucrose should be hydrolysed.
A. Strand 1 B. Strand 2 (May 2013)
C. Both strands 1 and 2 D. Neither strand 1 nor 2 Q.135 The T-DNA of Agrobacterium must be excised from its circular
(May 2013) plasmid for its transfer into plant cells. Which one of the following
Q.125 Which one of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology complexes of Vir proteins is responsible for DNA nick at the left and
is INCORRECTLY paired with its applications? right border sequences?
A. restriction endonuclease - production of DNA fragments for gene A. VirA/VirC B. VirB6/VirB7
cloning. C. VirD1/VirD2 D. VirE2/VirG
B. DNA ligase - enzyme that cuts DNA, creating sticky ends. (May 2013)
C. DNA polymerase - copies DNA sequences in the polymerase chain Q.136 What will happen to the growth of a vertically growing root if
reaction. half of the root cap is removed?
D. reverse transcriptase - production of cDNA from mRNA. A. It will bend towards the side with remaining half of the root cap.
(May 2013) B. It will bend opposite to the side with remaining half of the root cap.
Q.126 Among the six types of plant cation channels identified, the C. The root growth will be inhibited.
shaker channels have been most thoroughly characterized. The shaker D. The root will keep growing gravitropically.
channels are highly selective to which one of the following cations? (May 2013)
A. Na+ B. K+ Q.137 GA2-oxidase cDNA from bean is overexpressed in wheat plant by
C. Ca2+ D. Mg2+ genetic engineering. Which one of the following phenotypes correctly
(May 2013) describes the resultant transgenic plant?
Q.127 The process of oxidation of plastohydroquinone (PQH2) A. The plant will be taller.
molecule during light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in which B. The plant will be shorter.
of the following major protein complexes of the thylakoid membrane? C. There will be no change in height.
A. ATP Synthase B. Photosystem I D. The plant will not survive.
C. Photosystem II D. Cytochrome b6f (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.138 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding
Q.128 In a metabolic engineering experiment the flux from primary ethylene signaling in plants?
carbon metabolism was diverted towards methylerythritol phosphate A. Ethylene binding inactivates ethylene receptors.
(MEP) pathway. Which one of the following secondary metabolites will B. In the absence of ethylene the receptors are inactive and suppress
be maximally synthesized? the ethylene response.
A. Alkaloids B. Phenolics C. Disrupted ethylene receptors are inactive in the presence or absence
C. Terpenes D. Glucosinolates of ethylene leading to constitutive ethylene response.
(May 2013) D. Missense mutation at binding site makes receptor insensitive to
Q.129 Which one of the following sequence of events is the first to take ethylene and could shut off the ethylene response.
place during systemic production of protease inhibitors in young (May 2013)
tomato leaves following insect feeding? Q.139 Leaf abscission is a phenomenon regulated by the amount of
A. Prosystemin is synthesized. auxin and ethylene. Which one of the following statements is correct
B. Systemin is produced. regarding the amount of auxin and ethylene during leaf abscission?
C. Jasmonic acid is transported through phloem to other parts of plants. A. Reduction in ethylene and increase in auxin.
D. Systemin is released from damaged cells into apoplast. B. Increase in both ethylene and auxin.
(May 2013) C. Reduction in auxin and increase in ethylene.
D. Decrease in both ethylene and auxin.

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 (May 2013) proteins with no disulphide linkages and a single domain, the
Q.140 Transgenic plants were developed with a gene conferring probability of misfolding is the highest when
kanamycin resistance. Four independent T o events were selfed and A. urea is diluted stepwise
~100 T1 seeds were germinated on kanamycin. The number of B. urea is diluted in a single step
kanamycin sensitive (KanS) and kanamycin resistant (KanR) progeny C. glutathione(s) addition is not done.
obtained in case is listed below: D. pH of urea solution is adjusted to 7.0-7.5
(May 2013)
Q.152 The net charge of a protein may not be sufficient to determine
whether a protein will bind to an ion exchanger. This is due to
A. The presence of hydrophobic patches on the protein surface
B. Heterogeneous spatial distribution of charged amino acids
C. The presence of repeating motifs in some proteins
D. The strong hydration potential of protein
(May 2013)
Q.153 In a large scale high cell density fed batch reactor, which one of
the following statements is true?
