Test: Internship Entrance Exam

Question 1 of 45 Risk Management

True or False: Residual risk is the risk that remains after an organization has implemented
risk mitigation measures.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 2 of 45 Course 2

What should be included in a security assessment report?

A) All of the above

B) Suggestions for implementing changes to improve security.
C) Findings and recommendations based on the results.
D) Risk rating definitions for the findings.

Question 3 of 45 SOC 2

True or False: SOC 2 Type 2 reports are intended solely for internal use within an
organization.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 4 of 45 Terminology

Who can sign reports for their company based on the training they undergo?

A) Internal Security Assessor (ISA)

B) Qualified Security Assessor (QSA)
C) Issuing bank
D) Merchants
Question 5 of 45 ISO 27001

Which is the best-known standard in the ISO family?

A) ISO 27002
B) ISO 27000
C) ISO 27004
D) ISO 27001

Question 6 of 45 Course 2 Sub

What risks does an organization face when outsourcing data management to third-party
vendors?

A) No risks at all
B) Operational, legal, regulatory, compliance, reputational, financial, and strategic risks
C) Risks limited to operational disruptions
D) Only financial risks

Question 7 of 45 Pen Testing

What is one of the primary goals of a PCI penetration test?

A) Determining the location of the security policies

B) Confirming the presence of an IDS system
C) Assessing how malicious actors can access cardholder data
D) Identifying known vulnerabilities

Question 8 of 45 Risk Management

Risk is defined as:

A) The certainty of achieving a desired outcome

B) The likelihood of success in a venture
C) The level of excitement associated with taking a chance
D) The potential for adverse events or loss in a given situation
Question 9 of 45 Frameworks

True or False: ISO is an international standard, whereas NIST is only recognized in the
United States.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 10 of 45 GDPR

True or False: GDPR applies only to organizations based in the European Union (EU).

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 11 of 45 GDPR

Under GDPR, what rights do data subjects (individuals) have regarding their personal data?

A) The right to request unlimited data storage by organizations.

B) The right to access, rectify, and erase their data, among other rights.
C) The right to sell their personal data to the highest bidder.
D) The right to unrestricted data processing by organizations.

Question 12 of 45 Internship

Please provide a hypothetical example where you worked with an organization or a client to
implement a risk reduction control or remediation.

Describe the control or remediation.

Describe the risk or vulnerability the remediation resolved.
Describe the key stakeholder roles you worked with to implement the remediation.
Describe any challenges you experienced and how you worked through them.
Describe any key successes to the process.
Question 13 of 45 Intro

True or False: The PCI DSS standard has 10 requirements.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 14 of 45 Account Data

True or False: It is strongly recommended to apply strong cryptography both at the data level
and the session level during the transmission of PAN over open networks, as per
Requirement 4.2.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 15 of 45 Access Control

Which of the following is NOT considered a valid authentication factor in PCI DSS?

A) Something that the user is (e.g., a fingerprint)

B) Something that the user possesses (e.g., a smart card)
C) Something the user knows (e.g., a password)
D) Something that the user wants

Question 16 of 45 ISO 27001

What does the 'I' in ISO stand for?

A) Independent
B) Information
C) International
D) Institute
Question 17 of 45 Terminology

Which of the following is considered Cardholder Data (CHD)?

A) The cardholder name

B) The AOC
C) The issuing bank
D) Cardholder's security question

Question 18 of 45 GRC

True or False: An organization's risk appetite represents the amount of risk it is willing to
tolerate.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 19 of 45 Policy Drafting

Which section of a policy typically outlines the consequences or penalties for non-
compliance?

A) Introduction
B) Enforcement
C) Definitions
D) Purpose

Question 20 of 45 Generic

What are the common techniques used for risk identification?

A) Budget analysis, stakeholder engagement, and progress tracking.

B) Quality control, project scheduling, and risk mitigation.
C) Vendor selection, resource allocation, and market research.
D) Brainstorming, SWOT analysis, risk registers
Question 21 of 45 Course 2 Sub

What is the purpose of assessing vendors before onboarding them?

A) To evaluate potential risks posed by vendors before finalizing contracts

B) To extend the onboarding process
C) To make onboarding faster and easier
D) To avoid vendor assessments

Question 22 of 45 Vulnerability Management

Why is it important to perform code reviews before custom software is released to

production?

A) To introduce security vulnerabilities intentionally.

B) To increase software development costs.
C) To identify and address potential vulnerabilities.
D) To delay the release of software.

Question 23 of 45 Frameworks

Which SOC report acts as a disclaimer to a company's security posture?

A) SOC 2 Type 2 report

B) SOC 3 report
C) SOC 1 Type 1 report
D) SOC 2 Type 1 report

Question 24 of 45 Generic

Which of the following is NOT a factor in multi-factor authentication?

A) Something you have

B) Something you know
C) Something you are
D) Something you like
Question 25 of 45 Access Control

When reviewing user access rights for compliance with PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry
Data Security Standard), which practice ensures adherence to the requirements?

A) Allowing unrestricted access to all employees for swift data retrieval.

B) Granting broad access permissions to facilitate operational efficiency.
C) Conducting periodic reviews to remove unnecessary access and regularly updating
access permissions based on job roles.
D) Implementing a one-time access grant for all users without periodic reassessment.

Question 26 of 45 GRC

What is the primary purpose of a risk assessment in the GRC framework?