A. Dissolved oxygen starvation occurs at the top and glucose starvation
at bottom of the fermenter
B. Dissolved oxygen starvation occurs at the bottom and glucose
starvation at top of the fermenter
C. Both dissolved oxygen and glucose starvation occurs at the top of the
Identify the line where the transgene has integrated at a single locus fermenter
A. Line One B. Line Two D. Both dissolved oxygen and glucose starvation occurs at the bottom
C. Line Three D. Line Four of the fermenter
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.141 Using transgenic technology male sterile plants are developed by Q.154 Optimum bead loading for cell disruption in a bead mill is
A. Expressing barnase gene in tapetum. A. 40-50% B. 80-90%
B. Targeting barnase protein to tapetum. C. 60-70% D. 50-60%
C. Expressing barnase gene in tapetum and barstar gene in the rest of
the plant. Q.155 In which one of the following membrane separation processes,
D. Expressing barnase gene in tapetum and targeting barstar protein in concentration difference is the driving force?
the rest of the plant. A. Reverse osmosis B. Ultra filtration
(May 2013) C. Cross flow filtration D. Dialysis
Q.142 One of the concerns in commercial usage of transgenic plants is (May 2013)
the spread of transgene through pollen flow. Which one of the Q.156 Expanded bed chromatography runs on the principle of
following methods can be used to circumvent this problem? A. Fick’s law of diffusion
A. Use of terminator technology B. Stroke’s law of sedimentation
B. Chloroplast transformation C. Darcy’s equation
C. Developing male sterile lines D. Karman and Kozney Equation
D. Planting of refugia
(May 2013)
Q.143 Which one of the following can be used as a selection marker for (May 2013)
developing transgenic plants? Q.157 Which one of the following statements pertaining to
A. green fluorescent protein ultrafiltration is INCORRECT?
B. β-glucuronidase A. In symmetric membranes entire membrane thickness acts as
C. β-galactosidase selective barrier
D. hygromycin phosphotransferase B. In asymmetric membrane only a thin top layer determines the
(May 2013) selective barrier
Q.144 Ac transposon is a /an C. All molecules below the Molecular Weight Cut Off (MWCO) –value
A. Non-autonomous element B. Autonomous element will be retained on the membrane while all the other molecules will be
C. Retrotransposon D. Intron permeated
(May 2013) D. Membrane processes can be distinguished according to the type of
Q.145 SSR is said to be a --------------type of marker driving force
A. Dominant B. Co-dominant (May 2013)
C. Recessive D. Epistatic Q.158 Which one of the following factors affects the morphology of
(May 2013) fungal biomass the least?
Q.146 Direct DNA uptake by protoplasts can be stimulated by A. Inoculum size B. Media composition
A. Polyethylene glycol B. Sucrose C. Incubation pH D. Agitation rate
C. CaCl2 D. LiCl (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.159 In order to fractionate particles based on size; which of the
Q.147 Aroma in rice is due to following centrifuges is best suited?
A. Acetyl choline B. 4-benzyl pyrroline A. Tubular centrifuge B. Multichamber centrifuge
C. 2-ethyl pyrroline D. 2-acetyl-1-pyrroline C. Disk stack centrifuge D. Decanter centrifuge
(May 2013)
Q.148 The male sterile cytoplasm in pearl millet is Q.160 Which one of the following purification steps always requires a
A. Milo B. CK 60A high initial ionic strength in the sample?
C. Tift 23A D. W.A A. Ion exchange chromatography
(May 2013) B. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
Q.149 The pathogen against which the crop rotation can be adopted C. Chromatofocusing
A. Soil invader B. Soil inhabitant D. Gel filtration chromatography
C. Soil-borne D. Biotrophic (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.161 In Sephadex G series (gel filtration) as the G number increases
Q.150 Iodine test is used in the detection of from 10, 15, 25….200, the pore size of the beads
A. Bacterial leaf blight of rice B. Tungro virus A. Decreases
C. Rice Blast D. Bacterial leaf streak B. Increases
(May 2013) C. remains constant
Q.151 When urea-denatured inclusion bodies are renatured, protein D. varies from manufacturer to manufacturer
aggregates can sometimes be found due to misfolding. For small (May 2013)

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Q.162 In a large scale bioreactor with fungal fermentation, the A. are equal
dissolved oxygen concentration gradient is primarily due to the B. Y’ X S (G) is greater than Y XS
A. large volume of the reactor C. Y’ XS (G) is lesser than Y XS
B. small size of agitator D. Y’ XS (G) is not related to Y XS
C. Low air flow rate per unit reactor volume (May 2013)
D. Pseudoplastic nature of the broth Q.171 The logistic equation for growth of a bacterial culture is given by
(May 2013) X=XoeKβ. Where X and Xo are biomass concentration, k and β are
Q.163 When in a plug flow reactor with low levels of axial mixing, is the constants. The model depicts that initially when x is small, the growth
maximum product concentration obtained? pattern of the culture would be
A. At the exit of reactor A. Linear
B. At the inlet of reactor B. Cubical
C. It’s the same throughout the reactor C. Exponential
D. It depends upon the product formation kinetics D. Inhibited by the theoretical maximum biomass value
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.164 The reasons for existence of lag phase in a batch cultivation Q.172 In an anaerobic fermentor, broth is agitated intensely at 100rpm
process in a bioreactor could be due to the following reasons. Identify in a 3.0 m3 baffled tank using a Rushton turbine with diameter of 0.5m.
the best combination from the following. If the diameter of the impeller is decreased to 0.25m the mixing time in
P: low inoculum size (seconds) would approximately increase ………fold
Q:low preinoculum size A. 2 B. 4
R:stationary phase inoculum C. 8 D. 32
S:inoculum not having the same medium as in batch reactor (May 2013)
Q.173 Culture comprising a B. subtlis strain by inoculating 1g of cells
A. P, Q, R and S B. P, R and S into 1 liter bioreactor. Fermentor containing 10g/l of glucose. The
C. P, Q and S D. Q only maximum specific growth rate of the culture is 1.0 /h. The biomass
(May 2013) yield from glucose is 0.5 g/g. If the residual glucose concentration left
Q.165 Increasing aeration at a particular rpm does not always lead to out is 1g/l, the final cell concentration in g/l achieved would be around
increase in oxygen mass transfer in a bioreactor. This is because A. 4.5 B. 5
A. As aeration increases, the bubble size increases. C. 5.5 D. 6
B. As aeration increases, the bubble size decreases (May 2013)
C. Agitator can get flooded leading to inconsistencies in bubble size Q.174 Continuous stirred tank fermenter is characterized by (biomass
D. Residence time of the bubble does not change concentration X kg/m3, residual substrate is S kg/m3, Sf=substrate
(May 2013) concentration in feed kg/m3, Dilution rate = D and μm>>D and Km<Sf,
Q.166 If in a fed batch cultivation of recombinant E. coli, feeding of the XD= the biomass productivity kg/m3h. If the dilution rate is doubled to
substrate is based on the following equation F(t)= [μVX(t)]/SF.YXS. 2D then the new steady state values in comparison with earlier steady
Where μ is specific growth rate and is maintained constant, F(t) is feed state is characterized by
rate, X(t) biomass cell concentration,YXS is biomass yield coefficient A. decreased X,increased S,increased X D
and SF is the substrate feed concentration. The feed pattern indicates B. X doubles, S unchanged, XD unchanged
that with increasing time, every cell is receiving the C. X unchanged,S=doubles,XD unchanged
A. same amount of substrate/time D. X unchanged, S=doubles, decreased X D
B. increasing amounts of substrate /time (May 2013)
C. decreasing amounts of substrate /time Q.175
D. initially increases and then decreases/time

(May 2013)
Q.167 Match the KLa determination method in Group I with the
characteristics of method in Group II
A. Fick’s law for mass diffusion
B. Henderson Hasselbach equation
C. Stefan Boltzman Law
D. Monod kinetics
(May 2013)
Q.176 A fluidized bed is formed when
A. friction is zero
B. Gravity force is less than fluid friction
C. Pressure force is equal but acts in opposite direction to the gravity
force
A. P-1, Q-2, R-3 and S-4 B. P-3, Q-4, R-1 and S-2 D. Sum of fluid friction and pressure force is equal but opposite to