A) To identify opportunities for revenue growth

B) To evaluate the effectiveness of marketing strategies
C) To assess and manage potential risks to the organization
D) To track employee performance metrics

Question 27 of 45 Auditing

What information is typically excluded in the final compliance audit report to management?

A) The period of validity for the audit.

B) Any non-conformities or opportunities for improvement and corrective action plans.
C) The company's financial information
D) The audit scope, auditor name, and credentials.

Question 28 of 45 Internship

Provide me a scenario of you being the first responder to a data breach. What steps would
you take to mitigate, transfer, accept or avoid this risk:
Question 29 of 45 Risk Management

How do risks, threats, and vulnerabilities impact each other within the context of
cybersecurity?

A) Risks are potential security incidents, threats are weaknesses in a system, and
vulnerabilities are external factors that can exploit these weaknesses.
B) Risks are external factors that can exploit vulnerabilities, threats are potential
consequences of these exploits, and vulnerabilities are the security controls in place.
C) Risks are the potential harm or loss an organization faces, threats are the actions or
events that can cause harm, and vulnerabilities are weaknesses that can be
exploited by threats.
D) Risks, threats, and vulnerabilities are unrelated and do not impact each other in the
cybersecurity field.

Question 30 of 45 Scope

What is the primary benefit of implementing network segmentation in the context of PCI DSS
compliance, specifically in relation to reducing the workload and costs associated with the
PCI DSS assessment process?

A) Limiting the scope of the PCI DSS assessment.

B) Increasing the number of compliance requirements to ensure greater security.
C) Enhancing customer trust and loyalty.
D) Simplifying the process of encryption for sensitive data.

Question 31 of 45 Vulnerability Management

To ensure that malicious software is prevented and addressed, what must an organization
do?

A) Deploy anti-malware solutions on all at-risk system components.

B) Remove all systems at risk from malware.
C) Disable all anti-malware solutions.
D) Provide complete access to all users.
Question 32 of 45 Pen Testing

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a penetration test scope in PCI DSS?

A) Internal pentests
B) External pentests
C) Web application development
D) Segmentation pentests

Question 33 of 45 Auditing

In a compliance audit, what is the primary purpose of a request for evidence (RFE)?

A) To seek legal advice for potential non-compliance issues.

B) To delay the audit process.
C) To provide evidence of regulatory compliance.
D) To request additional budget allocation for the audit.

Question 34 of 45 Policy Drafting

When should a policy be reviewed and updated?

A) Once a decade
B) Only when requested by employees
C) Whenever a major organizational change occurs
D) Never, policies should remain static

Question 35 of 45 Intro

What organization administers and manages the Payment Card Industry Data Security
Standard (PCI DSS)?

A) Department of Homeland Security

B) Major payment card brands (Visa, MasterCard, American Express, Discover, JCB)
C) Federal Reserve
D) Cybersecurity vendors
Question 36 of 45 Course 2

How does risk management contribute to the overall success of a project or organization?

A) Risk management involves accepting all risks to achieve higher rewards.

B) Risk management helps in identifying opportunities and making informed decisions.
C) Risk management ensures that no risks are encountered during the project or
organizational activities.
D) Risk management focuses only on eliminating risks and does not contribute to
overall success.

Question 37 of 45 Account Data

In the context of PCI DSS, what determines cardholder data retention periods?

A) The volume of data generated and stored by the organization.

B) The organization's preference for extended data storage to enhance customer
service.
C) Industry competitors' data retention practices and market benchmarks.
D) Legal and regulatory compliance requirements, operational needs, and industry best
practices.

Question 38 of 45 NIST

What is the main focus of NIST Special Publication 800-61?

A) Establishing security controls for cloud computing environments.

B) Providing guidelines for configuring firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
C) Offering best practices for handling and responding to cybersecurity incidents.
D) Defining encryption standards for federal agencies.

Question 39 of 45 GRC

What is the primary objective of compliance within the GRC framework?

A) To develop innovative products and services.

B) To maximize revenue and profitability.
C) To ensure adherence to relevant laws, regulations, and industry standards.
D) To enforce strict control over all operational activities.
Question 40 of 45 Intro

Which requirement of the PCI DSS involves protecting cardholder data with strong
cryptography during transmission over open, public networks?

A) Requirement 4.0
B) Requirement 1.0
C) Requirement 2.0
D) Requirement 5.0

Question 41 of 45 Risk Management

True or False: Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy that involves accepting the potential
consequences of a risk without taking any action to prevent or reduce its impact.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 42 of 45 SOC 2

What is a SOC 2 Type 2 report?

A) A report that assesses the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality,

and privacy of an organization's systems and services over a specified period.
B) A document outlining an organization's internal financial controls.
C) A report on an organization's ethical business practices and corporate social
responsibility initiatives.
D) A report detailing an organization's compliance with environmental sustainability
standards.

Question 43 of 45 NIST

True or False: NIST SP 800-53 provides guidelines for securing information systems and
data, but it does not cover privacy controls.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 44 of 45 Scope

True or False: Use of a PCI DSS compliant Third-Party Service Provider (TPSP)
automatically makes the customer PCI DSS compliant.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Question 45 of 45 Internship

How would you conduct an Audit: (Pick one out of HIPAA, PCI, ISO, SOC) (Pick one of out
External and Internal):