C. P-2, Q-4, R-1 and S-3 D. P-4, Q-2, R-1 and S-3 gravity force
Q.168 Under unaerated condition in a fermentor, the power consumed (May 2013)
by a single impeller was 10,000 W. The diameter of the impeller D is Q.177 Batch filtration often characterized by continuous increase of the
1m and the density of the medium is 1000 kg/m3 and the stirrer speed inlet pressure of slurry, is called the ……………filtration
is 1s-1. If one more impeller is added to the fermentor, power A. constant rate B. varying pressure
consumption would be approximately C. varying rate D. constant pressure
A. 10,000 W B. 12,000 W (May 2013)
C. 20,000 W D. 25,000 W Q.178 The most precise method of estimating the metabolic heat
(May 2013) produced in an aerobic fermentation process is by
Q.169 For mixing solid contents in a media mixing tank, inclined blade A. Measuring oxygen uptake
turbine is used because it B. Measuring CO2 production
A. acts like an axial flow impeller with downward movement of liquid C. Measuring biomass production
B. is more powerful as compared to flat blade turbine and hence better D. Measuring both biomass and product
mixing (May 2013)
C. prevents vortex formation Q.179 The ethanol yield per unit mass of substrate consumed (YP/S ) in
D. is a radial flow impeller with sideward movement of liquid an anaerobic fermentation process can be improved by
(May 2013) A. Increasing specific growth rate and increasing maintenance
Q.170 In microbial cultivation experiment with cells having significant coefficient
maintenance requirements, the measured growth yield Y’ XS (G) and B. Decreasing specific growth rate and increasing maintenance
the true growth yield Y XS coefficient

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C. Decreasing specific growth rate and decreasing maintenance B. Hyper-IgM syndrome
coefficient C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Increasing specific growth rate and decreasing maintenance D. X-L SCID syndrome
coefficient (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.190 Which one of the following conditions generally favours tumour
Q.180 Exponentially growing cells increase 10 fold in 10 hours, the development?
time required to increase 5 fold will be ………hours A. Hyper gammaglobulinemia
A. 5 log 10 B. 5 B. Impaired innate immunity
C. Log10/log5 D. 10 log5 C. Impaired cell mediated immunity
(May 2013) D. Impaired humoral immunity
Q.181 There are five classes of immunoglobulins [Ig]: IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA (May 2013)
and IgE. Upon stimulation of B cells through B cell receptor and a Q.191 Which one of the following is NOT a single gene disease?
switch factor, which one of the following Ig classes does NOT switch? A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
A. IgM B. IgG B. Hemophilia A
C. IgD D. IgE C. Spinal muscular atrophy
(May 2013) D. Turner syndrome
Q.182 For quantitation of an antigen, researchers A, B, C and D used the (May 2013)
following set-up. Which one of the following set up is the most Q.192 Dental plaque is an example of the formation of
sensitive? A. Calcium deposition B. Endotoxin
A. Antigen-coated plates were directly probed with HRP-labelled C. Biofilm D. Exotoxin
antigen-specific antibody (May 2013)
B. Antigen-specific antibody coated plates were trapped with the Q.193 Rheumatic fever is a complication of
antigen, followed by direct probing with HRP-labelled antigen-specific A. Streptococcal pharyngitis B. Tuberculous meningitis
antibody C. Pneumonia D. Whooping cough
C. Antigen-specific antibody captured antigen was probed with biotin- (May 2013)
labelled antibody that is specific to the antigen, followed by Q.194 Undulant fever is a characteristic of
streptavidin-HRP A. Tuberculosis B. Brucellosis
D. Antigen-specific antibody coated plates were trapped with the C. Botulism D. Listeriosis
antigen, sequentially followed by antigen-specific antibody, a (May 2013)
secondary antibody specific to this antibody, an HRP-labelled tertiary Q.195 Bubonic plague is the infection of
antibody specific to the secondary antibody A. Spleen B. Liver
(May 2013) C. Lungs D. Lymph nodes
Q.183 A mouse deficient in ROR-gammaT will be deficient in (May 2013)
A. T-reg cells B. Th1 cells Q.196 Leptospirosis is transmitted by exposure to animal
C. Th2 cells D. Th17 cells A. Urine and meat products
(May 2013) B. Fecal matter and milk products
Q.184 The specificity in IFN-α/β induced response comes from C. Vectors and water
A. Phosphorylated homodimer of STAT-1/STAT-1 D. Urine and milk products
B. A complex of IRF9, STAT-1 and STAT2 binding to ISRE sequence (May 2013)
C. Phosphorylated homodimer of STAT-1/STAT-2 Q.197 Which one of the following is correct when Na ion concentration
D. A complex of IRF9, STAT-1 and STAT2 binding to GAS sequence in the bathing fluid of a squid giant axon is less than that present in sea
(May 2013) water, but the osmotic pressure is maintained by substituting it with
Q.185 CD152-deficient mice have lymphoproliferative disorder. The choline chloride?
disorder is characterized by A. Hyperpolarization in membrane potential
A. Exaggerated B cell proliferation B. The amplitude of the action generated in the nerve fibre will be
B. Very high T cell proliferation higher than normal action potential in sea water
C. Very high NK T cell proliferation C. Depolarization in membrane potential
D. No proliferation of B cells and T cells in response to antigenic D. The amplitude of the action potential generated in the nerve fibre
stimulation will be lower than normal action potential in sea water
(May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.198 When Tetrodotoxin is administered in bathing medium of a
Q.186 MHC class-II molecule can signal because it nerve fibre during voltage clamp experiments the membrane current
A. has a long cytoplasmic domain where signaling molecules can bind may show which one of the following changes?
B. has a transmembrane domain that interacts with membrane A. Absence of outward membrane current
signaling molecules B. Absence of inward membrane current
C. interacts with membrane receptors to make a supramolecular C. Higher amplitude of outward membrane current
complex that signals D. Higher amplitude of inward membrane current
D. is internalized immediately after ligand binding and results in (May 2013)
signaling Q.199 The arrival of the action potential in a presynaptic knob initiates
(May 2013) quantal release of neurotransmitter by influx of Ca ions, which may act
Q.187 The T cells in CD28-deficient mice do not proliferate in response by
to re-exposure to the same antigen. This is because A. Changing the viscosity of cytoplasm and thereby increasing the
A. the T cells cannot memorize the antigenic specificity Brownian movements of synaptic vesicles
B. the T cells do not secrete interleukin-2 at all B. Activating calcium-calmodulin protein kinase
C. the T cells are rendered Anergic C. Dephosphorylating clathrin
D. the T cells die immediately after antigen re-exposure D. Phosphorylation of dynamin
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.188 CD1 molecules are unique antigen-presenting molecules because Q.200 Which one of the following changes will occur when the external
they K+ ion concentration in the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles
A. are non-MHC Class-I molecules is increased?
B. structurally mimic MHC Class-II molecules A. The rate of occurrence of MEPP is increased
C. are MHC Class-I-like molecules presenting lipid and glycolipid B. The amplitude of MEPP is increased
antigens C. The rate of occurrence of MEPP is decreased
D are non-MHC Class-II molecules D. The amplitude of MEPP is decreased
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.189 Mutations in common gamma chain of receptors for IL-2 Q.201 The black widow spider venom, alpha-latrotoxin produces its
cytokine family cause neurotoxicity by
A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency A. Blocking calcium ion channels in the active zone

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B. Binding with neurexin resulting in a massive discharge of synaptic Q.211 The demyelination of the central nervous system white matter
vesicles produced by the canine distemper virus is an example of
C. Binding with SNAP-25 causes blocking of exocytosis A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulation necrosis
D. Destructing syntaxin causes inhibition of the docking of vesicles C. Zenker’s necrosis D. Liquefactive necrosis
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.202 The generalized seizure is due to the activity of Q.212 Catarrhal exudate is observed in
A. Voltage dependent K ion channels A. Stomach of a dog B. Brain of a cow
B. GABAA channels C. Small intestine of a cat D. Trachea of a horse
C. T-type Ca ion channels (May 2013)
D. AMPA receptor channels Q.213 Sudden onset of heavy mortality in chicken with cyanotic comb
(May 2013) and wattles, closed eyes and a semicomatose state are characteristic
Q.203 Which one of the following genes is related with the late-onset of features of
Alzheimer’s disease? A. Fowl plague B. Newcastle disease
A. Amyloid precursor protein (APP) C. Blue comb D. Infectious bronchitis.
B. Presenilin 1 (May 2013)
C. Apolipoprotein E4 Q.214 Most prominent initial symptom of Vitamin A deficiency in cows
D. Presenilin 2 and horses is
(May 2013) A. Copius lacrymation B. Copius salivation
Q.204 The first genetic maps that were developed used genes as C. Xeropthalmia D. Night blindness
markers because (May 2013)
A. the phenotype governed by the gene could be visually identified and Q.215 Hydropericardium syndrome is otherwise known as
its inheritance pattern followed. A. Leechi heart disease B. Chicken flu
B. the location of the gene on the chromosome could be easily observed C. EDS 76 D. Chicken heart attack
by the banding patterns like in the polytene chromosomes. (May 2013)
C. the genes specifying a given phenotype could be easily cloned. Q.216 Scombroid Fish Poisoning is due to the high levels of free ---------
D. genes spanned larger regions than the current day DNA markers like -- in fish tissue
SNPs. A. Histidine B. Proline
(May 2013) C. Glutamate D. Aspartate
Q.205 In E. coli four Hfr stains donate the following genetic markers, (May 2013)
shown in the order donated Q.217 The synthetic equivalent of neuropharmacologically active
Strain1: A D C E Q peptides obtained from the marine snail Conus magus is
Strain 2: A K M T Y A. Zinconotide B. Discodermin
Strain 3: C E Q W X C. Didemnins D. Dolastatins
Stain 4: M T Y X W (May 2013)
All these HFr strains are derived from the same F + strains. What is the Q.218 Prophenol Oxidase-mediated immune system is found in
order of these markers on the circular chromosome of the original F +? A. Crustaceans B. Coelenterates
A. A D C E Q W X Y T M K A C. Tunicates D. Protozoans
B. Y T M K A D C E Q W X Y (May 2013)
C. D C E Q A K M T Y X W D Q.219 Bryostatin is a marine derived anticancer agent obtained from
D. C E Q W X Y T M A K D C A. Tethya crypta B. Salinospora tropica
(May 2013) C. Bugula neritina D. Trididemnum solidum
Q.206 Which of the following statements is true? (May 2013)
A. There is a lesser probability for a crossover to occur between 2 Q.220 Viral encephalopathy and retinopathy in fishes are caused by
genes farther apart from the genes nearer to each other. A. Betanodavirus B. Rhabdovirus
B. There is a greater probability for a crossover to occur between 2 C. Baculovirus D. Rotavirus
genes farther apart from the genes nearer to each other. (May 2013)
C. Probability of crossover between 2 genes is not related to the Q.221 Environmental gene tags are
distance between them. A. 16S rRNA gene signatures from the environment
D. Maximum frequency of recombination that can result from crossing B. Habitat-specific functional genes from microbial communities
over between linked genes is 100%. C. Non-essential genes from microbial communities
(May 2013) D. Fluorescently tagged metagenome
Q.207 In which one of the following evolutionary processes, random (May 2013)
changes in allele frequency can lead to a loss of genetic diversity? Q.222 Which one of the following is NOT true of biophotolysis?
A. Recombinational event A. It is a photoheterotrophic process
B. Frequency –dependent selection B. It is a photoautotrophic process
C. Genetic drift C. H2O is the electron donor in the process
D. Spontaneous selection D. [FeFe]-hydorgenase catalyses the reaction
(May 2013)
Q. 208 In human pointed eyebrows are dominant to smooth eyebrows
and widow’s peak (downward pointed frontal hairline) is dominant to (May 2013)
continuous hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the Q.223 Which is NOT a characteristic of a plasmid used for production of
offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both DNA vaccines in fish?
genes and an individual homozygous recessive for both genes? A. Promoter- and enhancer sequences
A. 9:3:3:1 B. 1:01 B. Poly-adenylation sequence
C. 1:1:1:1 D. 9:03:04 C. Transcriptional termination sequence
(May 2013) D. Poly-T- tail
Q.209 The character regulated by a holandric gene (May 2013)
A. passes from the father through the son to the grandson. Q.224 White spot syndrome virus has
B. passes from the father through the daughter to the grandsons. A. vertical transmission
C. passes from the mother through the daughter to the granddaughter. B. horizontal transmission
D. passes from the mother through the daughter to the grandson. C. both vertical and horizontal transmission
(May 2013) D. an intermediate host
Q.210 Necrosis that develops in tissues subsequent to denaturation of (May 2013)
structural and enzymatic proteins soon after death is appropriately Q.225 Haemorrhagic septicemia in carp is caused by
referred to as A. Vibrio parahemolyticus B. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Fat necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis C. Aeromonas hydrophila D. Streptococcus sp
C. Coagulative necrosis D. Caseous necrosis (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.226 Primary aetiology of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome is

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A. IHHNV B. Gregarines A. Gly from non-Gly residue
C. Aphanomyces invadans D. Baculovirus B. Non-Gly from Gly
(May 2013) C. Arg from Lys
Q.227 Net Primary production (NPP) = D. Non-Pro from Pro
A. GPP – respiration B. GPP - (Rp + Rh + Rd) (May 2013)
C. Respiration- GPP D. GPP – Rp Q.241 Which of the following complementarity determining regions
(May 2013) (CDRs) of antibodies is sequentially and conformationally the most
Q.228 The lower, dense region of the atmosphere is known as variable?
A. Hydrosphere B. Ionosphere A. CDR1 of Light chain B. CDR3 of Light chain
C. Stratosphere D. Troposphere C. CDR1 of Heavy chain D. CDR3 of Heavy chain
(May 2013) (May 2013)
Q.229 The two most important climatic factors affecting the Q.242 The LIS technique is used in the MUMmer algorithm for
distribution of world biomes are A. Identification of MUMs B. Sorting of MUMs
A. Temperature and precipitation C. Alignment of MUMs D. Tabulating MUMs
B. Latitude and temperature (May 2013)
C. Altitude and temperature Q.243 The numbers at the internal nodes of a phylogenetic tree
D. Humidity and precipitation indicate
(May 2013) A. Number of times the OTUs were clustered together
Q.230 A high BOD value in aquatic environment is indicative of B. Number of parsimony sites shared by OTUs
A. A pollution free system C. Number of mismatches shared by OTUs
B. A highly polluted system due to excess of nutrients D. Similarity score of OTUs that cluster together
C. A highly polluted system due to abundant heterotrophs (May 2013)
D. A highly pure water with abundance of autotrophs Q.244 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(May 2013) A. Needleman & Wunsch algorithm is used for global alignment of pair
Q.231 Benthic organisms of lakes or sea are usually of sequences.
A. Producer B. Herbivores B. There could be several possible local alignments as part of a global
C. Carnivores D. Decomposers alignment.
(May 2013) C. In Needleman & Wunsch algorithm sequences are randomised by
Q.232 Which of these biomes would you expect to find a coyote living keeping length and composition same.
in? D. The terms identity, similarity and homology are expressed as %.
A. Desert B. Taiga (May 2013)
C. tropical rain forest D. Tundra Q.245 Structure determination of myoglobin in 1958 revealed that the
(May 2013) protein consists mostly of
Q.233 The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs A. Right-handed α-helices B. Left-handed α-helices
A. UV-A B. UV-B C. β-sheets D. Random coils
C. UV-A & B D. UV-B & C (May 2013)
(May 2013) Q.246 One side of a 30-residue α-helix faces the hydrophobic interior of
Q.234 The maximum biodiversity in India occurs at a protein. If the helical wheel of this helix were to be drawn, which of
A. Western Himalayas B. North East Himalayas the following residues are likely to be hydrophobic?
C. Western Ghats D. Eastern Ghats A. 10th, 20th and 30th
(May 2013) B. 1st, 6th, 11th, 16th, 21st and 26th
Q.235 Extinction rate is high at C. 1st, 4th, 7th, 10th, 13th, 16th, 19th, 22nd, 25th and 28th
A. Main lands D. 1st, 5th, 8th, 12th, 15th, 19th, 22nd, 26th and 30th
B. Large islands (May 2013)
C. Small islands near mainlands Q.247 The dielectric constant of protein interiors is likely to be
D. Small island far from mainlands A. Similar to that of water’s, i.e. close to 80
(May 2013) B. Much smaller than that of water
Q.236 Bootstrapping technique in molecular phylogeny analysis is used C. Much more than that of water
to derive additional datasets by D. At some places in the interior more and at some other places less
A. Swapping the columns in Multiple sequence alignment than that of water
B. Randomising individual sequences (May 2013)
C. Inserting deletions and insertions Q.248 In a helix-turn-helix motif in proteins, which one of the following
D. Shuffling the order of sequences is true for binding to nucleic acids?
(May 2013) A. Both the helices bind
Q.237 Which of the following statements regarding scoring matrices of B. Neither of the two helices bind
proteins is incorrect? C. Only the 1st helix is important in binding
A. Most scoring matrices are symmetrical. D. The 2nd helix is important in binding
B. The scores are log odd ratios of observed vs expected probabilities. (May 2013)
C. Gap is considered as 21st amino acid in deriving some of the scoring Q.249 In the prokaryotic ribosome structure, the peptidyl transferase
matrices. activity of the ribosomes is found
D. Most of the matrices assign highest score to substitution of an amino A. Entirely in the ribosomal RNA
acid with itself. B. Entirely in the ribosomal proteins
(May 2013) C. Partially embedded in the RNA and partially in the proteins
Q.238 Trade off between sensitivity and specificity can be represented D. Ribosomal RNA binds the m-RNA but proteins catalyze peptidyl
by transferase activity
A. Receiving Operating Character curve (May 2013)
B. Positive Predictive value Q.250 Maximum parsimony analysis in the context of molecular
C. Principle Component analysis phylogeny implies
D. Regression analysis A. Complex hypotheses are preferred over simpler hypotheses
(May 2013) B. Complex and simple hypothesis need not be considered
Q.239 Which of the following interactions are NOT characteristics of C. Simpler hypotheses are preferred over complex hypotheses
epitope-paratope interactions? D. Both complex and simple hypotheses are considered, and the one,
A. Hydrogen bond B. Disulfide bond which is more suitable to observations is applied
C. Salt bridges D. Van der Waal’s
(May 2013) Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans
Q.240 While building a model of a protein using homology modeling 1 C 51 B 101 D 151 A 201 B
approach, special care needs to be exercised while assigning
conformation of 2 A 52 C 102 A 152 B 202 C

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 3 C 53 C 103 D 153 A 203 C
4 C 54 A 104 D 154 B 204 A
5 B 55 A 105 B 155 D 205 B
6 B 56 B 106 D 156 B 206 B
7 D 57 D 107 C 157 C 207 C
8 A 58 C 108 C 158 C 208 C
9 A 59 C 109 D 159 B 209 A
10 A 60 C 110 C 160 B 210 C
11 D 61 A 111 A 161 B 211 D
12 C 62 C 112 D 162 D 212 B
13 D 63 B 113 B 163 A 213 A
14 D 64 A 114 D 164 B 214 A
15 A 65 D 115 A 165 C 215 A
16 A 66 C 116 D 166 A 216 A
17 A 67 C 117 A 167 B 217 A
18 D 68 C 118 A 168 C 218 A
19 B 69 B 119 B 169 A 219 C
20 A 70 A 120 A 170 C 220 A
21 C 71 A 121 A 171 C 221 B
22 A 72 A 122 D 172 C 222 A
23 D 73 D 123 D 173 C 223 D
24 D 74 A 124 A 174 A 224 C
25 D 75 C 125 B 175 A 225 C
26 C 76 A 126 B 176 D 226 C
27 A 77 A 127 D 177 A 227 B
28 B 78 B 128 C 178 A 228 D
29 A 79 B 129 A 179 B 229 A
30 C 80 C 130 C 180 D 230 B
31 B 81 C 131 C 181 C 231 D
32 B 82 B 132 D 182 C 232 D
33 B 83 D 133 D 183 D 233 D
34 A 84 A 134 B 184 B 234 C
35 C 85 A 135 C 185 B 235 D
36 C 86 B 136 A 186 C 236 A
37 D 87 C 137 B 187 C 237 C
38 C 88 B 138 B 188 C 238 A
39 A 89 A 139 C 189 D 239 B
40 C 90 D 140 B 190 C 240 B
41 C 91 C 141 A 191 D 241 D
42 B 92 B 142 B 192 C 242 B
43 A 93 A 143 D 193 A 243 A
44 A 94 C 144 B 194 B 244 D
45 B 95 A 145 B 195 D 245 A
46 A 96 C 146 A 196 A 246 D
47 D 97 A 147 D 197 D 247 B
48 C 98 A 148 C 198 B 248 D
49 C 99 B 149 A 199 B 249 A
50 A 100 B 150 B 200 A 250 C

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